4A051: 1-4 (URE & STQ)
How long is the DEERS eligibility information assumed valid?
120 hours
How much of the human body is made up of water?
65%
The dimensions of stowed baggage for aeromedical evacuation patients must NOT exceed
72 inches in any one direction or 100 inches overall (length+width+height).
AF Form 560 letter placed in item 18/19: N
Black.
What agency, such as the Office of Special Investigations, is authorized to use a blanket request? Explain.
Blanket requests are not permitted by any person or agency. Requests must be specific and limited in scope. It should only request information that could reasonably accomplish the mission
Where does lymph come from?
Blood
The amount of O&M dollars which a command/base can reasonably expect to receive and carry out its mission for the forthcoming year
Bogey
What is a GPC?
A US government credit card whereby purchases are made and charged to an authorized account established with the servicing BCO and finance office
How often do the ovaries of a female release an egg?
About once a month during childbearing years
What is the single source of readiness training data for medical personnel and UTC appointment?
MRDSS-ULTRA
What is the best choice for ensuring accountable mail containers remain in a controlled environment?
Registered Mail
How do you de-flag a record?
Remove the tape, cover the PRP status, erase the PSP status from the front cover, & remove the AF Form 745
What is used for entering, tracking, resolving and reporting on pay and personnel related cases?
Case Management System.
What are the categories under the PSP program?
Category 1, Category 2, Category 3
Red blood cells are also known as:
Erythrocytes
What is the first step in completing a checklist?
Evaluate the scenario.
q.2h
Every two hours
ALL of the lymph flows into either the thoracic duct or the:
Right lymphatic duct
Medical evacuation (MEDEVAC) typically is associated with what type of aircraft?
Rotary wing.
Who approves all AFPMs?
SECAF
What SF Form(s) does the attending physician have to complete for their patients' AE travel?
SF 502, Narrative summary
Who is required to be part of the DAWG?
SGP, SGH, SPO, all available officers, MSME, PEBLO, a PCM representative and EP
Name the two components of the SNIAC program.
Special needs coordinator and the FMRC process
What phase of aeromedical evacuation (AE) provides airlift for patients between points of treatment outside the combat zone, within a theater of operations?
Theater.
The individual's chain of command may make recommendations; however, what are they not allowed to do?
They cannot terminate the process
What support tier are problems resolved by helpdesk personnel using the telephone or remote management assistance?
Tier 1
What tier are problems that need to be escalated to resources outside the MTF, such as the Network Control Center?
Tier 3
How is the psychiatrist identified on the AF Form 618 in cases of insanity or competency?
a check mark is placed after the psychiatrist's signature
gram.
a tracing or mark
Who may initiate a recommendation for a decoration?
any person, other than the person being recommended, having first hand knowledge of the act, achievement, or service believed to warrant awarding a decoration might recommend an award
Who's responsibility is it to ensure the DD Form 602, Patient Evacuation Tag, includes all essential patient information?
attending physician
hypo-
below, less
tomy.
incision or cutting into
The prefix meaning "within" is
intra-
The Veterans Tracking Application
is a web-enabled tool.
pneum(o)-
lung or air
poly-
many, much
rhin(o)-
nose
Who can be voting member on a MEB?
only physicians
The anatomical term "peripheral" refers to something:
outward from the center of the body
oophor(o)-
ovary
How are medical evacuation requests often sent?
they are often sent from the point of injury, through intermediaries, such as higher HQ, who then transmit the request up to the nearest medical evacuation unit
gastr(o)-
stomach
orchi(o)-
testicle
What system takes this clinical information and other data and makes it available to other health professional worldwide?
theater medical data store
What time frame constitutes the first quarter of the fiscal year?
1 Oct through 31 Dec
When was the Act that led to CHAMPUS signed into law?
1 October 1966
How often should a patient that is in 'RON' status be evaluated?
Daily
What letters within a FCC represent the summary account?
The first 2 letters
How long is an interim LOD valid?
The interim LOD is valid for no more than ninety days
acou(i)-
hearing
mening(o)-
membrane
What are 5 conditions that require a permanent decertification recommendation to the CO?
1) Alcohol dependent individual that failed the required aftercare program
20/000-12-3456 FMP
20
How many FPCON categories are there?
5
What time-weighting factor is used to compute value of the 10th EPR used in determining the overall EPR point value toward promotion?
5
How long does the MAC clerk have to submit the AF Form 438 to the MCRP office?
5 days
20/000-12-3456 Primary number
56
What defines the basic rules and instructions by which the facility, division, clinic and provider will provide care?
A profile
Prior to a schedule being produced what two items must be created?
A profile and a template
What are the minimum annexes covered in the MCRP?
A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J, K, L, M, N, O
The senior NCO selection folder is comprise of EPRs for what periods of service?
All performance reports closing out 10 years prior to PECD; however, only the reports covering the last 5 years (maximum of 10) are used to compute the EPR time-weighted factor score
What band has a 4-month vulnerability period?
Band "A"
AU
Both ears
C-spine
Cervical spine
c/o
Complains of
What is the Air Force's war planning system?
DCAPES
Which agency uses line of duty (LOD) determinations to evaluate the eligibility of an Air Force Reserve Officer Training Corps (AFROTC) cadet for compensation for injuries sustained while training?
Department of Labor.
D/C
Discontinue or discharge
What system is responsible for incorporating all of the captured expense, workload, and personnel utilization data into a single report?
EAS
Fastest service offered by USPS
Express
What are the 4 types of AE?
Forward, theater, strategic, domestic
Supports critical home station operations
In-place support
What organizational principle focuses on rapid decision-making so they should be flat structures WITHOUT intermediate levels?
Lean organizational structure
What does a numbered expeditionary Air Force consist of?
Multiple AEWs, with subordinate AEGs, and AESs
Are the engines of the body
Muscles
NPO
Nothing by mouth
What is not an action a PAC worksheet can communicate to the CSS?
Promotion.
Who is responsible for training the CCMs?
RA
Provides a strong framework
Skeletal system
Who would assist the wounded warrior with things such as lodging and housing adaptation, respite care, and TBI and PTSD support services?
The nonmedical case managers
Is the signature of the patient mandatory on the DD Form 2005? Explain
The signature of the patient on the DD Form 2005 is not mandatory. The individual requesting the patient's signature should in no way coerce or even imply that the signature is necessary before treatment is given. If a patient refuses to sign, the requesting individual should note such a refusal on the DD Form 2005 and sign it.
What carries air toward the lungs?
The trachea
What are the five types of military treatment facilities?
The typical clinic model, hospital or medical center, medical wing, limited scope medical facility, and medical squadron
b.i.d.
Twice a day
Once identified, how long does a Review in Lieu of MEB have to meet the DAWG?
Within 45 days
When is e-mailing PHI permissible?
Within the '.mil' domain
laparo-
abdomen, loin, or flank
encephal(o)
brain
cephal(o)-
head
itis.
inflammation
arthr(o)-
joint
nephr(o)-
kidney
bio-
life
What is it called when you are determining an exact location on a map?
plotting a position
logy.
science or study of
Who assumes assignment and command authority over officers and enlisted members assigned to AMTU?
the MTF commander
lysis.
to break apart
What is the purpose of the deployment availability working group?
to review patients with medical records with a DLC that impacts mobility, retention, or long-term physical fitness of an Airman
What three basic elements describe the TOC?
Get data, process data, and display data
What provides support and accommodations for patients required to remain at installations while awaiting AE?
Aeromedical Staging Facility
AF Form 560: Enter "NB" for an infant born in your MTF
Age
what achievement awards are available?
Air Force Longevity Service Award, Air Force Overseas Ribbon, Air Force Training Ribbon, NCO PME Graduate Ribbon
What form is used to document permanent decertification?
AF Form 286A
How often should a new AF Form 1488 be completed?
Daily
What is HIPAA's training requirement?
Initial and an annual refresher
Describe "K code"
Re-evaluate for TDY
Who ensures checklists are developed, maintained, and reviewed?
The MCC Chief
Who develops the spend plan?
The RA
What is the largest organ of the body?
The skin, or integumentary system
Adren(o) is the root word meaning
Adrenal gland
After you sign the inventory listing, who signs the certification statements signifying that the appointment is accurate?
Commander
What findings cannot be reversed by the MEB appointing authority?
Competency or Insanity
Of the reports listed below, what is NOT a TRICARE Operations Center Report?
Daily Outpatient Workload Detailed Report
What payments contribute to the catastrophic cap?
Deductibles, cost-shares, prescription co-payments and Prime enrollment fees
Who owns the inpatient records of a family member of a retired Air Force CMSgt?
Department of Defense
Once the board has completed the proceedings, who signs the AF Form 618 and initials all copies?
Each member of the medical board
What suggested back up item(s) fall under reportable statistics?
Each report applicable to the unit
When are outpatient records for nonmilitary, dependents, and retired military personnel retired?
End of each calendar year
When are outpatient records for nonmilitary, dependents, and retired?
End of each calendar year
What are the two acts of breathing?
Inhaling and exhaling
Arthr(o) is the root word meaning
Joint
What is the MOST important customer service skill?
Listening
What is the most important customer service skill?
Listening
What document provides open accounts payable and accounts receivable, purchase request, and contract status information?
ODL
What are C-Codes commonly referred to?
Pass through codes
The scheme or proposed method for accomplishing a mission or reaching an objective
Plan
Subcutaneous tissue:
Provides extra fuel for the body
What is the three tier rating system in the Air and Space Expedition Force reporting tool (ART)?
Red, yellow, green
When a patient's physician determines it medically advisable, each military branch may pay for the travel of the patient's next of kin (NOK) for
SI and VSI active duty military patients.
What are receptors? What role do receptors play in the nervous system?
Special sensory neurons. They translate information about the internal or external environment into nerve impulses.
Sensory neurons carry information:
To the central nervous system
AF Form 560 letter placed in item 18/19:Z
Unknown.
When preparing medical records for the mission, what does 'medical records' include?
Clinical records, outpatient treatment records, X-rays, and any other pertinent patient information
Medical record tracking provides 11 important functions. Name five of these functions.
Any five of the following are correct:
What are five of the disclosure categories?
Any five of the following: Information about decedents, as required by law, health oversight activities, judicial and administrative proceedings, medical facility patient directories, research purposes, victims of abuse, workman's compensation, to avert serious threats to health or safety, cadaver organ, eye, or tissue donation purposes, inmates in correctional institutions or in custody, law enforcement purposes, public health activities, specialized government functions, or neglect or domestic violence
Name four tasks that can be accomplished once a schedule is created.
Any four of the following:
Provide energy that powers all the body's activities
Carbohydrates
What are the most common chemical elements in the body?
Carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, and oxygen
Refers to a patient who is dead on arrival to the MTF.
Carded for record only
Name the muscle that has characteristics of both the skeletal and smooth muscles
Cardiac muscle
What are the determinations the DAWG can make?
Case dismissal, initial RILO referral, and refer for adjudication
When are prefixes used alone to define a word or system?
Never, they are always used in conjunction with a root word or root word and suffix
What AF discipline does DCAPES prove real-time command, control, planning, and execution information for the AF functional users?
Operations, logistics, manpower, and personnel
What regulating services are provided by TPMRC-A?
Clinical validation, limited patient in transit visibility, and evacuation requirements planning for intratheater patient movement and intratheater patient movement for CONUS
Who will notify you of special administrative requirements your patients may require for the flight?
Patient Movement Center.
What action do you take when an incorrect payment is received from an insurance company for copies of medical records?
Send the information requested along with a letter to the company specifying the amount owed to the Government.
Under what condition is a member promoted more than once during any 12-month period?
SrA is the exception. A SrA may be promoted to SSGt with a minimum of 6 months' TIG
Under the stripes for exceptional performers program (STEP) program, no airman may be promoted more than once during any 12-month period under any combination of promotion programs except
SrAs.
What reactions happen during digestion?
Starches and complex sugars break down into simple sugars, fats become fatty acids and glycerol, and proteins break down into amino acids
For which of the following would you NOT create an inpatient record?
Stillbirths
Who does the DOD work with to offer cancer clinical trials for eligible TRICARE beneficiaries?
The National Cancer Institute
What is a continuous process that helps the commanders see what they have, where they need it to be, and then enables them to decide the most effective way to get there?
The Planning, programing, budgeting and execution system
What does not occur during end of year close out?
The RA develops the Spend Plan
Give some examples of how the skeletal system protects internal organs
The brain is shielded by the skull, the spinal cord by the spinal column, and the heart and lungs by the ribs
What is the most incredible part of the human body? Why?
The brain, it allows us to think
What is cost containment?
The catch phrase that applies to CCMs ensuring all of our scarce resources are spent wisely and effectively.
What should happen if 2 CMAs disagree, or there is a doubt concerning PDI?
The commander should have sufficient information to make the final PRP determination
What is the only difference in package requirement between an annual RILO and an initial RILO?
The commander's letter is not required unless directed by DPANM
What plan identifies procedures to prevent, protect against, respond to, recover from, and how to mitigate the effects of major accidents, natural disasters, attacks, and terrorist use of CBRNE?
The comprehensive emergency management plan
What information does CHCS record when using the check-in record option?
The record being returned, as well as the date and time of return
On preadmission cases, which blocks are left blank when completing part 1 of AF Form 560?
The register number, time, and date of admission.
What is the purpose of first responders?
They provide initial C2 to save lives, and suppress and control hazards
Why does the AF have the 2-step evaluation process?
To ensure proper referral to the IDES
What is the purpose of PRP?
To ensure that each person selected & retained for performing duties associated with nuclear weapons or nuclear command & control systems & equipment is emotionally stable, physically capable, & has demonstrated reliability & professional competence
Why does the central evaluation board perform a trial run before beginning its evaluation?
To familiarize members with the evaluation process, content of records, and the scoring method
Why was the Integrated Disability Evaluation System created?
To help the AF, Army, Navy, and Marine Corps determine whether wounded, ill, or injured service members are able to continue to serve
For what purpose is a register number used?
To identify a patient's case from beginning to end.
When is temporary decertification used?
To immeadiatley remove an individual from PRP duties when reliability is in question. It can also be used when a condition is expected to affect the job performance for an extended period of time
What is the purpose of HIPAA?
To improve the portability and continuity of health insurance coverage, improve access to long-term care services and coverage, and simplify the administration of healthcare.
What is the purpose of CR/LL?
To indicate each specific item for which the custodian is responsible
What is the purpose if you are explaining how to report to the commander?
To inform (or overlapping of informative and directive)
What is the primary goal of the ODL review?
To locate and clear discrepancies between the resource advisor's record and the official accounting records
What is the intent of the AMTU?
To place airmen in MTFs best suited to address their medical needs
What should you document in MRDSS when members are in-processing?
Training
Who is responsible for assessing the "mission ready" status of their unit, assigned unit type codes (UTC), and assigned personnel?
Unit commander
The medical control center is also known as the
Unit control center
How much can the sponsoring agency authorize for lodging?
Up to 125% of the local lodging per diem rates for conferences
How many days can a member sell back upon voluntary retirement, reenlistment, separation, or discharge?
Up to 60 days
What is the FINAL step of completing the quarters notification form?
Update the member's duty status in the Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS).
UE
Upper extremity
What are the 2 most common findings from the MEB?
Return To Duty or refer to PEB
When updating training, you go to MRDSS ULTRA home screen and then what do you do next?
Select the unit from the drop down box, then click the 'Training' button in the header
What tool is used for leadership to evaluate programs and processes that impact the delivery of safe, quality healthcare in their area of responsibility?
Self-inspection
What additional step is taken when extending an existing suspension?
Send a PDI letter updating the CO of the condition
Helps keep the temperature of the body within its normal range
Dermis
Middle layer of the skin.
Dermis
Nerve endings in this layer respond to cold, heat, pain, pressure, and touch
Dermis
What does the phrase YANKEE WHITE identify?
That the member will be working closely to the president or vice-president
Disclosure with PHI should be released in accordance with what rule?
The minimum necessary rule
What is the mission of the SNIAC program?
The mission of the SNIAC process is to
When is food completely digested?
When it leaves the first section of the small intestine
Who can assist you with the requirements for requesting new software?
Your Health Information Technology Flight
What type of information does the unit commander use to assess the unit "mission ready" status?
A combination of objective and subjective data
What are the 2 types of AF Publications?
Directive and non-Directive
What system is the brain that updates and maintains accounting records for accounts receivable and payable?
General Accounting and Finance System
Where does the MSA officer maintain all excess controlled forms?
In a locked cabinet inaccessible to the custodian or other individuals
Receipts in excess of what amount, must be uploaded to DTS?
$75
Why is the pituitary gland called the master gland?
It releases a number of hormones, which regulate other endocrine glands
What is used as the source document for entering admission information into the CHCS?
AF Form 560
Which form is used to document dates and times of casualty status notifications made to outside organizations and individuals?
AF Form 570
image sensor?
A digital camera (or digicam)
20/000-12-3456 2nd part tertiary
000
If a sponsor with two children (ages 5 and 8) marries an individual with one child (age 10), the step child's family member prefix (FMP) will be
03
Which number is blocked on the right hand side of the AF Form 2100A series health record for a sponsor whose social security number is 987-65-4321?
1
What equation is used to determine the appropriate amount of full time equivalents?
1 FTE= Total hours worked/168
What form is used, by the patient, to clear the appropriate sections within the MTF?
AF Form 577.
What are some ways that separation policy promotes AF readiness?
1) promotes a way to achieve authorized force levels and grade distribution
The long-range plan for forecasting equipment requirements must consider what two equipment situations?
1) replacing existing equipment as it wears out through normal use
What are the purposes of the AF Form 77, Letter of Evaluation Sheet?
1) substitute for a missing evaluation report
Under what circumstances can airmen request discharge when uncommon genuine dependency or undue hardship exists?
1) the dependency or hardship is not temporary
What is an example of an inappropriate MEB recommendation?
1) transfer to special center for separation or retirement.
What are the 2 types of VAs and how are they used?
1)Permanent is used to explain or instruct
What are the 3 priority levels for which an expense can be placed?
1)the first priority level is the highest priority. This reserved for those goods/services that you must have to perform the mission
What MINIMUM information should be in the body of the discrepancy message?
1. Admin qualification process is incomplete or not completed
How long does the member have to concur/nonconcur with the IPEB?
10 calendar days
How many days of PTDY may a losing commander grant when members house-hunt prior to signing out of the unit?
10 days
How much additional weight could a CCATT patient/equipment add to a litter?
100 lbs
Which option is NOT a type of MTF?
Acute care
What is an appropriation warrant?
A financial control document, issued pursuant to law (usually appropriation acts) by the Treasury Department, that established the amount of monies authorized to be withdrawn (disbursed) from the central accounts that are maintained by the Treasury Department
What are grid lines?
A network of straight parallel lines running bottom to top (vertical), then from left to right (horizontal)
What forms may be filed in Section 2, AF Form 2100A series health record?
AF Form 745 when applicable; AF Form 966, if used; patient signed informed consent, SF 600 interfiled with SF 558s; DD Form 2161 on top of the SF 600 to which it was ordered, AF Forms 1352, 1446, and SFs 88 and 93.
The three types of line of duty determinations are informal, formal, and
Administrative
What conditions always constitute PDI?
Alcohol/drug related incidents, alcohol/drug abuse, alcohol/drug dependency, suicide attempt or threat and subsequent use of alcohol in an individual RTD with the diagnosis of alcohol dependence. This also includes pre-service drug use and use of other substance that alter perceptions or mental faculties
A psychological or physical dependence on alcohol
Alcoholism
The MAIN part of the digestive system is the:
Alimentary canal
What is the main part of the digestive system?
Alimentary canal, or gut
What is a breach?
An acquisition, access, use, or disclosure of PII/PHI in a manner not permitted
CHCS admission notification letter is generated each time
An active duty patient is admitted to the MTF.
Name 3 individuals that must be accounted for in the medical readiness committee meeting minutes?
Any of the following 3: Med Group Commander (Chair), MRO, MRNCO or MRM, Med Group executive committee (hospital administrator, squadron commanders, and superintendents), Bioenvironmental engineer, public health emergency officer, public health officer, medical logistics officer, medical exercise evaluation team chief, education and training officer, other individuals designated by the committee chair
What situation would validate an emergency supply issue?
Any situation that requires an urgent, unexpected need to be met
What are the 2 documents you may have to review in DTS?
Authorization and Voucher
What does the executive and legislative branches of the government work on during the first quarter?
Authorization and appropriation bills
What main division of the nervous system regulates automatic functions of the body, such as the beating of the heart and the movement of food through the digestive system?
Autonomic
What are the requirements for award of an AFOUA?
Awarded to numbered units such as air forces, air divisions, wings, groups, and squadrons. Organizations must have performed meritorious service or outstanding achievements that clearly set the unit above and apart from similar units
Arteries carry blood:
Away from the heart
Define "lateral."
Away from the midline or toward the right or left sides of the body
What is a program that aggregates data and measures daily transmission and completeness from source data collection systems?
BDQAS (Biometric Data Quality Assurance Service System)
What is the abbreviation for "twice a night"?
BIN
What Air Force Medical Service (AFMS) objective focuses on the appropriate utilization of people and resource applied through EFFECTIVE management?
Best Value
Who is in the best position to see how funds are expended in their responsibility center?
CCM
Positions to which individuals are assigned duties on a permanent or full-time basis in direct support of the President of the United States are called
Category one.
What division of the nervous system functions as the control center?
Central nervous system
What are the three main divisions of the nervous system?
Central, peripheral, and autonomic nervous systems
Provides a receipt to the sender and a record of delivery
Certified
Describe "J code"
Certified PRP transfer to non-PRP
Describe "D code"
Certified control
What the P&A staff not able to do in BLSDM?
Change of rater.
Change which may occur between the time of admission and disposition of a military patient
Change of status
What is emergency leave?
Chargeable leave that is granted within the limits of accrued, advance, or excess leave for a personal or family emergency that requires the member's presence.
What are some things to look for when double-checking a PDI letter?
Check the date, unit, patient, patient identification, correct PDI, send letter and remove stickies from the record
What must happen first before writing an outline?
Collect the information you are passing on and then organize it
When MTF personnel remove a patient from the AE system before the patient arrives at the destination hospital, who are they responsible to immediately notify?
Destination hospital, referring provider, and TPMRC/JPMRC
A Secretary of the Air Force designee letter must contain the effective date, period covered and
Determination as to whether the Air Force is providing aeromedical evacuation.
What happens to Airmen who have unfulfilled MSOs?
Determination reflecting a member's military behavior and duty performance during a specific period of service
What is the first step in developing our correspondence?
Determine the purpose of the correspondence
What is one of the major goals of a marketing program?
Develop communication products that meet the customer needs
Illness, sickness, or ailment
Disease
What are two tools for managing disks and volumes?
Disk space clean up and defragment
When a patient's clearance is complete, the AF Form 577, Patient Clearance Record, is turned into the
Disposition office.
Describe "V code"
Disqualification
The financial incentive for the MTF is to retain what type of care within the MTF as capability and capacity will allow?
Each MTF will need to carefully analyze their enrollment capacity, and primary and specialty care capabilities to perform well under T-Nex and its "at risk" financing rules of engagement. The more these functions stay in-house, the better off financially the MTF will be.
In the National Defense Authorization Act (NDAA), how often will the subtitles and sections change?
Every year
What Microsoft tool do you use to capture the data from CHCS?
Excel
Medical Logistics uses 2 primary methods to support customers' routine supply requests. What are they?
FL and CAIM
F/u
Follow-up
What provides the body its energy?
Food and oxygen
GI
Gastrointestinal
A properly developed and maintained terminal digit (color-coded and blocked) filing system makes it easier to
Identify a misfiled record.
What is the first thing you should do when you answer the phone and call someone?
Identify yourself
When would an Airman's promotion be withheld for failure to compete professional military education?
If a SrA has not completed ALS; or if a TSgt has not completed to command NCO academy; or if a SMSgt has not completed the SNCO Academy (or equivalent) in residence
Normally, when is a full registration accomplished?
If a patient is being admitted to the hospital; however each MTF will have guidelines established to dictate when full registration is appropriate
What information should be in the 'RATE CC/HR' block?
If an IV additive or feeding is required, then describe the IV type. If more than one IV is required, list the IVs in sequence Enter frequency and soage of ordered IVs
Under what circumstances will a SrA BTZ promotion board evaluate eligible based solely on their records?
If an individual is unable to physically appear before the board due to PCS, TDY, hospitalization, or emergency leave, then the board will consider all eligibles based solely on their personnel records
What option in BLDSM is used to request basic information on members?
Individual Form
What is trained/prepared to accomplish their assigned tasks and duties to augment or to offset dwindling active duty manpower in support of the Total Air Force and national objectives?
Individual mobilization augmentee.
What type of certification is referred to as a "formal certification"?
Initial certification
What are the functions of AF Form 1768, Staff Summary Sheet?
It introduces, summarizes, coordinates, or obtains approval or signatures on correspondence. It's a brief summary (preferably one page) stating the purpose, pertinent background information, rationale, and discussion necessary to justify the action desired.
What is a trigger event?
It is a condition or occurrence which may indicate a member has a health condition that is inconsistent with retention standards or deployability
What is the primary crash alarm circuit?
It is a direct-line telephone net designed to save lives and prevent the destruction of property through rapid relay of emergency, disaster, and crash information to specific base agencies
What is the CAL?
It is an interim listing used to update the CRLL
What community-based, not-for-profit healthcare systems participate in Uniformed Service Family Health Plan?
Johns Hopkins Medicine, Martin's Point Healthcare, Brighton Marine Health Center, CHRISTUS Health, Pacific Medical Centers, and Saint Vincent Catholic Medical Centers of New York
The place where bones meet is a:
Joint
The dermis:
Keeps the temperature of the body normal range
What are the main organs of the urinary system?
Kidneys
What information systems application is the Air Force Medical Service's INTRANET site?
Kx
LLQ
Left lower quadrant
Who does the UDM work with to conduct analysis to determine the wartime readiness of functional areas?
MAJCOM FAMS
Once the minutes are approved, who should they be submitted to?
MAJCOM readiness office.
A predetermined area in the MTF
MCC
How often must the medical facility conduct a review to reconcile the status of all ongoing medical affirmative claims cases?
Quarterly
PES code for Airman that has a referral or overall rating of "2" on the top EPR
R
What CHCS option makes it simple for the user to add, delete, and cancel schedule timeslots for specific days within any provider's schedule?
Maintain/Cancel Schedule
This option makes it simple for you to add, delete, cancel, freeze and release schedule time slots for specific days within any providers' schedule.
Maintain/Cancel Schedules
If the impartial reviewer finds that the review does no support the MEB findings, the reviewer should contact the
MEB President concurrently with notification to the member.
What does the IPEB base recommendations on?
MEB report, medical NARSUM, VA C&P exams, clinical records, information in the PDS, commander's letter, LOD determination, etc.
What concrete evidence does the AF/SG use to understand that areas need 'fine tuning'?
MEPRS information
What is used to score all applicable elements of HSI, AAAHC, and applicable national patient safety goals?
MITC
From where is the UMD retrieved?
MPES
What acts and amendments must medical personnel comply with?
Medical personnel must comply with the Privacy Act, Freedom of Information Act, Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA), Drug Abuse Offense and Treatment act, and Comprehensive Alcohol Abuse amendments
What should be secured if you have a patient that will remain overnight?
Medical records and narcotics
What should you avoid when drafting the PDI letter?
Medical terminology or acronyms
Who is responsible for identifying cases which require LOD misconduct determinations?
Medical treatment facility
What does a CPT code describe?
Medical, surgical, and diagnostic services
When are members eligible for retirement?
Members are eligible to retire on the first of the month after completing 20 years of total active federal military service (TAFMS), 10 years of TAFCS (in order to retire in officer status), and must have fulfilled all ADSCs
Presumption that all members are mentally responsible for their acts.
Mental responsibility
mg; mgm
Milligram
How often is this product (the UMD) available?
Monthly
How often should the SORTS report be completed and submitted?
Monthly, and NLT the 15th of each month; when there are changes to the category levels; within 24 hours of a change
How often is an inspection of patient valuables conducted?
Monthly.
Digestion BEGINS in the:
Mouth
What criteria does the MDG/CC use to appoint an individual to perform an inspection of patient valuables?
NCO in the grade of E-5 or above, a civilian with comparable grade, or an officer
Is a new AF Form 286 rescreen required if the transfer does not involve a change in the reviewing official?
No
What service characterization is appropriate for Airmen in an entry-level status?
No characterization is appropriate unless a service characterization of under other than honorable conditions is authorized under the reason for discharge and is warranted by the circumstances of the case, or the SAF determines that characterization as honorable is clearly warranted by unusual circumstances of personal conduct and performance of military duty
What are the benefits of DTS?
No fee for trip cancellation or changes, access to last minute seat availability, and quicker reimbursement times
How often is the National Defense Authorization Act (NDAA) presented to Congress?
Once a year
Individual receiving medical or dental care who do not require admission to an MTF
Outpatient
What basis is a quarters patient treated on?
Outpatient
If a record must be transferred from one clinic to another, whose responsibility is it to change the location of the record on the AF Form 250, Health Record Charge Out Request?
Outpatient records personnel.
What are some examples of workload data that CHCS reports?
Outpatient visits, occupied bed days, dispositions, admissions, laboratory workload, radiology workload, and pharmacy workload
What should a CCM never do?
Over obligate the government
RECOMMENDED convalescent leave must be approved by the
Patient's unit commander.
What should you be cautious of when disclosing the records of minors to their legal guardians?
Pay special attention to sensitive issues (birth control, abortion, STD treatment) and consult MLC and/or SJA before releasing the information
The statutory obligation of an individual to reimburse the government for loss, damage, or destruction of government property arising from his or her negligence is the definition of
Pecuniary liability.
Who is responsible for the completion of the death certificate?
Physician.
Who can be voting member(s) on the MEB?
Physicians
Which gland is the "master gland"?
Pituitary
The Composite Health Care System (CHCS) allows military treatment facility (MTF) personnel to track patient care and
Related administrative activities.
What is defined as termination of active duty status and transfer or reversion to a reserve component not on active duty, including transfer to the individual ready reserve (IRR)?
Release from active duty.
What is the primary purpose of release certificate, which is signed by the patient when he or she desires to be released from the AE system of his or her own free will?
Releases the US government its agents and employees from all responsibility, liability, and resulting damage.
Whose social security numbers needs to be removed from copies of medical records?
Remove all providers' and sponsors' SSNs
If your MTF receives a DD Form 877 from another MTF and the records have been transferred to another base, what procedure should you follow?
Send the request to the activity to which the records were transferred and tell the requester of your action
Which of the following individuals would NOT be eligible to perform an inventory of patient valuables?
Senior Airman Hill, pharmacy technician.
Innermost layer of the skin
Subcutaneous tissues
TIG and TIS are computed as of what significant dates?
TIG is computer as of the first day of the last month of the promotion cycle. TIS is computed as of the last day of the last month of the promotion cycle
Within the MTF, who is the functional CHAMPION of TRICARE Online (TOL)?
TOL Project Officer
What is the official equipment inventory management system for the Air Force?
The AIM of AFEMS
What report answers "how many appointments were left unbooked?"
The Access to Care Appointment Utilization Report
Establishing some form of RM allows each MTF to better position itself for successful operations under what program?
The TRICARE and MCSC
Who attends the concept briefing?
The UDM, group commander, and squadron commanders
What document is a "by name" roster?
The UPMR
Who must approve assignment to the AMTU if a member is pending judicial or adverse administrative action?
The court martial convening authority or discharge authority
What constitutes a decoration submission based on heroism?
The decoration must clearly state that the quality of one or more acts was characterized by courage, gallantry, or intrepidity. In the case of coluntary risk of life, the facts must clearly show that the individual would not have been censured had he/she not voluntarily accomplished the actions
When an active duty sponsor is retiring and they have a dependent over the age of 18, who must fill out the DD Form 2138, Request for Transfer of Outpatient Record, for the dependent?
The dependent
What is the final point of clearance listed on the patient clearance record?
The disposition office
Once the attending physician hands the patient movement technician the AF Form 3899, what form do they start working on?
The patient movement request
What information is needed when an active duty member is admitted to a nonmilitary hospital?
The patient's full name, grade, SSN, unit, duty station, and exact location; the name and telephone number of the attending physician; date and time of admission; status (leave, pass, etc.); circumstances surrounding the admission; diagnosis, present condition, and prognosis; the earliest date that the patient may be transferred to a military MTF.
What is custodial responsibility?
The responsibility an individual has who has acquired possession of government property to keep it safe and ensure it is used properly
What rights and privileges is the permanently retired member entitled to?
The same as any other retiree, which includes a military retired ID card, medical care, BX, Commissary privileges, SBP election, etc.
What is pecuniary liability?
The statutory obligation of an individual to reimburse the government for loss, damage, or destruction of government property arising from his/her negligence
What do ESFs provide?
The structure for coordinating installation strategic interagency support during all phases of incident management
The schedule hold duration parameter defines how much time will elapse before
The system automatically releases frozen slots.
Who initiates the AF Form 286?
The unit PRP monitor
What is a mother board?
This is the main circuit board to which all of the other internal components connect
Why must recommendations for decorations be restricted to the recognition of meritorious service, outstanding achievement, or acts or heroism that clearly place individuals above their piers?
To preserve the integrity of decorations
Why are inpatient records safeguarded?
To protect against loss, defacement, tampering, or use by unauthorized individuals.
What is the intent of the ALC Code?
To protect members from being placed in an environment where they may not receive adequate medical care for a possible life-threatening condition, and to prevent the assignment of non-worldwide qualified personnel to overseas locations
What are the 3 major areas that medical units are required to report their C-levels?
Training, equipment and supplies, and personnel
What should you do if you receive a request for copies from an insurance company, but prepayment was not sent?
Use a locally developed form to identify the fees. Prepare the form in three copies; send the original to the requester, file the second copy in part three of the health record with the patient's signed authorization for release of information, and forward the third copy to the Resource Management Office
How do you request a response via e-mail?
Use the 'Use Voting Buttons" option under 'Tracking'
Purpose of AF Form 1053
Used as a log of each patient who has deposited valuables
Let's the system know who you are and how you can use the system
User Record
On a grid coordinate of 2.5/E.4, the 2 represents the
Vertical grid line.
A condition so severe that there is imminent danger to the patient's life.
Very seriously ill
AF Form 560 letter placed in item 18/19: W
Widowed
What does processing by exception mean?
With the exception of eligibility, orders, and immunizations, all other stations are as needed
melano-
black
emia.
blood
What assignment availability code cannot exceed 12 months?
code 31
What assignment availability code is used for members pending a MEB?
code 37
pseudo-
false
tachy-
fast
thermo
heat
The Veterans Tracking Application
is hosted on the Veterans Information Portal (VIP).
In the weighted airman promotion system (WAPS), time in grade (TIG) is computed at the rate of
one-half point per month in grade up to 10 years.
What by definition, can conduct military operations on short notice in response to crises with forces tailored to achieve limited and clearly stated objectives?
the Air and Space Expeditionary force
spondyl(o)-
vertebrae, spine
When is an A1C considered fully qualified for promotion to SrA?
when they are recommended by the commander in writing and they have 28 months TIG or 36 months TIS and 20 months TIG, whichever occurs first
Where is the AF From 745 filed in the record?
Always on top in section 2 of the record
What are the categories the data metrics website is divided in to?
Ambulatory metrics, inpatient metric, clinical coding reports, DQ reports, WWR metrics, and Online help Documents Ambulatory Data Management
What must be assigned to you before you can accomplish a patient look up in the CHCS?
Ampersand (&) Fileman Access code
If a teleworker chooses an alternate location, which is operated by another military service, what is required?
An MOA between the squadron or higher level commander and the equivalent commander at the alternate location
What is DRRS?
A capabilities-based reporting system that measures an organization's ability to execute Mission Essential Tasks at the unit level
A terminal with limited computing and processing capability is called what?
A client
Who performs a risks assessment when the eligibility for a patient to receive medical care at a military facility is questionable?
A competent medical authority performs a risk assessment
An EPR will have at least how many evaluators?
2, unless the rater qualifies as a single evaluator.
SrA Smith was treated by a physician in the emergency room after receiving a fractured tibia sustained in an automobile accident. After the treatment, he went home but returned later in the evening due to unbearable pain. How many entries on the AF Form 1488 should be annotated in regards to SrA Smith's visits? Explain.
2. Patients are identified on the log regardless of number of visits for the same injury
How many permissive TDY days may a losing commander approve for eligible members?
20 days CONUS/30 days OCONUS.
What are Microcomputers?
A computer with a microprocessor as its CPU. It is the type of personal computers we use at home and in the MTF.
A member may be permanently retired when the member has
A disabling condition that is determined to be stable.
When a provider identifies a diagnosis that could be disqualifying for a member to continue active duty, what must the member undergo?
A fitness for duty (FFD) evaluation
Describe a Departmental Form
A form used Air Force-wide or by more than one MAJCOM, FOA, DRU, base or wing. It is prescribed by a departmental publication such as an AFI or manual
What are some items that a sponsor package should contain?
A map of the surrounding area, home and apartment brochures, pamphlets of things to do and see in and around the area, specifics of the base, and a little about the unit, group and wing's mission and maybe a copy of the latest base newspaper
In which situation would a letter of evaluation (LOE) NOT be mandatory?
A1C with 5 months TAFMS.
What is a private, non-profit organization that assists ambulatory healthcare organizations in improving the quality of care provided to patients?
AAAHC
What is the PRP permanent decertification/disqualification documented on?
AF Form 286A.
What form is used by a physician to transmit written orders for patient care to the nursing staff?
AF Form 3066
Which inpatient record form is used to transmit the physician's instructions to the nursing staff?
AF Form 3066
On what form does the health care provider annotate the decision to report a patient in SI, VSI, or III status?
AF Form 3066, Doctor's Orders
When a health care provider makes the decision to report a patient in casualty status, he or she makes the appropriate entry on
AF Form 3066, Doctor's Orders.
What two forms can you use to cover personnel information in printed/paper form?
AF Form 3227, Privacy Act Cover Sheet or DD Form 2923, Privacy Act Data Cover Sheet
What AF Form does the attending physician have to complete for their patients AE travel?
AF Form 3899, Aeromedical Evacuation Patient Record
What form must be completed by the MAC program manager when the MCRP office POC identifies a case that is a potential medical affirmative case?
AF Form 438, Medical Care- third Part Liability Notification
What does the FAD identify?
A specific amount of funds authorized for day-to-da operating costs
Purpose of DD Form 599
A tag attached to each item that cannot be placed in the AF Form 1052.
If the DAWG refers the case for adjudication, how long does the quality review have to be completed?
30 days
The effective management of an MTF's patient valuables depends largely on the cooperation of what 3 parties?
A&D Staff, MSA Staff, and the custodian for patient valuables
In most MTFs, who completes the appropriate patient valuables forms?
A&D Technician
What is the approximate percentage of an MTF's budget that is allocated towards personnel in the form of salaries?
60-75%
How many category level are there, and what are they?
6; C-1, C-2, C-3, C-4, C-5, Overall C-Level
Which classification is given to medical attendants flying in the aeromedical evacuation (AE) system?
6A.
What type of documentation is filed in Section 1, AF Form 2100A series health record?
AF Forms 1480/B or DD Forms 2766/C, 2796, 2569, HEAR PCM, result from HEAR, AF Forms 1480, 3922, 3922, and copies of inpatient forms
Who has the ultimate responsibility for the AF MEPRS Program?
AF/SG
What guidance directs the use of standardized readiness folder?
AFI 10-403, Deployment Planning and execution
What provides instructions on compiling cases documentation and provides a MEB checklist?
AFI 41-210, TRICARE operations and patient administration functions
What AFI specifies conditions that require evaluation for continued military service?
AFI 48-123, Medical Examinations and Standards
Who maintains various checklists relating to inspectable areas?
AFIA (Air Force Inspection Agency)
What agency distributes funds to the individual MTFs?
AFMOA
What are two examples of a forward operating agency?
AFMOA and AFMSA
Who receives a copy of the completed quarterly reconciliation?
AFMOA/SGAR
What 3 conditions require a person to be suspended?
ARI, DRI, and any individual returned to PRP duties with a previous diagnosis of alcohol dependence who subsequently consumes alcohol
What identifies all FCCs used by an MTF?
ASD Table
Establishes your identity to CHCS and authenticates your use of the system
Access and Verify Codes
To avoid confusion and duplication, what action should be taken prior to registering a new patient in the Composite Health Care System?
Accomplish a "Patient lookup."
How should a member's in-processing checklist be filed?
According to local procedures
Portion of your obligations that have been paid
Accrued expenditures paid
For which patient would an Air Force commander at the nearest MTF accept administrative responsibility?
Active duty Staff Sergeant admitted to a nearby civilian hospital while on leave status.
What category of records is inventoried?
Active duty personnel records
Who is eligible for TRICARE Prime Overseas and TRICARE Remote Overseas?
Active duty service members and their family, and command-sponsored active duty family members
If there are no inconsistencies or updates, what statement should the providers put on the narrative summary?
"I have reviewed the C&P exam results and find the information within the NARSUM to be current and complete"
Whenever you release information under the guidelines of the drug and alcohol abuse acts, what statement must accompany the disclosure?
"Prohibition on Redisclosure: This information has been disclosed to you from records whose Confidentiality is protected by federal law. Federal regulations prohibit you from making any further Disclosure of this information without the specific written consent of the person to whom it pertains. A General authorization for the release of the medical or other information is not sufficient for this purpose."
Who completes the circled items found on the AF Form 560?
Admitting health care provider
What are some of the main endocrine glands?
Adrenal, pituitary, parathyroid, sex, and the thyroid glands
What is the function of the Air Force Surgeon General?
Advises both the SECAF and CSAF on medical matters pertaining to Air Force Operations and readiness. A small staff that includes that includes two forward operating agencies, AFMOA and AFMSA, support the SG
Once a project has been closed, who does the medical expense performance reporting system (MEPRS) program manager contact if hours need to be changed?
Air Force MEPRS monitor.
During the INITIAL distribution phase of the budget process, who is responsible for dispersing funds to the MTFs?
Air Force Medical Operations Agency.
Who grants the authority to set up or close down an inpatient record library?
Air Force Medical Support Agency (AFMSA/SGOI)
All of the following are authorized litters for aeromedical evacuation, EXCEPT the
Air Force decontamination litter.
Of what is the ARC composed?
Al units, organizations, and members of the ANG of the US and USAFR
What conditions require a temporary decertification recommendation?
Alcohol abuse, Initial diagnoses of alcohol dependence, and suicide attempt or threat
The use of alcoholic beverages leading to a person's misconduct
Alcohol abuse.
When is involuntary discharge not mandatory?
Alcohol abuse.
Which item listed below is NOT part of the anti-hijacking search?
Allow boarding to individuals refusing anti-hijacking inspection.
What FPCON requires an increase of random security checks of vehicles and person entering the installations or facilities?
Alpha
How are AF Forms 1942 filed, and for how long are they maintained?
Alphabetically; 6 months
What is a notebook?
Also referred to as a laptop, it is a personal computer designed for mobile use and small enough to sit on one's lap while in use
What statement needs to be included on every authorization?
Alternate means such as, SVTC or other web-based communication, are not sufficiently able to accomplish travel objectives
Supposing something without positive proof
Assumption
How soon should the Airman hear back concerning an impartial review?
Within 5 duty days
WNL
Within normal limits
When hospitals were first established, who typically worked as nurses in the hospitals?
Wives or widows of military personnel
A competency for pay and records determination is made in conjunction with what other determination?
World wide duty qualification
What order is issued by a competent authority for reimbursement of expenses incident to official travel?
Written
Which of the following is a VALID consent authorizing the release of a dependent husband's medical record information to an insurance company?
Written consent from the husband
Which of the following is a valid consent authorizing the release of a dependent husband's medical record information to an insurance company?
Written consent from the husband.
What is it called when a request for an increase in the unit manpower document (UMD) authorization must be accompanied by a proposal for equivalent offsetting resource/decrease from elsewhere?
Zero balance transaction.
ism.
a condition
hyper-
above, excessive, over
Which capability is not available in the Theater Medical Information Program-Joint (TMIP-J)?
Notification status.
Who has the authority to remove ALC-C?
Only HQ AFPC/DPANM
Who can withhold the promotion of an Airman serving in the grade of SMSgt or CMSgt for periods longer than one year?
Only MAJCOM, FOA, or DRU
When can EPR/OPR feedback be conducted over the telephone or electronically?
Only in situations where face-to-face feedback is not feasible
Who may have access to the comprehensive assessment?
Only persons within the agency who have proper need to know
If a physician determines that a direct disclosure of medical information to the patient could have an adverse effect on the physical or mental health or safety and welfare of the individual,
Only release the information to a physician named by the patient or to a person qualified to make psychiatric or mental determinations.
If a physician feels that the release of medical information to the patient will have an adverse effect on the physical or mental health of the patient, what procedures should you follow in answering a request for medical information?
Only release the information to a physician named by the patient or to a person qualified to make psychiatric or mental determinations.
What CHCS subsystem supports admissions, dispositions, and transfers?
PAD
What are some of the actions that a single personnel action change worksheet can communicate to the P&A?
PCA, PCS, CRO, and PAS code, among other things
After members' records are in-processed through the MTF, to whom does the 4A0 charge them out for review?
PCM
Under a CSS in-processing system, to what type of medical team are active duty members and their family members assigned?
PCO team
All of the following are examples of trigger events, EXCEPT for
PCS cancellation for administrative actions.
What are 5-digit-number identifiers depicting the specific program in which moneys are expended?
PEC
A provider that accepts TRICARE and agrees to the TRICARE allowable charge for their service is classified as what type of provider?
Participating provider
What does PRP stand for?
Personal Reliability Program.
What items cannot be accepted for storage during a patient's hospital stay?
Personal firearms, knives with blades above the length permitted by law and any other items that could be considered a menace to safety or health
What is the recognition program reserved for?
Personnel that clearly go above and beyond the rest of their peers
What 3 types of MTF data does the MEPRS accounting system capture?
Personnel utilization, workload, and expense
What can the MCS contractor provide through resource sharing?
Personnel, equipment, equipment maintenance, and supplies
What makes up the unit task codes?
Personnel, equipment, or personnel and equipment
Air passes through the nose, then, in sequence, it passed through the:
Pharynx, larynx, and enters the trachea
What are the 5 phases of the DIACAP?
Phase I: Initiate and plan IA C&A; Phase II: Implement and validate assigned IA controls; Phase III: Make certification determination and accreditation decision; Phase IV: Maintain authorization to operate and conduct reviews; and Phase V: Decommission
What are the two areas your MTF has addressed to protect integrity, confidentiality and availability of PII and PHI?
Physical and electronic security
What two convenient tools can you find on TRICARE.mil?
Plan finder & compare plans
What is an on-going process that enables senior leadership to evaluate other ways to achieve the best mix of force, requirements, and support within fiscal constraints?
Planning, Programming and Budgeting Execution (PPBE) System.
Define the medical evacuation ground and air ambulance platform
Platforms especially for the medical evacuation mission with allocated medical equipment specifically designed for the purpose of en route care and by trained medical personnel
What does the custodian's signature on the list indicate?
Possession of equipment taken by custodian or possession of property transferred
What term means toward or near the backside of the body?
Posterior (dorsal).
On the 31st day of unauthorized absence, what action does the commander take?
Prepares a status report, retrieves the dependent ID cards, and completes another AF Form 2098 to change member's status from AWOL to deserter
Greater weight of credible evidence
Preponderance of the evidence.
During which promotion phase are Airmen/SNCOs ineligible for promotion lists produced?
Preselect
This is the user's starting point once logged on to CHCS
Primary Menu
What are the two tubes called that enter each lung?
Primary bronchi
What type of team are active duty members and their beneficiaries assigned to after the mass medical in-processing briefing?
Primary care optimization team.
What procurement sources are civilian companies contracted by the DLA and usually deliver supplies within 24 hours?
Prime Vendors
Prior to what day will the MTF MEPRS program manager create the MEPRS financial data via CRIS?
Prior to the 7th day following the end of each month
In order to effectively support the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF), when do functional areas revalidate the tempo band alignment of their respective capability areas and realign forces, if necessary?
Prior to the beginning of every AEF cycle.
Which precedence should be utilized for a patient who need AE movement within 24 hours?
Priority
What is the medical evacuation priority if a patient needs to be moved within 4 hours?
Priority 2- Priority
What is the medical evacuation priority if a patient needs to be moved within 24 hours?
Priority 3- Routine
Medical records are maintained within a system of records protected by which act?
Privacy Act
Since medical information is being sent, what should be included on all correspondence?
Privacy Act Statement
In addition to written instructions outlining the process used to determine patient eligibility for medical care at an MTF, what other procedures should be established in the MTF verification procedures?
Procedures should be established to verify the eligibility of all beneficiaries who have prescriptions from non-federal providers, and to allow adult family members or friends to pick up prescriptions from the pharmacy for an eligible beneficiary.
What automated on-line tool is used to develop a chronological log?
Q-base
What type of memory is temporary electrical storage space that holds program instructions and program data?
RAM
What flight takes care of the manpower and budget for the medical squadron?
RMO
What office is primarily responsible for managing the MEPRS program within the MTF?
RMO
What do you look for on radiology reports?
Radiology reports can give you clues to head injuries, altercations
What documents are the MPF required to provide to both the eligible officers and raters in order to complete the promotion process?
Records of performance, officer pre-selection brief, information obtained from PRISM, and promotion recommendation forms
What is used as a pull list to retrieve medical records eligible for retirement?
Records retirement index
On a military map, what color represents main roads, built-up areas, and special features?
Red.
What mini-registration task requires the user to possess a FILEMAN access code?
Registering a spouse whose sponsor has already been registered.
What are some flights you would find in the medical support squadron?
Resource management, medical logistics, medical information services, personnel and administration, TOPA, readiness, pharmacy, clinical laboratory, nutritional medicine, diagnostics and therapeutics, histopathology, readiness, and diagnostic imaging
What allows the MCS contractor, through agreements with MTF commanders, to provide personnel, equipment, equipment maintenance, and supplies necessary to enhance the capability of the MTF to provide healthcare to TRICARE beneficiaries?
Resource sharing
7/D is an example of what type of grid coordinate?
Rough grid coordinate
R/O
Rule out
The objective of the medical affirmative claims program is to assist the
SJA in attempting to recover the cost of providing medical care to individuals whose injury or disease was caused by a third party.
Patients whose valuables are lost, mistakenly released, or stolen while in the custodian's possession may file claims for compensation from whom?
SJA or JAG
If the MCC is activated. what do they need to do?
Schedule MCC team members to ensure manning of the MCC for the duration of the contingency. Activate deployment recall roster when directed by the MTF commander. Prepare and transmit reports as required
Which of the following is a responsibility of the MEB clerk?
Schedules cases for board hearings.
Who assigns the unit's missions and goals in the Defense Readiness Reporting System (DRRS)?
Secretary of Defense (SECDEF)
Who has final disposition on each disability case?
Secretary of the Air Force Personnel Council, acting on behalf of the Secretary of the Air Force
Who serves as president of the MEB?
Senior ranking AD member present
Confirmation of delivery including date, time, and location, and you can request to have letter mailed to you with a copy of the recipient's signature
Signature
AF Form 560 letter placed in item 18/19: S
Single, never married.
What are the three main types of muscles?
Skeletal, smooth, and cardiac
post-
after
Military patient who has been a bed occupant and has reached a point of recovery where the physician considers it more desirable for the patient to continue treatment at the MTF yet can live and eat outside the MTF. The patient is excused from duty, yet is required to meet with the physician frequently for continued care
Subsisting out
What account code is directly subordinate to the functional account?
Summary Account
What's the difference between "superior (cephalad)" and "inferior (caudal)"?
Superior is towards the head or upper part of the body Inferior is towards the feet or lower part of the body.
What are the body's two largest veins?
Superior vena cava and inferior vena cava
"TRICARE" Originally referred to three main plan options, which were:
TRICARE Prime, Standard & Extra
What are the eleven different program options?
TRICARE Prime, TRICARE Prime Remote, TRICARE Prime Overseas, TRICARE Prime Remote Overseas, TRICARE Reserve Select, TRICARE Standard and Extra, TRICARE Standard Overseas, TRICARE for Life, TRICARE Young Adult, TRICARE Reserve and US Family Health Plan.
What is a voluntary, premium based program that extends TRICARE coverage to certain family members under the age of 26 who have (or will lose) their eligibility due to age?
TRICARE Young Adult
Resource sharing is based on the assumption that costs associated with the provision of these resources will be more than offset by DECREASED
TRICARE costs
What is the OFFICIAL website for TRICARE?
TRICARE.mil
What website has all the information beneficiaries need to choose the right program for them?
TRICARE.mil
Who performs periodic reviews of MTF/VA facility resource sharing agreements to ensure compatibility with agreements including VA facilities as network providers?
TRO
What are the four geographic health service regions?
TRO-North, TRO-South, TRO-West, and TOP
What items in the admission package may accompany the patient to the inpatient unit?
The AF Form 560; pertinent information from clinic services, one index card, AF Form 577, the patient's outpatient record, embossed card, other pertinent information as requested, inpatient records from the previous MTF when the patient is admitted by transfer and a patient ID bracelet
Who does the MEPRS program manger contact if any hours need to be charged to a project once it has been closed?
The Air Force MEPRS Program Office
What website can most Air Force, Standard, and Optional Forms be obtained from?
The Air Force e-Publishing website at: http://www.e-publishing.af.mil
When an airman will not be allowed to assume the next higher grade, the commander's written notice must include the reasons for the non-recommendation, inclusive dates of the non-recommendation action, and
The Airman's acknowledgement.
What is a tool that allows commanders and their delegates the capability to retrieve queries and perform actions on personnel within their unit, group, or wing?
The BLDSM
Who designates an individual to be a property custodian?
The MDG/CC
Who's responsibility is it to obtain signatures from the board members and the approval authority on the AF Form 618, Medical Board Report?
The MEB Clerk
Who implements performance metrics to track the quality of service provided by the MTF?
The MHIT flight commander or equivalent
Who has commander designee, by virtue of their position, and does not require an appointment letter?
The deputy/vice commander and first sergeant
What is used to verify eligibility and benefits for a SAF designee?
The designee letter to verify eligibility and benefits
What laws take precedence over other directives pertaining to access and release of medical information?
The drug and alcohol laws
Who has the capability to determine the nature of the incident, mitigate its effects, assess damages, and support recovery operations?
The emergency operations center
Who are some of the incident command system members you will communicate with while working in the MCC?
The emergency operations center, crisis action team, incident commander, first responders, contamination control teams, emergency responders and emergency support functions
At what lever are DQMC review lists maintained?
The facility level
What letter of every FCC represents the FAC?
The first letter
Who appoints the CCM in writing?
The flight commander
What is the accounting classification structure of which financial managers should have a solid understanding?
The fund citation or fund cite
In PSP, who is responsible for determining if assigned personnel are reliable or not?
The head of the organization where the member is assigned
What do military symbols show?
The identity, size, and location or movement of personnel, military activities and installations
Who must sign the MORD stating funds are available?
The individual preparing it and the certifying officer
When an active duty patient is to be hospitalized over 90 days, what organization should be notified?
The individual's MPF.
What begins the execution stage of the financial process?
The initial distribution
What identifies the symbols used to show how the map presents the terrain's natural and manmade features?
The map legend
What document should the medical readiness office have the member review during in-processing?
The medical contingency response plan
Who provides an overview of the SORTS and ART status?
The medical readiness office
How can airmen request to leave the active service of the Air Force prior to expiration term of service?
The member must ask for separation in writing
In DMHRSi, how is the demographic information updated?
The member will need to update it through MilPDS or through the MPS
Who must be notified whenever a military patient is admitted to the hospital? How is this notification made?
The member's unit commander; contacting the member's squadron by telephone or priority electrical message or by sending the CHCS generated notification letter.
Who must have access to a PIF?
The members, commanders, raters, senior raters, first sergeants, OSI, and SJA personnel
What is the action office?
The office that uses or responds to a communication. Basically, it's the person receiving a piece of mail.
If you become aware of an actual or possible breach, whom should you report the circumstances of the event to?
The organization's Breach Response Coordinator
What are the consequences of a commander's failure to notify an Airman of a promotion deferral action before the promotion effective date?
The promotion is valid and cannot be retroactively deferred
Define disposition or discharge
The removal of a patient from inpatient treatment
List the two methods used to identify the number of beds available on each inpatient unit?
Bed status board, or CHCS
Under what circumstances will the MEMO take action to transfer a custodian's property or have it assigned to an authorized successor?
Before a property custodian is relieved from duty, transferred, separated from service, or absent from the account in excess of a 45-day period
What Air Force Medical Service objective encourages health behaviors through a health-based culture to enhance resilient and human performance, while reducing illness and injury?
Better health
What is the catastrophic cap for active duty family members enrolled in TRICARE Standard and Extra?
Between $1,000 and $3,000 annually, depending on rank
How do the endocrine glands control body function?
By producing hormones
How do muscles move the body?
By pulling
How do you ensure someone has received and read e-mail correspondence?
By requesting a delivery and read receipt
How do property custodians ensure that property in their account is charged to the account properly?
By spot checking and making periodic inventories
pre-
before
The following medical conditions may qualify patients for Medicare BEFORE 65 years old, EXCEPT:
blood transfusions before 1995
chondr(o)-
cartilage
cyt(o)-
cell
cyte.
cell
PES code for Career Airman declined to extend or reenlist to obtain retainability for completing a PCS
C
What is the statute of limitation for a member to appeal a permanent decertification/disqualification?
There is none
What are category 1 discrepancies?
They are "mission impacting" discrepancies that result in delay or non-utilization of the Airman at the gaining unit & those that affect PCS budget expenditures.
When are applications for SAF designee status not forwarded to HQ USAF/SGMA?
Those that the MTF commander or MAJCOM disapproves
What is the primary aircraft used for supporting intratheater AE?
C-130 Hercules, C-17 Globemaster, C-21 and the KC-135 Stratotanker
What are examples of INTERNAL memory?
CMOS, RAM, ROM, CM
What is used for entering, tracking, resolving, and reporting on pay and personnel related cases within the USAF?
CMS
What are some examples of hardware?
Computer routers, switches, hubs, and network cables
How does the heart pump blood through the circulatory system?
Contracting and relaxing rhythmically
From what do inhaling and exhaling result?
Contractions of the diaphragm
In the NDAA, what Title addresses health concerns?
Title VII, Healthcare Provision
What is one of the most import aspects of in-processing that is often overlooked during in-processing?
Creating a suspense file
What is one the most important aspects of in processing?
Creating a suspense file.
cc
Cubic centimeter
How does the Department of Veterans Administration use LOD findings?
To determine eligibility for disability compensation and hospitalization benefits
What is the maximum amount of time an SAF designee letter can remain in effect?
Two years
What is the AEF life cycle schedule?
Two, 12 month life cycles
Who owns all of the military health records?
US Government
ectomy.
removal of
latero-
side
glyc(o)-
sugar
glyco-
sugar
What provides the USAF with the ability to perform operational planning and execution at an increased level of detail that complements joint planning?
DCAPES
The relocation of forces to a desired area of operation
Deployment
What is the difference between disqualification and decertification?
Disqualification is a action taken before a member is PRP, and decertification is an action taken when a member is PRP
What term means "away or farther from the point of origin"?
Distal
What cases are eligible for processing under MEB directives when involuntary separation or discharge under some other directive is also pending?
Dual-action cases
When can leave de disapproved?
Due to military necessity or in the best interest of the Air Force
What is the P&A and AFPC suspense for an EPR?
Due to the P&A no later than 30 days after close-out and to AFPC no later than 60 days after close-out
In what circumstances do the clothing requirements not apply?
During field maneuvers, field exercises, or other unusual circumstance
What are the determining factors when an individual is being considered for a decoration?
Duty performance, impact of the accomplishment, the level of responsibility and authority
What report will give you detailed picture of the expenses processed through EAS?
EAS allocation summary.
What report contains total expenses, performance factor workloads, and cost per performance factor amounts at the FCC code level?
EAS cost table.
What 3-to 5-digit number indicates the type of cost incurred within a work center?
EEIC code
What is the first half of plotting that represents the label as read from left to right called?
Easting
What organizational principle focuses on accomplishing wartime tasks WITHOUT reorganizing?
Emphasis on wartime tasks
What is the tactical use of aircraft or forces in a desired area of operation, and is the actual use of forces within a combat zone or an objective area?
Employment.
Includes common user assets, such as global mobility forces, special recovery forces, space forces, and other uniquely categorized forces that provide support to the DOD
Enabler-Force
What does a VPN enable?
Enables a group of two or more computer systems to communicate over the public Internet
How much IV medication should the physician order for an intratheater flight?
Enough for a 3 day supply
Consists of tough, dead cells
Epidermis
How often should you back up your data?
Every 30 days at a minimum
When does the MilPDS send information and updated DMHRSi?
Every Thursday
According to the International Classification of Diseases, 9th Revision, Clinical Modification, what does a code beginning with the letter "E" mean?
External causes of injury.
What are some examples of external customers? What are examples of internal customers?
External customers include patients, couriers, and insurance company.
What's the difference between "external" and "peripheral"?
External is towards the outside (surface) of the body or body part while peripheral refers to something outward from the center of the body or closer to the body surface.
Who develops a Federal Individualized Recovery Plan with input from the service member, the member's family or caregiver, and the member's healthcare team?
FRCs
What are the 3 categories under the umbrella of unauthorized absences?
Failure to go, AWOL, deserter
What opens into the top of the uterus?
Fallopian tubes
What is the process in which a sperm unites with an egg?
Fertilization
A MAJCOM or FOA issues what type of forms for use within the organization an subordinate organizations?
Field
When is a Report of Survey required?
For lost, damaged, or destroyed items over $500, or if evidence of abuse, gross negligence, willful misconduct, deliberate unauthorized use, fraud, or theft is found regardless of cost
How far back can patients request an accounting for every disclosure?
For the previous 6 years
Motor-neurons carry information:
From the central nervous system
Where is the medical records tracking (MRT) label placed on the AF Form 2100 or 2100A?
Front cover, in the patient identification block.
What is an airman's inability to perform actions based on an assessment of an airman's injury or illness by a medical professional?
Functional (or physical) limitation
What part of the unti manpower document four-digit code identifying a particular work center which HQ USAF controls?
Functional account code.
Drugs that can lead to either physical or psychological dependence
Habit forming drugs.
What is an example of a nondirective publication?
Handbooks
A medical board can be convened to determine an individual's mental competence for pay and records purposes when the member
Has a specific psychiatric illness or illnesses.
Where does digestion begin?
In the Mouth
What should you check when editing the report (EPR)?
the formatting, rate identification data, type, font, nicknames, and acronyms
What does 'MAX STOPS' mean?
the maximum number of stops that a patient can safely tolerate during the AE
What does a '4' on a profile indicate?
the member is disqualified from worldwide service
When referring to leave, what is defined as "local area"?
the place where members live and from which they commute to the duty station
What does the ALC-C limit in the PDS?
this code restricts assignment and deployment availability to only CONUS, Alaska (Elmendorf), and Hawaii assignments. It also prevents the reassignment anywhere else without prior approval by the designated approval authorities
iatry.
treatment of a disease
salping(o)-.
tube
di-
two
Who must certify the "selectee data verification list" to the effect that the data has been verified against source documents in the UPRG?
Individual verifying the data and the NCOIC, career enhancement, or other official designated by the MPs commander must certify this listing to the effect that the data has been verified against source documents in UPRG
What type of determination is normally made by the member's unit commander?
Informal LOD.
What is the KEY to the success of TRICARE?
Innovative marketing program
Who prepares AF Form 788 (series) folders for filing inpatient documentation?
Inpatient records section technician.
Who is the approval authority for a postmortem examination?
Installation commander
What are special mail services limited to?
Instances when required by law, by DOD, AF Policy, or when mission essential
Is personal appearance of the evaluee required?
It is not required, but may be helpful to the board
What functions does the VA's Military Service Coordinator perform?
It is the VA's nonclinical benefits advisor to the member while going through the IDES. The MSC provides counseling and guidance about VA benefits and policies to the member an/or family. Additionally, the MSC assists the member an/or family in the preparation and tracking of VA claims
Define a "root word."
It is the main part, or portion of a word, from which other words may be formed by the addition of a prefix and/or suffix
What is the SORTS report?
It is the single automated reporting system within the DOD functioning as the central registry of all operational units of the US Armed Forces
What is health informatics?
It is the study of resources and methods for managing health information
Why should immediate family members who are citizens of another country be identified for appropriate evaluation?
It must be determined that family members are not subject to physical, mental, or other forms of duress by a foreign power and who do not advocate or practice acts of force or violence to prevent others from exercising their rights under the constitution or laws of the US or nay state or subdivision thereof
What must a FOIA request contain?
It must be in writing and must reasonably describe the record(s) the individual is looking for and it must indicate a willingness to pay fees associated with processing
What does the DHP appropriation provide?
It provides for worldwide medical and dental services to activate forces and other eligible beneficiaries, veterinary services, medical command headquarters, specialized services for the training of medical personnel, and occupational and industrial health care
How long or when does the Wounded Warrior Program work with the service member and the medical team to develop a comprehensive recovery plan?
It provides lifetime support.
What is the patient control file?
It serves as an inventory of patients covering a 24-hour period (0001 through 2400) and indicates which patients are bed occupants, subsisting out, on leave, AWOL, nonmilitary hospital patients etc.
What is the purpose of the DOC statement?
It summarizes the unit's mission
Describe the contents of the master index of patients.
It's an index card file containing an active and inactive section. The active section contains cards for all hospital patients currently under treatment; the inactive section contains cards on patients that are no longer under treatment in the MTF (discharged).
When should you NOT release information?
It's known to be revoked, is an incomplete request, if the information provided is false, expired, is a compound authorization, and a conditional authorization
For what purpose is an RC/CC code used?
It's used by the accounting system to monitor and report purchases by a work center
When completing an AF Form 560, in which item would you document all diagnoses and procedures of a patient's case?
Item 38, Diagnosis-Procedures
In which item of AF Form 560 is the nature of a patient's disposition recorded?
Item 41, Disposition
Medical Investment Equipment
Item with a unit cost of $250,000 or more; 5-year life expectancy; maintains identity during use
Medical Expense Equipment
Item with a unit cost of at least $3,300 but not more than $250,000; 5-year life expectancy, maintains identity during use
Medical Supply Item
Item with a unit cost of less then $2,500 and does not require any form of maintenance
According to the DOD, a unit task code is developed and assigned by the
Joint Chiefs of Staff
The four major interrelated systems affecting the development of joint operational plans include the National Security Council System.
Joint Strategic Planning System, Planning, Programming, Budgeting and Execution System, and Joint Operations Planning Execution System.
What personnel data system (PDS) status code identifies a re-evaluate for temporary duty (TDY)?
K
Maintain TOL sustainment plan, oversee the activities of MTF TOL Team, and establish business practices to incorporate into newcomers briefings are whose responsibilities?
MTF TOL Project officer
Rids the body of processed wastes
Urinary system
Who is eligible for TRICARE Reserve Select?
National Guard, Reserve members, and their family members
Each kidney has about a million microscopic filtering units known as:
Nephrons
What are the microscopic filtering units in the kidneys called?
Nephrons
Keeps us aware of our surroundings
Nervous system
What providers are prohibited from balance billing?
Network and participating providers
Of what is the nervous system made?
Neurons
When can an Airman whose promotion has been withheld assume a higher grade?
When the condition that caused the promotion to be withheld has expire, the Airman is recommended by the promotion authority, and the Airman is otherqise eligible
When should a new health record be created for a patient?
When the existing folder no longer protects the contents of the record
When should you submit a request for purchase of a piece of equipment?
When you wish to replace old equipment or buy new equipment, submit an AF Form 601
AF Form 560 letter placed in item 18/19: C
White.
CBC
Complete blood count
How does the Air Force credit portions of a month in excess of 15 days when computing TIS?
As a full month
What purpose does the quarters authorization form serve?
As notification to the patient, the patient's commander, and Public Health
AF Form 560 letter placed in item 18/19: M
Asian.
What will dictate the clearance process for patients being discharged from your MTF?
Local policy
When assisting beneficiaries with choosing the right TRICARE program for their family, what should you consider first?
Location
What listing contains all of the supplies due out(owed) to an activity?
Log back order report
Cushions the inner tissues against blows to the body
Subcutaneous tissues
Provides extra fuel for the body
Subcutaneous tissues
Medical personnel must comply with the Privacy Act, Freedom of Information Act, Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act, Drug Abuse Offense and Treatment Act, and
Comprehensive Alcohol Abuse Amendments
Who assumes medical administrative responsibility of an active duty Air Force member admitted to a nonmilitary hospital?
The commander of the nearest Air Force MTF.
Medical personnel must comply with the Privacy Act, Freedom of Information Act, Health insurance Portability and Accountability Act, Drug Abuse Offense and Treatment Act, and
Comprehensive Alcohol Abuse Amendments
Which statement best defines prime vendors?
Civilian companies contracted by Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) that usually deliver supplies within 24 hours.
Most of the coding in the MTF is done by whom?
Civilians and contractors
What class is used for recovered patient returning to home station?
Class 3B
What is the hard disk?
It is a large-capacity permanent storage that is used to hold information such as programs and documents
What establishes the conditions for official travel and transportation at government expense and provides the basis for the traveler's reimbursement?
Travel Order
What are some DTS functions?
Travel reservation system; audits travel documents for compliance with regulations, interfaces with various DOD accounting systems, pays travel related expenses, and archive documents to comply with IRS requirements
All publications in the directive publications category must carry what statement in the publication header?
"COMPLIANCE WITH THIS PUBLICATION IS MANDATORY"
What is the APPROPRIATE response when calling another office?
"Hi, This is Airman Smith from Outpatient records, I'm calling..."
What statement should be on the front cover when faxing medical information?
"THIS FAX IS INTENDED ONLY FOR THE USE OF THE PERSON OR OFFICE TO WHOM IT IS ADDRESSED, AND CONTAINS PRIVILEGED, SENSITIVE OR CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION PROTECTED BY LAW. ALL RECIPIENTS ARE HEREBY NOTIFIED THAT INADVERTENT OR UNAUTHORIZED RECEIPT DOES NOT WAIVE SUCH PRIVILEGE, AND THAT UNAUTHORIZED DISSEMINATION, DISTRIBUTION, OR COPYING OF THIS COMMUNICATION IS PROHIBITED. IF YOU HAVE RECEIVED THIS FAX IN ERROR, PLEASE DESTROY THE ATTACHED DOCUMENT(S) AND NOTIFY THE SENDER OF THE ERROR BY CALLING..."
What statement should be at the beginning of an e-mail when sending medical information?
'FOR OFFICIAL USE ONLY. This electronic transmission contains For Official Use Only (FOUO) information which must be protected by the Privacy Act and AFI 33-332 and the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act and DOD 6025.18-R. The information may be exempt from mandatory disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. § 552. If you have received this message in error, please notify the sender by replying to this e-mail and delete all copies of this message.'
What is the first step the MTF takes when they receive the AF Form 286 and AF standardized PRP questionnaire?
'Flag' the record as PRP
An administrative LOD may be made under what conditions?
(1) Hostile casualties.
After a schedule is created, what three statuses can it be assigned?
(1) Open for booking.
List the six requirements of the HIPPA Privacy Rule
(1) Use of information, (2) acknowledgement of notice of privacy practices, (3) disclosure or release, (4) patient rights to access,(5) accounting of disclosure, and (6) restrictions on information
List and briefly describe the three actions that can be performed from the Wait List action bar.
(1). Interactive: This action processes Wait List requests manually, notifying the patient either by telephone that an appointment is available, or by mail that an appointment has been booked,
When was the medical squadron model implemented?
1 January 2012
When is the second quarter?
1 January through 31 March
What is the response time for trouble tickets/work orders if the level is elevated?
1 hour
How many interim changes can be issued to an Air Force departmental publication?
1 to 5, after the 5th change, the publication must be rewritten
What questions should be addressed when a member has a downtown appointment?
1) Is there sufficient documentation?
What are the minimum requirements for nomination to PSP?
1) Member must hold a US citizenship
What requirements must a trusted agent meet?
1) No UIF
What are the 3 recommendations the CMA annotates on the AF Form 286?
1) PDI not found, recommend for PRP
Name the 5 ways to identify a suspicious package
1) Return address
In what four areas should the RA assist the MDG/CC?
1) establishing spending priorities
20/000-12-3456 1st part tertiary
12
The sponsoring unit can authorize lodging allowance up to what percent of the local lodging per diem rate for conferences?
125
Monthly increment products are produced automatically upon receipt of the monthly promotion increment transactions that flow from AFPC before the promotion effective date and on or about what day of the month?
15th
Units must update the Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) monthly, no later then what day of the month?
15th
What year did Congress establish the FIRST hospital?
1776
Recovery care coordinator (RCC) and Wounded Warrior advocates are typically assigned to seriously wounded, ill, or injured service members whose medical conditions are expected to last at least how many days?
180.
SrA Jones reported she worked 162 hours is ADAA, and SrA Thompson reported that she worked 174 hours in ADAA for the same time period. Between the two, how many FTEs do their work hours represent?
2
Within what time frame must the P&A office forward allocation notices?
2 Days
How long does the member have to report to the testing location?
2 Hours
About how many bones does an adult have?
206
Within how many hours after death are remains released to mortuary personnel?
24
Typically, how long is a washout period?
24 Hours
You change members' duty status to AWOL when they have an unauthorized absence of more than
24 hours, but less than 30 days.
What is the timeframe of the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) life cycle?
24 months
A TSgt is eligible for promotion to MSgt after becoming a 7 level,
24 months TIG, and 8 years TAFMS.
What time frame should an event log cover?
24-hour period.
TSgt Mary Barlow has four meritorious service medals, two Air Force Commendation Medals, and an Air Force Achievement Medal. What is her decoration point total toward promotion?
27 points
What is the enlisted performance reports (EPR) conversion factor?
27.
Temporary decertification can be extended in 30-day increments to a maximum of 365 days after initially being made for up to
270 days.
Inventories MUST be kept in the equipment custodian folder for the number of years:
2yrs
When reviewing records, there should not be a gap of how long without any medical entries?
2yrs
As a minimum, the number of medical board appointees should be large enough to provide at least how many medical officer members?
3
Under normal conditions, how many board members are required for a MEB?
3
Before the Integrated Disability Evaluation System (IDES) process existed, how long would the average MEB take from case imitation to Veteran's Administration (VA) rating?
3 years
Within how many rings should you answer the phone?
3-5 ring
How many days does DFAS automatically carry over if a member serves at least 120 consecutive days in a hostile-fire or imminent-danger area and receives hostile-fire or imminent-danger area pay for at least four consecutive months?
30 days
A PRP suspension can initially be made for up to
30 days and can be extended in 30 day increments to a maximum of 120 days.
If a divorced sponsor remarries, the new spouse's family member prefix (FMP) will be
31
What is the cutoff date for inpatient record retirement?
31 December of each year.
20/000-12-3456 Secondary number
34
An AF Form 469 and AF Form 422 are good for a maximum of how many days?
365 days
After the evaluee has been informed of the MEB findings, how many days does the member have to request an impartial review?
5 duty days
The AEF library contains blocks of time within how many primary tempo bands that represent 100% of the AF-postured capabilities?
5 tempo bands
What is the maximum amount of time a member is authorized to be on a Temporary Disabled Retirement List (TDRL)?
5 years.
How many AE classification codes may be used for AE transportation?
6
On average, what percentage of a MTF's budget is allocated for personnel in the form of salaries?
60-75.
Which classification is given to non-medical attendants flying in the aeromedical evacuation (AE) system?
6B.
BAGs are divided into how many areas?
7
About how many times does the heart beat a minute on average throughout a person's lifetime?
70
How long are routine patients capable of waiting for evacuation?
72 Hours
Legible specialty care results from the MTF and other direct care specialists are to be provided to the PCM or requesting provider within how many hours of the specialty care encounter?
72 hours.
An Airmen should be referred to the deployment availability working group (DAWG) if a mobility restriction goes over how many days?
90 days
The interim line of duty (LOD) for reserve members is valid for no more than how many days?
90 days
Which of the following is NOT an input used for accessing help in the Composite Health Care System (CHCS)?
??OLUM
What are ICD-9-CM codes?
A 3-5 digit numeric and alphanumeric codes
What is the most commonly used method for controlling electronic access?
A CAC (common access card)
According to the DOD, what is a unit task code?
A JCS developed assigned code, consisting of 5 characters that uniquely identify a type "unit" or force package
What part of the SNIAC program ensures the safety of service members and their families?
A MOU developed between SNIAC process and key civilian agencies, which specify interagency client-focused processes that ensure the safety of service members and their families, and enhances access to community resources
If a seriously wounded, ill, or injured service member's conditions are expected to last at least 180 days, who are typically assigned to the member?
A RCC and wounded warrior advocates
What 4 individuals are in place to help service members with their way through the recovery process?
A RCC, a wounded warrior advocate, a nonmedical case manager, and a FRC
What type of briefing ensures that all members departing PCS obtain the most up-to-date information regarding the TRICARE benefit?
A medical out-processing brief
If an active duty member needs medical records for the discharge review board, but does not have any orders, what must he or she provide before you can release the records?
A memorandum from their squadron stating that discharge/separation is pending and their records are needed for the discharge review board to review.
Which patient would still receive routine medical care, even if they failed a Defense Enrollment Eligibility System (DEERS) eligibility check?
A patient issues an identification card within the last 120 days.
To monitor patients absences, use
A patient sign-out register.
What is service characterization normally based on?
A pattern of behavior rather on isolated incidents
What is a provider template?
A pattern of time slots that is specific to a provider but is not linked to any particular date. It is governed by the rules entered in the MTF's profiles. Using options in the Templates MENU, you can create a daily or weekly template.
What is a network provider?
A provider under contract with TRICARE regional office to provide care to beneficiaries
What is a duty limitation?
A recommendation resulting from a medical evaluation, which, if applied explicitly, limits or restricts an Airman's ability to perform primary and/or additionally assigned duties, deploy (mobility) or participate in fitness activities
A provider's verbal or telephone orders may be taken by
A registered nurse only.
Once you've assigned a specific date range to a template, what have you created?
A schedule
When an active duty member is transferring and a dependent's record cannot be found, what two documents must the requester fill out so the records can be forwarded to the active duty member's next base of assignment once recovered?
A tracer (a locally developed form) and a DD Form 2138
What are the two best checks you can perform to obtain evidence of a patients' eligibility for medical care in the MTF?
A valid ID card and DEERS
What is a high-end computer designed for technical applications?
A workstation
Who usually begins the process of briefing patients on the patient valuables system?
A&D Personnel
What rank should be entered into item 11 of the AF Form 560 for an OSI agent?
AB
Which entry is NOT acceptable for block 21 (current organization) of AF Form 560?
AD E6 OSI Agent
CHCS reports designed for a specific purpose by MTF personnel are called
AD HOC reports
Who has the highest priority for MTF care?
ADSMs and TRICARE Prime-enrolled active duty family members
What considerations did working groups use as a basis for developing a streamlined, consistent MTF organizational structure from a clinic to a medical group?
AEF
What form does the medical affirmative claims clerk initiate for patients identified as a medical affirmative claims case by the SJA?
AF 438, Medical Care-Third Party Notification.
Who approves the activation or inactivation of designated aeromedical staging facility (ASF) or the partial curtailment of the mission assigned to an ASF?
AF Chief of Staff.
What form is required when a member enters into AWOL, deserter, military, or confinement duty status?
AF Form 2098, duty status change
What 3 AF Forms should be filed in Part 3?
AF Form 245- Employment Locator & Processing Checklist AF Form 94- Air Baggage Claim Clerk
What form does the CO or RO use to recommend a reinstatement or requalification for permanently decertified/disqualified individuals?
AF Form 286A
What source documents do you use to input information about a patient's discharge into the CHCS?
AF Form 560 and the inpatient record
What form eliminates the need for a separate privacy act statement for each medical or dental document?
AF Form 560, Authorization and Treatment Statement
What form is used to authorize a patient pass?
AF Form 569
On what form, does the casualty affairs liason (CAL) annotate individuals who are notified of a patient's casualty status?
AF Form 570
What financial form is used to request the purchase of goods or services through channels other than supply?
AF Form 9, Request for Purchase
The intent of what form is to provide sufficient information for contracting to issue a contract and for the financial service office (FSO) to set aside funds for the requirement?
AF Form 9, Request for Purchase.
What form is used for an EPR on a rate in the grade of AB-TSgt?
AF Form 910, Enlisted Performance Report
What directive guides medical facilities on the proper maintenance and disposition of a MTFs register of patients?
AFM 37-139.
Who published the master listing of all FCCs used in the AF?
AFMSA/SGSR
Who is the evaluation forwarded to upon completion?
AFPC or ARPC.
Who is the approval authority that approves AD AMTU assignments?
AFPC/DPANM
Who can authorize a MTF to conduct a MEB on an assigned enlisted staff member who has been a disciplinary problem?
AFPC/DPANM.
One AFPC/DPANM (Medical Retention Standards Branch) reviews an initial review in lieu of (RILO), how do they notify the physical evaluation board liaison office (PEBLO) of the determination?
AFPC/FL 4.
What standard system is a medical clinic information system that generates and maintains a comprehensive, life-long, computer based patient record for beneficiaries?
AHLTA
What are some examples of a standard system?
AHLTA, CHCS, DEERS, DMHRSi, Essentris, ICDB, MEPRS-EASIV, TMIP-J, TRANSCOM TRAC2ES, and MRDSS ULTRA
What information should be printed prior to, and included in the record review?
AHTLA Notes, PIMR deployment documents, PEPP, and AIMWTS documents not already filed in the physical record
What ALC restricts deployment and assignment to where there are specialty medical capabilities?
ALC-C3
What assignment limitation code (ALC) is for members who should not be deployed or assigned away from specialty medical capability required to manage their unique medical condition?
ALC-C3.
What is the abbreviation for "both ears"?
AU
Member is voluntarily away from duty without leave for more than 24 hours
Absent without authority
If a patient is prescribed Tylenol #3 to take 1-2 tablets every 4-6 hours, the least amount of tablets he can take while following the schedule is 1 tablet every 6 hours or 4 tablets per a day. Therefore, if he is prescribed 24 tablets, this prescription could last up to 6 days. How many days should the CMA recommend suspension?
Accounting for a 24-hour washout period, a 7-day suspension should be recommended
Who processes communication received from the P&A office?
Action Office
What checklist(s) must a MCC have?
Activation, major accident response and force protection condition
Who is not able to release themselves from the AE system against medical advice?
Active Duty Personnel
Who receives the CHCS admission notification letter?
Active duty patients' commander
What are the four different functions the mini registration option allows users to accomplish?
Add a new patient as his/her own sponsor, Add a new patient with an existing sponsor, Add a new patient with a new sponsor, Update an existing patient registration.
AF Form 560: Enter whether or not the patient has private insurance coverage.
Administrative data.
Nonmilitary patients who leave the hospital without authorization are
Administratively discharged from the hospital.
Describe "B code"
Administratively qualified &/or pending certifications
When a military patient is admitted to a MTF, the patient's unit commander should be notified by
Admission notification letter and telephone or priority message.
Which CHCS report lists admissions, dispositions change of status, newborns, and interward transfers occurring in a given 24-hour period?
Admissions and dispositions report
Who completes the remaining blocks of the AF Form 560 once the health care provider has completed his or her entries?
Admissions clerk
The admissions and dispositions report is a daily report of
Admissions, dispositions, change of status, newborns, and interward transfers.
When is assuming custodial responsibility, when should you sign the CR/LL?
After performing a complete inventory
Which agency uses line of duty (LOD) determinations to determine eligibility for physical disability retirement?
Air Force
What is awarded only to number organizations that perform meritorious service or outstanding achievements that is clearly set the unit above and apart from similar units?
Air Force Outstanding Unit Award (AFOUA).
What service(s) is/are involved with the Integrated Disability Evaluation System (DES)?
Air Force, Army, Navy, Marine Corps.
In general, Airmen are not eligible for disability due to all of the following reasons, EXCEPT
Airmen pending honorable discharge.
Who requires a performance evaluation?
All EAD and non-EAD officers in the grade of colonel and below. All enlisted personnel in the grade of A!C (20 months TAFMS) through CMSgt. In addition, any member released from AD to AFR or ANG who has 120 days of supervision prior to seperating
Who must complete HIPAA training?
All MTF employees, and new commanders and first sergeants
What patients should be identified on the AF Form 1488, Daily Log of Patients Treated for Injuries?
All beneficiaries who seek care at an MTF for an injury, or in some cases a disease.
Who is eligible for the TRICARE Pharmacy Program?
All eligible uniformed service members, retirees, and family members, including beneficiaries age 65 and older.
Who must have an educational clearance as part of the FMRC process?
All family member children who are eligible to attend DODDS.
Who does the lead CMA train?
All functional CMAs
Prior to acceptance into the system, what does the EAS validate?
All manual and automated inputs
What report reflects direct, purified, and step-down expenses?
Allocation Summary
Once the change request has been submitted, what do you check to ensure the change has been made?
Alpha roster.
All codes in the International Classification of Diseases, 10th Revision, Clinical Modification are
Alphanumeric
What is CHCS?
An automated information system designed to support the administration and delivery of health care
A patient who is alive when he or she reaches the hospital, but died prior to admission is considered
An emergency room death
What is it called if a member makes a permanent change of assignment (PCA) to another squadron, but the gaining unit does NOT initiate a new AF Form 286?
An erroneous certification.
What is a measured unit?
An established unit, stateside and overseas
Who reviews the case if an Airman requests an impartial review?
An impartial physician or other appropriate healthcare professional not involved in the airman's MEB
What is a draft?
An initial plan towards your final product
What is a back order?
An order established when there is no stock on hand or there is not enough to fill the total order
Where is documentation generated by a canceled admission filed?
Annotate the admission worksheet with the reason for cancellation and place a copy in the outpatient record. File all other paperwork generated by the admission in the inpatient record's folder
How often are outpatient records inventoried?
Annually
AF Form 560 letter placed in item 18/19:A
Annulled.
What term means toward or near the front side of the body?
Anterior (ventral).
What does the UPMR highlight?
Any mismatches between what is authorized for each position and what the position incumbent has for assigned data
What are some examples of when a patient authorization is required?
Any of the following: patient requests a copy, patient is going downtown for care, medical records of minors, adopted infants, and release to insurance agencies, and other external recipients
What is a zero balance transaction?
Any request that asks to change manpower must not increase authorizations, skill level, grade requirement or PEC funding. A ZBY should be a 'no cost' action to the command. Failure to identify an off-setting authorization will delay processing and may results in disapproval
Who is an AF Wounded warrior?
Any seriously or very seriously wounded, ill, or injured Airman identified on a casualty report, or recommended by the medical community as having highly complex medical conditions. Also included are Airmen who have been referred to the IDES for PTSD, TBI and/or other mental health conditions
What are two of the HIPAA's privacy officer responsibilities?
Any two of the following: (1) Develops policies and procedures for local implementation of the HIPAA Privacy regulation; (2) Ensures initial and refresher privacy training to all the MTF workforce; (3) Ensures continuous assessment, implementation, monitoring, and revision of the MTF HIPAA Privacy programs; (4) Coordinates on the review process for applicable MDG policies and procedures to ensure alignment with current HIPAA practices; (5) Establishes, recognizes and shares best practices relative to the management of the privacy of health information; (6) Ensures a mechanism is in place at the MTF for receiving, documenting, tracking, investigating, and taking action on all complaints concerning the organization's privacy policies and procedures in coordination and collaboration with other similar functions, and when necessary, legal counsel.
Who may initiate a recommendation for a decoration?
Anyone, other than the person being recommended.
What is the largest artery in the body?
Aorta
What does the individual, based on an unjust or unfair practice/procedure, initiate?
Appeal
List some types of servers:
Application server, database server, messaging or mail server, print server, and web server
To whom is the personal property of an active duty deceased forwarded?
Appointed summary court officer
What reports are available within the ADM module in CHCS?
Appointments with no ADM records by clinic, ADM patients with third party insurance, ADM compliance, ADM records with unresolved coding issues and interface transmission status of ADM record
A general term used specifically to identify the types of funds made available to the Air Force by congress
Appropriation
The only individual who has the authority to deny a request for reinvestigation of line of duty (LOD) findings is the
Approval authority
When and how does AFPC announce the WAPS instructions?
Approximately 45 days prior to the PECD for each cycle AFPC announces processing instructions through an MPSM or address indicator group (AIG) message
Personnel information file (PIF) contents are available to everyone except
Area defense council.
What department is responsible for the support of medical evacuation?
Army Medical Department
Personnel from which US uniformed service cannot receive care in an Air Force MTF under the SAF designee program?
Army.
What are the three types of blood vessels?
Arteries, veins, and capillaries
An Airman's score on the PDG is 68.375. How will this score be recorded?
As 68.37
What purpose does the stomach serve?
As a "holding tank" in which food remains for several hours
How do wastes leave the body?
As bowel movements through the anus
ad lib.
As desired.
When does the FPEB adjudication process begin?
As soon as the member nonconcurs with the IPEB findings and recommendations and elects a formal hearing
How many voting members are required for the IPEB?
At least 3
How many people should you have to carry a litter?
At least 4 people
Although assignment limitation codes (ALC)-C are valid indefinitely, how often should the codes be reviewed?
At least annually, unless otherwise specified by the Medical Retention Standards branch (DPANM).
How often should the medical readiness committee meet?
At least every other month
How often are active duty records inventoried?
At least once a year.
If a patient is temporarily decertified, when must a CMA make a recommendation of RTF or permanently decertify to the CO?
At the end of the 365-day period
How is TIG computed for Airmen competing for promotion to the grades of SSgt through MSgt?
At the rate of one-half point per month in grade up to 10 years, as of the first day of the last month of the promotion cycle
Who determines the appropriate classification of a patient for movement within the AE system?
Attending Physician
All of the following needs to be prepared for the flight, EXCEPT for which item?
Attending physician
When patients are admitted from the clinic, who completes the circled items of an AF Form 560?
Attending physician
What is the term referring to the total system that collects, processes, and delivers communications?
BITS
What band has a 6-month vulnerability period?
Band "B" through "E"
Who determines if an injury is actually a medical affirmative claims case?
Base legal office or MCRP.
What does the body of the medical contingency response plan consist of?
Basic plan, supporting plans and agencies, references, unit's mission, contributing organizations, execution, threat assessment, and MCRP annexes
What must the board members be able to do in order to give their professional medical opinion and recommendation on the evaluee's qualification for military service?
Be able to relate the evaluee's medical conditions and prognoses to the military environment
Why is initial notification of selection for promotion to SMSgt or CMSgt considered tentative?
Because a 100% audit of the data used in the selection process must be accomplished, as errors may result in erroneous selection or nonselection
Why are skeletal muscles sometimes called "voluntary muscles"?
Because humans cause them to move at will
Why is supply discipline important to the mission of the Air Force?
Because it is imperative that equipment and supplies are operational and maintained in the best possible condition, in constant readiness, and in the absolute minimum quantity necessary to accomplish the assigned mission
Why is the senior NCO data verification record important to each member testing for promotion to SMSgt or CMSgt?
Because it reflects data the evaluation board will use
On administrative changes, why is there no coordination required?
Because these types of changes are non-substantive
AD Airman stationed overseas may qualify for PCS reassignment to an MTF if their hospitalization is expected for how long?
Beyond his or her DEROS
In which block of AF Form 560, Authorization and Treatment Statement, does the health care provider identify the surgical procedures performed during a patient's hospitalization?
Block 38, Diagnoses-Procedures.
How does bone tissue play a role in keeping the blood healthy?
Bone marrow produces new blood cells and releases them into the bloodstream
Provides the system for translating muscular contractions into body movements
Bones, with tendons, ligaments, and fibrous sheaths.
BM
Bowel movement
What marketing elements should marketing programs consider?
Briefings/presentations, enrollment packages, newspaper articles, public service advertising, and signage
On a military map, what color illustrates the relief features, such as the vertical elevation of the terrain on a map as seen from above?
Brown.
What funding structure, mandated by the defense health agency, must MTF commanders, resource management personnel, and flight commanders review and manage?
Budget activity groups.
What is involved at every echelon in the administration of an appropriate warrant?
Budget execution.
When must notification to HQ AF/SGXO be accomplished for active duty flag officers admitted to a MTF?
By 0600 hours eastern standard time following admission.
When must time sheets be turned in to the MTF MEPRS program manager?
By COB (Close of Buisness) on the 3rd duty day of the beginning of each month
How do white blood cells (leukocytes) help protect the body from disease?
By attacking bacteria, viruses, poisons, and other harmful substances
How should you calculate how much money your section will require for supplies?
By basing it on the previous year's requirements
How does an active duty member receive care in TRICARE Prime Remote?
By enrolling with no fee required
How is the pituitary gland controlled?
By hormones released by a part of the brain called the hypothalamus
How does the MPF notify HQ AFPC of erroneous data on a OPB when the promotion board is to convene within 14 days?
By message requesting that promotion information be manually posted to the OSB used by the board
What C-level states the unit possess the required resources and is trained to undertake the full wartime mission for which it is organized or designed?
C-1
What should be kept in the CCM guide?
CCM primary/alternate appointment letter, Quick reference phone number, agenda & meeting minutes, supply handbook, MEPRS handbook, Financial Handbook, Financial plan for your cost center, and Target/budget information
What are some examples of Auxiliary Storage?
CD/DVD-R/RW drives, and USB devices
What standard system is the DOD standard automated system that you will use as a HSM for patient registration, patient appointment, and patient scheduling?
CHCS
What system produces various standard reports and you can request specific reports be run on demand, nightly, weekly, or on a monthly basis?
CHCS ad hoc
What system produces various non-standard reports that are not necessarily run on a consistent basis?
CHCS adhoc reports
What letter does the CHCS produce each time an active duty patient is admitted as an inpatient?
CHCS admission notification letter
To whom does the DRRS provide an assessment of unit information to achieve adequate and feasible military response to crises?
CJCS and the CSAF
Who can request reinstatement of an Airman's PRP certification or requalification?
CO or RO
What listing does the MEMO provide the newly appointed property custodian when custodial responsibility is to be assumed?
CR/LL
What computer software application is used to upload financial data onto the EAS?
CRIS
Instructions issued to prepare and submit a budget estimate or estimated fund requirements for the budget year
Call for estimates
What should you do if you find a weapon on a non-authorized person?
Call security forces
What should the P&A personnel do if a newcomer does not turn in their checklist on time?
Call the member directly
What type of care is authorized for the newborns of former Air Force females under the SAF designee program?
Care is authorized in conjunction with delivery to include postpartum well-baby check and related immunizations.
Under the SAF designee program, what type of care is provided to former Air Force females that were discharged under other than honorable conditions and pregnant at the time of discharge?
Care is limited to prenatal and delivery, as well as follow-up care not to exceed six weeks. Supplemental care is limited to diagnostic tests associated with maternity care. Postpartum sterilization is authorized when performed during the obstetrical admission.
What is an authorized disposition the deployment availability working group (DAWG) can make?
Case dismissal.
When would a CO or RO use reinstatement or requalification?
Cases in which the condition or reason for recertification/ineligibility no longer exists
What does the term "valuables" mean?
Cash, jewelry, and other articles of a similar nature.
From the text, what is an example of data driven decisions?
Checking the weather in the morning to see if you need a jacket or umbrella, or going to see movies by considering the reviews and finding out what time a specific movie is playing
DEERS checks should be performed on what categories of patients?
Children under age 10 must be enrolled in DEERS, but they don't need their own ID card
Which beneficiary category doesn't need an ID card, but must be enrolled in DEERS to receive medical care?
Children under the age of 10
What system moves blood throughout the body?
Circulatory
Provides the tubing for fuel and oxygen to travel the thousands of miles to keep muscles working
Circulatory system
Who appoints the trusted agents for issuing and ensuring member notification to provide a urine sample?
Commander.
Who has the authority to establish a PIF?
Commanders
Who rates each UTC against the unit's current ability to deploy and employs the unit task codes?
Commanders
An amount of funds you must reserve to cover a specific requirement. It represents an intent or plan to buy an item or service that will eventually become a legal obligation paid
Commitment
What are the 2 stages of accountability CCMs need to understand when performing analysis of expenses?
Commitments and Obligations
What is considered "accountable mail"?
Communications for which accountability must be maintained
When you receive an accountable mail container, what should you do?
Compare the container number listed on the container receipt to make sure you're signing for the correct package
When competency is affect, what terminology is used in item 23, Diagnosis and Findings, on the AF Form 618?
Competent or Not competent
How does a patient request to restrict access to their medical information?
Complete a DD Form 2871, Request to Restrict Medical and Dental Information
What are the measures included in FPCON Charlie?
Conduct 100% identification checks of all personnel entering, recall additional required personnel, and limit access points in order to enforce entry control
What does the AF use to help control the communications while in AF channels?
Container Numbers
An emergency involving military force
Contingency
When can patients request for a renewal of their Secretary of the Air Force designee status?
Continued care is still necessary.
who are the key players involved in the fiscal year-end closeout?
Contracting, Logistics, ALO, Financial analysis office, responsibility center managers, RAs, and CCMs
What type of position is one that requires security police personnel to directly secure nuclear weapons, nuclear weapons systems, or critical components?
Controlled
Military patient who has been a bed occupant and has reached a point of recovery where the physician considers it more desirable for the patient to have a period of recuperation and relaxation outside the MTF. The patient does not have to return to the MTF until this leave ends. This leave is not chargeable
Convalescent leave
What patient absence is granted to active duty members and is considered part of the patient's treatment?
Convalescent leave
How often must you coordinate a review of sequestered records with the base claims officer to determine whether the records should continue to be sequestered?
Coordinate an annual review of sequestered records with the base claims officer to determine whether the records should continue to be sequestered
What will be placed in the health record in place of the AF Form 1480 or DD Form 2766A?
Copy of the AF Form 1480 or DD Form 2766A
What detailed MEPRS report contains total expenses and cost performance factor amounts at the detailed FCC level?
Cost Table Report
What 4 benefits can leaders within the AFMS reap with properly reported MEPRS data?
Cost awareness, cost effectiveness, cost comparisons, and manpower or personnel utilization
Who is in best position to see how funds are being expended in their responsibility center?
Cost center manager.
Who is responsible for reviewing backorder lists, evaluating stock supply levels, and inventorying all equipment within their responsibility?
Cost center manager.
What is established to collect operating expenses when two or more work centers share physical space, personnel, and supplies?
Cost pool.
Which of the following is a responsibility of the Physical Evaluation Board liaison officer (PEBLO)?
Counseling members or NOK on the PEB findings and recommended disposition as documented on AF Form 356, Findings and Recommended Disposition of USAF Physical Evaluation board.
When activated for an incident, what team devotes full-time attention to how to the crisis affects mission execution?
Crisis action team
Who's function is it to oversee the mission operation of the installation?
Crisis action team (CAT)
What types of position is one that would permit the launch of a nuclear weapon or employment of a nuclear weapon-loaded delivery vehicle?
Critical
What types of categories fall under the PRP program?
Critical & controlled
What code set describe medical, surgical, and diagnostic services and is designed to communicate uniform information?
Current Procedural Terminology.
Level 1 Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System (HCPCS) are commonly referred to as
Current procedural terminology.
How long should the MRO keep meeting minutes for inspection and historical purposes?
Current year plus 2 previous years
BOTH a notification and a PDI letter are required when the patient is
Currently suspended and the suspension is extended.
Who is responsible for maintain the necessary patient valuable records and protecting the security of the valuables accepted for safekeeping?
Custodian for patient valuables.
What personnel data system (PDS) status code identifies a certified control?
D
What system's objective is to enable improved and streamlined operations planning and execution process?
DCAPES
What type of documentation must be received by the sending MTF before medical records are mailed to another medical facility?
DD Form 2138; DD Form 877; or other legal request
What form is used to record a formal determination?
DD Form 261.
What form is required for each piece of baggage that is checked and stowed?
DD Form 600, Patient Baggage Tag
What form serves as the patient's only chart during AE?
DD Form 602, Patient Evacuation Tag
When a patient is in RON status, on which form should the evaluation, treatment and medication be documented?
DD Form 602, Patient Evacuation Tag.
What below is not one of the three substantiating document used in conjunction with the BAS program?
DD Form 714.
What external computer system does CHCS communicate with to process patient eligibility inquiries?
DEERS
Where is the TRICARE overseas regional office headquartered?
DHA
Who is responsible for assessing the DQMC program and developing the annual statement of assurance for health affairs?
DHA management control manager.
Who is responsible for the procurement of hardware, testing, upgrading and maintaining the software necessary to accomplish MEPRS?
DHSS
What system does the DOD use for standard certification and accreditation?
DIACAP
What type of case should be entered in item 8 of the AF Form 560 for a female patient being admitted for pregnancy?
DIS
The mission for which a measured unit has been equipped, organized, or designed
DOC
What entitles certain members to receive BAS?
DOD and Air Force Policy
Where does equipment go when it is finally disposed?
DRMO or other agency, as instructed
Which of the following is NOT a minimum requirement to update the Air and Space Expedition Force reporting tool (ART)?
Daily
What information does the CHCS record when using the check-in record option?
Date and time of record being returned.
What is another term used for a patient who is CRO?
Dead on arrival.
Of the following, who may authorize a patient disposition?
Dentist
The medical expense and performance reporting system (MEPRS) information is routinely channeled to which person or agency?
Department of Defense, Secretary of Health Affairs.
Which agency uses line of duty (LOD) determinations to determine eligibility for disability compensation and hospital benefits?
Department of Veterans' Affairs.
Once the IPEB determines which condition(s) make a member unfit for service, where is the package sent?
Department of veterans affairs rating board
This is a form used Air Force-wide or by more than one MAJCOM, FOA, DRU, base or wing.
Departmental.
What types of voluntary separation options are available for officers?
Depending on individual circumstances, officers desiring separation tender a resignation, apply for discharge, or request release from extended active duty
What serves as the patient movement decision authority in a specific JTF commanders' AOR?
Deployable Joint Patient Movement Requirement Center
What are some common places that reviewers miss PDI?
Deployment related documentation, PHAs and AF Web-based Health Assessment, Mental Health Records, and documentation from civilian providers
Serves as an important sense organ
Dermis
What do V-codes usually identify?
Diagnoses other than disease
What forms may be filed in Section 4, AF Form 2100A series health record?
Diagnostic test reports such as lab forms, SFs 519B, OFs 520, other diagnostic test reports, and advanced directives (self-determined acts or living wills).
Inhaling and exhaling result MAINLY from contractions of the:
Diaphragm
What body system breaks food down into nutrients that can be used as fuel?
Digestive
What are some of the major exocrine products?
Digestive juices, mucus, sweat, and tears
Breaks food down into nutrients that can be used as fuel
Digestive system
What 3 types of expenses will the Allocation Summary reflect?
Direct Expense, Purified Expense, and step-down expense
What are the two distinct types of care?
Direct care and purchased care
Under what system do TRICARE beneficiaries receive a majority of their care?
Direct care system
What is the difference between directed and recommended convalescent leave?
Directed refers to active duty patient's still admitted to the MTF. The chief of service approves these cases. Recommended refers to active duty patients being discharged. The patient's unit commander approves these cases.
AF Form 1768, Staff Summary Sheet does all of the following EXCEPT:
Distributes
AF Form 560 letter placed in item 18/19: D
Divorced.
What does the 'N' marking on a checklist mean?
Does not apply
What are examples of mandatory reporting that medical providers are required to adhere to?
Domestic abuse, and in some states, sexual assault
How can you get rid of needless "which" and "that" in your writing?
Dropping them or rewriting slightly
gtt
Drops
When is involuntary discharge mandatory?
Drug Abuse, civil court conviction, fraudulent or erroneous enlistment
Intemperate use of drugs
Drug abuse
Which laws take precedence over other directives pertaining to access and release of medical information?
Drug and alcohol
What type of drugs require PDI notification for permanent decertification?
Drugs that could cause flashbacks
As a rule, what should you always identify to the CMA as PDI?
Drugs, alcohol, or mental health or behavioral issues regardless of whether or not it was previously adjudicated
Substances identified as controlled substances by the Attorney General of the United States.
Drugs.
TRICARE for Life is a program for what beneficiaries?
Dual TRICARE and Medicare beneficiaries
When is the CAL produced?
Each time Medical Logistics processes a change action affecting a custodian's account
When is the MPF required to conduct the OPB review program?
Early enough to allow all necessary updates to be entered into the MilPDS no later than 14 days before the board convening date
An inpatient record of an Air Force Staff Sergeant admitted on 28 Dec 98 and dispositioned on 4 Jan 99 (no other inpatient episodes) at a facility with an inpatient records library is
Eligible for retirement 31 Dec 2004.
Patient is alive upon arriving at the MTF, but dies before being admitted.
Emergency room death.
The five organizational principles do NOT include:
Emphasis on wartime and peacetime tasks
What are the five basic principles of the Air Force's organizational structure?
Emphasis on wartime task, functional grouping, lean organizational structures, skip-echelon structure, and standard levels
Which glands control body functions by producing hormones?
Endocrine
Controls bodily activities
Endocrine and nervous systems
When the providing care manager (PCM), or referring provider, reviews the compensation and pension (C&P) results, and does no note any inconsistencies, what should the PCM do?
Endorse the NARSUM, stating it is current and complete.
What is the purpose of the installation deployment function?
Ensure command and control by pulling units together to accomplish the mission and deploy UTCs
Explain the policy of releasing information to medical personnel.
Ensure that their access to those records is authorized and necessary in the performance of their duties
What type of events should be put on the events log?
Enter anything that occurs during your tour of duty that is of importance now or could be at some time in the future
SrA Rose is having trouble performing a patient look-up on CHCS. What input can he enter at any menu, prompt or field to learn how to get additional help?
Entering ? accesses a message that tells you how to get additional help
Forms the outermost layer of the skin
Epidermis
Prevents the loss of water from the tissues
Epidermis
Protects the body's inner tissues from the harsh rays of the sun
Epidermis
Serves as a barrier between the outside world and the inner tissues of the body
Epidermis
Name the three layers of skin.
Epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous tissues
Which type of tissue covers the body surface and forms the skin?
Epithelial
What are the four main kinds of tissues in the body?
Epithelial, connective, muscle, and nervous
What is used in acute hospital environments, providing point-of-care data captured at the patient's bedside for physiological devise, fetal/uterine devise, ventilators, and other patient care machines?
Essentris
What are the criteria for nomination for Legion of Merit?
Exceptionally meritorious conduct in the performance of outstanding service to the United States
To whom are the personal effects of civilians forwarded?
Executor or administration, or, if none is appointed, to the nearest NOK
Condition that existed prior to member's entry into military service.
Existed prior to service
What was TRICARE designed to do?
Expand access to care, assure high-quality care, control healthcare costs, and improve medical readiness
What category do the civilian agencies not recognize as a peacetime triage category?
Expectant
What allows the AF to deploy capabilities from small teams that can provide highly skilled medical care for a limited number of casualties?
Expeditionary Medical Support
What concept is the Air Force mission configured to meet?
Expeditionary Military Force
What system is responsible for incorporating all of the MTF's captured expense, workload and personnel data into one single report?
Expense assignment.
The Beneficiary Counseling Assistance Coordinator (BCAC) does NOT:
File claims for beneficiaries
Where are APV records filed?
File original documentation on a patient seen during an APV episode in the EAR folder
Once you have navigated to the Training Overview Page, what do you select to update an individual's training information?
Find individual's record
To whom may approval for emergency leave be delegated?
First Sergeants
Mail sealed against inspections
First-Class
What kind of fitness exemptions are required to meet the DAWG?
Fitness assessment exemptions with AC exemptions (including pregnancy) and fitness assessment exemptions for 365 days
How many years do category III codes remain in the Current Procedural Terminology Manual?
Five
What does blood transport?
Food and oxygen to the cells; carries away carbon dioxide and other wastes
Why does the career enhancement element use the Eligible for Promotion Testing Roster?
For control, verification of eligibility status, and to research promotion status inquiries
when should an AF Form 422, Notification of Air Force Member's Qualification Status be used?
For initial qualification, qualification for retirement or separation, military retraining, PCS, PME, and similar functions
Under what circumstances is each military branch allowed to pay for the travel of a patient's NOK?
For military VSI and SI active duty military patients
When is a narrative summary prepared?
For patients who die after admission; who are received by transfer for further treatment; and who remained in the hospital as a bed occupant for 8 days or more
When may a final progress note substitute for a narrative summary?
For patients with minor problems requiring less than a 48-hour stay, normal newborn infants or uncomplicated obstetrical deliveries
What are the responsibilities of an MTF's medical record review function committee?
For reviewing records to ensure quality, clinical pertinence and the timely completion of records and compliance with AF directives and JCAHO standards
How long is temporary decertification?
For up to 270 days but can also be extended in 30 increments to a maximum of 365 days
How do you process requests for reconsideration?
Forward requests for reconsideration of disapproved or downgraded recommendations through the same official channels as the original recommendation. The justification for reconsideration must be in memorandum format not to exceed on page. there must be a copy of the original recommendation with all endorsements and new citation. Submit requests into official channels within one year from the date of the awarding authority's decision. a one-time reconsideration by the award authority is final
What phase of aeromedical evacuation (AE) provides airlift for patients between points within the battlefield, from the battlefield to the initial point of treatment, and then subsequent points of treatment within the combat zone?
Forward.
If convalescent leave is DIRECTED, the inpatient record is
Forwarded to the disposition office and filed in the suspense file.
How many support tiers are used in help desk environments?
Four
In what quarter does higher headquarters seek the MTFs financial plans for the upcoming fiscal year?
Fourth Quarter
What are some items listed on optometry notes that patients are often asked which could constitute PDI?
Frequent or recurrent headaches
How is the certification process different between initial and interim certification?
From a MTF perspective, the certification process for both controlled and critical position certifications are identical
Who should the BCAC work with to provide enrollment, benefit, and claims processing?
Functional experts
What is a report of an Airman's injury or illness, based on evaluation by a medical professional, that describes specific physical activities or functions that are recommended for the Airman to avoid allowing recovery or reducing risk of further injury?
Functional restriction
What are some factors that may affect implementation dates?
Funding, public reviews/comments, contract awards, and additional policy
The official program that summarizes the secretary of defense approved plans and programs for the DOD is called
Future years defense program.
PES code for Airman on the control roster
G
All of the following should be on the in-processing checklist, EXCEPT
Give the member their mobility folder
Once you are done reviewing a record for PDI, what do you do next?
Give the record to the competent medical authority (CMA) for review.
Which is NOT an example of a data driven decision?
Go with your 'gut' when making a decision
What devices can you use to back up data?
Government issued USB drive, CD, and network drives
Under what conditions is an airman promoted to the grade of A1C on the day of graduation from basic military training?
Grade ceilings do not limit promotions Amn, A1C, and SrA. As a results , Airmen promote to these grades when they satisfy the minimum eligibility requirements
gm
Gram
What map color shows vegetation, such as forests and orchards?
Green
What level of organization usually has between 500 to 2,000 personnel?
Group
Once the deployment availability working group reviews the case, whom is it sent to?
HQ AFPC/DPANM
Who can waiver restrictions for MTFs to conduct a medical board on their own MTF staff officers?
HQ AFPC/DPANM
Who designates the MTF to conduct a MEB on a general officer?
HQ AFPC/DPANM.
BEFORE giving the PDI letter to the CMA, what should you do?
Have another 4A or 4N perform a quality review.
What are some reasons a member could be medically separated or retired?
Having a disqualifying medical diagnosis, condition (physical or mental) prohibits or limits the individual from completing his/her duties, condition routinely interferes with their ability to deploy, condition restricts worldwide duty reassignment, imposes unreasonable requirements on the military to either maintain or protect the member
Who authorizes patient absences from the hospital?
Health care provider
Who is responsible for all health record entries regarding diagnoses and procedures?
Health care providers
What type of duties can you expect to perform while assigned to an inpatient unit?
Health services management duties
Of what does the circulatory system consist?
Heart, blood vessels, blood, and the lymphatic system
What are the three key elements in selecting the appropriate complexity of the evaluation and management (E&M) codes?
History, examinations, and medical decision making.
What type of discharge must be a member receive in order to receive the Montgomery GI Bill?
Honorable
When thinking about your receivers, what questions do you ask?
How much does my receiver know about the subject I am presenting? What response do I want from my receiver after reading the correspondence? What tone should I use to get my point across?
What are some conditions that require a reliability assessment?
Hypnosis, and medical conditions detrimental to reliable performance of duties to include individuals affected by personal trauma who are seeking medical care
An air ambulance (AA) is typically conserved for what priority patient?
I-Urgent.
What priority is assigned to a patient who should be evacuated as soon as possible and within a maximum of one hour?
I-Urgent.
What standard system is designed to provide a single window of patient centric information at the Point of Care, also, a single, open architecture standard for healthcare informatics?
ICDB
What priority is assigned to a patient who should be evacuated within 24 hours?
III-Routine.
Who normally trains the active-duty organization where he/she works?
IMA
When should old PDI be included in a new PDI letter?
If the "new" and "old" PDI when pieced together start to take the shape of a larger puzzle and form a clearer picture of what's behind the blind spot than the "new" PDI alone, then it needs to be re-adressed
As a health service manager (HSM) when should you pass on "old" potentially disqualifying information (PDI)?
If the "old" PDI contributes to the "new" and paints a clearer picture.
Who signs the AF Form 286?
If the CMA confirms that no PDI exists, the reviwer can complete and sign section 3 of the PRP questionnaire, and the medically qualifying CMA's name will be entered on the AF Form 286 with the date of the CMA review. If the CMA decides that PDI exists, the CMA must annotate their findings and sign section 3 of the PRP questionnaire and AF Form 286
Where is the AF Form 348 sent if the SJA does not agree with the unit commander's findings on an "LOD" determination?
If the SJA does not concur, he or she sends the AF Form 348 to the appointing authority for action
When may a member be permanently retired?
If the degree of permanent impairment caused by the disabling condition is determined to be stable
Under which circumstance may losing commanders grant maximum accrued leave as leave en route with any PCS move?
If the delay does not interfere with the reporting date to either a port or a new assignment
After the risk assessment, what determines if a patient with questionable eligibility is treated in the MTF?
If there is a possibility of risk to the Air Force or patient.
In which instance can a military member carry leave in excess of 60 days into the next fiscal year?
If they are eligible for special leave accrual
Under what circumstances may a promotion order be revoked after the promotion effective date?
If, before the promotion effective date, the commander notifies the Airman in writing or verbally not to assume the higher grade
What triage category would include injuries that need immediate medical or surgical attention to save a life?
Immediate
What are the typical three main priorities assigned to IT work orders/trouble tickets?
Immediate, Elevated, and Normal
When should a recommendation to remove a member from PRP status be made?
Immediately
When did the Air Force Medical Service align the structure to mirror the line of the Air Force and what was the organizational structure name changed to?
In 1993, it was changed to Objective Medical Group
Where does Microsoft office suite store data from all its programs unless a different location is specified?
In My Documents
How are fetal monitor strips filed?
In SSN terminal digit order the same as inpatient records.
Where should all correspondence (request) be placed once the request has been filled?
In Section III of the health record
For most of the forces, how is the AEF battle rhythm spent?
In normal training during which forces concentrate on unit missions and basic proficiency events
You TEMPORARILY decertify a member from PRP when reliability is
In question, and the problem is expected to be of a long duration.
Where should the UDM appointment letter be maintained?
In the UDM continuity binder
Where does the exchange of carbon dioxide and oxygen occur?
In the alveoli
If there is PDI of a medical nature on the PRP questionnaire, where MUST this be documented?
In the medical record.
What provides new personnel with a list of offices and activities they must visit in order to become a functioning member of their new unit of assignment?
In-processing checklist
A patient's injuries resulted in serious disfigurement
Incapacitating illness or injury.
Who has overall authority and responsibility for conducting all incident activities including development of strategies and tactics and distribution of resources at the incident site?
Incident commander
What must the cost center managers have in order to operate their cost center?
Initial training.
Fractures, wounds, concussions, and conditions resulting from extremes of temperature or prolonged exposure
Injury
Individual, other than a transient patient, who is admitted to a bed in the MTF. Also referred to as bed occupant
Inpatient
What are some capabilities of TMIP-J?
Inpatient care, outpatient care, blood status medical surveillance, tracking medical supplies, occupational and environmental health and tracking patients through the aerovac system
Where is a copy of the death certificate filed?
Inpatient record
What topics can the ward nursing report be broken down into?
Inpatient ward.
A concise clinical summary is dictated and typed on SF 502, Medical Record-Narrative Summary, for
Inpatients received by transfer for further treatment.
Who does the unit deployment manager (UDM) notify for remedial actions when unit task codes (UTC) cannot be supported due to changes in manpower or equipment?
Installation deployment office (IDO).
I&O
Intake and Output
An act done on purpose
Intentional conduct.
Movement of an inpatient from one unit (ward) to another
Inter service transfer.
Movement of an inpatient from one clinic service to another
Inter-unit (ward) transfer.
What are the 2 types of changes?
Interim and Administrative
What type of certification is used when it becomes necessary for the CO to consider an individual for a PRP position and the required security investigation has not been completed?
Interim certification
Describe "E code"
Interim certified critical
AF Form 560 letter placed in item 18/19: I
Interlocutory.
Smooth muscles are found in MOST of the body's:
Internal organs
The fluid that bathes and nourishes the cells of the body tissue is called:
Interstitial
What three parts is the correspondence broken down to?
Introduction, body, conclusion
Consists of those forces assigned to organizations responsible to carry Air Force level functions
Intuitional Force
What are your concerns when editing for technical accuracy and coverage?
Is enough information included? Are details correct? Are irrelevant or too many details included-is the point made?
A recommendation of permanent decertification/disqualification from the PRP is NOT required when a member
Is involved in authorized human trafficking.
What is the second step if you have identified suspicious mail?
Isolate the article and evacuate the immediate area.
What information is contained in the using activity issue/turn-in summary report?
Issues, reversal, and turn-ins for your using activity
What effect do changes to the promotion data during the pre-selection phase cause?
It can cause promotions records to be reconsidered, reactivated, deactivated, and ineligible
What is the position number?
It identifies a manpower requirement, which is a statement of manpower needed to accomplish a specific job, workload, mission, or program
What is a topographical map?
It is a graphic representation of the earth's surface to include manmade features as well as natural features through the use of symbols, lines, colors, and forms
What is the Medical Control Center?
It is a predetermined area designed as a central point where the MTF commander and key personnel coordinate, control, and direct medical response actions during crises or contingencies
Define "prefix."
It is a syllable or group of syllables joined to the beginning of another word to alter its meaning or to create another word
What is Theater Medical Information Program-Joint?
It is a system that records the patient's medical evaluations while down range
What is the purpose of the patient suspense file?
It is a working file for all documents, communications, or administrative actions affecting the patient during their hospitalization. It serves as a file for inpatient records while patients are absent from the MTF as part of their treatment, on leave, etc., and as a follow-up file to ensure administrative actions are carried out promptly when required.
What is a PRP notification>
It is an action taken by the MTF to "notify" the CO of a recommendation to change a member's PRP status or access
What is the maximum time for suspension?
It is initially for up to 30 days however, the MTF may recommend extension of the suspension peiod up to 120 days in 20-day increments
When all required disposition procedures have been completed on the inpatient unit, where is the patient's inpatient record sent?
It is sent to the disposition office or inpatient records section (as determined by local policy).
When is permanent disqualification/decertification used?
It is used when the CO has determined an indicidual no longer meets the reliability standards
What is an erroneous certification?
It is when a patient PCA'd with a new CO and RO, but the gaining unit did not process the proper certification procedures with a new AF Form 286
Relative to the release of medical information, what is the purpose of the DD Form 2005?
It serves as evidence that, as prescribed by the privacy act, the individual was informed of the purpose and uses of the information collected and was advised of his/her rights and obligations when providing their data
Relative to the release of medical information, what is the purpose of the DD Form 2005?
It serves as evidence that, as prescribed by the privacy act, the individual was informed of the purpose and uses of the information collected and was advised of his/her rights and obligations with respect to supplying the data
What are some of the negative effects of the P&A office not tracking personnel who in-process?
It would make accountability almost impossible
What is an HMO?
It's a health plan in which a member pays for medical care, and it usually includes primary and preventive care.
When screening the log back order report, for what information should you be looking?
Items requiring cancellation, follow-up status, quanitity error, item error, etc.
PEs code for Denied or not selected for re-enlistment
J
What personnel data system (PDS) status code identifies a certified PRP transfer to non-PRP?
J
When was the final rule for adoption of ICD-10-CM put into use?
January 16, 2009
What are some examples of health information technology application?
Kx, MHS Learn, MESD, Micromedx, Military Health System, TRICARE, TRICARE Online, and WebMD
What is the proper way to insert a patient's name in CHCS?
LAST NAME,FIRST NAME MI (No space between last and first name; one space between first name and MI; and no period after MI).
If the Staff Judge Advocate (SJA) determines an administrative line of duty (LOD) is more appropriate after an AF Form 348 has been completed, the SJA will return the AF Form 348 through the military personnel flight (MPF)/DFMPEP to the
LOD-MFP.
The suffix "-penia" means
Lacking or reducing in number of
What is the difference between a large and small unit in terms of how BTZ promotion quotas are allocated?
Larger units (7 or more eligible) receive quotas and promote at unit level. Small units (six or less eligible) are combined into one pool of eligible to form the CBB
Which example shows the correct way to enter a patient's name during Composite Health Care System (CHCS) Registration?
Lastname(comma)Firstname(space)Middle Initial
Once a breach investigation is complete, who will ASSESS the results of the risk assessment and recommendations in determining whether affected individuals should be notified of the breach?
Leadership
What is the categorical break down for individual awards?
Leadership and job performance in primary duty, significant self-improvement, and base or community innvolvement
AF Form 560 letter placed in item 18/19: L
Legally separated.
What is the maximum allowable weight for infants if an incubator is required?
Less than 8 lbs
What two purposes does the user record serve?
Lets the system know who you are and how you can use the system.
For a case to qualify as a debt collection case, what must be presented to the DCAO?
Letter from a Collection Agency indicating that the beneficiary has been sent to collection for non-payment partial payment or denial of claim for services of a TRICARE-associated claim, and/or a negative credit report secondary to the above
If for some reason the sponsor's medical record is not present at the time of out-processing, give the individual a
Letter of non-availability
What holds movable joints together?
Ligaments
How are corrections to inpatient records made?
Line through incorrect data, do not erase or scratch out. If space permits enter correct data next to erroneous data, if not draw a line through erroneous data, initial and place the correct date next to the entry. Make a note that refers the reader to the correct entry. Go to the location on the inpatient form where the next entry can be made and enter the information using the current date
Some store extra fuel; others serve as building materials for the cells that make up the body
Lipids.
What steps should you take when dealing with difficult situations?
Listen to your customer attentively, show empathy, solve the problem, and take them to the patient advocate or supervisor
Patients requiring rest during a long aeromedical evacuation (AE) flight because of recent surgery should be classified as
Litter.
Which of the following is NOT part of the mission of the special needs identification and assignment conditions (SNIAC) process?
Locates providers and establishes the consults for care.
What should you FIRST consider when helping a patient narrow down the right TRICARE plan for them?
Location
Who is included in the CCTs?
Logistic readiness squadron, maintenance, munitions, medical and civil engineers
Whose responsibility is it to complete the local transfer of equipment form?
Losing custodian
What does separation before completion of the obligated period of service result in?
Loss of investment the AF made in recruiting, training, and equipping which leads to a need for more accession
The lymphatic system elements of this part of the circulatory system include all the following EXCEPT:
Lymphatic artery
The area where the MTF commander coordinates actions in support of the assigned mission
MCC
Consolidates a facility's peacetime and wartime capabilities and plans
MCRP
What plan is the medical unit commander's plan, establishing procedures for the unit's expeditionary missions identified in the designed operation capability (DOC) statement and emergency response missions identified in the Comprehensive Emergency management Plan (CEMP)?
MCRP
With whom do MTF commanders establish resource-sharing agreements?
MCS contractor
Who pays for claims for network care by MTF enrolled patients?
MCSC
Any individual who discovers a missing patient valuable must report the loss to whom?
MDG/CC
Who appoints the individual to serve as the custodian for patient valuables?
MDG/CC
Who has the responsibility for accepting patient valuables?
MDG/CC.
What is the automated self-inspection tool the AFMS MTFs use?
MITC (Management Internal Control Toolset)
If a patient fails a DEERS check and wants to use a DD Form 1172 to verify eligibility, who certifies the DD Form 1172 to verify the patient is eligible to receive medical care at a military facility?
MPF.
Who must notify Headquarters AFPC by message within 72 hours after an Airman is selected for promotion?
MPS or promotion authority
What is the official system of record for management of expeditionary medical personnel and resources for the Air Force Medical Service (AFMS)?
MRDSS-ULTRA.
Who is responsible for the proper care of the controlled forms used for securing patient valuables?
MSA officer
When utilizing resource support, who may request a task order for personnel equipment, equipment maintenance, and supplies?
MTF Commander
Who is held financially accountable for care regardless of where is it delivered?
MTF Commander.
Who works with the data quality assurance team and presents the results of the completed monthly DQMC review list to the executive committee?
MTF DQ Manager
Who approves an attending physician's recommendation for the presence of the NOK when it would be beneficial to the patient's recovery?
MTF commander
Who has disapproval authority for request for designee status?
MTF commander and MAJCOM surgeon general for requests not meeting the criteria in AFI 41-115
Who has review and approval authority over the AF Form 618, Medical Board Report?
MTF commander and their designee.
Who assumes administrative responsibility for an active duty Air Force patient admitted to a non-military facility?
MTF commander at the nearest Air Force MTF
Who has review and approval authority over medical board reports?
MTF commander or designee; this authority may be delegated to a senior AD medical corps officer in his/her staff
Who appoints medical boards?
MTF commander or their designee
If you notice that a patient valuables have been lost, who do you have to immediately notify?
MTF commander.
Who appoints the MTF PRP/PSP monitor?
MTF commander.
Who appoints MEB members, and by what means are they tasked?
MTF commander; appointing orders.
Who appoints the MEB clerk and Physical Evaluation board liaison Officer (PEBLO), and by what means is the PEBLO tasked?
MTF commander; published orders.
Who makes a good faith effort to work with the contractor to execute sound resource sharing agreements?
MTF commanders
For sponsors on unaccompanied assignments, a family member clearance screening is accomplished by the
MTF in closest proximity to the family
Who appoints an officer to serve as the Patient Squadron commander?
MTF/CC.
Where is bile made and stored? How does it aid digestion?
Made in the liver and stored in the gall bladder. Breaks up large molecules of fatty foods
What are the responsibilities of the patient valuables custodian?
Maintains the necessary records and protects the security of the valuables accepted for safekeeping
Who must approve user accounts before the Medical Readiness Decision Support System (MRDSS) Help Desk creates accounts?
Major command (MAJCOM) or higher headquarters.
When is a condition relating to alcohol abuse considered to be a disease or injury for the purpose of requiring an LOD and a misconduct determination?
Make an LOD determination when alcohol abuse causes the death of a member leaving surviving family members, or an injury that results in a member's inability to perform duty for more than 24 hours, or results in the likelihood of a permanent disability. The ultimate determination is whether the member's misconduct is the proximate cause of the disease, injury, or death.
It's important to check the Mission Document for the flight in order to
Make sure everyone is entered is on the appropriate flight.
How is PSP identified on the front cover of the record jacket?
Make the notation "Assigned to presidential support duties", in pencil, in one of the blank spaces printed on the front of AF Form 2100 or 2100A series, Health Record-Medical/Dental
What is an example of non-verbal communication?
Making eye contact
What is a standard manpower listing published to identify the manpower tasked to deploy in support of specific unit task codes (UTC)?
Manpower Force Element Listing (MFEL)
What is the final step when the patient is at the destination MTF and no longer being tracked?
Mark the record as complete in TRAC2ES
What is a foundation for building a business strategy?
Marketing
What are 3 aspects of the BAS program?
Meal cards for those individuals not authorized the BAS; the allowance itself, authorized to those who meet certain eligibility requirements
What are the FPCON checklist lines referred to?
Measures
Who is the OPR for the cost center lists and backorder lists?
Medical Logistic Flight Personnel
What organization is responsible for inventorying, balancing, and delivering routine supply requirements?
Medical Logistics
In the Medical Readiness Decision Support System (MRDSS), what tool is designed to manage the Air Force Medical Service (AFMS) readiness resources?
Medical Resource Letter
How should entries in the medical record pertaining to medical affirmative claims cases be stamped?
Medical affirmative claim (MAC)
The end item of medical equipment that has a unit cost of between $3,300 and $250,000, a life expectancy of at least 5 years, and maintains its identity during use is classified as
Medical expense equipment.
When an abused family member applies for Secretary of the Air Force designee status after the sponsor was discharged from the service, the approval authority is the
Medical group commander.
Who from the following list is not required to attend the deployment availability working group (DAWG)?
Medical group commander.
Who is responsible for completing the front side of the AF Form 348?
Medical officer
Who makes the determination concerning an administrative LOD?
Medical officer
What squadrons are allowed in an MTF?
Medical operations squadron, dental squadron, aerospace operations squadron, inpatient operations squadron, surgical operations squadron, diagnostics, and therapeutics squadron
For whom are LOD and misconduct determinations made?
Members of the Air Force (regular or reserve) who incur or aggravate an injury, illness, or disease, or who die leaving family member beneficiaries while on active duty or traveling to or from such duty need an LOD determination.
Through what system are allocation notices generated?
MilPDS.
What organization is responsible for establishing suspenses and ensuring the responsible officials complete actions associated with informal LOD and misconduct determinations?
Military Personnel Flight
What reference provides step-by-step instructions for completing records retirement?
Military Record Tracking, Retirement, and Retrieval Users Guide (MRTR2).
What are the most valuable assets that medical board members possess?
Military medical experience and exposure to a broad spectrum of military operational and support activities.
What are the 4 triage categories?
Minimal, immediate, delayed, and expectant
Intentional conduct that is wrongful or improper
Misconduct
A category I discrepancy is classified as
Mission impacting.
What information does the mission document provide?
Mission legs, flight times, manifest, special equipment, etc.
What type of facility is generally located near active flight lines?
Mobile aeromedical staging facility
A quality or capability of military force which permits movement from place to place while retaining the ability to fulfill the primary mission
Mobility
What purpose does saliva serve?
Moistens the food, making it easier to swallow and its digestive enzymes break food down into chemicals the body can use.
Specify at least 3 resource management responsibilities during the fiscal year-end closeout?
Monitor the base organization closeout instructions to ensure timely coordination of required actions by the personnel involved in the funding; assist in obtaining documentation to ensure all commitment documents are fully obligated or de-committed prior to 30 Sep; validate all due-outs with logistics. Confirm all memo due-outs and cancel any requisitions no longer required; monitor TDY travel and assist the Accounting Liasion Office in liquidating all travel obligations; notify the financial Analysis Office immediately if a surplus or deficit in funds develops; complete any other closeout instructions or orders given by the financial analysis office
An inventory of patient valuables is conducted
Monthly
What information should you back up?
Most commonly office documents such as Word, Excel spreadsheets, PowerPoint, Access database and government forms. Also back-up local e-mail (outlook), .pst, and internet favorites if utilized
What are the two basic kinds of joints?
Movable and fixed joints
Use the INTERWARD transfer CHCS function to
Move a patient from one unit to another within the MTF.
What are the main tasks of the muscles?
Move limbs, push food through the gut, make the heart beat, and control blood flow around the body
What grade must the rater's rater be if the rate is in the grade of AB-TSgt?
Must be in a grade equal or higher than the rater and must be at least a MSgt or civilian in the grade of GS-7 or above
What is done with undelivered mail containing the endorsement "DO NOT FORWARD" at the end of the workday?
Must be stored in a classified storage container
MI
Myocardial infarction (heart attack).
What can happen if the physical records sent to NPRC do not match the records retirement index?
NPRC can return the shipment at MTF expense
What information may be release with the patients' consent?
Name and rank, component occupation or job title, and present medical assessment of condition (stating condition stable, good, fair, serious, or critical).
The MINIMUM identification required on forms placed in the inpatient record includes the patient's name, family members prefix (FMP), sponsor's social security number, register number, and the
Name of the MTF
How long can a member stay on the TDRL?
No more than 5 years
What makes a person ineligible for a service award?
No service award will be presented or awarded to any person whose entire service for the period covered by the award was not honorable, or to a person whose service for the period covered by the award was terminated under other than honorable conditions
When is the soonest you should notify the members of the selection for drug testing?
No sooner than one hour prior to the available testing period
Are new orders required for each convening of the board?
No, there must be only one order current at each MTF
What does the MHS use to explain how the patient PHI may be used and disclosed?
NoPP labels.
What type of provider furnishes care to beneficiaries but does not sign agreements with regional contractors?
Non-Network provider
What is the second half of plotting that represents the label as read from the bottom to top called?
Northing
You suspend a member from PRP when reliability is
Not in question, and the problem is expected to be of a short duration.
What does the P&A staff do when they receive a completed PAC worksheet?
Notify the MPS
Who will notify the rater when an LOW is mandatory because of PCS or PCA action?
Notify the rater during reporting period
Carry instructions that tell each cell how to perform its particular jobs
Nucleic acids
Which macromolecules carry instructions that tell each cell how to perform their particular jobs?
Nucleic acids
What CANNOT be a subdivision of a wing?
Numbered Air Force (NAF)
How are surgical procedures entered on AF Form 560?
Numbered with the principal procedure listed first, and then those that are associated procedures
Who requires a standard integrated system to provide accurate medical manpower, utilization, and expense information to assist the medical leadership in providing efficient, quality health care services to beneficiaries?
OASD-HA
What is intended to mitigate the effects on deployments on healthcare access, quality, and scope?
OCO Funds
Fund authorization provided by one AFO to another AFO or base activity for a specific purpose, for stated amount and purpose and to be used within a specified time
Obligation Authority
Which stage of accountability includes undelivered orders outstanding, accrued expenditures unpaid, and accrued expenditures paid?
Obligations Stage
What are examples of nonmedical material?
Office and janitorial supplies, and equipment
What are some examples of non-sensitive PII?
Office location and business telephone number
Where is the withdrawal of material from an outpatient medical record to an inpatient record recorded?
On SF 600, Health Record-Chronological Record of Medical Care.
During the fiscal year-end closeout, where is the focus of the carious command elements? The MTFs?
On effectively using available funds on prioritized operational needs; on the need to ensure all valid obligations are recorded before the end of the fiscal year is closed out
On what basis are WAPS factors assigned a point value? Provide an example.
On the basis of relative importance to promotion. For example, the SKT and PDG account for 200 of the 460 points, constituting 44 percent of the total point value
when are airmen entitled to separation from active duty?
On their expiration term of service unless there is a specific authority for their retention
What kind of process is digestion?
One of chemical reactions sped up by enzymes
What is a non-network, non-participating provider?
One who provides care, but does not have an agreement with TRICARE and they do not accept the allowable charge as payment
How long are perspective designees under the abused family members criteria entitled to medical care?
One year after sponsor's discharge
How much information should be provided when answering a request for medical information?
Only the information requested
How many controlled forms should the MSA officer issue to the custodian?
Only the quantity of forms needed to meet the expected requirements for a reasonable period
When should you fax medical documentation?
Only when the original record or mail-delivered copies will not meet requirements for immediate patient care
Location and clearing discrepancies between the resource advisor's record and the official accounting records occurs during the triannual review of the
Open document listing.
Official funding document issued to or by operating agencies. It reflects the OBA for actual expenses and reimbursements.
Operating Budget Authority Document
Four-position alphanumeric control code identifying fund accounts to which operation and maintenance and military funds are authorized
Operating budget account number
A code that is authorized and assigned by the Director of Budget, HQ USAF and generally equates to a MAJCOM
Operating budget code
What is the command authority that may be exercised by commanders at any echelon at or below the level of combatant command?
Operational control.
What are the two types of e-mail?
Organizational and individual
AF Form 560 letter placed in item 18/19: X
Other.
OOB
Out of bed.
What is the term used when the amount available for obligation is a negative number?
Over obligate the government.
What is intended to mitigate the effects on deployments on healthcare access, quality, and scope?
Oversees contingency operations.
PES code for Failed to appear (no-show) for scheduled WAPS testing without a valid reason
P
What flight takes care of all the administrative needs for the medical squadrons?
P&A
What shows the customer how YOU INTERPRETED the problem and gives them a chance to clear up ANY CONFUSION so you can take proper action?
Paraphrase
What part of the personnel readiness folder is the commander letter of selection for a deployment position filed?
Part 1, table of contents
What part of the deployment folder is for major command (MAJCOM)/installation/wing/unit requirements?
Part 5
What paperwork is filed in Part 5 and Part 6?
Part 5, the paperwork requirements are specific to the applicable level of authority and are provided by the respective authority.
What are the 3 important purposes of service awards?
Participation in specific or significant military operations, honorable active military service during periods of war or national emergency, and specific types of service by personnel serving on active duty or as a member of reserve forces
Which individual is also a focal point that Theater Patient Movement Requirements Centers (TPMRC) personnel can contact for questions concerning a patient's movement?
Patient movement technician.
What information is required if a patient wants their medical information released?
Patient signature and date, description of the information to be released, be written in plain language, name/organization authorized to make the request, purpose of the request, name/organization where the information is going, an expiration date for the authorization, an individual's right to revoke the authorization in writing, and name/organization authorized to release the information
What serves as a working site for all documents, communications, or administrative actions affecting a patient?
Patient suspense file
Which of the following is NOT included in the admission package that accompanies a patient to the inpatient unit?
Patient suspense file
Who normally performs the actual duties associated with patient valuables?
Patient valuables custodian (primary and/or alternate).
Routine care is usually NOT provided to patients with questionable eligibility until the
Patient's eligibility is determined.
What is the minimum patient identification information found on a medical record tracking record label?
Patient's name, FMP, Sponsor's SSN, Record type, Volume Number (used when a patient has more than one record volume), Record Number, Current Location, Home Location, and Status
What minimum identification is placed on each document filed in the outpatient record?
Patient's name, family member prefix, sponsor's SSN, facility name, and name of MTF maintaining the records
What minimum patient identification information is required when filling out inpatient forms?
Patient's name, register number, FMP, sponsor's social security number, and name of treating MTF
What minimum information is required on each form in the inpatient record?
Patient's name, register number, name of MTF providing treatment, name of MTF maintaining records if different than admitting MTF, family member prefix and SSN
Final progress notes on SF 509 may be substituted for narrative summaries for all of the following patients EXCEPT
Patients treated at a tactical MTF
What report reflects projected evaluation close-out dates less than or equal to current date plus 30 days?
Pending and Projected Evaluations
What is convalescent leave?
Period of authorized absence granted to members who are under medical or dental care as part of the treatment prescribed for recuperation and convalescence
Describe "R code"
Permanently decertified/disqualified control
Describe "P code"
Permanently decertified/disqualified critical
What does the use of TDRL prevent the government from doing?
Permanently retiring a member who may partially or fully recover at a later date or may worsen in the near future
What is PII the acronym for and what is it?
Personally Indefinable Information, which if lost, compromised or disclosed without authorization, could result in substantial harm, embarrassment, inconvenience, or unfairness to an individual
When combined together, what 3 types of expenses make-up the DES?
Personnel Utilization Expense (salary), OBL, and non-OBL expenses
When unit personnel are processed through the personnel deployment function (PDF), who is responsible for their accountability?
Personnel deployment function.
Who is responsible for verifying deaths that occur in an MTF and on Air Force installations?
Physician
The name of the attending physician entered on the AF Form 3899 is the
Physician who is treating the patient at the originating MTF.
What steps should you take when sequestering medical records?
Place a cover sheet on the original medical record stating the record has been sequestered. Maintain a separate file on why the record has been sequestered, and the date (or occurrence of an event) when the record should be reviewed to determine the need for continued sequestering. Place a charge out in appropriate records room with a statement that the record has been sequestered. If a "Clinic Copy" is made, ensure that original documentation is forwarded to the sequestered file and a copy is placed in the "Clinic Copy."
What are some directive publications?
Policy Directives, Policy Memorandums, Mission Directives, Instructions, Guidance Memorandums, Manuals, Interservice publications, Supplements, Installation publications, and instruction checklists and addenda
When you in-process a medical record and then generate a computer charge-out, to whom do you deliver the records?
Primary care manager
The MOST simplified description for the TOC entails three basic elements. What is NOT one of those elements?
Print Data
Which of the following steps is NOT part of in-processing a beneficiary?
Print lab/radiology results and place in records
What is "local purchase" and when is it used?
Procurement by Medical Logistics through the base contracting office. It is used to procure items not stocked by the DLA, GSA, or prime vendors
What is the purpose of lymph nodes?
Produce many white blood cells, which filter harmful substances out of the lymph
What qualities should a sponsor posses?
Professional, have a strong work ethic and integrity. Is ready, willing, and able to reflect favorabl on the unit and the section. Furthermore, the sponsor must have the skills and motivation necessary to help kick start the newcomers assignment by assisting them with in-processing, showing them around the base and the surrounding area, helping them to get settled in billeting, the dorms or even assisting them with locating a home or apartment
What is the proper sequence for setting up a provider's schedule in CHCS?
Profile first, template second, and schedule last
Who prepares the AF Form 601 to transfer equipment between property custodians?
Property Custodian Losing Equipment
Individuals who have been designated the authority to order, receive and sign for equipment material in writing by the medical group commander are
Property custodians.
Some serve as building blocks for cells; others speed up the chemical reactions within the body
Proteins
What is the intent of the manning assist program?
Provide short term manpower to AF units or AF positions within joint units (with additional TDY resources) in the performance of its home base mission
What are the two main jobs of the respiratory system?
Provides the body with oxygen and rids the body of carbon dioxide
What term means "toward or closer to the point of origin"?
Proximal
Primary moving cause or predominating cause
Proximate cause.
What is the classification 1B?
Psychiatric litter patients of intermediate severity; patients requiring tranquilizing medication or sedation, not normally requiring the use of restraining apparatus; restraining apparatus must be sent with the patient for potential use
What is classification 5c?
Psychiatric outpatient, going for treatment of evaluation
The alert notification and recall system used through the Air Force is referred to as what kind of system?
Pyramid alerting system
Primary pool from which the Air Force fulfills requirements
Readily Available Force
What Air Force Medical Service objective supports optimal medical readiness for all Airmen and ensures Air Force medics are current, trained, and equipped to deliver "Trusted Care, Anywhere" in?
Readiness
What does the MHS use to assist with day-to-day activities?
Real time, or near real time, operational systems
What key strategy is used to maximize the MTF's specialty care capability while simultaneously recapturing specialty care being done in the private sector, for care which could be done in the MTF or Direct Care system?
Recapturing patient care from the private sector
What are some things that should be passed on to the gaining MTF?
Recent identification and/or clinical management efforts to control chronic disease condition, poorly controlled chronic disease conditions requiring regular, uninterrupted follow-up, current pregnancy or medical diagnoses requiring obstetrics follow-up, newborns with follow-up requirements, pending radiographic, laboratory, and pathologic specimens, and pending/incomplete referrals or referrals where a result has not been obtained
What CHCS option is used if a medical record needs to be transferred from one clinic to another before it makes its way back to the records section?
Recharge Records
The blood consists of plasma and what three kinds of formed elements?
Red blood cells (erythrocytes), white blood cells (leukocytes), and platelets
Which office is the "one stop shop" where patients go to process specialty referrals requested by the PCM?
Referral management center.
2.5/E.4 is an example of what type of grid coordinate?
Refined grid coordinate
AF Form 560: Leave this item blank until provided an appropriate entry by the CHCS.
Register number
The most secure service the USPS offers
Registered
What are the 5 types of special mail services?
Registered mail, certified mail, certificate of mailing, signature confirmation, and insured mail
What is the best choice for ensuring that accountable containers remain in a controlled environment?
Registered mail.
What should you do when releasing adopted infant's medical records?
Remove all reference to the child's natural parents
What are 2 steps you may see on the out-processing checklist?
Remove the member from MRDSS and give the member their mobility folder to take to their new readiness office
During the EDITING process, addressing phrases such as: final completion, month of August, or close proximity, is an example of
Remove unnecessary words
What is an "AD HOC" report?
Reports tailored to meet a specific purpose
An individual's medical record information is NOT released to medical research or scientific organizations when
Reproducing the information would be a burden or it is contrary to existing laws.
What type of personnel transactions is P&A able to request?
Request report on an individual personnel, request change of status and report duty status change in BLDSM
An interim LOD applies to what category of individuals?
Reserve members
Which MTF personnel are required to complete a monthly timesheet?
Reservists/ANG, Volunteers, Students, Personnel "borrowed" from another MTF, Foreign national employees, Federal civilian employees, Military personnel
Who is the MDG/CC's "right hand" for most financial matters?
Resource Advisor
What is an alternative to resource sharing which provides additional flexibility to MTF commanders?
Resource support
Who is primarily responsible for managing medical expense performance reporting system (MEPRS) within the MTF?
Resources from within the resource management office.
Supplies the blood with oxygen
Respiratory system
What office is headed by an officer or supervisor who is responsible for the management of resources in the unit and who, in most instances, can significantly influence the expenses incurred by the unit?
Responsibility Center
Which organizational unit is headed by an officer or supervisor who is responsible for the management of resources in the unit and, in most instances, can significantly influence the expenses incurred by the unit?
Responsibility center.
What recommendations can DPANM make?
Return To Duty, direct an MED, and Continued Military Medical Observation and Care
What should outpatient records personnel do with medical paperwork missing the required minimum identification documentation?
Return the documents to the originating clinic for proper completion.
According to the text, what are some examples of patient dispositions?
Return to duty; discharge from treatment; evacuate to US; separate or retire due to physical disability; transfer out
What must be done first before coding a patient encounter?
Review the medical documentation to determine the diagnosis and course of care provided/recommended
Questionable cases regarding the release of medical information are referred to what office?
SJA
When airmen show likelihood for early separation, with whom should the commander consult when choosing a course of action?
SJA and MPF
In the WAPS, what two weighted factors account for 44% of the total point value?
SKT and PDG.
What grades can commanders STEP-promote eligible members to?
SSgt through MSgt
Copies of inpatient care documents are filed in what section of the AF Form 2100A, Health Record-Outpatient?
Section 1
Before starting to review the records, what should you first review?
Section 1 of the PRP questionnaire
In which section of the AF Form 2100A, Health Record-Outpatient, is the DD Form 2005, Privacy Act Statement filed?
Section 3
Which section of the AF Form 2100A, Health Record-Outpatient, are living wills (Self-Determination Act forms) filed?
Section 4
What is the step after creating an outline?
Select a format
From the training page, what button do you want to select to update an individual record?
Select the 'Find Individual Training Record' button
What are the P&A responsibilities in reference to administering the performance report program?
Sending performance report notices to the rater and, when applicable, attaching LOEs for the reporting period to the notices; performing an administrative review of all evaluation reports and if necessary, returning them for correction/completion before sending them out of the unit
Information that may affect a patient's morale, character, medical progress, or mental health is considered:
Sensitive
What two types of neurons are included in the nerves that connect the central nervous system with every part of the body?
Sensory and motor neurons
A patient with an illness that is severe, but there is no imminent danger to the patient's life.
Seriously ill
What is the PRIMARY role of the Beneficiary Counseling Assistance Coordinator (BCAC)?
Serve as a beneficiary advocate and problem solver
What is not a more common Air Force achievement awards?
Service Award.
What are the 3 types of awards members can earn?
Service awards, unit awards, and achievement awards
How many functional accounts are there?
Seven
How long does the CMA have to respond to a rebuttal?
Seven calendar days
A patient requiring the use of retraining apparatus, sedation, and close supervision at all times should be classified as a
Severe psychiatric litter patient.
Contains all the interlocking systems
Skin
When possible, what is the best way to transfer PHI for routine disclosure of information to insurance companies, attorneys or other legitimate users?
Snail mail
What are some reasons there may be an altitude restriction?
Some patients cannot fly over a certain altitude due to medical reasons. occasionally, patients diagnosed with certain problems related to the ear may be candidates for altitude restrictions. i.e. these patients may not be able to effectively clear the ears, causing too much pressure as the altitude increases
What is a property custodian?
Someone who has been designated the authority to order, receive, and sign for material
When does a special pass start and stop?
Special passes start after normal working hours on a given day. They stop at the beginning of normal working hours on either the 4th day for a 3-day special pass or the 5th day for a 4-day special pass
What award is given in recognition of an act of bravery, an outstanding achievement, or period of meritorious service?
Special trophies or awards
What do the disease specific annexes in the disease containment plan identify?
Specific requirements base on disease characteristics, such as contagiousness and infectivity
What must you know to be a successful leave monitor?
Specific unit responsibilities, procedures concerning leave, administrative leave policies, and special conditions affecting leave
How is PRP identified on the front cover of the record jacket?
Stamp "PRP" in 2in block letters on the left hand side of the front of the folder & add the red tape or a red mark to cover the last digit of the SSN on the top & side of the record jacket.
What type of mail class cannot be used to send personal correspondence?
Standard Mail
In what order do you complete a checklist?
Start at the top of the checklist, and complete each item in order
What is a status board?
Status boards are displays, charts, slides, maps, or computer shows that present important unit information
What is an internal management tool used by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, Unified Commands, and Combat Support Agencies?
Status of Resources and Training System report (SORTS)
What is the baggage limitation for AE?
Stowed baggage may not have dimensions exceeding 72" in any one direction or 100" overall (length +width +height) and must be sufficiently durable to withstand handling during transportation. Maximum weight for checked baggage is 66 lbs
What is the lowest level of accounting within the FCC?
Sub-Account
What are publications that extend or add material to publications issued by higher HQ or agencies?
Supplements
What is the basic information CCMs need for their initial training?
Supply orientation, equipment management, MEPRS training, financial training, and manpower management
What is used when the individual's reliability is not in question, and when the problem is expected to be of short duration?
Suspension from PRP duties
Notes your actions each time you use your access and verify codes
System Audit Mechanism.
What form is required to request a piece of equipment?
TIGERS (request), Equipment Action Request
What information system does the Theater Medical Information Program-Joint (TMIP-J) transfer so it can be viewed by authorized healthcare providers all over the world?
TMDS
What site allows beneficiaries to access their appointments, prescriptions, and personal health information from a secure website?
TOL
What PMRC is located at Ramstein AB, Germany?
TPMRC- Europe
What PMRS is located in Joint Base Hickam Pearl Harbor?
TPMRC- Pacific
What patient movement requirement center (PMRC) is located at Scott AFB?
TPMRC-A
What standard system supports patient movement in peacetime, contingency/wartime, and natural disasters?
TRAC2ES
What system is responsible for combining transportation, logistics and clinical decision support elements into a seamless patient movement information management system, which is capable of visualizing, assessing and prioritizing patient movement requirements?
TRAC2ES
Whose POLICY requires you to consider if resource-sharing agreements are in the best interest of the government and are in support of the regional health care plan?
TRICARE
Where can you go to get standardized and current marketing materials for TRICARE?
TRICARE Online
What plan offers the lowest out of pocket cost for beneficiaries, and is only available in the US Service Area?
TRICARE Prime
The BEST reason to use data to aid in the decision making process is because it:
Takes the 'emotion' out and focuses on the facts
What color is the ID card for family members of active and retired members? What is the name and form number of this card?
Tan; DD Form 1173, US Uniformed Services Identification and Privilege Card
The exocrine glands make CHEMICALS that perform specific jobs in the area where they are released. MAJOR exocrine products include the digestive juices, mucus, sweat and:
Tears
When editing, on what areas should you concentrate?
Technical accuracy, coverage, arrangement, and readability
What are the most often used forms of communication?
Telephones, radios, and DCO
What should you tell medical research or scientific organizations when releasing medical information?
Tell the requester that the information must be held in confidence and that any published reports resulting from the study must not identify, in any way, those whose health records were examined
Which CHCS component is a pattern of timeslots that is specific to a provider but is not linked to any particular date?
Template
What are the types of disqualification?
Temporary and Permanent
The AF Form 788 (series), Inpatient Record, is filed using which filing system?
Terminal digit (by sponsor's social security number).
What system is used to file outpatient records?
Terminal digit filing system
Which statement BEST describes the outpatient records filing system?
Terminal digit, color-coded and blocked filing system.
Although a member may have left the base, what should the P&A staff never do?
Terminate a record through DMHRSi
In the male, what glands produce sperm?
Testicles
What does the evaluee acknowledge by completing parts A, and B of item 29 on the AF Form 618?
That the member has been informed of the findings and recommendations of the MEB
What is the commander's vehicle for making changes to the UMD?
The ACR
What form do you complete when equipment is on loan for 90 days or less?
The AF Form 1297
How are register numbers assigned to each inpatient case?
The CHCS assigns the numbers automatically. When manual methods are used, the admissions technician assigns the numbers in numeric sequence on the DD Form 739.
Who actually suspends, decertifies, or returns a member to duty?
The CO
Who is responsible for the nuclear operations of his or her unit & must continuously evaluate the performance & reliability of all subordinate PRP personnel?
The CO (Certifying Official)
Who requests an individual to be reinstated or requalified from permanent decertification/disqualification in the PRP?
The CO (certifying official)
This option allows you to cancel all or part of an existing schedule at the request of a provider or other agency at an MTF.
The Cancellation by Facility option
What is completed when requesting from another DOD agency?
The DD Form 448, Military Interdepartmental Purchase Request or MIPR
What form are the histopathological results also included on when the patient enters the AE system?
The DD Form 6002
What department level REQUIRES all active duty personnel have to attend in- and out- processing programs?
The DOD
Who requires that all active duty personnel attend in- and out-processing programs and that these programs include information on TRICARE benefits?
The DOD
What is required for the commander to complete their DQ statement?
The DQMC Review List
Using this option, slots will not be displayed during appointment searches (except in Browse mode) or on the Provider Schedule Summary Report.
The Freeze/Release Schedules option
What module in DMHRSi does the P&A office use to in-and out-process members?
The Human Resource (HR) module
What is the objective of the IGESP?
The IGESP identifies resources and capabilities of an installation by functional area, and is the focus of the ESSP
What plan outlines local deployment processes, procedures, planning and execution guidance used to deploy whole units or a single Airman?
The Installation Deployment Plan
What activity is responsible for storing and safeguarding patient valuables, and for providing adequate facilities for storing patient valuables?
The MSA office
Who establishes or tasks an existing structure to monitor financial and clinical workload data quality assurance and management controls?
The MTF Commander
When required, who activates the MCC?
The MTF commander
Who appoints the PRP/PSP monitor?
The MTF commander
Who chairs the medical readiness committee and approves the minutes?
The MTF commander
Who ensures there is an effective alert notification and recall system for the unit?
The MTF commander
Who assumes assignment and command authority over officers and enlisted members assigned to the patient squadron?
The MTF commander or appointee is responsible for the patient, but the UCMJ authority remains with the member's home station commander
Who accomplishes family member clearance screenings for sponsors that are on unaccompanied assignments?
The MTF in closest proximity to the family
Who appoints the MTF self-inspection program manager?
The MTF/CC
This option allows you to adjust schedule slots by changing the appointment type or number of patients per slot and by entering or editing comments.
The Modify/Add/Delete Schedules option
Who is responsible for ensuring all computer users are trained in computer security awareness and local operating instructions?
The OIAO
What is software that allows the user to interface with the computer?
The OS (Operating System)
Who makes referrals for tests/specialty care, and monitor adequacy and continuity of needed care?
The PCM
Medical records are maintained within a system of records protected by which act?
The Privacy Act
What acts and amendments must medical personnel comply with?
The Privacy Act, FOIA, HIPAA, Drug Abuse Offense and Treatment act, and Comprehensive Alcohol Abuse amendments
What is a "One-Stop Shop" where patients go to process specialty referrals requested by their PCM?
The RMC.
This option allows you to copy an existing schedule to another provider.
The Replicate Schedule option
What position requires special experience and training?
The SEI
If the SJA determines an administrative LOD is more appropriate, where will the AF Form 348 be sent?
The SJA returns the AF Form 348 with recommendations, through MPF/MSPPA, to the LOD-MFP, for further action.
What is the National Defense Authorization Act?
The Senate and House "instructions" to the DOD to change, add, or eliminate programs
What website is used when web browser interface is limited?
The TRAC2ES-Mobile Site
What document reflects positions authorized to accomplish the mission?
The UMD
What is the primary document that mangers use for manpower?
The UMD
In the ART report, what does the yellow rating mean?
The UTC has a missing requirement, but that missing or deficient capability does not prevent the UTC from being tasked and accomplishing its mission in a contingency and/or AEF rotation
Who is responsible for updating, maintaining, and correcting duty status conditions?
The Unit Duty status Program Manger
Who notifies the member of the IDES process and schedule the medical examinations required to adjudicate the member's disability claim?
The VA MSC
Which CHCS option is used to reserve appointment slots in existing schedules for processing Wait List requests, or to release them from the Wait List reserved status?
The Wait List Hold/Release Schedules option
What does the nervous system regulate and coordinate?
The activities of all other systems of the body.
When can an interim LOD be issued?
The appointing authority, at the request of the member's commander may issue an interim LOD determination if an LOD determination cannot be finalized within seven days of notification and it is possible that the member may be entitled to incapacitation benefits
What forms are processed by the special needs coordinator and FMRC coordinator?
The appropriate AF Form 1466, AF Form 1466D, DD Form 2792, and Addendum B
What is the hot zone?
The area where the actual incident occurred and contamination exists
Who needs to consult with the accepting physician at the destination MTF?
The attending physician
Who tells you when the annual inventory is due?
The base ECO
Who determines if a patient encounter falls under the realm of the medical affirmative claims case?
The base legal office
What is the basic unit of all living things?
The cell
To ensure a successful MTF sponsorship program, who must appoint a primary and alternate INTO program manager?
The commander
Who approves a member's retirement request?
The commander
Who can request medical evaluations due to poor duty performance or deployment concerns stemming from a potential medication condition?
The commander
Who makes the determination if an individual should have access to sensitive areas?
The commander
Who must review and personally endorse each decoration recommendation?
The commander or vice-commander at each headquarters designated to review recommendations must personally review and sign the forwarding endorsement for each recommendation
When an active duty member is retiring and has a dependent over the age of 18, who must fill out the DD Form 2138 for the dependent?
The dependent over the age of 18
When completing an application for SAF designee status, if the justification for designee status is under the best interest of the government criteria, what information should be addressed?
The effects of denying designee status (for example, litigation cost, negative press coverage).
Why should a member not be placed on leave or TDY outside of the local area?
The evaluee needs to be available for medical testing, to sign documents and respond promptly to recommended disposition by the MEB and AFPC
What does the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) code written to the left of the red cross on the DD Form 600, Patient's Baggage Tag represent?
The facility where an AE patient will remain overnight (RON) awaiting AE movement to the final destination.
What is not necessarily a consideration for a hardship voluntary separation?
The family is separated.
What is the promotion effective date for an Airman whose promotion was deferred once the commander authorizes promotion?
The first day of the month after the date the deferral period ends
Who enters the authorizations in DTS?
The individual going TDY
What is a 4-letter code that represents the flight line where the patient is to be transported from?
The origination ICAO
In the AE system, the origination physician's responsibility for a patient ends when
The patient is under the direct care of the accepting physician at the destination MTF.
Who is responsible for the reverse side of the AF Form 348?
The patient's immediate commander
What is the overriding factor in determining a patient's precedence for medical evacuation?
The patient's medical condition
Define a "joint."
The place where bones meet
How does the developing baby obtain food and oxygen?
The placenta enables the baby to obtain food and oxygen from the mother's bloodstream
What is the purpose of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act?
The purpose of the act is to improve the portability and continuity of health insurance coverage, improve access to long term care services and coverage, and to simplify the administration of healthcare.
What action is taken if the rate refuses to sign the report?
The rater selects "member declined to sign" from the drop down menu in the rate's acknowledgement block. rater will sign the block
When making a PRP notification, what information should you document in the patients record?
The receivers name and phone number, your name and time of notification
How are cost pools easily identified within the FCC?
The third letter of the FCC code is always the letter "X"
What did the "TRI" in "TRICARE" originally refer to?
The three main benefit plan options, TRICARE Prime, TRICARE Standard and TRICARE Extra
At minimum, who attends the deployment order briefing?
The unit deployment manager (UDM).
How does the administrative process of a patient discharge begin?
The unit staff acts upon the order provided by the health care provider
What does the SORTS report indicate?
The unit's ability to undertake its full mission or particular mission
Who is responsible for managing patient movement within their respective area of responsibility?
Theater Patient Movement Requirement Center
What is the primary role of the beneficiary counseling and assistance coordinator?
They are a beneficiary advocate and problem solver, providing dedicated service to all MHS beneficiaries
What training elements are displayed?
They are based on requirements generated by the AFSC, officer or enlisted, UTC, Disaster Team, and appointed positions to which an individual is assigned
What happens when an active duty member leaves the hospital without proper authorization?
They are considered AWOL
Why should the commander consult with supervisors and training NCOs before authorizing the promotion of an Airman?
They are in the best position to observe an airman, particularly the Airman's duty performance and training progress
What are the reasons performance evaluations are prepared and how are they used?
They are prepared to access personnel performance, conduct, and potential. They are used in making personnel management and promotion decisions
What is characterization of service?
They are transferred to a reserve component when released from active duty
Some useful substances are absorbed by special cells that line the walls of the small intestine. Some are carried directly to cells throughout the body. What happens to the rest?
They are transported to the liver where they are released as the body requires
How do platelets help prevent bleeding from damaged blood vessels?
They collect where an injured blood vessel leaks and along with various proteins in the plasma, seal broken blood vessels by forming a clot
How are red blood cells (erythrocytes) able to carry oxygen from the lungs to the body tissues?
They contain hemoglobin, which picks up oxygen molecules from the lungs
Why are smooth muscles sometimes called "involuntary muscles"?
They contract and relax automatically; they are not consciously controlled
How do smooth muscles differ in appearance from skeletal muscles?
They do not have striations like skeletal muscles
Why are "whole-person concept" factors not weighted?
They do not lend themselves to predetermined values
What must all AF units do in reference to forms and publications?
They ensure publications and forms are complete, accurate, current, and accessible to Air Force users
What do the emergency responders carry out?
They expand C2 and perform support functions
Define exocrine glands
They make chemicals that perform specific functions in the area where they are released
How is a person selected to work closely to the president?
They must be nominated to the position
What is the objective of the MCRP?
They review the log and determine if the Air Force Legal office can pursue a claim for Air Force members. If a member from another service has a potential claim, forward the information to the parent service. The legal office and MCRP, for each service, works those claims depending on the service affiliation with the patient
Air Force personnel use nondirective publications in what manner?
They use these publications as reference aids and "how-to" guides
What do Airmen do if they are not tasked to deploy?
They will remain in an on-call status to reinforce forward-deployed forces or provide additional capability
Timecard approvers must approve or reject timecards NLT close of business the
Third duty day after timecard period ends.
What does derivative classification mean?
This means it incorporates, paraphrases, restates, and/or generates in a new form, information that is already classified, and marking the newly developed material consistent with the classification markings that apply on the source information
What is the function of the MTF TOL Systems Administrator?
This position is responsible for the technical aspect; interprets guidance, and understands the basic TOL features
What is the administration qualification process?
This process is a screening process used to ensure active duty military personnel meet the standards before they depart for training or assignment to PRP or PSP duties
What should your topic sentence do?
This sentence, which is usually the first sentence, is the subject and main idea of the paragraph
What is the definition of standard systems?
Those systems that are standardized across more than one command or a major system requiring centralized oversight in its planning, implementing, or maintaining
Through what does the air force establish a predictable, standardized battle rhythm ensuring rotational forces are properly organized, trained, equipped, and ready to sustain capabilities while rabidly responding to emerging crises?
Through the Air and Space Expeditionary Force
Generally how are the applications for designee status submitted?
Through the command surgeon general's office to HQ USA/SGMA.
How is TIS credited toward promotion to the grades of SMSgt and CMSgt?
Time in service is credited on one-twelfth point for each month of total active federal military service, up to 25 years, computed as of the last day of the cycle
What is a schedule composed of?
Timeslots that have been assigned appropriate appointment types, durations and a maximum number of patients per slot.
What lines the nasal passages and for what purpose?
Tiny hair-like structures and mucus to filter dust and dirt from the air; warm and moisten cold air as it moves through the nasal passages
What is the purpose of the "Cancel ADT transactions" option?
To cancel admissions to, and transfers or dispositions from, inpatient units.
What are coding manuals primarily used for?
To classify a wide variety of disease that can cause injury or disease.
Why is supply discipline required?
To conserve and protect AF supplies and equipment for operational requirements
What does the out-processing checklist allow agencies to do?
To delete the losing members' pertinent data in order to ensure they are no longer tracking the losing members
When would you use an AF Form 469, duty limiting condition report?
To describe physical limitations and recommend duty restrictions to the commander when there is a potential risk to an airman's health, safety, and wellbeing; the safety of the mission, or the ability of the airman to effectively accomplish the mission. Additionally, the AF Form 469 is used to convey limitations related to the AF FP. In general, the AF 469 will describe what an Airman is unable to do
How does the Office of Personnel Management use LOD findings?
To determine eligibility for civil service preference
How does the Department of Labor use LOD findings?
To determine eligibility of an AFROTC cadet for compensation for injuries sustained while training
What is the primary purpose of the DCAO?
To determine the validity of collection agent claims and negative credit reports received for debts incurred because of medical and dental care under the TRICARE program
What is the overall goal of FL?
To develop a proactive logistics function that is responsive to customer needs
What is the purpose of a letter explaining what to do when filing laboratory reports?
To direct
What are the three general purposes of all Air Force writing?
To direct, inform (or question) or persuade
What is the purpose of the CHCS Record Tracking System?
To electronically track patient records, medical or dental, their location and availability to be charged out. The system is specifically designed to track the location of a record and its availability to be charged out
What are the AFMS objectives?
To enhance our ability to deliver better care, better health, and the best value while staying true to our core mission
Why does the TRO perform periodic reviews of MTF and VA facility resource sharing agreements?
To ensure compatibility with agreements including VA facilities as network providers
What is the purpose of the disengagement statement on AF Form 560, Authorization and Treatment Statement?
To inform the patient that his or her admission is subject to the availability of space and capabilities of the staff.
For what purpose is the AF Form 1403, used?
To list patients on casualty status
How do commanders and functional managers use duty status information?
To make informed force management decisions by providing quick and accurate determination of members available for mission taskings by name, number, and type of personnel
What is the purpose of PSP?
To make sure that those assigned these duties be of excellent character & stability with high degree of maturity, discretion, trustworthiness, professional competence, & unquestioned loyalty to the US
What is the purpose of a memorandum explaining why physical fitness is important?
To persuade
What is the intention of an outstanding achievement decoration?
To recognize a single specific act or achievement that is separate and distinct from regularly assigned duties
What is the purpose of the unit awards?
To recognize acts or services that place the unit's performance significantly above that of other units of similar composition and mission responsibility
What is the MCC primary focus?
To relay information to and from unit personnel, provide expertise to the base emergency response, and leverage unit resources to respond to and mitigate the incident
What is the purpose of the PDI letter?
To serve as a tool for the MTF to communicate PDI to the commander in a timely and effective manner so that he/she can make a sound judgement on a individual's reliability and/or ability to perform sensitive duties
Why does the PEBLO sign opposite the footnote below item 29 on the AF Form 618?
To show that the PEBLO has briefed the evaluee thoroughly on the findings, recommendation, and options
What is the purpose of the city map?
To show the details of streets and street names, important building and other elements of urban landscape important to navigation
What does it mean to sequester medical records?
To store and secure a health record separate from other health records for added security or for legal purposes
Purpose of AF Form 1052
To store small valuables such as jewelry, or cash etc. that will fit into it and a record of all valuables being deposited.
Why were Air Force separation policies developed?
To strengthen the concept of military service as a distinct calling different from any civilian occupation
When the PEBLO receives the C&P results back from the MSC, where should the results go?
To the PCM , referring provider, or to a reviewing provider who has been assigned by the DAWG
When you answer a request for information on injury cases that appear to involve medical affirmative claims actions, where should you send a copy of the paperwork?
To the Staff Judge Advocate
Where do you report health-related administrative qualification discrepancies?
To the losing MTF commander with informational addresses to the MAJCOM SGP
What factors should you consider when verbally communicating with a customer?
Tone of voice, enunciation, word choice, keep your customers informed, and build rapport
What are the types of maps you could work with in the MCC?
Topographical map, city map, and highway maps
Define "medial."
Toward or near the midline of the body
What is the meaning of "internal"?
Toward the inside of the body or a body part
The anatomical term "external" refers to something
Toward the outside of the body
When a response is not received on a receipt for classified information, with what time frame is a tracer action done?
Tracer action is initiated 30 days for material sent within CONUS or 45 days for material sent OCONUS
What does the number "8" represent in the PEC?
Training, medical, and other general purpose actives
Patients being evacuated from overseas or from one MTF to another.
Transient patient
Classifying and Reclassifying the sick and injured according to urgency of treatment required
Triage
What are the two types of network cables you will typically find?
Twisted pair and fiber optics
This documents shows positions over a period of how many years?
Two
What is the maximum authorized level of consumable supplies you should have in your work center?
Two Weeks
How many pumps does the heart have?
Two, one to carry that receives blood from the lungs to the cells and another that picks up carbon dioxide and other wastes from the cells
What are the 2 types of reviews performed?
Two-year reviews and special reviews
AF Form 560: The term "DIS" (Disease) is used in this item
Type of case
What type of MTF can have from TWO to SIX squadrons?
Typical clinic model
What type treatment facility model is the MOST common in the Air Force?
Typical clinic model
PES code for Absent without Leave
U
Who matches personnel to the UTC position and ensures those personnel are trained and equipped appropriately to accomplish the mission of their respective UTC team?
UDM (Unit Deployment Manager)
The primary USAF aircrafts supporting intratheater aeromedical evacuation (AE) are all of the following, EXCEPT the
UH 60 Q Medevac Black Hawk Helicopter.
What are the most commonly used rotary-wing aircraft for patient movement in battle zones?
UH-60 Blackhawk, UH-60A Blackhawk, UH-1H/V Iroquois, and the CH-47 Chinook
What roster contains the funded and unfunded positions and personnel assigned?
UPMR
What are two types of ports?
USB and display ports
What does the AEF reporting tool allow units the ability to report?
UTC level readiness data
What does the unit deployment manager brief during the meeting?
UTC personnel assigned, highlights any shortages, vacancies, and hard to fill positions
What information is provided in the Medical Resource Letter?
UTCs currently appointed to the unit, UTCs the unit is projected to gain or lose over the next 5 years, whether assigned UTCs are manpower or equipment, AEF assignments for each UTC, UTC availability codes and additional information for equipment UTCs
What represents orders, contracts or agreements (negotiated), and obligations of funds?
Undeliverable orders outstanding.
Where is allergy information displayed on a patient's health record?
Under the patient identification block of the record jacket.
What type of condition is not eligible for referral to the Disability Evaluation System (DES)?
Unfit
In which category of patients will each member possess a blue ID card? What is the name and form number of this card?
Uniformed services retirees; DD Form 2RET
What information may be released without the patients' consent?
Unit assignment for personnel not assigned to routinely deployable or sensitive units and office the member is assigned to
Whose responsibility is it too ensure that the dates listed on the leave form are correct?
Unit leave monitor
What document is a by name personnel roster reflecting authorized positions, position number, AFSC authorized grade, functional account code 9FAC), personnel accounting system (PAS)?
Unit personnel management roster.
Whom is the UDM primary liaison to?
Unit training manager, flight and squadron leadership and wing training functions regarding deployment related issues
Outpatient records are the property of the
United States Government
What cases are not qualified for disability processing?
Unsuiting
Patient register numbers are assigned in numerical sequence
Until the facility is closed down.
What carries urine from the kidneys to the urinary bladder?
Ureters
Where does urine leave the body?
Urethra
What are the 3 AE movement procedures?
Urgent, priority, and routine
What is formed when water, urea, sodium chloride, and certain other wastes are filtered through a nephron?
Urine
What single form eliminates the need for a separate privacy act statement for each medical or dental document?
Use a DD Form 2005
What below does NOT constitute potentially disqualifying information (PDI)?
Use of alcohol in an individual that does NOT have a diagnosis of alcohol dependence.
How are medical records-progress notes used?
Used by the physician, dentist, and/or certified nurse midwife to chronologically document the patient's progress while admitted to the hospital
What rating system do the panels use to score the records?
Using a 6 to 10 rating scale with one-half-point increments
When should you use regular 'Snail Mail"?
Utilize regular mail or messenger service for routine disclosure of information to insurance companies, attorneys, or other legitimate users
Who is the non-clinical benefits advisor to the member while going through the Integrated Disability Evaluation System (IDES)?
VA-MSC.
What are the two ways you communicate with your customers when you are face-to-face?
Verbally and nonverbally
A perpetual link exists between the CHCS and the Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS) to accomplish what task?
Verify the patient's eligibility for care.
What is the first step to take in DMHRSi when in-processing a member?
Verify the source system information with the member.
When a patient's physical condition is so severe that there is imminent danger to life, the patient category reported is
Very seriously ill
What is a joint application that supports the effective management and tracking of Veteran and service member throughout the process, from the initial arrival of members into the VA health system and monitoring of benefits applications and administrative details?
Veterans Tracking Application
Skeletal muscles are sometimes called:
Voluntary
What does the medical contingency response plan establish procedures for?
Wartime, humanitarian assistance, homeland security/defense, and disaster responsive contingencies
What are the 3 ways a CMA can recommend someone?
Washout, appropriate time for prescribed medication, and RTD evaluation
What is the most common molecule in the human body?
Water
What are health information technology applications?
Web-based information is available to everyone that has access to the internet
wt
Weight.
AF Form 560 letter placed in item 18/19: R
Western Hemisphere Indian
When is an LOD and misconduct determination needed?
When a member, whether hospitalized or not, has a disease or injury that results in the inability to do military duties for more than 24 hours, the likelihood of a permanent disability, death, when there are surviving family members and medical treatment for reserve members regardless of the ability to perform military duties
When are eligible Airmen required to take a new or revised SKT for their career field?
When a new or revised SKT is published
What is an accrued expenditures unpaid?
When an item has been received by the customer, but the invoice from the vendor (i.e., the bill for your purchase) has not been received
When is a PIF Required?
When an officers receives an LOA or LOC that is not filed in a UIF
What situation would result in a supply pre-issue?
When issue transactions cannot be processed through the DMLSS system (e.g., when the computer is down)
When is a formal LOD determination required?
When neither an administrative nor an informal determination can be made
What must a special agent provide to be granted access to health records?
When proper identification is provided and written approval by SJA
When should abbreviations and symbols not be used in a patient's medical record?
When recording the final diagnosis
When does the equal selection opportunity for all Air Force specialties not apply?
When the AFSC is a chronic critical shortage specialty
CMAs cannot use their discretion when prescribing what types of medications?
When the need for treatment with narcotics, sedatives, tranquilizers, or other drugs could impair perception or performance
Within the AE system, when does the attending physician's responsibility to the patient end?
When the patient is under the direct care of the accepting physician at the destination MTF
When may the MTF sequester the original medical record or a certified copy of the medical record?
When the situation warrants
When does the PEBLO refer an Airman to the AFRC for pre-separation counseling?
When their case if referred to the IPEB
When are cost pools used?
When two or more work centers share physical space, personnel and/or supplies
An act that evidences a reckless or wanton disregard for their attendant consequences
Willful neglect.
What level of organization usually has between 1,000 to 5,000 personnel?
Wing
What is typically connected back to a switch and is required to link network devices?
Wireless access point
How long does the gaining commander have to report all administrative qualification discrepancies?
With in 60 days of the member's report no later than date
When should a routine request for copies of medical records be filled?
Within 20 days of receiving the request
When must the attending physician accomplish the medical history and physical examinations?
Within 24 hours after admission.
When must the MTF release a deceased patient's remains to mortuary personnel?
Within 24 hours after death.
How long (days) after receiving medical care is the patient given to provide evidence of eligibility before they are billed?
Within 30 days
Where should you file the Identification (Dog) Tags?
Within a plastic bag in part 3, deployment information
The following are all TYPES of servers EXCEPT:
Word
What are the five basic uses for a microcomputer?
Word processing is used to prepare documents such as letters and forms, spreadsheets are helpful when working with numbers and mathematical formulas, databases assist with tracking large amounts of data for reports, email messaging enhances communication, and presentations allow slide show briefings
Which is NOT a requirement for Presidential Support Program (PSP) nomination?
Work experience in the legislative system.
Which of the following is NOT a responsibility for the Debt Collection Assistance Officer (DCAO)?
Work with functional experts to provide enrollment, benefit, and claims processing assistance
What does the Wounded Warrior Program do?
Works with the service member and medical team to develop a comprehensive recovery plan that addresses specific recovery, rehabilitation, and reintegration goals
y/o
Year old
If you are suspicious of a mailing and you are unable to verify the contents with the addressee or sender what should you do?
You should protect yourself and your office by doing the following:
iasis.
condition of
asis.
condition, usually abnormal
cele.
cyst, hernia, sac
dys-
difficult, painful
rrhea.
flow, discharge
You may change members duty status to "deserter" if they are absent for less than 30 days and
have action pending on a previous unauthorized absence.
plasty.
surgical reshaping or remodeling
What is the principal forum for discussion on national security policy issues?
the National Security Council System
Under what circumstances are new decorations computer for a particular promotion cycle?
the closeout date of decoration must be on or before the PECD, and the "prepared" date of the DECOR-6, Recommendation for Decoration Printout (RDP), is before the date AFPC makes the selections for promotions
Who does the MEB clerk forward the completed MEB package to once the evaluee or NOK signs the AF Form 618?
the disposition authority
vesico-
urinary bladder
phleb(o)-
vein
angi(o)-
vessel (usually blood vessel)
hydro-
water
