731 final
Based on its attachments, which of the following components of the extensor mechanism would likely contribute MOST directly to PIP extension? A. Central Band B. Lateral Bands C. Dorsal Hood transverse fibers D. Dorsal Hood oblique fibers
A
Which of the following structures provides the most resistance to a valgus force at the elbow? A. Elbow joint capsule B. Medial collateral ligament--transverse part C. Medial collateral ligament--posterior part D. Annular ligament
C
A patient bends backward. The predominant arthrokinematic motion(s) at the joints between L4-L5 is/are BEST described by which of the following statements? A. The inferior articular facets of L4 slide inferior on the superior articular facets of L5 B. The superior articular facets of L5 translate posteriorly compared to the inferior articular facets of L4 C. The inferior articular facets of L4 roll inferiorly compared to the inferior articular facets of L5 D. The superior articular facets of L5 glide superiorly on the superior articular facets of L4
A
A patient presents with limited forearm supination. After testing joint mobility you decide that the superior radioulnar joint glide that accompanies supination is restricted and needs to be mobilized. Based on the convex/concave rule, in which direction would you push the radial head to encourage appropriate arthrokinematic glide? A. Anterior B. Posterior C. Lateral D. Medial
A
A patient presents with the following ROM measurements in the lumbar spine: Flexion: 0 degrees to 48 degrees; Extension: 0 degrees to 18 degrees; Right Lateral flexion: 0 degrees to 22 degrees, Left lateral flexion: 0 degrees to 20 degrees, Right Rotation: 0 degrees to 5 degrees, Left rotation: 0 degrees to 7 degrees. Which of the following descriptions BEST characterizes the ROM findings? A. The patient has normal ROM. B. The patient is limited in one plane of motion C. The patient has hypermobility in the lumbar spine. D. The patient has a capsular pattern.
A
A therapist is grasping a patient using a grip that places their hand in an intrinsic plus position. Which of the following pairing BEST describes the muscles that are facilitating the correct associated motions in the fingers? A. Lumbricals: flexion of the MCP joints, extension of the IP joints B. Dorsal interossei: flexion of the IP joints, Adduction of the IP joints C. Palmar interossei: flexion of the IP joints, Abduction of the MCP joints D. Thenar muscles and flexion of the thumb CMC joint
A
Hip extension and posterior pelvic tilt would be MOST impaired by muscle weakness caused by injury to which of the following? A. Sciatic Nerve B. Femoral Nerve C. Ilioinguinal Nerve D. Iliohypogastric Nerve
A
Besides being a breathing muscle, the diaphragm is utilized to do which of the following (choose all that apply)? A. Stabilize the lumbar spine B. Force exhalation C. Elevate the lower ribs D. Increase intra-abdominal pressure
A C D
Which of the following is NOT an articulation that contributes directly to shoulder motion? A. Humerothoracic B. Glenohumeral C. Acromioclavicular D. Sternoclavicular
A. Humerothoracic
All of the following are stabilizers of the glenohumeral joint. Which of the following structures are the primary dynamic stabilizers for the glenohumeral joint? A. Rotator cuff muscles B. Glenohumeral joint capsule C. Glenohumeral ligaments D. Negative joint pressure in the joint capsule
A. Rotator cuff muscles
Which of the following is the predominant arthrokinematic motion at the glenohumeral joint during shoulder flexion in the sagittal plane? A. Spin B. Anterior Roll C. Posterior glide D. Inferior roll
A. Spin
Which of the following is the most accurate regarding scapular orientation in anatomical position? A. The scapula is oriented 35 degrees anterior to the frontal plane from medial (spine) to lateral (glenoid fossa) B. The scapula is directed 50 degrees posterior in the transverse plane C. The glenoid fossa is oriented 20 degrees posterior compared to the body( blade) of the scapula D. The glenoid fossa is oriented inferiorly 20 degrees compared to the horizontal
A. The scapula is oriented 35 degrees anterior to the frontal plane from medial (spine) to lateral (glenoid fossa)
A patient has difficulty side bending and turning her head to the left. You assess the patient and determine that the problem seems to be with the arthrokinematic motion at the R facet joint of C3-4 (an "opening" dysfunction). Which of the following statements BEST describes the arthrokinematic problem at the facet joints? A. The C3 left inferior facet cannot glide inferior/posterior on the C4 left inferior facet B. The C3 right inferior facet cannot glide superior/anterior on the C4 right superior facet C. The C3 right inferior facet cannot glide inferior/posterior on the C4 right superior facet D. The C3 left inferior facet cannot glide superior/anterior on the C4 left inferior facet
B
Based solely on physiological cross sectional area, which of the following muscles (also called the workhorse of elbow flexion) can produce the most force for elbow flexion? A. Biceps Brachii B. Brachialis C. Brachioradialis D. Pronator Teres
B
Coupled motion at the mid and lower cervical joints is BEST described by which of the following? A. Left sidebending, Right rotation B. Right sidebending, Right rotation C. Flexion, L sidebending D. Left rotation, right sidebending
B
Which of the following would BEST describe the articulations of the 2nd rib (keep in mind the approach of the rib toward the spine--coming from an inferior position to a more superior position. Also, remember the transverse processes are sloped slightly inferiorly, as well as posteriorly. The tubercle of the rib is where the rib articulates with the transverse process)? A. Head of rib: demi-facet on T2 and T3 vertebrae; Tubercle of rib Transverse process T2 B. Head of rib: demi-facet on T1 and T2 vertebrae; Tubercle of rib: Transverse process T2 C. Head of rib: demi-facet on T2 vertebrae; Tubercle of rib: Transverse process T2 D. Head of rib: demi-facet on T1 vertebrae; Tubercle of rib: Transverse process T2
B
With regard to the extensor mechanism of the fingers, passive flexion at the PIP joint will do which of the following? A. Increase tension on the central tendon, increase tension on the lateral bands B. Increase tension on the central tendon, decrease tension on the lateral bands C. Decrease tension on the central tendon, increase tension on the lateral bands D. Decrease tension on the central tendon, decrease tension on the lateral bands
B
Which of the following are true regarding muscles and motion in the cervical spine (Mark all correct answers)? A. Levator scapula and upper trapezius have completely opposing motions B. Multifidus muscles ascend 2-4 vertebral levels and help extend C. Sternocleidomastoid and upper trapezius have two similar actions D. Scapulae should be stationary for upper trapezius to have maximum effect on the neck
B C D
Dr. Lau fell asleep in his office in an awkward position, causing a radial nerve palsy (weakness) of his R upper extremity. Which of the following is he MOST likely to have difficulty with (mark all that apply)? A. Turning a door handle counterclockwise B. Performing a push-up C. Drinking a soda can (lifting it to your mouth) D. Carrying a small box of books E. Squeezing a hand strength dynamometer
B C E
A patient presents with significant damage of the right spinal accessory nerve with resultant atrophy of muscle(s) it innervates. Which of the following functions is likely to be MOST impaired if attempted with the affected side? A. Pulling a wallet from out of the back pocket B. Reaching up to change a light bulb in the ceiling C. scratching their opposite knee D. drinking a glass of water
B.
Which of the following is a scapular attachment of a muscle that flexes the shoulder as well as flexes and supinates the elbow joint? A. Infraglenoid tubercle B. Supraglenoid Tubercle C. Infraspinous fossa D. Radial tuberosity
B.
A patient injured the CMC joint of his thumb while holding a tool that was ripped away from his grasp. Since that time, the joint has become stiff and abduction is limited. Considering the shape of the CMC joint of the thumb, which direction would someone need to glide the base of the metacarpal to increase abduction of the thumb? (Select all that apply) A. In the same direction roll B. In the opposite direction from roll C. Dorsal/Posterior D. Volar/Anterior E. Ulnarly/Medially
B C
Which of the following BEST represents a normal ROM for the shoulder complex? A. Flexion 0 deg to 140 deg B. Abduction 0 deg to 180 deg C. External Rotation 0 deg t0 45 deg D. Internal Rotation 0 deg to 30 deg
B. Abduction 0 deg to 180 deg
You are treating a patient that needs to have the SC joint mobilized to improve protraction. In which direction will you mobilize (glide) the clavicle to encourage appropriate arthrokinematics and restore clavicular protraction? A. Inferior B. Anterior C. Posterior D. Superior
B. Anterior
The costoclavicular ligament provides stabilization for (or resistance to--becomes taut) all EXCEPT which of the following clavicular motions? A. Elevation B. Depression C. Protraction D. Retraction
B. Depression
With regard to the following options, upward rotation of the scapula BEST assists with glenohumeral abduction in which of the following ways? A. Decrease length of the supraspinatus B. Maintain the length-tension of the deltoid C. increased cross sectional area of the trapezius D. decreases torque of the infraspinatus
B. Maintains the length-tension of the deltoid
A patient performs shoulder external rotation with the arm abducted to 90 degrees. About which axis does the motion take place in this position? A. Superior/Inferior B. Medial/Lateral C. Anterior/Posterior
B. Medial/ Lateral
Which of the following statements is MOST accurate regarding the scalene muscles? A. They attach to the occiput near the sternocleidomastoid B. Tightness of these muscles can cause tingling in the hand C. They cause ipsilateral rotation and side flexion D. They provide stability by decreasing the cervical lordosis
C
Which of the following is MOST LIKELY to lead to problems with subacromial impingement? Please consider arm elevation as shoulder abduction. A. arm elevation with shoulder external rotation B. arm elevation without scapular upward rotation C. arm elevation with humeral inferior glide D. arm elevation with sternoclavicular joint inferior glide
B. arm elevation without scapular upward rotation
Which of the following is the predominant motion at the atlanto-occipital (AO) joint? A. Sidebending B. Rotation C. Flexion/extension
C
During which of the following shoulder motions does the posterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament become MOST taut? A. Abduction and external rotation B. Flexion and retraction C. Abduction and internal rotation D. Extension and External rotation
C. Abduction and internal rotation
*regraded The shoulder complex has how many bony attachments to the body at the axial skeleton? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
C. 3
The coracoclavicular ligament is capable of producing which type of motion when it is passively stretched? A. Scapular retraction B. scapular downward rotation C. clavicular posterior rotation D. clavicular elevation
C. Clavicular posterior rotation
D.Which of the following bones is NOT part of the shoulder joint complex? A. Clavicle B. Scapula C. First Rib D. Humerus
C. First Rib
Impingement of the suprascapular nerve would MOST likely adversely affect which of the following actions at the shoulder? A. Scapular elevation B. Scapular retraction C. Glenohumeral stabilization D. Glenohumeral IR
C. Glenohumeral stabilization
Following a direct blow to the lateral shoulder from a fall, an athlete's AC joint is "separated" (ligaments are torn and the joint is no longer stable--Grade III). What position will the clavicle assume compared to the acromion process? A. More inferior B. More posterior C. More superior D. More medial
C. More superior
Which of the following BEST describes arthrokinematics at the glenohumeral joint during shoulder internal rotation in the anatomical position? A. Humeral head: posterior roll, posterior glide B. Humeral head: posterior roll, anterior glide C. humeral head: anterior roll, posterior glide D. humeral head: anterior roll, anterior glide
C. humeral head: anterior roll, posterior glide
A patient comes to you with the following wrist ROM measurements. Which is abnormal? A. 80 degrees flexion B. 75 degrees extension C. 35 degrees ulnar deviation D. 10 degrees radial deviation
D
Coupled motion of C6-7 is BEST described by which of the following? A. Left rotation with right sidebending B. Right rotation with left sidebending C. Flexion with right sidbending D. Left rotation with left sidebending
D
What is loose pack position of the glenohumeral joint? A. anatomic position B. 90 deg. flexion, 60 deg. abduction C. Full abduction and ER in the scapular plane D. 45 deg. abduction, 30 deg. flexion in scapular plane
D. 45 deg. abduction, 30 deg. flexion in scapular plane
Which of the following ligaments stabilizes the AC joint? A. Coracoacromial Ligament B. Coracohumeral Ligament C. Anterior AC joint ligament D. Coracoclavicular Ligament
D. Coracoclavicular ligament
Which of the following pairings of osteokinematic motion is MOST accurate when maximally protracting the scapula on the thorax? A. SC joint: Protraction; AC joint: elevation B. SC Joint: Depression; AC joint: Upward Rotation C. SC Joint: Upward rotation; AC joint: retraction D. SC joint: Protraction; AC joint: internal rotation
D. SC joint: Protraction; AC joint: internal rotation
Palpating at the T8 spinous process would MOST likely put your finger at the level of which vertebral body? A. T7 B. T8 C. Half way between T8 and T7 D. Half way between T9 and T8 E. T9
E
Regarding function of the wrist, wrist flexion is stronger than wrist extension because most hand work is done by finger flexion? A. True B. False
False
Dr. Walker has poor posture and complaints of pain in the mid thoracic spine. Your evaluation reveals that he has difficulty extending T6 on T7 because of facet joint (zygapophyseal) restriction. You choose to mobilize/manipulate this segment to improve/restore the normal arthrokinematics. Which of the following best describes the motion you attempt to improve? A. Inferior glide of the T6 inferior articular facets on the superior articular facets of T7 B. Inferior glide of the T6 inferior articular facets on the inferior articular processes of T7 C. Superior glide of the T6 inferior articular processes on the inferior articular processes of T7 D. Superior glide of the inferior articular facets of T6 on the superior articular processes of T7
A
Motion of the sacrum at the SI joints is BEST described by which of the following? A. Nutation: sacral base moves anterior/inferior B. Nutation: sacral apex moves posterior/inferior C. Counternutation: Sacral apex moves anterior/superior D. Counternutation: Sacral promontory moves anterior/superior
A
Of the following, which is the correct purpose of the TFCC? A. To bind the distal radius and ulna, stabilizing this joint B. To transmit all wrist forces proximally through the ulna C. To reinforce the radial side of the wrist D. To make the scaphoradial articulation more congruent
A
The axis of motion for nutation and counternutation at the SI joint would be best described by which of the following? A. Medial lateral axis through various sacral levels, depending on the researcher B. Superior inferior axis through the sacral promontory C. Anterior posterior axis through the ASIS D. Transverse axis through the hip joint
A
Transversospinalis muscles produce which types of motion in the thoracic spine? A. Extension and Contralateral rotation B. Flexion and Contralateral sidebending C. Extension and Ipsilateral rotation D. Flexion and Ipsilateral sidebending
A
What are the arthrokinematics at the radiocarpal joint in wrist radial deviation? A. Radial roll, ulnar glide B. Ulnar roll, radial glide C. Radial roll, radial glide D. Ulnar roll, ulnar glide
A
When a patient extends her finger at the proximal interphalangeal joint (open chain), what direction is the roll compared with the slide? A. Same direction/Dorsal B. Opposite direction/Ventral C. Same direction/Palmar D. Opposite/Dorsal
A
Which of the following BEST describes correct arthrokinematics of rib motion at the right T4 costotransverse joint? A. Inhalation: superior roll and inferior glide of the R rib on the transverse process B. Exhalation: superior roll and inferior glide of the R rib on the transverse process C. Inhalation: medial glide of the R rib on the transverse process D. Exhalation: inferior roll and inferior glide of the R rib on the transverse process
A
Which of the following BEST describes the appropriate axis of motion and accompanying rib motion with breathing? A. Upper thoracic: axis more medial-lateral: pump handle motion predominates B. Lower thoracic: axis more anterior-posterior: pump handle motion predominates C. Upper thoracic: axis more anterior-posterior: bucket handle motion predominates D. Lower thoracic: axis more medial-lateral: bucket handle motion predominates
A
Which of the following BEST describes the effect on the MCP finger joints of actively flexing the finger MCP joints? A. Reduced valgus/varus motion due to increased tension on the collateral ligaments. B. Reduced medial/lateral stability due to decreased tension in the finger flexor tendons C. Increased rotatory accessory motion due to decreased tension in finger extensor tendons D. Increased stability of the joint due to increased tension of the palmar plate
A
Which of the following BEST describes the most effective force couple to provide stability in the sagittal plane at the SI joint/pelvis? A. Erector Spinae and Rectus Abdominis B. Ipsilateral Gluteus medius and contralateral quadratus lumborum C. Ipsilateral Piriformis and Ipsilateral External abdominal oblique D. Iliopsoas and transversus abdominus
A
Which of the following describes BEST identifies structures or mechanisms that directly cause rotation of the thumb? A. Tightening of the oblique ligaments of the CMC joint B. Contraction of the opponens digiti minimi muscle C. Weakness of the flexor pollicis longus D. The thumb is not capable of rotation.
A
Which of the following forces is the structure of the intervertebral disc BEST designed to withstand prior to injury? A. Compression B. Rotation C. Shear D. Traction
A
Which of the following lumbar spine muscles has been shown to have significant tendency toward rapid and persistent atrophy after injury or prolonged bed rest? A. Multifidus B. Iliocostalis lumborum C. Quadratus lumborum D. Psoas Major
A
Which of the following muscles is NOT considered a muscle associated with inspiration? A. Transversus Thoracis B. Scalenes C. Diaphragm D. External Intercostals
A
With regard to open chain elbow flexion arthrokinematics, starting in the anatomical position, which of the following BEST describes the direction of roll relative to glide/slide of the ulna on the humerus? A Anterior roll, anterior slide B. Anterior roll, posterior slide C. Posterior roll, posterior slide D. Posterior roll, anterior slide
A
You are treating a patient that needs to have the distal row of carpals joint mobilized to improve glide for wrist extension at the midcarpal joint, particularly at the capitate bone. In which direction will you impart force at the distal row of carpals to encourage appropriate arthrokinematics of glide? A. Palmer B. Ulnar C. Radial D. Dorsal
A
A patient has tight hamstrings. Which of the following BEST describes the variation of lumbopelvic rhythm (compared to normal) most likely to be seen when bending over in a standing position? A. increased lumbar spine extension and hip flexion B. Increased thoracic and lumbar spine flexion C. Increased hip flexion with reduced lumbar flexion D. Increased lumbar flexion with reduced thoracic flexion
B
A patient lifts his arm forward. Which of the following BEST describes the timing of muscle activation from first to last? A. Anterior Deltoid, External Oblique, Transversus Abdominis B. Transversus Abdominis, Anterior Deltoid, External Oblique C. External Oblique, Internal Oblique, Anterior Deltoid D. External Oblique, Transversus Abdominis, Anterior Deltoid
B
A patient presents with OA (atlanto-occipital) joint ROM measurements (measured on X-ray) as follows: Flexion/extension: 50 degrees Side bending to each side: 20 degrees Rotation to each side: 15 degrees Given this information, which of the following is the MOST accurate conclusion supported by this specific data? A. The patient has reduced ROM in the upper cervical region B. The patient has a hypermobility in the upper cervical region C. The patient has normal ROM in the upper cervical region
B
A patient wants to push a door open. Which of the following muscles would synergize with the triceps to assist a patient to maintain elbow extension strength because of length-tension factors? A. Posterior deltoid B. Anterior deltoid C. Anconeus D. Coracobrachialis
B
A patient with back pain does an activity that causes hyperextension while his back is loaded with heavy compression. Symptoms of pain radiating from the back, down the back of his leg to the ankle and foot in combination with the mechanism of injury make the therapist suspicious of a lumbar radiculopathy. Which of the following BEST describes a justification for this reasoning based on the anatomy and forces likely to affect the lumbar spine? A. Increased compression of the anterior disc forced the nucleus pulposis to bulge through a vulnerable part of the annulus B. Increased compression on the narrowed intervertebral foramen led to pinching of the nerve roots C. Rotational forces caused weakness of the alternating layers of the nucleus pulposus D. Extension caused rupture of the anterior longitudinal ligament that reinforces that portion of the disc
B
Abnormal winging of the medial border of the scapula is MOST likely to occur under which of the following conditions? A. Decreased thoracic kyphosis and weak upper trapezius B. Decreased thoracic kyphosis and weak upper trapezius C. Injured AC joint and tight Latissimus Dorsi D. SC joint stiffness and tight Rhomboid muscles
B
Comparing the C3 vertebra with the C7 vertebra, which of the following BEST describes the primary difference in the orientation of the articular facets on the superior articular processes? A. C7- face more medial B. C7- face more posterior C. C3- face more anterior D.C3- face more inferior
B
Extension of the MCP joints of the fingers requires which of the following arthrokinematic motions? A. Dorsal roll, ventral slide B. Dorsal roll, dorsal slide C. Ventral roll, ventral slide D. Ventral roll, dorsal slide
B
Flexion of the cervical spine (as compared to extension) is MOST likely to do which of the following? A. Increase compression on the inferior articular processes B. Increase compression on the anterior aspect of the intervertebral disc C. Decrease intervertebral foraminal space D. Increase compression on the posterior aspect of the intervertebral disc
B
Injury to the phrenic nerve would most impair which of the following? A. Exhalation B. Inhalation C. Thoracic sidebending D. Thoracic rotation
B
The arthrokinematic motions between the L2 and L3 vertebrae are BEST characterized by which of the following pairings? A. Extension: posterior roll, anterior slide of the inferior articular process of L3 B. Left lateral flexion: L inferior articular facet of L2 slides inferiorly on L superior articular facet of L3 C. Right rotation: approximation of the L superior facet of L2 and the L inferior facet of L3 D. Extension: gapping of the superior facets of L2 from the inferior facets of L3
B
The auricular surfaces of the sacrum and ilium at the SI joint, are semi-circular, "boomerang shaped," with the open, concave part of the "boomerang" facing primarily which direction? A. Inferior B. Posterior C. Lateral D. Anterior
B
The axes of wrist flexion/extension and wrist radial/ulnar deviation is in which carpal bone? A. Lunate B. Capitate C. Scaphoid D. Radius
B
The bony and ligamentous constraints of the vertebrae in the thoracic cage restrict motion to provide stability. However, they do allow for some important vertebral motions. Which of the following vertebral arthrokinematic motions is restricted the LEAST? A. Anterior translation of the inferior articular facet B. Superior glide of the inferior articular process C. Lateral glide of the rib at the transverse process D. Posterior translation of the vertebral body
B
The lumbosacral angle changes depending on the position of the pelvis and lumbar spine. Which of the following pairings BEST describes this relationship? A. Anterior tilt: decreased lumbosacral angle B. Posterior tilt: decreased lumbosacral angle C. Increased lumbar lordosis: decreased lumbosacral angle D. Decreased lumbar lordosis: Increased lumbosacral angle
B
The orientation of the superior articular facet in the lumbar spine is BEST described by which of the following? A. Superior B. Medial C. Lateral D. Anterior
B
The structure indicated by Letter I in the picture is most likely to become tight during which of the following motions of the spine? (sacrotuberous) A. Lumbar extension B. Nutation of the sacrum C. Ilial anterior rotation at the SI joint D. Counternutation of the sacrum
B
Tightness/contracture in the bilateral hip flexors is MOST likely to be associated with which of the following? A. Decreased lumbar lordosis B. Increased anterior pelvic tilt C. Decreased torsion at the SI joint D. Increased posterior sacral promontory motion
B
What is one of the main purposes of the interosseous membrane of the forearm? A. To bind the radius and ulna together to prevent too much pronation/supination B. To disperse weight bearing compressive forces to the ulna C. To shift weight bearing compressive forces to the radius D. To prevent ulnar variance
B
Which nerve of the forearm would most likely be affected (palsied) if the patient had weakness of the extensor carpi radialis longus? A. Median B. Radial C. Ulnar D. Musculocutaneous
B
Which of the following BEST describes characteristics unique to the vertebrae in the lumbar region of the spine? A. Biconvex vertebral body B. Shorter, thicker spinous processes C. Presence of transverse foramen D. Prominent costal articular facets
B
Which of the following BEST describes the arthrokinematics of the 4th rib on the transverse process that occur at the costotransverse joint caused by contraction of the external intercostal muscles? A. Inferior roll, superior glide B. Superior roll, inferior glide C. Inferior roll, inferior glide D. Superior roll, superior glide
B
Which of the following BEST describes the coupling of motion in the lumbar spine according to what you were taught in lab and lecture? A. L4 on L5: R rotation in flexed position, side bending L B. L5 on S1: L rotation in flexed position, side bending ipsilateral C. L3 on L 4: L sidebending in extension, side bending contralateral
B
Which of the following can cause a DISI carpal rotational collapse? A. Fracture of the trapezius B. Scapholunate ligament tear C. Colles fracture of the radius D. ulnar translocation of the carpus
B
Which of the following is MOST likely to cause increased tension in the interosseous membrane in the forearm (cause it to tighten up)? A. Lifting a heavy suitcase B. Using crutches for ambulation C. Pulling a door handle D. Shaking someone's hand
B
Which of the following is NOT a primary function of the intrinsic pelvic musculature? A. Support for pelvic organs B. Keep urogenital orifices open C. Support during increased intraabdominal pressure D. Control of functions such as micturition E. Control of functions such as micturition
B
Which of the following muscles BEST produces both elbow flexion and forearm supination, and has its innervation from the radial nerve? A. Supinator B. Brachioradialis C. Biceps Brachii D. Pronator Teres
B
Which of the following muscles has the greatest moment arm and the most direct line of pull for resisting contralateral trunk sidebending? A. Intertransversarii B. Quadratus lumborum C. External Abdominal Oblique D. Psoas Major
B
Which of the following muscles in the cervical spine extends and rotates to the same side? A. Longus capitis B. Obliquus Capitis Inferior C. Upper trapezius D. Sternocleidomastoid
B
Which of the following muscles is LEAST likely to contribute directly to intra-abdominal pressure and stabilization? A. Transversus abdominus B. Psoas Major C. Internal abdominal oblique D. Diaphram
B
Which of the following represents the external moment (torque) MOST likely to be increased at the mid and upper thoracic spine by a forward head posture that must be counterbalanced by postural and trunk stabilizing muscle force? A. Lateral Flexion B. Flexion C. Rotation D. Extension
B
Which of the following terms best describes the following picture? (hand close by side) A. Cubital vaglus B. Cubital varus C. Cubital recurvatum D. Cubital excurvatum
B
A family member comes to you indicating that their child has stopped using her left arm and is holding their elbow, complaining of pain on the lateral side. The parent cannot think of anything they may have done except help the child jump over a stream by pulling on the arm at the wrist/hand. You suspect the that there is MOST likely an instability causing the problem due to which of the following? A. Ulnar (medial) collateral ligament sprain B. Biceps muscle strain C. Inferior subluxation of radial head D. Distal radius fracture
C
A fracture through the waist of the scaphoid bone could potentially lead to which pathologic condition? A. Kienbock's Disease B. Scaphoid distal pole avascular necrosis C. Scaphoid proximal pole avascular necrosis D. Positive ulnar variance
C
A patient has weakness with right trunk rotation. Which of the following pairings of muscles would be BEST to strengthen? A. L internal oblique; R latissimus Dorsi B. R internal oblique; R Erector spinae C. L external oblique, R internal oblique D. R external oblique, L transversus abdominus
C
A relatively slouched (forward head and shoulder) posture is MOST likely to cause which of the following? A. Increased moment arm of the erector spinae muscles B. Increased tension on the anterior longitudinal ligament C. Increased force of the external resistance D. Increased compression of the interbody joints
C
A therapist wishes to exercise the elbow flexors using isometric exercises. Which of the following positions would be CLOSEST to optimal to produce the largest amount of torque (in what ROM are the elbow flexors strongest)? A. 20 Degrees flexion B. 60 Degrees flexion C. 80 Degrees flexion D. 120 Degrees flexion
C
Arthrokinematics at the atlanto-occipital joint would BEST be described by which of the following? A. Extension: Occiput anterior roll; condyles posterior slide B. Extension: Occiput posterior roll; condyles posterior slide C. Flexion: Occiput anterior roll; condyles posterior slide D. Flexion: Occiput posterior roll; condyles anterior slide
C
Dr. Bartholomew needs to have the radial head mobilized posteriorly to improve elbow extension following a bicycle crash while on the LOTOJA, and you wish to place his elbow as close to open pack position as possible. Which of the following BEST describes this position? A. 70 degrees flexion, 10 degrees supination B. 90 degrees flexion, 5 degrees supination C. 0 degrees extension, 85 degrees supination D. 35 degrees supination, 70 degrees flexion
C
Increased stability of the joint due to increased tension of the palmar plate A. Decreased moment arm for flexion at the joint nearest the torn pulley B. Increased torque capability due to increase moment arm at a nearby finger joint C. Decreased flexor torque due to active insufficiency of finger flexors D. Increased extensor torque due to passive insufficiency of finger flexors
C
Which of the following combinations of motions at the thumb BEST describe those required to perform opposition of the thumb to the little finger? A. Medial rotation, extension, abduction B. Flexion, adduction, and lateral rotation C. Abduction, flexion, medial rotation D. Extension, lateral rotation, adduction
C
Relative motion between the ilium and sacrum at the SI joint is best described by which of the following? A. Anterior ilial rotation/tilt: Nutation of the sacrum B. Anterior pelvic tilt: Sacrum anterior and inferior "glide" C. Counternutation of the sacrum: relative anterior ilial rotation/tilt D. Posterior rotation/tilt of the ilium: superior and anterior "glide" of the sacrum
C
Relative orientation of the inferior articular facets in the thoracic spine (i.e. which way do they point) is BEST described by which of the following? A. Superior/lateral/posterior B. Superior/ medial/ posterior C. Anterior/inferior/medial D. Anterior/inferior/lateral
C
Side bending the thoracic cage to the right (cranial to caudal) at the articulations between the T6-T7 vertebrae would be BEST described by which of the following arthrokinematics? A. T6 L inferior facet: inferior glide, T7 R inferior facet inferior glide B. T6 L superior facet: superior glide, T6 R inferior facet: superior glide C. T6 L inferior facet: superior glide, T6 R inferior facet: inferior glide D. T6 L inferior facet: superior glide, T7 R superior facet: inferior glide
C
The Law of Parsimony for elbow flexion suggests which of the following flexor muscles will contract first? A. Brachioradialis B. Biceps brachii C. Pronator teres D. Brachialis
C
The SI joint/pelvis is most stable in which of the following positions? A. Left pelvic rotation B. Counternutation C. Sacral Nutation D. Lateral pelvic tilt
C
The motions that occur at the lumbosacral junction do NOT include which of the following? A. Flexion B. Extension C. Nutation D. Rotation
C
The orientation of the facet joints in the lumbar spine would limit which of the following motions the MOST? A. Flexion B. Extension C. Rotation D. Side bending
C
Weakness caused by radial nerve injury would adversely affect adduction force of the thumb at the CMC joint because of weakness of which of the following muscles? A. Adductor pollicis B. Abductor pollicis brevis C. Extensor pollicis longus D. Extensor carpi radialis longus
C
Weakness in which of the following muscles will MOST likely lead to the most problems with tip-to-tip pinch grip? A. Flexor digitorum superficialis B. Fifth dorsal interossei C. Flexor digitorum profundus D. Lumbricals
C
What is the PREDOMINANT arthrokinematic motion that occurs at the radio-humeral joint caused by the supinator muscle? A. Anterior Roll B. Supination C. Spin D. Posterior glide
C
What is the least amount of pronation and supination a person needs to stay functional at the forearm? A. 30 deg./130 deg respectively B. 25 deg./35 deg respectively C. 50 deg./50 deg. respectively D. 75 deg./75 deg. respectively
C
Which compartment of the midcarpal joint is the most mobile and why (what is its purpose)? A. Lateral, to stabilize the medial hand B. Medial, to stabilize the lateral hand C. Medial, to assist in cupping the hand D. Lateral, to assist in cupping the hand
C
Which of the following BEST describes motion in the lumbar spine? A. Flexion: Posterior vertebral body translation, spinous process moves superior, superior motion of transverse processes B. Extension: spinous process moves inferior, Transverse processes move superior, posterior vertebral body translation C. L Rotation: Spinous process moves contralateral, contralateral transverse process moves anterior, vertebral body rotates left D. Lateral flexion: spinous process moves superior, contralateral transverse process moves inferior, vertebral body translates superior
C
Which of the following BEST describes the action of intrinsic muscles in the fingers? A. The Lumbricals flex the MCP joints because the line of pull is dorsal to the axis of rotation B. The Interossei extend the MCP joints because the line of pull is volar to the axis of rotation C. The Lumbricals flex the IP joints because the line of pull is volar to the axis of rotation D. The Interossei extend the IP joints because the line of pull is dorsal to the axis of rotation
C
Which of the following BEST describes the combined function of the infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis muscles at the glenohumeral joint? A. Drive the superior roll and slide of the humeral head B. Create a semirigid spacer above the humeral head C. Exert a depression force (inferior glide) on the humeral head D. Externally rotate the humerus
C
Which of the following BEST describes the concentric action of muscles to create the scapular and/or humeral motion with a pull up? A. Rhomboids pull superior-medially on the scapula to create scapular upward rotation B. Posterior Deltoid pulls superiorly to create elevation of the humerus C. Teres Major pulls posterior-inferiorly to create adduction of the humerus D. Latissimus Dorsi pulls posteriorly to create upward rotation of the Scapula
C
Which of the following BEST describes the motion at the interbody joint (disc) C4-C5? A. Extension: anterior translation of C4 vertebral body relative to C5 B. Flexion: anterior translation of the C5 vertebral body relative to C4 C. Flexion: anterior translation of C4 vertebral body relative to C5 D. Extension: Posterior translation of C5 vertebral body relative to C4
C
Which of the following BEST describes vertebral motion of T2 on T3 with right thoracic rotation? A. T2 right transverse process moves anterior B. T2 left Inferior articular process glides left C. T2 Spinous process moves to the right D. T2 Vertebral body translates inferiorly
C
Which of the following best describes relative motion at the joint between C1 and C2? A. Rotation right: anterior glide of left superior articular process of C2 B. Rotation right: posterior glide of right superior process of C2 C. Rotation left: Posterior glide of left inferior articular process of C1 D. Rotation left: anterior glide of the left inferior articular process of C1
C
Which of the following best describes what would happen in the finger joints with tightness of the extensor digitorum muscle combined with weakness of the lumbricals? A. Extension of the MCP joints with extension of the IP joints B. Flexion of the MCP joints with extension of the IP joints C. Extension of the MCP joints with flexion of the IP joints D. Flexion of the MCP joints with flexion of the IP joints
C
Which of the following is LEAST accurate regarding "bow stringing" of the flexor tendons of the fingers? A. It can result in an increased flexor tendon moment arm B. It can result in active insufficiency of finger flexors C. It can result from rupture of the extensor retinaculum D. It can result from rupture of the finger pulleys
C
Which of the following is LEAST likely to increase joint reaction forces in the lumbar spine discs? A. Lifting a 45 pound weight using a "squat" lifting style B. Sitting in a slouched position while working on the computer C. Performing a prone press-up exercise to increase extension ROM D. Performing a abdominal crunch exercise
C
Which of the following is MOST accurate regarding the regional differences in vertebral morphology? A. Thoracic vertebrae have foramina in the transverse processes B. Coccygeal vertebrae have the largest vertebral foramen C. Lumbar vertebrae have relatively larger vertebral bodies D. Cervical vertebrae have longer, thinner spinous processes
C
Which of the following is MOST likely to result from weakness of the lumbrical muscles? A. Decreased strength with MCP joint extension of the fingers B. Decreased flexion ROM of the PIP joint of the fingers C. Weak extension of the IP joints of the fingers D. Increased flexion AROM of the MCP joints of the fingers
C
Which of the following is the MOST likely mechanism of injury that would cause the deformity indicated by letter "B" in the picture (boutonniere deformity of the finger)? A. Avulsion of the extensor tendon from the distal phalanx B. Rupture of a fibrous pulley at the PIP joint C. Rupture of the central tendon from the middle phalanx D. Avulsion of the flexor digitorum profundus from the middle phalanx
C
Which of the following is true regarding the surface of the distal radius that articulates with the carpals? A. The articular surface is bi-convex B. The articular surface articulates with the pisiform C. The articular surface is tilted toward the ulna D. The articular surface is oriented dorsally
C
Which of the following motions at T4-5 in the thoracic spine requires arthrokinematic motions of the two apophyseal joints that are in opposite directions in the same plane? A. Rotation B. Flexion C. Lateral Flexion D. Extension
C
Which of the following muscle pairs work together to produce the stated motion? A. Right hip abductors, right lateral trunk benders: R lateral pelvic tilt B. Trunk flexors, Hip flexors: posterior pelvic tilt C. Trunk extensors, Hip flexors: anterior pelvic tilt
C
Which of the following muscles run from the spinous processes of the cervical vertebrae to the occiput and causes extension and ipsilateral sidebending? A. Semispinalis cervicis B. Multifidus C. Splenius capitis D. Longissimus cervicis
C
Which of the following pairings BEST describe normal lumbo-pelvic rhythm returning from a flexed position? A. Early phase: greater contribution of returning trunk to upright position is by spine extension B. Early phase: greater contribution of returning trunk to upright position is by hip extension C. Completion: maximum muscle activity in trunk extensors and hip extensors
C
A patient has a delayed, and somewhat empty end-feel with passive rotation to the left of the head/upper cervical spine (compared motion to the right). Which of the following ligaments is MOST likely to be lax or damaged? A. Anterior longitudinal ligament B. Alar ligament, left side portion C. Transverse ligament D. Alar ligament, right side portion
D
A patient has difficulty raising themselves out of a chair using the arm rests. Weakness of which of the following muscles do you expect is the MOST likely cause? A. Acconeus B. Biceps C. Pectorialis Major D. Latissimus Dorsi E. A persistent supratentorial condition affecting levels of cognition that started well before any injury
D
A patient is performing an abdominal bracing exercise for the low back while in quadruped. The patient kicks the L leg behind him. What is the predominant external moment acting at the left hip and pelvis? (bird dog positions) A. Extension, anterior pelvic tilt B. Compression, nutation C. Abduction, right lateral tilt D. Flexion, posterior pelvic tilt
D
A patient performs single leg stance on the left. Which of the following BEST describes motions and/or forces at the hip and /or pelvis? A. Pelvic girdle lateral flexion occurs at the R SI joint B. Left PSIS moves posteriorly and superiorly C. Right pubic bone glides anterior at the pubic joint D. Left hip abduction internal moment (torque) increases
D
A patient presents with 0-115 degrees of passive elbow ROM with a hard end feel for flexion. Which of the following statements is MOST accurate? A. Motion is normal, end feel is normal B. Motion is normal, end feel is abnormal C. Motion is limited, end feel is normal D. Motion is limited, end feel is abnormal
D
A patient presents with excessive anterior tilt of the scapula, and forward/depressed shoulders, without other major positional problems. Which of the following muscles is MOST likely to be tight? A. Anterior Deltoid B. Levator Scapula C. Lower trapezius D. Pectoralis minor
D
A patient who is standing in front of a wall, leans forward, bending at the hips and trunk, to put her hands on the wall before beginning a wall push up. Which of the following is the LEAST accurate description of what is happening before she makes contact with the wall with her hands? A. Internal moment of the trunk extensor muscles is increased B. The external moment arm for trunk flexion is increased C. The center of mass moves beyond the limit of the base of support D. Pelvic girdle posterior tilt external moment exceeds that of anterior tilt moment
D
An ulnar nerve injury is MOST likely to result in which of the following types of hand deformities associated with imbalances of the forces due to the muscles that would be weak? A. Flexed position PIP joint of one finger (Trigger Finger) B. Flexed wrist position and flexed fingers (Drop Wrist) C. Flexed positions of thumb MCP and IP, extended CMC of thumb (Ape Thumb/hand) D. Extended positions at MCP joints, flexed positions at PIP and DIP joints (Claw Hand) E. Fully clenched fist holding a penny found on the ground walking at the mall (Sykes Hand)
D
During stance phase on the L and swing phase on the right of gait, the axis of motion for pelvic girdle rotation is BEST described by which of the following? A. Medial lateral axis through the sacrum near the right auricular surface B. Vertical axis through the center of the sacral base C. Anterior posterior axis through the L5 vertebra D. Superior inferior axis through the left hip joint
D
In anatomical position, the axis of rotation of the spine is best described by which of the following? A. Through the anterior longitudinal ligament B. Through the middle of the posterior arch C. Through the middle of the spinal canal D. Through the middle of the vertebral body
D
In the following Picture, flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint of the third digit (middle finger) is MOST likely caused by which of the following? A. Contracture of the Flexor Digitorum Superficialis B. Tightness of the Central Band C. Volar slipping of the lateral bands D. Tension of the Flexor Digitorum Profundus E. Superficial behavior of The Band Chung-hoon
D
Protraction of the head includes which of the following motions? A. Craniovertebral flexion, lower cervical extension B. Craniovertebral flexion, lower cervical flexion C. Craniovertebral extension, lower cervical extension D. Craniovertebral extension, lower cervical flexion
D
The arthrokinematics at radiolunate and lunocapitate joints for open chain wrist flexion are? A. Role dorsally, slide volarly B. Role volarly, slide volarly C. Role dorsally, slide dorsally D. Role volarly, slide dorsally
D
The mechanism by which wrist extension can flex the fingers is known as which of the following? A. Tendinosis B. Tendinitis C. Tenbrinkolosis D. Tenodesis
D
Which of the following BEST defines relative joint motions for normal scapulohumeral rhythm during shoulder complex abduction? A. 20 degrees scapulothroacic anterior tilt, 90 degrees glenohumeral abduction B. 70 degrees scapulothoracic internal rotation, 130 degrees glenohumeral abduction C. 80 degrees scapulothoracic protraction, 150 degrees glenohumeral abduction D. 60 degrees scapulothoracic upward rotation, 120 degrees glenohumeral abduction
D
Which of the following BEST describes rib motion caused by thoracic spine motion? A. T-spine side bend left: right sided ribs approximate B. T-spine extension: rib superior glide C. T-spine rotation right: left ribs move posterior D. T spine flexion: rib depression
D
Which of the following BEST describes the arthrokinematics that occur in the lumbar spine during rotation? A. R rotation: Left L3 inferior articular process approximates with the Left L4 Inferior process B. R rotation: Right L4 superior process approximates with the Right L4 inferior process C. L rotation: Left L2 superior articular process gaps from the Right L3 inferior articular process D. L rotation: Left L4 inferior process gaps from the Left L5 superior process
D
Which of the following BEST describes the impact of forces on the intervertebral disc? A. Lumbar Flexion: deformation/movement of the nucleus pulposus anteriorly B. Lumbar extension: tension across all annulus fibrosis fibers C. Right Lumbar rotation: migration of nucleus pulposus posteriorly D. Left Lumbar lateral flexion: tension in contralateral annulus fibrosis fibers
D
Which of the following BEST describes the relationship of muscular activity and/or joint position and effect on grip strength? A. Maximally flexing the wrist improves the finger flexor muscle length for maximum grip strength B. Fully extending the wrist causes active insufficiency of the wrist flexors reducing grip strength C. Contracting the ulnar deviators to hold the wrist in slight radial deviation and flexion increases grip strength D. Isometrically firing wrist flexors and extensors to position the wrist in some extension facilitates grip strength
D
Which of the following MOST accurately describes biomechanics of the cervical spine with a forward head posture (consider the COM of the head, and C6-7 as the axis)? A. Decreased external moment arm; increased internal moment arm B. Increased external moment arm; decreased internal moment arm C. Decreased internal moment arm; decreased external moment arm D. Increased internal moment arm; increased external moment arm
D
Which of the following are signs of scapular elevation weakness (choose only one answer, and all choices in an answer must be correct for the answer to be correct)? A. Internal rotation, depression, upward rotation B. Internal rotation, posterior tilt, downward rotation C. External rotation, depression, downward rotation D. Internal rotation, depression, downward rotation
D
Which of the following best describes the type of joint between the superior and inferior articular processes in the thoracic spine? A. Hinge B. Uniaxial C. Synostosis D. Synovial
D
Which of the following contributes MOST to the normal thoracic kyphotic curve seen in the spinal column? A. Laxity of posterior longitudinal ligament B. Tight diaphragm muscle C. Wedge shaped discs in the T spine D. Shorter anterior aspect of vertebral body
D
Which of the following descriptions is MOST accurate regarding the shapes of articular surfaces for the apophyseal joints of C2-3 through C6-7? A. They are at a 45 degree angle in frontal plane B. They are at a 70 degree angle in the sagittal plane C. They are at a 70 degree angle in the frontal plane D. They are at a 45 degree angle in the sagittal plane
D
Which of the following is MOST accurate regarding CERVICAL spine intervertebral discs? A. Cervical spine intervertebral discs are best suited to resist rotation forces because of the identical diagonal orientation of annulus fibers between rings B. There is a disc at AO and AA C. The nucleus is predominantly fluid by the time we reach adulthood as opposed to childhood D. The rings of the annulus fibrosis are discontinuous in adults--don't go the full way around
D
Which of the following is NOT a function of the spinal column? A. Providing vertical support for the body B. Supporting the weight of the head C. Helping to maintain upright body position D. Helping to transfer appendicular skeletal weight to the head
D
Which of the following is not considered a primary trunk flexor muscle? A. External Abdominal Oblique B. Internal Abdominal Oblique C. Rectus Abdominis D. Transversus Abdominis
D
Which of the following is the predominant motion at the atlantoaxial joint, and what is the normal ROM? A. Flexion; 5 degrees B. Extension; 10 degrees C. Side bending; 10 degrees D. Rotation: 40 degrees
D
Which of the following ligaments in the lumbar spine provides stability, resistance to end range motion, and has a relatively higher capacity to store and release potential elastic energy to assist with motion of the lumbar spine? A. Anterior Longitudinal Ligament B. Posterior Longitudinal Ligament C. Interspinous Ligament D. Ligamentum Flavum
D
Which of the following muscles has lines of pull that could increase the lumbar lordosis, cause lateral flexion, as well as both extension and flexion moments (torques) at various portions of the lumbar spine? A. Longissimus B. Quadratus lumborum C. Multifidus D. Psoas Major
D
Working together (bilateral contraction), the longus colli muscles are MOST likely to eccentrically control which of the following motions of the neck? A. R sidebending B. Flexion C. L rotation D. Extension
D
