AA Aerosim 737 Study Guide - Sep 2017
What is the minimum fuel temperature limitation?
-43C
When will a pack automatically go to high flow?
-With one pack operating, in flight with flaps retracted. -When operating one pack from APU, with both engine BLEED air switches OFF.
The Mach trim system automatically functions above Mach ____
.615
How many APU fire extinguisher bottles are installed on the aircraft?
1
Predictive windshear alerts are available from the moment takeoff power is set to what altitude?
1,200' RA
The Landing Gear Transfer Unit operates under which of the following conditions? (4 criteria)
1. Eng 1 RPM below certain limit 2. Either main gear not up and locked 3. Landing gear handle up 4. In-flight
How many emergency exits does the 737 have?
10
The speed trend vector predicts where the airspeed will be in ____ seconds.
10
What altitude does the top of the white line indicate?(white staple on altitude side of PFD)
1000' above touchdown field elevation.
The maximum altitude for APU bleed air and electrical load is:
10000'
Which of the following causes loss of IRS alignment? (Multiple)
Aircraft is moved during alignment IRS mode selector switch is moved to OFF AC and DC power failure
Which of the following are electrical power sources on the B737NG? APU, Ram Air Turbine (RAT), Engine Generators (IDG), External ground power.
All except RAT
What communication stations can be connected through the flight inter phone system?
All flight deck positions And Ground crew at the nose gear station
What color will engine oil pressure and temperature indications and readouts display in the caution range?
Amber
What does EFIS MODE/NAV FREQ DISAGREE indicate? (DU message)
An ILS frequency is tuned with the EFIS CONTROL PANEL set to VOR mode.
The secondary engine parameters will automatically appear when:
An engine fails in flight
The OIL FILTER BYPASS alert indicates:
An impending bypass of the scavenge oil filter.
What does the amber COWL ANTI-ICE light indicate?
An overpressure condition in the engine inlet cowl.
What does pushing the AFT Cargo compartment ARM switch do?
Arms the aft compartment squib
How is the lavatory fire extinguisher discharged?
Automatically
What is the purpose of the Bus Tie Breakers?
Automatically control AC power distribution.
When a fault is detected in one of the engine fire detector loops, the system _____
Automatically reconfigures to single detector operations.
Which side of the pneumatic manifold normally receives APU bleed air?
Left
With the FMC Source Select switch in the NORMAL position, both CDUs are controlled by the ___ FMC.
Left
Which of the following are required to engage an Autopilot in CMD? (Select all that apply)
No force applied to the control wheel AND Stabilizer trim AUTOPILOT Cutout switches in the normal position.
What are the flight deck indications of the lavatory extinguishing system being used?
No indications
Two basic principles of AC electrical operation are:
No paralleling of AC power sources And A source of power connected to an AC transfer bus automatically disconnects the previous source.
What powers alternate gear extension?
None of the above. Alternate gear extension is unpowered, instead working mechanically with air and gear weight.
During Flap Load Relief, when the flaps are set at 30, the TE flaps:
Retract to 25 if the airspeed exceeds 176 knots.
Which side of the pneumatic manifold normally receives external ground air?
Right
The primary flight controls consist of: (Multiple)
Rudders, Ailerons, Elevators
How is the autothrottle disengaged?
Selecting the A/T ARM switch to off Or Pressing either disengage switch on the thrust levers Or Automatically by a fault in the system Or 2 seconds after touchdown Or Thrust levers separated by more than 10 degrees Or Significant thrust difference with control wheel roll greater than 10 degrees.
The normal method for shutting down the APU is?
Selecting the APU switch to OFF
What does selecting the IGN L with the Ignition Select Switch provide?
Selects the left igniter for use on both engines.
Which of the Leading Edge Devices are NOT monitored for skew conditions?
Slats 1 and 8
When does the Pitch Limit Indicator (PLI) (yellow arrow tail looking marks) display on the PFD?
Slow airspeed And Flaps Extended
If the EEC normal mode is not available, the EEC downgrades to:
Soft alternate mode
By selecting the Engine Anti Ice on, which additional systems are affected?
Stall warning logic is set for icing conditions And The EECs reset to approach idle.
If normal electrical power is lost, which cockpit lights automatically illuminate?
Stby mag compass, emergency instrument flood lights and the dome light on CAs side of flight deck.
The standby system provides backup hydraulic pressure to which of the following?
Stby yaw damper, thrust reversers and rudder
(CDU) Any page containing boxes indicates that data entry into that field is mandatory t/f
T
(Window heat panel) When the OVERHEAT light illuminates Power is automatically removed from the respective window(s). T/f
T
Actual Navigation Performance (ANP) is the FMC's estimate of the quality of its position determination. T/f
T
After selecting the CROSSFEED Selector to OPEN or CLOSE, it is normal to see the VALVE OPEN light illuminate bright momentarily.
T
As a result of moving the APU switch to start, the low oil light illuminates, the fuel shutoff valve opens and the air inlet door opens. T/f
T
As the "brain" of the engine the EEC provides engine overboost and overspeed protection, but does not provide EGT overtemp protection in flight. T/f
T
As the aircraft reaches the top of climb, the FMC/CDU automatically sequences from the CLB page to the CRZ page t/f
T
Brake accumulator, parking brake, auto brakes and anti skid to each wheel is available in the normal braking system t/f
T
Center tank pumps have greater pressure than main tank pumps t/f
T
Differences between left and right duct pressure is normal as long as there is sufficient air for cabin pressurization t/f
T
During normal operation, both fire detection loops in one engine must detect a fire or overheat condition to activate a fire warning or overheat alert. T/F
T
Each landing gear unit is equipped with two air/ground sensors t/f
T
Enhanced GPWS, or EGPWS, uses a GPS signal and terrain database to provide "look-ahead alerting". T/f
T
Grasping the Stabilizer Trim Wheel stops the electric trim from moving the horizontal stabilizer. T/F
T
If a leak develops in hydraulic system A engine driven pump lines the fluid level will drop to approximately 20% and hydraulic system pressure will not be lost.
T
If a leak in hydraulic system B electric motor driven pump lines the fluid level will drop down to the standpipe. All pressure will be lost, however, sufficient fluid remains for PTU operation.
T
If both A and B hydraulic system fail there is no decrease in controllability t/f
T
If the autopilot is engaged, actuating either pair of stabilizer trim switches automatically disengages the autopilot. T/F
T
It is important that Engine Anti Ice be selected on prior to entering icing conditions t/f
T
It is possible to transfer fuel on the ground between tanks utilizing the defuel valve t/f
T
Left engine BLEED AIR switch selected ON and APU bleed air valve OPEN will cause the DUAL BLEED light to illuminate t/f?
T
RNP values can be manually entered by the flight crew t/f
T
Right engine BLEED AIR switch selected ON, isolation valve OPEN, and APU bleed valve OPEN will cause the DUAL BLEED light to illuminate t/f?
T
Surge tanks are located outboard of the main tanks t/f
T
Surge tanks are vented to the exterior t/f
T
Terrain Awareness is displayed on the pilot's ND automatically during an EPGWS terrain alert t/f
T
The 73 is certified for operation in known icing conditions t/f
T
The APU operates at a constant speed to meet the aircrafts electrical demand t/f
T
The EEC is comprised of two channels, primary and secondary. Either channel is capable of controlling the engine. T/f
T
The EECs primary mode of operation is the normal mode t/f
T
The Power Transfer Unit (PTU) operates which of the Leading Edge flaps, slats and autoslats t/f
T
The amber CDS FAULT message indicates a non-dispatchable fault t/f
T
The dome light on the P18 panel (the Captain's side) has dual bulbs installed t/f
T
The forward and aft cargo compartments are equipped with dual smoke detector loops that sense smoke particles. T/F
T
The fuel panel does not indicate the presence of fuel in each surge tank t/f
T
The main wheel well has fire detection capabilities but no fire extinguishing Systems. T/F
T
The oxygen mask microphone is disabled and the boom microphone is enabled when the left oxygen mask panel door is closed and the TEST/RESET Switch is pushed.
T
The stabilizer trim, parking brake, trailing edge flaps, speed brake lever are monitored by the Takeoff Configuration alert? T/F
T
The standby hydraulic system has a single electric motor-driven pump t/f
T
The three hydraulic systems do not share pumps or reservoirs t/f
T
There are no flight deck power requirements for powering the refueling system t/f
T
There is no flight deck control for the fuel scavenge pump t/f
T
When refueling, fuel is delivered to the fuel tanks via a separate refueling manifold t/f
T
What is the purpose of the automatic on-line feature?
To automatically transfer power to the engine generators in the event the APU is shut down or fails while connected to both AC Transfer busses.
What is the purpose of selecting the BUS TRANSFER switch OFF?
To open the cross bus tie relay And To inhibit Bus Tie Breaker auto switching.
The purpose of the recirculation fans is:
To reduce the pack demand for bleed air.
Flight Path Angle (FPA) is the actual flight path angle based on present ground speed and ______.
Vertical speed
The maximum altitude for APU electrical generator use is (no bleed air use):
41000'
At what altitude AGL will the GPWS alert if the landing gear is not down and locked?
500 AGL
Terrain that is ________ is displayed as shaded amber dots.
500 BELOW to 2000 ABOVE the airplane
During a normal start, when should the ENGINE START switch automatically move from the GRD position to the OFF position?
56% N2 RPM
Primary bleed air comes from the _____ stage compressor section.
5th
The engine driven pump provides ____ times the fluid volume as the respective electric motor driven pump.
6
During a CLB-2 reduced thrust climbout, N1 is reduced by _____%.
6%
The ________ controls and monitors the APU.
Electronic Control Unit (ECU)
The Leading Edge Slats are in which position. (Green indications in EXT row)
Extended
What does the blue GRD POWER AVAILABLE light indicate?
External power is connected and meets aircraft quality standards.
As a result of selecting the APU switch to start, the blue MAINT light illuminates for 2 seconds during an ECU self test t/f
F
In the event hydraulic system B fails, the LE devices can be retracted after being extended during the Alternate Flap Extension method. T/F
F
It is not possible to test the indicator lights on the 73 t/f
F
Left engine BLEED Air switch selected ON, isolation valve OPEN, right engine BLEED Air switch ON, and APU bleed air valve CLOSED.will cause the DUAL BLEED light to illuminate? T/f
F
Operating the engines with no fuel pumps selected will likely cause a flameout t/f
F
Rapid thrust lever movement can "confuse" the EEC, potentially causing excessive fuel usage. T/f
F
The 737 can jettison fuel t/f
F
The static ports are heated when the PROBE HEAT switches are selected ON T/F
F
There are no flight deck controls to deploy the passenger oxygen masks manually. T/F
F
Full movement of the nosewheel tiller can turn the nose wheel up to a maximum of 65 degrees in either direction. T/f
F, 78 degrees
The radar shows weather returns up to 640 nautical miles, when 640 is selected on the EFIS Panel t/f
F, Max returns 320nm
The nosegear taxi light automatically illuminates when the nose landing gear is down and locked with the switch off t/f
F, controlled by TAXI switch on light panel
While in-flight the wing Anti-Ice valves will automatically close if an overheat is sensed t/f
F, only does this on the ground
The Mach/Airspeed Warning can be cancelled by pressing the Master Caution Reset light t/f
F, only stopped by slowing below Vmo/Mmo
The landing gear warning horn can be silenced if any of the gear is not down and locked with flaps at 30 degrees. T/f
F. The landing gear warning horn cannot be silenced if any gear are not down and locked and: Flaps are greater than 10 The aircraft is below 200 RA and flaps are at 0-10.
Which of the following provides necessary input data for Autopilot A?
FCC A
During cruise flight, an ELEC light indicates a fault in the DC power system or standby system. T/F
False, only indicates a fault in the DC power system or standby system while on the ground.
An illuminated MCP switch indicates the active navigation mode T/F
False.
GEN OFF BUS light only illuminates when the engine generator is running and is not powering the related AC Transfer Bus. T/F
False. These lights illuminate whenever the engine generator is not powering the related AC Transfer Bus. This includes when the generator is not operating, such as when an engine is shut down.
During normal operation, DEU 2 supplies information to which Display Units?
First Officers DU. DEU powers the FOs and the lower DU.
The Flap Load Relief function operates when flaps are in which position? (Multiple)
Flaps 30/40 on a/c 3AA to 3LB
Which panels has controls for the emergency lights?
Flight deck overhead panel And Aft attendant panel
If the aileron control system is jammed, force applied to the FOs control wheel provides roll control from the ____
Flight spoilers
What is the name of the component that calculates fuel quantity?
Fuel Quantity Processor Unit
The Fuel Quantity Indication system is comprised of? (Multiple)
Fuel Quantity indicators, fuel Quantity processor unit and fuel Quantity sensors in each tank.
IDG low oil pressure, with the DRIVE light illuminated, is caused by which of the following conditions?
IDG failure or manual disconnect Engine shutdown Automatic disconnect
Which of the following causes the DRIVE light to illuminate?
IDG oil pressure low
To make a heading change greater than 180 degrees, the HDG SEL switch should be pressed then the Heading Selector rotated in the desired direction of turn. T/F
True
When the SERVICE INTERPHONE switch is selected ON, additional communication jacks are available for use by ground personnel. T/F
True
The Wing Anti Ice has just been selected off. The stall warning logic remains set for icing conditions for the remainder of the flight t/f
True, because the entire Leading Edge is not fully heated the stall warning logic remains set for flight in icing conditions for the remainder of the flight.
During descent in VNAV PTH, pitch maintains the vertical flight path while aircraft speed is secondary. T/F
True.
Which of the following sources of information does the Air Data Inertial Reference System (ADIRS) use to provide data to the flight instruments? (Multiple)
Two alpha vanes And Two main pitot probes
What is displayed on the CDU scratchpad if ANP exceeds the limit RNP value during an approach?
UNABLE REQD NAV PERF-RNP
During takeoff what does the following bug indicate? (White bug on airspeed indicator side of PFD)
V2 + 15
What speed does the flight director command during climb shortly after takeoff?
V2 + 20
The RADAR antenna can be manually tilted to a maximum of _____ .
+/- 15 degrees relative to the aircraft
At what altitude will the passenger oxygen masks deploy automatically?
14000' MSL
On the ground, the minimum amount of fuel required in each main fuel tank to operate an electric hydraulic pump is?
1675 lbs
APU bleed air can be used up to _____ feet.
17000'
The maximum altitude for APU bleed air is (no electric load):
17000'
What is the maximum pressure for the flight crew oxygen system?
1850 PSI
How many ILS receivers are installed?
2
How many TR units are capable of supplying the total connected load?
2
How many engine fire extinguisher bottles are installed on the aircraft?
2
A RESOLUTION ADVISORY Alerts the pilots when an aircraft is approximately _____ seconds from point of closest approach.
25
During a reduced thrust takeoff, the maximum reduction that the FMC will allow is _____% N1.
25%
Which of the following is the recommended altitude for an APU start?
25000'
How many Transformer Rectifier (TRs) does the 73 have?
3
How many DC motors are able to control the outflow valve?
3, a manual motor, motor 1 and motor 2.
With a loss of all generators, what duration of time can the aircrafts batteries power the standby system?
30 minutes
The equipment cooling system contains ___ fans, ___ supply/exhaust.
4, 2 and 2
A TRAFFIC ADVISORY alerts the pilots when an aircraft is approximately ______ seconds from point of closest approach.
40
The Ground Service Busses provide power to?
Aircraft cabin and battery charger
The alternate braking system is powered by which hydraulic system?
A
The landing gear is powered by hydraulic system ___.
A
What hydraulic system NORMALLY powers nose wheel steering?
A
What hydraulic system provides pressure for normal landing gear extension and retraction?
A
Air for APU compartment cooling is drawn from which location?
A (intake on tail)
The aircraft has both engines running, there is more than 1600 lbs of fuel in the center tank and the center tank fuel pump switches are OFF. What indication will you see?
A CONFIG message on the center tank fuel Quantity indication
During climb the autothrottle mode is N1. What does the autothrottle command?
A fixed thrust setting at climb N1.
The mix manifold receives air from:
A. Left pack B. Recirculation fans C. Right pack
What happens when the STANDBY POWER switch is placed to the BAT position?
AC Standby, DC standby and Battery busses are placed on battery power.
What is the normal AC source of power for TR3?
AC Transfer Bus 2, with a backup from AC Transfer Bus 1.
Fuel can be fed to the APU by which of the following?
AC powered fuel pump And Suction feed
The STANDBY PWR OFF light illuminates, what electrical busses may not be powered?
AC standby Bus Or DC Standby Bus Or Battery Bus
How does the APU receive fuel for starting and operation when there is no AC electrical power available?
APU suction feeds from Main Tank 1
Which are sources of bleed air?
APU, pressurized external air, engines
What are the indications of a single auto controller failure?
AUTO FAIL amber light and ALTN green light.
While descending at a high descent rate (during approach) in instrument flight conditions the GPWS alerts "WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP". What is the proper flight crew response?
Abandon the approach and execute the GPWS escape procedure.
Moving the FLT CONTROL switch to STBY RUD:
Activates the standby hydraulic system pump
Which of the following are mechanically controller during manual reversion? (Multiple)
Ailerons and elevator
What is the aircraft power source when the aircraft is operating on standby power?
Aircraft battery
Hydraulic system ___ controls the normal operation of TE flaps.
B
Hydraulic system ____ controls the normal operation of the yaw damper system.
B
The normal brake system is powered by which hydraulic system?
B
The trailing edge flaps are controlled by hydraulic system ____.
B
What does an illuminated Red Landing Gear light indicate? (Multiple)
Below 800 RA, both throttles are at idle and any gear not down and locked Or The gear position disagrees with the gear lever position
If any gear is not down and locked, when will the aural Gear Warning horn sound?
Below 800 RA, either thrust lever is set at idle thrust, and flaps at 0-10 degrees Or Flaps greater than 25 regardless of thrust lever position.
What is indicated by illumination of the BLEED TRIP OFF light?
Bleed air temperature or pressure has exceeded a pre-determined limit. The bleed air valve closes.
Which of the following are indications of a successful cargo fire system test?
Both FWD/AFT cargo fire warning lights illuminated (red FWD/AFT) And Both Extinguisher Test lights illuminate (2 greens) And Cargo fire bottle discharge light illuminates (DISCH)
At cruise altitude, an amber GPS light illuminating with an IRS annunciator and MASTER CAUTION indicates which of the following?
Both GPS receivers have failed.
In the event of total hydraulic system A and B pressure loss, what brake system remains to stop the aircraft?
Brake accumulator
Upon stowing the mask after use (left oxygen mask panel door closed), how is the individual oxygen shutoff valve closed?
By pressing the TEST/RESET switch
If an engine fire condition is sensed, the appropriate Fire Warning switch should electrically unlock. If this does not occur, how can you override the mechanical lock?
By pushing the mechanical override switch located under the Fire Warning switch.
How is the FOs flight director selected as the Master (MA)? (Select all that apply).
By selecting the FOs F/D switch on first. Or By engaging Autopilot B to CMD.
TCAS traffic can be displayed in which modes? (Multiple)
Center MAP, MAP, VOR NOT PLAN mode
The aircraft's RADAR systems cannot effectively display which of the following?
Clear air turbulence Hail several miles from a thunderstorm
What occurs when an engine Fire Warning switch is pulled?
Closes Engine bleed air door And Closes Engine and spar fuel shutoff valves And Arms to appropriate squibs And Shuts off associated hydraulics and trips off the engine generator.
Which of the following variables are used in FMC performance calculations? (Multiple)
Cost Index CG Gross Weight Cruise Altitude
TAI displays amber when:
Cowl Anti Ice is in transit or disagrees with the switch.
What does the FAULT light indicate? (Fire warning panel)
Dual loop failure in one of the engines
Which unit controls metered fuel and prevents engine limits from being exceeded?
EEC
The EGT readout will blink on and off when:
EEC senses a condition that may lead to a hot start.
With the ISOLATION VALVE switch selected to AUTO the valve will open when:
Either PACK switch is selected OFF, Or Either engine BLEED Air switch is selected OFF.
What electrical power must be available for the engine and APU fire extinguishing systems to function?
Electrical power from the hot battery bus.
How are the Engine Anti Ice valves controlled?
Electrically controlled, pneumatically operated
Cargo heat is controlled from the flight deck.
False
If dual HF radios are installed they can transmit at the same time. T/F
False
What would likely happen if the main tanks were loaded completely full and thermal expansion occurred?
Fuel would be ducted into the surge tank.
The FMC selects ____ first as the primary update to the aircraft position.
GPS
What switch would you use to alert ground personnel you would like to talk to them?
GRD CALL on the overhead panel
When will the DC Cross Bus Tie relay open automatically?
Glide slope capture during a FD or Autopilot engaged ILS approach. (APP mode selected on MCP).
The Yaw Damper System is capable of providing which of the following? (Multiple)
Gust damping, Dutch roll prevention, turn coordination.
Which types of VORs are displayed with the ND range set to 160nm?
High VORs
Placing the ENGINE START switch to FLT provides:
Ignition to both igniters
The APU has been operated for over an hour before engine start with all of the fuel pumps off. The crossfeed valve has been closed and the main tanks are now unbalanced. Which main fuel tank will be lower?
Left main fuel tank will be lower than the right.
What are possible reasons the WHEEL WELL fire warning light to be extinguished during a OVHT/FIRE test?
Light burnt out Or Fault in the system Or No AC power to AC Transfer Bus 2
Fuel tank temperature is measured from which fuel tank?
Main tank 1
Commands to the Autoflight system that are typically "short term" in nature are entered in the?
Mode control panel MCP
How does Control Wheel Steering allow the pilot to control the aircraft?
Moving the control wheel sends signals to the Autopilot commanding pitch and roll.
The upper display unit shows the following engine indications (display with N1, EGT, FF and fuel Quantity displayed)
N1, EGT
Which relief valve prevents ambient pressure from exceeding cabin pressure by an excessive amount?
Negative pressure relief valve.
What action (if any) must pilots accomplish for the alternate brake system to become active if hydraulic system B fails?
No action is required since if automatically occurs.
When are the ram air doors full open?
On the ground or during slow flight with the flaps extended.
How many Halon fire extinguishers are located on the flight deck?
One
Using the Audio Control Panel, how many MIC transmissions can be made at one time?
One
A single high pressure oxygen cylinder provides gaseous oxygen for:
Only the flight deck crew
Where can fuel information be found in the FMC?
PROG and PERF INIT pages
Which of the following are available with alternate brake system?
Parking brake and anti skid to PAIRED wheels
The FMC alert message INSUFFICIENT FUEL indicates?
Predicted fuel at your destination is less than 2000 lbs.
What function does the LANDING GEAR lever lock serve?
Prevents the gear handle from being moved to the UP position on the ground.
The FQPU provides fuel information for all except;
Primary flight display
Placing the test switch to PWR TEST: (window heat panel)
Provides a confidence test. (Green "ON" lights illuminate)
In the event of a fire, the APU can be immediately shut down by:
Pulling the APU Fire Warning switch Or Pulling the APU Fire Control Handle on the APU Ground Control Panel.
An autopilot can be disengaged by: (select all)
Pushing an illuminated autopilot ENGAGE switch Or Activating either control wheel switch Or Pushing the autopilot Disengage Bar.
Once the glide slope captures, how can the approach mode be exited?
Re-tuning a VHF NAV receiver Or Pushing either TO/GA OR Disengaging the autopilot and turning off both the Flight Directors.
The GPWS windshear alert is a predictive or reactive system?
Reactive
A left WING-BODY OVERHEAT light may be an indication of a bleed duct leak in the keel beam and APU bleed duct t/f
T, left light could be: Left engine strut Left inboard Wing Leading Edge Left hand air conditioning bay Keel beam Bleed duct from APU
A TR UNIT light in flight indicates?
TR 1 OR 2 AND 3 have failed
Which RADAR mode will not emit radio waves?
Test
Given the following display what has occurred? (APU Fault light and both TRANSFER BUS OFF, SOURCE OFF lights and GEN OFF BUS lights illuminated).
The APU has auto shutdown due to a fault detected by the ECU.
What does the blue APU GEN OFF BUS light indicate?
The APU is running and not powering any AC Transfer Bus.
While the APU is operating, what will happen if the BAT switch is moved to OFF?
The APU will shutdown because power is lost to the ECU.
What does an amber TAI on the upper DU indicate? (Amber TAI near N1 indicator)
The Engine Anti-Ice valve and switch disagree or is in transit.
The ON DC light illuminates when: (Navigation Panel)
The Inertial Reference System is using the switches hot battery bus only for power.
What is the position of the Wing Anti Ice valves after takeoff thrust has been set with the switch on?
The Wing Anti Ice valves automatically close when takeoff thrust is applied.
How does the B737NG descend in LVL CHG?
The aircraft controls pitch to maintain the selected speed. Thrust levers retard to idle.
What is required to engage LNAV when the aircraft is greater than 3 miles from the FMC route?
The airplane must intercept the route before the active waypoint And Intercept heading must be less than 90 degrees.
What warnings will occur if the cabin altitude exceeds 10,000 feet?
The cabin altitude warning horn sounds and the red CABIN ALTITUDE warning light illuminates.
During descent a flashing "8" appears on the IAS/MACH display window. What does this indicate?
The commanded speed cannot be reached because the commanded speed is greater than the over speed limit.
FWD SUPPLY DUCT temperature indicates temperature from ____.
The duct temperature leading to the forward passenger zone.
The engine idle speed increases to approach idle when:
The flaps are in the landing configuration.
Slats extend to the full extend position when _______ .
The flaps lever is beyond flaps 5
With a ZONE TEMP light over the CONT CAB, what will the packs produce?
The left pack produces what is selected on the CONT CAB selector and the right pack produces the coldest between FWD and AFT zone selectors.
What does the bright blue COWL VALVE OPEN light indicate?
The position of the valve disagrees with the commanded switch position And The valve is in transit
The blue L VALVE OPEN and R VALVE OPEN lights illuminated dim indicate: (Anti Ice panel)
The related Anti ice valve is open and the Wing Anti Ice switch is on.
The Engine Start Levers control which valves?
The related engine fuel and spar valves.
What does the TRANSFER BUS OFF light indicate?
The respective AC Transfer Bus is not powered
What does the green TAI on the upper DU indicate? (Green TAI next to N1 indicator)
The respective Engine Anti Ice valve is open.
What does an amber light on the Probe Heat Panel indicate?
The respective probe is not heated.
With temperature control selectors positioned OFF, what temperature air with the packs produce?
The right pack will produce 65 degree air and the left pack will produce 75 degree air.
A Green REV annunciation above the N1 RPM readout display means:
The thrust reverser is deployed
An amber Thrust Reverser (REV) alert indicates:
The thrust reverser is moved from stowed position.
What does WING-BODY OVERHEAT light indicate?
There is a bleed air leak.
What does the FWD light indicate? (Cargo fire panel)
There is smoke detected in the forward cargo compartment.
When is the PSEU light inhibited?
Thrust levers advanced to takeoff power In flight 30 seconds after landing
The weather radar automatically begins scanning for windshear when:
Thrust levers set for takeoff
A TR UNIT light illuminated on the ground indicates any TR has failed T/F
True
T/F If bleed air from the engines is unavailable, the APU is capable of supplying bleed air for two packs on the ground, or one pack in flight.
True
The SPD INTV switch allows the crew to change the FMC target speed while remaining in VNAV. T/F
True
The automatic online feature operates only when the aircraft is in flight and once per flight. T/F
True
When does the cruise phase of the pressurization start?
When the aircraft is within 0.25 PSI of the selected FLT ALT.
What color are the strobe lights?
White
Will the autopilots remain engaged when wind shear is encountered during a single autopilot approach?
Yes.
Radome Heat is a bleed air user t/f
f
