ACE (multiple choice questions)

True

T/F: Tidal volume decreases after an exerciser crosses the second ventilatory threshold (VT2).

b) 3-6 months

As a general rule, ACE recommends that candidates allow _____ of study time to adequately prepare for the ACE Personal Trainer Certification Exam. a) 1-3 months b) 3-6 months c) 6-9 months d) 9-12 months

b) Adaptation phase

Duuring what phase of the general adaption syndrome will a client see progressive increases in muscle size & strength? a) shock phase b) adaptation phase c) alarm phase d) exhaustion phase

false

T/F: A loud, tense voice communicates confidence and professionalism when speaking to a new client.

b) false

T/F: According the general scope of practice for fitness professionals, personal trainers can rehabilitates clients who are recovering from musculoskeletal injuries.

true

T/F: An umbrella liability policy provides added coverage for all of the other insurance that a person may have in place.

False

T/F: Assuming a client is lifting the same amount of weight, he or she can create more resistance by moving the weight closer to the working joint.

false

T/F: Cardiac output is define as the amount of blood pumped during each heart beat.

true

T/F: Replacing body fluid as it is lost is an important guideline to follow whether exercising in the heat or in the cold.

false

T/F: When working in a general partnership with a family member, it is a good idea to operate the business as a 50-50 partnership so that both partners have an equal say in how the business is run.

b) false

T/F: diagnosing the cause of a client's lordosis posture and prescribing an exercise program to treat it is within a personal trainer's scope of practice.

false

T/F: the first objective when meeting a prospective client is to gather information on the client's goals and objectives.

true

T/F: when training in a clients home, a personal trainer must use recordings produced specifically for use in fitness facilitates or risk being in violation of copyright law

a) right atrium

The SA node (aka pacemaker) is located in which chamber of the heart? a) right atrium b) right ventricle c) left atrium d) left ventricle

d) Superficial posterior compartment

The soleus, gastrocnemius. and plantaris are located in which compartment of the lower leg? a) Anterior tibial compartment b) Posterior tibial compartment c) Deep posterior tibial compartment d) Superficial posterior compartment

b) provide reinforcement for what was done well; correct errors; motivate clients to continue practicing & improving

The three components of properly phrased feedback are BEST presented in what order? a) Correct errors; provided reinforcement for what was done well; motivate clients to continue practicing & improving b) provide reinforcement for what was done well; correct errors; motivate clients to continue practicing & improving c) Motivate clients to continue practicing & improving; provide reinforcement for what was done well; Correct errors d) Correct errors; motivate clients to continue practicing & improving; provide reinforcement for what was done well

c) 20; cardiopulmonary resuscitation

To renew certification for a new two-year cycle, ACE-certified Professionals must complete a minimum of _____ hours of continuing education credits and maintain a current certificate in ______ and, if living in the North America, automated external defibrillation. a) 10; cardiopulmonary resuscitation b) 20; risk management c) 20; cardiopulmonary resuscitation d) 30; risk management

b) process goal

"I will perform a full-body resistance-training workout twice every week" is an example of which type of goal? a) SMART goal b) process goal c) product goal d) Time-bound goal

b) S/T articulation

"Shoulder girdle" is the formal term for the ____ a) S/C joint b) A/C joint c) S/T articulation d) G/H joint

b) Flow-through taxation

A company experiences a yearly loss and one of the partners uses that loss to offset profits from another business. This is an example of ____ a) Double taxation b) Flow-through taxation c) The corporate veil d) Limited liability

a) Unipennate

A muscle with which of the following muscle arrangements has the LOWEST force production, but the HIGHEST speed of contraction? a) Unipennate b) Bipennate c) Multipennate d) Longitudinal

b) paraphrasing

A personal trainer who is seeking clarification from a client by trying to restate the main points & feelings in a client's communication is using which method of effective listening? a) encouraging b) paraphrasing c) reflecting d) summarizing

b) two days

After how long a period of inactivity following an injury does disuse atrophy in the muscles surrounding the injury begin? a) two hours b) two days c) two weeks d) two months

d) Active isolated stretching

An individual is using a RB to perform very short-duration (less than 2 sec/stretch) hamstring stretches in sets of 8 reps. What flexibility-training technique is this person using? a) ballistic b) dynamic c) proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation d) Active isolated stretching

d) After the cessation of exercise

At what stage of an exercise bout are phosphagen stores being replenished, remaining lactate being removed from the blood, and the metabolic rate decreasing? a) immediately after the commencement of exercise b) as the body approaches steady rate c) during steady-state training d) After the cessation of exercise

b) Associative

Clients who are beginning the basics of a particular movement and are ready for specific feedback are in which stage of motor learning? a) cognitive b) associative c) autonomous d) affective

d) High-risk client wanting to perform moderate exercise

For which of the following clients would a medical exam & graded exercises test be recommended before training begins? a) Low-risk client wanting to perform moderate exercise b) Low-risk client wanting to perform vigorous exercise c) Moderate-risk client wanting to perform moderate exercise d) High-risk client wanting to perform moderate exercise

false

Low-intensity exercise is the best way to lose weight because it burns a higher percentage of fat than exercise at a higher intensity.

c) 150 minutes

Most health benefits occur with at least ____ a week of moderate-intensity physical activity, such as brisk walking. Additional benefits occur with more physical activity. a) 60 minutes b) 75 minutes c) 150 minutes d) 180 minutes

c) planning

Motivational interviewing is most commonly done during which stage of the client-trainer relationship? a) rapport b) investigation c) planning d) action

c) Shifting the line of gravity outside the base of support

Static balance exercises often involve a) widening the base of support b) Narrowing the base of support c) Shifting the line of gravity outside the base of support d) Shifting the line of gravity through rotary motion

c) protein

Very little of the ______ a person consumes is used for energy production a) fat b) carbohydrate c) protein d) fiber

c) epinephrine

What hormone dilates the respiratory passages and reduces digestive activity and bladder emptying during physical activity? a) insulin b) norepinephrine c) epinephrine d) cortisol

d) carbohydrate

What is the only macronutrient whose stored energy generates ATP anaerobically? a) protein b) fat c) cholesterol d) carbohydrate

c) enhanced oxygen delivery to working muscles

What is the primary advantage of the increase in blood volume that results from chronic cardiorespiratory exercise? a) decreased cardiac stress b) improved VO2 max c) enhanced oxygen delivery to working muscles d) reduced work environment for the heart

a) to protect the public from harm

What is the primary purpose of a fitness certification? a) to protect the public from harm b) to prove mastery of the profession c) to increase one's earning potential d) to provide hands-on experience

b) abductors

What muscles are strengthened when a client performs side-lying leg lifts with the lower leg? a) adductors b) abductors c) internal rotators d) external rotators

c) collaborator

What personality style does a client have if he score high on the sociability scale & low on the dominance scale? a) deliberator b) director c) collaborator d) expressor

b) refer the client to a RD or physician

What should a personal trainer do if a client insists of using dietary supplements despite the trainer's assurance that his/her fitness goals can be met without them? a) refer the client to the health club's sales team b) refer the client to an RD or physician c) check that the facility's policy covers the sale of these products d) stop training the client until he/she agrees to stop using these products

d) Sway back

When evaluating a new client's posture, a personal trainer notices a long outward curve of the thoracic spine with an accentuated lumbar curve and a backward shift of the upper trunk. What postural deviation does this client have? a) Kyphosis b) Lordosis c) Flat back d) Sway back

a) transfer

When evaluating the risk of injury associated with a particular activity, a personal trainer finds that the frequency of occurrence is low or seldom, and the severity of injury is categorized as high or vital. What is the BEST course of action? a) avoid b) transfer c) reduce d) retain

a) Offer incentives and rewards; stimulate the client's thoughts & provoke ideas

When working with a client whose personality style is classified as "expressor", which of the following approaches would be the BEST option for the personal trainer? a) Offer incentives and rewards; stimulate the client's thoughts & provoke ideas b) Be clear, concise, and business-like; appeal to the need for action & problem-solving c) Be candid, open & patient, personally interested & supportive, & goal oriented d) Provide consistent, accurate follow-ups; supply information to supply the need for detail

b) cortisol

Which hormone promotes triglyceride breakdown to aid in maintaining blood glucose? a) vasopressin b) cortisol c) norepinephrine d) estrogen

c) evaporation

Which mechanism of thermoregulation is the major contributor during exercise? a) convection b) radiation c) evaporation d) excretion

c) diuretics

Which medication have no primary effect on heart rate, but can cause dangerous cardiac arrhythmias due to water & electrolyte imbalances? a) ACE inhibitors b) Calcium channel blockers c) diuretics d) bronchodilators

c) Law of inertia

Which of Newton's laws of motion is described as follows? A body at rest will stay at rest and a body in motion will stay in motion (with the same direction and velocity) unless acted upon by an external force? a) Law of gravity b) Law of reaction c) Law of inertia d) Law of acceleration

c) Talk with a doctor before beginning to exercise or undergoing a fitness appraisal

Which of the follow-up actions would be most appropriate for an individuals who answers "yes" to the following questions on the Par-Q? "Is your doctor currently prescribing drugs(water pills) for your blood pressure or heart condition?" "In the past month, have you had chest pain when you were not doing physical activity?" a) slowly & progressively start becoming more physically active b) take part in a fitness appraisal before beginning exercise c) talk with a doctor before beginning to exercise or undergoing a fitness appraisal d) delay becoming must more physically active until feeling better

c) They are able to show clients how to exercise effectively while following physicians' general recommendations

Which of the following accounts for the unique position that personal trainers hold in the allied healthcare continuum? a) they are able to provide detailed dietary planning to combat chronic illness b) they are at the top of the allied healthcare pyramid due to the extended time they spend with clients c) They are able to show clients how to exercise effectively while following physicians' general recommendations d) They are licensed professionals who can prescribe specific exercise programs

d) Providing progressive exercise prescriptions

Which of the following activities falls outside a personal trainer's scope of practice? a) using a health-history to screen a client for appropriate placement and/or referral b) recognizing a client's physical or psychological problems that might interfere with safe and effective exercise c) administering appropriate fitness assessments d) providing progressive exercise prescriptions

c) standing with hands on hips

Which of the following body positions may be interpreted by a client as aggressiveness on the part of the trainer? a) standing with an open body position b) seated while leaning slightly forward c) standing with hands on hips d) seated behind a desk with legs crossed

c) C-corporations

Which of the following business structures has double taxation as one of its primary disadvantages? a) general partnerships b) franchise operation c) C-corporations d) LLC/LLP

b) release of liability waiver

Which of the following documents represents a client's voluntary abandonments of the right to file a lawsuit against the personal trainer? a) informed consent form b) release of liability waiver c) behavioral contract d) medical release form

d) increased diastolic blood pressure

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of regular physical activity? a) Decreased anxiety & depression b) Improved lipid-profile c) Improved glucose control d) increased diastolic blood pressure

b) increasing stroke volume

Which of the following is NOT a method the body uses to preserve blood volume during steady-state exercises? a) increasing heart rate b) increasing stoke volume c) increasing vasoconstriction in non-working muscles d) Releasing vasopressin & aldosterone

b) lower sympathetic drive

Which of the following is NOT a reason that hte average heart rate for women is higher than that of men? a) smaller heart chamber size b) lower sympathetic drive c) lower blood volume d) lower hemoglobin levels

d) heavy breathing due to intense exercise

Which of the following is NOT cause to immediately stop a cardiorespiratory exercise test? a) leg cramping b) complaints of severe fatigue c) nausea & lightheadedness d) heavy breathing due to intense exercise

d) A corporate veil shields the owner from losses

Which of the following is NOT one of the potential benefits of a sole proprietorship? a) There is minimal ongoing paperwork b) All profits belong to the owner c) The owner makes all final decisions d) A corporate veil shields the owner from losses

b) identifying the individuals stage of behavioral change

Which of the following is NOT one of the primary purposes of a pre-participation screening? a) Identifying the absence or presence of known disease b) Identifying the individuals stage of behavioral change c) Identifying individuals with medical contraindications who should be excluded from exercise or physical activity d) Identifying those individuals with medical conditions who should participate in medically supervised programs

b) Profuse sweating

Which of the following is NOT one of the primary symptoms of altitude sickness? a) shortness of breath b) profuse sweating c) headache d) nausea

b) the code of ethics that must be adhered to while in the workplace

Which of the following is NOT part of the definition of "scope of practice"? a) the legal range of services that professionals in a give field can provide b) the code of ethics that must be adhered to while in the workplace c) the setting in which the services can be provided d) Guidelines or parameters that must be followed

c) increase in bone density

Which of the following is an adaptation specifically seen with regular weightbearing exercise? a) increase in respiratory capacity b) improved cardiac output efficiency c) increase in bone density d) improved lean body mass

d) Discussing the proper technique for icing the affected areas

Which of the following is an appropriate response to a client who mentions being sore following a weekend tennis tournament? a) Recommending the use of over-the counter ant-inflammatory medications b) Recommending the use of a creatine supplement prior to his/her next tournament c) Providing deep tissue massage to help relieve the soreness d) Discussing the proper technique for icing the affected areas

d) Opposition of the thumb

Which of the following is an example of a mutiplamaer movement from the anatomical position? a) Depression of the scapulae b) Pronation of the forearm c) Dorsiflexion of the ankle d) Opposition of the thumb

d) systolic blood pressure of 143 mmHg

Which of the following is considered a positive risk factor for atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease? a) BMI of 28 kg/m^2 b) HDL cholesterol of 66 mg/dL c) serum cholesterol of 195 mg/dL d) systolic blood pressure of 143 mmHg

a) muscular power

Which of the following is not considered one of the five main components of health-related physical fitness? a) Muscular power b) Flexibility c) Muscular endurance d) Body composition

a) transverse abdominis

Which of the following muscles plays a vital role (with the multifidi) in providing feedback to the CNS about spinal joint position before dynamic forces in the extremities destabilize the spine? a) transverse abdominis b) rectus abdominis c) internal obliques d) external obliques

d) Health-risk appraisal

Which of the following must be included as part of every client's pre-participation screening? a) body-composition testing b) movement screeens c) static posture assessment d) Health-risk appraisal

b) Rapport, investigation, planning, action

Which of the following presents the 4 stages of the client-trainer relationships in their proper order? a) Investigation, planning, action, rapport b) Rapport, investigation, planning, action c) Rapport, planning, investigation, action d) Planning, rapport, investigation, action

c) Contributory negligence

Which of the following standards has been used when a plaintiff is prevented from receiving remuneration following an injury due to the fact that he was found to have played a minor role in his own injury? a) gross negligence b) comparative negligence c) contributory negligence d) vicarious negligence

c) Children, adolescents, and men less than forty-five years, and women less than fifty-five years who dont have CAD risk factors/symptoms or known disease and who did not answer "yes" to any questions on the PAR-A do not need clearance

Which of the following statements are true about medical clearance prior to participating in an exercise-training program? a) All clients need medical clearance from a physician prior to participation in an exercise-training program b) Only clients with diagnosed cardiovascular, respiratory, or metabolic disease need clearance prior to participation c) Children, adolescents, and men less than forty-five years, and women less than fifty-five years who dont have CAD risk factors/symptoms or known disease and who did not answer "yes" to any questions on the PAR-A do not need clearance d) Children, adolescents, and men less than fifty years, and women less than fifty-five years who dont have CAD risk factors/symptoms or known disease and who did not answer "yes" to any questions on the PAR-A do not need clearance

a) phosphagen system

Which of the primary energy systems supplies enough energy for no more than 10 seconds of all-our exertion? a) Phosphagen system b) anaerobic glycolysis c) aerobic glycolysis d) beta oxidation

a) beta blockers

Which of these medications causes a dose-related decrease in a person's resting, exercise, & maximal heart rate? a) beta blockers b) antihistamines c) antidepressants d) diuretics

d) cortisol

Which slow-acting hormone stimulates the mobilization of free-fatty acids from adipose tissue, mobilizes glucose synthesis in the liver, & decreases the rate of glucose utilization in the cells? a) GH b) glucagon c) insulin d) cortisol

a) Subchapter S-corporations

Which type of corporation is most typically used by personal-training businesses? a) subchpater S-corporations b) C-corporations c) Limited-liability corporations d) Limited liability partnerships