AEMT QUIZs prt1 chptrs 3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,13,15,17,19,26,27,29,30,32,33,34,36
Of the following, which is the least common sign or symptom of a head injury?
A cardiac rhythm disturbance
In addition to administering supplemental oxygen, what is the most appropriate management for a patient with circulatory overload caused by excessive IV fluid administration? A) Head lowered, medical control notified B) Head elevated, medical control notified C) Lateral recumbent position, event documented D) Trendelenburg's position, event documented
B) Head elevated, medical control notified
You and your partner respond to the scene of a 49-year-old male with acute abdominal pain. As you enter his residence, you find him lying on the floor in severe pain. He is conscious and alert. The patient appears to weigh in excess of 350 lb. Your first action should be to: A) request the fire department if one attempt to move him fails. B) encourage the patient to walk himself to the awaiting ambulance. C) assess him and then move him to the stretcher with a direct carry. D) request additional personnel before making any attempts to lift him.
D) request additional personnel before making any attempts to lift him.
The preferred initial method for ventilating an apneic patient is the: A) bag-mask device with two rescuers. B) mouth-to-mask with one-way valve. C) bag-mask device with one rescuer. D) manually triggered ventilation device.
BVM 2 RESCUERS
It has been statistically proven that the lifespan of a person with obesity is decreased by as many as ___ years. A) 5 B) 8 C) 13 D) 18
C) 13
Which of the following is considered a critical burn in an infant or small child? A) Burns to the arms B) Ten percent superficial burn C) Any full-thickness burn D) Fifteen percent partial thickness burn
C) Any full-thickness burn
Which of the following injuries or conditions would have the lowest treatment priority during the primary survey? A) Secretions in the upper airway and an irregular pattern of breathing B) Open deformity to the left lower leg with moderate venous bleeding C) Impressive amount of dried blood in the hair but no active bleeding D) Respirations of 26 breaths/min with markedly reduced tidal volume
C) Impressive amount of dried blood in the hair but no active bleeding
What is the most significant drawback to cannulating a scalp vein in a child with a butterfly catheter? A) It is aesthetically unpleasant. B) It causes apprehension for the family. C) It does not allow for rapid fluid administration. D) Scalp veins are often difficult to cannulate.
C) It does not allow for rapid fluid administration.
What role does the spleen play in the body's compensatory response to hypoperfusion? A) It releases catecholamines. B) It releases additional glucose. C) It releases sequestered red blood cells. D) It releases pyrogens, which cause fever.
C) It releases sequestered red blood cells.
Which of the following patients requires immediate transport following initial stabilization at the scene? A) Conscious patient involved in a low-speed MVC B) Patient with decreased movement of an extremity following trauma C) Patient with severe pain to the left lower quadrant of the abdomen D) Patient with large laceration to the arm with controlled bleeding
C) Patient with severe pain to the left lower quadrant of the abdomen
White blood cells that develop from B cells and produce large volumes of specific antibodies are called: A) lymphocytes. B) mast cells. C) plasma cells. D) killer T cells.
C) Plasma cells
According to the JumpSTART triage system, what should you do after delivering five rescue breaths to an unresponsive, apneic child?
C) Reassess breathing.
A young female overdosed on heroin and has slow, shallow breathing. Which of the following condition will she develop initially? A) Respiratory alkalosis B) Metabolic acidosis C) Respiratory acidosis D) Metabolic alkalosis
C) Respiratory acidosis
A 66-year-old male with congestive heart failure presents with pulmonary edema and difficulty breathing. His blood pressure is 180/90 mm Hg and his pulse rate is 110 beats/min and irregular. When starting an IV, which of the following, if available, would be most appropriate for this patient? A) 14-gauge angiocath B) Butterfly catheter C) Saline lock D) Intracath
C) Saline lock
A 6-year-old unresponsive male presents with respiratory distress, profound cyanosis, and a weak heart rate of 70 beats/min. You should: A) give 100% oxygen and attach an AED. B) apply a pediatric nonrebreathing mask. C) assist ventilations with 100% oxygen. D) administer blow-by oxygen and reassess.
C) assist ventilations with 100% oxygen.
Relative to other microorganisms, mycobacterium tuberculosis: A) is easily destroyed with antibiotics. B) contains a thick, impenetrable capsule. C) lacks a capsule, yet resists destruction. D) is not transported in the body by phagocytes.
C) lacks a capsule, yet resists destruction.
The focused assessment of a responsive medical patient is guided by: A) information obtained from the dispatcher. B) your general impression of the patient. C) the patient's reason for calling EMS. D) your perception of the patient's problem.
C) the patient's reason for calling EMS.
A young male sustained a gunshot wound to the abdomen during an altercation with a rival gang member. As your partner is assessing and managing his airway, you should control any obvious bleeding, and then: A) apply a cervical collar. B) obtain baseline vital signs. C) auscultate bowel sounds. D) assess for an exit wound.
D assess for exit wound
What is the most appropriate method to use when moving a patient from his or her bed to the wheeled stretcher? A) Log roll B) Direct carry C) Extremity carry D) Draw sheet method
D) Draw sheet method
When performing the rapid extrication technique to remove a patient from his or her vehicle, you should: A) apply a vest-style extrication device prior to moving the patient. B) apply a cervical collar and immobilize the patient on a short backboard. C) grasp the patient by the clothing and drag him or her from the car. D) apply a cervical collar and remove the patient on a long backboard.
D) apply a cervical collar and remove the patient on a long backboard.
To obtain a sniffing position in a child under 3 years of age, you should: A) place a thin layer of padding under the child's back. B) place a folded sheet or towel behind the child's neck. C) place a small pillow in between the child's scapulae. D) place a folded sheet or towel under the child's occiput.
D) place a folded sheet or towel under the child's occiput.
Cheyne-Stokes respirations are characterized by: A) irregular tachypnea with occasional periods of apnea. B) impaired respirations with sustained inspiratory effort. C) rapid and deep breathing with an acetone breath odor. D) rapid and slow breathing with alternating apneic periods.
D) rapid and slow breathing with alternating apneic periods.
two of the most common mechanisms of injury for blunt trauma are:
aortic rupture
Decrease in the size of a muscle and its inherent ability to function is called:
atrophy
A subdural hematoma is an accumulation of blood:
beneath the dura mater but outside the brain.
When the diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract: A) atmospheric pressure draws air out of the lungs. B) intrapulmonary and atmospheric pressures are equal. C) intrapulmonary pressure falls below atmospheric pressure. D) atmospheric pressure exceeds intrapulmonary pressure.
c) intrapulmonary pressure falls below atmospheric pressure.
A 50-year-old male was splashed in the eyes with radiator fluid when he was working on his car. During your assessment, he tells you that he wears soft contact lenses. You should:
carefully remove the contact lenses and then irrigate his eyes with saline.
When caring for a patient with a suspected laryngeal injury, you should:
discourage the patient from talking.
Heat cramps are typically the result of prolonged exposure to a hot environment, resulting in: A) electrolyte depletion and severe muscle spasms. B) painful spasms in the muscles of the upper body. C) significant volume depletion and hypovolemia. D) hypothalamic failure and decreased thermolysis.
electrolyte depletion and severe muscle spasms.
In addition to controlling bleeding and immobilizing the spine as needed, appropriate care for a patient with a penetrating abdominal wound and signs of shock includes:
ensuring adequate ventilation, maintaining adequate perfusion with IV fluids, and transporting to the most appropriate facility.
patients who fall and land on their _______ may have the least severe injuries.
feet
Blunt or penetrating trauma can be especially lethal in pregnant patients because the:
gravidad uterus is highly vascular.
A 25-year-old male experienced blunt abdominal trauma and is developing shock. Which of the following signs would you expect to manifest late?
hypotension
A solution that hydrates the cells while depleting the vascular compartment is referred to as being: A) isotonic. B) hypotonic. C) hypertonic. D) hyperosmolar.
hypotonic
Evaluation of the interior of a crashed motor vehicle during extrication will allow the AEMT to:
identify contact points and predict potential injuries.
A young male has experienced a possible neck injury. When you attempt to place his head in a neutral in-line position, he complains of a severe spasm in his neck. You should:
immobilize him in the position in which you found him.
A driver involved in a rollover motor vehicle crash will most likely experience serious injuries or death if he or she:
is ejected or partially ejected
Which of the following organs lie in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen?
liver and gullbladder
Blunt abdominal trauma may result in tearing of the mesentery, which is/are:
membranous folds that attach the intestines to the abdominal wall
Which of the following injuries presents the greatest risk for severe internal bleeding? A) Rib fractures B) Pelvic fractures C) Tibial fractures D) Bilateral femur fractures
pelvic fractures
The presence of gastric juices and bacteria in the abdominal cavity causes an intense inflammatory reaction called:
peritonitis
You should be most suspicious for serious bleeding when: A) a patient has a poor general appearance. B) the typical signs of shock are not present. C) a patient has a normal BP for his or her age. D) the MOI suggests injury to the lower extremities.
poor general appearance
Most hip dislocations are caused by BLANK displacement of the BLANK
posterior, femoral head
When assessing a patient who experienced a blast injury, it is important to remember that: A) secondary blast injuries are usually the least obvious. B) primary blast injuries are typically the most obvious. C) solid organs usually rupture from the pressure wave. D) primary blast injuries are the most easily overlooked.
primary blast injuries are the most easily overlooked.
In addition to providing the framework for the human body, bones also:
produce bloodcells in the marrow
When the speed of a motor vehicle doubles, the amount of kinetic energy:
quadruples
Near-drowning is most accurately defined as: A) immediate recovery at the scene and minor secondary complications. B) recovery that lasts for more than 36 hours following water submersion. C) death beyond 24 hours as a result of intrapulmonary complications. D) recovery that lasts for at least 24 hours following submersion in water.
recovery that lasts for at least 24 hours following submersion in water.
the kidneys lie within the:
retro peritoneal space
Which of the following types of muscle is attached to the skeleton and forms the bulk of tissue of the arms and legs?
skeletal
Which of the following electrolytes is essential for the distribution of water throughout the body? A) Calcium B) Sodium C) Chloride D) Potassium
sodium
An injury that may result in complete separation of a joint due to stretching or tearing of the supporting ligaments is called a:
sprain
When assessing an unresponsive 20-year-old male with a traumatic brain injury, you note that his left pupil is fully dilated and nonreactive. This indicates injury:
to the left cerebral hemisphere.
In the absence of obvious external trauma, an abdominal injury would be most difficult to assess for in a(n):
unresponsive patient
When assessing a patient with a grossly deformed humerus, you note that the radial pulse is absent and the extremity is becoming cyanotic. You should:
use constant, gentle manual traction to align the humerus.
You are caring for a young female who experienced blunt head trauma and is unresponsive. You have inserted a King LT airway and are ventilating her because she has signs of brain herniation. In doing this, you should:
utilize capnography and ensure that her end-tidal CO2 does not fall below 30 mm Hg. SEE page 1219
when caring for a patient with an open facial injury the AEMT MUST
wear gloves and facial protection
A 40-year-old female, who is conscious and alert with mild hypothermia, should receive active external rewarming. This involves: A) wrapping her in blankets and lavaging her urinary bladder. B) infusing an isotonic crystalloid that is warmed to 115°F. C) immersing her in water that is between 106°F and 110°F. D) wrapping her in blankets and applying heat packs to her groin.
wrapping her in blankets and applying heat packs to her groin.
The index of suspicion is most accurately defined as:
your concern for potentially serious underlying injuries.
which of the following musculoskeletal injuries poses the greatest risk for compartment syndrome?
Humeral fracture in a child
When assessing a patient with multiple systems trauma, which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would pose the greatest threat to the patient's life?
Multiple open fractures
When immobilizing a patient onto a long backboard, it is important to:
Secure the torso prior to securing the head
A patient with suspected internal bleeding is slightly anxious and has cool, pink skin. His heart rate is 90 beats/min, and his blood pressure is 122/60. His presentation is consistent with Class ____ hemorrhage.
2
Tranexamic acid (TXA) works by: A) reducing fibrinolysis. B) inducing fibrinolysis. C) increasing platelet production. D) inducing vasoconstriction.
) reducing fibrinolysis
Which of the following seatbelt positions will most likely result in severe intraabdominal injuries when a vehicle suddenly decelerates?
Shoulder harness and lap belt placed superior to the iliac crest
Which of the following is the most effective method of immobilizing a fractured clavicle?
Sling and swathe
BLANK muscle is a component of body systems, including the digestive and cardiovascular systems.
Smooth
The protein that bonds to form the fibrous component of a blood clot is called: A) fibrin. B) plasmin. C) plasminogen. D) a thrombocyte.
A) Fibrin
2. Which of the following statements regarding patient weight distribution is correct?
A) The majority of a horizontal patient's weight is in the torso.
Components of the pediatric assessment triangle (PAT) include: A) appearance, work of breathing, and skin circulation. B) level of consciousness, gross bleeding, and heart rate. C) appearance, capillary refill, and breathing effort. D) level of consciousness, breathing effort, and heart rate
A) appearance, work of breathing, and skin circulation
A patient with congenital anisocoria would be expected to have pupils that: A) are unequal in size. B) do not respond to light. C) dilate when exposed to light. D) are constricted and nonreactive.
A) are unequal in size.
A patient with liver failure has an abnormal accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity. This is called: A) ascites. B) anasarca. C) sacral edema. D) lymphatic edema.
A) ascites.
Compared to adults, burns in children tend to be more severe because: A) children have less subcutaneous (fatty) tissue. B) their skin is not as elastic as an adult's skin. C) children have a much smaller volume of plasma. D) their body surface area to weight ratio is smaller.
A) children have less subcutaneous (fatty) tissue.
Children vigorously compensate for shock by: A) increasing their heart rate and increasing peripheral vascular resistance. B) constricting the peripheral vessels and increasing myocardial contractility. C) decreasing their tidal volume and increasing peripheral vascular resistance. D) increasing their heart rate and increasing glycogen conversion in the liver.
A) increasing their heart rate and increasing peripheral vascular resistance.
Reconstituting a drug, such as glucagon, involves: A) injecting liquid from one vial into another vial that already contains powder. B) placing at least 10 mL of saline into a vial that contains powdered medication. C) diluting a medication with at least 20 mL of saline prior to administration. D) injecting liquid from one vial into another vial that contains liquid medication.
A) injecting liquid from one vial into another vial that already contains powder.
In contrast to an epidemic, a pandemic: A) is a disease outbreak that occurs on a global scale. B) occurs in more of the population than was expected. C) is usually confined to a specific geographic location. D) is a disease for which a vaccine is readily available.
A) is a disease outbreak that occurs on a global scale.
You are assessing the pupils of a patient who was struck in the back of the head. You note that his pupils differ in size by slightly less than 1 mm. The patient is conscious, alert, and oriented to person, place, time, and event. You should suspect: A) physiologic anisocoria. B) increased intracranial pressure. C) injury to the pons or medulla. D) that he ingested an opiate drug.
A) physiologic anisocoria.
In contrast to the dorsal respiratory group, the ventral respiratory group is: A) primarily responsible for motor control of the inspiratory and expiratory muscles. B) anatomically located within the pons and functions by terminating the inspiratory phase. C) responsible for initiating inspiration based on the information received from the chemoreceptors. D) controlled by the phrenic nerve, which innervates the diaphragm muscle and allows it to contract.
A) primarily responsible for motor control of the inspiratory and expiratory muscles.
Within the first 30 minutes after birth, a neonate's: A) pulse rate decreases to approximately 120 beats/min. B) respiratory rate increases to around 60 breaths/min. C) pulse rate increases to between 160 and 180 beats/min. D) pulse and respiratory rates increase significantly.
A) pulse rate decreases to approximately 120 beats/min
You are dispatched to a call for a 4-month-old infant with respiratory distress. While you prepare to care for this child, you must remember that: A) small infants are nose breathers and require clear nasal passages at all times. B) assisted ventilations in infants often need to be forceful to inflate their lungs. C) the infant's proportionately small tongue often causes an airway obstruction. D) an infant's head should be placed in a flexed position to prevent obstruction.
A) small infants are nose breathers and require clear nasal passages at all times.
Which of the following clinical signs is a manifestation of fluid leakage into the interstitial spaces? A) Stridor B) Urticaria C) Tachycardia D) Wheezing
A) stridor
Patients with a significant abdominal injury:
A. have increased pain with movement
A patient with suspected internal bleeding is slightly anxious and has cool, pink skin. His heart rate is 90 beats/min, and his blood pressure is 122/60. His presentation is consistent with Class ____ hemorrhage.
B
A 1-year-old female sustained blunt abdominal trauma following a motor-vehicle crash in which she was not properly restrained. Significant signs and symptoms will most likely occur after as little as ____ mL of blood loss. A) 50 B) 100 C) 250 D) 300
B) 100 ML
Intracellular and extracellular fluid account for what percentage of total body weight? A) 50% B) 60% C) 70% D) 80%
B) 60%
Which of the following statements regarding febrile seizures is correct? A) A temperature of greater than 102.5°F will cause a seizure. B) An abrupt rise in body temperature may cause a febrile seizure. C) Febrile seizures are not associated with tonic-clonic movement. D) Febrile seizures are common in children older than 7 years of age.
B) An abrupt rise in body temperature may cause a febrile seizure
A consistently high level of _______ suppresses the immune system by increasing production of interleukin-6. A) glucose B) cortisol C) insulin D) aldosterone
B) Cortisol
Which of the following statements regarding clinical decision making is correct? A) Effective clinical decision making is based solely on your ability to gather and evaluate patient information. B) Irrelevant or extraneous data can skew your interpretation of a patient's condition, potentially leading to inappropriate care. C) The treatment plan that you formulate for a given patient is based on clinical findings in the primary assessment. D) Recalling bad experiences is dangerous and can interfere with your ability to manage the current situation.
B) Irrelevant or extraneous data can skew your interpretation of a patient's condition, potentially leading to inappropriate care.
Which of the following statements regarding the nonrebreathing mask is incorrect? A) It can deliver an FiO2 of up to 90%. B) It increases a patient's tidal volume. C) It is of no benefit to an apneic patient. D) It delivers passive oxygen to the patient.
B) It increases a patient's tidal volume.
A 70-year-old male presents with an acute onset of difficulty breathing that woke him from his sleep. He has a history of hypertension, atrial fibrillation, and several heart attacks. During your assessment, you note dried blood around his mouth. The patient tells you that he cannot lie down because he will "smother." What additional assessment findings will you most likely discover? A) Diffuse wheezing B) Pulmonary rales C) Fever and chills D) Slow respiratory rate
B) PULMONARY rales
Which of the following statements most accurately describes asthma? A) Acute, irreversible airway obstruction that presents with inspiratory wheezing B) Reversible obstruction caused by bronchospasm, mucus production, and edema C) Irreversible airway disease that results in increased alveolar surface tension D) Chronic respiratory disease caused by long-term exposure to toxic substances
B) Reversible obstruction caused by bronchospasm, mucus production, and edema
During your initial attempt to control severe external bleeding from an extremity, you should: A) apply a pressure dressing to the wound. B) apply direct pressure with a sterile dressing. C) apply a tourniquet proximal to the wound. D) digitally compress a proximal pressure point.
B) apply direct pressure with a sterile dressing.
When treating a patient who complains of dyspnea, it is important for the AEMT to: A) closely monitor the patient's cardiac rhythm. B) be prepared to treat the patient's anxiety as well. C) give oxygen via nasal cannula to minimize anxiety. D) routinely request that a paramedic unit respond to the scene.
B) be prepared to treat the patient's anxiety as well.
The trauma triad of death includes: A) hyperthermia, hypotension, and acidosis. B) hypothermia, coagulopathy, and acidosis. C) normothermia, hypertension, and alkalosis. D) hypothermia, hypertension, and alkalosis.
B) hypothermia, coagulopathy, and acidosis.
while starting an IV on a patient, you see bright red blood quickly traveling up the IV tubing. You should: A) secure the IV line and apply direct pressure. B) remove the catheter and apply direct pressure. C) lower the IV bag to ensure viability of the IV line. D) evaluate the puncture site for signs of infiltration.
B) remove the catheter and apply direct pressure
Cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is most often the result of: A) blunt head trauma. B) respiratory failure. C) a cardiac dysrhythmia. D) accidental electrocution.
B) respiratory failure.
You are assessing a 13-month-old female who is running a fever and has been vomiting. While you are performing your physical examination on this child, you will most likely find that she: A) is unable to track your movements with her eyes. B) responds to her name but is fearful of your presence. C) will readily allow you to separate her from her mother. D) has bulging fontanelles secondary to severe dehydration.
B) responds to her name but is fearful of your presence.
Infants and children are highly susceptible to hypothermia because: A) of their overall smaller body size. B) they have limited stores of glycogen. C) of their smaller absolute blood volume. D) their hypothalamus is underdeveloped.
B) they have limited stores of glycogen.
You respond to a call for an unconscious person. Upon arriving at the scene, you find an unconscious young male lying in a prone position in his front yard. After taking standard precautions, you should: A) apply 100% supplemental oxygen and perform a quick primary assessment. B) assess the quality of the patient's breathing by looking for rise and fall of his back. C) maintain control of his c-spine and open his airway while he is in the prone position. D) roll the patient into a supine position, without twisting his body, and open his airway.
D) roll the patient into a supine position, without twisting his body, and open his airway.
A body temperature of 99.4°F in a 2-year-old child: A) is a low-grade fever. B) suggests an infection. C) often causes a seizure. D) is normal for his or her age.
D)NORMAL
pupil
The opening in the center of the iris, which allows light to move to the back of the eye, is called the: