AICP Exam Prep 3.0
48. The degree to which two variables are related is measured by the: a. Coefficient of correlation b. Coefficient of variation c. Gini coefficient d. Chi squared statistic
A. The coefficient of correlation reflects the degree to which variables are related; if two variables are perfectly correlated, their coefficient of correlation equals 1. The coefficient of variation is the standard deviation of a distribution divided by its mean and provides a way of comparing different samples. The Gini Coefficient is a measure of income inequality; if everyone in a population has the same income, the Gini Coefficient equals zero. A chi square statistic is computed to learn whether two variables are independent.
2. In the United States, the "Neighborhood Unit" concept is attributed to: a. Kevin Lynch b. Clarence Perry c. Ian McHarg d. Lewis Mumford
B. Clarence Perry lived in Forest Hills Gardens in Queens, NY and published an essay on the concept of the neighborhood unit in 1929. Forest Hill Gardens, developed by Frederick Law Olmsted, Jr. in 1911, inspired the neighborhood unit concept. Perry defined a neighborhood as a self-contained area within a 5-minute walking radius, bounded by major streets with shops at the intersections and a school in the middle. Kevin Lynch wrote Image of the City in 1960. Ian McHarg wrote Design with Nature in 1969. Lewis Mumford wrote Culture of Cities in 1929.
1. The Disaster Mitigation Act of 2000 required local governments to address potential hazards in a Hazard Mitigation Plan in order to remain eligible to receive certain federal funds before and following federally-declared disasters. Your community has integrated such a plan into the General Plan. Now the Safety Element of the General Plan is expanded to cover the following: I. Natural hazards II. Man-made hazards III. Fiscal responsibility for disasters IV. A development retreat from low-lying coastal areas a. II & III b. I, II, & IV c. I & IV d. I, II, III, & IV
B. FEMA HMA of 2000 seeks to expand pre-disaster planning to precipitate the widespread loss of life, damage to property, infrastructure and the environment. The Act does not assign any fiscal responsibilities of disasters to any entity. Most local Safety Element covers also man-made hazards. However, local jurisdictions are not burdened with the fiscal impact associated with disasters.
49. Growth management programs may include each of the following actions EXCEPT: a. regulating the location of new development b. halting population growth c. controlling the timing of new development d. regulating the character of new development
B. Growth management strategies may take population growth into account, but they do not address population growth directly.
63. With regard to planning and environmental law, the basic difference between police power measures (PPM) and eminent domain (ED) is that: a. PPM requires the police to occupy private land, while ED requires that individuals donate land to the public. b. PPM takes the property of individuals with compensation, while ED allows individuals to donate land to the public without compensation. c. PPM controls the use of land with just compensation, while ED gives public land to individuals as a grant. d. PPM controls actions and property of individuals without compensation, while ED takes property for a public purpose with just compensation
D. Police power is a general term that expresses the fundamental power vested in every state to limit and regulate the exercise of private rights in the interest of public health, public morals, public safety, and the general welfare of the community. Eminent domain is the power of a governmental entity to take private real estate for public use with just compensation.
42. Each of the following is a Smart Growth goal EXCEPT: a. saving our most valuable remaining natural resources b. supporting existing communities and neighborhoods c. saving taxpayer dollars by not building the infrastructure required to support sprawl d. stopping population growth
D. Smart Growth is not about stopping population growth. It is about encouraging development patterns that concurrently promote environmental protection and economic development opportunities within a framework of neotraditional design principles. Strategies include land use planning, mixed-use development, measures to increase use of public transit, and preservation of natural resources including productive farmland and open space.
100. Which of the following refers to the study of mechanical properties of liquids, including the flow of water? a. Hydrograph b. Hydraulics c. Hydrology d. Riprap
B. Hydraulics is the study of the mechanical properties of liquids, including the flow of water. A hydrograph is a graph showing the stage, flow, velocity, or other property of the volume of water with respect to time. Hydrology is the study of water, especially with respect to the effects of precipitation and evaporation on groundwater. Riprap is rock or rubble along a stream bank or shoreline for protection from erosion or scour.
14. Who pioneered indoor shopping malls, developed the new town of Columbia, MD, Baltimore's Harbor Place, and Boston's Faneuil Hall? a. Frank Lloyd Wright b. James Rouse c. Daniel Burnham d. Robert E. Simon, Jr.
B. In 1995 President Bill Clinton presented James Rouse (1914 - 1996) with the Presidential Medal of Freedom for his work revitalizing urban areas and his commitment to livability and diversity. Rouse was also the founder of the Enterprise Community Partners, an organization dedicated to funding the design and construction of housing for low-income families and individuals. Architect Frank Lloyd Wright suggested the Broad Acres concept of urban development, which was decentralized and assumed transportation would be by private automobile. Robert Simon developed Reston, Virginia, an example of the new towns movement of the 1960s.
32. Which of the following describes a census tract? a. A small, relatively permanent statistical entity with a population of about 4,000, located within a single county (or parish) b. A central place with a density of about 1,000 people per square mile, and a population of at least 50,000 c. A location with a population between 2,500 and 50,000 d. The smallest geographic unit for which the Census Bureau tabulates 100% data
A. A census tract is delineated by a local committee; its boundaries are normally outlined by the visible features of an area, but may follow governmental unit boundaries and other non-visible features in some instances. Census tracts always nest within counties. An urbanized area is defined to have a population of over 50,000, density of at least 1,000 per square mile. An urban cluster has a population of between 2,500 and 50,000. A census block is the smallest geographic unit for which the Census Bureau tabulates 100% data. 1990 was the first year in which census blocks covered the nation; in 2000, there were more than 1 million census blocks. Reference: http://www.census.gov/prod/cen2010/doc/sf1.pdf#page=474
80. Which two of the following deficiencies in infrastructure generally present the most severe constraints on development? I. Inadequate water pressure and/or volume II. Lack of sewer systems III. Inadequate road systems IV. Lack of a storm water system a. I & II b. I & III c. II & III d. II & IV
A. A land development suitability study ranked the most important infrastructure constraints as distance away from water service, sewer service, roads, schools and hospitals. Another community required developers to show impacts on water system, wastewater system, storm drainage system, roadway system, and other public services.
95. If a planner analyzes the geologic, hydrologic, soil and other physical data of land to estimate the costs that those physical conditions will impose on various types of development, the planner may be: a. preparing a land capability analysis b. preparing a land use map c. in the process of revising subdivision regulations d. considering changes to the zoning ordinance
A. A land use map reflects the use of land, not its properties, although certain uses are limited to particular types of land. Subdivision regulations set standards for streets, drainage ways, sewage disposal, water systems, and other aspects of public welfare. The zoning ordinance typically identifies allowable uses of land.
91. "Aging in place" concepts include which of the following? I. Complete Streets II. Separation of land uses III. Remaining in one's neighborhood IV. Retaining elderly automobile dependency a. I & III b. I & IV c. II & III d. III & IV
A. Complete streets and connected sidewalks/trails allow seniors to remain healthy while taking care of errands or meeting friends. "Aging in place" most often refers to an elderly person staying in their home as they age, rather than moving to a retirement community, senior home, or assisted living facility. The definition is often expanded to include the elderly sticking to the neighborhoods where they have always lived, rather than heading to retirement communities.
12. In which case did the Supreme Court say that a community may prohibit unrelated individuals from living as a family in the same house? a. Moore v. City of East Cleveland (1977) b. Village of Belle Terre v. Boraas (1974) c. Tennessee Valley Authority v. Hill (1978) d. April v. City of Broken Arrow (1989)
B. In Belle Terre v. Boraas (1974), the court upheld this prohibition; Belle Terre is near the State University of NY at Stony Brook and the intent of the regulation was apparently to keep more than two unrelated students from renting a house together. In Moore v. City of East Cleveland (1977), the city told a grandmother that she could not have her grandchildren live with her because they were not a family; the court did not uphold this interpretation of a regulation. In TVA v. Hill (1978), the court stopped the development of a dam because of the endangered snail darter fish. The April v. City of Broken Arrow (1989) case concerned floodplain regulations, which the court upheld as not being a taking because they pertain to public safety.
83. In a community with limited financial resources and a volunteer planning commission, which of the following is the most practical way to positively impact local planning decision making? a. Recruit only planning commissioners with professional planning experience b. Provide planning commissioners with training on procedures and the state enabling legislation c. Improve meeting attendance by raising planning commissioner per diems d. Schedule planning commissioner open houses to augment public comment periods
B. In most communities, the responsibility for most land-use and development decisions rests with planning commissioners and city and county boards, who are responsible for approving local plans, rezoning and variance requests, and development proposals. Education on the basics of planning can help members of these boards make better decisions.
24. Who is considered the Father of Regional Planning? a. Daniel Burnham b. Patrick Geddes c. Paul Davidoff d. Kevin Lynch
B. Patrick Geddes (1854-1932), a sociologist by training, is known as the Father of Regional Planning. He is the author of Cities in Evolution. Daniel Burnham was an architect and urban planner instrumental in the development of the skyscraper and best known for his management of the World's Columbian Exposition of 1893 and the influential 1909 "Plan for Chicago," the first metropolitan regional plan in the country. Paul Davidoff is best known for explaining advocacy planning. He wrote A Choice Theory of Planning with Thomas Reiner in 1962. Kevin Lynch wrote Image of the City in 1960.
20. Known as the "father of regional Planning", who authored Cities in Evolution? a. Lewis Mumford b. Patrick Geddes c. Robert Moses d. Gifford Pinchot
B. Scottish biologist Patrick Geddes developed the valley and town cross section depicting the inter-relationship of natural resources, transportation, and economics.
57. New development is proposed in an area that has insufficient roadway capacity. The county planning director wants to institute traffic-impact fees to pay for road improvements. The most appropriate basis on which to establish the fee structure is the: a. Number of housing units b. Number of trips generated c. Amount of commercial square footage d. Amount of employment
B. There should be a nexus or close relationship between the object of the impact fee and the public service provided. Trip generation is most closely related to need for roadway capacity improvements.
82. The capitalization rate may be computed using which of the following? a. Net operating income and purchase price b. Permanent loan amount and annual debt service c. Purchase price and permanent loan amount d. Maximum gross rent and operating expense
A. The overall capitalization rate is defined as "[a]n income rate for a total property interest that reflects the relationship between a single year's net operating income and the total property price or value."
27. Which of the following offers development options in a different geographic area? a. Transfer of Development Rights b. Cluster Development c. Building Permit Moratorium d. Planned Unit Development
A. With a Transfer of Development Rights (TDR), development from one area may be sent to a receiving area. Cluster Development refers to locating buildings on a parcel relatively close together in order to leave a portion of the parcel as open space. A moratorium is a temporary ban on the issuing of building permits. A Planned Unit Development (PUD) is a comprehensive development in a large area.
75. Typically, funds from a municipal Capital Improvement Program budget may be used for which of the following? a. Purchasing new uniforms for police or fire department staff b. Constructing permanent public structures, water and sewer facilities, and streets c. Renovating older homes as part of a city's redevelopment program d. Supporting outreach programs to low-income school age children
B. Capital Improvement Programs are about improving or building things like roads, bridges, and sewer lines. A Capital Improvement Program typically includes a detailed 5-6 year schedule for making improvements. A capital improvement program depends on available resources and can include potential financing for improvements through the use of bonds, the creation of special districts, and tax increment financing (TIF).
64. "An income property has the following characteristics: Maximum gross rent: $374,000 Permanent loan amount: $2,215,000 Vacancy rate: 5% Purchase price: $3,150,000 Operating expenses: $75,000 Annual debt service: $261,000 What is the net operating income (NOI) of the property?" a. $113,000 b. $280,300 c. $290,000 d. $935,000
B. Net operating income = Gross operating income * (1 - vacancy rate) - operating expenses. $374,000 * 95% - $75,000 = $280,300. Annual debt service is not used in NOI calculation but would be included in a cash flow calculation.
22. The power given to local government to intervene in the lives of private citizens for the protection of public health, safety, and welfare is called what? a. Zoning b. Police power c. Due process d. Eminent domain
B. Police power allows for the enforcement of zoning regulations.
85. Which of the following would NOT be a key variable in fiscal impact analysis? a. A city's property tax rate b. A county's historic trends in assessed valuation c. The average cost of educating a child in the local school system d. The average cost per square foot of constructing a public building
B. Property tax rates, school costs, and building costs are defined inputs used in a fiscal impact analysis. Historic trends in assessed valuation are not central to the analysis.
19. The New York Court of Appeals case Golden v. Planning Board of Town of Ramapo (1972) resulted in an important decision in what area? a. Exclusionary housing b. Growth management c. "Takings" claims d. Environmental justice
B. Ramapo, NY established a growth management system that awarded points to development proposals based on the availability of public utilities, drainage facilities, parks, road access, and firehouses.
35. Critical Path Method is a project management technique designed to: a. help employees improve writing skills b. assist in decision-making c. reduce errors in traffic modeling d. identify evacuation routes
B. The Critical Path Method (CPM) is a technique used for complex projects with many inter-related activities. CPM models the activities of a project as a network and shows which activities are critical to the project and which are not. It is also useful to show what activities must be completed before others can begin.
26. Which individual is known for first using layering to show suitability? a. Eric Fromm b. John Reps c. Ian McHarg d. Roger Tomlinson
C. McHarg wrote Design with Nature and used Mylar layers to show suitability for development. John Reps wrote The Making of Urban America. Roger Tomlinson is known as the "father of GIS." Erich Fromm is a social psychologist/sociologist well known for the Critical Theory.
21. Clarence Stein is best known for his work on which topic? a. The New York State thruway b. The Catskill preserve c. The American Garden City movement d. The Rural Electrification Administration
C. Stein was involved in the development or garden cities under the rural Resettlement Administration including Radburn and the for-profit development of Sunnyside Gardens New York.
59. The term "just compensation" in the U.S. Constitution refers to which of the following? a. Payment for development rights b. Reimbursement of permit fees c. Payment for private property taken for public use d. Tax credits for low-income housing
C. The Fifth Amendment to the US Constitution requires that the power of eminent domain be tied with "just compensation" for private property taken for public use.
29. A variance is a zoning operation that commonly allows: a. A departure from the standard rules due to physical characteristics of a particular piece of property b. a departure from the standard rules due to financial hardship for a property owner c. a departure only from the dimensions (setback, height, etc.) specified in the underlying zoning regulation d. a departure only from the use specified in the underlying zoning regulation.
A. A variance is a departure from any provision of the zoning requirements for a specific parcel due to a peculiar characteristic of the specific parcel. A variance is never allowed because of financial hardship on the part of the property owner. A variance may alter the allowable use of the parcel or it may allow deviation from the dimensional requirements of the underlying ordinance.
96. An LOS C at a signalized intersection indicates: a. mostly stable flow, but speeds and maneuverability are somewhat constricted by the volume b. free flow, with low volumes and high speeds c. unstable flow, near roadway capacity, limited speed, very long delays d. very low speeds, volumes greater than capacity, frequent stoppages
A. Answer B describes LOS A. Answer C describes LOS E. Answer D describes LOS F. LOS B is described as having stable flow, speed somewhat restricted, short delays, and LOS D is described as unstable flow, tolerable but fluctuating operating speed, long delays.
13. The architect who oversaw the design of the 1893 World's Columbian Exposition in Chicago is: a. Daniel Burnham b. Frederick Law Olmsted, Jr c. Frank Lloyd Wright d. Edward Bassett
A. Daniel Burnham (1846-1912), the Father of City Planning, was the architect for the neo-classical White City design of the Columbian Exposition. Olmsted, Sr. worked with Burnham as the site designer for the Columbian Exposition. This was the first large scale elaboration of the City Beautiful Movement. Note that Burnham is usually cited as the author of the saying: 'Make no little plans. They have no magic to stir men's blood.' However, researchers at the National Building Museum attribute this saying to a contemporary and colleague of Burnham, architect Willis Polk (1867-1924). Frederick Law Olmsted, Jr. designed Forest Hills Gardens in 1911 on Long Island. This was the inspiration for Clarence Perry's neighborhood unit concept. Frederick Law Olmsted, Sr. and Calvert Vaux designed Riverside Illinois, a railroad suburb with curvilinear streets and parks in 1868. They also designed Central Park in New York City. Edward Bassett, considered the Father of Zoning, prepared the first comprehensive zoning ordinance in New York City in 1916.
81. Which of the following would be the LEAST useful criterion for evaluating whether a proposed development can be adequately served by a fire agency? a. The age of the fire-fighting equipment in the fire station closest to the development b. The fire insurance ratings for the development's location c. The distance between the development and a fire station d. The availability of adequate water pressure in the development
A. Fire insurance ratings are based on numerous criteria and provide a quick assessment of degree of fire protection. Distance and water availability are directly related to the ability of the fire department to respond.
37. Which of the following tells a reader both why a plan was developed and where it might lead? a. Goals b. Objectives c. Alternatives d. Action items
A. Goals usually imply the threat or the problem that stimulated plan development and specify the vision of the community in the future. A typical goal may be: "To protect the character of our town." Objectives are usually measurable accomplishments. A good objective meets the criteria of being impact-oriented, measurable, time-limited, specific, and practical. Alternatives are alternative courses of action. Action items specify the steps that will be implemented in the plan.
25. The nineteenth century photojournalist Jacob Riis authored which of the following books? a. How the Other Half Lives b. The City in History c. Geography of Nowhere d. Good City Form
A. Jacob Riis wrote How the Other Half Lives (1890) and Children of the Poor (1892). These books contributed to housing reform. Lewis Mumford wrote The City in History (1961); James Howard Kunstler wrote Geography of Nowhere (1994); Kevin Lynch wrote Good City Form (1981).
88. In economic base analysis, what is the location quotient calculation used to determine? a. Comparison of the local economy to the regional or national economy to identify specializations in the local economy b. Identification of basic versus non-basic industry sectors within a region c. Forecasts for economic phenomena, such as income and employment d. The amount of regional job growth attributable to national trends versus regional factors
A. Location quotient compares the local economy to a reference economy, in the process attempting to identify specializations in the local economy. It does not assume that ALL employment in each industry is Basic or Non-Basic. Economic base projections are used to project employment within local industry sectors using a base multiplier computed from historical data. Econometric projection models are used to forecast economic phenomena such as income and employment using regression analysis. Shift-share analysis is used to determine the amount of regional job growth that is attributable to national trends versus unique regional factors.
45. For which of the following demographic groups is a mail survey instrument most effective? a. The elderly b. Middle-aged couples c. Apartment dwellers d. Minorities
A. Penn State University," Using Surveys for Data Collection in Continuous Improvement," Innovation Insight Number 14. http://www.psu.edu/president/pia/innovation/insights014.pdf For example, since older persons are less likely to use the Internet and e-mail, an online survey of retired persons may not be the best choice. A mailed or phone survey may be a better choice for these types of audiences.
62. A local property owner who wants to enlarge a garage seeks a variance from the setback requirements in a local zoning ordinance. What local regulatory body is most likely to handle this request? a. The zoning board of appeals (adjustments) b. The planning and zoning commission c. The city council d. The public works department
A. Petitions from property owners for site-specific modifications of local zoning regulations are typically referred to the Board of Zoning Appeals (BZA). This entity is normally authorized to grant variances to the ordinance.
79. "Which of the following are true about the planning process in most jurisdictions? I. The planning office and staff make recommendations to the governing body II. The planning office and staff have final authority on planning decisions III. The governing body writes the zoning ordinances IV. Planners establish policies first and then determine goals and objectives V. A body of appointed citizens, such as a planning commission, oversees comprehensive plans" a. I & V b. I, II, & III c. I, II, & IV d. III & IV
A. Planning staff make recommendations but the governing body has final authority. Planning staff or hired consultants usually write the zoning ordinances, and planners establish goals and objectives before determining policies. Planning staff generally report to an appointed body that acts as a balance to short term elected officials.
38. This is an independent unit of local government that is usually created by referendum and organized to perform specific governmental functions: a. Special district b. Coverage area c. Special assessment d. Enterprise zone
A. Special districts typically perform a limited number of governmental functions in a specific geographic area and usually have the power to incur debt and levy taxes. "Coverage Area" usually refers to the geographic area served by a wireless system. A Special Assessment imposes a tax on property, individual lots, or all property in a designated neighborhood or district to pay for improvements. An Enterprise Zone is an economically depressed area that has been targeted for revitalization by a city or state through tax abatement and other incentives given to companies that locate or expand their operations within the zone.
23. What regulating document cut lot coverage back to 70 percent and required a separate bathroom for each apartment as well as courtyards for light and ventilation? a. 1901 Tenement House Act b. 1909 Chicago Plan c. 1916 New York City Zoning Act d. 1920 New York Regional Plan
A. The 1909 Chicago Plan focused on highways, streets, railroads, parks and civic centers. The 1916 NYC Zoning Act established three land uses (residential, commercial, mixed) and restricted the height of buildings. The 1920 NY Regional Plan defined a neighborhood as having a 5 minute walking radius or as an area comprised of about 160 acres.
98. Which of the following is intended to generate data that will lead to better reports on trends and impacts? a. Environmental Indicators Initiative b. Environmental Justice Movement c. Environmental Assessment d. Environmental Impact
A. The Environmental Indicators Initiative is a creation of the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) to collect data to improve the Agency's ability to report on the status of and trends in environmental conditions and their impacts on human health and the nation's natural resources. Environmental Justice calls for fair treatment of all people with respect to the environment, law and regulations so that no population shoulders a disproportionate share of exposure to pollution or toxic waste facilities. An environmental assessment is an analysis prepared pursuant to the National Environmental Policy Act (1969) to determine whether a federal action would significantly affect the environment and thus require a more detailed environmental impact statement.
15. Each of the following cases addressed First Amendment concerns EXCEPT: a. Spur Industries v. Webb Development Company (1972) b. City of Los Angeles v. Taxpayers for Vincent (1984) c. City of Renton v. Playtime Theaters (1986) d. Metromedia v. City of San Diego (1981)
A. The Spur v. Webb (1972) case involved a new retirement community's efforts to prohibit the operation of a pre-existing feedlot; this was a 'coming to the nuisance' case and the feedlot was allowed to continue to operate. In Los Angeles v. Taxpayers for Vincent (1984), the U.S. Supreme Court found that an ordinance banning all signs on public property was in violation of the first amendment. In Renton v. Playtime Theaters (1986), the city ordinance prohibiting adult motion picture theaters from locating within 1,000 feet of any residential zone, single- or multiple-family dwelling, church, park, or school was upheld by the U.S. Supreme Court. In Metromedia Inc. v. San Diego (1981), the U.S. Supreme Court found that a partial ban on signs was unconstitutional under the First Amendment.
69. The floating zone is a technique used to: a. permit development of critical areas adjoining floodplains b. implement concepts such as PUD, historic preservation, and cluster development c. regulate marine residential zoning d. implement the neighborhood unit principle
B. A floating zone is a zoning district that delineates conditions which must be met before that zoning district can be approved for an existing piece of land. Once a PUD, historic preservation or cluster development, for example, was approved then the zone would be added to the official zoning map.
87. Which of the following terms describes types of elements that include forest preserves, river corridors, and trailheads? a. Linear parks b. Green infrastructure c. Eco-recreational spaces d. Community activity zones
B. APA "Planning and Design Standards", pg. 486.
50. The 2010 US Census revealed which of the following? a. A slowing of migration into the United States b. An increasing diversity of the population c. A smaller gap in household income between the highest quintile and the lowest quintile d. A decreasing number of households below the poverty line
B. According to the 2010 Census, while the US's non-Hispanic white alone population is still numerically the country's largest major race and ethnic group, it is also growing at the slowest rate. Hispanic and Asian populations have grown considerably, in part because of immigration.
84. Which of the following is NOT a common financing method used to purchase land for developing public parks? a. Special assessment tax b. User fee c. General fund expenditure d. Sales tax
B. An assessment area tax, general funds, and sales tax are all common methods for financing public parks. User fees are not generated until after a park is developed so they are not a good source of funds for land purchases.
74. A Capital Improvement Program (CIP) is: a. a plan to upgrade equipment for police and fire fighters b. a plan to fund infrastructure and building improvements over a fixed period of several years c. a plan to improve housing stock through adaptive reuse and other rehabilitation strategies d. all of the above
B. Capital Improvement Programs are put in place to construct or improve roads, bridges, sewer lines, etc. A Capital Improvement Program uses forecasts and population projections and typically includes a detailed 5-6 year schedule for making improvements. A CIP depends on available resources and includes potential financing for improvements through the use of bonds, the creation of special districts, and tax increment financing (TIF).
73. The intent of what practice is to concentrate development in areas where it is wanted and to limit it in areas where it is not? a. Purchase of development rights (PDR) b. Cluster zoning c. Inclusionary zoning d. Exactions
B. Cluster zoning increases density on one part of a site while preserving the remainder as undeveloped land or open space. PDR allows one to voluntarily separate ownership of property from the right to develop that property by selling the right to develop. Inclusionary zoning typically requires that a specified number (or percentage) of housing units in a development be made available for low and moderate-income households. Exactions are fees levied on developers in exchange for permission to develop.
40. Which of the following statistics is the best measure of central tendency to use when explaining levels of income in a community? a. Mean b. Median c. Mode d. Standard deviation
B. Half of the homes in the community cost more than the median and half cost less, therefore, this is a good measure of central tendency. If housing prices in a community are normally distributed, the mean, median and mode will be close in value and will all be reasonable measures of central tendency. However, if housing prices are not normally distributed, the mean and mode can be misleading. The mean is the average of housing prices and a few very expensive homes in a community can raise the mean much higher than the median. If a community has, for example, a large number of identical, low-value housing units, the mode, the most frequently occurring value, will reflect this. The standard deviation is not a measure of central tendency but of dispersion of the distribution of housing prices about the mean. The U.S. Census Bureau calculates median housing value.
41. Which of the following statistics is the best measure of central tendency to use when explaining levels of income in a community? a. Mean b. Median c. Mode d. Standard deviation
B. Half of the homes in the community cost more than the median and half cost less, therefore, this is a good measure of central tendency. If housing prices in a community are normally distributed, the mean, median and mode will be close in value and will all be reasonable measures of central tendency. However, if housing prices are not normally distributed, the mean and mode can be misleading. The mean is the average of housing prices and a few very expensive homes in a community can raise the mean much higher than the median. If a community has, for example, a large number of identical, low-value housing units, the mode, the most frequently occurring value, will reflect this. The standard deviation is not a measure of central tendency but of dispersion of the distribution of housing prices about the mean. The U.S. Census Bureau calculates median housing value.
61. Which of the following statements appropriately describe the purposes of HUD's Consolidated Plan? I. It links the provision and location of subsidized housing to community development activities. II. It reduces intra-area residential mobility within metropolitan areas. III. It gradually shifts the responsibility of housing programs from local to state governments. IV. It encourages local governments to develop strategies to assist low- and moderate-income residents to obtain adequate housing. a. I & II b. I & IV c. II, III, & IV d. III & IV
B. The Consolidated Plan is designed to help states and local jurisdictions to assess their affordable housing and community development needs and market conditions, and to make data-driven, place-based investment decisions. The consolidated planning process serves as the framework for a community-wide dialogue to identify housing and community development priorities.
10. Which of the following established a system of rectangular survey coordinates for virtually all of the country west of the Appalachians? a. The Homestead Act (1862) b. The Ordinance of 1785 c. The General Land Law Revision Act (1891) d. Morrill Act (1862)
B. The Ordinance of 1785 provided for the rectangular land survey of the Old Northwest. The rectangular survey has been called "the largest single act of national planning in our history and . . . the most significant in terms of continuing impact on the body politic" (Daniel Elazar). In 1862, the Homestead Act opened the lands of the Public Domain to settlers for a nominal fee and five years residence. In 1891, the General Land Law Revision Act gave the President power to create forest preserves by proclamation. In 1862, Congress passed the Morrill Act, which authorized that proceeds from the sale of land were to be used to found colleges offering instruction in agriculture, engineering, and other practical arts.
86. The preservation of historic structures can best be assured by: a. asking owners of historic properties to renovate them and to avoid demolition b. creating historic preservation districts that govern the use and maintenance of contributing buildings in the district c. developing a historic properties inventory and including it in the Comprehensive Plan d. creating a commission to publicize the historic character of these structures
B. The designation of a historic district and the imposition of special architectural controls are ways to integrate historic-preservation controls into a zoning ordinance. This regulates the treatment of historic buildings rather than depending on voluntary or informational means alone.
44. Which type of regulation controls the manner in which blocks of land over a certain size may be converted into building lots? a. Zoning ordinances b. Subdivision regulations c. Building codes d. Comprehensive plans
B. Zoning ordinances specify what may be constructed in each zone and what uses are allowable. Building codes are usually based on health and safety standards and control design, construction, and materials used in construction. A comprehensive plan covers the entire community, is long-term, and lays out a community's vision and describes where, how, and in some cases when development will occur.
66. In preparing a physical plan for a site within an urban center, which of the following types of maps would be LEAST useful? a. Topographic map b. Utilities map c. USGS quadrangle map d. Parcel map
C. The scale of a USGS quadrangle map (1:24,000) is too large to show enough detail that would be useful for site planning.
55. Detailed information about a community's debt would be vital for carrying out which of the following tasks? a. Establishing assessed values for property in the coming year b. Applying to HUD for Section 8 funds c. Presenting a venture-capital fund to area financial institutions d. Requesting a change in bond rating
D. Nearly all states limit the amount of a locality's debt, usually measured in some percentage of the locality's tax base. Agencies issuing municipal bonds rate the borrowing locality on its debt capacity.
97. Which is the simplest, fastest, and cheapest way to provide protection for a public drinking water supply? a. Require distance between development and water supply b. Regulate rate of drawdown c. Model velocity of water movement d. Regulate assimilative capacity
A. Separation from a water supply is the simplest, fastest and cheapest way to protect water quality. Distance requirements may range from 200 feet to several miles. Drawdown refers to the lowering of the water table. The velocity at which water moves may be a consideration and would be important in modeling, but modeling movement of water within a watershed is not simple, fast or cheap. Assimilative capacity is the degree to which a natural body of water may receive wastewater or toxic materials without suffering deleterious effects.
33. Which of the following is used to secure partial use of a piece of property? a. Fee simple scale b. Easement c. Ground rent d. Conveyance
B. An easement separates property ownership from use of that property and may be used to allow someone partial use of a property. Fee simple sale conveys all allowable uses of a property to the owner. Ground rent is the amount of money that is paid for the use of land when title to a property is held as a leasehold estate. Conveyance refers to the document that effects a property transfer.
68. Design review boards may be challenged legally if they: a. exercise discretion in reviewing projects b. lack standards as the basis for decisions c. deal with purely aesthetic issues such as colors d. operate in areas that are not historically significant
B. Any type of planning action is best defended if it is based upon a rational set of considerations such as an adopted comprehensive plan or defined design standards. Generally, the failure of an agency to establish coherent written standards and regulations to be applied in all cases amounts to a denial of due process.
99. All of the following acronyms are closely associated with environmental planning EXCEPT: a. SIP b. CIP c. CAFÉ d. EIS
B. CIP stands for Capital Improvement Program, a 5-6 year plan for capital improvements based on fiscal analysis and population projections. SIP stands for State Implementation Plan, which is required by the 1970 Clean Air Act amendments. CAFE stands for Corporate Average Fuel Economy standards for the total fleet produced by a manufacturer. EIS stands for Environmental Impact Statement, which addresses questions of environmental impact, adverse effects, alternatives, long-term productivity, and irreversible use of resources.
11. Central Place Theory is a term attributed to: a. Homer Hoyt b. Harris and Ullman c. Walter Christaller d. Ernest Burgess
C. Christaller (1893-1969), a German geographer, published Central Places in Southern Germany in 1933. Burgess developed his concentric circle model of city growth in 1924 based on a study of Chicago. Hoyt proposed his model of sectors radiating from the CBD in 1939. Harris and Ullman proposed the multi-nuclei model of a city in 1945.
16. The author of Tomorrow: A Peaceful Path to Real Reform was: a. Lewis Mumford b. Harland Bartholomew c. Ebenezer Howard d. Jacob Riis
C. Ebenezer Howard wrote this book in 1898; it was reissued as Garden Cities of Tomorrow in 1902. Lewis Mumford wrote Culture of Cities in 1929. Harland Bartholomew was the first full-time planner and worked in St. Louis; he designed the town of Crossett, Arkansas. Jacob Riis wrote How the Other Half Lives (1890) and Children of the Poor (1892); both books provided a stimulus to the housing and neighborhood reform movements.
47. A greenfield is defined as: a. a previously undeveloped property on the urban fringe, often farmland b. an abandoned industrial or commercial site where redevelopment is complicated by potential environmental contamination c. an abandoned industrial or commercial site that is ready for redevelopment with no threat of groundwater or soil pollution d. an established area of a city where new development is occurring on abandoned lots
A. Answer B describes a brownfield. Answer C describes a grayfield. Answer D describes a location of infill development.
46. In planning for new development, demands on infrastructure must be considered. Planners should consider which of the following? I. Demand for water under worst case fire scenario II. Typical demand for water III. Use of roads near the site IV. Depth and velocity of flow in sewer mains a. I & II b. II & III c. II & IV d. I, II, III, & IV
D. Planners estimate the demand for water under various conditions, use of sewer facilities, and use of roads when planning for new development.
17. Each of the following contributed significantly to the decentralization of urbanized areas in the mid to late twentieth century EXCEPT: a. deteriorating air quality b. speed, flexibility and affordability of the automobile c. improved telephone communications d. increase in the number of limited-access highways
A. Deteriorating air quality is not considered a cause of decentralization. Most of the growth of metropolitan regions in the mid-to-late twentieth century and the twenty-first century has occurred in suburban areas.
76. If frontage requirements and floodplain development regulations prohibit an owner from fully utilizing a piece of property, what should the property owner do to seek relief and utilize this property to the fullest extent? a. Seek a variance to the frontage requirements b. Apply for a special use permit c. Request that the municipality purchase the property to develop it as parkland d. Request a variance to the floodplain development regulations
A. A special use is not applicable; asking the locality to purchase your property is risky as more parkland may not be needed in that area. Variances can generally be granted for frontage requirements but not flood development regulations.
90. National data shows that the major housing problem of cities in the United States is: a. Lax building codes b. Overcrowding c. Insufficient affordable housing d. Insufficient demand
C. According to statistics from the National Alliance to End Homelessness, the number of people in homeless families rose from 2011-2012 by 1.4 percent. They produced a report stating that the problem is that: "Homelessness is essentially caused by the inability of households to pay for housing." Rents across much of the country are increasing when wages are not. According to the NAEH, 38 states registered an increase in fair-market rents between 2010 and 2011, with the average cost of a two-bedroom rental increasing by 1.5 percent nationally. At the same time, median household income decreased by 1.3 percent nationally, with only 14 states reporting increases. The number of households spending more than 50 percent of their income on housing went up 5.5 percent over the same period, with some 6.5 million households exceeding that threshold.
92. Green infrastructure: I. should be cost effective. II. should be integrated with gray infrastructure. III. Should incorporate multifunctionality. IV. can be used to lessen heat island effects. a. I & II b. I, II, & III c. I, II, III, & IV d. II & IV
C. All four are aspects or benefits of using green infrastructure. Planners should justify green infrastructure approaches using cost-benefit analyses to justify, plan and design green infrastructure. Green infrastructure can lower existing and future gray infrastructure costs. Designing green infrastructure to be multifunctional can achieve such seemingly disparate goals as flood control, reduced dependence on imported energy, and improved public-health outcomes. The use of green infrastructure such as trees and green roofs can counteract the urban heat island effect at the city scale and reduce the cooling needs of individual buildings.
7. In his 1991 book Edge City: Life on the New Frontier, Joel Garreau defined an edge city as: a. being within 2 miles of another city b. having a population of at least 100,000 c. a place that was nothing like a city as recently as 30 years ago d. being adjacent to a city with a population of 1 million
C. An edge city is also described as a form of urban center which contains jobs, housing, shopping, entertainment, and office space and in a spread out form. These cities are built at the "automobile scale" rather than the human scale and usually have at least 5 million square feet of leasable office space and 600,000 square feet of retail space, and have more jobs than bedrooms.
67. The purpose of overlay zones is to: a. allow elected officials to circumvent zoning district requirements b. deal with waterfront redevelopment c. allow a community's functional concerns to cut across existing zoning designations d. assure that economic development goals can be achieved
C. An overlay zone is a zoning district which is applied over one or more previously established zoning districts, establishing additional or stricter standards and criteria for covered properties in addition to those of the underlying zoning district.
36. A noise exposure level of 85 decibels (db.) would be considered normal for: a. Breathing b. A very quiet residence c. City traffic from inside a car d. A very loud rock concert
C. Breathing level is about 10 db. A quiet residence is about 40 db. A rock concert is about 132 db. Levels above 70 db., the level of freeway traffic, become annoying. Levels above 120db, a loud thunderclap, may be painful.
4. Ebenezer Howard is best known for promoting self-sufficient towns with mixed economies known as: a. New towns b. Planned unit developments c. Garden cities d. Suburbs
C. Ebenezer Howard, (1850-1920) published Tomorrow: A Peaceful Path to Real Reform in 1898; it was reissued as Garden Cities of Tomorrow in 1902. A garden city included about 6,000 acres of land and was surrounded with a rural belt. The first garden cities were in England: Letchworth in 1903 and Welwyn Garden in 1919. New Towns are a successor to garden cities. The New Towns of Columbia, MD and Reston, VA were built in the United States after World War II. A Planned Unit Development or PUD is planned and developed as a single entity containing residential and non-residential development such as public, commercial or industrial areas. PUDs allow for greater flexibility in locating buildings, combining land uses, and including open space than traditional development patterns. Suburban developments are located on the periphery of urban areas and are not associated with Ebenezer Howard. Riverside, IL is considered the earliest example of suburban development. Riverside is located outside of Chicago and was developed in 1868 by Frederick Law Olmsted, Sr.
70. "The mayor is asking you, the Planning Director, to implement a new Smart Growth program for the community. Your recommendations would likely focus on development in which of the following areas? I. Greyfields II. Greenfields III. Compositional zoned areas IV. Zombie subdivisions " a. I b. I & II c. I & IV d. II & III
C. Greyfields describe economically obsolescent, outdated, failing, moribund and/or underused real estate assets or land, such as vacant malls. Zombie subdivisions are unfinished subdivisions, often with utility pipes poking up, driveways and sidewalks to nowhere, and tidy homes surrounded by acres that nature is reclaiming. Both of these areas are prime candidates for additional Smart Growth development as much or all of the needed infrastructure is already in place. Greenfields, however, are undeveloped land in a city or rural area either natural, being used for agriculture, or open space, usually absent the needed infrastructure needed for extensive development. Compositional zoning relates to the pressures and temperature effects associated with volcanoes, or crystalline melting equilibrium known as concentric zoning.
71. "The Village of Mariemont was designed by John Nolen, funded by Mary Emery, and designated as a National Historic Landmark due to its classic town square, mix of housing and placement of shops, schools, parks and entertainment venues. The design of Mariemont: I. incorporated "White City" concepts. II. was based on the English Garden City. III. originated many of today's ""new urbanism"" concepts. IV. utilized design features from Frank Lloyd Wright's "Broadacre City."" a. I & II b. II c. II & III d. III & IV
C. John Nolen's design of the Village of Mariemont in Cincinnati drew its inspiration from the English Garden City and originated many of the "new urbanism" concepts being replicated by communities throughout the nation today, as did other subsequent developments by John Nolen in Florida.
54. A mayor has informed a planning director that there is currently no documentation process for the planning department's achievements. In response to this situation, the planner should do which of the following? a. Establish a public relations campaign b. Hold a series of meetings with the city council c. Implement a program-monitoring system d. Commit to sending quarterly reports to the mayor
C. Monitoring is an essential step in the planning process. It documents progress and provides a mechanism for collecting feedback and revising the plan as needed. The other three methods, while not precluded, are not an integral part of the planning process. The Practice of Local Government Planning, 1988, p. 11.
56. The intensity of residential land use is typically measured by which of the following methods? a. Floor area ratio b. Impervious surface area ratio c. Dwelling units per acre d. Open space ratio
C. Multifamily, planned unit development, and mixed-use zones usually specify the intensity of residential development as a number of dwelling units per acre. The Practice of Local Government Planning, 1988, p. 274.
53. Which of the following is the best indicator that a zoning ordinance needs a comprehensive revision? a. The official zoning maps are inaccurate b. The board of zoning appeals has a small caseload c. The zoning text has been amended on a regular basis over the past three years d. The city council often overturns the recommendations of the planning commission
C. Numerous zoning text amendments are an indication that the ordinance needs a comprehensive overhaul. Inaccurate zoning maps are more an indication of incorrect geographic information. A small BZA caseload is usually an indication that the zoning ordinance is working well. City councils may have other reasons to overturn planning commission recommendations.
89. An origin-destination survey is designed to reveal the: a. designation of general aviation airports b. shortest routes to a central business district c. pattern of daily vehicular trips d. most congested sections of roadways in an area
C. Origin-Destination studies are conducted to understand the pattern of the movement of persons and goods in a particular area of interest during a particular period of time.
78. In general, area wide planning organizations and regional organizations do NOT do which of the following? a. Provide grantsmanship and planning assistance to member governments b. Encourage intergovernmental coordination c. Function as a separate layer of government d. Plan for new kinds of intergovernmental services
C. Powers and duties of a regional planning agency include developing a regional comprehensive plan, administration, education, and review of regional impacts and projects. In some cases a local government may transfer some local government powers to a regional agency but that is not usually the case.
52. In preparing a federal environmental impact statement (EIS), it is essential to analyze and describe impacts on which of the following? I. The community's fiscal condition II. Historic and cultural resources III. Community participation IV. The quality of air, water, flora, and fauna a. I, II, & III b. I, II, III, & IV c. II & IV d. IV only
C. http://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2012-title40-vol34/pdf/CFR-2012-title40-vol34-sec1502-16.pdf NEPA 1502.16 Environmental consequences. This section . . . shall include discussions of: . . . (d) The environmental effects of alternatives including the proposed action. The comparisons under § 1502.14 will be based on this discussion. (e) Energy requirements and conservation potential of various alternatives and mitigation measures. (f) Natural or depletable resource requirements and conservation potential of various alternatives and mitigation measures. (g) Urban quality, historic and cultural resources, and the design of the built environment, including the reuse and conservation potential of various alternatives and mitigation measures.
5. Which of the following is a landmark housing case? a. Hadacheck v. Sebastian (1915) b. Berman v. Parker (1954): c. Southern Burlington NAACP v. Township of Mt. Laurel (1975) d. Village of Euclid v. Ambler Realty Co. (1926)
C. Southern Burlington NAACP v. Township of Mt. Laurel came before the New Jersey Supreme Court. In the 1975 decision, the court required that a township provide the opportunity for low-income housing development through the zoning ordinance. A second case, known as Mount Laurel II, came before the court in 1983; this time, the courts instructed townships to provide their fair share of low-income housing, which led the New Jersey legislature to pass the Fair Housing Act in 1985. Hadacheck v. Sebastian considered whether some restrictions on activities in a brickyard in Los Angeles constituted a taking; the Supreme Court ruled that the restrictions did not constitute a taking. Berman v. Parker considered the ability and scope of the government to take and transfer private property to private developers as part of a project to clear blight from an entire area. In Euclid v Ambler, Alfred Bettman argued that it was right for government to use zoning to restrict the use of private land to protect the integrity of a residential neighborhood; the Supreme Court agreed and zoning regulations were upheld.
9. Which of the following pieces of federal legislation focused on slum clearance? a. 1906 Antiquities Act b. 1934 Federal Housing Act c. 1949 Housing Act d. 1968 New Communities Act
C. The 1949 Housing Act focused on slum clearance. It inaugurated the idea of urban redevelopment. The 1954 Housing Act modified this approach to focus more on slum prevention. The 1906 Antiquities Act was passed to protect archeological sites. In 1934, during the Great Depression, the Federal Housing Act instituted the Federal Savings and Loan Insurance Corporation (FSLIC) to insure personal savings and established the Federal Housing Administration (FHA) to provide mortgage insurance. The 1968 New Communities Act provided funding for private development of new towns.
31. The total area of permitted floor space expressed as a proportion of the site is known as the: a. Gross Leasable Area (GLA) b. Location Quotient c. Floor Area Ratio (FAR) d. North American Industry Classification System (NAICS)
C. The FAR is the ratio of floor space to area of the site; ex. for a 6 story building that covers 1/2 of a building site, the FAR is (6*0.5)/1=3. The GLA is a measure of floor space commonly used to estimate the number of parking spaces that will be needed depending on the use of the space. The location quotient is a ratio of ratios: (Employment in industry X in city Y / Total employment in city Y) / (Employment in industry X in larger region) / (Total employment in larger region). NAICS stands for North American Industry Classification System, which came into use in 1997; it replaced the Standard Industrial Classification (SIC) system formerly used by the U.S. Census Bureau to classify types of industries.
8. The Federal Highway Act of 1956: I. included funding for scenic byways and historic preservation. II. was the largest U.S. public works program ever undertaken at the time. III. extended the road system by 41,000 miles. IV. required public investment in the infrastructure to do as much as possible to favor those who are most disadvantaged. a. I & IV b. II only c. II & III d. I, II, III, & IV
C. The Federal Highway Act of 1956, also known as the National Defense Highway Act, resulted in the interstate highway system. The 1991 Intermodal Surface Transportation Efficiency Act, ISTEA, included funding for scenic byways and historic preservation. John Rawls (1971) principle of justice is that infrastructure investments should do as much as possible to favor those who are the most disadvantaged; this was not part of the 1956 Act.
30. A complete submission for site plan review should provide each of the following types of information EXCEPT: a. a location map, site plan, and grading plan b. indication of zoning, setbacks and parking stalls around building footprints c. a listing of specific rents to be charged for leasing space in the proposed development d. drainage system specifications
C. There would be no need to know what tenants might be charged in order to evaluate a site plan.
18. In which of the following court cases did the U.S. Supreme Court rule that a sign ordinance reached "too far into the realm of protected speech"? a. City of Ladue v. Gilleo (1994) b. Young v. American Mini Theatres (1976) c. Metromedia, Inc. v. City of San Diego (1981) d. Members of the City Council of Los Angeles v. Taxpayers for Vincent (1984)
C. This case ruled that San Diego's ordinance prohibiting off-premises advertising displays was invalid. Each of the other cases is also a First Amendment case that was decided by the Supreme Court. In City of Ladue v. Gilleo (1994), the court decided that it was not permissible for a sign ordinance to ban some signs based upon their content. In Young v. American Mini-Theatres (1976), the ordinance that an adult theater may not (apart from a special waiver) be located within 1,000 feet of any two other "regulated uses" or within 500 feet of a residential area was upheld. In Los Angeles v. Taxpayers for Vincent (1984), the court decided that a sign ordinance was not unconstitutional because it applied to everyone equally.
60. According to Land- Based Classification Standards land-use activity color coding, which of the following would be used to indicate a restaurant on a map? a. Yellow b. Blue c. Red d. Violet
C. Traditional Color Coding for Land Uses by Sanjay Jeer, AICP with Barry Bain, AICP American Planning Association.
39. Each of the following may readily contribute to urban sprawl EXCEPT: a. Extension of water and swer lines b. Very low density zoning c. Urban service limit lines d. The building of a package sewer plant
C. Urban service limit lines prohibit the extension of sewer and water lines beyond a certain limit; extension of water and sewer lines encourages development to occur in new areas. Very low density zoning necessitates large distances between new construction, which encourages sprawl; and package sewer plants allow development in locations that are not served by existing sewer facilities.
58. The application of performance zoning does NOT include: a. providing flexibility in the number and design of units b. permitting any use that meets a specific set of standards c. requiring impacts analyses for a proposed development d. restricting specific uses on a property
D. An alternative to the traditional, conventional zoning method, performance standards regulate development by setting the desired goals to be achieved by regulation rather than regulating how those community goals are met.
77. The head of a division in a public planning agency has a professional staff person whose job performance is not satisfactory. The division's head has casually mentioned the problem to the person previously, but now feels that the problem should be discussed formally in order to correct the situation. At the first formal meeting between the two, all of the following should be discussed EXCEPT: a. the person's interest in the job b. the person's perception of the problem c. a suggestion that together they prepare job objectives for the person d. a comparison of the person's performance to that of other employees
D. An employee's performance should be evaluated in comparison with standards, goals, and targets, not in comparison with other people. http://www.inc.com/jeff-haden/how-not-to-deliver-employee-evaluations.html
65. When unexpended line-item funds remain in a local government budget at the end of a fiscal year, which of the following is NOT standard budgetary practice? a. Return unspent money to the general fund b. Transfer excess funds to cover shortages in other lines c. Expend funds on allowable items before year-end d. Carry over the remainder to the same line of the following year's budget
D. Budgets are generally characterized by annuality, which specifies that a budget is prepared every year, covering only one year, and executed over one year. It is thus not standard procedure to carry over a line item remainder from one year to the next but rather to use those funds within the specified budget period.
51. Which of the following is a commonly used methodology for projecting population growth? a. Shift-share analysis b. Gravity model c. Delphi technique d. Cohort-survival technique
D. Cohort-survival population projections focus on individual age and sex cohorts, and the effects of births, deaths and migration on them over time.
94. Donald Shoup, in his 2005 book The High Cost of Free Parking, estimates that what percentage of parking in the U.S. is free? a. 50% b. 75% c. 85% d. 99%:
D. Donald Shoup argues in his book that the oversupply of free parking (he estimates 99 percent of parking in the U.S. is free) is an enormous public subsidy that makes driving less expensive than it should be, further skewing travel choices.
3. Which of the following court cases is/are concerned with takings? I. Nollan v. California Coastal Commission (1987) II. Associated Homebuilders v. City of Livermore (1976) III. First English Evangelical Lutheran Church v. County of Los Angeles (1987) IV. Lucas v. South Carolina Coastal Council (1992) a. I only b. I & II c. I & III d. I, III, & IV
D. In Nollan v. California Coastal Commission (1987), the state claimed that the Nollan's proposed house would interfere with visual and psychological access to the public beach. The state said that the Nollan's would be granted a building permit only if they allowed public access to the beach. The court said this was a taking because if the state wanted to provide access to the beach it should use the power of eminent domain and compensate the land owners. In First English (1987), a church had not been allowed to use its property temporarily because it had been flooded; the court said that the city must provide compensation for this taking, even though it was only temporary. In Lucas, the court found that a South Carolina state law which prohibited Lucas from building on two lots on a barrier island was a taking because it deprived Lucas of all economically viable use of the property. The Associated Homebuilders v. City of Livermore (1976) case was about growth management. In that case, the court said it was permissible to phase growth to allow for relief of overcrowded schools and sewer treatment facilities and to increase water reserves.
6. Cities in the U.S. were densely settled in the late nineteenth and very early twentieth centuries. Each of the following is a consequence of this high density development EXCEPT: a. Threat of communicable diseases b. Great traffic congestion c. Reform-mindedness d. Federal aid programs for cities
D. Large scale federal aid programs did not begin until the 1930s and were implemented to spur recovery from the Great Depression. In 1900, population density in Manhattan averaged 100,000 people per square mile. Although there were few automobiles, this nevertheless led to congested streets. By 1990, it averaged 68,000 people per square mile. Note that Frederick Law Olmsted thought that planning was to be judged by the extent to which it reduced disease; thus he favored sunlight, good air circulation and open space. The crowding and haphazard development of many nineteenth century cities gave rise to a series of reform movements, the most significant being the sanitation and housing reform movements.
28. Each of the following terms is associated with New Urbanism EXCEPT: a. Transect zoning b. Neo-traditional design c. Transit-oriented development (TOD) d. Minimum parking requirements
D. Sprawl, which is characterized by homogeneous, low density, automobile-oriented development, is the opposite of New Urbanist development. Minimum parking requirements contribute to sprawl because a certain amount of parking space must be provided for each land use; this reduces compactness and proximity and will make infill development difficult because many sites cannot meet minimum parking requirements. Maximum parking requirements, which limit the amount of land that may be dedicated to parking, would not have this effect. Transect zoning, which divides land uses into six categories from rural to urban, is advocated by New Urbanists because it is easy to understand and can be translated into familiar zoning categories. Neo-traditional design refers to neighborhoods that are walkable and of relatively high density (compared to typical suburban development). New Urbanism encourages a mix of land uses so that retail and commercial destinations are within walking distance of residential development. It also encourages a mix of transportation modes including transit. Transit-oriented development seeks to locate urban, high density development near transit in order to encourage population density, mixed-use development, and pedestrian-scale design.
72. "The County Administrator calls you, the Planning Director, to his office to discuss the emerging safety issues surrounding the proliferation of digital billboards along major thoroughfares in the county that are increasingly experiencing major accidents due to distracted drivers. Among the safety solutions you consider, you should include regulations addressing: I. the restriction of the most distracting subject of messages that can be displayed. II. the prohibition of digital billboards along major roads in the community. III. the control of billboard luminance. IV. the control of message sequencing. " a. I & II b. I, III, IV c. II d. III, IV
D. The first two answers risk the likelihood of raising First Amendment industry challenges (whether successful or not). However, study after study provides evidence of driver distraction being created by digital billboards (except for industry funded studies which indicate that they do not increase the number of crashes). The third and fourth answers both are reasonable approaches to help address these distractions.
34. Health and Safety Regulations give local jurisdictions the power to enforce: a. Design standards b. Eminent domain c. Development impact fees d. Building codes
D. The purpose of building codes is to protect public health and safety. Design standards govern the architectural appearance of a building. Eminent domain is part of the Fifth Amendment and allows for the government taking of land for public purposes, with just compensation due to the property owner. Impact fees may be part of a growth management program to protect current residents from paying the full cost of providing new development.
43. Comparison of numerical indicators or a goals-achievement matrix may be useful at which stage of the planning process? a. Initial research b. Clarification of goals and objectives c. Plan implementation d. Plan evaluation
D. These are some of the methods planners may use to assess or evaluate a plan. Planning research should be followed by clarification of goals and objectives. Steps for plan implementation are then identified and the plan is enacted. Finally, the plan is evaluated (reviewed) and possibly revised.
93. Traffic calming involves which of the following? I. Choker II. Throttle III. Skinny streets IV. Speed tables a. I, II, & III b. I, II, & IV c. I & III d. I, III, & IV
D. http://dc.gov/DC/DDOT/Services/Streets+and+Sidewalks/Traffic+Calming/Traffic+Calming+101
