Anatomy 1 Final
The deltoid is a prime mover of the arm that acts in adduction. T/F?
False
The hypothalamus is the area where afferent impulses from all senses and all parts of the body are sorted out and then relayed to the appropriate area of the sensory cortex. T/F?
False
The knee is proximal to the thigh. T/F?
False
The arrangement of a muscle's fascicles determines its range of motion and power. T/F
True
The autonomic nervous system may cause activation or inhibition, depending on the division that is active and the target. T/F
True
The collagen fibers of the osteoid make the overall bone matrix stronger by allowing it to resist bending and twisting forces. T/F?
True
The major function of DNA is to provide the genetic instructions for protein synthesis. T/F?
True
The mucous membrane that lines the eyelids and is reflected over the anterior surface of the eyeball is the conjunctiva. T/F?
True
The pinkish hue of individuals with fair skin is the result of the crimson color of oxygenated hemoglobin (contained in red blood cells) circulating in the dermal capillaries and reflecting through the epidermis. T/F?
True
The protein found in large amounts in the superficial layer of the epidermal cells is keratin. T/F?
True
The shock-absorbing pads between the vertebrae are formed of fibrocartilage. T/F?
True
The figure represents a wedge-shaped section of which structural unit of bone? - diploë - an osteon - central canal - trabeculae
an osteon
The stomach is _____ to the spine
anterior
If a muscle fiber were to suddenly and permanently stop producing ATP the fiber would no longer be able to actively transport calcium out of the cytoplasm (sarcoplasm) and the intracellular calcium concentration would rise. Which of the following would you expect to happen? - calcium would be transported to the sarcoplasmic reticulum therefore contractions would cease. - the fiber would twitch uncontrollably due to excessive calcium bound to troponin - myosin wold be able to bind to the exposed binding sites on thin filaments but it would not be able to detach - no change would occur in a muscle that was relaxed to begin with
myosin wold be able to bind to the exposed binding sites on thin filaments but it would not be able to detach
The vomer and ethmoid bones form part of the _____. - nasal septum - orbits - lateral walls of the nasal cavity - lacrimal fossa
nasal septum
commissural fibers connect the cerebrum to the diencephalon. T/F?
False
voltage gated na+ channels open
depolarization
A sarcomere is the distance between two ________.
z discs
Your patient is returning for follow-up 6 weeks after sustaining a nondisplaced fracture of his radius. He tells you that his forearm is no longer painful, but he is concerned that he can palpate a "lump" in the bone at the site of the healing fracture. what is your response? - "i'm concerned that your bone is not healing properly. Let's ask the doctor about doing some xrays" - "that lump may be a sign of infection. we need to obtain cultures from the site" - "the lump means that the fracture was not set properly. i'm concerned that the ends of the fracture aren't properly aligned" - "that bump is a normal part of bone healing at this stage. as your body completes the process, the cells in your bone will gradually remodel it to its previous shape."
"that bump is a normal part of bone healing at this stage. as your body completes the process, the cells in your bone will gradually remodel it to its previous shape."
Which of the following is a characteristic of the bone material at D but not of the material at B? - lamallae - osteocytes - osteons - an origin in mesenchyme
- osteons
The smallest contractile unit within skeletal muscle would correspond to the distance between which two points in the figure? - 3 and 5 - 1 and 3 - 1 and 7 - 2 and 6
1 and 7
How many bones make up the adult skull? - 12 - 7 - 5 - 22
22
How many lumbar vertebrae are there in a typical adult skeleton? - 4 - 5 - 7 - 12
5
The composition of the secretions of the eccrine glands is ________. - primarily uric acid - 99% water, sodium chloride, trace amounts of wastes, and vitamin C - metabolic wastes - fatty substances, proteins, antibodies, and trace amounts of minerals and vitamins
99% water, sodium chloride, trace amounts of wastes, and vitamin C
Which joint in the figure is capable of multiaxial movement? - a - b - d - e
A
Which set of membrane proteins in the figure depicts the transport of solute molecules? - A - B - C - D
A
The myosin filaments are located in the ________.
A band
Which step precedes all of the other listed steps? - The sarcoplasmic reticulum is activated. - An action potential starts on the sarcolemma. - Na+ rushes into the cell. - ACh is released by the motor neuron
ACh is released by the motor neuron
What is the primary energy-transferring molecule in cells? - ATP - RNA - Carbohydrates - DNA
ATP
what is the difference between active and passive transport across the plasma membrane? - active transport implies that the cell is working with other cells, whereas passive transport implies that the cells does not cooperate with other cells - active transport means that the cell is aggressively going after substances that it wants to bring into the cell, whereas passive transport means that the cell just waits for the substance to cross the membrane. - active transport is used to move substance down their concentration gradient, whereas passive transport is used to move substances against their concentration gradient - active transport is ATP dependent, whereas passive transport uses only the kinetic energy of the particles for movement across the plasma membrane.
Active transport is ATP dependent, whereas passive transport uses only the kinetic energy of the particles for movement across the plasma membrane.
What is the classification of a solution of NaOH with a pH of 8.3? - buffered solution - acidic solution - alkaline solution - neutral solution
Alkaline Solution
Which letter is pointing to an mRNA molecule? - A - B - C - D
B
Which of the following would be regarded as an organic molecule? - CO2 - H2O - NaOH - CH4
CH4
Which of the following is most directly required to initiate the coupling of myosin to actin? - Ca++ - atp - ACh - glucose
Ca++
This is an elaborate network of rods and accessory proteins found in the cytosol that support cellular structures and provide the machinery to generate various cell movements, as well as provide the roads for vesicular trafficking.
Cytoskeleton
Which set of membrane proteins in the figure depicts an interaction between two separate cells? - A - B - C - D
D
Select the most correct statement regarding nucleic acids. - DNA is a long, double stranded molecule made up of A, T, G, and C base - three forms exist, DNA, RNA, and tDNA - tDNA is considered a 'molecular slave' of DNA during protein synthesis - RNA is a long, single stranded molecule made up of the bases A, T, G, and C
DNA is a long, double stranded molecule made up of A, T, G, and C
Controls the body with chemical molecules called hormones
Endocrine system
ATP is required to cause the power stroke in the myosin head. T/F?
False
Adipose tissue is made up of pseudostratified columnar epithelial cells. T/F?
False
All joints permit some degree of movement, even if very slight. T/F
False
All muscle cells contain striations. T/F?
False
All vertebrae possess a body, a spine, and transverse foramina. T/F
False
Although all skeletal muscles have different shapes, the fascicle arrangement of each muscle is exactly the same. T/F
False
As light hits the retina, the first structure the light encounters is a rod or a cone. T/F?
False
Because many of the same cardiac cells are innervated by both parasympathetic and sympathetic fibers, the influence of the two divisions on the heart is synergistic, meaning contraction is strongest when both divisions act together. T/F?
False
Because of its many direct articulations with the axial skeleton, the pectoral girdle is very stable. T/F?
False
Both first- and second-class levers operate at a mechanical disadvantage. T/F
False
CNS nerve fibers regenerate because of the actions of Schwann cells. T/F?
False
Cartilage has good regenerative capacity, while most epithelial tissues do not. T/F?
False
Cells in the stratum corneum undergo mitosis to keep the layer thick and protective. T/F?
False
Contraction of the ciliary muscle causes the lens to bend the light less. T/F?
False
DNA transcription is another word for DNA replication. T/F?
False
During isometric contraction, the energy used appears as movement. T/F?
False
Elastic cartilage tissue is found in the walls of the large arteries that leave the heart. T/F?
False
Epithelial cells contain both blood vessels and nerve fibers. T/F?
False
Intercalated discs and striations are both characteristics of skeletal muscle. T/F?
False
Joe burned himself on a hot pot, and the burn is quite painful. Joe's burn would best be described as a third-degree burn. T/F?
False
Lordosis affects the thoracic vertebrae. T/F
False
Nervous tissue consists mainly of neurons and collagen fibers. T/F?
False
New portions of a nail are produced at the cuticle. T/F?
False
Norepinephrine-releasing fibers are called cholinergic fibers. T/F?
False
Once a motor neuron has fired, all the muscle fibers in a muscle contract. T/F?
False
Short, irregular and flat bones have medullary cavities in order to keep the weight of the bones light. T/F?
False
Somatic and visceral reflex arcs are similar, but visceral reflex arcs lack afferent fibers (visceral sensory neurons). T/F
False
Sorting of sensory information and relaying it to the appropriate cerebral sensory area occurs in the hypothalamus. T/F?
False
Sound is generally perceived in the occipital lobe of the cerebral cortex. T/F?
False
Strong stimuli cause the amplitude of action potentials generated to increase. T/F
False
The ANS stimulates smooth muscles, skeletal muscles, and glands, whereas the somatic nervous system innervates skeletal muscles only. T/F?
False
The anterior chamber of the eye is filled with vitreous humor. T/F?
False
The canal connecting the third and fourth ventricles and running through the midbrain is the interventricular foramen. T/F?
False
The major difference in autonomic reflex arcs is that there are two sensory afferents. T/F?
False
The most important factor in joint stability is the depth of the articular surface. T/F?
False
The neural layer of the retina prevents excessive scattering of light within the eye. T/F
False
The periosteum is a tissue that serves only to protect the bone because it is not supplied with nerves or blood vessels. T/F?
False
The pituitary gland is housed in a saddle like depression in the temporal bone called the sella turcica? T/F?
False
The sensory division of the PNS is also known as the efferent division. T/F
False
The skin is not able to receive stimuli because the cells of the epidermis are not living and therefore there are no sensory receptors in the skin. T/F?
False
The sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS have the same effect on most body organ systems. T/F
False
The wrist joint can exhibit adduction and eversion movements? T/F?
False
Triglycerides are a poor source of stored energy. T/F?
False
Unlike the sympathetic division, the parasympathetic division synapses with the adrenal medulla. T/F?
False
When a patient is said to have "third-degree burns", this indicates that the patient has burns that cover approximately one-third or more of the body. T/F?
False
phagocytosis is used by the cells to secrete intracellular substances to the outside of the cell. T/F?
False
This organelle modifies, concentrates, and packages the proteins and lipids made at the RER for domestic use or export.
Golgi Apparatus
the _____ contains only the actin filaments
I band
Prevents water loss, entry of germs into the body and synthesizes vitamin D.
Integumentary system
A functional organ system which provides a means of protecting us from foreign invaders
Lymphatic system
Sympathetic responses generally are widespread because ________. - preganglionic fibers are short - NE and epinephrine are secreted into the blood as part of the sympathetic response - inactivation of ACh is fairly slow - pregangionic fibers are long
NE and epinephrine are secreted into the blood as part of the sympathetic response
Responds to environmental changes by transmitting electrical impulses
Nervous system
The vast majority of the cell's genetic material is housed here.
Nucleus
This organelle contains oxidases and catalases
Peroxisomes
The organelle that facilitates peptide bond formation between amino acids
Ribosomes
Provides a ridged framework to support the body and stores minerals
Skeletal system
A post synaptic potential is a graded potential that is the result of a neurotransmitter released into the synapse between two neurons. T/F
TRUE
Why is the figure considered to be an example of a negative feedback system, as opposed to a positive feedback system? - the figure illustrates the correction of an imbalance back to a baseline - the figure shows the detection of an imbalance - the figure includes an efferent pathway - A central nervous system regulator is regulating the response
The figure illustrates the correction of fan imbalance back to a baseline
Which response provides the best explanation as to why ionic compounds easily dissociate in water? - nonpolar organic molecules such as fats and waxes dissolve well in water - the polarity of water easily breaks the charges between the oppositely charged ions in the compound - the polarity of water allows it to easily dissociate most covalently bound compounds - as a polar molecule, water cannot easily dissociate inorganic compounds
The polarity of water easily breaks the charges between the oppositely charged ions in the compound.
A ball-and-socket joint is a multiaxial joint. T/F?
True
A contraction in which the muscle does not shorten but its tension increases is called isometric contraction. T/F?
True
A skeletal muscle contracts with varying force and length of time in response to the body's needs at the time. T/F?
True
A smooth muscle has a central nucleus but lacks striations. T/F?
True
A tissue consists of groups of similar cells that have a common function. T/F?
True
A wheelbarrow is a good example of a second-class lever. T/F?
True
ATP is an unstable, high-energy molecule that provides body cells with a form of energy that is immediately usable. T/F?
True
All epithelia have two surfaces, an apical surface and a basal surface, that differ in both structure and function. This property is called polarity. T/F?
True
All salts are ionic compounds, but not all ionic compounds are salts. T/F
True
An increase in the calcium ion level in the sarcoplasm starts the sliding of the thin filaments. When the level of calcium ions declines, sliding stops. T/F?
True
An osteon contains osteocytes, lamellae, and a central canal, and is found in compact bone only. T/F?
True
As the ciliary muscle relaxes, the suspensory ligaments tighten and stretch the lens, allowing for distance vision. T/F?
True
Autonomic ganglia are sites of synapse and information transmission from preganglionic to post ganglionic neurons. T/F
True
Axon diameter and degree of myelination determine nerve impulse conduction velocity. T/F?
True
Bending of the tip of the finger exhibits flexion. True or False
True
Blood is considered a type of connective tissue. T/F
True
Cell bodies of sensory neurons may be located in ganglia lying outside the central nervous system. T/F?
True
Costal cartilages join most ribs to the sternum. T/F
True
Dividing cells must pass through the phases of mitosis the following order: Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, and Telophase. T/F?
True
During depolarization, the inside of the neuron's membrane becomes less negative. T/F
True
Each daughter cell resulting from mitotic cell division has exactly the same genetic composition. T/F?
True
For a doctor, simply looking at a patient's skin can help in making a diagnosis. T/F?
True
Functions of connective tissues include binding, support, insulation, and protection. T/F?
True
Glucose is an example of a monosaccharide. T/F
True
Glycogen, the storage form of glucose, is primarily stored in skeletal muscle and liver cells. T/F
True
In order for sound to reach the spiral organ (of Corti), the auditory ossicles must vibrate the oval window and set the endolymph in motion. T/F?
True
In the anatomical position, the lateral forearm bone is the radius. T/F?
True
In the muscles of the limbs, the origin is usually the immobile muscle attachment. T/F?
True
Light passes through the entire thickness of the neural layer of the retina to excite the photoreceptors. T/F?
True
Lysosomes perform digestive functions within a cell. T/F?
True
One of the functions of skeletal muscle contraction is production of heat. T/F
True
Positive feedback mechanisms tend to enhance the original stimulus so that the response is accelerated. T/F?
True
Regardless of type, all levers follow the same basic principle: effort farther than load from fulcrum = mechanical advantage; effort nearer than load to fulcrum = mechanical disadvantage. T/F
True
Simple cuboidal epithelia are usually found in areas where secretion and absorption occur. T/F?
True
Sour taste receptors are stimulated by hydrogen ions of acidic food substances. T/F?
True
Squamous cells are flattened and scalelike when mature. T/F?
True
Supination is the movement of the forearm in which the palm of the hand is turned anteriorly or superiorly. T/F?
True
The acidity of a solution reflects the concentration of free hydrogen ions in the solution. T/F
True
The action potential is caused by permeability changes in the plasma membrane. T/F
True
The amount of movement permitted by a particular joint is the basis for the functional classification of that joint. T/F
True
The anterior compartment of the thigh is involved in lower leg extension. T/F
True
The dense fibrous connective tissue portion of the skin is located in the reticular region of the dermis. T/F?
True
The dermis contains blood vessels and nerve fibers while the epidermis does not. T/F?
True
The femur is the largest and strongest bone in the body. T/F?
True
The force of muscle contraction is controlled by multiple motor unit summation or recruitment. T/F?
True
The ischium articulates with both the ilium and the pubis forming the acetabulum. T/F?
True
The lower the pH, the higher the hydrogen ion concentration. T/F
True
The skin cancer most likely to metastasize is cancer of the melanocytes. T/F?
True
The term osteoid refers to the organic part of the matrix of compound bones without mineralization. T/F?
True
There are seven cervical, twelve thoracic, and five lumbar vertebrae. T/F?
True
When a muscle fiber contracts, the I bands diminish in size, the H zones disappear, and the A bands move closer together but do not diminish in length. T/F?
True
Without a functioning crista ampullaris, the semicircular canals would not function. T/F?
True
epithelial tissues always exhibit polarity; that is, they have a free surface and a basal surface. T/F?
True
gliding movements occur when one flat, or nearly flat bone surface glides or slips over another. T/F
True
interstitial fluid represents one type of extracellular material. T/F?
True
movement of the ankle so that the superior aspect of the foot approaches the shin is called dorsiflexion. T/F?
True
the optic disc forms a blind spot where the optic nerve leaves the eyeball. T/F?
True
Identify the muscle responsible for depressing the eye and turning it laterally. - a - b - c - d
a
Identify the neuron that is last in the transmission pathway of light information, given the cells shown in this image. - a - b - c - d
a
Which letter represents the cervical curvature? - a - b - c - d
a
Which of the neuralgial cell types shown form myelin sheaths within the CNS? - a - b - c - f
a
Which part of the inner ear houses receptors for rotational (angular) movement of the head? - a - b - c - d
a
The molecular interaction described as a cross bridge involves the binding of which two proteins? - b and d - a and b - a and c - a and d
a and c
Both actin and myosin are found in the ________.
a band
If the ventral root of a spinal nerve were cut, what would be the result in the tissue or region that nerve supplies? - a complete loss of voluntary movement - a complete loss of sensation - loss of neither sensation nor movement but only of autonomic control - a complete loss of sensation and movement
a complete loss of voluntary movement
What is the structure indicated by label E? - a dermal papilla - the hypodermis - a hair root - the stratum corneum
a dermal papilla
Crenation (shrinking) is likely to occur in blood cells immersed in _____ - blood plasma - a hypotonic solution - an isotonic solution - a hypertonic solution
a hypertonic solution
Most skeletal muscles contain ________. - muscle fibers of the same type - a mixture of fiber types - a predominance of slow oxidative fibers- a predominance of fast oxidative fibers
a mixture of fiber types
A patient voices concern that her normal cholesterol level is dangerous. "I eat no cholesterol at all. That stuff is toxic!" she declares. what is your best response? - if you remove all fat from your diet, you may be able to lower your cholesterol even further, - make sure that you read food labels carefully. Even frozen vegetables can be loaded with cholesterol. - be glad that your levels are normal. most of our patients have levels that are much too high. - a normal cholesterol level is a good thing. your cells depend on cholesterol to stay healthy, and you can't make vital hormones without it.
a normal cholesterol level is a good thing. your cells depend on cholesterol to stay healthy, and you can't make vital hormones without it.
which of the following describes the plasma membrane? - a phospholipid bilayer surrounding the cell - a double layer of protein enclosing the plasma - a membrane composed of tiny shelves or cristae - a single-layered membrane that surrounds the nucleus of a cell
a phospholipid bilayer surrounding the cell
if a postsynaptic cell is stimulated to threshold by temporal summation this implies that _____. - a presynaptic neuron is sending frequent epsp - the postsynaptic cell is sending frequent action potential - the postsynaptic cell can be influenced by only one presynaptic cell - the presynaptic neuron is sending frequent ipsp
a presynaptic neuron is sending frequent epsp
Homeostasis is the condition in which the body maintains - a static state with no deviation from preset points - a relatively stable internal environment, within limits - the lowest possible energy usage - a dynamic state within an unlimited range, depending on circumstances
a relatively stable internal environment, within limits
A gene can best be defined as ________. - noncoding segments of DNA up to 100,000 nucleotides long - a segment of DNA that carries the instructions for one polypeptide chain - an RNA messenger that codes for a particular polypeptide - a three-base triplet that specifies a particular amino acid
a segment of DNA that carries the instructions for one polypeptide chain
Color vision has much greater resolution than night vision (vision that is mostly in shades of gray). Which of the following is the best explanation for why this is so? - there are several types of cone photoreceptors, each of which enrich the clarity and resolution of vision - a larger proportion of the brain's visual cortex is active during the day when our cone photoreceptors are the most active - a single cone photoreceptor often connects to a single bipolar cell and a single ganglion cell while as many as 100 rods will converge on a single ganglion cell - there are many more cone photoreceptors in the eye than rod photoreceptors
a single cone photoreceptor often connects to a single bipolar cell and a single ganglion cell while as many as 100 rods will converge on a single ganglion cell
Which of the following will occur when an excitatory postsynaptic potential (epsp)is being generated on the dendritic membrane? - specific potassium gates will open - specific sodium gates will open - a single type of channel will open, permitting simultaneous flow of sodium and potassium - sodium gates will open first, then close as potassium gates open
a single type of channel will open, permitting simultaneous flow of sodium and potassium
Which of the following is not an example of a fibrous joint? - a suture - a syndesmosis - a symphysis - a gomphosis
a symphysis
What typeof muscle assists an agonist by causing a like movement or by stabilizing a joint over which an agonist acts? - a synergist - a prime mover - an agonist - an antagonist
a synergist
Which of the following does not describe the ANS? - involuntary nervous system - general visceral motor system - a system of motor neurons that innervates smooth and cardiac muscle and glands - a system of motor neurons that innervates all muscle cells
a system of motor neurons that innervates all muscle cells
Which type of lever is exemplified by the flexing of the forearm by the biceps brachii muscle? - a first-class lever - a second-class lever - a third-class lever - a fourth-class lever
a third-class lever
What type of event is required for an action potential to be generated? - multiple stimuli - repolarization to resting membrane potential - a threshold level depolarization - hyperpolarization
a threshold level depolarization
an action potential is regarded as an example of a positive feedback. which of the following examples below best illustrates the positive feedback aspect of an action potential? - voltage gated potassium ion channels open slowly and remain open long enough to cause hyperpolarization - a threshold stimulus will cause the opening of voltage gated sodium ion channels that will cause further depolarizing stimulus. this stimulus will open still more voltage gated sodium ion channels - the sodium potassium pump consistently moves ions as long as ATP is available, and regardless of membrane potential changes - potassium permeability is about 25 times greater than sodium ions
a threshold stimulus will cause the opening of voltage gated sodium ion channels that will cause further depolarizing stimulus. this stimulus will open still more voltage gated sodium ion channels
What differentiates an autonomic reflex from a somatic reflex? - presence of a sensory receptor - a two-neuron motor pathway - an integration center - a single sensory neuron in the sensory pathway
a two-neuron motor pathway
Which of the following cranial nerves carries only motor information? - trigeminal - optic - abducens - olfactory
abducens
What is moving a limb away from the median plane of the body along the frontal plane called? - extension - flexion - adduction - abduction
abduction
Performing "jumping jacks" requires ________. - Inversion and eversion - Abduction and adduction - Pronation and supination - Flexion and extension
abduction and adduction
In a person who is color-blind, which of the following would you most expect to see? - a loss of functions in the rods of their retina - a loss of their peripheral vision - an inability to regenerate 11-cis-retinal after bleaching - absence of green or red cones in their foveae
absence of green or red cones in their foveae
Which of the following is not a role of connective tissue? - insulation - absorption - transport - support
absorption
Which of the following is an excitatory neurotransmitter secreted by motor neurons innervating skeletal muscle? - norepinephrine - gamma aminobutyric acid - acetylcholine - cholinestrerase
acetylcholine
a neurotransmitter released at motor end plates by the axon terminals
acetylcholine
Breaks down ACh into its building blocks, rendering it ineffective.
acetylcholinesterase
After nervous stimulation stops, what prevents ACh in the synaptic cleft from continuing to stimulate contraction? - calcium ions returning to the terminal cisternae - the action potential stops going down the overloaded T tubules - acetylcholinesterase breaks apart the ACh - the tropomyosin blocking the myosin once full contraction is achieved
acetylcholinesterase breaks apart the ACh
Tendon sheaths ________. - act as friction-reducing structures - are lined with dense irregular connective tissue - are extensions of the periosteum - help anchor the tendon to the muscle
act as friction-reducing structures
Which protein is indicated by the letter A? - keratin - troponin - actin - myosin
actin
The sliding filament model of contraction involves ______. - actin and myosin lengthening in order to slide past each other - the shortening of thick filaments so that thin filaments slide past - actin and myosin sliding past each other and partially overlapping - the z discs sliding over the myofilaments
actin and myosin sliding past each other and partially overlapping
During muscle contraction, myosin cross bridges attach to which active sites? - z discs - thick filaments - actin filaments - myosin filaments
actin filaments
Which of the following mechanisms is most significant in returning the ion concentrations to the resting state (from point D to point E)? - the closing of leakage channels in the axon membrane - the opening of voltage gated na+ channels - active transport by the na+-k+ pump - the opening of voltage-gated K+ channels
active transport by the na+-k+ pump
Which of the following muscles is named for its action? - biceps brachii - gluteus minimus - frontalis - adductor longus
adductor longus
Which of the following is the major component of the part of the bone labeled E? - adipose tissue - blood - osseous tissue - dense connective tissue
adipose tissue
Which target organ is NOT affected by the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system (ANS)? - lungs - heart - liver - adrenal medulla
adrenal medulla
Nerves that carry impulses toward the CNS only are ________. - afferent nerves - mixed nerves - motor nerves - efferent nerves
afferent nerves
In the classification of joints, which of the following is true? - immovable joints are called amphiarthroses - synarthrotic joints are slightly movable - in cartilaginous joints, a joint cavity is present - all synovial joints are freely movable
all synovial joints are freely movable
In connective tissue, the role of elastic fibers is to _____. - provide high tensile strength - retain fluid - allow the tissue to stretch and recoil - form delicate networks around blood vessels
allow the tissue to stretch and recoil
Articulations permitting only slight degrees of movement are ________. - amphiarthroses - synovial joints - synarthroses - diarthroses
amphiarthroses
Which of the following refers to a joint that is slightly movable? - amphiarthrosis - synarthrosis - synovial - diarthrosis
amphiarthrosis
Name the structure located in the enlarged swellings in the tubes at A? - macula - basilar membrane - ampulla - spiral organ
ampulla
The blind spot of the eye is caused by ______. - an absence of photoreceptors where the optic nerve leaves the eye - the macula lutea interrupts the nerve pathway - an absence of cones in the foveae - more rods than cones within the retina
an absence of photoreceptors where the optic nerve leaves the eye
What is a muscle that provides the major force for producing a specific movement called? - a fixator - an antagonist - an agonist (prime mover) - a synergist
an agonist (prime mover)
Which of the following describes a bipennate pattern of fascicles - an arrangement of five fascicles on each side of the tendon - an arrangement that looks like many feathers side by side - an arrangement in which the fascicles insert into only one side of a tendon - an arrangement in which the fascicles insert into the tendon from opposite sides
an arrangement in which the fascicles insert into the tendon from opposite sides
What would be the physical sign that a bone cannot continue longitudinal growth? - the presence of osteoblasts - the presence of hyaline cartilage on the ends of the bone - an epiphyseal line - the presence of osteons
an epiphyseal line
A muscle that opposes, or reverses, a particular movement is a(n) ________. - fixator - synergist - antagonist - agonist (prime mover)
antagonist
which functional group has the major responsibility for countering a specific movement? - antagonists - agonists - fixators - synergists
antagonists
Transduction of lower frequency sound waves occurs at the __________ of the cochlea. - apex - middle - proximal end - base
apex
During bone growth, which significant event occurs at the surface indicated by the letter C? - bone resorption - appositional growth - expansion of the articular cartilage - conversion of spongy bone to compact bone
appositional growth
The process of bones increasing in thickness is known as ________. - epiphyseal plate closure - appositional growth - closing of the epiphyseal plate - concentric growth
appositional growth
The subarachnoid space lies between what two layers of meninges? - arachnoid and pia - arachnoid and dura - arachnoid and epidura - dura and epidura
arachnoid and pia
Which protective covering of the brain provides passageways for cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) to drain into the superior sagittal sinus? - arachnoid matter - pia mater - membraneous part of the dura mater - periosteal part of the dura mater
arachnoid mater
Synarthrotic joints ____. - have large joint cavities - are immovable joints - characterize all cartilaginous joints - are found only in adults
are immovable joints
Layer B is composed primarily of ______. - simple squamous epithelium - dense irregular connective tissue - areolar connective tissue - dense regular connective tissue
areolar connective tissue
Structures C and D collectively form which of the following? - synovial membrane - ligament - articular capsule - bursae
articular capsule
Identify the type of tract that communicates between the left prefrontal love and the left parietal lobe - association - projection - commissural
association
The concentration of ions in the chemical environment surrounding the neurons must be tightly regulated for neurons to function properly. Which of the following cells is most responsible for this? - schwann cells - oligodendrocytes - astrocytes - satellite cells
astrocytes
Which of the following would be a sign of a melanoma? - uniform coloration - asymmetry - a size smaller than 6 mm - regular borders
asymmetry
Which of the following is the best explanation of why it is difficult to discriminate the color of an object at night? - as many as 100 cones may converge on one ganglion cell - at night, the amount of light entering the eye is insufficient to stimulate the cone cells but is sufficient to stimulate the rod cells - the foveae are densely packed with cones - cones come in three types, each sensitive to different wavelengths of light.
at night, the amount of light entering the eye is insufficient to stimulate the cone cells but is sufficient to stimulate the rod cells
Which vertebra does not have a body? - axis - atlas - last cervical - last lumbar
atlas
Which of the following is the regional term that includes the head? - superior - axial - appendicular - coronal
axial
A middle ear infection (otitis media) would be located in which region? - a - b - c
b
At which point of the illustrated action potential would voltage-gated Na+ channels be mostly open but voltage-gated K+ channels be mostly closed? - a - b - c - d
b
In which of the labeled parts of the adult long bone would hematopoietic tissue be located? - a - b - c - d - e
b
In which phase of the muscle twitch shown in the figure would be the maximum amount of ATP be consumed by myosin head groups? - a - b -c
b
Which of the structures is surrounded by the connective tissue sheath known as the perimysium? - a - b - c - d
b
Which structure in the figure is the primary area of degeneration in osteoarthritis? - a - b - c - d
b
identify the choroid. - a - b - c - d
b
which of the following corresponds to a single fascicle? - a - b - c - d
b
What pathway(s) compose the autonomic nervous system? - a only - b only - c only - b and c
b and c
Assume the the triangular and circular molecules shown in the illustration represent specific neurotransmitters. which of the following best describes the effect on the heart of neurotransmitters released from the postganglionic neurons of B and C? - b and c would act in synergy to decrease heart rate and contraction force - b would increase heart rate, while c would decrease it - b and c would act in synergy to increase heart rate and contraction force - c would increase heart rate, while b would decrease it
b would increase heart rate, while c would decrease it
Identify the correct sequence of the following events. A. myosin generates a power stroke. B. Ca++ binds to troponin. C. ATP recharges the myosin head. D. Troponin removes tropomyosin from G actin. E. the sarcomere shortens. F. myosin binds to actin. - a,b,c,d,e,f - d,b,f,c,a,e - b,d,f,a,e,c - b,f,a,c,e,d - f,a,c,e,d,b - e,c,a,b,d,f
b,d,f,a,e,c
Your patient is upset to learn that the biopsy of a lesion on her skin is consistent with basal cell carcinoma. She has heard that skin cancer can be deadly. Which response to her distress is the most appropriate? - You are right to be concerned, but I'm sure your doctor will order scans to determine if the cancer has spread - basal cell carcinoma rarely spreads to other tissues. removal of the lesion is curative in 99% of cases. - basal cell cancers are aggressive, but immunotherapy is promising for many patients - removal of the lesion will almost certainly rid you of the cancer, and then you ca continue your life as usual.
basal cell carcinoma rarely spreads to other tissues. removal of the lesion is curative in 99% of cases
A splinter penetrated into the skin of the sole of the foot, almost to the papillary region of the dermis. Which layer of the epidermis would be the final layer injured? - basale - granulosum - spinosum - lucidum
basale
Which statement accurately describes the event indicated by B? - binding of acetylcholine to a receptor triggers the opening of an ion channel - diffusion of Ca2+ into the muscle fiber triggers the diffusion of acetylcholine out of the muscle fiber - diffusion of acetylcholine into the muscle fiber triggers the opening of an ion channel - the binding of acetylcholine directly causes the formation of a wave depolarization
binding of acetylcholine to a receptor triggers the opening of an ion channel
Which is the most atypical connective tissue since it neither connects structures nor provides structural support? - cartilage - blood - osseous - areolar connective tissue
blood
Which of the following is not found in cartilage but is found in bone? - living cells - blood vessels - lacunae - organic fibers
blood vessels
The central (Haversian) canal that runs through the core of each osteon is the site of ______. - cartilage and interstitial lamellae - adipose tissue and nerve fibers - yellow marrow and spicules - blood vessels and nerve fibers
blood vessels and nerve fibers
What tissue has lacunae, calcium salts, and blood vessels? - bone (osseous tissue) - fibrocartilaginous tissue - cartilage tissue - areolar tissue
bone (osseous tissue)
Which structure is seen at the arrow? - bone collar - periosteal bud - epiphyseal plate - periosteum
bone collar
Which of the following is a feature of synovial joints? - bone ends covered with hyaline cartilage - bone ends covered with fibrocartilage - the bones are connected exclusively by ligaments - a bar or plate of hyaline cartilage unites the bones
bone ends covered with hyaline cartilage
Which of the following bones are part of the axial skeleton? - bones of the lower limbs - bones of the pectoral girdles - bones of the pelvic girdle - bones of the face
bones of the face
Which of the following would not be a correct characteristic of melanoma? - asymmetry - border regularity - diameter of 12 mm - color that is dark black or brown
border regularity
Which areas of this neuron would be classified as receptive regions? - d only - e only - both a and b - both a and e
both a and b
Which of the following statements is true of both membrane potential responses shown in the graphs? - both responses are examples of action potentials - both responses are examples of graded potentials - both responses are examples of excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs) - both responses are examples of inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs)
both responses are examples of graded potentials
The dorsal cavity is the site of which of the following? - brain - lungs - intestines - liver
brain
The term central nervous system refers to the ______. - spinal nerves - brain and spinal cord - sensory (afferent) nerves - somatic nerves
brain and spinal cord
The primary function of the deep muscles of the thorax, such as the intercostals, is to promote _______. - swallowing - back posture - vomiting - breathing
breathing
Connective tissue sacs lined with synovial membrane that act as cushions in places where friction develops are called _______. - menisci - tendons - ligaments - bursae
bursae
Which of the following is one difference between bursae and tendon sheaths? - bursae are only found in synovial joints, while tendon sheaths are only found in fibrous joints - bursae contain a thin film of synovial fluid, while tendon sheaths lack synovial fluid altogether - bursae serve as cushioning fat pads between adjacent structures, while tendon sheaths reduce friction between adjacent structures - bursae are flattened fibrous sacs wedged between adjacent structures, while tendon sheaths are elongated fibrous sacs that wrap around tendons
bursae are flattened fibrous sacs wedged between adjacent structures, while tendon sheaths are elongated fibrous sacs that wrap around tendons
In the epiphyseal plate, cartilage grows _____. - in a circular fashion - by pulling the diaphysis toward the epiphysis - by pushing the epiphysis away from the diaphysis - from the edges inward
by pushing the epiphysis away from the diaphysis
Identify the layer that contains both a single-celled pigmented layer and a neural layer. - a - b - c - d
c
Identify the type of neuronal cell that detects bright light and provides high-resolution color vision. - a - b - c - d
c
In which phase in the figure would the net movement of Ca2+ into the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) be greatest? - a - b - c
c
Pregnant women may experience an exaggerated lordosis, or 'swayback.' which curvature is affected during pregnancy? - a - b - c -d
c
Which layer is composed primarily of dense irregular connective tissue? - a - b - c - d
c
Which letter indicates structures involved in detection of BOTH hearing and equilibrium? - a - b - c - d
c
Which protein functions as a motor protein in all three types of muscle tissue? - a - b - c - d
c
Which structure in the figure corresponds to a single skeletal muscle cell? - a - b - c - d
c
Which structure is a type of sweat gland? - a - b - c - d
c
Which of the following membrane regions would have significant numbers of voltage-gated ion channels? - a only - d only - a and b - c and d
c and d
The ventral cavity includes which of the indicated subdivisions in the figure? - a and b - c and d - d and e - c, d, and e
c, d, and e
What ion is entering the axon terminal at A, and what effect does it have? - na+, which then causes repolarization of the axon terminal's membrane - k+, which then causes increased production of neurotransmitter - neurotransmitter, which then causes the presynaptic neuron to form an action potential - ca2+, which then causes release of neurotransmitter from the axon terminal
ca2+, which then causes release of neurotransmitter from the axon terminal
Activates synaptic vesicles in axon terminals to fuse with plasma membrane of axon terminal.
calcium ions
The final chemical messenger and "trigger" for muscle contraction. it binds to troponin.
calcium ions
Which tissues have little to no functional regenerative capacity? - nervous tissue and bone - cardiac muscle and nervous tissue - cardiac and smooth muscle - epithelial tissue and areolar connective tissue
cardiac muscle and nervous tissue
Delivers oxygen and nutrients to the tissues
cardiovascular system
Saddle joints have concave and convex surfaces. Identify the saddle joint of the skeleton. - carpometacarpal joint of the thumb - metacarpophalangeal joint of the finger - interphalangeal joint of the finger - carpometacarpal joint of the phalanges
carpometacarpal joint of the thumb
What tissue forms the model for endochondrial ossification? - fascia - fibrous membrane - cartilage - bone
cartilage
A joint held together by fibrocartilage would be classified as a __________ joint. - cartilaginous - fibrous - amphiarthrosis - synovial
cartilaginous
Synchondroses and symphyses are examples of ______ joints. - fibrous - synovial - cartilaginous - periodontal
cartilaginous
Which of the following is not a functional classification for joints? - diarthrosis - synarthrosis - amphiarthrosis - cartilaginous
cartilaginous
Which of these terms best categorizes the joints in the figure? - synovial joints - fibrous joints - cartilaginous joints
cartilaginous joints
Which of the following statements defines synchondroses? - cartilaginous joints where hyaline cartilage unites the ends of bones - joints that permit angular movements - interphalangeal joints - amphiarthrotic joints designed for strength and flexibility
cartilaginous joints where hyaline cartilage unites the ends of bones
The blood vessels and nerve in the figure are found within which type of space? - perforating (volkmann's) canal - canaliculi - central (haversian) canal - marrow cavity
central (haversian) canal
What groove separates the frontal lobe from the parietal lobe? - lateral fissure - longitudinal fissure - parieto-occipital sulcus - central sulcus
central sulcus
What is the groove indicated by C? - transverse fissure - lateral sulcus - central sulcus - longitudinal sulcus
central sulcus
Which part of the brain processes inputs received from the cerebral motor cortex, brain stem nuclei, and various sensory receptors, and then uses this information to coordinate balance, posture, and somatic movement problems? - thalamus - pons - cerebellum - diencephalon
cerebellum
The arbor vitae refers to ________. A) cerebellar gray matter B) cerebellar white matter C) the pleatlike convolutions of the cerebellum D) flocculonodular nodes
cerebral white matter
The phrenic nerve is a branch from the ______. - vagus nerve - brachial plexus - cervical plexus - thoracic spinal cord
cervical plexus
In an isotonic contraction, the muscle ______. - changes in length and moves the "load" - never converts pyruvate to lactate - does not change in length but increases tension - rapidly resynthesizes creatine phosphate and ATP
changes in length and moves the "load"
How would the receptors at C best be classified? - mechanically gated - voltage gated - chemically gated
chemically gated
What event at letter B leads to elongation of the bone? - conversion of bone into cartilage - chondrocyte hypertrophy and deterioration - calcification of the cartilage matrix - formation of compact bone
chondrocyte hypertrophy and deterioration
What CNS-associated structure is illustrated in this figure? - arachnoid villus - hypothalamus - cerebral aqueduct - choroid plexus
choroid plexus
Receptors for hearing are located in the ________. - semicircular canals - cochlea - vestibule - tympanic membrane
cochlea
The fiber type that gives connective tissue great tensile strength is ________. - elastic - reticular - muscle - collagen
collagen
The reason that intervertebral discs exhibit a large amount of tensile strength, which allows them to absorb shock, is because the possess ______. - hydroxyapatite crystals - elastic fibers - collagen fibers - reticular fibers
collagen fibers
which of the following statements is true of connective tissue? - elastin fibers are sometimes called white fibers. - reticular fibers from thick ropelike structures - when connective tissue is stretched, collagen gives it the ability to snap back - collagen fibers provides high tensile strength
collagen fibers provides high tensile strength
Humans can see several thousand shades of color but have cone photoreceptors that are sensitive to only three (perhaps four) wavelengths of light. What is the best explanation for why we see so many colors? - shades of color are purely psychological and learned by association with age, infants only seeing in black and white - color perception is achieved by activation of various combinations between the three cone types - colors are added and enhanced in the primary visual cortex of the brain - color perception is dependent on the millions of rods as well as cone photoreceptors
color perception is achieved by activation of various combinations between the three cone types
The sciatic nerve is a combination of which two nerves? - pudendal and common fibular - posterior femoral cutaneous and tibial - common fibular and tibial - pudendal and posterior femoral cutaneous
common fibular and tibial
Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system? - communication - support - production of blood cells (hematopoiesis) - storage of minerals
communication
Which of the following are correctly matched? - compound fracture; the fractured bone ends penetrate the skin - nondisplaced fracture; the fractured bone ends are misaligned - incomplete fracture; the bone is broken through - linear fracture; the break is perpendicular to the bone's long axis
compound fracture; the fractured bone ends penetrate the skin
Which of the following is the best explanation for our perception of color? - the foveae are densely packed with cones - cones come in three types, each sensitive to different wavelengths of light - rods contain a single kind of visual pigment - as many as 100 cones may converge on one ganglion cell
cones come in three types, each sensitive to different wavelengths of light
You observe a uniform tissue under a microscope. There is no lumen. The material looks densely packed, but you do not observe many nuclei. It appears that there are strands of fibers running in parallel directions. What type of tissue are you looking at? - connective tissue - muscle tissue - nervous tissue - epithelial tissue
connective tissue
Connective tissues are made of different combinations of ground substance and fibers. As you compare slides of connective tissues, which would most likely be the strongest (toughest) type of connective tissue based on the composition of ground substance and fibers? - connective tissue high in elastic fibers - connective tissue high in reticular fibers - connective tissues high in collagen fibers - connective tissue high in ground substance
connective tissues high in collagen fibers
During close vision, what actions must the eye take to bring an object into focus? - relax the ciliary body - contract the ciliary body - change the curvature of the cornea - dilate the pupil
contract the ciliary body
The ability of muscle to shorten forcibly when adequately stimulated is known as ______, and sets muscle apart from other tissue types. - excitability - extensibility - elasticity - contractility
contractility
Which of the following are correctly matched? - parallel arrangement of fascicles; characteristic of sphincter muscles - circular arrangement of fascicles; describes the deltoid muscle - convergent arrangement of fascicles; fan-shaped muscle - pennate arrangement of fascicles; spindle-shaped muscle
convergent arrangement of fascicles; fan-shaped muscle
As light travels through the eye, it passes through several structures or chambers before reaching the retina. Which list below gives those structures in the correct order? - cornea, pupil, anterior chamber, lens, posterior segment - cornea, pupil, lens, anterior changer, posterior segment - cornea, anterior chamber, pupil, lens, posterior segment - cornea, lens, pupil, anterior chamber, posterior segment
cornea, anterior chamber, pupil, lens, posterior segment
A need would pierce the epidermal layers of the forearm in which order? - granulosum, basale, spinosum, corneum - basale, spinosum, granulosum, corneum - corneum, granulosum, spinosum, basale - basale, spinosum, granulosum, lucidum, corneum
corneum, granulosum, spinosum, basale
The fibers indicated by B are most associated with which structure(s)? - lateral ventricles - pyramidal tracts - association fibers - corpus callosum
corpus callosum
The large commissure that connects the right and left sides of the brain is called the ________. - longitudinal fissure - corona radiata - internal capsule - corpus callosum
corpus callosum
Thoracic vertebrae differ from the other vertebrae in that they have _____. - costal facets - no transverse processes - no intervertebral discs - transverse foramina
costal facets
Which pair below is incorrect? - cranial nerve IIII: pupillary constriction - cranial nerve IV: sensory - cranial nerve VI: eye movement - cranial nerve III: oculomotor nerve - optic nerve: sensory
cranial nerve IV: sensory
During concussion (a type of traumatic brain injury) the brain will move within the cranial cavity. Damage is caused to the brain as it crashes into parts of the bony cavity walls. Ironically one of the bone markings that can cause serious damage to the brain is the ________. This is ironic because one of the functions of this bone marking is to ________. - perpendicular plate; separate the left and right halves of the nasal cavity - crista galli; attach to the dura matter holding the brain in place - styloid process; attach to and support the hyoid bone - pterygoid processes; anchor important chewing muscles
crista galli; attach to the dura matter holding the brain in place
Nerve fibers from the medial aspect of each eye ________. - go to the superior colliculus only - pass posteriorly without crossing over at the chiasma - cross over to the opposite side at the chiasma - divide at the chiasma, with some crossing and some not crossing
cross over to the opposite side at the chiasma
which of the following names the three main parts of a human cell? - cytoplasm, plasma membrane, and nucleus - plasma membrane, mitochondria, and nucleus - cytosol, nucleus, and membrane - mitochondria, lysosome, and centriole
cytoplasm, plasma membrane, and nucleus
Cell division would be most common among cells in which of the labeled layers? - a - b - c - d
d
What part of the inner ear houses the receptor organ of hearing, the spiral organ (organ of Corti)? - a - b - c - d
d
Which of the cell types shown is most associated with the production and flow of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)? - a - b - c - d
d
Which of the following is the only bone that normally moves in relation to the others? - a - b - c - d
d
Which of the labeled parts of the bone is composed primarily of compact bone? - a - b - c - d - e
d
Which step in the figure contains compact bone? - a - b - c - d
d
Tom is a 45-year-old male that has lost his ability to hear high frequency sounds. The most likely explanation for this would be ________. - a perforated tympanic membrane - a middle ear infection - an overgrowth of bony tissue, fusing the ossicles together - damage to the hair cells near the oval window in the cochlear duct
damage to the hair cells near the oval window in the cochlear duct
Which of the following is a factor that determines the rate of impulse propagations, or conduction velocity, along an axon? - degree of myelination of the axon - the number of axon collaterals extending from a truncated axon - whether the axon is located in the central nervous system or in the peripheral nervous system - length of the axon
degree of myelination of the axon
which of the following statements is true? - dense connective tissue is dominated by collagen fibers - loose connective tissue includes cartilage - dense irregular connective tissue has a high proportion of elastic fibers - closely packed bundles of collagen fibers are characteristic of loose connective tissues
dense connective tissue is dominated by collagen fibers
Which of the following events would be directly affected if a neuron had a mutation that prevented the production of voltage-gated na+ channels? - depolarization leading to action potentials - graded hyperpolarization - graded depolarization - generating the resting membrane potential
depolarization leading to action potentials
Layers B and C collectively form the __________. - hypodermis - dermis - epidermis - subcutaneous layer
dermis
What is the function of the structure B? - storage of fat - detection of pressure stimulus - production of defensive chemicals - secretion of sweat
detection of pressure stimulus
A fracture in the shaft of a bone would be a break in the ________. - epiphysis - metaphysis - diaphysis - articular cartilage
diaphysis
Lifting up a glass to take a drink involves the elbow joint. Which of the following correctly characterizes that joint? - diarthrotic - cartilaginous - pivot - biaxial
diarthrotic
Which of the following terms describes the range of movement of the illustrated joint? - synovial - diarthrotic - synarthrotic - amphiarthrotic
diarthrotic
what is the force driving all of these transport mechanisms? - diffusion down a concentration gradient - diffusion against a concentration gradient - endocytosis - active transport
diffusion down a concentration gradient
What even directly triggers the release of neurotransmitter shown in A? - diffusion of Na+ out of the axon terminal - diffusion of K+ into the axon terminal - diffusion of Na+ into the axon terminal - diffusion of Ca2+ into the axon terminal
diffusion of Ca2+ into the axon terminal
Which of the following is not a result of parasympathetic stimulation? - salivation - elimination of urine - dilation of the pupils - increased peristalsis of the digestive viscera
dilation of the pupils
The fingers are _____ to the wrist
distal
The body cavities that protect the nervous system are located in the ______ cavity. - vertebral - dorsal - thoracic - cranial - ventral
dorsal
The sliding filament model of contraction states that _______. - during contraction, the thin myofilaments slide past t tubules so that the z discs are overlapping - during contraction, the thin myofilaments slide past the thick myofilaments so that the actin and myosin myofilaments overlap to a greater degree - during contraction, the thin myofilaments slide past the thick myofilaments so that calcium ions can be released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum - during contraction, the thin myofilaments slide past the thick myofilaments so that the actin and myosin myofilaments no longer overlap
during contraction, the thin myofilaments slide past the thick myofilaments so that the actin and myosin myofilaments overlap to a greater degree
Which of the following statements is true? - during endochondral ossification, hyaline cartilage is broken down and replaced with bone. - endochondral ossification leads to the formation of the clavicles and cranial bones - endochondral ossification occurs within fibrous connective tissue membranes - most bones in the body are formed by intramembranous ossification
during endochondral ossification, hyaline cartilage is broken down and replaced with bone.
which of the following statements is true? - endocytosis and exocytosis are passive transport mechanisms - unlike endocytosis, exocytosis does not rely on protein interactions with the plasma membranes - during exocytosis, substances from inside the cell are moved outside - exocytosis involves infolding of the plasma membrane
during exocytosis, substances from inside the cell are moved outside
A muscle that is lengthening while it produces tension is performing a(n) ________ contraction. - eccentric - isometric - maximal - concentric
eccentric
Sudoriferous (sweat) glands are categorized as two distinct types. Which of the following are the two types of sweat glands? - eccrine and apocrine - holocrine and mammary - sebaceous and merocrine - mammary and ceruminous
eccrine and apocrine
You are asked to classify an exocrine gland found in the skin based solely on the chemical analysis of its product, which turns out to be a hypotonic fluid consisting of about 99% water with a pH of 5. It contains NaCl, traces of urea and ammonia, and a peptide dermcidin, but lacks fats and proteins. How would you classify this gland? - sebaceous gland - mammary - eccrine gland - ceruminous gland
eccrine gland
which of the following is incorrectly matched? - nucleotide; nucleic acid - eicosanoid; triglycerid - amino acid; protein - monosaccharide; carbohydrate
eicosanoid; trigylceride
The shape of the external ear is maintained by _____. - elastic cartilage - hyaline cartilage - adipose tissue - fibrocartilage
elastic cartilage
Which of the following is not associated with the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system? - emergency action - resting - digesting - energy conservation
emergency action
Which bone-forming process is shown in the figure? - endochondral ossification - bone remodeling - bone fracture repair - intramembranous ossification
endochondral ossification
Glands, such as the thyroid, that secrete their products directly into the blood rather than through ducts are classified as ________. - endocrine - exocrine - ceruminous - sebaceous
endocrine
How do endocrine and exocrine glands differ? - endocrine glands do not use ducts - exocrine glands can be multicellular - exocrine glands use exocytosis to release their products - exocrine glands secrete hormones
endocrine glands do not use ducts
Which of the following surrounds an individual muscle cell? - epimysium - perimysium - fascicle - endomysium
endomysium
Which connective tissue layer directly surrounds each axon in a nerve? - perineurium - endoneurium - endomysium - epineurium
endoneurium
What cell organelle plays a role in the process of regulating intracellular calcium ions for muscle contraction? - ribosome - mitochondrion - lysosomes - endoplasmic reticulum
endoplasmic reticulum
What is the functional role of the t tubules - enhance cellular communication during muscle contraction - stabilize the g and f actin - hold cross bridges in place in a resting muscle - synthesize atp to provide energy for muscle contraction
enhance cellular communication during muscle contraction
These cells in the CNS have cilia that move in order to circulate cerebrospinal fluid ________. - oligodendrocytes - ependymal cells - schwann cells - astrocytes
ependymal cells
What type of cells line the ventricles of the brain? - epithelial cells - neurons - astrocytes - ependymal cells
ependymal cells
Which type of glial cells are shown in this figure? - microglia - oligodendrocytes - astrocytes - ependymal cells
ependymal cells
Which layer of tissue is damaged in a first-degree burn? - dermis - hypothermis - epidermis - both the epidermis and dermis
epidermis
Which structure allows the diaphysis of the bone to increase in length until early childhood? - osteon - epiphyseal plate - epiphyseal line - lacuna
epiphyseal plate
Which tissue type consists of a sheet of cells that covers a body surface or lines a body cavity? - nervous tissue - epithelial tissue - connective tissue - muscle tissue
epithelial tissue
Which of the following is a property of epithelial tissue? - epithelial tissue is typically unable to regenerate - epithelial tissue does not exhibit polarity - epithelial tissue is innervated - epithelial tissue contains blood vessels
epithelial tissue is innervated
What tissue type has polarity and is avascular? - connective tissue - epithelium - muscle - nervous tissue
epithelium
which of the following is implicated in osteoporosis in older women? - poor posture - abnormal PTH receptors - heritage such as African or Mediterranean - estrogen deficiency due to menopause
estrogen deficiency due to menopause
Which of the following properties is most directly associated with changes to a muscle cell's membrane potential potential (the voltage across the plasma membrane)? - elasticity - contractility - excitability - extensibility
excitability
Which membrane potential occurs because of the influx of Na+ through chemically gated channels in the receptive region of a neuron? - inhibitory postsynaptic potential - excitatory postsynaptic potential - action potential - resting potential
excitatory postsynaptic potential
By which method does the structure at B release neurotransmitter? -facilitated diffusion - passive diffusion - active transport - exocytosis
exocytosis
What cellular even is indicated by A? - active transport - exocytosis - endocytosis - facilitated diffusion
exocytosis
What process is indicated by C? - exocytosis of RNA from the cell - digestion of food particles - exocytosis of secretory proteins - exocytosis of ribosomes from the cell
exocytosis of secretory proteins
A coronal section divides an organ into superior and inferior portions. T/F?
false
A motor neuron and all the muscle cells that it stimulates are referred to as a motor end plate. T/F?
false
All visceral organs receive dural innervation from both the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS. T/F
false
Projection fibers in the brain mainly connect the right and left hemispheres. T/F?
false
The elbow is proximal to the shoulder. T/F?
false
channel-mediated diffusion is a form of active transport. T/F?
false
Exhaustion of glycogen storage within a muscle fiber would have the biggest effect on ________. - both slow and fast oxidative fibers - slow oxidative fibers -fast glycolytic fibers - fast oxidative fibers
fast glycolytic fibers
The terms inversion and eversion pertain only to the ________. - hands - feet - arms - hands and the feet
feet
a major nerve of the lumbar plexus is the _____. - femoral - iliophypogastric - sciatic - iloinguinal
femoral
The pelvic girdle does not include the ______. - femur - ischium - ilium - pubis
femur
What material is found in C and D that is not found in A and B? - elastic cartilage - dense irregular connective tissue - fibrocartilage - hyaline cartilage
fibrocartilage
Which layer of the eye is indicated by the letter A? - fibrous - neural - vascular
fibrous
After a heart attack, fibrosis occurs at the site of cardiac muscle cell death. This reduces the efficiency of the heart's pumping activity because __________. - the undamaged cardiac muscle cells become fatigued from the energy expended during the healing process - fibrous connective tissue is incapable of contracting - fibrosis produces new cardiac muscle cells that are not as strong as the mature ones that died - the initial death of some cardiac muscle cells triggers a chain reaction in which progressively more and more neighboring healthy cells die.
fibrous connective tissue is incapable of contracting
Based upon structural classification, what type of joint is a suture? - amphiarthrotic joint - fibrous joint - synarthrotic joint - cartilaginous joint
fibrous joint
All three joints in the figure are classified as __________. - cartilaginous joints - fibrous joints - synovial joints
fibrous joints
Which of these is the function of the external oblique muscles? - pull ribs toward one another to elevate rib cage - elevate and adduct scapula in synergy with superior fibers of trapezius - flex vertebral column and compress abdominal wall - extend vertebral column and head and rotates them to opposite sides
flex the vertebral column and compress the abdominal wall
Damage to the ulnar nerve could result in the inability to ______. - flex the wrist - extend the forearm - all of the listed responses are correct - supinate or pronate the forearm
flex the wrist
What is the most specific term you could apply to the rib at D? - true rib - floating rib - false rib
floating rib
Which of the following is a bone marking described as a round or oval opening through a bone? - epicondyle - fossa - foramen - ramus - meatus
foramen
What is the first stage in the healing of a bone fracture? - bone remodeling - formation of a hematoma - formation of a fibrocartilaginous callus - formation of a bony callus
formation of a hematoma
which of the following is an example of a positive feedback? - withdrawing your hand from a painful stimulus, like a broken glass - forming a platelet plug during blood clotting - reducing of blood sugar by the hormone insulin - shivering to warm your body up in cold weather
forming a platelet plug during blood clotting
What is a vertical section through the body, dividing it into anterior and posterior regions called? - transverse - sagittal - median - frontal
frontal
Which bone forms the anterior cranium? - sphenoid bone - frontal bone - temporal bone - palatine bone
frontal bone
Collections of nerve cell bodies outside the central nervous system are called ________. - nuclei - nerves - ganglia - tracts
ganglia
The cells of the retina in which action potentials are generated are the ________. - bipolar cells - rods and cones - ganglion cells - amacrine cells
ganglion cells
There are three layers of neurons in the retina. The axons of which of these neuron layers form the optic nerves? - ganglion cells - rod cells - bipolar cells - cone cells
ganglion cells
Which of the following allows for communication and the passage of small molecules between adjacent cells? - glycocalyx - tight junctions - desmosome - gap junction
gap junction
Curvatures of the spine serve the body by ________. - giving additional springiness and flexibility to the spine which absorbs shock - limiting the flexibility of the spine and preventing hyperextension - providing space for soft organs in the various body cavities - applying greater pressure to the intervertebral disks preventing them from slipping
giving additional springiness and flexibility to the spine which absorbs shock
Which type of movement does not occur at the shoulder joint? - extension - gliding - abduction - rotation
gliding
Which of the following is a true statement regarding gliding movements? - gliding movements occur at the intercarpal and intertarsal joints - gliding movements allow flexibility of the upper limbs - gliding movements are multiaxial - an example of a gliding movement is nodding one's head
gliding movements occur at the intercarpal and intertarsal joints
Which of the following muscles is named for its size? - trapezius - deltoid - gluteus maximus - sternocleidomastoid
gluteus maximus
Starch is the stored carbohydrate in plants, while ________ is the stored carbohydrate in animals. - glucose - cellulose - triglyceride - glycogen
glycogen
An anaerobic metabolic pathway that results in the production of two net ATPs per glucose plus two pyruvic acid molecules is ________. - hydrolysis - the electron transport chain - the citric acid cycle - glycolysis
glycolysis
Which organelle is responsible for processing and packaging proteins destined for export from the cell? - golgi apparatus - endoplasmic reticulum - lysosomes - peroxisomes
golgi apparatus
Which of the following is a layer of the epidermis found in thin skin? - papillary layer - granular layer - clear layer - reticular layer
granular layer
The study of large body structures, visible to the naked eye, such as the heart is called ________ anatomy. - systemic - developmental - gross - microscopic
gross
What are the three main components of connective tissue? - collagen, elastin, and reticular fibers - alveoli, fibrous capsule, and secretory cells - ground substance, fibers, and cells - fibroblasts, chondroblasts, and osteoblasts
ground substance, fibers, and secretory cells
During infancy and childhood, the most important stimulus of epiphyseal plate activity is ________. - growth hormone - thyroid hormones - testosterone - estrogen
growth hormone
Growth of bones is controlled by a symphony of hormones. Which hormone is important for bone growth during infancy and childhood? - thyroid hormones - growth hormone - parathyroid hormone - calcitonin
growth hormone
Which of the following is the single most important stimulus for epiphyseal plate activity during infancy and childhood? - thyroid hormone - parathyroid hormone - calcium - growth hormone
growth hormone
Ridges of tissue on the surface of the cerebral hemispheres are called ________. - fissures - ganglia - gyri - sulci
gyri
An elevated ridge of the cortex is called a _____. - fissure - furrow - gyrus - sulcus
gyrus
The correct order (from start to finish) of fracture repair is ________. - hematoma formation, hard callus formation, bone remodeling, and fibrocartilaginous callus formation - bony callus formation, hematome formation, fibrocartilaginous callus formation, and bone remodeling - hematoma formation, soft callus formation, bony callus formation, and bone remodeling - bone remodeling, hematoma formation, soft callus formation, and hard callus formation
hematoma formation, soft callus formation, bony callus formation, and bone remodeling
Presence of a synovial cavity, articular cartilage, synovial membrane, and ligaments are characteristics of what type of joint? - suture - symphysis - synchondrosis - hinge joint
hinge joint
Choose which tissue type likely functions to add support to an organ. - stratified squamous epithelium - cardiac muscle - hyaline cartilage - transitional
hyaline cartilage
The area where blood vessels are penetrating the center of the bone used to be occupied by which tissue? - fibrocartilage - hyaline cartilage - dense connective tissue - adipose tissue
hyaline cartilage
What kind of tissue is the forerunner of long bones in the embryo? - elastic connective tissue - hyaline cartilage - fibrocartilage - dense fibrous connective tissue
hyaline cartilage
What material makes up most of the structure at A? - fibrocartilage - hyaline cartilage - elastic cartilage - dense irregular connective tissue
hyaline cartilage
The _____ is the only bone in the body that does not directly articular with any other bone. - vomer - hyoid bone - temporal bone - clavicle
hyoid bone
The ability to clearly see objects at a distance but not close up is properly called ________. - myopia - hypopia - presbyopia - hyperopia
hyperopia
An inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) is associated with ________. - hyperpolarization - lowering the threshold for an action potential to occur - opening of voltage-regulated channels - a change in sodium ion permeability
hyperpolarization
some K+ channels remain open and Na+ channels reset
hyperpolarization
when a neurotransmitter like GABA is acting in an inhibitory manner which of the following is likely a result of the GABA acting on the postsynaptic cell? - opening of chemically gated sodium channels - depolarization of the postsynaptic cell membrane - hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic cell membrane - influx of positively charged ions into the postsynaptic cell
hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic cell membrane
Control of temperature, endocrine activity, and thirst are functions associated with the ________. - medulla - cerebellum - hypothalamus - thalamus
hypothalamus
Emotions influence autonomic reactions primarily through integration in the ________. - hypothalamus - inferior colliculus - lateral horn of the spinal cord - lateral geniculate of the thalamus
hypothalamus
Which of the following is responsible for the overall integration of the autonomic nervous system (ANS)? - reticular formation - hypothalamus - brain stem - frontal lobe of the cerebral cortex
hypothalamus
Where is the illustrated structure located? - within the superior sagittal sinus - within the subarachnoid space - in each ventricle - in the central canal
in each ventricle
Which of the following statements is not true regarding ATP production in muscles during periods of prolonged energy use, such as exercise? - prolonged activity requires the use of aerobic pathways for ATP regeneration - in the absence of oxygen, anaerobic pathways provide minimal ATP regeneration for less than a minute - as your blood sugar drops at any time during prolonged activity, glycogen stores in your muscles can be broken down to supply a glucose source - in the absence of oxygen, creatine phosphate can drive aerobic respiration pathways for a few minutes
in the absence of oxygen, creatine phosphate can drive aerobic respiration pathways for a few minutes
Apocrine glands, which begin to function at puberty under hormonal influence, seem to play little role in thermoregulation. Where would we find these glands in the human body? - in the axillary and anogenital area - beneath the flexure lines in the body - in all body regions and buried deep in the dermis - in the palms of the hands and soles of the feet
in the axillary and anogenital area
first-class levers _______. - are typified by tweezers or forceps - in the body can operate at a mechanical advantage or mechanical disadvantage, depending on specific location - have load on one end of the lever, fulcrum at the other, and effort applied somewhere in the middle - are used when standing on tip-toe
in the body can operate at a mechanical advantage or mechanical disadvantage, depending on specific location
Where are equilibrium receptors located? - only in the vestibule of the ear - in the semicircular canals and in the vestibule of the ear - only in the semicircular canals of the ear - in the semicircular canals, in the spiral organ of Corti, and in the vestibule of the ear
in the semicircular canals and in the vestibule of the ear
Loss of function in the enzyme acetylcholine esterase would result in which of the following? - inability to destroy and remove acetylcholine from the synaptic cleft - amplify or enhance the effect of ACh - inability to release acetylcholine - stimulation of the production of acetylcholine
inability to destroy and remove acetylcholine from the synaptic cleft
The eye muscle that rotates the eye upward and turns the eye laterally is the ______. - lateral rectus - superior oblique - inferior oblique - medial rectus
inferior oblique
Name the muscle at d. - medial rectus - inferior rectus - superior oblique - lateral rectus
inferior rectus
The first step in tissue repair involves _____. - inflammation - formation of scar tissue - proliferation of fibrous connective tissue - replacement of destroyed tissue by the same kind of cells
inflammation
The correct order of events in tissue repair, from first to last, is _____. - organization, inflammation, and regeneration - inflammation, organization, and regeneration - regeneration, organization, and inflammation - inflammation, regeneration, and organization
inflammation, organization, and regenration
What connects the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland? - arbor vitae - optic chiasma - mammillary bodies - infundibulum
infundibulum
Which of the following is not a function of the CSF? - protection from blows - nourishment of the brain - initiation of some nerve impulses - reduction of brain weight
initiation of some nerve impulses
Which of the following is not a function of the autonomic nervous system? - innervation of smooth muscle of the digestive tract - innervation of glands - innervation of cardiac muscle - innervation of skeletal muscle
innervation of skeletal muscle
What component of the reflex arc determines the response to a stimulus? - integration center - receptor - effector - sensory neuron
integration center
Heart muscle cells would tend to separate without ________ - stroma - intercalated discs - myofilaments - flana
intercalated discs
Lengthwise, long bone growth during infancy and youth is exclusively through ________. - interstitial growth of the epiphyseal plates - differentiation of osteoclasts into osteocytes - the secretion of bone matrix into the medullary cavity - calcification of the matrix of the zone underlying articular cartilage
interstitial growth of the epiphyseal plates
Dark adaptation ________. A) is much faster than light adaptation B) results in inhibition of rod function C) primarily involves improvement of acuity and color vision D) involves accumulation of rhodopsin
involves accumulation of rhodopsin
What structure regulates the amount of light passing to the visual receptors of the eye? - iris - lens - cornea - aqueous humor
iris
The pH scale _____ - is based on the salinity of a solution - is based on the concentration of hydrogen ions in a solution - ranges from 1-7 - is linear
is based on the concentration of hydrogen ions in a solution.
Mitosis: - is the formation of sex cells - is always a part of the cell cycle - is division of the genetic material within the nucleus - creates diversity in genetic potential
is division of the genetic material within the nucleus
Erection (vasodilation) of the penis or clitoris ______. - is the result of coordinated activation by both sympathetic and parasympathetic input - is primarily under parasympathetic control - depends very little on autonomic activation - is primarily under sympathetic control
is primarily under parasympathetic control
Ossification of the ends of long bones ________. - is a characteristic of intramembranous bone formation - involves medullary cavity formation - is produced by secondary ossification centers - takes twice as long as diaphysis
is produced by secondary ossification centers
The hyoid bone is unique because it _____. - is composed of three bones joined together - is the only bone of the body that does not articulate with any other bone - is the only bone formed by the fusion of right and left halves - is the only irregular bone found in the neck
is the only bone of the body that does not articulate with any other bone
The nucleolus _____ - is the primary site of protein synthesis - is the site of lipid production in a cell - is a dark-staining spherical body found within the mitochondria - is the site of ribosome assembly in a cell
is the site of ribosome assembly in a cell
Smooth muscle _____. - has long, cylindrical cells - has striations - is under involuntary control - contains intercalated discs
is under involuntary control
Which of the following best describes the orbicularis oris? - it draws the eyebrows together - it closes the eye - it closes, purses, and protrudes the lips - it pulls the lower lip down and back
it closes, purses, and protrudes the lips
which of the following best defines anatomy? - it is the study of how the body parts work and carry out their life-sustaining activities - it is the study of all chemical reactions that occur within body cells. - it is the study of the structure of body parts and their relationships with one another - it is the study of tissues
it is the study of the structure of body parts and their relationships with one another
Why is the rib at B considered a true rib? - it is capable of movement during the action of breathing - it encloses the thoracic cavity and protects the vital organs within - it passes from the vertebral column to the sternum via its own costal cartilage - it possesses a costal groove
it passes from the vertebral column to the sternum via its own costal cartilage
What must happen before a body cell can being mitotic cell division? - its DNA must be replicated exactly so that the identical copies of the cell's genes can be passed on to each of it's offspring - the DNA is expelled from the cell so that it will not be affected by the division process - the DNA undergoes mutation in order to produce genetically specialized cells. - its DNA must be divided in half so that half can go to one daughter cell and half can go to the other daughter cell.
its DNA must be replicated exactly so that identical copies of the cell's genes can be passed on to each of its offspring.
What is the most common cell type in the epidermis? - fibroblasts - macrophages - dendritic cells - keratinocytes
keratinocytes
During vigorous exercise, there may be insufficient oxygen available to completely break down pyruvic acid for energy. As a result, the pyruvic acid is converted to ________. - a strong base - hydrochloric acid - lactic acid - stearic acid
lactic acid
What is the term for the layers of bony matrix surrounding the vessels and nerve? - periosteum - lamellae - lacunae - endosteum
lamellae
Which of the following is the correct order for the phrases of a muscle twitch? - relaxation, contraction, latent - latent, relaxation, contraction - latent, contraction, relaxation - contraction, relaxation, latent
latent, contraction, relaxation
The lungs are _____ to the heart
lateral
The first "way station" in the visual pathway from the eye, after there has been partial crossover of the fibers in the optic chiasma, is the ________. - lateral geniculate body of the thalamus - superior colliculi - visual cortex - temporal lobe
lateral geniculate body of the thalamus
Parasympathetic functions include ______. - allowing the body to cope with an external threat - lens accommodation for close vision - a stimulation of heart rate and force of contraction - raising blood glucose levels
lens accommodation for close vision
A ciliated version of pseudostratified columnar epithelium containing mucus-secreting goblet cells _____ - aids in digestion - is found in some of the larger glands - lines most of the respiratory tract - is more durable than all other epithelia
lines most of the respiratory tract
Both molecule A and molecule B are classified as _____ - nucleic acids - carbohydrates - proteins - lipids
lipids
Which of the following is a factor that affects the velocity and duration of muscle contraction? - size of the muscle fibers stimulated - number of muscle fibers stimulated - muscle length - load on the fiber
load on the fiber
Which of the following factors influence the velocity and duration of muscle contraction? - frequency of stimulation - length of muscle fibers activated - muscle fiber size - load placed on the muscle
load placed on the muscle
At an archeological site you discover a bone that is cylindrical in shape, about one inch long and a quarter of an inch wide. Choose the correct classification. - irregular - long - sesamoid - short
long
Which statement regarding the classification of bones is false? - irregular bones include the vertebrae and hip bones - long bones include all limb bones except the patella - the sternum is an example of a flat bone - sesamoid bones form within certain tendons
long bones include all limb bones except the patella
Which of the following is the abnormal curve often seen in pregnant women as they attempt to preserve their center of gravity toward the end of their pregnancy? - hunchback - kyphosis - lordosis - scoliosis
lordosis
Injury to the hypothalamus may result in all of the following except ________. - loss of body temperature control - loss of fine motor control - dehydration - sleep disturbances
loss of fine motor control
The elasticity of the lens decreases with age. This leads to which of the following? - less light getting to the retina and diminished visual acuity - lowered accommodation of the lenses and difficulty focusing on nearby objects - a clouding of the lenses known as a cataract
lowered accommodation of the lenses and difficulty focusing on nearby objects
Which vertebrae would you expect to have the largest body, relative to the other regions? - thoracic - sacral - cervical - lumbar
lumbar
Which of the following pairs is correctly matched? - cervical vertebrae; rib facets - thoracic vertebrae; transverse foramen - lumbar vertebrae; short, flat spinous processes - lumbar vertebrae; bifid spinous processes - thoracic vertebrae; triangular vertebral foramen
lumbar vertebrae; short, flat spinous processes
What are the names of the bones at A, in order from left to right? - incus, stapes, malleus - stapes, malleus, incus - malleus, stapes, incus - malleus, incus, stapes
malleus, incus, stapes
The _______ is the main chewing muscle - hyoglossus - buccinator - masseter - lateral pterygoid
masseter
Paranasal sinuses are found in which of these facial bones? - maxillae - nasal conchae - zygomatic bones - vomer
maxillae
Which type of sensory receptor allows us to feel an insect landing on our skin? - chemoreceptor - mechanoreceptor - thermoreceptor - nociceptor
mechanoreceptor
Tactile sensation is a combination of touch, pressure, stretch and vibration. Which of the following is most likely the receptor type that senses tactile stimulation? - mechanoreceptors - thermoreceptors - nociceptors - propiroceptors
mechanoreceptors
The bridge of the nose is _____ to the left eye
medial
Paralysis of which eye muscle would prevent the right eye from looking to the left? - inferior rectus - lateral rectus - superior rectus - medial rectus
medial rectus
The vital centers for the control of heart rate, respiration, and blood pressure are located in the ________. - midbrain - medulla oblongata - cerebrum - pons
medulla oblongata
Which skin pigment is made in the skin as a natural defense against UV radiation? - keratin - carotene - melanin - hemoglobin
melanin
Which skin-color-associated, pigment-producing cell is located in the labeled layer D? - keratinocyte - fibroblast - merkel cell - melanocyte
melanocyte
The most dangerous type of skin cancer is _____. - basal cell carcinoma - squamous cell carcinoma - melanoma - all of these skin cancers are equally dangerous
melanoma
Which type of skin cancer is the most dangerous because it is highly metastic and resistant to chemotherapy? - adenoma - melanoma - basal cell carcinoma - squamous cell carcinoma
melanoma
Select the most correct statement concerning skin cancer. - basal cell carcinomas are the least common but most malignant - melanomas are rare but must be removed quickly to prevent from metastasizing - squamous cell carcinomas arise from the stratum corneum - most tumors that arise on the skin are malignant
melanomas are rare but must be removed quickly to prevent from metastasizing
The skin is not a _____ barrier. - physical - biological - chemical - metabolic
metabolic
In which stage of mitosis do the identical sets of chromosomes line up along the midline or equator of the cell? - anaphase - metaphase - prophase - telophase
metaphase
Meningitis can be caused by infection of the central nervous system by bacteria. Which cells would be most responsible for removing the infection? - oligodendrocytes - satellite cells - schwann cells - microglia
microglia
Which subdivision of anatomy would include the study of individual cells? - microscopic anatomy - gross anatomy - systemic anatomy - developmental anatomy
microscopic anatomy
The brain stem consists of the ________. A) cerebrum, pons, midbrain, and medulla B) midbrain, medulla, and pons C) pons, medulla, cerebellum, and midbrain D) midbrain only
midbrain, medulla, and pons
Myocardium (cardiac muscle tissue) must rhythmically contract for a lifetime. This requires a considerable amount of energy production by the cells. You would expect to see a relatively high amount of which organelle in these cells? - cytoskeleton - smooth endoplasmic reticulum - lysosomes - mitochondria
mitochondria
Spinal nerves are all classified as __________. - motor nerves - mixed nerves - afferent nerves - sensory nerves
mixed nerves
What is the function of the organelle indicated by B? - synthesis of proteins from amino acids - modification and packaging of proteins - catabolism of fats and sugars - cellular division
modification and packaging of proteins
What part of the sarcolemma contains acetylcholine receptors? - part adjacent to another muscle cell - end of the muscle fiber - motor end plate - any part of the sarcolemma
motor end plate
Which of the choices below describes the ANS? - motor fibers that conduct nerve impulses from the CNS to smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands - sensory and motor neurons that supply the digestive tract - motor fibers that conduct nerve impulses from the cns to skeletal muscles - sensory neurons that convey info from somatic receptors in the head, body wall, and limbs and from receptors from the special senses of vision, hearing, taste, and smell to the CNS
motor fibers that conduct nerve impulses from the CNS to smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands
Which of the following is the correct sequence of events for muscle contractions? - neurotransmitter release, motor neuron action potential, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke - neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, sliding of myofilaments, ATP-driven power stroke - muscle cell action potential, neurotransmitter release, ATP-driven power stroke, release of calcium ions from SR, sliding of myofilaments - motor neuron action potential, neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke, sliding of myofilaments
motor neuron action potential, neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke, sliding of myofilaments
Each neuron shown in this figure innervates a group of muscle fibers. What is the term for a group of muscle fibers and the single neuron that innervates them? - fascicle - neuromuscular junction - motor unit - sarcomere
motor unit
Ependymal cells line many open cavities in the central nervous system (cns). ependymal cells have cilia on the side of the cell the face these openings. what is the most likely function of these cells? - exchange of nutrients between the circulatory system and neurons - create myelin sheaths for cns cells - movement and circulation of cerebrospinal fluid - act as macrophage cells to destroy microorganisms or neuronal debris
movement and circulation of cerebrospinal fluid
Passive membrane transport processes include ________. - movement of water from an area of high solute concentration to an area of low concentration - consumption of ATP - movement of a substance down its concentration gradient - the use of transport proteins when moving substances from areas of low to high concentration
movement of a substance down its concentration gradient
The hip joint is a good example of a(n) _____ synovial joint. - nonaxial - multiaxial - biaxial - uniaxial
multiaxial
which of the following are correctly paired? - uniaxial joint; permits only slipping or gliding movements - biaxial joint; permits movement in one plane and around one axis - multiaxial movement; movement in all three planes and around all three axes - nonaxial movement; no movement
multiaxial movement; movement in all three planes and around all three axes
During development embryonic cells will fuse to form muscle fibers. This will result in _______. - multinucleated muscle fibers that can extend as long as 30 centimeters - the striations that appear in skeletal and cardiac muscle tissues - the coordination of nerve signals to muscle fibers - interlocking of cells that can prevent the filaments from sliding
multinucleated muscle fibers that can extend as long as 30 centimeters
Which term best identifies a muscle cell? - myofibril - muscle fiber - sarcomere - muscle fascicle
muscle fiber
Provides the force to move bones about their joints.
muscular
The contractile units of skeletal muscles are _____. - microtubules - myofibrils - mitochondria - t tubules
myofibrils
Which protein is indicated by the letter E? - tropomyosin - troponin - actin - myosin
myosin
the thicker filaments are the _____ filaments
myosin
Which of the following correctly states the direction followed by the specified ions when their voltage- gated channels open? - both na+ and k+ ions move in - na+ ions move into the axon; k+ ions move out - na+ ions move out of the axon; k+ ions move in - both na+ and k+ ions move out
na+ ions move into the axon; k+ ions move out
Which of the following does not describe conditions that occur during an action potential? - the na+/k+ pump reestablishes resting concentration gradients - after initial depolarization, K+ now has both an electrical and a chemical gradient drawing it out of the cell - na+ enters the cell through voltage-gated channels, causing a reversal of the resting membrane potential - na+ is used to repolarize the membrane
na+ is used to repolarize the membrane
The interior surface of a neuron's plasma membrane at resting membrane potential will have a ________. - negative charge and more sodium than outside the cell - positive charge and contains more sodium than outside of the cell - negative charge and contains less sodium than outside of the cell - positive charge and contains less sodium than outside of the cell
negative charge and contains less sodium than outside of the cell
Which of the following is not correct of nerves? - nerves do not contain cell bodies - nerves are collection of axons of either sensory or motor neurons but not both - nerves are analogous to tracts in the CNS - nerves are covered by an outer sheath called the epineurium
nerves are collection of axons of either sensory or motor neurons but not both
where the axon of a motor neuron connects with the muscle fibers
neuromuscular junction
Rigor mortis occurs because ________. - the cells are dead - sodium ions leak into the muscle causing continued contractions - no ATP is available to release attached actin and myosin molecules - proteins are beginning to break down, thus preventing a flow of calcium ions
no ATP is available to release attached actin and myosin molecules
If both motor neurons shown in this figure were to develop action potentials and stimulate muscle fibers, would all the muscle cells shown here contract? - no, because it is impossible for more than one motor unit to contract at once - yes, because signals can be passed from stimulated muscle fibers to unstimulated ones - yes, because an entire muscle only needs one neuron to stimulate it in order to contract - no, because neurons in this figure do not innervated every muscle cell shown
no, because neurons in this figure do not innervated every muscle cell shown
If someone spills very hot coffee (200 0F) on their skin, they will likely perceive much pain. Which of the following receptor types is causing this sensation? - mechanoreceptors - nociceptors - thermoreceptors - chemoreceptors
nociceptors
______ are receptors that can respond to painful stimuli. - chemoreceptors - nociceptors - mechanoreceptors - photoreceptors
nociceptors
How are the olfactory receptors activated? - the olfactory tracts transduce signals to the hypothalamus - olfactory cilia move mucus over the receptors - mitral cells relay signals to the olfactory bulbs - odorants dissolve in the mucus and bind to receptors
odorants dissolve in the mucus and bind to receptors
Mixed cranial nerves containing both motor and sensory fibers include all except which of the following? - oculomotor - olfactory - facial - trigeminal
olfactory
A patient is suffering from the inability to distinguish various types of odors. This patient may have damage to which of the following? - facial nerve (VIII) - olfactory nerve (I) - vagus nerve (X) - hypoglossal nerve (XII)
olfactory nerve (I)
Schwann cells are functionally similar to ________. A) ependymal cells B) microglia C) oligodendrocytes D) astrocytes
oligodendrocytes
Which of the following does not describe the process of summation? - one epsp fails to bring the cell to threshold - two epsps are generated at the same time by two separate synapses, bringing the cell to threshold -one epsp and one ipsp cancel each other out - two epsps occur close enough in time to bring the cell to threshold
one epsp fails to bring the cell to threshold
After DNA replication is completed, what does each DNA double helix consist of? - strands that are mixtures of old and new nucleotides - two newly synthesized strands that replace the old template strands - either two old strands or two new strands - one old template strand and one new daughter strand
one old template strand and one new daughter strand
Troponin, a major protein in thin filaments, is a globular protein with three polypeptide subunits. which of the following is not a function of the troponin? - one subunit binds to potassium ions - one subunit attaches troponin to actin - one subunit binds to calcium ions - one subunit binds tropomyosin and helps position it on actin
one subunit binds to potassium ions
Which of the following stimuli caused the reaction in the graph on the left? - opening of gated ca2+ channels - opening of gated na+ channels - opening of gated k+ channels - opening of gated cl- channels
opening of gated na+ channels
Which of the following is expected to occur first if the membrane potential increase shown in the graph on the left were to reach the threshhold value indicated at -55 mV? - opening of voltage gated k+ channels - opening of chemically gated k+ channels - opening of voltage gated na+ channels - opening of chemically gated na+ channels
opening of voltage gated na+ channels
The thumb joint indicated by D mediates which of the following special movements? - elevation - opposition - inversion - dorsiflexion
opposition
When you bring any of your fingers in contact with your thumb, this movement is called __________. - retraction - supination - dorsiflexion - flexion - opposition
opposition
What structure in the eye creates a visual blind spot? - ora serrata - fovea centralis - macula lutea - optic disc
optic disc
A structure which is composed of two or more tissue types that work together to perform specific functions for the body is a(n)_____ - complex tissue - organ system - organ - complex cell
organ
Which level of structural organization is considered to be the highest (most complex) level? - organismal - organ - cellular - chemical
organismal
which of the following would not be restricted (limited) by low levels of ATP? - phagocytosis - pinocytosis - osmosis - exocytosis
osmosis
For intramembranous ossification to take place, which of the following is necessary? - ossification centers form in the fibrous connective tissue membrane - a bone collar forms around the cartilage model - a medullary cavity forms - the cartilage matrix begins to deteriorate
ossification centers form in the fibrous connective tissue membrane
The cell responsible for secreting the matrix of bone is the ________. - osteocyte - osteoblast - osteoclast - chondrocyte
osteoblast
Classify the cells seen at the arrow in image A. - osteoblasts - osteoclasts - osteocytes - mesenchymal cells
osteoblasts
Bones are constantly undergoing resorption (breaking bone down) for various reasons. Which of the following cells accomplishes this process? - stem cell - osteoblast - osteocyte - osteoclast
osteoclast
A homeostatic imbalance that activates these bone cells would lead to a loss of bone density. - chondroblasts - osteoblasts - osteocytes - osteoclasts
osteoclasts
What type of cell is shown at A? - osteoclast - osteoblast - mesenchymal - osteocyte
osteocyte
When an osteoblast becomes completely surrounded by its own matrix secretions it is referred to as an ________. - chondrocyte - osteoclast - osteogenic cell - osteocyte
osteocyte
Which of the following cells are not matched with their appropriate function? - bone lining cells; maintain bone matrix - osteoclasts; bone resorption - osteoblasts; create new bone matrix - osteocytes; produce new bone cells
osteocytes; produce new bone cells
What is the structural unit of compact bone? - osteon - haversian canal - osteoid - canaliculus
osteon
Which statement regarding osteons is false? - osteons consist of concentric lamellae surrounding a central canal - collagen gives osteons the ability to resist twisting forces - osteons are found in all bone tissues - the inorganic matrix of an osteon gives it the ability to resist compression
osteons are found in all bone tissues
Which of the following refers to a bone disorder found most often in the aged and resulting in the bones becoming porous and light? - osteoporosis - paget's disease - rickets - osteomalacia
osteoporosis
Which type of cell or cellular structure is not found in the epidermis? - pain receptors - melanocytes - dendritic cells - keratinocytes
pain receptors
The anatomical position is characterized by all of the following except: - arms at sides - palms turned posteriorly - thumbs pointed laterally - body erect
palms turned posteriorly
An individual accidentally transected (cut across) the spinal cord between T1 and L1. This would result in ________. - paraplegia - quadriplegia - hemiplegia - spinal shock only
paraplegia
Which division of the nervous system has long preganglionic neurons? - parasympathetic - sympathetic - somatic motor - somatic sensory
parasympathetic
Which of the following is mismatched? - sympathetic postganglionic fibers; release NE - parasympathetic postganglionic fibers; release NE - sympathetic preganglionic fibers; release ACh - parasympathetic preganglionic fibers; release ACh
parasympathetic postganglionic fibers; release NE
Which of the following best demonstrates an example of cooperation of the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems? - parasympathetic stimulation causes vasodilation of blood vessels in the penis, leading to erection; sympathetic stimulation then causes ejaculation - parasympathetic stimulation causes copious sweating; sympathetic stimulation causes epidermal pores to dilate - sympathetic stimulation causes vasodilation of blood vessels in the clitoris, leading to erection; parasympathetic stimulation then causes reflex contractions of the vagina - sympathetic stimulation causes vasodilation of blood vessels in the penis, causing erection; parasympathetic stimulation then causes ejaculation
parasympathetic stimulation causes vasodilation of blood vessels in the penis, leading to erection; sympathetic stimulation then causes ejaculation
Which hormone increases osteoclast activity to release more calcium ions into the bloodstream? - thyroxine - estrogen - parathyroid hormone - calcitonin
parathyroid hormone
The primary somatosensory cortex is located in the _______. - temporal lobe - frontal lobe - parietal lobe - prefrontal lobe
parietal lobe
the periosteum is secured to the underlying bone by _____. - volkmann's canals - perforating (sharpey's) fibers - the struts of bone known as spicules - a bony matrix with hyaline cartilage
perforating (sharpey's) fibers
Which of the following correctly pairs the structure at C with its primary component? - periosteum; cuboidal epithelium - endosteum; dense regular connective tissue - endosteum; areolar tissue - periosteum; dense irregular connective tisse
periosteum; dense irregular connective tissue
A cell engulfing a relatively large particle will likely utilize ________. - exocytosis - receptor-mediated endocytosis - phagocytosis - pinocytosis
phagocytosis
Which of the following structures is NOT part of the external ear? - pinna - pharyngotympanic tube - tympanic membrane - external acoustic meatus
pharyngotympanic tube
Molecule A is a _____ - phospholipid - nucleotide - steroid - trigylceride
phospholipid
which of the following is a component of the plasma membrane that creates a physical barrier between the inside and the outside of a cell? - cholesterol - proteins - water - phospholipids
phospholipids
Which of the following nerves does not arise from the brachial plexus? - median - phrenic - radial - ulnar
phrenic
Which of the meninges is a delicate connective tissue membrane that clings tightly to the brain like cellophane wrap following its every convolution? - meningeal layer of the dura mater - arachnoid mater - periosteal layer of the dura mater - pia mater
pia mater
If a cell is non-selectively engulfing samples of extracellular fluid, for example to absorb nutrients, it will likely utilize ________. - phagocytosis - receptor-mediated endocytosis - exocytosis - pinocytosis
pinocytosis
Pointing the toes is an example of ________. - circumduction - plantar flexion - pronation - protraction
plantar flexion
Positive feedback differs from negative feedback because _____ - positive feedback is generally beneficial while negative feedback is typically harmful - positive feedback provides moment-to-moment wellbeing while negative feedback causes a cascade effect - positive feedback tends to enhance the triggering stimulus which negative feedback tends to return the body to a homeostatic balance or "ideal" level - positive feedback is critical to healthy while negative feedback serves only to alert us to potential health threats
positive feedback tends to enhance the triggering stimulus which negative feedback tends to return the body to a homeostatic balance or "ideal" level
What are the levers that operate at a mechanical advantage called? - power levers - functional levers - speed levers - dysfunctional levers
power levers
Cells of the stratum spinosum have many interlocking desmosomes that will remain between the cells as they migrate to the stratum corneum. These cell junctions serve the body by ________. - stopping water loss and preventing dehydration - allowing secretions like sweat or sebum to pass through - preventing mechanical stress or trauma from damaging the epidermis - preventing ultraviolet light from penetrating the deeper layers or the epidermis
preventing mechanical stress or trauma from damaging the epidermis
In the visual pathways to the brain, the optic radiations project to the _______. - primary visual cortex - optic chiasma - medial retina - lateral geniculate body
primary visual cortex
What cortical region is represented by the area at D? - visual association area - primary visual cortex - multimodal associated area - primary olfactory cortex
primary visual cortex
Approximately 80% of a muscle fiber's volume are the myofibrils. This characteristic reflects muscles ability to ________. - generate and propagate action potential - produce relatively high amounts of ATP - store oxygen molecules that can be used in aerobic respiration - produce movement through contractile force
produce movement through contractile force
Which type of white matter fiber tract connects the cerebrum to lower centers, like the spinal cord? - projection fibers - commissures - corpus callosum - association fibers
projection fibers
Which of the following is mismatched? - promotes urination; sympathetic - gallbladder contracts to expel bile; parasympathetic - penis ejaculation; sympathetic - bronchiole dilation in lungs; sympathetic
promotes urination; sympathetic
Which type of movement is unique to the forearm? - adduction - extension - pronation - opposition
pronation
Which is the best description for the function of the cranial bones? - provide passageways for respiratory gases to move into and out of the body - protect the brain - allow introduction of food into the digestive system - house the special sense organs
protect the brain
Moving your jaw forward, causing an underbite, is called ________. - protraction - adduction - retraction - pronation
protraction
What is the major function of the axial skeleton? - provide an attachment point for muscles that allow movement - give the body resilience - provide central support for the body and protect internal organs - provide a space for the major digestive organs
provide central support for the body and protect internal organs
The upper arm is _____ to the forearm
proximal
_____ epithelium appears to have two or three layers of cells, but all the cells are in contact with the basement membrane. - transitional - stratified cuboidal - pseudostratified columnar - stratified columnar
psuedostratified columnar
What is the portion of the eye that allows light to pass into the posterior chamber? - iris - cornea - pupil - sclera
pupil
Which of the following movements demonstrates a first-class lever? - lifting a rock with your right hand and arm - flexing your knee to raise your heel toward your buttocks - raising your head up off your chest - standing on your toes
raising your head up off your chest
In a homeostatic control mechanism, which component monitors the environment? - receptor - stimulus - effector - control center
receptor
Some of the nerve endings in the skin are sensitive to changes in temperature. They are part of a negative feedback mechanism regulating body temperature. These nerve endings represent a(n) ________ in the negative feedback mechanism. - receptor - control center - effector - homeostatic balance or "ideal" value
receptor
Which of the following is the correct simple spinal reflex arc? - effector, efferent neuron, integration center, afferent neuron, receptor - receptor, efferent neuron, integration center, afferent neuron, affector - effector, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, receptor - receptor, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, effector
receptor, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, effector
which of the following is correctly matched? - brevis; long - transverse; parallel to the long axis - rectus; straight - deltoid; at a right angle to the long axis
rectus; straight
When a muscle is unable to respond to stimuli temporarily, it is in which of the following periods? - fatigue period - refractory period - latent period - relaxation period
refractory period
Which of the following is NOT a function of the hypothalamus? - regulate emotional responses - regulate food intake - regulate body temp - regulate the thalamus
regulate the thalamus
Which of the following events triggers the subsequent steps of excitation-contraction coupling? - release of calcium ions from the terminal cisterns of the sarcoplasmic reticulum - propagation of an action potential along the sarcolemma and T tubules - release of acetylcholine from axon terminals at the neuromuscular junction - binding of calcium ions to troponin, which removes the blocking action of tropomyosin
release of acetylcholine from axon terminals at the neuromuscular junction
Which of the following examples listed below illustrates homeostasis maintained by a negative feedback? - lack of pain in third-degree burns due to damage to sensory nerves in the dermis - excretion of salts within the sweat - an increase in sebum production in response to androgens (male sex hormones) - release of sweat by eccrine glands in response to heat
release of sweat by eccrine glands in response to heat
na+ channels are inactivating, and voltage-gated k+ channels open
repolarization
Which of these activities is most likely driven by parasympathetic innervation? - vigorous physical activity - fight-or-flight responses - sweating and dilating pupils - resting and digesting
resting and digesting
Which functional area of the brain is responsible for keeping the cortex alert and conscious and enhancing its excitability? - reticular activating system - frontal eye fields - broca's area - limbic system
reticular activating system
The brain area that regulates activities that control the state of wakefulness or alertness of the cerebral cortex is the _______. - pyramids - reticular formation - thalamus - limbic system
reticular formation
Which of the following joint problems is the result of an autoimmune problem? - tendonitis - osteoarthritis - rheumatoid arthritis (RA) - bursitis
rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
During dark adaptation ________. A) the sensitivity of the retina decreases B) the rate of rhodopsin breakdown is accelerated C) rhodopsin accumulates in the rods D) the cones are activated
rhodopsin accumulates in the rods
Which of the following structures is common only to only one region of the spinal column? - transverse processes - superior articulating surfaces - spinous processes - rib facets - pedicles
rib facets
Molecule B and molecule C are expected to interact within which of the following cellular structures? - Golgi apparatus - nucleus - ribosome - nucleolus
ribosome
which organelle is responsible for synthesizing proteins? - rough endoplasmic reticulum - ribosomes - golgi apparatus - smooth endoplasmic reticulum
ribosomes
You want to look up and to your right. Which extrinsic eye muscles would be the most active in each eye? - right eye: superior rectus left eye: inferior oblique - right eye: superior rectus left eye: superior rectus - right eye: inferior oblique left eye: superior rectus - right eye: superior oblique left eye: superior rectus
right eye: inferior oblique left eye: superior rectus
Which photoreceptors respond to very dim light? - cones - ganglion cells - rods - bipolar cells
rods
Which of the following movements does not increase or decrease the angle between bones? - abduction - rotation - circumduction - extension
rotation
Gluteal muscle innervation comes from which plexus? - lumbar - brachial - cervical - sacral
sacral
Spinal nerves exiting the cord from the level of L4 to S4 form the ________. - thoracic plexus - sacral plexus - femoral plexus - lumbar plexus
sacral plexus
What is a vertical section through the body, dividing it into left and right called? - sagittal - frontal - regional - transverse
sagittal
The ______ shorten(s) during muscle contraction - actin - z lines - thick filament - sarcomere
sarcomere
What structure in skeletal muscle cells functions in calcium storage? - sarcoplasmic reticulum - myofibrillar network - intermediate filament network - mitochondria
sarcoplasmic reticulum
Name the glial cell at F. - ependymal cells - schwann cell - oligodendrocytes - satellite cells
schwann cell
Which of the following is correctly matched? - kyphosis; accentuated lumbar curvature - scoliosis; abnormal lateral curvature - herniated disc; dorsally exaggerated thoracic curvature - lordosis; rupture of the anulus fibrosus
scoliosis; abnormal lateral curvature
Which glands secrete an oily product that softens the skin and hair? - ceruminous glands - apocrine sweat glands - eccrine sweat glands - sebaceous glands
sebaceous glands
Which of the following glands secrete sebum, an oily like substance? - apocrine glands - eccrine glands - sebaceous glands - merocrine glands
sebaceous glands
Susan sat out in the sun watching a baseball game. She developed small blisters on her unprotected shoulders and neck. What type of burn is represented by the formation of the blisters? - first-degree burn - second-degree burn - third-degree burn - full-thickness burn
second-degree burn
Osteoblasts ______. - maintain bone matrix - form skeletal cartilage - secrete osteoid - break down bone
secrete osteoid
Which of the following is not a normal function of muscle tissue? - stabilizing joints - secreting hormones - maintaining posture - producing movement - generating heat
secreting hormones
Which of the following structures contain receptors that monitor changes in head rotation? - utricle - cochlea - semicircular canals - saccule
semicircular canals
Cranial nerve II, the optic nerve, sends nerve impulses to the brain carrying information about the things we see. These nerve fibers most likely belong to which division of the nervous system? - sensory (afferent) division - somatic nervous system - sympathetic division - parasympathetic division
sensory (afferent) division
Nerve impulses leading to the brain carry information about cool temperatures on the skin. The nerve fibers sending these signals will most likely belong to which division of the nervous system? - sensory (afferent division) - somatic nervous system - sympathetic division - parasympathetic division
sensory (afferent) division
the genetic information is coded in DNA by the _____ - regular alteration of sugar and phosphate molecules - sequence of the nucleotides - arrangement of the histones - three-dimensional structure of the double helix
sequence of the nucleotides
Synovial joints are classified into six main categories based on ______. - size - type of synovial fluid - location - shape of articular surfaces
shape of articular surfaces
Which of the following describes the excitatory postsynaptic potential? - short distance depolarization - opens K+ or Cl- channels - short distance hyperpolarization - moves membrane potential away from threshold
short distance depolarization
Which joint has the most notably sacrificed stability to provide great freedom of movement? - knee - shoulder - ankle - elbow
shoulder
Dislocation of a joint is a common orthopedic problem. which of these joints is most likely to be dislocated? - sacroiliac - shoulder (glenohumeral) - hip (coxal) - pubic symphysis
shoulder (glenohumeral)
Which of the following peripheral nervous system (PNS) neuroglia form the myelin sheaths around larger nerve fibers in the pns? - satellite cells - shwann cells - astrocytes - oligodendrocytes
shwann cells
Which of the following epithelia forms the walls of the air sacs across which gas exchange occurs in the lungs? - simple cuboidal - simple squamous - simple columnar - pseudostratified columnar
simple squamous
Which of the following can be considered a function of the paranasal sinuses? - sinuses have rough patches that aid in muscle attachment - the paranasal sinuses are passageways for nerves to pass through - sinuses take away a minimal amount of strength from bones while reducing the weight of bones - sinuses are often referred to as vestigial, anatomical features with no known function
sinuses take away a minimal amount of strength from bones while reducing the weight of bones
Which type of muscle requires somatic (voluntary) nervous stimulation for activation? - skeletal - visceral - smooth - cardiac
skeletal
Of the following muscle types, which has the longest muscle cells and has obvious stripes called striations? - visceral smooth muscle - cardiac muscle - skeletal muscle - multiunit smooth muscle
skeletal muscle
Which of these effectors is not directly controlled by the autonomic nervous system? - cardiac muscle - most glands - smooth muscle - skeletal muscle
skeletal muscle
Which of the following statements is true? - skeletal muscle cells are long and cylindrical with many nuclei - cardiac muscle cells are found in the heart and large blood vessels - cardiac muscle cells have many nuclei - smooth muscle cells have t tubules
skeletal muscle cells are long and cylindrical with many nuclei
Which of the following statements best illustrates the fact that skeletal muscle is voluntary muscle? - skeletal muscle is wrapped in several layers of connective tissue. the deepest layer being the endomysium - skeletal muscle fibers are innervated by somatic motor neurons - skeletal muscle appears striated due to the structure of the sarcomeres - the shivering reflex aids in maintaining body temperature
skeletal muscle fibers are innervated by somatic motor neurons
Which of the following is not an autonomic nervous system function? - skeletal muscle reflex - gland secretion - increasing heart rate - emptying the bladder
skeletal muscle reflex
Under a microscope you observe a tissue that appears to have long fibers that appear striated. The nuclei are pushed off to the side of the fibers. The tissue looks very vascular. What type of tissue are you observing? - dense irregular connective tissue - dense regular connective tissue - skeletal muscle tissue - osseous tissue
skeletal muscle tissue
Which of the following are correctly paired? - skeletal muscle; voluntary control - cardiac muscle; nonstriated - smooth muscle; striated - cardiac muscle; voluntary control
skeletal muscle; voluntary control
Which of the following bones are not a part of the appendicular skeleton? - shoulder - upper limb - skull - hip
skull
Addition of more mitochondria to a muscle fiber will have the greatest effect on ________. - slow oxidative fibers - both slow and fast oxidative fibers - fast glycolytic fibers - fast oxidative fibers
slow oxidative fibers
If given the same amount of ATP, which fiber type would contract for the longest amount of time? - fast oxidative fibers - both fast glycolytic and fast oxidative fibers - slow oxidative fibers - fast glycolytic fibers
slow oxidative fibers
Reduction in blood flow to a muscle fiber would have the greatest effect on ________. - fast glycolytic - fast oxidative fibers - both slow and fast oxidative - slow oxidative fibers
slow oxidative fibers
Which of the following organelles is correctly paired with its function? - mitochondrion; packaging proteins and lipids - golgi apparatus; produce energy for the cell - smooth endoplasmic reticulum; metabolism of lipids - lysosome; protein synthesis
smooth endoplasmic reticulum; metabolism of lipids
Which of the following is not an example of the same level of structural organization as that represented by image 6? - smooth muscle - blood vessel - stomach - skin
smooth muscle
Using your hospitals information portal, your patient reviews the report from her recent biopsy, which includes a reference to "smooth muscle". She asks you if this means her muscles are abnormal. What is the best explanation is? - smooth muscle tissue is found in abundance in athletes and dancers, allowing them to move more smoothly than the average person. - smooth muscle tissue controls involuntary movements, including the pumping of the heart - smooth muscle tissue is called smooth because it moves blood and digestive secretions smoothly through the blood vessels and digestive tract. - smooth muscle tissue controls many involuntary functions. unlike the muscles that control voluntary movement and the heart, it has no "stripes" or striations and so is "smooth"
smooth muscle tissue controls many involuntary functions. unlike the muscles that control voluntary movement and the heart, it has no "stripes" or striations and so is "smooth"
It diffuses across the cell membrane resulting in depolarization.
sodium ions
Nerve impulses leading to the skeletal muscle carry information to direct movement. the nerve fibers sending these signals will most likely belong to which division of the nervous system? - sensory (afferent) division - somatic nervous system - sympathetic division - parasympathetic division
somatic nervous system
What division of the nervous system is most specifically responsible for voluntary motor control? - central nervous system - sympathetic nervous system - parasympathetic nervous system - somatic nervous system
somatic nervous system
The sella turcica is part of the _____ bone and houses the _____ gland. - ethmoid; pituitary - sphenoid; thymus - sphenoid; pituitary - ethmoid; thymus
sphenoid; pituitary
The sella turcica is part of the _____ bone and houses the _____ gland. - ethmoid; pituitary - sphenoid; thymus - sphenoid; pituitray - ethmoid; thymus
sphenoid; pituitary
Which middle ear ossicle is attached to, and transmits vibratory motion to, the oval window? - stapes - malleus - incus - anvil
stapes
The major head flexor muscles are the ________. - splenius muscles - scalane muscles - trapezius muscles - sternocleidomastoid muscle
sternocleidomastoid muscle
Creatine phosphate functions in the muscle cell by ______. - storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP - forming a temporary chemical compound with myosin - inducing a conformation change in the myofilaments - forming a chemical compound with actin
storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP
Select the correct statement regarding epithelia. - stratified epithelia are present where protection from abrasion is important - stratified epithelia are tall, narrow cells - simple epithelia form impermeable barriers - pseudostratified epithelia consist of at least two layers of cells stacked on top of one another
stratified epithelia are present where protection from abrasion is important
A many-layered epithelium with cuboidal basal cells and flat cells at its surface would be classified as ________. - stratified squamous - transitional - simple cuboidal - simple squamous
stratified squamous
Which of the following epithelial tissue types is not correctly matched to its function? - stratified squamous epithelium; absorption - simple cuboidal epithelium; secretion - simple squamous epithelium; filtration - simple columnar epithelium with microvilli; absorption
stratified squamous epithelium; absorption
Pigment can be found in several layers of the epidermis. In which layers would you expect to find the cells that produce melanin? - stratum spinosum - stratum basale - stratum lucidum - stratum granulosum
stratum basale
The epidermis consists of five layers of cells, each layer with a distinct role to play in the health, well-being, and functioning of the skin. Which of the following layers is responsible for cell division and replacement? - stratum basale - stratum lucidum - stratum corneum - stratum granulosum
stratum basale
Which layer of the epidermis will be supplied with the highest levels of oxygen from the blood? - stratum corneum - stratum granulosum - stratum basale - stratum spinosum
stratum basale
Which stratum of the epidermis contains the stem cells responsible for regenerating the more superficial layers? - stratum granulosum - stratum corneum - stratum basale - stratum spinosum
stratum basale
What is the correct order (top to bottom) of - stratum granulosum - stratum basale - stratum spinosum - stratum corneum
stratum corneum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, stratum basale
What function do transitional epithelia have? - filtration - resistance to friction - absorption - stretching
stretching
Which of the following correctly describes a common feature of all structures labeled A through D in the figure? - Structures a, b, and d are all various types of glands - structures a, b, c, and d are located in the dermis - structures a, b, c, and d are composed primarily of smooth muscle - structures a, b, c, and d are all involved in the sensory functions of the skin
structures a, b, c, and d are located in the dermis
Which of the following terms describes layer D? - papillary - epidermal - reticular - subcutaneous
subcutaneous
Which directional term is used to describe the relationship of the skin to the skeletal muscles? - superficial - deep - medial - lateral
superficial
Fibrous joints are classified as ________. - sutures, syndesmoses, and gomphoses - pivot, hinge, and ball and socket - symphysis, sacroiliac, and articular - hinge, saddle, and ellipsoidal
sutures, syndesmoses, and gomphoses
If the figure were used to represent the regulation of body temperature, the structures represented by the letter C would include ______. - temperature regulators in the brain - temperature sensors in the brain - hot and cold sensors in the skin - sweat glands in the skin
sweat glands in the skin
a red blood cell placed in pure water would _____ - swell initially, then shrink as equilibrium is reached - neither shrink nor swell - shrink - swell and burst
swell and burst
Preparing the body for the ʺfight-or-flightʺ response is the role of the ________. A) sympathetic divison B) cerebrum C) parasympathetic division D) somatic nervous system
sympathetic division
The "fight or flight" division of the autonomic nervous system is the ______. - peripheral division - sympathetic division - parasympathetic division - somatic division
sympathetic division
The secretions of the adrenal medulla act to supplement the effects of _______. - vagus (X) nerve activity - sympathetic stimulation - parasympathetic innervation - somatic stimulation
sympathetic stimulation
Which of the following best describes the joint labeled B in the figure? - synarthrotic - fibrous - diarthrotic - amphiarthrotic
synarthrotic
Which of the following are cartilaginous joints? - synchondroses - gomphoses - sutures - syndesmoses
synchondroses
A situation where the bones are connected exclusively by ligaments, cords, or bands of fibrous tissue is a _____. - sychondrosis - gomphosis - suture - syndesmosis
syndesmosis
On the basis of structural classification, which is a fibrous joint? - synchondrosis - pivot - syndesmosis - symphysis
syndesmosis
Which of the following represents a structural classification for joints that are separated by a joint cavity? - synovial - diarthrosis - cartilaginous - fibrous
synovial
which of the following correctly states the functions of the rough endoplasmic reticulum? - storage of calcium ions - lipid metabolism, cholesterol synthesis, and synthesis of the lipid components of lipoproteins - synthesis of cellular membrane components - absorption, synthesis, and transport of fats
synthesis of cellular membrane components
What major function occurs on the specific membranes indicated by A? - replication of DNA - synthesis of proteins - digestion of ingested food - production of most of the cell's ATP
synthesis of proteins
The RNA responsible for bringing the amino acids to the ribosome for protein formation is _____? - mRNA - tRNA - rRNA - ssRNA
tRNA
_____ is a molecule that brings amino acids to the ribosome during translation. - mRNA - DNA - tRNA - rRNA
tRNA
Which of the following releases neurotransmitter norepinephrine? - terminus of a parasympathetic postganglionic neuron - terminus of a sympathetic postganglionic neuron - terminus of a somatic motor neuron - terminus of a sympathetic preganglionic neuron
terminus of a sympathetic postganglionic neuron
The letter A in the figure indicates which of the following structures? - thalamus - lateral ventricles - hypothalamus - cerebral nuclei
thalamus
Which part of the CNS sorts almost all sensory information ascending to the cerebral cortex? - hypothalamus - thalamus - pons - mesencephalon
thalamus
When a sarcomere contracts and thin filaments move over thick filaments you would expect to see ________. - the h zone to appear wider - the I bands to appear smaller - the A band to appear darker - the I bands to appear wider
the I bands to appear smaller
Which of the following is not a factor that contributes to joint stability? - the shape of the articulating surfaces - the amount of synovial fluid in the joint cavity - the number and positioning of reinforcing ligaments - the amount of muscle tone applied to tendons that cross the joint
the amount of synovial fluid in the joint cavity
Which of the following statements is incorrect? - the appendicular skeleton includes the bones of the limbs - the axial skeleton includes the bones of the limbs - the appendicular skeleton allows us to move around - the axial skeleton supports and protects internal organs
the axial skeleton includes the bones of the limbs
which of the following would be an example of the process taking place at B? - the conversion of a chemical messenger molecule into a specific product - the binding of a chemical messenger activating a cytoplasmic enzyme, such as kinase, that leads to specific cellular responses - the movement of a specific protein from the membrane to the cytoplasm - the transport of a specific chemical messenger into the cell
the binding of a chemical messenger activating a cytoplasmic enzyme, such as kinase, that leads to specific cellular responses
Which of the following is the proper description of the human body in the anatomical position? - the body is erect with feet together, palms facing the thighs, and thumbs pointing forward - the body is erect with feet slightly apart and arms extending perpendicular to the torso along a straight line with the clavicle - the body is erect with feet together, palms facing backward, and thumbs pointing toward the body - the body is erect with feet slightly apart, palms facing forward, and thumbs pointing away from the body.
the body is erect with feet slightly apart, palms facing forward, and thumbs pointing away from the body.
If cells are placed in a hypertonic solution containing a solute to which the membrane is impermeable, what could happen? - the cells will show no change due to diffusion of both solute and solvent - the cells will swell and ultimately burst - the cells will shrink at first, but will later reach equilibrium with the surrounding solution and return to their original condition. - the cells will lose water and shrink
the cells will swell and ultimately burst
Which portion of the ear is responsible for sound transduction? - the ossicles - the cochlea - the tympanic membrane - the tympanic membrane - the vestibule
the cochlea
What is the major factor controlling how levers work? - the weight of the load - the direction the load is being moved - the difference in the positioning of the effort, load, and fulcrum - the structural characteristics of the muscles of the person using the lever
the difference in the positioning of the effort, load, and fulcrum
Cell bodies of the sensory neurons are located in ________. - the ventral root ganglia of the spinal cord - the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord - sympathetic ganglia - the thalamus
the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord
The arrow in the figure is pointing to which of the following structures? - the articular cartilage - a primary ossification center - the epiphyseal plate - a secondary ossification center
the epiphyseal plate
a patient has lost the ability to taste food. which nerve may have been damaged? - the optic nerves - trigeminal nerves - the facial nerves - the abducens nerves
the facial nerves
Which is the largest, longest, and strongest bone in the body? - the tibia - the os coxae - the femur - the fibula
the femur
What is intramembranous ossification? - the formation of bone from within fibrous membranes - the formation of bone from preexisting hyaline cartilage models - the formation of bone from preexisting fibrocartilage models - the formation of bone from preexisting elastic cartilage models
the formation of bone from within fibrous membranes
Which of the following best describes the process shown in the figure? - bone remodeling in response to changes in mechanical stress - bone repair at a site of fracture - the formation of bone in a membrane - the formation of bone in a preexisting cartilage model
the formation of bone in a membrane
What is the role of the hair matrix? - the hair matrix serves as an anchor for the hair shaft - the hair matrix serves as a sensory receptor - the hair matrix allows hair to "stand on end" or become erect - the hair matrix produces hair
the hair matrix produces hair
A toxin released by certain bacteria can block the release of neurotransmitters into a neuromuscular synapse. What would result from such a block? - the loss of ability to contract the mterm-475uscle - the muscle would become permanently contracted - the muscle would remain fixed at the length it was when the toxin contracted it.
the loss of ability to contract the muscle
Which part of the vertebral column receives the most stress by bearing most of the weight of the body? - the cervical region - the sacral promontory - the sacrum - the lumbar region
the lumbar region
Which of the following is not a difference between graded potentials and action potentials? - the magnitude of action potentials decrease as the impulse travels further away from the start of the impulse while graded potentials do not decrease in magnitude - greater stimulus intensity results in larger graded potentials, but not larger action potentials - graded potentials can result from the opening of chemically gated channels; action potentials require the opening of voltage-gated channels - graded potentials occur along dendrites, whereas action potentials occur along axons
the magnitude of action potentials decrease as the impulse travels further away from the start of the impulse while graded potentials do not decrease in magnitude
Old age affects many parts of the skeleton. Which of the following is NOT associated with old age? - the vertebrae become more porous and likely to fracture - the intervertebral discs become thinner and less elastic - the thoracic cage becomes more rigid as costal cartilages ossify - the mandible continues to grow and thicken
the mandible continues to grow and thicken
Which of the following statements most accurately describes the effect caused by binding of the neurotransmitter (green dots) to the structure labeled C? - the membrane potential of the postsynaptic membrane changes - the membrane potential of the presynaptic membrane changes - the neurotransmitter is transported into the postsynaptic neuron - an action potential is generated
the membrane potential of the postsynaptic membrane changes
When the term biceps, triceps, or quadriceps forms part of a muscle's name, what does it tell you about the muscle? - the muscle has two, three, or four origins, respectively - the muscle has two, three, or four functions, respectively - the muscle is able to change direction twice, three times, or four times faster than other muscles, respectively - the muscle has two, three, or four insertions, respectively
the muscle has two, three, or four origins, respectively
Based on what you know of the relationship between the thick and the thin filaments, what would happen if a disorder existed that caused a person to produce no tropomyosin? - the muscle tissues would never be able to relax - the muscle would never contract - actin will spontaneously fall apart - the muscle would be weaker than normal
the muscle tissues would never be able to relax
What result would be expected if an additional stimulus, equal in intensity to the first, were to be applied to the muscle at the 60 millisecond (ms) time point? - the tension exerted by the muscle would continue to decrease, but at a significantly slower rate than observed without the second stimulus - the muscle would quickly return to the fully relaxed state of minimum tension - the muscle would increased in tension to a level greater than that measured at the beginning of phase C - tension would increase to the same maximum force measured at the beginning of phase C
the muscle would increased in tension to a level greater than that measured at the beginning of phase C
Saltatory conduction is made possible by ________. A) the myelin sheath B) large nerve fibers C) diphasic impulses D) erratic transmission of nerve impulses
the myelin sheath
Which of the following would be most associated with process of warming, humidifying, and filtering the air we inhale? - hyoid bone - the cranial bones - the nasal cavity - the bones comprising the orbits
the nasal cavity
which of the following is not used as a criterion for naming muscles? - the location of the muscle - the nervous system's control of the muscle - the locations of the muscle attachments - the shape of the muscle - the number of origins for the muscle
the nervous system's control of the muscle
Which bone or pair of bones forms the most superior portion of the cranium? - the frontal bone - the parietal bones - the occipital bone - the temporal bones
the parietal bones
How are the male and female pelvises different? - the female pelvis has thicker bones with more prominent bone markings - the pelvic inlet is heart-shaped in the male - the male pelvis is usually wider, shallower, and lighter - the acetabula are larger and closer together in the female
the pelvic inlet is heart-shaped in the male
Which of the following statements is false? - the female pelvis is tilted further forward than the male pelvis - the pubic arch is broader in the pelvis of a female than in the pelvis of a male - the pelvic outlet is narrower in a female than in a male - the female pelvis is thinner than that of a male
the pelvic outlet is narrower in a female than in a male
Injury to cervical vertebra C3-C4 is particularly problematic because ________. - several ganglia are near this region that serve the heart - the phrenic nerve that serves the diaphragm receives its fibers from here - part of the brain stem is located here - the greater auricular nerve that serve the parotid gland receive their fibers from here
the phrenic nerve that serves the diaphragm receives its fibers from here
Which of the following statements is true? - the scapula marks the origin of the appendicular skeleton - the humerus is the most proximal bone in the upper appendicular skeleton - the radius is the lateral bone in the forearm - the phalanges in the thumb are the most medial bones in the hand
the radius is the lateral bone in the forearm
Which of the following represents the correct order in which the components interact in a homeostatic control system? - the effector, the stimulus, and the receptor - the variable, the receptor, and the set point - the receptor, the stimulus, and the effector - the receptor, the control center, and the effector
the receptor, the control center, and the effector
The dermis has two major layers. Which layer constitutes 80% of the dermis and is responsible for the tension lines in the skin? - the subcutaneous layer - the hypodermal layer - the reticular layer - the papillary layer
the reticular layer
Which dermal layer is responsible for the dermal properties of skin that are evident as cleavage lines? - the granular layer - the papillary layer - the reticular layer - the basal layer
the reticular layer
The 100-meter dash is a quick and short run requiring explosive speed. On completion of the dash, the runners will continue to breathe hard for several seconds to minutes even though they are no longer running. Which of the following is the best explanation for why this is so? - the runners' use of stored oxygen, glucose, and creatine phosphate is being replenished and this requires a prolonged increase of oxygen intake - the runners' fast oxidative muscles are so slow to utilize oxygen, they only begin aerobic respiration by the time the run has finished. - since the exercise was mostly aerobic exercise, the runners' bodies have not yet realized the run is over - slow oxidative fibers are recruited last and have only started to work at completion of the run.
the runners' use of stored oxygen, glucose, and creatine phosphate is being replenished and this requires a prolonged increase of oxygen intake
The contractile, or functional, unit of a muscle fiber is __________. - troponin - the elastic filament - the myofilament - the sarcomere
the sarcomere
Which muscle cell structure stores calcium ions that are used to trigger the contraction? - the sarcolemma - glycosome - the myofibril - the sarcoplasmic reticulum
the sarcoplasmic reticulum
Which of the following represents a difference between eccrine sweat glands and apocrine sweat glands? - eccrine sweat glands use exocytosis to secrete their product, while apocrine sweat glands do not - eccrine sweat glands begin to function at puberty, while apocrine sweat glands function throughout life - the secretions of apocrine sweat glands contain more fat and protein than do the secretions of eccrine sweat glands - eccrine sweat glands are located deeper in the dermis than apocrine sweat glands
the secretions of apocrine sweat glands contain more fat and protein than do the secretions of eccrine sweat glands
The axial skeleton includes ______. - the skull, the scapula, and the vertebral column - arms, legs, hands, and feet - the skull, vertebral column, and pelvis - the skull, vertebral column, and rib cage
the skull, vertebral column, and rib cage
Which of the following is not a facial bone? - the maxilla - the nasal bone - the vomer bone - the zygomatic bone - the sphenoid bone
the sphenoid bone
Which of the following bones is not part of the orbit? - the frontal bone - the temporal bone - the zygomatic bone - the maxilla
the temporal bone
Which of the following would be most associated with housing the special sense organs? - the bones of the inner ear - the temporal bones - hyoid bone - the cranial bones
the temporal bones
What is the main factor that determines the power of a muscle? - the number of neurons innervating it - the length - the total number of muscle fibers (cells) available for contraction - the shape
the total number of muscle fibers (cells) available for contraction
Which of these is not a way of classifying muscles? - muscle shape - the type of muscle fibers - the type of action they cause - muscle location
the type of muscle fibers
The dorsal body cavity is divided into which of the following subdivisions? - the vertebral/spinal and thoracic cavities - the vertebral/spinal, cranial and pleural cavities - the vertebral/spinal and cranial cavities - the thoracic, pleural, and abdominopelvic cavities
the vertebral/spinal and cranial cavities
What change in a neuron is being measured in the graph? - the voltage measured between the neuron cell body and the axonal terminals - the voltage measured across the axon membrane at a specific point as an action potential travels past - the voltage measured across the axon membrane at various points along an axon at a specific instance during an action potential - the speed of an action potential as it moves down the length of an axon
the voltage measured across the axon membrane at a specific point as an action potential travels past
Why are the waves represented by the number 3 being sensed closer to the oval window than those represented by 4? - the waves at 3 have a higher amplitude than 4 - the waves at 3 have a lower frequency than 4 - the waves at 3 have a lower amplitude than 4 - the waves at 3 have a higher frequency than 4
the waves at 3 have a higher frequency than 4
Which of the bones of the skull would you also refer to as a cheekbone? - the temporal bone - the zygomatic bone - the parietal bone - the occipital bone
the zygomatic bone
Which of the following bones do not contain a paired paranasal sinus? - the frontal bones - the zygomatic bones - the sphenoid bones - the ethmoid bones
the zygomatic bones
What feature of the prickle cells in layer C causes them to have pointy projections after tissue preparation? - their desmosome attachments - the rigidity of the cell membrane - glycolipids that make the layer waterproof pulling by shrunken keratin fibers between the cells
their desmosome attachments
What is the basic condition when a neuron is described as polarized? - there are large, protein anions inside the neuron - na+ is found outside the neuron and K+ is found inside of the cell - there is a separation of positive and negative charges across a membrane - Na+ is found outside the neuron.
there is a separation of positive and negative charges across a membrane
Which of the following does not characterize proteins? - they may be denatured or coagulated by heat or acidity - they appear to be the molecular carriers of coded hereditary information - they have both functional and structural roles in the body. - their function depends on their three-dimensional shape
they appear to be the molecular carriers of coded hereditary information
Which of the following is not a characteristic of neurons? - they conduct impulses - they have an exceptionally high metabolic rate - they are mitotic - the have extreme longevity
they are mitotic
Identify the function of the structures labeled (2) in this image. - they communicate hearing information to the vestibulocochlear nerve - they conduct sound waves and amplify the vibrations within the middle ear - they sort waves by frequency - they detect sound waves in air
they conduct sound waves and amplify the vibrations within the middle ear
Which of the following is not true of graded potentials? - they can be called postsynaptic potentials - the are short-lived - they can form on receptor endings - they increase amplitude as they move away from the stimulus point
they increase amplitude as they move away from the stimulus point
If L = load, F = fulcrum, and E = effort, what type of lever system is described as LEF? - first-class lever - second-class lever - third-class lever - fourth-class lever
third-class lever
To what region of the vertebral column does this vertebra belong? - thoracic - lumbar - cervical - sacral
thoracic
which of these is not part of the dorsal cavity? - cranial cavity - thoracic cavity - spinal cord - vertebral cavity
thoracic cavity
How many ossicles are found in the ear? - two - three - four - five
three
Any stimulus at or above this level will result in action potential.
threshold stimulus
What level of structural organization is represented by the image numbered 5 in the figure? - tissue - organ - cell - organelle
tissue
What are the major functions of the intervertebral discs? - to prevent hyperextension and allow rotation of the spine - to remove curvatures of the spine and provide springiness to the spinal column - to absorb shock and provide flexibility to the spine - to hold together the vertebra and support the body
to absorb shock and provide flexibility to the spine
An enzyme known as acetylcholinesterase is present in the synaptic cleft. What is its role? - to break down acetylcholine - to facilitate the entrance of acetylcholine into the muscle cell - to pump Ca2+ back out of the axon terminal - to facilitated transport of acetylcholine across the cleft
to break down acetylcholine
What is the function of the structure at A? - to lubricate hair and prevent infection - to detect touch - to cool the body - to provide nourishment for the cells in the hair
to lubricate hair and prevent infection
Generally what is the result of the negative feedback process? - to keep the body's blood sugar level high - to maintain homeostasis - to control body movement - to regulate excretion via the kidneys
to maintain homeostasis
Which of these is not a function of the layer D? - to store energy - to insulate the body from heat loss - to loosely connect the skin to underlying tissue - to supply cells to replace those lost from the epidermis
to supply cells to replace those lost from the epidermis
Spongy bone contains _____. - trabeculae - lamellar bone - osteons - osseous lamellae
trabeculae
What process allows for the production of molecule B from a template consisting of the molecule A? - replication - transport - translation - transcription
transcription
______ is a powerful forearm extensor at the elbow joint. - brachioradialis - triceps brachii - biceps brachii - brachialis
triceps brachii
Choose which bone marking type would likely increase in size when a weight lifter repeatedly exercises muscles that attach to it. - fossa - trochanter - foramen - meatus
trochanter
Which of the following is a site for a muscle or ligament attachment? - sinus - foramen - fossa - trochanter - groove
trochanter
What is the role of tropomyosin in skeletal muscles? - tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the actin binding sites on the myosin molecules - tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the myosin binding sites on the actin molecules - tropomyosin is the chemical that activates the myosin heads - tropomyosin is the receptor for the motor neuron neurotransmitter
tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the myosin binding sites on the actin molecules
The interaction between which protein and ion initiates muscle coupling? - myosin; sodium ions - troponin; calcium ions - tropomyosin; calcium ions - troponin; sodium ions
troponin; calcium ions
A stimulus traveling toward a synapse appears to open calcium ion channels at the presynaptic end, which in turn promotes fusion of synaptic vesicles to the axonal membrane. T/F
true
Acetylcholine is released by all somatic motor neurons, all preganglionic neurons of the ANS and by the postganglionic parasympathetic nerve fibers. T/F?
true
All organic compounds contain carbon except CO2 and CO. T/F
true
Cell bodies of somatic motor neurons are located in the ventral (anterior) horn of the spinal cord. T/F?
true
Cerebrospinal fluid circulates within the ventricles of the brain and in the subarachnoid space. T/F?
true
Excitability is the ability of a cell to receive and respond to stimulus by changing its membrane potential. T/F?
true
Hinge joints permit movement in only one plane. True / False
true
If the neuron membrane becomes more permeable to Na+, Na+ will transport across the membrane, causing the cell to depolarize. T/F
true
In myelinated axons the voltage regulated sodium channels are concentrated at the nodes of ranvier. T/F?
true
Movement at the hip joint does not have as wide a range of motion as at the shoulder joint. T/F
true
Moving a limb so that it describes a cone in space is called circumduction. T/F
true
Muscle power depends mostly on the total number of muscle fibers (cells) in the muscle. T/F
true
One functional center found within the medulla oblongata is a respiratory center involved in the control of the rate and depth of breathing. T/F?
true
Opening K+ or Cl- channels in a postsynaptic membrane would produce an inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP). T/F
true
Some sympathetic preganglionic fibers stimulate the adrenal medulla to release norepinephrine and epinephrine into the blood, producing what is commonly called a "surge of adrenaline." T/F
true
The effect of the parasympathetic division on the penis is vasodilation causing erection, while ejaculation is due to sympathetic stimulation. T/F?
true
The function of the lens of the eye is to allow precise focusing of light on the retina. T/F?
true
The limbic system acts as our emotional, or affective, brain. T/F?
true
bundles of axons in the central nervous system are called tracts. T/F?
true
Phospholipids make up most of the lipid part of the cell membrane. Since water exists on both the outside and inside of a cell. which of the following phospholipid arrangements makes the most sense? - two back-to-back phospholipid layers with the non-polar tails facing out on both sides - a single layer of phospholipids with the polar heads facing outside the cell - two back-to-back phospholipid layers with the polar heads facing out on both sides - a single layer of phospholipids with the polar heads facing inside the cell
two back-to-back phospholipid layers with the polar heads facing out on both sides
Name the structure represented by (1). - vestibule - cochlea - tympanic membrane - auditory ossicles
tympanic membrane
Which of the following taste sensations is incorrectly matched to the chemicals that produce it? - umami- triglycerides and fatty acids - sweet- organic substances such as sugar and some lead salts - bitter- alkaloids - salty- metal ions - sour- acids
umami- triglycerides and fatty acids
Which of these materials or structures would be found in greatest amounts or numbers at E? - chemically gated sodium ion channels - vesicles containing neurotransmitter - the nucleolus - chromatophilic substance (nissl bodies)
vesicles containing neurotransmitter
Problems in balance may follow trauma to which nerve? A) abducens B) vestibulocochlear C) trigeminal D) accessory
vestibulocochlear
Which cranial nerve transmits auditory information? - vagus - vestibulocochlear - abducens - optic
vestibulocochlear
Visceral reflex arcs differ from somatic in that ________. - visceral arcs do not use integration centers - somatic arcs contain one additional component that visceral arcs do not posses - visceral arcs contain two sensory neurons - visceral arcs involve two motor neurons
visceral arcs involve two motor neurons
The only special sense not fully functional at birth is the sense of ________. - taste - equilibrium - smell - hearing - vision
vision
What is the main function of the rods in the eye? - accommodation for near vision - vision in dim light - depth perception - color vision
vision in dim light
Select the statement below that is not true with regards to the process of light adaption. - rhodopsin is uncoupled from light transduction - the activity of rods is reduced by rapid bleaching of rhodopsin - visual acuity is diminished - retinal sensitivity decreases
visual acuity is diminished
Which ion channel opens in response to a change in membrane potential and participates in the generation and conduction of action potentials? - mechanically-gated channels - leakage channel - voltage-gated channel - ligand-gated channel
voltage-gated channel
Immediately after an action potential has peaked, which of the following channels will open? - voltage-gated calcium channels - chemically-gated chloride channels - voltage-gated sodium channels - voltage-gated potassium channels
voltage-gated potassium channels
Bones do NOT have a role in __________. - blood cell formation - fat storage - support - movement - waste removal
waste removal
What are menisci (articular discs)? - small sacs containing synovial fluid - tendon sheaths - wedges of fibrocartilage that partially or completely divide the synovial cavity - cavities lined with cartilage
wedges of fibrocartilage that partially or completely divide the synovial cavity
Cranial bones develop ________. - from cartilage models - within fibrous membranes - from a tendon - within osseous membranes
within fibrous membranes
