Anatomy 1 Final

The deltoid is a prime mover of the arm that acts in adduction. T/F?

False

The hypothalamus is the area where afferent impulses from all senses and all parts of the body are sorted out and then relayed to the appropriate area of the sensory cortex. T/F?

False

The knee is proximal to the thigh. T/F?

False

The arrangement of a muscle's fascicles determines its range of motion and power. T/F

True

The autonomic nervous system may cause activation or inhibition, depending on the division that is active and the target. T/F

True

The collagen fibers of the osteoid make the overall bone matrix stronger by allowing it to resist bending and twisting forces. T/F?

True

The major function of DNA is to provide the genetic instructions for protein synthesis. T/F?

True

The mucous membrane that lines the eyelids and is reflected over the anterior surface of the eyeball is the conjunctiva. T/F?

True

The pinkish hue of individuals with fair skin is the result of the crimson color of oxygenated hemoglobin (contained in red blood cells) circulating in the dermal capillaries and reflecting through the epidermis. T/F?

True

The protein found in large amounts in the superficial layer of the epidermal cells is keratin. T/F?

True

The shock-absorbing pads between the vertebrae are formed of fibrocartilage. T/F?

True

The figure represents a wedge-shaped section of which structural unit of bone? - diploë - an osteon - central canal - trabeculae

an osteon

The stomach is _____ to the spine

anterior

If a muscle fiber were to suddenly and permanently stop producing ATP the fiber would no longer be able to actively transport calcium out of the cytoplasm (sarcoplasm) and the intracellular calcium concentration would rise. Which of the following would you expect to happen? - calcium would be transported to the sarcoplasmic reticulum therefore contractions would cease. - the fiber would twitch uncontrollably due to excessive calcium bound to troponin - myosin wold be able to bind to the exposed binding sites on thin filaments but it would not be able to detach - no change would occur in a muscle that was relaxed to begin with

myosin wold be able to bind to the exposed binding sites on thin filaments but it would not be able to detach

The vomer and ethmoid bones form part of the _____. - nasal septum - orbits - lateral walls of the nasal cavity - lacrimal fossa

nasal septum

commissural fibers connect the cerebrum to the diencephalon. T/F?

False

voltage gated na+ channels open

depolarization

A sarcomere is the distance between two ________.

z discs

Your patient is returning for follow-up 6 weeks after sustaining a nondisplaced fracture of his radius. He tells you that his forearm is no longer painful, but he is concerned that he can palpate a "lump" in the bone at the site of the healing fracture. what is your response? - "i'm concerned that your bone is not healing properly. Let's ask the doctor about doing some xrays" - "that lump may be a sign of infection. we need to obtain cultures from the site" - "the lump means that the fracture was not set properly. i'm concerned that the ends of the fracture aren't properly aligned" - "that bump is a normal part of bone healing at this stage. as your body completes the process, the cells in your bone will gradually remodel it to its previous shape."

"that bump is a normal part of bone healing at this stage. as your body completes the process, the cells in your bone will gradually remodel it to its previous shape."

Which of the following is a characteristic of the bone material at D but not of the material at B? - lamallae - osteocytes - osteons - an origin in mesenchyme

- osteons

The smallest contractile unit within skeletal muscle would correspond to the distance between which two points in the figure? - 3 and 5 - 1 and 3 - 1 and 7 - 2 and 6

1 and 7

How many bones make up the adult skull? - 12 - 7 - 5 - 22

22

How many lumbar vertebrae are there in a typical adult skeleton? - 4 - 5 - 7 - 12

5

The composition of the secretions of the eccrine glands is ________. - primarily uric acid - 99% water, sodium chloride, trace amounts of wastes, and vitamin C - metabolic wastes - fatty substances, proteins, antibodies, and trace amounts of minerals and vitamins

99% water, sodium chloride, trace amounts of wastes, and vitamin C

Which joint in the figure is capable of multiaxial movement? - a - b - d - e

A

Which set of membrane proteins in the figure depicts the transport of solute molecules? - A - B - C - D

A

The myosin filaments are located in the ________.

A band

Which step precedes all of the other listed steps? - The sarcoplasmic reticulum is activated. - An action potential starts on the sarcolemma. - Na+ rushes into the cell. - ACh is released by the motor neuron

ACh is released by the motor neuron

What is the primary energy-transferring molecule in cells? - ATP - RNA - Carbohydrates - DNA

ATP

what is the difference between active and passive transport across the plasma membrane? - active transport implies that the cell is working with other cells, whereas passive transport implies that the cells does not cooperate with other cells - active transport means that the cell is aggressively going after substances that it wants to bring into the cell, whereas passive transport means that the cell just waits for the substance to cross the membrane. - active transport is used to move substance down their concentration gradient, whereas passive transport is used to move substances against their concentration gradient - active transport is ATP dependent, whereas passive transport uses only the kinetic energy of the particles for movement across the plasma membrane.

Active transport is ATP dependent, whereas passive transport uses only the kinetic energy of the particles for movement across the plasma membrane.

What is the classification of a solution of NaOH with a pH of 8.3? - buffered solution - acidic solution - alkaline solution - neutral solution

Alkaline Solution

Which letter is pointing to an mRNA molecule? - A - B - C - D

B

Which of the following would be regarded as an organic molecule? - CO2 - H2O - NaOH - CH4

CH4

Which of the following is most directly required to initiate the coupling of myosin to actin? - Ca++ - atp - ACh - glucose

Ca++

This is an elaborate network of rods and accessory proteins found in the cytosol that support cellular structures and provide the machinery to generate various cell movements, as well as provide the roads for vesicular trafficking.

Cytoskeleton

Which set of membrane proteins in the figure depicts an interaction between two separate cells? - A - B - C - D

D

Select the most correct statement regarding nucleic acids. - DNA is a long, double stranded molecule made up of A, T, G, and C base - three forms exist, DNA, RNA, and tDNA - tDNA is considered a 'molecular slave' of DNA during protein synthesis - RNA is a long, single stranded molecule made up of the bases A, T, G, and C

DNA is a long, double stranded molecule made up of A, T, G, and C

Controls the body with chemical molecules called hormones

Endocrine system

ATP is required to cause the power stroke in the myosin head. T/F?

False

Adipose tissue is made up of pseudostratified columnar epithelial cells. T/F?

False

All joints permit some degree of movement, even if very slight. T/F

False

All muscle cells contain striations. T/F?

False

All vertebrae possess a body, a spine, and transverse foramina. T/F

False

Although all skeletal muscles have different shapes, the fascicle arrangement of each muscle is exactly the same. T/F

False

As light hits the retina, the first structure the light encounters is a rod or a cone. T/F?

False

Because many of the same cardiac cells are innervated by both parasympathetic and sympathetic fibers, the influence of the two divisions on the heart is synergistic, meaning contraction is strongest when both divisions act together. T/F?

False

Because of its many direct articulations with the axial skeleton, the pectoral girdle is very stable. T/F?

False

Both first- and second-class levers operate at a mechanical disadvantage. T/F

False

CNS nerve fibers regenerate because of the actions of Schwann cells. T/F?

False

Cartilage has good regenerative capacity, while most epithelial tissues do not. T/F?

False

Cells in the stratum corneum undergo mitosis to keep the layer thick and protective. T/F?

False

Contraction of the ciliary muscle causes the lens to bend the light less. T/F?

False

DNA transcription is another word for DNA replication. T/F?

False

During isometric contraction, the energy used appears as movement. T/F?

False

Elastic cartilage tissue is found in the walls of the large arteries that leave the heart. T/F?

False

Epithelial cells contain both blood vessels and nerve fibers. T/F?

False

Intercalated discs and striations are both characteristics of skeletal muscle. T/F?

False

Joe burned himself on a hot pot, and the burn is quite painful. Joe's burn would best be described as a third-degree burn. T/F?

False

Lordosis affects the thoracic vertebrae. T/F

False

Nervous tissue consists mainly of neurons and collagen fibers. T/F?

False

New portions of a nail are produced at the cuticle. T/F?

False

Norepinephrine-releasing fibers are called cholinergic fibers. T/F?

False

Once a motor neuron has fired, all the muscle fibers in a muscle contract. T/F?

False

Short, irregular and flat bones have medullary cavities in order to keep the weight of the bones light. T/F?

False

Somatic and visceral reflex arcs are similar, but visceral reflex arcs lack afferent fibers (visceral sensory neurons). T/F

False

Sorting of sensory information and relaying it to the appropriate cerebral sensory area occurs in the hypothalamus. T/F?

False

Sound is generally perceived in the occipital lobe of the cerebral cortex. T/F?

False

Strong stimuli cause the amplitude of action potentials generated to increase. T/F

False

The ANS stimulates smooth muscles, skeletal muscles, and glands, whereas the somatic nervous system innervates skeletal muscles only. T/F?

False

The anterior chamber of the eye is filled with vitreous humor. T/F?

False

The canal connecting the third and fourth ventricles and running through the midbrain is the interventricular foramen. T/F?

False

The major difference in autonomic reflex arcs is that there are two sensory afferents. T/F?

False

The most important factor in joint stability is the depth of the articular surface. T/F?

False

The neural layer of the retina prevents excessive scattering of light within the eye. T/F

False

The periosteum is a tissue that serves only to protect the bone because it is not supplied with nerves or blood vessels. T/F?

False

The pituitary gland is housed in a saddle like depression in the temporal bone called the sella turcica? T/F?

False

The sensory division of the PNS is also known as the efferent division. T/F

False

The skin is not able to receive stimuli because the cells of the epidermis are not living and therefore there are no sensory receptors in the skin. T/F?

False

The sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS have the same effect on most body organ systems. T/F

False

The wrist joint can exhibit adduction and eversion movements? T/F?

False

Triglycerides are a poor source of stored energy. T/F?

False

Unlike the sympathetic division, the parasympathetic division synapses with the adrenal medulla. T/F?

False

When a patient is said to have "third-degree burns", this indicates that the patient has burns that cover approximately one-third or more of the body. T/F?

False

phagocytosis is used by the cells to secrete intracellular substances to the outside of the cell. T/F?

False

This organelle modifies, concentrates, and packages the proteins and lipids made at the RER for domestic use or export.

Golgi Apparatus

the _____ contains only the actin filaments

I band

Prevents water loss, entry of germs into the body and synthesizes vitamin D.

Integumentary system

A functional organ system which provides a means of protecting us from foreign invaders

Lymphatic system

Sympathetic responses generally are widespread because ________. - preganglionic fibers are short - NE and epinephrine are secreted into the blood as part of the sympathetic response - inactivation of ACh is fairly slow - pregangionic fibers are long

NE and epinephrine are secreted into the blood as part of the sympathetic response

Responds to environmental changes by transmitting electrical impulses

Nervous system

The vast majority of the cell's genetic material is housed here.

Nucleus

This organelle contains oxidases and catalases

Peroxisomes

The organelle that facilitates peptide bond formation between amino acids

Ribosomes

Provides a ridged framework to support the body and stores minerals

Skeletal system

A post synaptic potential is a graded potential that is the result of a neurotransmitter released into the synapse between two neurons. T/F

TRUE

Why is the figure considered to be an example of a negative feedback system, as opposed to a positive feedback system? - the figure illustrates the correction of an imbalance back to a baseline - the figure shows the detection of an imbalance - the figure includes an efferent pathway - A central nervous system regulator is regulating the response

The figure illustrates the correction of fan imbalance back to a baseline

Which response provides the best explanation as to why ionic compounds easily dissociate in water? - nonpolar organic molecules such as fats and waxes dissolve well in water - the polarity of water easily breaks the charges between the oppositely charged ions in the compound - the polarity of water allows it to easily dissociate most covalently bound compounds - as a polar molecule, water cannot easily dissociate inorganic compounds

The polarity of water easily breaks the charges between the oppositely charged ions in the compound.

A ball-and-socket joint is a multiaxial joint. T/F?

True

A contraction in which the muscle does not shorten but its tension increases is called isometric contraction. T/F?

True

A skeletal muscle contracts with varying force and length of time in response to the body's needs at the time. T/F?

True

A smooth muscle has a central nucleus but lacks striations. T/F?

True

A tissue consists of groups of similar cells that have a common function. T/F?

True

A wheelbarrow is a good example of a second-class lever. T/F?

True

ATP is an unstable, high-energy molecule that provides body cells with a form of energy that is immediately usable. T/F?

True

All epithelia have two surfaces, an apical surface and a basal surface, that differ in both structure and function. This property is called polarity. T/F?

True

All salts are ionic compounds, but not all ionic compounds are salts. T/F

True

An increase in the calcium ion level in the sarcoplasm starts the sliding of the thin filaments. When the level of calcium ions declines, sliding stops. T/F?

True

An osteon contains osteocytes, lamellae, and a central canal, and is found in compact bone only. T/F?

True

As the ciliary muscle relaxes, the suspensory ligaments tighten and stretch the lens, allowing for distance vision. T/F?

True

Autonomic ganglia are sites of synapse and information transmission from preganglionic to post ganglionic neurons. T/F

True

Axon diameter and degree of myelination determine nerve impulse conduction velocity. T/F?

True

Bending of the tip of the finger exhibits flexion. True or False

True

Blood is considered a type of connective tissue. T/F

True

Cell bodies of sensory neurons may be located in ganglia lying outside the central nervous system. T/F?

True

Costal cartilages join most ribs to the sternum. T/F

True

Dividing cells must pass through the phases of mitosis the following order: Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, and Telophase. T/F?

True

During depolarization, the inside of the neuron's membrane becomes less negative. T/F

True

Each daughter cell resulting from mitotic cell division has exactly the same genetic composition. T/F?

True

For a doctor, simply looking at a patient's skin can help in making a diagnosis. T/F?

True

Functions of connective tissues include binding, support, insulation, and protection. T/F?

True

Glucose is an example of a monosaccharide. T/F

True

Glycogen, the storage form of glucose, is primarily stored in skeletal muscle and liver cells. T/F

True

In order for sound to reach the spiral organ (of Corti), the auditory ossicles must vibrate the oval window and set the endolymph in motion. T/F?

True

In the anatomical position, the lateral forearm bone is the radius. T/F?

True

In the muscles of the limbs, the origin is usually the immobile muscle attachment. T/F?

True

Light passes through the entire thickness of the neural layer of the retina to excite the photoreceptors. T/F?

True

Lysosomes perform digestive functions within a cell. T/F?

True

One of the functions of skeletal muscle contraction is production of heat. T/F

True

Positive feedback mechanisms tend to enhance the original stimulus so that the response is accelerated. T/F?

True

Regardless of type, all levers follow the same basic principle: effort farther than load from fulcrum = mechanical advantage; effort nearer than load to fulcrum = mechanical disadvantage. T/F

True

Simple cuboidal epithelia are usually found in areas where secretion and absorption occur. T/F?

True

Sour taste receptors are stimulated by hydrogen ions of acidic food substances. T/F?

True

Squamous cells are flattened and scalelike when mature. T/F?

True

Supination is the movement of the forearm in which the palm of the hand is turned anteriorly or superiorly. T/F?

True

The acidity of a solution reflects the concentration of free hydrogen ions in the solution. T/F

True

The action potential is caused by permeability changes in the plasma membrane. T/F

True

The amount of movement permitted by a particular joint is the basis for the functional classification of that joint. T/F

True

The anterior compartment of the thigh is involved in lower leg extension. T/F

True

The dense fibrous connective tissue portion of the skin is located in the reticular region of the dermis. T/F?

True

The dermis contains blood vessels and nerve fibers while the epidermis does not. T/F?

True

The femur is the largest and strongest bone in the body. T/F?

True

The force of muscle contraction is controlled by multiple motor unit summation or recruitment. T/F?

True

The ischium articulates with both the ilium and the pubis forming the acetabulum. T/F?

True

The lower the pH, the higher the hydrogen ion concentration. T/F

True

The skin cancer most likely to metastasize is cancer of the melanocytes. T/F?

True

The term osteoid refers to the organic part of the matrix of compound bones without mineralization. T/F?

True

There are seven cervical, twelve thoracic, and five lumbar vertebrae. T/F?

True

When a muscle fiber contracts, the I bands diminish in size, the H zones disappear, and the A bands move closer together but do not diminish in length. T/F?

True

Without a functioning crista ampullaris, the semicircular canals would not function. T/F?

True

epithelial tissues always exhibit polarity; that is, they have a free surface and a basal surface. T/F?

True

gliding movements occur when one flat, or nearly flat bone surface glides or slips over another. T/F

True

interstitial fluid represents one type of extracellular material. T/F?

True

movement of the ankle so that the superior aspect of the foot approaches the shin is called dorsiflexion. T/F?

True

the optic disc forms a blind spot where the optic nerve leaves the eyeball. T/F?

True

Identify the muscle responsible for depressing the eye and turning it laterally. - a - b - c - d

a

Identify the neuron that is last in the transmission pathway of light information, given the cells shown in this image. - a - b - c - d

a

Which letter represents the cervical curvature? - a - b - c - d

a

Which of the neuralgial cell types shown form myelin sheaths within the CNS? - a - b - c - f

a

Which part of the inner ear houses receptors for rotational (angular) movement of the head? - a - b - c - d

a

The molecular interaction described as a cross bridge involves the binding of which two proteins? - b and d - a and b - a and c - a and d

a and c

Both actin and myosin are found in the ________.

a band

If the ventral root of a spinal nerve were cut, what would be the result in the tissue or region that nerve supplies? - a complete loss of voluntary movement - a complete loss of sensation - loss of neither sensation nor movement but only of autonomic control - a complete loss of sensation and movement

a complete loss of voluntary movement

What is the structure indicated by label E? - a dermal papilla - the hypodermis - a hair root - the stratum corneum

a dermal papilla

Crenation (shrinking) is likely to occur in blood cells immersed in _____ - blood plasma - a hypotonic solution - an isotonic solution - a hypertonic solution

a hypertonic solution

Most skeletal muscles contain ________. - muscle fibers of the same type - a mixture of fiber types - a predominance of slow oxidative fibers- a predominance of fast oxidative fibers

a mixture of fiber types

A patient voices concern that her normal cholesterol level is dangerous. "I eat no cholesterol at all. That stuff is toxic!" she declares. what is your best response? - if you remove all fat from your diet, you may be able to lower your cholesterol even further, - make sure that you read food labels carefully. Even frozen vegetables can be loaded with cholesterol. - be glad that your levels are normal. most of our patients have levels that are much too high. - a normal cholesterol level is a good thing. your cells depend on cholesterol to stay healthy, and you can't make vital hormones without it.

a normal cholesterol level is a good thing. your cells depend on cholesterol to stay healthy, and you can't make vital hormones without it.

which of the following describes the plasma membrane? - a phospholipid bilayer surrounding the cell - a double layer of protein enclosing the plasma - a membrane composed of tiny shelves or cristae - a single-layered membrane that surrounds the nucleus of a cell

a phospholipid bilayer surrounding the cell

if a postsynaptic cell is stimulated to threshold by temporal summation this implies that _____. - a presynaptic neuron is sending frequent epsp - the postsynaptic cell is sending frequent action potential - the postsynaptic cell can be influenced by only one presynaptic cell - the presynaptic neuron is sending frequent ipsp

a presynaptic neuron is sending frequent epsp

Homeostasis is the condition in which the body maintains - a static state with no deviation from preset points - a relatively stable internal environment, within limits - the lowest possible energy usage - a dynamic state within an unlimited range, depending on circumstances

a relatively stable internal environment, within limits

A gene can best be defined as ________. - noncoding segments of DNA up to 100,000 nucleotides long - a segment of DNA that carries the instructions for one polypeptide chain - an RNA messenger that codes for a particular polypeptide - a three-base triplet that specifies a particular amino acid

a segment of DNA that carries the instructions for one polypeptide chain

Color vision has much greater resolution than night vision (vision that is mostly in shades of gray). Which of the following is the best explanation for why this is so? - there are several types of cone photoreceptors, each of which enrich the clarity and resolution of vision - a larger proportion of the brain's visual cortex is active during the day when our cone photoreceptors are the most active - a single cone photoreceptor often connects to a single bipolar cell and a single ganglion cell while as many as 100 rods will converge on a single ganglion cell - there are many more cone photoreceptors in the eye than rod photoreceptors

a single cone photoreceptor often connects to a single bipolar cell and a single ganglion cell while as many as 100 rods will converge on a single ganglion cell

Which of the following will occur when an excitatory postsynaptic potential (epsp)is being generated on the dendritic membrane? - specific potassium gates will open - specific sodium gates will open - a single type of channel will open, permitting simultaneous flow of sodium and potassium - sodium gates will open first, then close as potassium gates open

a single type of channel will open, permitting simultaneous flow of sodium and potassium

Which of the following is not an example of a fibrous joint? - a suture - a syndesmosis - a symphysis - a gomphosis

a symphysis

What typeof muscle assists an agonist by causing a like movement or by stabilizing a joint over which an agonist acts? - a synergist - a prime mover - an agonist - an antagonist

a synergist

Which of the following does not describe the ANS? - involuntary nervous system - general visceral motor system - a system of motor neurons that innervates smooth and cardiac muscle and glands - a system of motor neurons that innervates all muscle cells

a system of motor neurons that innervates all muscle cells

Which type of lever is exemplified by the flexing of the forearm by the biceps brachii muscle? - a first-class lever - a second-class lever - a third-class lever - a fourth-class lever

a third-class lever

What type of event is required for an action potential to be generated? - multiple stimuli - repolarization to resting membrane potential - a threshold level depolarization - hyperpolarization

a threshold level depolarization

an action potential is regarded as an example of a positive feedback. which of the following examples below best illustrates the positive feedback aspect of an action potential? - voltage gated potassium ion channels open slowly and remain open long enough to cause hyperpolarization - a threshold stimulus will cause the opening of voltage gated sodium ion channels that will cause further depolarizing stimulus. this stimulus will open still more voltage gated sodium ion channels - the sodium potassium pump consistently moves ions as long as ATP is available, and regardless of membrane potential changes - potassium permeability is about 25 times greater than sodium ions

a threshold stimulus will cause the opening of voltage gated sodium ion channels that will cause further depolarizing stimulus. this stimulus will open still more voltage gated sodium ion channels

What differentiates an autonomic reflex from a somatic reflex? - presence of a sensory receptor - a two-neuron motor pathway - an integration center - a single sensory neuron in the sensory pathway

a two-neuron motor pathway

Which of the following cranial nerves carries only motor information? - trigeminal - optic - abducens - olfactory

abducens

What is moving a limb away from the median plane of the body along the frontal plane called? - extension - flexion - adduction - abduction

abduction

Performing "jumping jacks" requires ________. - Inversion and eversion - Abduction and adduction - Pronation and supination - Flexion and extension

abduction and adduction

In a person who is color-blind, which of the following would you most expect to see? - a loss of functions in the rods of their retina - a loss of their peripheral vision - an inability to regenerate 11-cis-retinal after bleaching - absence of green or red cones in their foveae

absence of green or red cones in their foveae

Which of the following is not a role of connective tissue? - insulation - absorption - transport - support

absorption

Which of the following is an excitatory neurotransmitter secreted by motor neurons innervating skeletal muscle? - norepinephrine - gamma aminobutyric acid - acetylcholine - cholinestrerase

acetylcholine

a neurotransmitter released at motor end plates by the axon terminals

acetylcholine

Breaks down ACh into its building blocks, rendering it ineffective.

acetylcholinesterase

After nervous stimulation stops, what prevents ACh in the synaptic cleft from continuing to stimulate contraction? - calcium ions returning to the terminal cisternae - the action potential stops going down the overloaded T tubules - acetylcholinesterase breaks apart the ACh - the tropomyosin blocking the myosin once full contraction is achieved

acetylcholinesterase breaks apart the ACh

Tendon sheaths ________. - act as friction-reducing structures - are lined with dense irregular connective tissue - are extensions of the periosteum - help anchor the tendon to the muscle

act as friction-reducing structures

Which protein is indicated by the letter A? - keratin - troponin - actin - myosin

actin

The sliding filament model of contraction involves ______. - actin and myosin lengthening in order to slide past each other - the shortening of thick filaments so that thin filaments slide past - actin and myosin sliding past each other and partially overlapping - the z discs sliding over the myofilaments

actin and myosin sliding past each other and partially overlapping

During muscle contraction, myosin cross bridges attach to which active sites? - z discs - thick filaments - actin filaments - myosin filaments

actin filaments

Which of the following mechanisms is most significant in returning the ion concentrations to the resting state (from point D to point E)? - the closing of leakage channels in the axon membrane - the opening of voltage gated na+ channels - active transport by the na+-k+ pump - the opening of voltage-gated K+ channels

active transport by the na+-k+ pump

Which of the following muscles is named for its action? - biceps brachii - gluteus minimus - frontalis - adductor longus

adductor longus

Which of the following is the major component of the part of the bone labeled E? - adipose tissue - blood - osseous tissue - dense connective tissue

adipose tissue

Which target organ is NOT affected by the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system (ANS)? - lungs - heart - liver - adrenal medulla

adrenal medulla

Nerves that carry impulses toward the CNS only are ________. - afferent nerves - mixed nerves - motor nerves - efferent nerves

afferent nerves

In the classification of joints, which of the following is true? - immovable joints are called amphiarthroses - synarthrotic joints are slightly movable - in cartilaginous joints, a joint cavity is present - all synovial joints are freely movable

all synovial joints are freely movable

In connective tissue, the role of elastic fibers is to _____. - provide high tensile strength - retain fluid - allow the tissue to stretch and recoil - form delicate networks around blood vessels

allow the tissue to stretch and recoil

Articulations permitting only slight degrees of movement are ________. - amphiarthroses - synovial joints - synarthroses - diarthroses

amphiarthroses

Which of the following refers to a joint that is slightly movable? - amphiarthrosis - synarthrosis - synovial - diarthrosis

amphiarthrosis

Name the structure located in the enlarged swellings in the tubes at A? - macula - basilar membrane - ampulla - spiral organ

ampulla

The blind spot of the eye is caused by ______. - an absence of photoreceptors where the optic nerve leaves the eye - the macula lutea interrupts the nerve pathway - an absence of cones in the foveae - more rods than cones within the retina

an absence of photoreceptors where the optic nerve leaves the eye

What is a muscle that provides the major force for producing a specific movement called? - a fixator - an antagonist - an agonist (prime mover) - a synergist

an agonist (prime mover)

Which of the following describes a bipennate pattern of fascicles - an arrangement of five fascicles on each side of the tendon - an arrangement that looks like many feathers side by side - an arrangement in which the fascicles insert into only one side of a tendon - an arrangement in which the fascicles insert into the tendon from opposite sides

an arrangement in which the fascicles insert into the tendon from opposite sides

What would be the physical sign that a bone cannot continue longitudinal growth? - the presence of osteoblasts - the presence of hyaline cartilage on the ends of the bone - an epiphyseal line - the presence of osteons

an epiphyseal line

A muscle that opposes, or reverses, a particular movement is a(n) ________. - fixator - synergist - antagonist - agonist (prime mover)

antagonist

which functional group has the major responsibility for countering a specific movement? - antagonists - agonists - fixators - synergists

antagonists

Transduction of lower frequency sound waves occurs at the __________ of the cochlea. - apex - middle - proximal end - base

apex

During bone growth, which significant event occurs at the surface indicated by the letter C? - bone resorption - appositional growth - expansion of the articular cartilage - conversion of spongy bone to compact bone

appositional growth

The process of bones increasing in thickness is known as ________. - epiphyseal plate closure - appositional growth - closing of the epiphyseal plate - concentric growth

appositional growth

The subarachnoid space lies between what two layers of meninges? - arachnoid and pia - arachnoid and dura - arachnoid and epidura - dura and epidura

arachnoid and pia

Which protective covering of the brain provides passageways for cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) to drain into the superior sagittal sinus? - arachnoid matter - pia mater - membraneous part of the dura mater - periosteal part of the dura mater

arachnoid mater

Synarthrotic joints ____. - have large joint cavities - are immovable joints - characterize all cartilaginous joints - are found only in adults

are immovable joints

Layer B is composed primarily of ______. - simple squamous epithelium - dense irregular connective tissue - areolar connective tissue - dense regular connective tissue

areolar connective tissue

Structures C and D collectively form which of the following? - synovial membrane - ligament - articular capsule - bursae

articular capsule

Identify the type of tract that communicates between the left prefrontal love and the left parietal lobe - association - projection - commissural

association

The concentration of ions in the chemical environment surrounding the neurons must be tightly regulated for neurons to function properly. Which of the following cells is most responsible for this? - schwann cells - oligodendrocytes - astrocytes - satellite cells

astrocytes

Which of the following would be a sign of a melanoma? - uniform coloration - asymmetry - a size smaller than 6 mm - regular borders

asymmetry

Which of the following is the best explanation of why it is difficult to discriminate the color of an object at night? - as many as 100 cones may converge on one ganglion cell - at night, the amount of light entering the eye is insufficient to stimulate the cone cells but is sufficient to stimulate the rod cells - the foveae are densely packed with cones - cones come in three types, each sensitive to different wavelengths of light.

at night, the amount of light entering the eye is insufficient to stimulate the cone cells but is sufficient to stimulate the rod cells

Which vertebra does not have a body? - axis - atlas - last cervical - last lumbar

atlas

Which of the following is the regional term that includes the head? - superior - axial - appendicular - coronal

axial

A middle ear infection (otitis media) would be located in which region? - a - b - c

b

At which point of the illustrated action potential would voltage-gated Na+ channels be mostly open but voltage-gated K+ channels be mostly closed? - a - b - c - d

b

In which of the labeled parts of the adult long bone would hematopoietic tissue be located? - a - b - c - d - e

b

In which phase of the muscle twitch shown in the figure would be the maximum amount of ATP be consumed by myosin head groups? - a - b -c

b

Which of the structures is surrounded by the connective tissue sheath known as the perimysium? - a - b - c - d

b

Which structure in the figure is the primary area of degeneration in osteoarthritis? - a - b - c - d

b

identify the choroid. - a - b - c - d

b

which of the following corresponds to a single fascicle? - a - b - c - d

b

What pathway(s) compose the autonomic nervous system? - a only - b only - c only - b and c

b and c

Assume the the triangular and circular molecules shown in the illustration represent specific neurotransmitters. which of the following best describes the effect on the heart of neurotransmitters released from the postganglionic neurons of B and C? - b and c would act in synergy to decrease heart rate and contraction force - b would increase heart rate, while c would decrease it - b and c would act in synergy to increase heart rate and contraction force - c would increase heart rate, while b would decrease it

b would increase heart rate, while c would decrease it

Identify the correct sequence of the following events. A. myosin generates a power stroke. B. Ca++ binds to troponin. C. ATP recharges the myosin head. D. Troponin removes tropomyosin from G actin. E. the sarcomere shortens. F. myosin binds to actin. - a,b,c,d,e,f - d,b,f,c,a,e - b,d,f,a,e,c - b,f,a,c,e,d - f,a,c,e,d,b - e,c,a,b,d,f

b,d,f,a,e,c

Your patient is upset to learn that the biopsy of a lesion on her skin is consistent with basal cell carcinoma. She has heard that skin cancer can be deadly. Which response to her distress is the most appropriate? - You are right to be concerned, but I'm sure your doctor will order scans to determine if the cancer has spread - basal cell carcinoma rarely spreads to other tissues. removal of the lesion is curative in 99% of cases. - basal cell cancers are aggressive, but immunotherapy is promising for many patients - removal of the lesion will almost certainly rid you of the cancer, and then you ca continue your life as usual.

basal cell carcinoma rarely spreads to other tissues. removal of the lesion is curative in 99% of cases

A splinter penetrated into the skin of the sole of the foot, almost to the papillary region of the dermis. Which layer of the epidermis would be the final layer injured? - basale - granulosum - spinosum - lucidum

basale

Which statement accurately describes the event indicated by B? - binding of acetylcholine to a receptor triggers the opening of an ion channel - diffusion of Ca2+ into the muscle fiber triggers the diffusion of acetylcholine out of the muscle fiber - diffusion of acetylcholine into the muscle fiber triggers the opening of an ion channel - the binding of acetylcholine directly causes the formation of a wave depolarization

binding of acetylcholine to a receptor triggers the opening of an ion channel

Which is the most atypical connective tissue since it neither connects structures nor provides structural support? - cartilage - blood - osseous - areolar connective tissue

blood

Which of the following is not found in cartilage but is found in bone? - living cells - blood vessels - lacunae - organic fibers

blood vessels

The central (Haversian) canal that runs through the core of each osteon is the site of ______. - cartilage and interstitial lamellae - adipose tissue and nerve fibers - yellow marrow and spicules - blood vessels and nerve fibers

blood vessels and nerve fibers

What tissue has lacunae, calcium salts, and blood vessels? - bone (osseous tissue) - fibrocartilaginous tissue - cartilage tissue - areolar tissue

bone (osseous tissue)

Which structure is seen at the arrow? - bone collar - periosteal bud - epiphyseal plate - periosteum

bone collar

Which of the following is a feature of synovial joints? - bone ends covered with hyaline cartilage - bone ends covered with fibrocartilage - the bones are connected exclusively by ligaments - a bar or plate of hyaline cartilage unites the bones

bone ends covered with hyaline cartilage

Which of the following bones are part of the axial skeleton? - bones of the lower limbs - bones of the pectoral girdles - bones of the pelvic girdle - bones of the face

bones of the face

Which of the following would not be a correct characteristic of melanoma? - asymmetry - border regularity - diameter of 12 mm - color that is dark black or brown

border regularity

Which areas of this neuron would be classified as receptive regions? - d only - e only - both a and b - both a and e

both a and b

Which of the following statements is true of both membrane potential responses shown in the graphs? - both responses are examples of action potentials - both responses are examples of graded potentials - both responses are examples of excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs) - both responses are examples of inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs)

both responses are examples of graded potentials

The dorsal cavity is the site of which of the following? - brain - lungs - intestines - liver

brain

The term central nervous system refers to the ______. - spinal nerves - brain and spinal cord - sensory (afferent) nerves - somatic nerves

brain and spinal cord

The primary function of the deep muscles of the thorax, such as the intercostals, is to promote _______. - swallowing - back posture - vomiting - breathing

breathing

Connective tissue sacs lined with synovial membrane that act as cushions in places where friction develops are called _______. - menisci - tendons - ligaments - bursae

bursae

Which of the following is one difference between bursae and tendon sheaths? - bursae are only found in synovial joints, while tendon sheaths are only found in fibrous joints - bursae contain a thin film of synovial fluid, while tendon sheaths lack synovial fluid altogether - bursae serve as cushioning fat pads between adjacent structures, while tendon sheaths reduce friction between adjacent structures - bursae are flattened fibrous sacs wedged between adjacent structures, while tendon sheaths are elongated fibrous sacs that wrap around tendons

bursae are flattened fibrous sacs wedged between adjacent structures, while tendon sheaths are elongated fibrous sacs that wrap around tendons

In the epiphyseal plate, cartilage grows _____. - in a circular fashion - by pulling the diaphysis toward the epiphysis - by pushing the epiphysis away from the diaphysis - from the edges inward

by pushing the epiphysis away from the diaphysis

Identify the layer that contains both a single-celled pigmented layer and a neural layer. - a - b - c - d

c

Identify the type of neuronal cell that detects bright light and provides high-resolution color vision. - a - b - c - d

c

In which phase in the figure would the net movement of Ca2+ into the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) be greatest? - a - b - c

c

Pregnant women may experience an exaggerated lordosis, or 'swayback.' which curvature is affected during pregnancy? - a - b - c -d

c

Which layer is composed primarily of dense irregular connective tissue? - a - b - c - d

c

Which letter indicates structures involved in detection of BOTH hearing and equilibrium? - a - b - c - d

c

Which protein functions as a motor protein in all three types of muscle tissue? - a - b - c - d

c

Which structure in the figure corresponds to a single skeletal muscle cell? - a - b - c - d

c

Which structure is a type of sweat gland? - a - b - c - d

c

Which of the following membrane regions would have significant numbers of voltage-gated ion channels? - a only - d only - a and b - c and d

c and d

The ventral cavity includes which of the indicated subdivisions in the figure? - a and b - c and d - d and e - c, d, and e

c, d, and e

What ion is entering the axon terminal at A, and what effect does it have? - na+, which then causes repolarization of the axon terminal's membrane - k+, which then causes increased production of neurotransmitter - neurotransmitter, which then causes the presynaptic neuron to form an action potential - ca2+, which then causes release of neurotransmitter from the axon terminal

ca2+, which then causes release of neurotransmitter from the axon terminal

Activates synaptic vesicles in axon terminals to fuse with plasma membrane of axon terminal.

calcium ions

The final chemical messenger and "trigger" for muscle contraction. it binds to troponin.

calcium ions

Which tissues have little to no functional regenerative capacity? - nervous tissue and bone - cardiac muscle and nervous tissue - cardiac and smooth muscle - epithelial tissue and areolar connective tissue

cardiac muscle and nervous tissue

Delivers oxygen and nutrients to the tissues

cardiovascular system

Saddle joints have concave and convex surfaces. Identify the saddle joint of the skeleton. - carpometacarpal joint of the thumb - metacarpophalangeal joint of the finger - interphalangeal joint of the finger - carpometacarpal joint of the phalanges

carpometacarpal joint of the thumb

What tissue forms the model for endochondrial ossification? - fascia - fibrous membrane - cartilage - bone

cartilage

A joint held together by fibrocartilage would be classified as a __________ joint. - cartilaginous - fibrous - amphiarthrosis - synovial

cartilaginous

Synchondroses and symphyses are examples of ______ joints. - fibrous - synovial - cartilaginous - periodontal

cartilaginous

Which of the following is not a functional classification for joints? - diarthrosis - synarthrosis - amphiarthrosis - cartilaginous

cartilaginous

Which of these terms best categorizes the joints in the figure? - synovial joints - fibrous joints - cartilaginous joints

cartilaginous joints

Which of the following statements defines synchondroses? - cartilaginous joints where hyaline cartilage unites the ends of bones - joints that permit angular movements - interphalangeal joints - amphiarthrotic joints designed for strength and flexibility

cartilaginous joints where hyaline cartilage unites the ends of bones

The blood vessels and nerve in the figure are found within which type of space? - perforating (volkmann's) canal - canaliculi - central (haversian) canal - marrow cavity

central (haversian) canal

What groove separates the frontal lobe from the parietal lobe? - lateral fissure - longitudinal fissure - parieto-occipital sulcus - central sulcus

central sulcus

What is the groove indicated by C? - transverse fissure - lateral sulcus - central sulcus - longitudinal sulcus

central sulcus

Which part of the brain processes inputs received from the cerebral motor cortex, brain stem nuclei, and various sensory receptors, and then uses this information to coordinate balance, posture, and somatic movement problems? - thalamus - pons - cerebellum - diencephalon

cerebellum

The arbor vitae refers to ________. A) cerebellar gray matter B) cerebellar white matter C) the pleatlike convolutions of the cerebellum D) flocculonodular nodes

cerebral white matter

The phrenic nerve is a branch from the ______. - vagus nerve - brachial plexus - cervical plexus - thoracic spinal cord

cervical plexus

In an isotonic contraction, the muscle ______. - changes in length and moves the "load" - never converts pyruvate to lactate - does not change in length but increases tension - rapidly resynthesizes creatine phosphate and ATP

changes in length and moves the "load"

How would the receptors at C best be classified? - mechanically gated - voltage gated - chemically gated

chemically gated

What event at letter B leads to elongation of the bone? - conversion of bone into cartilage - chondrocyte hypertrophy and deterioration - calcification of the cartilage matrix - formation of compact bone

chondrocyte hypertrophy and deterioration

What CNS-associated structure is illustrated in this figure? - arachnoid villus - hypothalamus - cerebral aqueduct - choroid plexus

choroid plexus

Receptors for hearing are located in the ________. - semicircular canals - cochlea - vestibule - tympanic membrane

cochlea

The fiber type that gives connective tissue great tensile strength is ________. - elastic - reticular - muscle - collagen

collagen

The reason that intervertebral discs exhibit a large amount of tensile strength, which allows them to absorb shock, is because the possess ______. - hydroxyapatite crystals - elastic fibers - collagen fibers - reticular fibers

collagen fibers

which of the following statements is true of connective tissue? - elastin fibers are sometimes called white fibers. - reticular fibers from thick ropelike structures - when connective tissue is stretched, collagen gives it the ability to snap back - collagen fibers provides high tensile strength

collagen fibers provides high tensile strength

Humans can see several thousand shades of color but have cone photoreceptors that are sensitive to only three (perhaps four) wavelengths of light. What is the best explanation for why we see so many colors? - shades of color are purely psychological and learned by association with age, infants only seeing in black and white - color perception is achieved by activation of various combinations between the three cone types - colors are added and enhanced in the primary visual cortex of the brain - color perception is dependent on the millions of rods as well as cone photoreceptors

color perception is achieved by activation of various combinations between the three cone types

The sciatic nerve is a combination of which two nerves? - pudendal and common fibular - posterior femoral cutaneous and tibial - common fibular and tibial - pudendal and posterior femoral cutaneous

common fibular and tibial

Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system? - communication - support - production of blood cells (hematopoiesis) - storage of minerals

communication

Which of the following are correctly matched? - compound fracture; the fractured bone ends penetrate the skin - nondisplaced fracture; the fractured bone ends are misaligned - incomplete fracture; the bone is broken through - linear fracture; the break is perpendicular to the bone's long axis

compound fracture; the fractured bone ends penetrate the skin

Which of the following is the best explanation for our perception of color? - the foveae are densely packed with cones - cones come in three types, each sensitive to different wavelengths of light - rods contain a single kind of visual pigment - as many as 100 cones may converge on one ganglion cell

cones come in three types, each sensitive to different wavelengths of light

You observe a uniform tissue under a microscope. There is no lumen. The material looks densely packed, but you do not observe many nuclei. It appears that there are strands of fibers running in parallel directions. What type of tissue are you looking at? - connective tissue - muscle tissue - nervous tissue - epithelial tissue

connective tissue

Connective tissues are made of different combinations of ground substance and fibers. As you compare slides of connective tissues, which would most likely be the strongest (toughest) type of connective tissue based on the composition of ground substance and fibers? - connective tissue high in elastic fibers - connective tissue high in reticular fibers - connective tissues high in collagen fibers - connective tissue high in ground substance

connective tissues high in collagen fibers

During close vision, what actions must the eye take to bring an object into focus? - relax the ciliary body - contract the ciliary body - change the curvature of the cornea - dilate the pupil

contract the ciliary body

The ability of muscle to shorten forcibly when adequately stimulated is known as ______, and sets muscle apart from other tissue types. - excitability - extensibility - elasticity - contractility

contractility

Which of the following are correctly matched? - parallel arrangement of fascicles; characteristic of sphincter muscles - circular arrangement of fascicles; describes the deltoid muscle - convergent arrangement of fascicles; fan-shaped muscle - pennate arrangement of fascicles; spindle-shaped muscle

convergent arrangement of fascicles; fan-shaped muscle

As light travels through the eye, it passes through several structures or chambers before reaching the retina. Which list below gives those structures in the correct order? - cornea, pupil, anterior chamber, lens, posterior segment - cornea, pupil, lens, anterior changer, posterior segment - cornea, anterior chamber, pupil, lens, posterior segment - cornea, lens, pupil, anterior chamber, posterior segment

cornea, anterior chamber, pupil, lens, posterior segment

A need would pierce the epidermal layers of the forearm in which order? - granulosum, basale, spinosum, corneum - basale, spinosum, granulosum, corneum - corneum, granulosum, spinosum, basale - basale, spinosum, granulosum, lucidum, corneum

corneum, granulosum, spinosum, basale

The fibers indicated by B are most associated with which structure(s)? - lateral ventricles - pyramidal tracts - association fibers - corpus callosum

corpus callosum

The large commissure that connects the right and left sides of the brain is called the ________. - longitudinal fissure - corona radiata - internal capsule - corpus callosum

corpus callosum

Thoracic vertebrae differ from the other vertebrae in that they have _____. - costal facets - no transverse processes - no intervertebral discs - transverse foramina

costal facets

Which pair below is incorrect? - cranial nerve IIII: pupillary constriction - cranial nerve IV: sensory - cranial nerve VI: eye movement - cranial nerve III: oculomotor nerve - optic nerve: sensory

cranial nerve IV: sensory

During concussion (a type of traumatic brain injury) the brain will move within the cranial cavity. Damage is caused to the brain as it crashes into parts of the bony cavity walls. Ironically one of the bone markings that can cause serious damage to the brain is the ________. This is ironic because one of the functions of this bone marking is to ________. - perpendicular plate; separate the left and right halves of the nasal cavity - crista galli; attach to the dura matter holding the brain in place - styloid process; attach to and support the hyoid bone - pterygoid processes; anchor important chewing muscles

crista galli; attach to the dura matter holding the brain in place

Nerve fibers from the medial aspect of each eye ________. - go to the superior colliculus only - pass posteriorly without crossing over at the chiasma - cross over to the opposite side at the chiasma - divide at the chiasma, with some crossing and some not crossing

cross over to the opposite side at the chiasma

which of the following names the three main parts of a human cell? - cytoplasm, plasma membrane, and nucleus - plasma membrane, mitochondria, and nucleus - cytosol, nucleus, and membrane - mitochondria, lysosome, and centriole

cytoplasm, plasma membrane, and nucleus

Cell division would be most common among cells in which of the labeled layers? - a - b - c - d

d

What part of the inner ear houses the receptor organ of hearing, the spiral organ (organ of Corti)? - a - b - c - d

d

Which of the cell types shown is most associated with the production and flow of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)? - a - b - c - d

d

Which of the following is the only bone that normally moves in relation to the others? - a - b - c - d

d

Which of the labeled parts of the bone is composed primarily of compact bone? - a - b - c - d - e

d

Which step in the figure contains compact bone? - a - b - c - d

d

Tom is a 45-year-old male that has lost his ability to hear high frequency sounds. The most likely explanation for this would be ________. - a perforated tympanic membrane - a middle ear infection - an overgrowth of bony tissue, fusing the ossicles together - damage to the hair cells near the oval window in the cochlear duct

damage to the hair cells near the oval window in the cochlear duct

Which of the following is a factor that determines the rate of impulse propagations, or conduction velocity, along an axon? - degree of myelination of the axon - the number of axon collaterals extending from a truncated axon - whether the axon is located in the central nervous system or in the peripheral nervous system - length of the axon

degree of myelination of the axon

which of the following statements is true? - dense connective tissue is dominated by collagen fibers - loose connective tissue includes cartilage - dense irregular connective tissue has a high proportion of elastic fibers - closely packed bundles of collagen fibers are characteristic of loose connective tissues

dense connective tissue is dominated by collagen fibers

Which of the following events would be directly affected if a neuron had a mutation that prevented the production of voltage-gated na+ channels? - depolarization leading to action potentials - graded hyperpolarization - graded depolarization - generating the resting membrane potential

depolarization leading to action potentials

Layers B and C collectively form the __________. - hypodermis - dermis - epidermis - subcutaneous layer

dermis

What is the function of the structure B? - storage of fat - detection of pressure stimulus - production of defensive chemicals - secretion of sweat

detection of pressure stimulus

A fracture in the shaft of a bone would be a break in the ________. - epiphysis - metaphysis - diaphysis - articular cartilage

diaphysis

Lifting up a glass to take a drink involves the elbow joint. Which of the following correctly characterizes that joint? - diarthrotic - cartilaginous - pivot - biaxial

diarthrotic

Which of the following terms describes the range of movement of the illustrated joint? - synovial - diarthrotic - synarthrotic - amphiarthrotic

diarthrotic

what is the force driving all of these transport mechanisms? - diffusion down a concentration gradient - diffusion against a concentration gradient - endocytosis - active transport

diffusion down a concentration gradient

What even directly triggers the release of neurotransmitter shown in A? - diffusion of Na+ out of the axon terminal - diffusion of K+ into the axon terminal - diffusion of Na+ into the axon terminal - diffusion of Ca2+ into the axon terminal

diffusion of Ca2+ into the axon terminal

Which of the following is not a result of parasympathetic stimulation? - salivation - elimination of urine - dilation of the pupils - increased peristalsis of the digestive viscera

dilation of the pupils

The fingers are _____ to the wrist

distal

The body cavities that protect the nervous system are located in the ______ cavity. - vertebral - dorsal - thoracic - cranial - ventral

dorsal

The sliding filament model of contraction states that _______. - during contraction, the thin myofilaments slide past t tubules so that the z discs are overlapping - during contraction, the thin myofilaments slide past the thick myofilaments so that the actin and myosin myofilaments overlap to a greater degree - during contraction, the thin myofilaments slide past the thick myofilaments so that calcium ions can be released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum - during contraction, the thin myofilaments slide past the thick myofilaments so that the actin and myosin myofilaments no longer overlap

during contraction, the thin myofilaments slide past the thick myofilaments so that the actin and myosin myofilaments overlap to a greater degree

Which of the following statements is true? - during endochondral ossification, hyaline cartilage is broken down and replaced with bone. - endochondral ossification leads to the formation of the clavicles and cranial bones - endochondral ossification occurs within fibrous connective tissue membranes - most bones in the body are formed by intramembranous ossification

during endochondral ossification, hyaline cartilage is broken down and replaced with bone.

which of the following statements is true? - endocytosis and exocytosis are passive transport mechanisms - unlike endocytosis, exocytosis does not rely on protein interactions with the plasma membranes - during exocytosis, substances from inside the cell are moved outside - exocytosis involves infolding of the plasma membrane

during exocytosis, substances from inside the cell are moved outside

A muscle that is lengthening while it produces tension is performing a(n) ________ contraction. - eccentric - isometric - maximal - concentric

eccentric

Sudoriferous (sweat) glands are categorized as two distinct types. Which of the following are the two types of sweat glands? - eccrine and apocrine - holocrine and mammary - sebaceous and merocrine - mammary and ceruminous

eccrine and apocrine

You are asked to classify an exocrine gland found in the skin based solely on the chemical analysis of its product, which turns out to be a hypotonic fluid consisting of about 99% water with a pH of 5. It contains NaCl, traces of urea and ammonia, and a peptide dermcidin, but lacks fats and proteins. How would you classify this gland? - sebaceous gland - mammary - eccrine gland - ceruminous gland

eccrine gland

which of the following is incorrectly matched? - nucleotide; nucleic acid - eicosanoid; triglycerid - amino acid; protein - monosaccharide; carbohydrate

eicosanoid; trigylceride

The shape of the external ear is maintained by _____. - elastic cartilage - hyaline cartilage - adipose tissue - fibrocartilage

elastic cartilage

Which of the following is not associated with the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system? - emergency action - resting - digesting - energy conservation

emergency action

Which bone-forming process is shown in the figure? - endochondral ossification - bone remodeling - bone fracture repair - intramembranous ossification

endochondral ossification

Glands, such as the thyroid, that secrete their products directly into the blood rather than through ducts are classified as ________. - endocrine - exocrine - ceruminous - sebaceous

endocrine

How do endocrine and exocrine glands differ? - endocrine glands do not use ducts - exocrine glands can be multicellular - exocrine glands use exocytosis to release their products - exocrine glands secrete hormones

endocrine glands do not use ducts

Which of the following surrounds an individual muscle cell? - epimysium - perimysium - fascicle - endomysium

endomysium

Which connective tissue layer directly surrounds each axon in a nerve? - perineurium - endoneurium - endomysium - epineurium

endoneurium

What cell organelle plays a role in the process of regulating intracellular calcium ions for muscle contraction? - ribosome - mitochondrion - lysosomes - endoplasmic reticulum

endoplasmic reticulum

What is the functional role of the t tubules - enhance cellular communication during muscle contraction - stabilize the g and f actin - hold cross bridges in place in a resting muscle - synthesize atp to provide energy for muscle contraction

enhance cellular communication during muscle contraction

These cells in the CNS have cilia that move in order to circulate cerebrospinal fluid ________. - oligodendrocytes - ependymal cells - schwann cells - astrocytes

ependymal cells

What type of cells line the ventricles of the brain? - epithelial cells - neurons - astrocytes - ependymal cells

ependymal cells

Which type of glial cells are shown in this figure? - microglia - oligodendrocytes - astrocytes - ependymal cells

ependymal cells

Which layer of tissue is damaged in a first-degree burn? - dermis - hypothermis - epidermis - both the epidermis and dermis

epidermis

Which structure allows the diaphysis of the bone to increase in length until early childhood? - osteon - epiphyseal plate - epiphyseal line - lacuna

epiphyseal plate

Which tissue type consists of a sheet of cells that covers a body surface or lines a body cavity? - nervous tissue - epithelial tissue - connective tissue - muscle tissue

epithelial tissue

Which of the following is a property of epithelial tissue? - epithelial tissue is typically unable to regenerate - epithelial tissue does not exhibit polarity - epithelial tissue is innervated - epithelial tissue contains blood vessels

epithelial tissue is innervated

What tissue type has polarity and is avascular? - connective tissue - epithelium - muscle - nervous tissue

epithelium

which of the following is implicated in osteoporosis in older women? - poor posture - abnormal PTH receptors - heritage such as African or Mediterranean - estrogen deficiency due to menopause

estrogen deficiency due to menopause

Which of the following properties is most directly associated with changes to a muscle cell's membrane potential potential (the voltage across the plasma membrane)? - elasticity - contractility - excitability - extensibility

excitability

Which membrane potential occurs because of the influx of Na+ through chemically gated channels in the receptive region of a neuron? - inhibitory postsynaptic potential - excitatory postsynaptic potential - action potential - resting potential

excitatory postsynaptic potential

By which method does the structure at B release neurotransmitter? -facilitated diffusion - passive diffusion - active transport - exocytosis

exocytosis

What cellular even is indicated by A? - active transport - exocytosis - endocytosis - facilitated diffusion

exocytosis

What process is indicated by C? - exocytosis of RNA from the cell - digestion of food particles - exocytosis of secretory proteins - exocytosis of ribosomes from the cell

exocytosis of secretory proteins

A coronal section divides an organ into superior and inferior portions. T/F?

false

A motor neuron and all the muscle cells that it stimulates are referred to as a motor end plate. T/F?

false

All visceral organs receive dural innervation from both the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS. T/F

false

Projection fibers in the brain mainly connect the right and left hemispheres. T/F?

false

The elbow is proximal to the shoulder. T/F?

false

channel-mediated diffusion is a form of active transport. T/F?

false

Exhaustion of glycogen storage within a muscle fiber would have the biggest effect on ________. - both slow and fast oxidative fibers - slow oxidative fibers -fast glycolytic fibers - fast oxidative fibers

fast glycolytic fibers

The terms inversion and eversion pertain only to the ________. - hands - feet - arms - hands and the feet

feet

a major nerve of the lumbar plexus is the _____. - femoral - iliophypogastric - sciatic - iloinguinal

femoral

The pelvic girdle does not include the ______. - femur - ischium - ilium - pubis

femur

What material is found in C and D that is not found in A and B? - elastic cartilage - dense irregular connective tissue - fibrocartilage - hyaline cartilage

fibrocartilage

Which layer of the eye is indicated by the letter A? - fibrous - neural - vascular

fibrous

After a heart attack, fibrosis occurs at the site of cardiac muscle cell death. This reduces the efficiency of the heart's pumping activity because __________. - the undamaged cardiac muscle cells become fatigued from the energy expended during the healing process - fibrous connective tissue is incapable of contracting - fibrosis produces new cardiac muscle cells that are not as strong as the mature ones that died - the initial death of some cardiac muscle cells triggers a chain reaction in which progressively more and more neighboring healthy cells die.

fibrous connective tissue is incapable of contracting

Based upon structural classification, what type of joint is a suture? - amphiarthrotic joint - fibrous joint - synarthrotic joint - cartilaginous joint

fibrous joint

All three joints in the figure are classified as __________. - cartilaginous joints - fibrous joints - synovial joints

fibrous joints

Which of these is the function of the external oblique muscles? - pull ribs toward one another to elevate rib cage - elevate and adduct scapula in synergy with superior fibers of trapezius - flex vertebral column and compress abdominal wall - extend vertebral column and head and rotates them to opposite sides

flex the vertebral column and compress the abdominal wall

Damage to the ulnar nerve could result in the inability to ______. - flex the wrist - extend the forearm - all of the listed responses are correct - supinate or pronate the forearm

flex the wrist

What is the most specific term you could apply to the rib at D? - true rib - floating rib - false rib

floating rib

Which of the following is a bone marking described as a round or oval opening through a bone? - epicondyle - fossa - foramen - ramus - meatus

foramen

What is the first stage in the healing of a bone fracture? - bone remodeling - formation of a hematoma - formation of a fibrocartilaginous callus - formation of a bony callus

formation of a hematoma

which of the following is an example of a positive feedback? - withdrawing your hand from a painful stimulus, like a broken glass - forming a platelet plug during blood clotting - reducing of blood sugar by the hormone insulin - shivering to warm your body up in cold weather

forming a platelet plug during blood clotting

What is a vertical section through the body, dividing it into anterior and posterior regions called? - transverse - sagittal - median - frontal

frontal

Which bone forms the anterior cranium? - sphenoid bone - frontal bone - temporal bone - palatine bone

frontal bone

Collections of nerve cell bodies outside the central nervous system are called ________. - nuclei - nerves - ganglia - tracts

ganglia

The cells of the retina in which action potentials are generated are the ________. - bipolar cells - rods and cones - ganglion cells - amacrine cells

ganglion cells

There are three layers of neurons in the retina. The axons of which of these neuron layers form the optic nerves? - ganglion cells - rod cells - bipolar cells - cone cells

ganglion cells

Which of the following allows for communication and the passage of small molecules between adjacent cells? - glycocalyx - tight junctions - desmosome - gap junction

gap junction

Curvatures of the spine serve the body by ________. - giving additional springiness and flexibility to the spine which absorbs shock - limiting the flexibility of the spine and preventing hyperextension - providing space for soft organs in the various body cavities - applying greater pressure to the intervertebral disks preventing them from slipping

giving additional springiness and flexibility to the spine which absorbs shock

Which type of movement does not occur at the shoulder joint? - extension - gliding - abduction - rotation

gliding

Which of the following is a true statement regarding gliding movements? - gliding movements occur at the intercarpal and intertarsal joints - gliding movements allow flexibility of the upper limbs - gliding movements are multiaxial - an example of a gliding movement is nodding one's head

gliding movements occur at the intercarpal and intertarsal joints

Which of the following muscles is named for its size? - trapezius - deltoid - gluteus maximus - sternocleidomastoid

gluteus maximus

Starch is the stored carbohydrate in plants, while ________ is the stored carbohydrate in animals. - glucose - cellulose - triglyceride - glycogen

glycogen

An anaerobic metabolic pathway that results in the production of two net ATPs per glucose plus two pyruvic acid molecules is ________. - hydrolysis - the electron transport chain - the citric acid cycle - glycolysis

glycolysis

Which organelle is responsible for processing and packaging proteins destined for export from the cell? - golgi apparatus - endoplasmic reticulum - lysosomes - peroxisomes

golgi apparatus

Which of the following is a layer of the epidermis found in thin skin? - papillary layer - granular layer - clear layer - reticular layer

granular layer

The study of large body structures, visible to the naked eye, such as the heart is called ________ anatomy. - systemic - developmental - gross - microscopic

gross

What are the three main components of connective tissue? - collagen, elastin, and reticular fibers - alveoli, fibrous capsule, and secretory cells - ground substance, fibers, and cells - fibroblasts, chondroblasts, and osteoblasts

ground substance, fibers, and secretory cells

During infancy and childhood, the most important stimulus of epiphyseal plate activity is ________. - growth hormone - thyroid hormones - testosterone - estrogen

growth hormone

Growth of bones is controlled by a symphony of hormones. Which hormone is important for bone growth during infancy and childhood? - thyroid hormones - growth hormone - parathyroid hormone - calcitonin

growth hormone

Which of the following is the single most important stimulus for epiphyseal plate activity during infancy and childhood? - thyroid hormone - parathyroid hormone - calcium - growth hormone

growth hormone

Ridges of tissue on the surface of the cerebral hemispheres are called ________. - fissures - ganglia - gyri - sulci

gyri

An elevated ridge of the cortex is called a _____. - fissure - furrow - gyrus - sulcus

gyrus

The correct order (from start to finish) of fracture repair is ________. - hematoma formation, hard callus formation, bone remodeling, and fibrocartilaginous callus formation - bony callus formation, hematome formation, fibrocartilaginous callus formation, and bone remodeling - hematoma formation, soft callus formation, bony callus formation, and bone remodeling - bone remodeling, hematoma formation, soft callus formation, and hard callus formation

hematoma formation, soft callus formation, bony callus formation, and bone remodeling

Presence of a synovial cavity, articular cartilage, synovial membrane, and ligaments are characteristics of what type of joint? - suture - symphysis - synchondrosis - hinge joint

hinge joint

Choose which tissue type likely functions to add support to an organ. - stratified squamous epithelium - cardiac muscle - hyaline cartilage - transitional

hyaline cartilage

The area where blood vessels are penetrating the center of the bone used to be occupied by which tissue? - fibrocartilage - hyaline cartilage - dense connective tissue - adipose tissue

hyaline cartilage

What kind of tissue is the forerunner of long bones in the embryo? - elastic connective tissue - hyaline cartilage - fibrocartilage - dense fibrous connective tissue

hyaline cartilage

What material makes up most of the structure at A? - fibrocartilage - hyaline cartilage - elastic cartilage - dense irregular connective tissue

hyaline cartilage

The _____ is the only bone in the body that does not directly articular with any other bone. - vomer - hyoid bone - temporal bone - clavicle

hyoid bone

The ability to clearly see objects at a distance but not close up is properly called ________. - myopia - hypopia - presbyopia - hyperopia

hyperopia

An inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) is associated with ________. - hyperpolarization - lowering the threshold for an action potential to occur - opening of voltage-regulated channels - a change in sodium ion permeability

hyperpolarization

some K+ channels remain open and Na+ channels reset

hyperpolarization

when a neurotransmitter like GABA is acting in an inhibitory manner which of the following is likely a result of the GABA acting on the postsynaptic cell? - opening of chemically gated sodium channels - depolarization of the postsynaptic cell membrane - hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic cell membrane - influx of positively charged ions into the postsynaptic cell

hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic cell membrane

Control of temperature, endocrine activity, and thirst are functions associated with the ________. - medulla - cerebellum - hypothalamus - thalamus

hypothalamus

Emotions influence autonomic reactions primarily through integration in the ________. - hypothalamus - inferior colliculus - lateral horn of the spinal cord - lateral geniculate of the thalamus

hypothalamus

Which of the following is responsible for the overall integration of the autonomic nervous system (ANS)? - reticular formation - hypothalamus - brain stem - frontal lobe of the cerebral cortex

hypothalamus

Where is the illustrated structure located? - within the superior sagittal sinus - within the subarachnoid space - in each ventricle - in the central canal

in each ventricle

Which of the following statements is not true regarding ATP production in muscles during periods of prolonged energy use, such as exercise? - prolonged activity requires the use of aerobic pathways for ATP regeneration - in the absence of oxygen, anaerobic pathways provide minimal ATP regeneration for less than a minute - as your blood sugar drops at any time during prolonged activity, glycogen stores in your muscles can be broken down to supply a glucose source - in the absence of oxygen, creatine phosphate can drive aerobic respiration pathways for a few minutes

in the absence of oxygen, creatine phosphate can drive aerobic respiration pathways for a few minutes

Apocrine glands, which begin to function at puberty under hormonal influence, seem to play little role in thermoregulation. Where would we find these glands in the human body? - in the axillary and anogenital area - beneath the flexure lines in the body - in all body regions and buried deep in the dermis - in the palms of the hands and soles of the feet

in the axillary and anogenital area

first-class levers _______. - are typified by tweezers or forceps - in the body can operate at a mechanical advantage or mechanical disadvantage, depending on specific location - have load on one end of the lever, fulcrum at the other, and effort applied somewhere in the middle - are used when standing on tip-toe

in the body can operate at a mechanical advantage or mechanical disadvantage, depending on specific location

Where are equilibrium receptors located? - only in the vestibule of the ear - in the semicircular canals and in the vestibule of the ear - only in the semicircular canals of the ear - in the semicircular canals, in the spiral organ of Corti, and in the vestibule of the ear

in the semicircular canals and in the vestibule of the ear

Loss of function in the enzyme acetylcholine esterase would result in which of the following? - inability to destroy and remove acetylcholine from the synaptic cleft - amplify or enhance the effect of ACh - inability to release acetylcholine - stimulation of the production of acetylcholine

inability to destroy and remove acetylcholine from the synaptic cleft

The eye muscle that rotates the eye upward and turns the eye laterally is the ______. - lateral rectus - superior oblique - inferior oblique - medial rectus

inferior oblique

Name the muscle at d. - medial rectus - inferior rectus - superior oblique - lateral rectus

inferior rectus

The first step in tissue repair involves _____. - inflammation - formation of scar tissue - proliferation of fibrous connective tissue - replacement of destroyed tissue by the same kind of cells

inflammation

The correct order of events in tissue repair, from first to last, is _____. - organization, inflammation, and regeneration - inflammation, organization, and regeneration - regeneration, organization, and inflammation - inflammation, regeneration, and organization

inflammation, organization, and regenration

What connects the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland? - arbor vitae - optic chiasma - mammillary bodies - infundibulum

infundibulum

Which of the following is not a function of the CSF? - protection from blows - nourishment of the brain - initiation of some nerve impulses - reduction of brain weight

initiation of some nerve impulses

Which of the following is not a function of the autonomic nervous system? - innervation of smooth muscle of the digestive tract - innervation of glands - innervation of cardiac muscle - innervation of skeletal muscle

innervation of skeletal muscle

What component of the reflex arc determines the response to a stimulus? - integration center - receptor - effector - sensory neuron

integration center

Heart muscle cells would tend to separate without ________ - stroma - intercalated discs - myofilaments - flana

intercalated discs

Lengthwise, long bone growth during infancy and youth is exclusively through ________. - interstitial growth of the epiphyseal plates - differentiation of osteoclasts into osteocytes - the secretion of bone matrix into the medullary cavity - calcification of the matrix of the zone underlying articular cartilage

interstitial growth of the epiphyseal plates

Dark adaptation ________. A) is much faster than light adaptation B) results in inhibition of rod function C) primarily involves improvement of acuity and color vision D) involves accumulation of rhodopsin

involves accumulation of rhodopsin

What structure regulates the amount of light passing to the visual receptors of the eye? - iris - lens - cornea - aqueous humor

iris

The pH scale _____ - is based on the salinity of a solution - is based on the concentration of hydrogen ions in a solution - ranges from 1-7 - is linear

is based on the concentration of hydrogen ions in a solution.

Mitosis: - is the formation of sex cells - is always a part of the cell cycle - is division of the genetic material within the nucleus - creates diversity in genetic potential

is division of the genetic material within the nucleus

Erection (vasodilation) of the penis or clitoris ______. - is the result of coordinated activation by both sympathetic and parasympathetic input - is primarily under parasympathetic control - depends very little on autonomic activation - is primarily under sympathetic control

is primarily under parasympathetic control

Ossification of the ends of long bones ________. - is a characteristic of intramembranous bone formation - involves medullary cavity formation - is produced by secondary ossification centers - takes twice as long as diaphysis

is produced by secondary ossification centers

The hyoid bone is unique because it _____. - is composed of three bones joined together - is the only bone of the body that does not articulate with any other bone - is the only bone formed by the fusion of right and left halves - is the only irregular bone found in the neck

is the only bone of the body that does not articulate with any other bone

The nucleolus _____ - is the primary site of protein synthesis - is the site of lipid production in a cell - is a dark-staining spherical body found within the mitochondria - is the site of ribosome assembly in a cell

is the site of ribosome assembly in a cell

Smooth muscle _____. - has long, cylindrical cells - has striations - is under involuntary control - contains intercalated discs

is under involuntary control

Which of the following best describes the orbicularis oris? - it draws the eyebrows together - it closes the eye - it closes, purses, and protrudes the lips - it pulls the lower lip down and back

it closes, purses, and protrudes the lips

which of the following best defines anatomy? - it is the study of how the body parts work and carry out their life-sustaining activities - it is the study of all chemical reactions that occur within body cells. - it is the study of the structure of body parts and their relationships with one another - it is the study of tissues

it is the study of the structure of body parts and their relationships with one another

Why is the rib at B considered a true rib? - it is capable of movement during the action of breathing - it encloses the thoracic cavity and protects the vital organs within - it passes from the vertebral column to the sternum via its own costal cartilage - it possesses a costal groove

it passes from the vertebral column to the sternum via its own costal cartilage

What must happen before a body cell can being mitotic cell division? - its DNA must be replicated exactly so that the identical copies of the cell's genes can be passed on to each of it's offspring - the DNA is expelled from the cell so that it will not be affected by the division process - the DNA undergoes mutation in order to produce genetically specialized cells. - its DNA must be divided in half so that half can go to one daughter cell and half can go to the other daughter cell.

its DNA must be replicated exactly so that identical copies of the cell's genes can be passed on to each of its offspring.

What is the most common cell type in the epidermis? - fibroblasts - macrophages - dendritic cells - keratinocytes

keratinocytes

During vigorous exercise, there may be insufficient oxygen available to completely break down pyruvic acid for energy. As a result, the pyruvic acid is converted to ________. - a strong base - hydrochloric acid - lactic acid - stearic acid

lactic acid

What is the term for the layers of bony matrix surrounding the vessels and nerve? - periosteum - lamellae - lacunae - endosteum

lamellae

Which of the following is the correct order for the phrases of a muscle twitch? - relaxation, contraction, latent - latent, relaxation, contraction - latent, contraction, relaxation - contraction, relaxation, latent

latent, contraction, relaxation

The lungs are _____ to the heart

lateral

The first "way station" in the visual pathway from the eye, after there has been partial crossover of the fibers in the optic chiasma, is the ________. - lateral geniculate body of the thalamus - superior colliculi - visual cortex - temporal lobe

lateral geniculate body of the thalamus

Parasympathetic functions include ______. - allowing the body to cope with an external threat - lens accommodation for close vision - a stimulation of heart rate and force of contraction - raising blood glucose levels

lens accommodation for close vision

A ciliated version of pseudostratified columnar epithelium containing mucus-secreting goblet cells _____ - aids in digestion - is found in some of the larger glands - lines most of the respiratory tract - is more durable than all other epithelia

lines most of the respiratory tract

Both molecule A and molecule B are classified as _____ - nucleic acids - carbohydrates - proteins - lipids

lipids

Which of the following is a factor that affects the velocity and duration of muscle contraction? - size of the muscle fibers stimulated - number of muscle fibers stimulated - muscle length - load on the fiber

load on the fiber

Which of the following factors influence the velocity and duration of muscle contraction? - frequency of stimulation - length of muscle fibers activated - muscle fiber size - load placed on the muscle

load placed on the muscle

At an archeological site you discover a bone that is cylindrical in shape, about one inch long and a quarter of an inch wide. Choose the correct classification. - irregular - long - sesamoid - short

long

Which statement regarding the classification of bones is false? - irregular bones include the vertebrae and hip bones - long bones include all limb bones except the patella - the sternum is an example of a flat bone - sesamoid bones form within certain tendons

long bones include all limb bones except the patella

Which of the following is the abnormal curve often seen in pregnant women as they attempt to preserve their center of gravity toward the end of their pregnancy? - hunchback - kyphosis - lordosis - scoliosis

lordosis

Injury to the hypothalamus may result in all of the following except ________. - loss of body temperature control - loss of fine motor control - dehydration - sleep disturbances

loss of fine motor control

The elasticity of the lens decreases with age. This leads to which of the following? - less light getting to the retina and diminished visual acuity - lowered accommodation of the lenses and difficulty focusing on nearby objects - a clouding of the lenses known as a cataract

lowered accommodation of the lenses and difficulty focusing on nearby objects

Which vertebrae would you expect to have the largest body, relative to the other regions? - thoracic - sacral - cervical - lumbar

lumbar

Which of the following pairs is correctly matched? - cervical vertebrae; rib facets - thoracic vertebrae; transverse foramen - lumbar vertebrae; short, flat spinous processes - lumbar vertebrae; bifid spinous processes - thoracic vertebrae; triangular vertebral foramen

lumbar vertebrae; short, flat spinous processes

What are the names of the bones at A, in order from left to right? - incus, stapes, malleus - stapes, malleus, incus - malleus, stapes, incus - malleus, incus, stapes

malleus, incus, stapes

The _______ is the main chewing muscle - hyoglossus - buccinator - masseter - lateral pterygoid

masseter

Paranasal sinuses are found in which of these facial bones? - maxillae - nasal conchae - zygomatic bones - vomer

maxillae

Which type of sensory receptor allows us to feel an insect landing on our skin? - chemoreceptor - mechanoreceptor - thermoreceptor - nociceptor

mechanoreceptor

Tactile sensation is a combination of touch, pressure, stretch and vibration. Which of the following is most likely the receptor type that senses tactile stimulation? - mechanoreceptors - thermoreceptors - nociceptors - propiroceptors

mechanoreceptors

The bridge of the nose is _____ to the left eye

medial

Paralysis of which eye muscle would prevent the right eye from looking to the left? - inferior rectus - lateral rectus - superior rectus - medial rectus

medial rectus

The vital centers for the control of heart rate, respiration, and blood pressure are located in the ________. - midbrain - medulla oblongata - cerebrum - pons

medulla oblongata

Which skin pigment is made in the skin as a natural defense against UV radiation? - keratin - carotene - melanin - hemoglobin

melanin

Which skin-color-associated, pigment-producing cell is located in the labeled layer D? - keratinocyte - fibroblast - merkel cell - melanocyte

melanocyte

The most dangerous type of skin cancer is _____. - basal cell carcinoma - squamous cell carcinoma - melanoma - all of these skin cancers are equally dangerous

melanoma

Which type of skin cancer is the most dangerous because it is highly metastic and resistant to chemotherapy? - adenoma - melanoma - basal cell carcinoma - squamous cell carcinoma

melanoma

Select the most correct statement concerning skin cancer. - basal cell carcinomas are the least common but most malignant - melanomas are rare but must be removed quickly to prevent from metastasizing - squamous cell carcinomas arise from the stratum corneum - most tumors that arise on the skin are malignant

melanomas are rare but must be removed quickly to prevent from metastasizing

The skin is not a _____ barrier. - physical - biological - chemical - metabolic

metabolic

In which stage of mitosis do the identical sets of chromosomes line up along the midline or equator of the cell? - anaphase - metaphase - prophase - telophase

metaphase

Meningitis can be caused by infection of the central nervous system by bacteria. Which cells would be most responsible for removing the infection? - oligodendrocytes - satellite cells - schwann cells - microglia

microglia

Which subdivision of anatomy would include the study of individual cells? - microscopic anatomy - gross anatomy - systemic anatomy - developmental anatomy

microscopic anatomy

The brain stem consists of the ________. A) cerebrum, pons, midbrain, and medulla B) midbrain, medulla, and pons C) pons, medulla, cerebellum, and midbrain D) midbrain only

midbrain, medulla, and pons

Myocardium (cardiac muscle tissue) must rhythmically contract for a lifetime. This requires a considerable amount of energy production by the cells. You would expect to see a relatively high amount of which organelle in these cells? - cytoskeleton - smooth endoplasmic reticulum - lysosomes - mitochondria

mitochondria

Spinal nerves are all classified as __________. - motor nerves - mixed nerves - afferent nerves - sensory nerves

mixed nerves

What is the function of the organelle indicated by B? - synthesis of proteins from amino acids - modification and packaging of proteins - catabolism of fats and sugars - cellular division

modification and packaging of proteins

What part of the sarcolemma contains acetylcholine receptors? - part adjacent to another muscle cell - end of the muscle fiber - motor end plate - any part of the sarcolemma

motor end plate

Which of the choices below describes the ANS? - motor fibers that conduct nerve impulses from the CNS to smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands - sensory and motor neurons that supply the digestive tract - motor fibers that conduct nerve impulses from the cns to skeletal muscles - sensory neurons that convey info from somatic receptors in the head, body wall, and limbs and from receptors from the special senses of vision, hearing, taste, and smell to the CNS

motor fibers that conduct nerve impulses from the CNS to smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands

Which of the following is the correct sequence of events for muscle contractions? - neurotransmitter release, motor neuron action potential, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke - neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, sliding of myofilaments, ATP-driven power stroke - muscle cell action potential, neurotransmitter release, ATP-driven power stroke, release of calcium ions from SR, sliding of myofilaments - motor neuron action potential, neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke, sliding of myofilaments

motor neuron action potential, neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke, sliding of myofilaments

Each neuron shown in this figure innervates a group of muscle fibers. What is the term for a group of muscle fibers and the single neuron that innervates them? - fascicle - neuromuscular junction - motor unit - sarcomere

motor unit

Ependymal cells line many open cavities in the central nervous system (cns). ependymal cells have cilia on the side of the cell the face these openings. what is the most likely function of these cells? - exchange of nutrients between the circulatory system and neurons - create myelin sheaths for cns cells - movement and circulation of cerebrospinal fluid - act as macrophage cells to destroy microorganisms or neuronal debris

movement and circulation of cerebrospinal fluid

Passive membrane transport processes include ________. - movement of water from an area of high solute concentration to an area of low concentration - consumption of ATP - movement of a substance down its concentration gradient - the use of transport proteins when moving substances from areas of low to high concentration

movement of a substance down its concentration gradient

The hip joint is a good example of a(n) _____ synovial joint. - nonaxial - multiaxial - biaxial - uniaxial

multiaxial

which of the following are correctly paired? - uniaxial joint; permits only slipping or gliding movements - biaxial joint; permits movement in one plane and around one axis - multiaxial movement; movement in all three planes and around all three axes - nonaxial movement; no movement

multiaxial movement; movement in all three planes and around all three axes

During development embryonic cells will fuse to form muscle fibers. This will result in _______. - multinucleated muscle fibers that can extend as long as 30 centimeters - the striations that appear in skeletal and cardiac muscle tissues - the coordination of nerve signals to muscle fibers - interlocking of cells that can prevent the filaments from sliding

multinucleated muscle fibers that can extend as long as 30 centimeters

Which term best identifies a muscle cell? - myofibril - muscle fiber - sarcomere - muscle fascicle

muscle fiber

Provides the force to move bones about their joints.

muscular

The contractile units of skeletal muscles are _____. - microtubules - myofibrils - mitochondria - t tubules

myofibrils

Which protein is indicated by the letter E? - tropomyosin - troponin - actin - myosin

myosin

the thicker filaments are the _____ filaments

myosin

Which of the following correctly states the direction followed by the specified ions when their voltage- gated channels open? - both na+ and k+ ions move in - na+ ions move into the axon; k+ ions move out - na+ ions move out of the axon; k+ ions move in - both na+ and k+ ions move out

na+ ions move into the axon; k+ ions move out

Which of the following does not describe conditions that occur during an action potential? - the na+/k+ pump reestablishes resting concentration gradients - after initial depolarization, K+ now has both an electrical and a chemical gradient drawing it out of the cell - na+ enters the cell through voltage-gated channels, causing a reversal of the resting membrane potential - na+ is used to repolarize the membrane

na+ is used to repolarize the membrane

The interior surface of a neuron's plasma membrane at resting membrane potential will have a ________. - negative charge and more sodium than outside the cell - positive charge and contains more sodium than outside of the cell - negative charge and contains less sodium than outside of the cell - positive charge and contains less sodium than outside of the cell

negative charge and contains less sodium than outside of the cell

Which of the following is not correct of nerves? - nerves do not contain cell bodies - nerves are collection of axons of either sensory or motor neurons but not both - nerves are analogous to tracts in the CNS - nerves are covered by an outer sheath called the epineurium

nerves are collection of axons of either sensory or motor neurons but not both

where the axon of a motor neuron connects with the muscle fibers

neuromuscular junction

Rigor mortis occurs because ________. - the cells are dead - sodium ions leak into the muscle causing continued contractions - no ATP is available to release attached actin and myosin molecules - proteins are beginning to break down, thus preventing a flow of calcium ions

no ATP is available to release attached actin and myosin molecules

If both motor neurons shown in this figure were to develop action potentials and stimulate muscle fibers, would all the muscle cells shown here contract? - no, because it is impossible for more than one motor unit to contract at once - yes, because signals can be passed from stimulated muscle fibers to unstimulated ones - yes, because an entire muscle only needs one neuron to stimulate it in order to contract - no, because neurons in this figure do not innervated every muscle cell shown

no, because neurons in this figure do not innervated every muscle cell shown

If someone spills very hot coffee (200 0F) on their skin, they will likely perceive much pain. Which of the following receptor types is causing this sensation? - mechanoreceptors - nociceptors - thermoreceptors - chemoreceptors

nociceptors

______ are receptors that can respond to painful stimuli. - chemoreceptors - nociceptors - mechanoreceptors - photoreceptors

nociceptors

How are the olfactory receptors activated? - the olfactory tracts transduce signals to the hypothalamus - olfactory cilia move mucus over the receptors - mitral cells relay signals to the olfactory bulbs - odorants dissolve in the mucus and bind to receptors

odorants dissolve in the mucus and bind to receptors

Mixed cranial nerves containing both motor and sensory fibers include all except which of the following? - oculomotor - olfactory - facial - trigeminal

olfactory

A patient is suffering from the inability to distinguish various types of odors. This patient may have damage to which of the following? - facial nerve (VIII) - olfactory nerve (I) - vagus nerve (X) - hypoglossal nerve (XII)

olfactory nerve (I)

Schwann cells are functionally similar to ________. A) ependymal cells B) microglia C) oligodendrocytes D) astrocytes

oligodendrocytes

Which of the following does not describe the process of summation? - one epsp fails to bring the cell to threshold - two epsps are generated at the same time by two separate synapses, bringing the cell to threshold -one epsp and one ipsp cancel each other out - two epsps occur close enough in time to bring the cell to threshold

one epsp fails to bring the cell to threshold

After DNA replication is completed, what does each DNA double helix consist of? - strands that are mixtures of old and new nucleotides - two newly synthesized strands that replace the old template strands - either two old strands or two new strands - one old template strand and one new daughter strand

one old template strand and one new daughter strand

Troponin, a major protein in thin filaments, is a globular protein with three polypeptide subunits. which of the following is not a function of the troponin? - one subunit binds to potassium ions - one subunit attaches troponin to actin - one subunit binds to calcium ions - one subunit binds tropomyosin and helps position it on actin

one subunit binds to potassium ions

Which of the following stimuli caused the reaction in the graph on the left? - opening of gated ca2+ channels - opening of gated na+ channels - opening of gated k+ channels - opening of gated cl- channels

opening of gated na+ channels

Which of the following is expected to occur first if the membrane potential increase shown in the graph on the left were to reach the threshhold value indicated at -55 mV? - opening of voltage gated k+ channels - opening of chemically gated k+ channels - opening of voltage gated na+ channels - opening of chemically gated na+ channels

opening of voltage gated na+ channels

The thumb joint indicated by D mediates which of the following special movements? - elevation - opposition - inversion - dorsiflexion

opposition

When you bring any of your fingers in contact with your thumb, this movement is called __________. - retraction - supination - dorsiflexion - flexion - opposition

opposition

What structure in the eye creates a visual blind spot? - ora serrata - fovea centralis - macula lutea - optic disc

optic disc

A structure which is composed of two or more tissue types that work together to perform specific functions for the body is a(n)_____ - complex tissue - organ system - organ - complex cell

organ

Which level of structural organization is considered to be the highest (most complex) level? - organismal - organ - cellular - chemical

organismal

which of the following would not be restricted (limited) by low levels of ATP? - phagocytosis - pinocytosis - osmosis - exocytosis

osmosis

For intramembranous ossification to take place, which of the following is necessary? - ossification centers form in the fibrous connective tissue membrane - a bone collar forms around the cartilage model - a medullary cavity forms - the cartilage matrix begins to deteriorate

ossification centers form in the fibrous connective tissue membrane

The cell responsible for secreting the matrix of bone is the ________. - osteocyte - osteoblast - osteoclast - chondrocyte

osteoblast

Classify the cells seen at the arrow in image A. - osteoblasts - osteoclasts - osteocytes - mesenchymal cells

osteoblasts

Bones are constantly undergoing resorption (breaking bone down) for various reasons. Which of the following cells accomplishes this process? - stem cell - osteoblast - osteocyte - osteoclast

osteoclast

A homeostatic imbalance that activates these bone cells would lead to a loss of bone density. - chondroblasts - osteoblasts - osteocytes - osteoclasts

osteoclasts

What type of cell is shown at A? - osteoclast - osteoblast - mesenchymal - osteocyte

osteocyte

When an osteoblast becomes completely surrounded by its own matrix secretions it is referred to as an ________. - chondrocyte - osteoclast - osteogenic cell - osteocyte

osteocyte

Which of the following cells are not matched with their appropriate function? - bone lining cells; maintain bone matrix - osteoclasts; bone resorption - osteoblasts; create new bone matrix - osteocytes; produce new bone cells

osteocytes; produce new bone cells

What is the structural unit of compact bone? - osteon - haversian canal - osteoid - canaliculus

osteon

Which statement regarding osteons is false? - osteons consist of concentric lamellae surrounding a central canal - collagen gives osteons the ability to resist twisting forces - osteons are found in all bone tissues - the inorganic matrix of an osteon gives it the ability to resist compression

osteons are found in all bone tissues

Which of the following refers to a bone disorder found most often in the aged and resulting in the bones becoming porous and light? - osteoporosis - paget's disease - rickets - osteomalacia

osteoporosis

Which type of cell or cellular structure is not found in the epidermis? - pain receptors - melanocytes - dendritic cells - keratinocytes

pain receptors

The anatomical position is characterized by all of the following except: - arms at sides - palms turned posteriorly - thumbs pointed laterally - body erect

palms turned posteriorly

An individual accidentally transected (cut across) the spinal cord between T1 and L1. This would result in ________. - paraplegia - quadriplegia - hemiplegia - spinal shock only

paraplegia

Which division of the nervous system has long preganglionic neurons? - parasympathetic - sympathetic - somatic motor - somatic sensory

parasympathetic

Which of the following is mismatched? - sympathetic postganglionic fibers; release NE - parasympathetic postganglionic fibers; release NE - sympathetic preganglionic fibers; release ACh - parasympathetic preganglionic fibers; release ACh

parasympathetic postganglionic fibers; release NE

Which of the following best demonstrates an example of cooperation of the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems? - parasympathetic stimulation causes vasodilation of blood vessels in the penis, leading to erection; sympathetic stimulation then causes ejaculation - parasympathetic stimulation causes copious sweating; sympathetic stimulation causes epidermal pores to dilate - sympathetic stimulation causes vasodilation of blood vessels in the clitoris, leading to erection; parasympathetic stimulation then causes reflex contractions of the vagina - sympathetic stimulation causes vasodilation of blood vessels in the penis, causing erection; parasympathetic stimulation then causes ejaculation

parasympathetic stimulation causes vasodilation of blood vessels in the penis, leading to erection; sympathetic stimulation then causes ejaculation

Which hormone increases osteoclast activity to release more calcium ions into the bloodstream? - thyroxine - estrogen - parathyroid hormone - calcitonin

parathyroid hormone

The primary somatosensory cortex is located in the _______. - temporal lobe - frontal lobe - parietal lobe - prefrontal lobe

parietal lobe

the periosteum is secured to the underlying bone by _____. - volkmann's canals - perforating (sharpey's) fibers - the struts of bone known as spicules - a bony matrix with hyaline cartilage

perforating (sharpey's) fibers

Which of the following correctly pairs the structure at C with its primary component? - periosteum; cuboidal epithelium - endosteum; dense regular connective tissue - endosteum; areolar tissue - periosteum; dense irregular connective tisse

periosteum; dense irregular connective tissue

A cell engulfing a relatively large particle will likely utilize ________. - exocytosis - receptor-mediated endocytosis - phagocytosis - pinocytosis

phagocytosis

Which of the following structures is NOT part of the external ear? - pinna - pharyngotympanic tube - tympanic membrane - external acoustic meatus

pharyngotympanic tube

Molecule A is a _____ - phospholipid - nucleotide - steroid - trigylceride

phospholipid

which of the following is a component of the plasma membrane that creates a physical barrier between the inside and the outside of a cell? - cholesterol - proteins - water - phospholipids

phospholipids

Which of the following nerves does not arise from the brachial plexus? - median - phrenic - radial - ulnar

phrenic

Which of the meninges is a delicate connective tissue membrane that clings tightly to the brain like cellophane wrap following its every convolution? - meningeal layer of the dura mater - arachnoid mater - periosteal layer of the dura mater - pia mater

pia mater

If a cell is non-selectively engulfing samples of extracellular fluid, for example to absorb nutrients, it will likely utilize ________. - phagocytosis - receptor-mediated endocytosis - exocytosis - pinocytosis

pinocytosis

Pointing the toes is an example of ________. - circumduction - plantar flexion - pronation - protraction

plantar flexion

Positive feedback differs from negative feedback because _____ - positive feedback is generally beneficial while negative feedback is typically harmful - positive feedback provides moment-to-moment wellbeing while negative feedback causes a cascade effect - positive feedback tends to enhance the triggering stimulus which negative feedback tends to return the body to a homeostatic balance or "ideal" level - positive feedback is critical to healthy while negative feedback serves only to alert us to potential health threats

positive feedback tends to enhance the triggering stimulus which negative feedback tends to return the body to a homeostatic balance or "ideal" level

What are the levers that operate at a mechanical advantage called? - power levers - functional levers - speed levers - dysfunctional levers

power levers

Cells of the stratum spinosum have many interlocking desmosomes that will remain between the cells as they migrate to the stratum corneum. These cell junctions serve the body by ________. - stopping water loss and preventing dehydration - allowing secretions like sweat or sebum to pass through - preventing mechanical stress or trauma from damaging the epidermis - preventing ultraviolet light from penetrating the deeper layers or the epidermis

preventing mechanical stress or trauma from damaging the epidermis

In the visual pathways to the brain, the optic radiations project to the _______. - primary visual cortex - optic chiasma - medial retina - lateral geniculate body

primary visual cortex

What cortical region is represented by the area at D? - visual association area - primary visual cortex - multimodal associated area - primary olfactory cortex

primary visual cortex

Approximately 80% of a muscle fiber's volume are the myofibrils. This characteristic reflects muscles ability to ________. - generate and propagate action potential - produce relatively high amounts of ATP - store oxygen molecules that can be used in aerobic respiration - produce movement through contractile force

produce movement through contractile force

Which type of white matter fiber tract connects the cerebrum to lower centers, like the spinal cord? - projection fibers - commissures - corpus callosum - association fibers

projection fibers

Which of the following is mismatched? - promotes urination; sympathetic - gallbladder contracts to expel bile; parasympathetic - penis ejaculation; sympathetic - bronchiole dilation in lungs; sympathetic

promotes urination; sympathetic

Which type of movement is unique to the forearm? - adduction - extension - pronation - opposition

pronation

Which is the best description for the function of the cranial bones? - provide passageways for respiratory gases to move into and out of the body - protect the brain - allow introduction of food into the digestive system - house the special sense organs

protect the brain

Moving your jaw forward, causing an underbite, is called ________. - protraction - adduction - retraction - pronation

protraction

What is the major function of the axial skeleton? - provide an attachment point for muscles that allow movement - give the body resilience - provide central support for the body and protect internal organs - provide a space for the major digestive organs

provide central support for the body and protect internal organs

The upper arm is _____ to the forearm

proximal

_____ epithelium appears to have two or three layers of cells, but all the cells are in contact with the basement membrane. - transitional - stratified cuboidal - pseudostratified columnar - stratified columnar

psuedostratified columnar

What is the portion of the eye that allows light to pass into the posterior chamber? - iris - cornea - pupil - sclera

pupil

Which of the following movements demonstrates a first-class lever? - lifting a rock with your right hand and arm - flexing your knee to raise your heel toward your buttocks - raising your head up off your chest - standing on your toes

raising your head up off your chest

In a homeostatic control mechanism, which component monitors the environment? - receptor - stimulus - effector - control center

receptor

Some of the nerve endings in the skin are sensitive to changes in temperature. They are part of a negative feedback mechanism regulating body temperature. These nerve endings represent a(n) ________ in the negative feedback mechanism. - receptor - control center - effector - homeostatic balance or "ideal" value

receptor

Which of the following is the correct simple spinal reflex arc? - effector, efferent neuron, integration center, afferent neuron, receptor - receptor, efferent neuron, integration center, afferent neuron, affector - effector, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, receptor - receptor, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, effector

receptor, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, effector

which of the following is correctly matched? - brevis; long - transverse; parallel to the long axis - rectus; straight - deltoid; at a right angle to the long axis

rectus; straight

When a muscle is unable to respond to stimuli temporarily, it is in which of the following periods? - fatigue period - refractory period - latent period - relaxation period

refractory period

Which of the following is NOT a function of the hypothalamus? - regulate emotional responses - regulate food intake - regulate body temp - regulate the thalamus

regulate the thalamus

Which of the following events triggers the subsequent steps of excitation-contraction coupling? - release of calcium ions from the terminal cisterns of the sarcoplasmic reticulum - propagation of an action potential along the sarcolemma and T tubules - release of acetylcholine from axon terminals at the neuromuscular junction - binding of calcium ions to troponin, which removes the blocking action of tropomyosin

release of acetylcholine from axon terminals at the neuromuscular junction

Which of the following examples listed below illustrates homeostasis maintained by a negative feedback? - lack of pain in third-degree burns due to damage to sensory nerves in the dermis - excretion of salts within the sweat - an increase in sebum production in response to androgens (male sex hormones) - release of sweat by eccrine glands in response to heat

release of sweat by eccrine glands in response to heat

na+ channels are inactivating, and voltage-gated k+ channels open

repolarization

Which of these activities is most likely driven by parasympathetic innervation? - vigorous physical activity - fight-or-flight responses - sweating and dilating pupils - resting and digesting

resting and digesting

Which functional area of the brain is responsible for keeping the cortex alert and conscious and enhancing its excitability? - reticular activating system - frontal eye fields - broca's area - limbic system

reticular activating system

The brain area that regulates activities that control the state of wakefulness or alertness of the cerebral cortex is the _______. - pyramids - reticular formation - thalamus - limbic system

reticular formation

Which of the following joint problems is the result of an autoimmune problem? - tendonitis - osteoarthritis - rheumatoid arthritis (RA) - bursitis

rheumatoid arthritis (RA)

During dark adaptation ________. A) the sensitivity of the retina decreases B) the rate of rhodopsin breakdown is accelerated C) rhodopsin accumulates in the rods D) the cones are activated

rhodopsin accumulates in the rods

Which of the following structures is common only to only one region of the spinal column? - transverse processes - superior articulating surfaces - spinous processes - rib facets - pedicles

rib facets

Molecule B and molecule C are expected to interact within which of the following cellular structures? - Golgi apparatus - nucleus - ribosome - nucleolus

ribosome

which organelle is responsible for synthesizing proteins? - rough endoplasmic reticulum - ribosomes - golgi apparatus - smooth endoplasmic reticulum

ribosomes

You want to look up and to your right. Which extrinsic eye muscles would be the most active in each eye? - right eye: superior rectus left eye: inferior oblique - right eye: superior rectus left eye: superior rectus - right eye: inferior oblique left eye: superior rectus - right eye: superior oblique left eye: superior rectus

right eye: inferior oblique left eye: superior rectus

Which photoreceptors respond to very dim light? - cones - ganglion cells - rods - bipolar cells

rods

Which of the following movements does not increase or decrease the angle between bones? - abduction - rotation - circumduction - extension

rotation

Gluteal muscle innervation comes from which plexus? - lumbar - brachial - cervical - sacral

sacral

Spinal nerves exiting the cord from the level of L4 to S4 form the ________. - thoracic plexus - sacral plexus - femoral plexus - lumbar plexus

sacral plexus

What is a vertical section through the body, dividing it into left and right called? - sagittal - frontal - regional - transverse

sagittal

The ______ shorten(s) during muscle contraction - actin - z lines - thick filament - sarcomere

sarcomere

What structure in skeletal muscle cells functions in calcium storage? - sarcoplasmic reticulum - myofibrillar network - intermediate filament network - mitochondria

sarcoplasmic reticulum

Name the glial cell at F. - ependymal cells - schwann cell - oligodendrocytes - satellite cells

schwann cell

Which of the following is correctly matched? - kyphosis; accentuated lumbar curvature - scoliosis; abnormal lateral curvature - herniated disc; dorsally exaggerated thoracic curvature - lordosis; rupture of the anulus fibrosus

scoliosis; abnormal lateral curvature

Which glands secrete an oily product that softens the skin and hair? - ceruminous glands - apocrine sweat glands - eccrine sweat glands - sebaceous glands

sebaceous glands

Which of the following glands secrete sebum, an oily like substance? - apocrine glands - eccrine glands - sebaceous glands - merocrine glands

sebaceous glands

Susan sat out in the sun watching a baseball game. She developed small blisters on her unprotected shoulders and neck. What type of burn is represented by the formation of the blisters? - first-degree burn - second-degree burn - third-degree burn - full-thickness burn

second-degree burn

Osteoblasts ______. - maintain bone matrix - form skeletal cartilage - secrete osteoid - break down bone

secrete osteoid

Which of the following is not a normal function of muscle tissue? - stabilizing joints - secreting hormones - maintaining posture - producing movement - generating heat

secreting hormones

Which of the following structures contain receptors that monitor changes in head rotation? - utricle - cochlea - semicircular canals - saccule

semicircular canals

Cranial nerve II, the optic nerve, sends nerve impulses to the brain carrying information about the things we see. These nerve fibers most likely belong to which division of the nervous system? - sensory (afferent) division - somatic nervous system - sympathetic division - parasympathetic division

sensory (afferent) division

Nerve impulses leading to the brain carry information about cool temperatures on the skin. The nerve fibers sending these signals will most likely belong to which division of the nervous system? - sensory (afferent division) - somatic nervous system - sympathetic division - parasympathetic division

sensory (afferent) division

the genetic information is coded in DNA by the _____ - regular alteration of sugar and phosphate molecules - sequence of the nucleotides - arrangement of the histones - three-dimensional structure of the double helix

sequence of the nucleotides

Synovial joints are classified into six main categories based on ______. - size - type of synovial fluid - location - shape of articular surfaces

shape of articular surfaces

Which of the following describes the excitatory postsynaptic potential? - short distance depolarization - opens K+ or Cl- channels - short distance hyperpolarization - moves membrane potential away from threshold

short distance depolarization

Which joint has the most notably sacrificed stability to provide great freedom of movement? - knee - shoulder - ankle - elbow

shoulder

Dislocation of a joint is a common orthopedic problem. which of these joints is most likely to be dislocated? - sacroiliac - shoulder (glenohumeral) - hip (coxal) - pubic symphysis

shoulder (glenohumeral)

Which of the following peripheral nervous system (PNS) neuroglia form the myelin sheaths around larger nerve fibers in the pns? - satellite cells - shwann cells - astrocytes - oligodendrocytes

shwann cells

Which of the following epithelia forms the walls of the air sacs across which gas exchange occurs in the lungs? - simple cuboidal - simple squamous - simple columnar - pseudostratified columnar

simple squamous

Which of the following can be considered a function of the paranasal sinuses? - sinuses have rough patches that aid in muscle attachment - the paranasal sinuses are passageways for nerves to pass through - sinuses take away a minimal amount of strength from bones while reducing the weight of bones - sinuses are often referred to as vestigial, anatomical features with no known function

sinuses take away a minimal amount of strength from bones while reducing the weight of bones

Which type of muscle requires somatic (voluntary) nervous stimulation for activation? - skeletal - visceral - smooth - cardiac

skeletal

Of the following muscle types, which has the longest muscle cells and has obvious stripes called striations? - visceral smooth muscle - cardiac muscle - skeletal muscle - multiunit smooth muscle

skeletal muscle

Which of these effectors is not directly controlled by the autonomic nervous system? - cardiac muscle - most glands - smooth muscle - skeletal muscle

skeletal muscle

Which of the following statements is true? - skeletal muscle cells are long and cylindrical with many nuclei - cardiac muscle cells are found in the heart and large blood vessels - cardiac muscle cells have many nuclei - smooth muscle cells have t tubules

skeletal muscle cells are long and cylindrical with many nuclei

Which of the following statements best illustrates the fact that skeletal muscle is voluntary muscle? - skeletal muscle is wrapped in several layers of connective tissue. the deepest layer being the endomysium - skeletal muscle fibers are innervated by somatic motor neurons - skeletal muscle appears striated due to the structure of the sarcomeres - the shivering reflex aids in maintaining body temperature

skeletal muscle fibers are innervated by somatic motor neurons

Which of the following is not an autonomic nervous system function? - skeletal muscle reflex - gland secretion - increasing heart rate - emptying the bladder

skeletal muscle reflex

Under a microscope you observe a tissue that appears to have long fibers that appear striated. The nuclei are pushed off to the side of the fibers. The tissue looks very vascular. What type of tissue are you observing? - dense irregular connective tissue - dense regular connective tissue - skeletal muscle tissue - osseous tissue

skeletal muscle tissue

Which of the following are correctly paired? - skeletal muscle; voluntary control - cardiac muscle; nonstriated - smooth muscle; striated - cardiac muscle; voluntary control

skeletal muscle; voluntary control

Which of the following bones are not a part of the appendicular skeleton? - shoulder - upper limb - skull - hip

skull

Addition of more mitochondria to a muscle fiber will have the greatest effect on ________. - slow oxidative fibers - both slow and fast oxidative fibers - fast glycolytic fibers - fast oxidative fibers

slow oxidative fibers

If given the same amount of ATP, which fiber type would contract for the longest amount of time? - fast oxidative fibers - both fast glycolytic and fast oxidative fibers - slow oxidative fibers - fast glycolytic fibers

slow oxidative fibers

Reduction in blood flow to a muscle fiber would have the greatest effect on ________. - fast glycolytic - fast oxidative fibers - both slow and fast oxidative - slow oxidative fibers

slow oxidative fibers

Which of the following organelles is correctly paired with its function? - mitochondrion; packaging proteins and lipids - golgi apparatus; produce energy for the cell - smooth endoplasmic reticulum; metabolism of lipids - lysosome; protein synthesis

smooth endoplasmic reticulum; metabolism of lipids

Which of the following is not an example of the same level of structural organization as that represented by image 6? - smooth muscle - blood vessel - stomach - skin

smooth muscle

Using your hospitals information portal, your patient reviews the report from her recent biopsy, which includes a reference to "smooth muscle". She asks you if this means her muscles are abnormal. What is the best explanation is? - smooth muscle tissue is found in abundance in athletes and dancers, allowing them to move more smoothly than the average person. - smooth muscle tissue controls involuntary movements, including the pumping of the heart - smooth muscle tissue is called smooth because it moves blood and digestive secretions smoothly through the blood vessels and digestive tract. - smooth muscle tissue controls many involuntary functions. unlike the muscles that control voluntary movement and the heart, it has no "stripes" or striations and so is "smooth"

smooth muscle tissue controls many involuntary functions. unlike the muscles that control voluntary movement and the heart, it has no "stripes" or striations and so is "smooth"

It diffuses across the cell membrane resulting in depolarization.

sodium ions

Nerve impulses leading to the skeletal muscle carry information to direct movement. the nerve fibers sending these signals will most likely belong to which division of the nervous system? - sensory (afferent) division - somatic nervous system - sympathetic division - parasympathetic division

somatic nervous system

What division of the nervous system is most specifically responsible for voluntary motor control? - central nervous system - sympathetic nervous system - parasympathetic nervous system - somatic nervous system

somatic nervous system

The sella turcica is part of the _____ bone and houses the _____ gland. - ethmoid; pituitary - sphenoid; thymus - sphenoid; pituitary - ethmoid; thymus

sphenoid; pituitary

The sella turcica is part of the _____ bone and houses the _____ gland. - ethmoid; pituitary - sphenoid; thymus - sphenoid; pituitray - ethmoid; thymus

sphenoid; pituitary

Which middle ear ossicle is attached to, and transmits vibratory motion to, the oval window? - stapes - malleus - incus - anvil

stapes

The major head flexor muscles are the ________. - splenius muscles - scalane muscles - trapezius muscles - sternocleidomastoid muscle

sternocleidomastoid muscle

Creatine phosphate functions in the muscle cell by ______. - storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP - forming a temporary chemical compound with myosin - inducing a conformation change in the myofilaments - forming a chemical compound with actin

storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP

Select the correct statement regarding epithelia. - stratified epithelia are present where protection from abrasion is important - stratified epithelia are tall, narrow cells - simple epithelia form impermeable barriers - pseudostratified epithelia consist of at least two layers of cells stacked on top of one another

stratified epithelia are present where protection from abrasion is important

A many-layered epithelium with cuboidal basal cells and flat cells at its surface would be classified as ________. - stratified squamous - transitional - simple cuboidal - simple squamous

stratified squamous

Which of the following epithelial tissue types is not correctly matched to its function? - stratified squamous epithelium; absorption - simple cuboidal epithelium; secretion - simple squamous epithelium; filtration - simple columnar epithelium with microvilli; absorption

stratified squamous epithelium; absorption

Pigment can be found in several layers of the epidermis. In which layers would you expect to find the cells that produce melanin? - stratum spinosum - stratum basale - stratum lucidum - stratum granulosum

stratum basale

The epidermis consists of five layers of cells, each layer with a distinct role to play in the health, well-being, and functioning of the skin. Which of the following layers is responsible for cell division and replacement? - stratum basale - stratum lucidum - stratum corneum - stratum granulosum

stratum basale

Which layer of the epidermis will be supplied with the highest levels of oxygen from the blood? - stratum corneum - stratum granulosum - stratum basale - stratum spinosum

stratum basale

Which stratum of the epidermis contains the stem cells responsible for regenerating the more superficial layers? - stratum granulosum - stratum corneum - stratum basale - stratum spinosum

stratum basale

What is the correct order (top to bottom) of - stratum granulosum - stratum basale - stratum spinosum - stratum corneum

stratum corneum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, stratum basale

What function do transitional epithelia have? - filtration - resistance to friction - absorption - stretching

stretching

Which of the following correctly describes a common feature of all structures labeled A through D in the figure? - Structures a, b, and d are all various types of glands - structures a, b, c, and d are located in the dermis - structures a, b, c, and d are composed primarily of smooth muscle - structures a, b, c, and d are all involved in the sensory functions of the skin

structures a, b, c, and d are located in the dermis

Which of the following terms describes layer D? - papillary - epidermal - reticular - subcutaneous

subcutaneous

Which directional term is used to describe the relationship of the skin to the skeletal muscles? - superficial - deep - medial - lateral

superficial

Fibrous joints are classified as ________. - sutures, syndesmoses, and gomphoses - pivot, hinge, and ball and socket - symphysis, sacroiliac, and articular - hinge, saddle, and ellipsoidal

sutures, syndesmoses, and gomphoses

If the figure were used to represent the regulation of body temperature, the structures represented by the letter C would include ______. - temperature regulators in the brain - temperature sensors in the brain - hot and cold sensors in the skin - sweat glands in the skin

sweat glands in the skin

a red blood cell placed in pure water would _____ - swell initially, then shrink as equilibrium is reached - neither shrink nor swell - shrink - swell and burst

swell and burst

Preparing the body for the ʺfight-or-flightʺ response is the role of the ________. A) sympathetic divison B) cerebrum C) parasympathetic division D) somatic nervous system

sympathetic division

The "fight or flight" division of the autonomic nervous system is the ______. - peripheral division - sympathetic division - parasympathetic division - somatic division

sympathetic division

The secretions of the adrenal medulla act to supplement the effects of _______. - vagus (X) nerve activity - sympathetic stimulation - parasympathetic innervation - somatic stimulation

sympathetic stimulation

Which of the following best describes the joint labeled B in the figure? - synarthrotic - fibrous - diarthrotic - amphiarthrotic

synarthrotic

Which of the following are cartilaginous joints? - synchondroses - gomphoses - sutures - syndesmoses

synchondroses

A situation where the bones are connected exclusively by ligaments, cords, or bands of fibrous tissue is a _____. - sychondrosis - gomphosis - suture - syndesmosis

syndesmosis

On the basis of structural classification, which is a fibrous joint? - synchondrosis - pivot - syndesmosis - symphysis

syndesmosis

Which of the following represents a structural classification for joints that are separated by a joint cavity? - synovial - diarthrosis - cartilaginous - fibrous

synovial

which of the following correctly states the functions of the rough endoplasmic reticulum? - storage of calcium ions - lipid metabolism, cholesterol synthesis, and synthesis of the lipid components of lipoproteins - synthesis of cellular membrane components - absorption, synthesis, and transport of fats

synthesis of cellular membrane components

What major function occurs on the specific membranes indicated by A? - replication of DNA - synthesis of proteins - digestion of ingested food - production of most of the cell's ATP

synthesis of proteins

The RNA responsible for bringing the amino acids to the ribosome for protein formation is _____? - mRNA - tRNA - rRNA - ssRNA

tRNA

_____ is a molecule that brings amino acids to the ribosome during translation. - mRNA - DNA - tRNA - rRNA

tRNA

Which of the following releases neurotransmitter norepinephrine? - terminus of a parasympathetic postganglionic neuron - terminus of a sympathetic postganglionic neuron - terminus of a somatic motor neuron - terminus of a sympathetic preganglionic neuron

terminus of a sympathetic postganglionic neuron

The letter A in the figure indicates which of the following structures? - thalamus - lateral ventricles - hypothalamus - cerebral nuclei

thalamus

Which part of the CNS sorts almost all sensory information ascending to the cerebral cortex? - hypothalamus - thalamus - pons - mesencephalon

thalamus

When a sarcomere contracts and thin filaments move over thick filaments you would expect to see ________. - the h zone to appear wider - the I bands to appear smaller - the A band to appear darker - the I bands to appear wider

the I bands to appear smaller

Which of the following is not a factor that contributes to joint stability? - the shape of the articulating surfaces - the amount of synovial fluid in the joint cavity - the number and positioning of reinforcing ligaments - the amount of muscle tone applied to tendons that cross the joint

the amount of synovial fluid in the joint cavity

Which of the following statements is incorrect? - the appendicular skeleton includes the bones of the limbs - the axial skeleton includes the bones of the limbs - the appendicular skeleton allows us to move around - the axial skeleton supports and protects internal organs

the axial skeleton includes the bones of the limbs

which of the following would be an example of the process taking place at B? - the conversion of a chemical messenger molecule into a specific product - the binding of a chemical messenger activating a cytoplasmic enzyme, such as kinase, that leads to specific cellular responses - the movement of a specific protein from the membrane to the cytoplasm - the transport of a specific chemical messenger into the cell

the binding of a chemical messenger activating a cytoplasmic enzyme, such as kinase, that leads to specific cellular responses

Which of the following is the proper description of the human body in the anatomical position? - the body is erect with feet together, palms facing the thighs, and thumbs pointing forward - the body is erect with feet slightly apart and arms extending perpendicular to the torso along a straight line with the clavicle - the body is erect with feet together, palms facing backward, and thumbs pointing toward the body - the body is erect with feet slightly apart, palms facing forward, and thumbs pointing away from the body.

the body is erect with feet slightly apart, palms facing forward, and thumbs pointing away from the body.

If cells are placed in a hypertonic solution containing a solute to which the membrane is impermeable, what could happen? - the cells will show no change due to diffusion of both solute and solvent - the cells will swell and ultimately burst - the cells will shrink at first, but will later reach equilibrium with the surrounding solution and return to their original condition. - the cells will lose water and shrink

the cells will swell and ultimately burst

Which portion of the ear is responsible for sound transduction? - the ossicles - the cochlea - the tympanic membrane - the tympanic membrane - the vestibule

the cochlea

What is the major factor controlling how levers work? - the weight of the load - the direction the load is being moved - the difference in the positioning of the effort, load, and fulcrum - the structural characteristics of the muscles of the person using the lever

the difference in the positioning of the effort, load, and fulcrum

Cell bodies of the sensory neurons are located in ________. - the ventral root ganglia of the spinal cord - the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord - sympathetic ganglia - the thalamus

the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord

The arrow in the figure is pointing to which of the following structures? - the articular cartilage - a primary ossification center - the epiphyseal plate - a secondary ossification center

the epiphyseal plate

a patient has lost the ability to taste food. which nerve may have been damaged? - the optic nerves - trigeminal nerves - the facial nerves - the abducens nerves

the facial nerves

Which is the largest, longest, and strongest bone in the body? - the tibia - the os coxae - the femur - the fibula

the femur

What is intramembranous ossification? - the formation of bone from within fibrous membranes - the formation of bone from preexisting hyaline cartilage models - the formation of bone from preexisting fibrocartilage models - the formation of bone from preexisting elastic cartilage models

the formation of bone from within fibrous membranes

Which of the following best describes the process shown in the figure? - bone remodeling in response to changes in mechanical stress - bone repair at a site of fracture - the formation of bone in a membrane - the formation of bone in a preexisting cartilage model

the formation of bone in a membrane

What is the role of the hair matrix? - the hair matrix serves as an anchor for the hair shaft - the hair matrix serves as a sensory receptor - the hair matrix allows hair to "stand on end" or become erect - the hair matrix produces hair

the hair matrix produces hair

A toxin released by certain bacteria can block the release of neurotransmitters into a neuromuscular synapse. What would result from such a block? - the loss of ability to contract the mterm-475uscle - the muscle would become permanently contracted - the muscle would remain fixed at the length it was when the toxin contracted it.

the loss of ability to contract the muscle

Which part of the vertebral column receives the most stress by bearing most of the weight of the body? - the cervical region - the sacral promontory - the sacrum - the lumbar region

the lumbar region

Which of the following is not a difference between graded potentials and action potentials? - the magnitude of action potentials decrease as the impulse travels further away from the start of the impulse while graded potentials do not decrease in magnitude - greater stimulus intensity results in larger graded potentials, but not larger action potentials - graded potentials can result from the opening of chemically gated channels; action potentials require the opening of voltage-gated channels - graded potentials occur along dendrites, whereas action potentials occur along axons

the magnitude of action potentials decrease as the impulse travels further away from the start of the impulse while graded potentials do not decrease in magnitude

Old age affects many parts of the skeleton. Which of the following is NOT associated with old age? - the vertebrae become more porous and likely to fracture - the intervertebral discs become thinner and less elastic - the thoracic cage becomes more rigid as costal cartilages ossify - the mandible continues to grow and thicken

the mandible continues to grow and thicken

Which of the following statements most accurately describes the effect caused by binding of the neurotransmitter (green dots) to the structure labeled C? - the membrane potential of the postsynaptic membrane changes - the membrane potential of the presynaptic membrane changes - the neurotransmitter is transported into the postsynaptic neuron - an action potential is generated

the membrane potential of the postsynaptic membrane changes

When the term biceps, triceps, or quadriceps forms part of a muscle's name, what does it tell you about the muscle? - the muscle has two, three, or four origins, respectively - the muscle has two, three, or four functions, respectively - the muscle is able to change direction twice, three times, or four times faster than other muscles, respectively - the muscle has two, three, or four insertions, respectively

the muscle has two, three, or four origins, respectively

Based on what you know of the relationship between the thick and the thin filaments, what would happen if a disorder existed that caused a person to produce no tropomyosin? - the muscle tissues would never be able to relax - the muscle would never contract - actin will spontaneously fall apart - the muscle would be weaker than normal

the muscle tissues would never be able to relax

What result would be expected if an additional stimulus, equal in intensity to the first, were to be applied to the muscle at the 60 millisecond (ms) time point? - the tension exerted by the muscle would continue to decrease, but at a significantly slower rate than observed without the second stimulus - the muscle would quickly return to the fully relaxed state of minimum tension - the muscle would increased in tension to a level greater than that measured at the beginning of phase C - tension would increase to the same maximum force measured at the beginning of phase C

the muscle would increased in tension to a level greater than that measured at the beginning of phase C

Saltatory conduction is made possible by ________. A) the myelin sheath B) large nerve fibers C) diphasic impulses D) erratic transmission of nerve impulses

the myelin sheath

Which of the following would be most associated with process of warming, humidifying, and filtering the air we inhale? - hyoid bone - the cranial bones - the nasal cavity - the bones comprising the orbits

the nasal cavity

which of the following is not used as a criterion for naming muscles? - the location of the muscle - the nervous system's control of the muscle - the locations of the muscle attachments - the shape of the muscle - the number of origins for the muscle

the nervous system's control of the muscle

Which bone or pair of bones forms the most superior portion of the cranium? - the frontal bone - the parietal bones - the occipital bone - the temporal bones

the parietal bones

How are the male and female pelvises different? - the female pelvis has thicker bones with more prominent bone markings - the pelvic inlet is heart-shaped in the male - the male pelvis is usually wider, shallower, and lighter - the acetabula are larger and closer together in the female

the pelvic inlet is heart-shaped in the male

Which of the following statements is false? - the female pelvis is tilted further forward than the male pelvis - the pubic arch is broader in the pelvis of a female than in the pelvis of a male - the pelvic outlet is narrower in a female than in a male - the female pelvis is thinner than that of a male

the pelvic outlet is narrower in a female than in a male

Injury to cervical vertebra C3-C4 is particularly problematic because ________. - several ganglia are near this region that serve the heart - the phrenic nerve that serves the diaphragm receives its fibers from here - part of the brain stem is located here - the greater auricular nerve that serve the parotid gland receive their fibers from here

the phrenic nerve that serves the diaphragm receives its fibers from here

Which of the following statements is true? - the scapula marks the origin of the appendicular skeleton - the humerus is the most proximal bone in the upper appendicular skeleton - the radius is the lateral bone in the forearm - the phalanges in the thumb are the most medial bones in the hand

the radius is the lateral bone in the forearm

Which of the following represents the correct order in which the components interact in a homeostatic control system? - the effector, the stimulus, and the receptor - the variable, the receptor, and the set point - the receptor, the stimulus, and the effector - the receptor, the control center, and the effector

the receptor, the control center, and the effector

The dermis has two major layers. Which layer constitutes 80% of the dermis and is responsible for the tension lines in the skin? - the subcutaneous layer - the hypodermal layer - the reticular layer - the papillary layer

the reticular layer

Which dermal layer is responsible for the dermal properties of skin that are evident as cleavage lines? - the granular layer - the papillary layer - the reticular layer - the basal layer

the reticular layer

The 100-meter dash is a quick and short run requiring explosive speed. On completion of the dash, the runners will continue to breathe hard for several seconds to minutes even though they are no longer running. Which of the following is the best explanation for why this is so? - the runners' use of stored oxygen, glucose, and creatine phosphate is being replenished and this requires a prolonged increase of oxygen intake - the runners' fast oxidative muscles are so slow to utilize oxygen, they only begin aerobic respiration by the time the run has finished. - since the exercise was mostly aerobic exercise, the runners' bodies have not yet realized the run is over - slow oxidative fibers are recruited last and have only started to work at completion of the run.

the runners' use of stored oxygen, glucose, and creatine phosphate is being replenished and this requires a prolonged increase of oxygen intake

The contractile, or functional, unit of a muscle fiber is __________. - troponin - the elastic filament - the myofilament - the sarcomere

the sarcomere

Which muscle cell structure stores calcium ions that are used to trigger the contraction? - the sarcolemma - glycosome - the myofibril - the sarcoplasmic reticulum

the sarcoplasmic reticulum

Which of the following represents a difference between eccrine sweat glands and apocrine sweat glands? - eccrine sweat glands use exocytosis to secrete their product, while apocrine sweat glands do not - eccrine sweat glands begin to function at puberty, while apocrine sweat glands function throughout life - the secretions of apocrine sweat glands contain more fat and protein than do the secretions of eccrine sweat glands - eccrine sweat glands are located deeper in the dermis than apocrine sweat glands

the secretions of apocrine sweat glands contain more fat and protein than do the secretions of eccrine sweat glands

The axial skeleton includes ______. - the skull, the scapula, and the vertebral column - arms, legs, hands, and feet - the skull, vertebral column, and pelvis - the skull, vertebral column, and rib cage

the skull, vertebral column, and rib cage

Which of the following is not a facial bone? - the maxilla - the nasal bone - the vomer bone - the zygomatic bone - the sphenoid bone

the sphenoid bone

Which of the following bones is not part of the orbit? - the frontal bone - the temporal bone - the zygomatic bone - the maxilla

the temporal bone

Which of the following would be most associated with housing the special sense organs? - the bones of the inner ear - the temporal bones - hyoid bone - the cranial bones

the temporal bones

What is the main factor that determines the power of a muscle? - the number of neurons innervating it - the length - the total number of muscle fibers (cells) available for contraction - the shape

the total number of muscle fibers (cells) available for contraction

Which of these is not a way of classifying muscles? - muscle shape - the type of muscle fibers - the type of action they cause - muscle location

the type of muscle fibers

The dorsal body cavity is divided into which of the following subdivisions? - the vertebral/spinal and thoracic cavities - the vertebral/spinal, cranial and pleural cavities - the vertebral/spinal and cranial cavities - the thoracic, pleural, and abdominopelvic cavities

the vertebral/spinal and cranial cavities

What change in a neuron is being measured in the graph? - the voltage measured between the neuron cell body and the axonal terminals - the voltage measured across the axon membrane at a specific point as an action potential travels past - the voltage measured across the axon membrane at various points along an axon at a specific instance during an action potential - the speed of an action potential as it moves down the length of an axon

the voltage measured across the axon membrane at a specific point as an action potential travels past

Why are the waves represented by the number 3 being sensed closer to the oval window than those represented by 4? - the waves at 3 have a higher amplitude than 4 - the waves at 3 have a lower frequency than 4 - the waves at 3 have a lower amplitude than 4 - the waves at 3 have a higher frequency than 4

the waves at 3 have a higher frequency than 4

Which of the bones of the skull would you also refer to as a cheekbone? - the temporal bone - the zygomatic bone - the parietal bone - the occipital bone

the zygomatic bone

Which of the following bones do not contain a paired paranasal sinus? - the frontal bones - the zygomatic bones - the sphenoid bones - the ethmoid bones

the zygomatic bones

What feature of the prickle cells in layer C causes them to have pointy projections after tissue preparation? - their desmosome attachments - the rigidity of the cell membrane - glycolipids that make the layer waterproof pulling by shrunken keratin fibers between the cells

their desmosome attachments

What is the basic condition when a neuron is described as polarized? - there are large, protein anions inside the neuron - na+ is found outside the neuron and K+ is found inside of the cell - there is a separation of positive and negative charges across a membrane - Na+ is found outside the neuron.

there is a separation of positive and negative charges across a membrane

Which of the following does not characterize proteins? - they may be denatured or coagulated by heat or acidity - they appear to be the molecular carriers of coded hereditary information - they have both functional and structural roles in the body. - their function depends on their three-dimensional shape

they appear to be the molecular carriers of coded hereditary information

Which of the following is not a characteristic of neurons? - they conduct impulses - they have an exceptionally high metabolic rate - they are mitotic - the have extreme longevity

they are mitotic

Identify the function of the structures labeled (2) in this image. - they communicate hearing information to the vestibulocochlear nerve - they conduct sound waves and amplify the vibrations within the middle ear - they sort waves by frequency - they detect sound waves in air

they conduct sound waves and amplify the vibrations within the middle ear

Which of the following is not true of graded potentials? - they can be called postsynaptic potentials - the are short-lived - they can form on receptor endings - they increase amplitude as they move away from the stimulus point

they increase amplitude as they move away from the stimulus point

If L = load, F = fulcrum, and E = effort, what type of lever system is described as LEF? - first-class lever - second-class lever - third-class lever - fourth-class lever

third-class lever

To what region of the vertebral column does this vertebra belong? - thoracic - lumbar - cervical - sacral

thoracic

which of these is not part of the dorsal cavity? - cranial cavity - thoracic cavity - spinal cord - vertebral cavity

thoracic cavity

How many ossicles are found in the ear? - two - three - four - five

three

Any stimulus at or above this level will result in action potential.

threshold stimulus

What level of structural organization is represented by the image numbered 5 in the figure? - tissue - organ - cell - organelle

tissue

What are the major functions of the intervertebral discs? - to prevent hyperextension and allow rotation of the spine - to remove curvatures of the spine and provide springiness to the spinal column - to absorb shock and provide flexibility to the spine - to hold together the vertebra and support the body

to absorb shock and provide flexibility to the spine

An enzyme known as acetylcholinesterase is present in the synaptic cleft. What is its role? - to break down acetylcholine - to facilitate the entrance of acetylcholine into the muscle cell - to pump Ca2+ back out of the axon terminal - to facilitated transport of acetylcholine across the cleft

to break down acetylcholine

What is the function of the structure at A? - to lubricate hair and prevent infection - to detect touch - to cool the body - to provide nourishment for the cells in the hair

to lubricate hair and prevent infection

Generally what is the result of the negative feedback process? - to keep the body's blood sugar level high - to maintain homeostasis - to control body movement - to regulate excretion via the kidneys

to maintain homeostasis

Which of these is not a function of the layer D? - to store energy - to insulate the body from heat loss - to loosely connect the skin to underlying tissue - to supply cells to replace those lost from the epidermis

to supply cells to replace those lost from the epidermis

Spongy bone contains _____. - trabeculae - lamellar bone - osteons - osseous lamellae

trabeculae

What process allows for the production of molecule B from a template consisting of the molecule A? - replication - transport - translation - transcription

transcription

______ is a powerful forearm extensor at the elbow joint. - brachioradialis - triceps brachii - biceps brachii - brachialis

triceps brachii

Choose which bone marking type would likely increase in size when a weight lifter repeatedly exercises muscles that attach to it. - fossa - trochanter - foramen - meatus

trochanter

Which of the following is a site for a muscle or ligament attachment? - sinus - foramen - fossa - trochanter - groove

trochanter

What is the role of tropomyosin in skeletal muscles? - tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the actin binding sites on the myosin molecules - tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the myosin binding sites on the actin molecules - tropomyosin is the chemical that activates the myosin heads - tropomyosin is the receptor for the motor neuron neurotransmitter

tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the myosin binding sites on the actin molecules

The interaction between which protein and ion initiates muscle coupling? - myosin; sodium ions - troponin; calcium ions - tropomyosin; calcium ions - troponin; sodium ions

troponin; calcium ions

A stimulus traveling toward a synapse appears to open calcium ion channels at the presynaptic end, which in turn promotes fusion of synaptic vesicles to the axonal membrane. T/F

true

Acetylcholine is released by all somatic motor neurons, all preganglionic neurons of the ANS and by the postganglionic parasympathetic nerve fibers. T/F?

true

All organic compounds contain carbon except CO2 and CO. T/F

true

Cell bodies of somatic motor neurons are located in the ventral (anterior) horn of the spinal cord. T/F?

true

Cerebrospinal fluid circulates within the ventricles of the brain and in the subarachnoid space. T/F?

true

Excitability is the ability of a cell to receive and respond to stimulus by changing its membrane potential. T/F?

true

Hinge joints permit movement in only one plane. True / False

true

If the neuron membrane becomes more permeable to Na+, Na+ will transport across the membrane, causing the cell to depolarize. T/F

true

In myelinated axons the voltage regulated sodium channels are concentrated at the nodes of ranvier. T/F?

true

Movement at the hip joint does not have as wide a range of motion as at the shoulder joint. T/F

true

Moving a limb so that it describes a cone in space is called circumduction. T/F

true

Muscle power depends mostly on the total number of muscle fibers (cells) in the muscle. T/F

true

One functional center found within the medulla oblongata is a respiratory center involved in the control of the rate and depth of breathing. T/F?

true

Opening K+ or Cl- channels in a postsynaptic membrane would produce an inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP). T/F

true

Some sympathetic preganglionic fibers stimulate the adrenal medulla to release norepinephrine and epinephrine into the blood, producing what is commonly called a "surge of adrenaline." T/F

true

The effect of the parasympathetic division on the penis is vasodilation causing erection, while ejaculation is due to sympathetic stimulation. T/F?

true

The function of the lens of the eye is to allow precise focusing of light on the retina. T/F?

true

The limbic system acts as our emotional, or affective, brain. T/F?

true

bundles of axons in the central nervous system are called tracts. T/F?

true

Phospholipids make up most of the lipid part of the cell membrane. Since water exists on both the outside and inside of a cell. which of the following phospholipid arrangements makes the most sense? - two back-to-back phospholipid layers with the non-polar tails facing out on both sides - a single layer of phospholipids with the polar heads facing outside the cell - two back-to-back phospholipid layers with the polar heads facing out on both sides - a single layer of phospholipids with the polar heads facing inside the cell

two back-to-back phospholipid layers with the polar heads facing out on both sides

Name the structure represented by (1). - vestibule - cochlea - tympanic membrane - auditory ossicles

tympanic membrane

Which of the following taste sensations is incorrectly matched to the chemicals that produce it? - umami- triglycerides and fatty acids - sweet- organic substances such as sugar and some lead salts - bitter- alkaloids - salty- metal ions - sour- acids

umami- triglycerides and fatty acids

Which of these materials or structures would be found in greatest amounts or numbers at E? - chemically gated sodium ion channels - vesicles containing neurotransmitter - the nucleolus - chromatophilic substance (nissl bodies)

vesicles containing neurotransmitter

Problems in balance may follow trauma to which nerve? A) abducens B) vestibulocochlear C) trigeminal D) accessory

vestibulocochlear

Which cranial nerve transmits auditory information? - vagus - vestibulocochlear - abducens - optic

vestibulocochlear

Visceral reflex arcs differ from somatic in that ________. - visceral arcs do not use integration centers - somatic arcs contain one additional component that visceral arcs do not posses - visceral arcs contain two sensory neurons - visceral arcs involve two motor neurons

visceral arcs involve two motor neurons

The only special sense not fully functional at birth is the sense of ________. - taste - equilibrium - smell - hearing - vision

vision

What is the main function of the rods in the eye? - accommodation for near vision - vision in dim light - depth perception - color vision

vision in dim light

Select the statement below that is not true with regards to the process of light adaption. - rhodopsin is uncoupled from light transduction - the activity of rods is reduced by rapid bleaching of rhodopsin - visual acuity is diminished - retinal sensitivity decreases

visual acuity is diminished

Which ion channel opens in response to a change in membrane potential and participates in the generation and conduction of action potentials? - mechanically-gated channels - leakage channel - voltage-gated channel - ligand-gated channel

voltage-gated channel

Immediately after an action potential has peaked, which of the following channels will open? - voltage-gated calcium channels - chemically-gated chloride channels - voltage-gated sodium channels - voltage-gated potassium channels

voltage-gated potassium channels

Bones do NOT have a role in __________. - blood cell formation - fat storage - support - movement - waste removal

waste removal

What are menisci (articular discs)? - small sacs containing synovial fluid - tendon sheaths - wedges of fibrocartilage that partially or completely divide the synovial cavity - cavities lined with cartilage

wedges of fibrocartilage that partially or completely divide the synovial cavity

Cranial bones develop ________. - from cartilage models - within fibrous membranes - from a tendon - within osseous membranes

within fibrous membranes