anatomy pdf (1-260)

1. Which of the following examples below describes an autoimmune disease? A) Release of bacterial endotoxins that block acetylcholine release result in muscle paralysis. B) Antibody binding to acetylcholine receptors of the motor end plate resulting in muscle weakness. C) Infection and death of T-helper cells by a virus, resulting in a loss of adaptive immunity. D) Uncontrolled cell division resulting in cell surface abnormalities recognized by NK cells.

Antibody binding to acetylcholine receptors of the motor end plate resulting in muscle weakness

.1. Select the correct statement about the physical factors influencing pulmonary ventilation. A)A decrease in compliance causes an increased in ventilation B) A lung that is less elastic will require less muscle action to perform adequate ventilation C) As alveolar surface tension increases, additional muscle action will be required. D) surfactant helps increase alveolar surface tension

As alveolar surface tension increases, additional muscle action will be required.

1. Select the correct statement about lymphocytes. a- the two main types are T cells and macrophages b- B cells produce plasma cells, which secrete antibodies into the blood. c- T cells are the only forms of lymphocyte found in lymphoid tissue d- T cells are the precursors

B cells produce plasma cells, which secrete antibodies into the blood.

Place the following in correct sequence from the formation of a drop of urine to its elimination from the body A) 6, 3, 2, 1, 5, 4 B) 3, 6, 2, 1, 5, 4 C) 3, 1, 2, 6, 5, 4 D) 2, 1, 3, 6, 5, 4

B) 3, 6, 2, 1, 5, 4

1. Which will NOT occur if blood pressure drops below homeostatic levels? a.) The cardioacceleratory center of the medulla will be activated. b.) Vasomotor center of the medulla will trigger vasoconstriction. c.) Cardiac output will increase. d.) Baroreceptors in the carotid sinuses and aortic arch will be stimulated.

Baroreceptors in the carotid sinuses and aortic arch will be stimulated.

1. Given an end diastolic volume (EDV) of 120 ml / beat and an end systolic volume (ESV) of 50 ml / beat, the stroke volume (SV) would be ________. A) 120mL/beats B) 50mL/ beats C) 170 mL/ beats D) 70 mL/ beats

) 70 mL/ beats

1. Which vitamin requires intrinsic factor in order to be absorbed? A) B12 B) K C) A D) C

) B12

1. Choose the incorrect statement regarding bile. A) Bile is both an excretory product and a digestive secretion. B) Bile functions to emulsify fats. C) Bile functions to carry bilirubin formed from breakdown of worn-out RBCs. D) Bile contains enzymes for digestion

) Bile contains enzymes for digestion

1. Damage to the medial rectus muscles would probably affect ________. a) Refraction b) Accommodation c) Convergence d) pupil constriction

) Convergence

1. A man has been told that he is NOT synthesizing enough follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), and for this reason he may be unable to father a child. Choose the correct statement to explain this problem. A) FSH stimulates estrogen secretion by ovarian cells; therefore, it is not synthesized by males. B) A hormone made in the anterior pituitary cannot influence fertility. C) FSH stimulates sperm production in the testes. D) The man must be producing progesterone, which inhibits the synthesis of FSH.

) FSH stimulates sperm production in the testes.

1. Several hours after your last meal, declining blood glucose levels stimulate release of the hormone ________, which stimulates glycogenolysis, lipolysis and fat mobilization, and gluconeogenesis. ← A) Glucagon B) Cortisol C) Thyroxine Insuline

) Glucagon

1. Which of the following does not describe actions of interferon (IFN)? A) IFN binds to normal, uninfected cells stimulating the activation of genes that produce anti-viral proteins. B) IFN can penetrate the viral capsid and destroy the virus. C) Virally infected cells can release interferon which attracts NK cells to attack and kill the IFN secreting cell. D) IFN will attract macrophages to the secreting cell to be removed by phagocytosis.

) IFN can penetrate the viral capsid and destroy the virus.

1. Which movement of ions produces EPSPs in cochlea hair cells? A) Influx of Na+ B) Efflux of Ca++ C) Influx of K and Ca D) Efflux of K

) Influx of K and Ca

1. Which of the following statements regarding the hepatic portal system is false? A) It branches off of the inferior vena cava. B) Its major vessels are the superior mesenteric, inferior mesenteric, and splenic veins. C) It carries nutrients, toxins, and microorganisms to the liver for processing. D) It consists of a vein connecting two capillary beds together

) It branches off of the inferior vena cava.

1. Which is NOT true of thrombocytopenia? A) It is caused by having a low number of circulating platelets. B) It may produce petechiae. C) It can be caused by conditions that destroy bone marrow. D) It increases the risk of embolus formation.

) It increases the risk of embolus formation

1. All but one of the events described below occur during spermiogenesis.Select the event that does not occur during spermiogenesis. A) The centrioles migrate to the posterior end of the developing sperm to form the microtubules that make up the flagellum. B) Mitochondrial DNA is packaged into the nucleus to be delivered to the egg during fertilization. C) Excessive cytoplasm will be shed to reduce unneeded mass of the maturing sperm. D) Mitochondria form around the proximal end of the flagellum. They will provide the ATP to drive the motion of the flagellum.

) Mitochondrial DNA is packaged into the nucleus to be delivered to the egg during fertilization.

1. Which statement about CO2 is FALSE? ← A) Its concentration in the blood is decreased by hyperventilation. B) More CO2 dissolves in the blood plasma than is carried in the RBCs. C) Its accumulation in the blood is associated with a decrease in pH. D) CO2 concentrations are greater in venous blood than arterial blood.

) More CO2 dissolves in the blood plasma than is carried in the RBCs.

1. Which of the following statements regarding NK cells is a false or incorrect statement?← A) NK cells attack cells that display abnormal or lack MHC antigens. B) NK cells are a type of neutrophil. C) NK cells attack cancer cells and virus-infected body cells. D) NK cells are present in the blood, spleen, lymph nodes, and red bone marrow.

) NK cells are a type of neutrophil.

1. Which of the following is true about photoreceptors? A) Rods absorb light throughout the visual spectrum but confer only gray tone vision. B) If all cones are stimulated equally, all colors are absorbed by the cones and the color perceived is black. C) In dim light, images are focused directly on the rods in the fovea centralis. D) Three types of color-sensitive photoreceptors exist: red, green, and yellow.

) Rods absorb light throughout the visual spectrum but confer only gray tone vision.

1. Which organ is responsible for synthesizing the hormone atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)? a) The kidneys b) The heart c) The lungs d) The liver

) The heart

1. Why doesn't semen enter the urinary bladder during ejaculation? A) There is no urge to urinate during sexual intercourse because of the suppression of LH by testosterone buildup in the blood. B) The smooth muscle sphincter at the base of the urinary bladder closes C) There is no common duct between the reproductive system and the urinary system. D) Ejaculation is a parasympathetic reflex that activates urinary contraction muscles

) The smooth muscle sphincter at the base of the urinary bladder close

1. Which statement is true about T cells? A) Once activated, they cannot secrete cytokines. B) They usually directly recognize antigens, which then activates a subpopulation of killer cells. C) They will develop into cytotoxic T cells if antigen is complexed with class II MHC proteins. D) Their proliferation is enhanced by interleukins 1 and 2.

) Their proliferation is enhanced by interleukins 1 and 2.

1. Which of the choices below are the most important hormone regulators of electrolyte reabsorption and secretion? A) angiotensin II and ADH B) angiotensin I and atrial natriuretic peptide C) angiotensin II and aldosterone D) angiotensin I and epinephrine

) angiotensin II and aldosterone

1. The nose serves all of the following functions EXCEPT ____. A) cleansing the air B) warming and humidifying the air C) as the direct initiator of the cough reflex D) as a passageway for air movement

) as the direct initiator of the cough reflex

1. Which of the following is NOT part of the intrinsic conduction system of the heart? a) atrioventricular (AV) valve b) bundle branches c) sinoatrial (SA) node d) atrioventricular (AV) node

) atrioventricular (AV) valve

1. Which of the following INCORRECTLY describes mechanisms of CO2 transport? A) as bicarbonate ions in plasma B) 7-10% of CO2 is dissolved directly into the plasma C) just over 20% of CO2 is carried in the form of carbaminohemoglobin D) attached to the heme part of hemoglobin

) attached to the heme part of hemoglobin

1. Which of the following is the most significant source of blood flow resistance? A) blood vessels type B) blood viscosity C) total blood vessel length D) blood vessel diameter

) blood vessel diameter

1. Cytotoxic T cells ________. A) function mainly to stimulate the proliferation of other T cell populations B) self-destruct once the antigen has been neutralized C) require the double recognition signal of I MHC plus II MHC on the target cell in order to function A) can directly attack and kill other cells of the body

) can directly attack and kill other cells of the body

1. Tom is a 45-year-old male that has lost his ability to hear high frequency sounds. The most likely explanation for this would be ________. A) an overgrowth of bony tissue, fusing the ossicles together B) middle ear infection C) damage to the hair cells near the oval window in the cochlear duct D) a perforated tympanic membrane

) damage to the hair cells near the oval window in the cochlear duct

1. Reduction in the concentration of albumin in blood plasma would alter capillary exchange by ________. A) increasing hydrostatic pressure and blood volume, blood pressure increases B) decreasing colloid osmotic pressure and edema will occur C) increasing hydrostatic pressure and edema will occur D) decreasing colloid osmotic pressure and blood volume, blood pressure increases

) decreasing colloid osmotic pressure and edema will occur

1. The chemical and mechanical processes of food breakdown are called ________. A) digestion B) absorption C) ingestion D) secretion

) digestion

1. Blood flow is __________ proportional to the difference in blood pressure. Blood flow is __________ proportional to the total peripheral resistance. a) inversely; inversely b) inversely; directly c) directly; inversely d) directly; directly

) directly; inversely

1. The most important risk for testicular cancer in young males is ____. A) smoking B) a diet high in fat C) failure of the testis to make their normal descent D) sexually transmitted infections

) failure of the testis to make their normal descent

1. Which of the following nutrients yield the highest amount of energy per gram when metabolized? A) fats B) vitamins and minerals C) foods and beverages high in caffeine D) proteins

) fats

1. In an oxidation-reduction reaction, the "reduced" reactant ____. A) gains electrons B) loses energy C) gains negatively charged ions D) loses hydrogen ions

) gains electrons

1. Which of the following refers to the transfer of sperm and harvested oocytes together into the woman's uterine tubes in the hopes that fertilization will take place there? A) in vitro fertilization (IVF) B) zygote intrafallopian transfer (ZIFT) C) rhythm method D) gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT)

) gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT)

1. In gluconeogenesis, during the postabsorptive state, amino acids and ____ are converted to glucose. A) glucagon B) glycerol C) glycogen D) acetyl Co A.

) glycerol

1. Which of the following does NOT occur in the mitochondria? A) electron transport B) glycolysis C) citric acid (Krebs) cycle D) formation of malic acid from fumaric acid

) glycolysis

1. The mechanical and chemical receptors that control digestive activity are located ____. A) in the glandular tissue that lines the organ lumen B) in the walls of the tract organs C) in the pons and medulla D) only in the esophagus because this is the only part of the tract that needs to change to accommodate food passage

) in the walls of the tract organs

1. Spermatogenesis ____ A) is the process of releasing mature sperm cells into the lumen of the seminiferous tubule B) involves a kind of cell division limited to the gametes C) results in the formation of diploid cells D) uses mitosis to produce gamete cells

) involves a kind of cell division limited to the gametes

1. Brain blood flow autoregulation ________. A) is less sensitive to pH than to a decreased oxygen level B) causes constriction of cerebral blood vessels in response to a drop in systemic blood pressure C) is abolished when abnormally high CO2 levels persist D) is controlled by cardiac centers in the pons

) is abolished when abnormally high CO2 levels persist

1. Secondary hypertension can be caused by ___________ . A) stress B) obesity C) smoking D) kidney disease

) kidney disease

1. Oxidative deamination takes place in the ____. A) musclesB) brainC) liverD) blood

) liver

1. A person suddenly gaining significant amounts of adipose tissue can expect all of the following physiological changes except one. Which of the following is least likely to occur with a sudden and significant gain in adipose tissue? A) increased angiogenesis and higher peripheral resistance B) higher peripheral resistance and higher blood pressure C) increased risk of developing atherosclerosis D) lower heart rate and reduced blood flow

) lower heart rate and reduced blood flow

1. Small secondary lymphoid organs, which cluster along lymphatic vessels, are termed ____. A) lymph follicle B) lymph node C) lymphatic D) Lacteals

) lymph node

1. The ability of sperm cells to move along the ductus deferens is due to ________. A) gravity B) peristaltic contractions C) enzymatic activity D) hormonal action

) peristaltic contractions

1. Exercise results in skeletal muscles compressing veins which encourages blood to return to the heart. In this scenario, which of the following is correct? A) preload increases B) venous return decreases C) stroke volume decreases D) end diastolic volume (EDV) decreases

) preload increases

1. Vaccines work by ____. boosting innate immunity with cytokinesB) providing the necessary antibodies to fight infectionsC) suppressing inflation to help speed healingD) priming the adaptive immunity with a relatively harmless primary exposure

) priming the adaptive immunity with a relatively harmless primary exposure

1. Which of the following would NOT be a possible cause of sickling of red blood cells in someone with sickle-cell anemia? A) malaria B) vigorous exercise C) prolonged exposure to cold D) travel at high altitude

) prolonged exposure to cold

1. Spirometry results reveal a vital capacity of two liters which is well below the predicted value of five liters. This suggests which disorder? A) emphysema B) asthma C) restrictive disease D) obstructive pulmonary disease

) restrictive disease

1. The receiving chambers of the heart include the ____. a) right atrium and ventricle b) right and left ventricles c) right and left atria d) left atrium and ventricle

) right and left atria

1. The influence of blood vessel diameter on peripheral resistance is ________. A) insignificant because vessel diameter does not vary B) the only factor that influences resistance C) significant because resistance is directly proportional to the blood vessel diameter D) significant because resistance is inversely proportional to the fourth power of the vessel radius

) significant because resistance is inversely proportional to the fourth power of the vessel radius

1. A recent health screening revealed a low-density-lipoprotein (LDL)level over 130.Which of the following should be prescribed? A) insulin B) statins C) iron D) glucagon

) statins

1. Which of the following is least involved in pulmonary circulation? A) right ventricle B) pulmonary arteries and veins C) left atrium D) superior vena cava

) superior vena cava

1. Which of the choices below is NOT a mechanism of heat production? A) vasoconstriction of cutaneous blood vessels B) shivering C) sweating D) enhanced thyroxine release

) sweating

1. Which of the choices below is not a part of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis? A) thalamus B) hypothalamus C) anterior pituitary gland D) interstitial cells

) thalamus

1. The decidua basalis is ____. a) is destined to remain in the uterus after the birth of the infant b) the part of the endometrium that lies beneath the embryo c) not a matemal contribution to the placenta the tissue that surrounds the uterine cavity face of the implanted embryo

) the part of the endometrium that lies beneath the embryo b) not a matemal contribution to the placenta

1. A vaccine is effective because ________. A) B-lymphocytes are unable to mount an immune response the first time they are exposed to a new pathogen B) the secondary response of the adaptive immunity is faster and more efficient the primary response C) the vaccine contains the lymphocytes necessary to fight infection D) the vaccine contains the antibodies necessary to fight infection

) the secondary response of the adaptive immunity is faster and more efficient the primary response

1. T cells are differentiated into two groups based on their glycoproteins: CD4 or CD8. Which of the following is true of CD4 T cellsa) they become antigen presenting cells (APC) cellsb) they become plasma cellsc) they become T helper cellsd) they become cytotoxic T cells

) they become T helper cells

1. Dave has discovered a new lipid-soluble hormone. Which of the following is true regarding this hormone? ← Answer: A) receptor will be located on the plasma membraneB) will be bound to a transport protein in the blood C) will likely act through a second-messenger systemD) can be stored in secretory vesicles

) will be bound to a transport protein in the blood

1. Which of the following statements is a false or incorrect statement? A)T cells and B cells become activated when they bind with recognized antigens B)It is our genes, not antigens, that determine what specific foreign substances our immune system will be able to recognize and resist C)The lymphoid organs where lymphocytes become immunocompetent are called primary lymph organs All other lymphoid organs are referred to secondary lymphoid organs D)After becoming immunocompetent, the naive T cells and B cells exported to the bone marrow where the encounters with antigens occur

)After becoming immunocompetent, the naive T cells and B cells exported to the bone marrow where the encounters with antigens occur

1. What would happen if the capsular hydrostatic pressure were increased above normal? A) net filtration would increase above normal B) filtration would increase in proportion to the increase in capsular pressure C)Net filtration would decrease. D) capsular osmatic pressure would compensate so that filtration would not change

)Net filtration would decrease.

1. Chemical digestion reduces large complex molecules to simpler compounds by the process of _____. A. Mastication B. Catabolism C. excretion D. Fermentation

. Catabolism

1. What part of the tooth bears the force and resists the friction of chewing? A. Pulp B. Crown C. Cementum D. Enamel

. Enamel

1. Which hormone is the necessary trigger for ovulation to occur? A. Estrogen B. FSH C. LH D. Progesterone

. LH

1. Which of the following is incorrect? a. The kidneys produce a small volume of concentrated urine when dehydrated. b. The concentration of urine is lower when urine volume is reduced. c. Urine concentration and volume are determined by countercurrent mechanisms. d. The kidneys produce a large volume of dilute urine when overhydrated.

. The concentration of urine is lower when urine volume is reduced.

1. Occasionally three polar bodies are found clinging to the mature ovum. One came from an unequal division of the ovum, but from where did the other two arise? A.There were originally four polar bodies and one disappeared. B. What you really see are two polar bodies and the sperm that will fertilize the egg. C. One is an undeveloped primary oocyte that failed to mature. D. The first polar body has also divided to produce two polar bodies.

. The first polar body has also divided to produce two polar bodies.

1. A person exhibiting suppression of immunity and clotting disorder as well as low oxygen-carrying capacity is likely suffering from which of the following? a. pernicious anemia b. hemorrhagic anemia c. aplastic anemia d. iron deficiency anemia

. aplastic anemia

1. The second-messenger mechanism of hormone action operates by ________. a. synthesizing more than one hormone at a time b. increasing the basal metabolic rate in the target organ c. binding to specific receptors and employing the services of G proteins and cAMP d. altering gene expression in the nuclear DNA

. binding to specific receptors and employing the services of G proteins and cAMP

1. Leukocytes displaying red cytoplasmic granules when treated with Wright's stain are most likely ________. A. basophils B. erythrocytes C. eosinophils D. monocytes

. eosinophils

1. What is the most direct function of the juxtaglomerular apparatus? A. help regulate blood pressure and the rate of blood filtration by the kidneys B. help regulate water and electrolyte excretion by the kidneys C. help regulate urea absorption by the kidneys D. help regulate blood pressure and the rate of excretion by the kidneys

. help regulate blood pressure and the rate of blood filtration by the kidneys

1. The plateau phase of an action potential in cardiac muscle cells is due to the ____. A. nflux of Na+ through fast Na+ channels. B. influx of Ca2+ through slow Ca2+ channels. C. efflux of Ca2+ through fast Ca2+ channels. D. efflux of K+ through K+ channels.

. influx of Ca2+ through slow Ca2+ channels

1. Which type of food molecule provides components for cellular structures like plasma membranes, myelin sheaths, and steroid hormones? a. protein b. lipids c. complex carbohydrates d. glucose

. lipids

1. Which of the choices below is the salt level-monitoring part of the nephron? A. principal cell B. vasa recta C. macula densa D. loop of Henle

. macula densa

1. Which of the following is NOT a change typically produced by a hormonal stimulus? A. induces secretory activityB. stimulates production of an action potentialC. activates or deactivates enzymesD. alters plasma membrane permeability

. stimulates production of an action potentialC. activates or deactivates enzymes

1. In circumstances where the body requires prolonged or increased levels of a hormone, the DNA of target cells will specify the synthesis of more receptors on the surface of the cells of the target organ. This is known as ________. a. sensitivity increase b. up-regulation c. cellular affinity d. a stressor reaction

. up-regulation

1. According to the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve, PO2 in the lungs of 100 mm Hg results in Hb being 98% saturated. At high altitude, there is less O2. At a PO2 in the lungs of 80 mm Hg, Hb would be ________ saturated. a.) 98% b.) 95% c.) 100% d.) less than 50%

95%

1. Select the correct statement about oxygen transport in blood: A)During normal activity,a molecule of hemoglobin returning to the lungs carries one molecule of O2. B)Increased BPG levels in the red blood cells enhance oxygen- carrying capacity. C)During conditions of acidosis,hemoglobin is able to carry oxygen more efficiently. D)A 50% oxygen saturation level of blood returning to the lungs might indicate an activity level higher than normal

A 50% oxygen saturation level of blood returning to the lungs might indicate an activity level higher than normal

1. Which of the following is the best explanation for why the cells of the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) contain so many mitochondria? A) This provides the energy needed to fight kidney infection. B) A great deal of active transport takes place in the PCT. C) Contraction of the PCT moves filtrate through the tubule. D) Cells of the PCT go through a great deal of mitosis.

A great deal of active transport takes place in the PCT.

1. Select the correct statement about cardiac output. a. A slow heart rate increased end-diastolic volume, stroke volume, and force of contraction b. Stroke volume increases if the end-diastolic volume decreased c. If a semilunar valve were partially obstructed, the end-systolic volume is affected ventricle would be decreased d. A decreased venous return will result in increased end-diastolic volume

A slow heart rate increased end-diastolic volume, stroke volume, and force of contraction

1. Which of the following does NOT occur in both the male and female sexual response? A) Blood flow to genital structures increases. B) A refractory period follows orgasm. C) Blood pressure and heart rate increase. D) Muscles of structures in the reproductive duct

A) A refractory period follows orgasm.

1. In the liver, the amine group of glutamic acid is removed as ____ in the oxidative state. A) oxaloacetic acid B) glyceraldehyde C) pyruvic acid Ammonia

A) Ammonia

1. All but one of the following statements is true with regard to the blood testis barrier. Select the one statement that is false. A) The barrier is made up of astrocytes that surround blood vessels in the testis. B) The barrier marks the border between the basal compartment and the adluminal compartment. C) The barrier separates the spermatocytes dividing by meiosis from exposing their unique antigens to the immune system. D) Sustentocytes form the barrier with tight junctions.

A) The barrier is made up of astrocytes that surround blood vessels in the testis.

1. Which of the following will occur immediately after ovulation? A) The secretion of anterior pituitary gonadotropins is enhanced B) The corpus luteum secretes estrogen only C) The corpus luteum becomes a corpus albicans D) The endometrium enters its secretory phase

A) The endometrium enters its secretory phase

1. A boy who has not passed through puberty sustains an injury to his anterior pituitary such that FSH is no longer released, but LH is normal. After he grows to maturity, one would expect that he would ________. A) not develop secondary sex characteristics B) have impaired function of interstitial cells C) be sterile / ANSWER: be unable to produce viable sperm be impotent (unable to have an erection

A) be sterile / ANSWER: be unable to produce viable sperm

1. What is the role of interferon in defense against disease?A) protects cells that have not yet been infected by virusesB) activates the inflammatory processC) activates the complement mechanismD) protects cells that have not yet been infected by bacteria

A) protects cells that have not yet been infected by viruses

1. Which of the following is responsible for holding the lungs to the thorax wall? A) the smooth muscles of the lungB) the diaphragm and the intercostal muscles aloneC) the visceral pleurae and the changing volume of the lungsD) surface tension from pleural fluid and negative pressure in the pleural cavity.

A) surface tension from pleural fluid and negative pressure in the pleural cavity.

1. Which structural layer of blood vessels is most responsible for maintaining blood pressure? A) tunica media B) tunica externa C) tunica interna D) subendothelial

A) tunica media

1. Select the statement which is FALSE. A)Crossing over is a source of genetic variability seen in meiosis while independent assortment is a source of genetic variability seen in mitosis. B)Meiosis II is essentially the same process as mitosis except the starting cells are haploid (n). C)Meiosis II is essentially the same process as mitosis except the genetic material will not replicate before division takes place. D)Further genetic variation typically does not occur after meiosis I.

A)Crossing over is a source of genetic variability seen in meiosis while independent assortment is a source of genetic variability seen in mitosis

1. Minerals required by the body in moderate amounts include all of the following EXCEPT ________. A. iron and selenium B. sodium and chlorine C. sulfur and potassium calcium and phosphorus

A. iron and selenium

1. Select the correct statement about active and passive immunity. A) Immunological memory is established by passive immunization. B) Active and passive humoral immunity are both mechanisms of adaptive immunity that use antibodies. C) A vaccination is an example of the introduction of passive immunity into the body. D) The antibodies utilized in active immunity are acquired from another organism

Active and passive humoral immunity are both mechanisms of adaptive immunity that use antibodies.

1. Which blood component primarily contributes to plasma osmotic pressure? a) electrolytes b) blood borne nutrients c) Albumin. d) gamma globuli.

Albumin.

1. Which of the following is true about gustatory receptors? A) In order for a chemical to be sensed, it must be hydrophobic. B) The receptors generate an action potential in response to chemical stimuli. C) Complete adaptation occurs in about one to five minutes. D) All gustatory receptors have the same threshold for activation

Complete adaptation occurs in about one to five minutes.

1. Which of the following statements about spermatogenesis is not true? a. Each spermatid forms two sperm. b. The secondary spermatocytes each form two spermatids. c. The spermatogonium forms the primary spermatocyte. d. The primary spermatocyte forms two secondary spermatocytes.

Each spermatid forms two sperm

1. Which is not true of lipid absorption? a. Products of lipid digestion are transported to the blood by the lymphatic system. b. Fatty acids and monoglycerides are packaged with proteins to form chylomicrons. c. Fatty acids and monoglycerides are absorbed passively by diffusion. d. Enterocytes require the presence of lipoprotein lipase to effectively absorb micelles.

Enterocytes require the presence of lipoprotein lipase to effectively absorb micelles.

1. Which of the following nutrients yield the highest amount of energy per gram when metabolized? a) Sugars b) Fats c) Nucleic acids d) Minerals

Fats

1. Which of the following is not true regarding fenestrated capillaries? A) Fenestrated capillaries in endocrine organs allow hormones rapid entry into the blood.B) Fenestrated capillaries in the small intestine receive nutrients from digested food.C) Fenestrated capillaries are essential for filtration of blood plasma in the kidney.D) Fenestrated capillaries form the blood-brain barrier.

Fenestrated capillaries form the blood-brain barrier

1. Which of the following hormones controls the release of anterior pituitary gonadotropins? A) LH B) FSH C) GnRH D) testosterone

GnRH

1. Which of the following statements is true of metaphase I of meiosis I? ← A) Joined homologous pair uniformly line up on the equatorial spindle with chromosome one at the top and chromosome 23 on the bottom. B) Tetrads align randomly on the spindle equator with all the maternal homologs on one side and all the paternal homologs on the opposite side. C) Homologous pairs align randomly on the spindle equator with a mix of paternal and maternal homologs destined for each of the daughter cells. D) The sister chromatids line up randomly on the spindle equator with some maternal and paternal chromatids on both sides of the equator.

Homologous pairs align randomly on the spindle equator with a mix of paternal and maternal homologs destined for each of the daughter cells.

1. Which of the following is an appropriate response to carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning? A) Hyperbaric oxygen chamber to increase PO2 and clear CO from the body. B) Immediate application of bicarbonate ions to facilitate removal of CO from Hb. C) Slow breathing into a paper bag. D) Hyperventilation to exhale CO from the body

Hyperbaric oxygen chamber to increase PO2 and clear CO from the body.

1. A release of parathyroid hormone (PTH) will trigger _________. a) A reduction of calcium reabsorption in the kidney tubules b) Increased activation of vitamin D by the kidney c) Increased osteoblast activity A drop in blood calcium levels

Increased activation of vitamin D by the kidney

1. All of the following are true of the classical pathway of complement activation except one. Select the one answer that does NOT describe the classical pathway of complement activation A) It is an example of overlap between innate and adaptive immune function.B) Classical activation will result in enhanced inflammation, opsonization as well as formation of MAC proteins.C) It requires that circulating antibodies are bound to antigens.D) It activates T-helper cells by presenting antigen to them.

It activates T-helper cells by presenting antigen to them.

1. Thyroxine is a peptide hormone, but its mechanism is different from other peptide hormones.Which of the following statements is true concerning this difference? A) It causes positive feedback. B) It does not require a second messenger to cause a response. C) It is very specific in the cell type it targets. D) It is a stimulant of cellular metabolism and targets all cells.

It does not require a second messenger to cause a response

1. Which of the following statements regarding the thymus is FALSE? A) It has follicles similar to those in the spleen. B) It does not directly fight antigens. C) It functions strictly in T lymphocyte maturation. D) Its stroma consists of epithelial tissue

It has follicles similar to those in the spleen.

1. Which of the following is NOT true of beta oxidation? A) It occurs in the mitochondria. B) The carbon in the beta (third) position is oxidized during the process. C) It involves the anabolism of fats. D) Fatty acids are broken into acetic acid fragments.

It involves the anabolism of fats.

1. A friend confides that she desires to have children but is having trouble conceiving. Which of the following is true regarding implantation? A) An estimated 60% of implanted embryos later miscarry due to genetic defects of the embryo. B) Detection of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in blood or urine indicates failure of the blastocyst to implant. C) In cases where implantation fails to occur, a non-receptive uterus becomes receptive once again. D) It is estimated that a minimum of two-thirds of all zygotes formed fail to implant by the end of the first week or spontaneously abort

It is estimated that a minimum of two-thirds of all zygotes formed fail to implant by the end of the first week or spontaneously abort

1. What organ in the body regulates erythrocyte production? A) Kidney B) Brain C) Liver D) Pancreas.

Kidney

1. The ____ contains lobules with sinusoids (lined with macrophages) that lead to a central venous structure. A) Liver B) Spleen C) Pancreas D) Stomach

Liver

1. Select the correct statement about lymph transport. A) Under normal conditions, lymph vessels are very high-pressure conduits. B) Lymph transport is faster than that occurring in veins. C) Lymph transport is only necessary when illness causes tissue swelling. D) Lymph transport depends on the movement of adjacent tissues, such as skeletal muscles

Lymph transport depends on the movement of adjacent tissues, such as skeletal muscles.

1. Select the correct statement about lymphoid tissue. a) Lymphoid macrophages secrete antibodies into the blood. b) Once a lymphocyte enters the lymphoid tissue, it resides there permanently. c) Lymphoid tissue is predominantly reticular connective tissue. d) T lymphocytes act by ingesting foreign substances.

Lymphoid tissue is predominantly reticular connective tissue.

1. Select the statement below that is FALSE. A) A cell undergoing meiosis results in 4 cells while a cell undergoing mitosis results in 2 cells.B) Meiosis results in haploid cells while mitosis results in diploid cells.C) Meiosis produces genetically unique cells while mitosis produces genetically identical cells.D) Meiosis occurs only after the onset of puberty while mitosis occurs throughout an entire lifetime

Meiosis occurs only after the onset of puberty while mitosis occurs throughout an entire lifetime

1. Which body activity would be most affected if a patient lacked an adequate number of erythrocytes (anemia)? A. Hormone transport B. Immune response C. Clotting D. Oxygen transport

Oxygen transport

1. Dancers will use a technique called "spotting" when they perform spins of the body. By holding their head and eyes on a fixed point in front of them as their body spins they reduce the amount of head-spinning and this prevents dizziness. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for why this works? a. This helps keep the motions detected by the eyes congruent (aligned) with the motions sensed by the vestibular apparatus. b. Reducing the inertia of head spin will reduce the flow of endolymph that deflects the hair cells of the crista ampullaris. c. When the eyes send a static vision of stability to the brain, it is tricked into believing the body is still and therefore dizziness will not occur. d. This will help to reduce the lateral flection of the head and will prevent hyperpolarization or depolarization of the hair cells in the macula.

Reducing the inertia of head spin will reduce the flow of endolymph that deflects the hair cells of the crista ampullaris

.1. Which of these statements about sexually transmitted infections is FALSE? A) Chlamydia is caused by bacteria that can often be asymptomatic or bring on a wide variety of symptoms. B) Gonorrhea is caused by a bacterium that can bring on painful discharges in males. C) Syphilis is caused by a virus that may lead to death if untreated. D) Genital herpes is caused by a virus that may cause intermittent lesions

Syphilis is caused by a virus that may lead to death if untreated.

1. John tells you that cholesterol is bad and should be eliminated from your diet. You explain to him that not all cholesterol is bad, and that cholesterol has important roles. Which of the following hormones is synthesized from cholesterol? a. Growth hormone b. Testosterone c. Oxytocin d. Thyroxine

Testosterone

1. Which of the following is true of testosterone?← a. Testosterone provides positive feedback on gonadotropin release. b. The production of testosterone is stimulated by FSH. c. Testosterone is produced by interstitial endocrine cells. d. The release of testosterone surges during ejaculation.

Testosterone is produced by interstitial endocrine cells

1. Which of the following statements is FALSE? A. Excess carbohydrate and fat can be stored as such, whereas excess amino acids are oxidized for energy or converted to fat or glycogen for storage. B. Amino acids can be used to supply energy only after being converted to a citric acid cycle intermediate. C. Fats and carbohydrates are oxidized directly to produce cellular energy. D. The amino acid pool is the body's total supply of amino acids in the body's proteins.

The amino acid pool is the body's total supply of amino acids in the body's proteins.

1. All of the following are true of swallowing (deglutition) except one. Select the statement that is NOT true of swallowing. A) The epiglottis assists in propelling food into the trachea. B) The involuntary portion of swallowing takes place in the pharynx. C) The voluntary phase of swallowing takes place within the mouth. D) The mouth, pharynx and esophagus all take part in swallowing

The epiglottis assists in propelling food into the trachea.

1. The oral contraceptive pill, informally called "the pill," contains an estrogen and progesterone, or a synthetic mimic of this hormone. The combination of these two hormones, taken in the pill and circulating in the blood, works because ____. a) The hormones prevent the proliferative or secretory phase of the menstrual cycle and the embryo will have no place to implant. b) The hormones cause the woman's body to mimic the activities of a pregnancy and disrupt the ovarian cycle, preventing ovulation. c) The hormones create an acid condition in the vagina that acts as a spermicide. d) The hormones cause a thickening of the mucus plug at the cervix that prevents sperm from penetrating the womb and reaching the ovulated egg

The hormones cause the woman's body to mimic the activities of a pregnancy and disrupt the ovarian cycle, preventing ovulation

1. Which of the following statements is true concerning the mammary glands of both males and females? A)All lumps identified in breast tissue are malignant. B)Both sexes are equally prone to breast cancer. C)The only time hormones target breast tissue is during pregnancy and lactation. D)The mammary glands are modified sweat glands that are actually part of the integumentary system.

The mammary glands are modified sweat glands that are actually part of the integumentary system.

1. All Of the following statements, select the statement that is NOT true of uterine function A) The narrow portion of the uterus near the cervix is the most typical site of fertilization. B) The myometrium contracts to expel the fetus during childbirth. C) The rhythmic, reverse peristalsis of the uterus can propel sperm toward the egg D) The endometrium has a functional layer that the embryo will implant into.

The narrow portion of the uterus near the cervix is the most typical site of fertilization.

1. Select the correct statement about the nephrons. A) The parietal layer of the glomerular capsule is simple squamous epithelium.B) The glomerulus is correctly described as the proximal end of the proximal convoluted tubule.C) Podocytes are the branching epithelial cells that line the tubules of the nephron.D) Filtration slits are the pores that give fenestrated capillaries their name

The parietal layer of the glomerular capsule is simple squamous epithelium.

1. All of the following things occur during meiosis I. Select the statement below that does NOT occur during meiosis I. A) A single diploid (2n) cell has become two haploid (n) cells. B) Portions of maternal chromosomes crossover with equivalent portions of paternal chromosomes. C) The sister chromatids are separated from each other. D) The homologous chromosomes are separated from each other.

The sister chromatids are separated from each other.

1. Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) Only lymph nodes filter lymph. B) T lymphocytes originate from the red bone marrow. C) Antibodies mark antigens for destruction. D) The thymus consists mainly of lymphoid tissue

The thymus consists mainly of lymphoid tissue

1. Select the correct statement about the special fetal blood vessels. A) The distal parts of the umbilical arteries form the superior vesical arteries. B) The fossa ovalis becomes the foramen ovale. C) The umbilical vein becomes the ligamentum teres. D) The hepatic portal vein forms from the umbilical artery.

The umbilical vein becomes the ligamentum teres.

1. The pulse rate depends on all of the following except one. Select the one answer the does NOT affect a pulse rate reading a- activity b- postural changes c- emotions d- The vessel selected to palpate

The vessel selected to palpate

1. Fred's blood was determined to be AB positive. What does this mean? a) Antibodies to A and B are present in the red cells. b) His blood lacks Rh factor. c) He can only receive blood from a donor who is AB positive. d) There are no antibodies to A, to B, or to Rh antigens in the plasma.

There are no antibodies to A, to B, or to Rh antigens in the plasma.

1. Which of the following statements is not true of the precapillary sphincters? A) They decrease the osmotic pressure in the thoroughfare channel. B) They regulate the flow of blood to tissues served by the true capillaries. C) They allow blood to bypass the true capillaries that are fed by the metarteriole. D) They increase or decrease rates of perfusion to the tissues served by the true capillaries.

They decrease the osmotic pressure in the thoroughfare channel

1. The dartos and cremaster muscles are important to the integrity of the male reproductive system. Which of the following is true about the role they play? A) They contract to allow ejaculation. B) They contract to push sperm along the ductus deferens. C) They are responsible for penile erection. D) They regulate the temperature of the testes

They regulate the temperature of the testes.

1. Which of the following structures is NOT considered mucosa-associated lymphoid tissu(MALT)? a) Peyer's patches b) Tonsils c) Thymus d) Appendix

Thymus

1. Which of the following is INCORRECT? a. Gas flow equals pressure gradient over resistance. b. Pressure gradient equals gas flow over resistance. c. Resistance equals pressure gradient over gas flow. d. The amount of gas flowing in and out of the alveoli is directly proportional to the difference in pressure or pressure gradient between the external atmosphere and the alveoli.

a. Pressure gradient equals gas flow over resistance.

1. Which of the following provide the greatest surface area for gas exchange? A) alveolar sacs B) respiratory bronchioles C) alveolar ducts D) alveoli

alveoli

1. A perceived increase in the volume of sound is best explained by____ A. an increase in the height of the sound wave B. an increase in the width of the sound wave C. a combination of multiple sound waves D. a decrease in the width of the sound wave

an increase in the height of the sound wave

1. The effect of a hormone on a target cell may be decreased by the presence of ________. A) antagonistic hormones B) permissive hormones C) synergistic hormones D) plasma membrane receptors

antagonistic hormones

1. Hormones that bind to plasma proteins ____. A) are usually water soluble B) must also bind to plasma membrane receptors C) are usually made of amino acids D) are usually synthesized from cholesterol

are usually synthesized from cholesterol

1. Pectinate muscles are found in the ________. a. right atrium and right ventricle only b. atria and ventricles c. ventricles only d. atria only

atria only

1. During a marathon which of the following hormones is least likely to be released by the runner? A) epinephrine B) antidiuretic hormone (ADH) C) angiotensin II D) atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)

atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)

1. The release of which hormone is most likely to cause a reduction in blood volume and pressure? A) antidiuretic hormone B) aldosterone C) Norepinephrine D) atrial natriuretic peptide ANP

atrial natriuretic peptide ANP

1. If the mitral valve is unable to close properly, ____. A) blood could flow back into the left atrium. B) blood could flow back into the right ventricle. C) blood could flow back into the left ventricle. D) blood could flow back into the right atrium

blood could flow back into the left atrium.

1. Which of the following receive(s) blood during ventricular systole? a) aorta only b) pulmonary veins only c) pulmonary arteries only d) both the aorta and pulmonary trunk

both the aorta and pulmonary trunk

1. How do glucocorticoids enable the body to deal appropriately with stress? A) by increasing blood glucose, fatty acid, and amino acid levels and enhancing blood pressure B) by decreasing the heart rate, thus decreasing blood pressure C) by stimulating the pancreas to release insulin D) by releasing the neurotransmitters that prepare the body for the stress response

by increasing blood glucose, fatty acid, and amino acid levels and enhancing blood pressure

1. What ion is sometimes used as a second messenger of amino acid-based hormones? A) iron B) calcium C) sodium D) chlorine

calcium

1. The dental formula for an adult is 2-1-2-3. What does the 1 stand for? A) incisor tooth B) molar tooth C) premolar tooth D) canine tooth

canine tooth

1. What is the effect of antidiuretic hormone on the cells of the collecting duct? A. inhibits sodium reabsorption through the apical membranes B. triggers synthesis of more sodium channels in the apical membranesC. triggers synthesis of more potassium channels in the apical membranesD. causes aquaporins to be inserted into the apical membranes

causes aquaporins to be inserted into the apical membranes

1. Normal heart sounds are caused by which of the following events? A) excitation of the SA node B) closure of the heart valves C) friction of blood against the chamber walls D) opening and closing of the heart valves

closure of the heart valves

1. The function of the hepatic portal circulation is to ________. A) carry toxins to the venous system for disposal through the urinary tract B) collect absorbed nutrients for metabolic processing in the liver / answer : collect absorbed nutrients for metabolic processing or storage C) distribute hormones D) return glucose to the general circulation when blood sugar is low

collect absorbed nutrients for metabolic processing in the liver / answer : collect absorbed nutrients for metabolic processing or storage

1. The foramen ovale ____. a) is a connection between the pulmonary trunk and the aorta in the fetus b) is a condition in which the heart valves do not completely close c) connected the two atria in the fetal heart d) is a shallow depression in the interventricular septum

connected the two atria in the fetal heart

1. The sight of food can trigger a series of events that results in the release of gastric juice. All but one of the following is true in regards to the previous statement. Select the one answer that is NOT true ← A) This prepares the stomach for food before its arrival in the stomach B)The cerebral cortex, hypothalamus and medulla oblongata are all involved in processing the stimulatory information. C)This is an example of a long reflexive pathway. D)controls symphatic nervous system./// ANOTHER Answer: The motor nerves of this pathway are part of the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system.

controls symphatic nervous system./// ANOTHER Answer: The motor nerves of this pathway are part of the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system.

1. Antibody functions include all of the following except ________. A) targeting foreign cells so that complement proteins can cause cellular lysis B) binding and inactivating chemical toxins released by bacteria or other microorganisms C) linking soluble antigens together so that they fall out of solution D) cross-linking cell-bound antigens on red blood cells when blood types are properly matched

cross-linking cell-bound antigens on red blood cells when blood types are properly matched

1. If a person were to have substantial blood loss you would expect to see all of the following physiological events to except one. Select the least likely response to substantial blood loss. A) increasing vasomotor tone B) decreased heart rate C) increases peripheral resistance D) a weak, thread pulse

decreased heart rate

1. Which of the following is NOT a change that may be caused by hormonal stimulus? A. change in membrane potential B. direct control of the nervous system C. the stimulation of a genetic event resulting in protein synthesis D. an increase in enzymatic activity

direct control of the nervous system

1. Which of the choices below is not a glomerular filtration rate control method? A) hormonal regulation B) neural regulation C) renal autoregulation D) electrolyte levels

electrolyte levels

1. Which of the choices below is not a function of the urinary system? A) helps maintain homeostasis by controlling the composition, volume, and pressure of blood B) regulates blood glucose levels and produces hormones C) maintains blood osmolarity D) eliminates solid, undigested wastes and excretes carbon dioxide, water, salts, and heat

eliminates solid, undigested wastes and excretes carbon dioxide, water, salts, and heat

1. Steroid hormones exert their action by ___. a. binding cell receptors and initiating cAMP activity b. entering the nucleus of a cell and initiating or altering the expression of a gene c. entering the cell and activating mitochondrial DNA d. activating the hypothalamic release of regulating hormones

entering the nucleus of a cell and initiating or altering the expression of a gene

1. Which of the following is NOT a typical plasma protein? A) globulins B) albumin. C) erythropoietin. D)fibrinogen .....

erythropoietin

1. At what point is meiosis II completed for the female gamete? a. puberty b. ovulation c. fertilization d. implantation

fertilization

1. Regulating hormones from the hypothalamus ____. A) enter venous circulation and travel to the heart, which pumps the hormone-containing blood to the pituitary B) enter the hepatic portal system, which feeds the pituitary C) travel by arteries to the pituitary D) first enter into the hypophyseal portal system

first enter into the hypophyseal portal system

1. Which pairing of terms is incorrectly related? A) frequency of sound waves: number of wavelengths B) amplitude of a sound: intensity of the sound C) quality of a sound : frequency of the sound D) frequency of sound waves: loudness of the sound

frequency of sound waves: loudness of the sound

1. Aldosterone ________. a. production is greatly influenced by ACTH b. functions to increase sodium reabsorption c. is secreted by the posterior pituitary d. presence increases potassium concentration in the blood

functions to increase sodium reabsorption

1. The cells of the retina in which action potentials are generated are the ________. A) rods and cones B) bipolar cells C) ganglion cells D) amacrine cells

ganglion cells

There are three layers of neurons in the retina. The axons of which of these neuron layers form the optic nerves? A) cone cells B) ganglion cells C) bipolar cells D) rod cells

ganglion cells

1. Which is most responsible for the synchronized contraction of cardiac muscle tissue? a. ) small motor units b. ) desmosomes c. ) branching cells d. ) gap junctions

gap junctions

1. Specific enteroendocrine cells of the stomach, called G cells, are stimulated by partially digested proteins, caffeine, and rising pH. When stimulated, G cells secrete ____. a) ghrelin b) gastrin c) hydrochloric acid d) Pepsin

gastrin

1. Which of the following would be the best method for delaying the onset of labor? a) giving the mother prostaglandins b) giving the mother antiprogesterone drugs c) giving the mother oxytocin d) giving the mother antiprostaglandin drugs

giving the mother antiprostaglandin drugs

1. Which term describes the action of an endurance runner the night before the race as she "carbo-loads" when eating a large pasta dinner? A) glycogenesis B) glycogenolysis C) glycolysis D) gluconeogenesis

glycogenesis

1. Red blood cells lack mitochondria. As a result, ATP production is solely through ________. a. citric acid (Krebs) cycle b. glycolysis c. aerobic respiration d. electron transport chain

glycolysis

1. Which of the following provides a good source of complex carbohydrates? A) chicken breast B) vegetable oil C) grain D) Fruit

grain

1. The sensation of loudness or the volume of a sound is detected by ________. A.vibration along a greater length of the basilar membrane, stimulating a greater number of hair cells B. greater movement of the basilar membrane resulting in greater deflection of the hair cells C. high volume sounds can travel all the way the apex of the scala vestibule with enough energy remaining to deflect hair cells D. faster vibration of the basilar membrane resulting in a higher frequency of hair cell stimulation

greater movement of the basilar membrane resulting in greater deflection of the hair cells

1. Which of the following would NOT be expected from taking a diuretic drug? A) decreased blood pressure B) greater stress on the heart to provide adequate perfusion C) increased urine output D) lower plasma volume

greater stress on the heart to provide adequate perfusion

1. The receptor membranes of gustatory cells are ____. a) basal cells b) gustatory hairs c) fungiform papillae d) taste buds

gustatory hairs

1. The Frank-Starling Law states that, if other factors are constant, a ________. A) higher end diastolic volume will produce a lower stroke volume B) higher stroke volume will produce a higher end diastolic volume C) higher stroke volume will produce a lower end diastolic volume D) higher end diastolic volume will produce a higher stroke volume

higher end diastolic volume will produce a higher stroke volume

1. Which of the choices below reflects the balance (or imbalance) between the direction and amount of fluid that flows across the capillary walls? A) plasma and formed element concentration B) blood volume and viscosity C) hydrostatic pressure only D) hydrostatic and osmotic pressure

hydrostatic and osmotic pressure

1. Several hormones are synthesized in the hypothalamus and transported to the anterior pituitary gland. The mechanism of transportation from hypothalamus to anterior pituitary gland is through the ________. a. feedback loop b. hypophyseal portal system c. hepatic portal system d. general circulatory system

hypophyseal portal system

1. The secretion of hormones by the anterior lobe of the pituitary is controlled by the A. pars distalis B) pancreatic islets. C) hypothalamus. D) atria of the heart.

hypothalamus.

1. Hemolytic disease of the newborn will NOT be possible in which of the following situations listed below? a) if the child is Rh+ b) if the father is Rh- c) if the father is Rh+ d) if the child is type O positive

if the father is Rh-

1. A urine test reveals a positive result for human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG). This indicates ____ was successful. A) gastrulation B) fertilization C) ovulation D) implantation

implantation

1. With a patient that is administered an injection of erythropoietin (EPO) you would expect to see ________. A) increased white blood cell count B) decreased hematocrit C) decreased white blood cell count increased hematocrit

increased hematocrit

1. Peripheral resistance ____. a. increases as blood viscosity increases b. decreases as blood viscosity increases c. increases with increased blood vessel diameter d. is higher in arteries than capillaries e. decreases with increasing blood vessel length

increases as blood viscosity increases

1. Blood flow to the skin ________. A) is not an important source of nutrients and oxygen for skin cells B) is controlled mainly by decreasing pH C) increases when environmental temperature rises D) increases when body temperature drops so that the skin does not freeze

increases when environmental temperature rises

1. The eye muscle that rotates the eye upward and turns the eye laterally is the ____. A) lateral rectus B) superior oblique C) inferior oblique D) medial rectus

inferior oblique

1. The hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis ____. A) is the tight relationship between the cortex and the control of testicular functionB) involves FSH and LH release from the anterior pituitary C) involves posterior pituitary release of regulating hormonesD) involves a positive feedback loop control of spermatogenesis

involves FSH and LH release from the anterior pituitary

1. While traveling abroad in Africa you observe a large number of people with goiter (enlarged thyroid).Which mineral deficiency could be responsible for this? A) iodine B) chromium C) fluorine D) iron

iodine

1. Immunocompetence ________. A) prevents intercellular communication so that only specific cell types respond to the invader B) requires exposure to an antigen C) occurs in one specific organ of the adaptive immune system D) is the ability of individual cells to recognize a specific antigen by binding to it

is the ability of individual cells to recognize a specific antigen by binding to it

1. Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissues include all of the following EXCEPT ________. A ) islets of Langerhans B) Peyer's patches C) lingual tonsils D) palatine tonsils

islets of Langerhans

1. The first "way station" in the visual pathway from the eye, after there has been partial crossover of the fibers in the optic chiasma, is the ____. A) superior colliculi B) lateral geniculate body of the thalamus C) visual cortex D) temporal lobe

lateral geniculate body of the thalamus

1. Oxygenated blood returns to the heart from the lungs and enters the __________. A) left ventricle B) right atrium C) right ventricle D) left atrium

left atrium

1. Which chambers of the heart contain oxygenated blood? A)right and left ventricles B)right atrium and ventricle C)right and left atria D)left atrium and ventricle

left atrium and ventricle

1. Digestion and absorption of which of the following would be affected the most if the liver were severely damaged a) lipids b) carbohydrates c)proteins d) nucleic acids

lipids

1. The beginning of a true capillary is surrounded by a precapillary sphincter. The opening and closing of precapillary sphincters is controlled by ____. a) blood pressure in the metarteriole b) local chemical conditions c) sympathetic nervous system d) parasympathetic nervous system

local chemical conditions

1. The lamina propria is composed of ____. A. loose connective tissue B. dense irregular connective tissue C. dense regular connective tissue D. reticular connective tissue

loose connective tissue

1. As pregnancy continues, the increasing bulkiness of the anterior abdomen changes the woman's center of gravity, possibly causing an accentuated lumbar curvature called ____. A) scoliosis B) hunchback C) lordosis D) kyphosis

lordosis

1. Loss of fibrinogen within the plasma would most likely cause which of the following? a. edema (swelling) b. loss of blood clotting c. palor (pale skin) d. fever and pain

loss of blood clotting

1. Which of the following is the leading cause of cancer death for both men and women in North America? a. colorectal b. lung c. esophageal d. Skin

lung

1. Where in the body would you find low oxygen levels causing vasoconstriction and high levels causing vasodilation? A) lungs B) heart C) kidney D) liver

lungs

1. Phagocyte mobilization involves ________. A) diapedesis, during which cells line up against the capillary wall B) monocytes as the most active phagocyte C) mainly neutrophil and macrophage migration into inflamed areas D) margination, which is the process of white cell movement through the walls of capillaries into injured tissues

mainly neutrophil and macrophage migration into inflamed areas

1. The cells responsible for producing platelets are called ____. a) megakaryocytes b) myeloblasts c) lymphoid stem cells d) monoblasts

megakaryocytes

1. From the esophagus to the anal canal, the walls of every organ of the alimentary canal are made up of the same four basic layers. Arrange them in order from the lumen. A) muscularis externa, serosa, mucosa, and submucosa B) serosa, mucosa, submucosa, and muscularis externa C) submucosa, serosa, muscularis externa, and mucosa D) mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, and serosa

mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, and serosa

1. Gastric pits, as opposed to gastric glands, are completely lined with A) parietal cells B) enteroendocrine cells C) chief cells D) mucous cells

mucous cells

1. Which of the following is true in reference to what may pass through the placental barriers?← A) nutrients and respiratory gases only B) hormones, blood cells, and nutrients C) nutrients, respiratory gases, wastes, and alcohol حل اخر Nutrients, respiratory gases, wastes, alcohol and some drugs and hormones D) respiratory gases, hormones, nutrients, and blood cells

nutrients, respiratory gases, wastes, and alcohol حل اخر Nutrients, respiratory gases, wastes, alcohol and some drugs and hormones

1. Using spirometry, a patient discovers their forced expiratory volume (FEV) after the first second is 40%. What does this suggest? A) exposure to asbestos B) restrictive disease C) obstructive pulmonary disease D) healthy lungs

obstructive pulmonary disease

1. As sound levels increase in the spiral organ (of Corti), ____. A) outer hair cells stiffen the basilar membrane B) outer hair cells bend the cilia away from the kinocilium C) inner hair cells stiffen the basilar membrane D) inner hair cells bend the cilia away from the kinocilium

outer hair cells stiffen the basilar membrane

1. Which of the following would NOT be classified as a lymphoid organ? A) Peyer's patches of the intestine B) pancreas C) spleen Tonsils

pancreas

1. The single most important regulator of calcium levels in the blood is ____. A) calcitonin B) parathyroid hormone C) thyroid hormone D) gonadotropic hormones

parathyroid hormone

1. What process primes a molecule to change in a way that increases its activity, produces motion, or does work A) phosphorylation B) beta oxidation C) cellular respiration D) glycolysisPoint

phosphorylation

1. Which of the following is NOT a part of the juxtaglomerular complex? A) granular cells B) macula densa C) mesangial cells D) podocyte cells

podocyte cells

1. Which of the following is not a cardinal sign of diabetes mellitus? A) polyuria B) polydipsia C) polyphagia D) polycythemia

polycythemia

1. Fever ________. A) production is regulated by chemicals that reset the body's thermostat to a higher setting B) causes the liver to release large amounts of iron, which seems to inhibit bacterial replication C) decreases the metabolic rate of the body to conserve energy D) is a higher-than-normal body temperature that is always dangerous

production is regulated by chemicals that reset the body's thermostat to a higher setting

1. During the secretory phase of the menstrual cycle, ____ reaches its highest levels. A) LH B) progesterone C) estrogen D) the Graafian follicle forms

progesterone

1. The ingestion of which nutrient type results in the greatest food-induced thermogenesis?A) lipidsB) carbohydratesC) proteinsD) vitamins

proteins

1. Which vessel(s) of the heart receive(s) blood from the right ventricle? A. pulmonary veins B. aorta C. pulmonary trunk D. venae cavae

pulmonary trunk

1. The left ventricular wall of the heart is thicker than the right wall in order to ________. A) accommodate a greater volume of blood B) expand the thoracic cage during diastole C) pump blood with greater pressure D) pump blood through a smaller valve

pump blood with greater pressure

1. At the conclusion of glycolysis, most of glucose's chemical energy is found in the ________. A) NADH B) ATP C) acetyl CoA D) pyruvic acid molecules

pyruvic acid molecules

1. Isovolumetric contraction ________. a) occurs only in people with heart valve defects b) refers to the short period during ventricular systole when the ventricles are completely closed chambers c) occurs immediately after the aortic and pulmonary valves close d) occurs while the AV valves are open.

refers to the short period during ventricular systole when the ventricles are completely closed chambers

1. Which of the following processes provides a long-term response to changes in blood pressure? A) neural controls B) chemoreceptor-initiated reflexes C) baroreceptor-initiated reflexes D) renal regulation

renal regulation

1. The oval window is connected directly to which passageway ? A) scala tympani B) pharyngotympanic tube C) scala vestibuli D) external acoustic meatus

scala vestibuli

1. Cells of the ____ gather around the notochord and neural tube and produce the vertebra and rib at their associated level. a. dermatome b. sclerotome c. myotome d. intermediate mesoderm

sclerotome

1. Virtually all amino acid-based hormones exert their signaling effects through intracellular ____. A) nucleotides B) calcium C) deactivating ions D) second messengers

second messengers

1. Which of the following is not a factor that helps create the stomach mucosal barrier? A) secretion of pepsinogen B) thick coating of bicarbonate-rich mucus C) replacing of damaged epithelial mucosa cells D) tight junctions of epithelial mucosa cells

secretion of pepsinogen

1. A patient's hematocrit shows an unusually large buffy coat. What is a likely cause of this? a. anemia b. lipidemia c. severe infection d. Thrombocytopenia

severe infection

1. The form of circulatory shock known as hypovolemic shock is ________. A) the form of shock caused by anaphylaxis B) any condition in which blood vessels are inadequately filled and blood cannot circulate normally C) shock that results from large-scale loss of blood volume, or after severe vomiting or diarrhea D) always fatal

shock that results from large-scale loss of blood volume, or after severe vomiting or diarrhea

1. The "pacemaker potential" of pacemaker cells is produced by the opening of ________ at the end of an action potential. a) K+ channels b) slow Na+ channels c) fast Ca2+ channels slow Ca2+ channels

slow Na+ channels

1. While auscultating heart sounds during a checkup, Andy's doctor hears a high-pitched sound during ventricular contraction. Which type of valve could cause this? A) incompetent tricuspid valve B) deficient pulmonary semilunar valve C) insufficient mitral (bicuspid) valve D) stenotic aortic semilunar valve

stenotic aortic semilunar valve

1. Which of the choices below is not a function of testosterone? A) stimulates the male pattern of development B) stimulates protein synthesis C) contributes to male sexual behavior and spermatogenesis D) stimulates mammary gland development HAVE ANOTHER ANSWER- stimulates the HPG axis

stimulates mammary gland development HAVE ANOTHER ANSWER- stimulates the HPG axis

1. Which of the following is a conducting zone structure? A) respiratory bronchiole B) terminal bronchiole C) alveolar sac D) alveolar duct

terminal bronchiole

1. The erythrocyte (red blood cell) count increases after a while when an individual goes from a low to a high altitude because the ____. a. the temperature is low at higher altitudes. b. the basal metabolic rate is higher at high altitudes. c. the concentration of oxygen and/or total atmospheric pressure is lower at high altitudes. d. the concentration of oxygen and/or total atmospheric pressure is higher at higher altitudes.

the concentration of oxygen and/or total atmospheric pressure is lower at high altitudes.

1. A flu vaccine is needed seasonally to be effective but a polio vaccine is only needed once. The best explanation of this is ____. A) the flu vaccine is substantially weaker than the polio vaccine B) exposure to flu vaccine produces no memory cells from proliferating B-lymphocytes C) the polio virus is substantially weaker than the flu virus D) the flu has several strains that change seasonally

the flu has several strains that change seasonally

1. A patient has a loss of hearing in only one ear. Which of the following is likely to be a result? a. the patient with have increased sensitivity to sound in the unaffected ear. b. the patient will have a loss of balance with dizziness and vertigo c. the patient will not be able to track objects with the eye on the same side as the hearing loss. d. the patient will not be able to localize the origin of sounds

the patient will not be able to localize the origin of sounds

1. The ability of a specific tissue or organ to respond to the presence of a hormone is dependent on ____. a) the presence of the appropriate receptors on the cells of the target tissue or organ. b) the membrane potential of the cells of the target organ. c) nothing. All hormones of the body are able to stimulate all cell types because hormones are powerful and nonspecific. d) the location of the tissue or organ with respect to the circulatory path

the presence of the appropriate receptors on the cells of the target tissue or organ

1. Which of the following glands are responsible for 60% of the synthesis of semen? A) the seminal vesicles B) the bulbourethral glands C) the prostate D) the pituitary

the seminal vesicles

1. Which of the following glands are responsible for producing 70% of semen volume? A) the seminal vesicles B) the bulbourethral glands C) the prostate D) the pituitary

the seminal vesicles

1. Lymphoid tissue that appears as a swelling of the mucosa in the oral cavity is called a(n) ____. A) tonsil B) thymus C) Peyer's patch D) appendix

tonsil

1. Which pressure actually keeps the lungs from collapsing? A) intrapulmonary pressure B) transpulmonary pressure C) intrapleural pressure D) atmospheric pressure

transpulmonary pressure

1. Histologically, the ____ is squamous epithelium supported by a sparse connective tissue layer a) tunica externa b) tunica media c) tunica intima d) advetitia

tunica intima

1. Which of the following taste sensations is incorrectly matched to the chemicals that produce it? A. umami—triglycerides and fatty acids B. bitter—alkaloids C. sour—acids D. salty—metal ions E. sweet—organic substances such as sugar and some lead salts

umami—triglycerides and fatty acids

1. Which method of contraception is most reliable? a- cervical cap b- vasectomy c- morning after pills d- rhythm method

vasectomy

1. What is the main function of the rods in the eye? a) depth perception b) color vision c) vision in dim light d) accommodation for near vision

vision in dim light

1. Factors that influence the rate and depth of breathing include ____. A) thalamic control B) voluntary cortical control C) stretch receptors in the alveoli D) composition of alveolar gas

voluntary cortical control

1. The atrioventricular (AV) valves are closed ________. A) when the ventricles are in diastole B) while the atria are contracting C) when the ventricles are in systole D) by the movement of blood from atria to ventricles

when the ventricles are in systole

1. Innate immune system defenses include ____. A. T Cells B. B Cells C. Phagocytosis D. Plasma Cells

Phagocytosis

1. Select the correct statement about proteins A) Strict vegetarians need not worry about adequate protein intake, as most vegetables are almost perfect sources of amino acids. B) Catabolic steroids (hormones) accelerate the rate of protein synthesis. C) Proteins will be used by most cells for ATP synthesis if insufficient carbohydrates are ingested. D) All proteins can be synthesized in the body if most of the amino acids are present

Proteins will be used by most cells for ATP synthesis if insufficient carbohydrates are ingested.

1. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the spleen?← A) Clusters of white pulp look like islands in a sea of red pulp. B) The spleen is the largest lymphoid organ. C) The splenic artery and vein enter and exit the spleen at the hilum. D) Red pulp is where immune functions take place.

Red pulp is where immune functions take place.

1. The larynx contains ____. a) the thyroid cartilage b) an upper pair of avascular mucosal folds called true vocal folds c) lateral cartilage ridges called false vocal folds d) a cricoid cartilage also called the Adam's apple

a) the thyroid cartilage

1. As the body progresses from the absorptive to the postabsorptive state, the ____ continues to burn glucose while virtually every other organ in the body switches to fatty acids as its major energy source. A) pancreas B) spleen C) liver D)Brain

Brain

1. Which blood vessels lack elastic tissue? A) Muscular arteries and arterioles B) Arterioles and capillaries C) Capillaries and venules D)venules and veins

Capillaries and venules

1. Which of the following statements is incorrect or false? A) MHC proteins are the cell's identity markers. B) Class II MHC molecules appear only on the surface of antigen-presenting cells, thymic cells, and T cells that have been activated by exposure to antigens. C) Haptens lack immunogenicity unless attached to protein carriers. D) Class 1 MHC molecules are built into the plasma membranes of all body cells.

Class II MHC molecules appear only on the surface of antigen-presenting cells, thymic cells, and T cells that have been activated by exposure to antigens.

1. Which of the following is a type of circulatory shock? a) cardiogenic, which results from any defect in blood vessels b) vascular, due to extreme vasodilation as a result of loss of vasomotor tone c) hypovolemic, caused by increased blood volume d) circulatory, where blood volume is normal and constant

a) vascular, due to extreme vasodilation as a result of loss of vasomotor tone

1. A person with an extremely high count of neutrophils is likely suffering _____. a. a bacterial infection b. a viral infection c. anemia d. polycythemia

a bacterial infection

1. Hemorrhage with a large loss of blood causes ____. A) no change in blood pressure but a slower heart rate B) a rise in blood pressure due to change in cardiac output C) no change in blood pressure but a change in respiration D) a lowering of blood pressure due to change in cardiac output

a lowering of blood pressure due to change in cardiac output

1. The term ductus venosus refers to ________. A. a special fetal vessel that allows umbilical blood to bypass the liver B. a fetal shunt that bypasses the lungs C. a condition of the aged in which the arteries lose elasticity D. damage to the valves in the veins, leading to varicose veins

a special fetal vessel that allows umbilical blood to bypass the liver

1. The diploid number of chromosomes in a human is 46. Therefore, the number of chromosomes in a primary spermatocyte or primary oocyte is ________. a) 46 b) 38 c) 23 d) 92

a) 46

1. Which statement best describes arteries? a) All carry blood away from the heart. b) All contain valves to prevent the backflow of blood. c) All carry oxygenated blood to the heart. d) Only large arteries are lined with endothelium.

a) All carry blood away from the heart.

1. The aorta receives the full force of blood exiting the heart during ventricular systole. Which of the following statements best describes the adaptive anatomy of the aorta? a) The aorta's tunica media is thick with dense regular connective tissue to withstand the blood's pressure. b) Elastic fibers are extensive in the tunica media of the aorta and dampen the pulse pressure generated by the heart. c) The tunica external of the aorta is nearly absent compared to other vessels. d) Smooth muscle is relatively thin in the aorta to increase lumen size and systemic blood flow.

a) Elastic fibers are extensive in the tunica media of the aorta and dampen the pulse pressure generated by the heart.

1. Which immunoglobulin class is the most abundant antibody in plasma? a) IgG (monomer) b) IgM(monomer) c) IgA(monomer) d) IgD(monomer) e) IgE(monomer)

a) IgG (monomer)

1. The first major event in organogenesis is________. a) ossification b) myelination c) gastrulation d) Neurulation

a) Neurulation

1. Why blood considered a connective tissue? a) It acts as an adhesive layer between tissue types. b) It is found in all areas of the body. c) It allows for chemical signals from one area of the body to reach another. d) Plasma contains dissolved fibrous proteins

a) Plasma contains dissolved fibrous proteins

1. Atherosclerosis causes elastic arteries to become less stretchy. How does this affect pulse pressure? a) Pulse pressure is chronically decreased. b) Pulse pressure is temporarily decreased. c) Pulse pressure is unaffected by atherosclerosis. d) Pulse pressure is chronically increased. Pulse pressure is temporarily increased

a) Pulse pressure is chronically increased.

1. During the isovolumetric relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle, ___. a) atrioventricular valves are closed; aortic and pulmonary valves are open b) Pulmonary valves close causing ventricular pressure to fall below atrial pressures allowing the AV valves to open c) atrioventricular, aortic, and pulmonary valves are closed

a) atrioventricular, aortic, and pulmonary valves are closed

1. In the block to polyspermy, entry of the sperm's contents causes ____ levels in the oocyte's cytoplasm to rise, triggering the cortical reaction. a) phosphate ion b) calcium ion c) sodium ion d) ATP

a) calcium ion

1. The posterior lobe of the pituitary gland is NOT a true endocrine gland because ________. a) it is strictly a part of the neural system and has little or nothing to do with hormonal release b) it is unable to function as an endocrine tissue because it is actually part of the neural system due to its location c) embryonically it was an endocrine tissue, but in the adult human it is no longer functional d) it is only a hormone storage area that receives hormones from the hypothalamus for release

a) it is only a hormone storage area that receives hormones from the hypothalamus for release

1. Which is NOT a vessel that brings blood directly into the right atrium? a) pulmonary vein b) coronary sinus c) superior vena cava d) inferior vena cava

a) pulmonary vein