AP BIO MCQ 2

synaptic pathway:

neurotransmitters diffuse across synapses and trigger resp in cells of target tissues ex: neuron to muscle, contraction

How are specific antibodies produced?

by WBC, B cell develop from stem cells in bone marrow... when activ they develop into plasma cells and produce antibodies spec to antigen

cortisol

mediates long-term metabolic responses to stress and is produced by the adrenal gland

Nervous System-

networks of specialized cells transmit signals along certain pathways signals regulate, nerons, muscle cells and endocrine cells (regulate release of hormones)

budding

new individuals form as outgrowths, or buds, from me bodies of mature animals

Set point-

"place" comfortable for normal activity, always come back and regulate to this point

2

# of hydrogen bonds between A and T

3

# of hydrogen bonds between G and C

in many species of fireflies males flash to attract females. Each species has a different flashing pattern. this is an example of

behavioral isolation

Polypeptides

chains of amino acids, linked by peptide bonds

The 3 main points from Phylogenetic tree-

1. show pattern of descent, not phenotypic similarity 2. sequence of branching does not indicate age 3. don't assume that a taxon on a phylogenetic tree evolved from taxon next to it.

Natural selection on a trait can only occur if the trait is

inheritable

Initiation of translation

mRNA becomes attached to ribosome, first codon is AUG

Based on Table 5-5, the mean map distance between gene R and gene L is closest to which of the following? A) 0.28 map units B) 28 map units C) 0.14 map units D) 14 map units

28 map units

end result of spermatogenesis

4 spermatids

If a DNA sample were composed of 10% thymine, what would be the percentage of guanine?

40

A F1 plant that is homozygous for tallness is crossed with a heterozygous F1 plant. What ratio of tall to short plants (tall:short) represents the possible offspring? A. 4:0 B. 1:1 C. 1:3 D. 3:1

4:0

Which of the following is true regarding saturated fatty acids?

They are the principal molecules in lard and butter.

Which of the following statements concerning saturated fats is not true?

They have multiple double bonds in the carbon chains of their fatty acids.

The label on a container of margarine lists "hydrogenated vegetable oil" as the major ingredient. What is the result of adding hydrogens to vegetable oil?

The hydrogenated vegetable oil stays solid at room temperature.

Inducible

Type of operon Lac

20. The fact that alleles of genes get sorted into gametes independently of each other is known as what? a. Law of Segregation b. Law of Independent Assortment c. Crossing over d. Polar bodies e. Zygote

B

21) A cell with a predominance of free ribosomes is most likely _____. A) primarily producing proteins for secretion B) primarily producing proteins in the cytosol C) constructing an extensive cell wall or extracellular matrix D) enlarging its vacuole

B

21. A heterozygous type A mother crosses with a heterozygous type B father. What is the likelihood that their offspring will be type AB? a. 0% b. 25% c. 50% d. 75% e. 100%

B

22) Which organelle often takes up much of the volume of a plant cell? A) lysosome B) vacuole C) Golgi apparatus D) peroxisome

B

24) Which structure is NOT part of the endomembrane system? A) nuclear envelope B) chloroplast C) Golgi apparatus D) plasma membrane

B

Enhancing

Binding of activator protein, stimulates transcription to occur faster

Repressor protein

Binds to regulatory sites on DNA (operators) to prevent/ decrease initiation of transcription, allosteric regulation

One of the key research areas of the Human Genome Project was a new field of study called A. genetics. B. bioinformatics. C. pedigree. D. autosomes.

Bioinformatics

When scientists manipulate the genetic makeup of an organism, they are using A. bioinformatics. B. genomics. C. a pedigree. D. biotechnology.

Biotechnology.

Which of the following best explains the trend shown in Figure 1? (Kentucky Derby)

By 1940, most genetic variation for speed had been lost from the gene pool.

What act did the United States Congress pass to protect Americans against discrimination based on their genetic information? A. Medical Device Act B. Family Smoking Prevention and Tobacco Control Act C. Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act D. Food and Drug Administration Safety and Innovation Act

Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act

a small population is likely to evolve because of₋₋₋, but this not likely to be true for large populations

Genetic drifts in a small population, mutation, natural selection, A,B,C are correct

The Tomb of the Unknowns serves as a place for the remains of unidentified soldiers. Today, each soldier who enters into duty is required to provide a DNA sample, so that soldiers killed in service can be identified. What term best pertains to this issue? A. Genetic ownership B. Genetic modification C. Segregation D. Pedigree

Genetic ownership

Which of the following is true of cellulose?

It is a major structural component of plant cell walls.

When an individual is exercising heavily and when the muscle becomes oxygen-deprived, muscle cells convert pyruvate to lactate. What happens to the lactate in skeletal muscle cells as oxygen becomes available again?

It is taken to the liver and converted back to pyruvate.

What is the term for small circular DNA molecules found in bacteria, which are often used in recombinant DNA studies? A. Genetic markers B. Southern blots C. Plasmids D. Clones

Plasmids

Amino acids

Present in cytoplasm and carried by tRNA molecules to codons of mRNA strand at the ribosome

Which of the following statements about the 5' end of a polynucleotide strand of RNA is correct?

The 5' end has a phosphate group attached to the number 5 carbon of ribose.

Diabetes mellitus

body isn't making enough insulin to control blood sugar levels occurs when some or all of insulin producing cells are destroyed sugar accum autoimmune

What is the term for metabolic pathways that release stored energy by breaking down complex molecules?

catabolic pathways

warming the hypothalamus

causes body temperature to lower by bialating blood vessels to skin or sweating/panting

cooling the hypothalamus

causes body temperature to rise by constricting blood vessels to the skin or increasing metabolic rate

On food packages, to what does the term insoluble fiber refer?

cellulose

order of events in natural selection

change in environment => poorly adapted organisms die out => well adapted organisms survive and reproduce => change in allele frequency

Lamarck's Theory of Evolution

changes organisms acquired in their lifetime could be passed down to their offspring

Countercurrent exchange-

closed circulatory system, cold pipes are next to the warm, move from extremeties...cold blood runs past warm..warms it up

Evidence that birds descended from dinosaurs-

closest living relative of birds are crocodiles both have 4 chamber hearts, sing to defend territories and attract mates, build nests, care for eggs by brooding and parent warms the egg

To monitor the rate of cellular respiration, you might use a microrespirometer (as we discussed in class). This method is dependent on a cotton ball soaked in KOH to:

convert created CO2 gas to a solid

Where does glycolysis take place in eukaryotic cells?

cyplasm (cytosol)

Which of the following are nitrogenous bases of the pyrimidine type?

cytosine and uracil

What is the chemical reaction mechanism by which cells make polymers from monomers?

dehydration reactions

regeneration

development of a complete individual from a piece of an organism

There are 20 different amino acids. What makes one amino acid different from another?

different side chains (R groups) attached to an α carbon

Major Lipid Soluble-

diffuse across membrane outside, bind to transport proteins leave the blood and diffuse into target cells...bind to recpetors in cytoplasm or nucleus hormone bound receptors trigger change in gene transcription

Conduction-

direct transfer of thermal motion between moecules of object in contact with each other (lizard on hot rock)

trobic hormones

directs and controls activities of other endocrine glands

Function and Location of Connective tissue-

holds tissue and organs together in place (strength and flexibility, join tissue, elasticity) location- blood, cartilage, adipose tissue, skin

Transduction-

horiz, bacteria acquire new DNA from a phage

Conjugation-

horiz, bacteria exchange DNA through direct connection

Endocrine System-

hormones secreted to extracellular fluid to circulate and communicate messages hormone binds to a SPECIFIC receptor response cells without receptor are unaffected maintain homeostasis sexual matur, growth and devel, mediates response by EXTERNAL STIMULI function: chemcial signal by hormones

Humans can digest starch but not cellulose because

humans have enzymes that can hydrolyze the glycosidic linkages of starch but not the glycosidic linkages of cellulose.

In a normal cellular protein, where would you expect to find a hydrophobic amino acid like valine?

in the interior of the folded protein, away from water, or in a transmembrane portion interacting with lipid fatty acid chains

which of the following statements about evolution is false?

individuals evolve

positive feedback

information that amplifies a regulatory response, increasing the deviation of the system from the set point

feedforward information

information that changes the set point of the system

All of the following are polysaccharides except

lactose.

effect of locations and types of mutations on proteins // intron

least harmful mutation

chemical groups of hormones

lipid: steroid (non-polar), easily go through membrane

what does it mean to "silence" a gene and what causes this to happen

loss of gene expression from mutation

Why do bacteria evolve much faster than multicellular euks?

new mutations are rare, but can increase genetic dicersity wuickly due to short generation times and large populations adapt wuickly

Equilibrium actually means

no charge in allele frequency

polar body

nonfunctional nucleus, produced by meiosis during oogenesis, haploid, contains little cytoplasm, found in ovaries

which of the following categories is the smallest capable of evolution

population

set point

posted speed limit

reduced hybrid variability

postzygotic barrier // genes of different parent species may interact and impair hybrid's development

mechanical isolation

prezygotic mechanism // involves morphological differences that prevent successful mating

temporal isolation

prezygotic mechanism // species that breed at different times of day, seasons, or years can't mix gametes

size euks vs pros

pros- .5-5 um euks- 10-100 um

genome euks vs pros

pros- circular chrom, less pro nucleoid euks- linear chromosome nucleus

The NADPH required for the Calvin cycle comes from

reactions initiated in photosystem I.

autocrine pathway-

secreted molecules diffuse locally and response in cells that secrete Ex: tumor and immune cells

Claudes-

species placed in groups where have ancestral species and all descendants

Outgroup-

species/group from evol lineage known to have diverged before the lineage that lineage that includes species being studied

hypothalamus

specific brain location of major integrative center of the vertebrate thermostate

Why are archaea placed in their own domain of life?

they have characteristics from euks and pros aren't classified or necessarily more related to one or the other

Why CA why unicellular

things go from simple to complex org start at small

Purpose of Immune System-

to recognize and neautralize potentially harmful substances

Transformation, Transduction and COnjugation-

transformation- bacteria take in plasmids from environment transduction- bacteria acquire new DNA from phage conjugation- bacteria exchange DNA through direct connection, pilus attaches and forms a mating bridge...directly transfer (must have F factor)

which of the following "species" cannot be tested via the biological species concept to see if all the individual organisms are in fact a single species

a dinosaur species

when a species invades a new habitat and evolves rapidly into several new species to better exploit new resources what has occurred?

adaptive radiation

Diff between shared ancestral and shared derived-

ancestral- ancestor had derived- ancestor didn't have

Claudistics-

another systematic common ancestry is primary criterion

Lactose, a sugar in milk, is composed of one glucose molecule joined by a glycosidic linkage to one galactose molecule. How is lactose classified?

as a disaccharide

Which molecule is a saturated fatty acid?

9

Which of the following describes sexual orientation? (A) Developing an inherent attraction or romantic relationship with a given gender or genders (B) Feeling gender is consistent throughout the life span (C) Identifying as a specific gender (D) Developing an overgeneralization about a group of individuals based on their gender (E) Learning a set of expectations that one feels are appropriate for various genders

A

Insertion

Addition of one letter to DNA sequence

Post-transcrptional mRNA processing

Alternative RNA gene splicing

A researcher suggests that the Irish monoculture (growing a single crop) of the Lumper potato did not significantly change the overall resistance of the potato crop in Ireland to diseases. Which of the following observations best refutes this null hypothesis?

B The number of fatalities from the Irish potato famine was greater than the rest of the European countries combined.

Initiation of transcription

Begins when RNA polymerase recognizes and binds to DNA at promoter, once attached and transcription factors bound, transcription of DNA template begins

DNA polymerase

Build new DNA strand from a template, catalyzes the antiparallel elongation of the new DNA strands

39) Where are proteins produced other than on ribosomes free in the cytosol or ribosomes attached to the ER? A) in the extracellular matrix B) in the Golgi apparatus C) in mitochondria D) in the nucleolus

C

what determines which traits will be passed on to the next generation in the greatest frequency?

D) the fit of the trait to the environment

Which of the following graphs best predicts the data collected during the experiment?

D. Up, Medium, Up

Difficulties to building a phylogenetic tree-

DNA database, analyze data for 50 species... 3 x 10^76 ways

What is the term for the process of analyzing sections of DNA that may have little or no function but that vary widely from one individual to another? A. DNA polymerase B. DNA fingerprinting C. Gene therapy D. Forensics

DNA fingerprinting

cDNA

DNA produced by retroviruses using the enzyme reverse transcriptase

5' to 3'

DNA strand runs from

Parts of the taxonomic system-

DOMAIN KINGDOM PHYLUM CLASS ORDER FAMILY GENUS SPECIES

Which of the following best describes the processes occurring between the mouse populations and their environments?

Dark color is selected for in mice from the West, Mid, and East populations.

Which of the following best summarizes the relationship between dehydration reactions and hydrolysis?

Dehydration reactions assemble polymers, and hydrolysis reactions break down polymers.

Based on the information in Figure 1, which type of mutation explains the nature of the change in DNA that resulted in cystic fibrosis in the affected individual?

Deletion, because a thymine is missing, which changes the reading frame.

The main goals of the Human Genome Project include all of the following except A. developing mutations of all human genes. B. sequencing the genomes of model organisms to help interpret human DNA. C. identifying all human genes. D. sequencing all 3 billion base pairs of human DNA.

Developing mutations of all human genes.

Gregor Mendel contributed to genetic theory by concluding all of the following except A. each adult has six copies of each gene. B. inheritance is determined by genes. C. alleles for each gene usually segregate independently of each other. D. alleles may be dominant or recessive

Each adult has six copies of each gene

Which of the following best helps explain how the process represented in Figure 1 produces DNA molecules that are hybrids of the original and the newly synthesized strands?

Each newly synthesized strand remains associated with its template strand to form two copies of the original DNA molecule.

1) Load samples into wells 2) Apply electrical current 3) View separated bonds

Electrophoresis steps

During a hot spring, the western white butterfly is found to have an unusually light wing pigmentation. What is the best reason for this altered phenotype? A. Change in alleles B. Independent assortment C. Environment D. Altered genes

Environment

Which of the following statements best explains the role of Enzyme 1 in the DNA replication process?

Enzyme 1 is a topoisomerase that relieves tension in the overwound DNA in front of a replication fork.

Restriction enzymes

Enzyme capable of cutting DNA at specific sequences, work by binding to specific base sequence and cleaving DNA backbone in 2 locations on 1 strand

What can scientists find once they determine the sequence of a DNA molecule? A. Gene B. Allele C. Plasmid D. Southern blot

Gene

What is the term for the process of changing a gene to treat a medical disease or disorder? A. Pedigree B. Gene mapping C. Gene therapy D. Genomics

Gene therapy

Over the next year, a virus attacks and rapidly kills almost all plants of the tobacco species. A closely related species of tobacco that is resistant to the virus becomes established during that same year. The nectary tube in the resistant species averages 7.5cm. Scientists monitored the area for the next five years to determine how this change affected the moth population. Which of the following best describes the expected distribution of proboscis size of the moths at the end of the five‑year study?

Graph A.

Which statement below best states an alternative hypothesis Fox could have used to frame his research?

In the presence of available energy and the absence of a significant quantity of atmospheric O2 simple proteins will form spontaneously from a mixture of amino acids.

In liver cells, the inner mitochondrial membranes are about five times the area of the outer mitochondrial membranes. What purpose must this serve?

It increases the surface for oxidative phosphorylation.

When chemical, transport, or mechanical work is done by an organism, what happens to the heat generated?

It is lost to the environment.

Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the chemical reaction illustrated in Figure 5.5?

It results in a peptide bond.

DNA ligase

Joins DNA fragments together

DNA replication

Making the exact replica of the DNA molecule by semiconservative replication

5' cap

Methyl cap,helps mRNA move through nuclear pore and attach to ribosome

What is used to determine one's maternal ancestry? A. Mitochondrial DNA B. Ribosomal DNA C. Transfer RNA D. Messenger RNA

Mitochondrial DNA

5' to 3'

New DNA strand is synthesized from

Hydrogen bonds

Nitrogenous bases of opposite chains are paired to one another by

Sometimes, gametes have an abnormal number of chromosomes, which leads to a disorder of chromosome numbers. Gametes can end up with an abnormal number of chromosomes because of _____, an event that most often occurs during meiosis. A. segregation B. codominance C. nondisjunction D. karyotyping

Nondisjunction

Anticodon

One end of tRNA molecule that bears a nucleotide triplet

Which of the following sets of data provides evidence that best supports common ancestry for organisms in all three domains?

Organisms in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya each have adenine, thymine, guanine, and cytosine bases forming their DNA.

Figure 10.1 shows the absorption spectrum for chlorophyll a and the action spectrum for photosynthesis. Why are they different?

Other pigments absorb light in addition to chlorophyll a.

3' to 5'

RNA polymerase reads DNA from

how do amoeba exchange materials?

SA is in contact with the environment have direct exchange

Supportive Connective Tissue

STRONG AND DURABLE...support Cartilage- strong, flexible fibers in a rubbery substane (end of nose) Bone- strong, mineralized, osteoblasts deposit matrix of collagen

Frameshift mutation

The entire reading frame is altered

In a certain small mammal, fur color is controlled by a pair of alleles, with B being dominant over b. The genotypes BB and Bb result in dark-colored fur, the genotype bb results in light-colored fur. A population of the species has the following allele frequencies: B=0.85 and b=0.15. If a fire caused the surface of the ground in the habitat of the species to become darker in color, which of the following claims about the impact on the allele frequencies in this population is most reasonable?

The frequency of the B allele will increase because light-colored individuals will be more visible to predators.

The researchers built an enclosure to prevent migration into and out of the O'Neill rock pocket mouse population for a period of two years. Which of the following best predicts the effect of the enclosure on the O'Neill population?

The frequency of the MC1RD allele will decline due to natural selection.

Which of the following best explains how the results should be interpreted?

The individual has an increased risk of developing colon cancer.

Which of the following statements best represents the relationships between the light reactions and the Calvin cycle?

The light reactions provide ATP and NADPH to the Calvin cycle, and the cycle returns ADP, mc016-1.jpgi, and NADP+ to the light reactions.

Researchers discovered a mutant form of the TYR gene with a deletion of a single guanine nucleotide in the beginning of the coding sequence.

The mutation will change all subsequent amino acids in the TYR protein, leading to nonfunctional TYR protein. Individuals with this mutation will lack melanin in their hair, skin, and eyes and will not tan in response to UV radiation.

Which of the following best explains the divergence in morphology in the birds?

The original habitat had many available unoccupied ecological niches that were colonized by populations of the original species.

Inducible operon

Their default state is "off", meaning that binding of the active regulator protein to DNA, thereby blocking transcription initiation, is the default state. Lac

What is an analogy?

a similarity between organisms that is due to convergent evolution, not ancestry

hermaphrodites

a single individual that can produce both sperm and ova, do not have to find right mate, everyone is potential partner

A molecule with the chemical formula C6H12O6 is probably a

carbohydrate and monosaccharide only.

Specific Defenses-

cell mediated and humoral (look at sheet)

The difference between the sugar in DNA and the sugar in RNA is that the sugar in DNA

contains one less oxygen atom.

Even though plants carry on photosynthesis, plant cells still use their mitochondria for oxidation of pyruvate. When and where will this occur?

in all cells all the time

A bacterial allele that conveys resistance to the antibiotic streptomycin

is beneficial to the cell in the presence of streptomycin

Convergent evolution-

occurs when similar environmental pressures and NS produce similar (analogous) adaptations in orgs from diff env lineages

parthenogenesis

offspring can develop from unfertilized eggs

location of receptors for hormones

on the cell's surface (peptide and protein, amine) or inside the cell (steroids and some amine hormones)

If cells are grown in a medium containing radioactive 35S, which of these molecules will be labeled?

proteins

Which level of protein structure do the helix and the pleated sheet represent?

secondary

What aspects of protein structure are stabilized or assisted by hydrogen bonds?

secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structures, but not primary structure

Major Water Soluble-

secreted by exocytosis travel freely can't diffuse through plasma membrane bind to cell surface receptors cause changes in cytoplasmic molecules and gene transcription

epinephrine

stimulate immediate fight or flight reactions, produced by the medulla

glucagon

stimulates liver to release glucose, produced by the pancreas

Where does the Calvin cycle take place?

stroma of the chloroplast

FLuid Connective Tissue-

tissues with liquid matrix, functional connection Blood- erythrocytes (red), leukocytes (white) plasma is liqui matrix lymph- intersitial spaces,

Convection-

transfer of heat by movement of air or liquid past surfaces, breese = heat lost

Significance of prokaryote/eukaryote dividng line-

true nucleus eukaryotes have a nuclear envelope and membrane enclosed DNA, leads to more modification

ability of hormones to bind to variety of cells

water soluble, peptide and protein easily go through blood

"Negative feedback loops are common to all regulatory pathways in the body."

way to conserve E simple by decreasing hormone signaling, neg feedback reg precents excess activity

endocrine system

what parts of the body secrete hormones (cells scattered in organs or endocrine glands)

mRNA

Involved in transcription

A and G

Purines nitrogen bases

error signal

difference between set point and feedback

In the Arizona populations, the melanocortin-1 receptor (MC1R) gene is responsible for coat color phenotype (light or dark). The MC1RD allele, which results in a dark coat, is dominant to the d allele. Researchers collected samples of mice from all six study sites and sequenced the MC1R gene. They also collected mice with dark coats from a location in New Mexico, the Carrizozo lava flow, to determine if the MC1Rgene was also responsible for the dark coat colors observed in that population. The rock pocket mouse population in Carrizozo is isolated from the populations in Arizona. Table 1 presents the genotypic data from sampled mice from all seven locations. Which of the following is closest to the frequency of the MC1RD allele in the Tule Mountain population?

0.03

Which molecule has both hydrophilic and hydrophobic properties and would be found in plasma membranes?

14

Which of the following molecules contains a glycosidic linkage type of covalent bond?

15

What fraction of the carbon dioxide exhaled by animals is generated by the reactions of the citric acid cycle, if glucose is the sole energy source?

2/3

If one strand of a DNA molecule has the sequence of bases 5'ATTGCA3', the other complementary strand would have the sequence

5'TGCAAT3'.

1) The smallest cell structure that would most likely be visible with a standard (not superresolution) researchgrade light microscope is a _____. A) mitochondrion B) microtubule C) ribosome D) microfilament

A

A member of a population of genetically identical cells produced from a single cell is A. a plasmid. B. an allele. C. a genetic marker. D. a clone.

A clone

Which of the following is a statement of the first law of thermodynamics?

Energy cannot be created or destroyed.

For this condition, which of the following modes of inheritance is most consistent with the observations based on Figure 5-5? A) autosomal dominant B) Autosomal Recessive C) X-linked dominant D) X-linked recessive

A) autosomal dominant

Figure 1. Comparison of observations of selected mammals in 1996 and 2011. Figure 2. Change in host preference by Culex cedecei between 1979 and 2016. Based on the data, which of the following most accurately matches a potential change with its predicted effects on the southern Florida ecosystem?

A. Introduction of a new top predator species that preys solely on Burmese pythons would cause an increase in the raccoon population.

Which of the following are products of the light reactions of photosynthesis that are utilized in the Calvin cycle?

ATP and NADPH

PCR

Accelerate pace of genetic engineering by quickly creating many clones of DNA sequence without plasmid

Transgenic animal cells are formed through the transformation of animal cells. Steps in this process are correctly described in all of following except A. DNA molecules used for transformation contain genetic markers. B. Enzymes help insert foreign DNA into the chromosomes of an injected cell. C. DNA is injected directly into the nucleus of animal cells. D. Agrobacterium inserts DNA plasmids.

Agrobacterium inserts DNA plasmids.

What is Gregor Mendel's contribution to the history and study of genetics? A. He discovered that characteristics are determined by inherited factors (genes). B. All of the other answer choices C. He discovered that alleles can be dominant or recessive. D. He discovered that alleles segregate independently during the formation of gametes.

All of the other answer choices

Taq polymerase

Allows reaction mixture to be repeatedly heated without destroying enzyme activity

What term defines chromosomes that are not sex chromosomes? A. Karyotypes B. Pedigrees C. Autosomes D. Dominant alleles

Autosomes

The marine iguana, Amblyrhynchus cristatus, is endemic to the Galápagos Islands and is especially vulnerable to El Niño events. These iguanas feed on red and green algae. During an El Niño climate event, surface waters and their currents in the central and eastern Pacific Ocean become significantly warmer than usual. Also during El Niño years, land masses experience increased rainfall. A researcher suggests that El Niño conditions cause a significant decrease in the size of the Galápagos marine iguana population. Which of the following would best support this alternative hypothesis?

B = Warm surface water contains fewer nutrients needed by red and green algae than cooler surface waters does: Upwelling brings cold, nutrient-rich waters to the surface. During El Niño years this is inhibited, so algae populations decrease because nutrients are limiting, resulting in decreased marine iguana populations.

The students plan to use a significance level of p=0.01. Based on Table 5-4, which of the following is the most appropriate critical value for the students to use in their chi-square goodness-of-fit test? A) 7.82 B) 11.34 C) 13.28 D) 326.7

B) 11.34

Based on Table 5-8, the mean number of fruit flies per student that are homozygous recessive for both genes is closest to which of the following? A) 89.75 B) 29.0 C) 22.75 D) 18.5

B) 29.0

How many degrees of freedom should be used when looking up the critical value for a chi-square analysis of the ratios of phenotypes observed among the F2 offspring versus the expected phenotypic ratio assuming independent assortment based on Table 5-1? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5

B) 3

Figure 1. Average bottom light intensity in clipped plots versus enclosed plots Figure 2. Richness comparison of two treatments Which of the following statements is consistent with the data shown in the figures?

B. Different patterns of energy availability in ecosystems will affect species richness.

Figure 1. AIP cascade producing hemolysin toxin Identify the experimental design that would determine which AIP mimic would most effectively inhibit the production of hemolysin toxin.

B. Grow S. aureus in separate culture media containing one AIPAIP mimic each and measure the production of hemolysin toxin. The most effective AIPAIP mimic will be in the culture producing the lowest amount of hemolysin.

Figure 1. Diversity of macroscopic invertebrates in different stream types. Error bars represent a 95% confidence interval (±two Standard Errors from the mean). Which of the stream types had a statistically lower macroscopic invertebrate species diversity than the seasonal streams?

B. Intermittent streams only

Figure 1. Comparison of observations of selected mammals in 1996 and 2011. Figure 2. Change in host preference by Culex cedecei between 1979 and 2016.

B. Python predation has caused a trophic cascade that changed the mosquitoes' niche.

Scientists hypothesize that the invasive Burmese pythons are responsible for recent increases in human Everglades virus infections. Evaluate this alternate hypothesis using the data provided.

B. The alternate hypothesis is supported because the invasive Burmese pythons caused mosquitoes to switch to feeding on cotton rats. This means that mo

Which of the following describes how the vent bacteria harvest energy to produce organic compounds for use by the vent community?

B. The bacteria function as chemoautotrophs, extracting energy from hydrogen-rich inorganic molecules.

18) Which of the following statements correctly describes some aspect of protein secretion from prokaryotic cells? A) Prokaryotes cannot secrete proteins because they lack an endomembrane system. B) The mechanism of protein secretion in prokaryotes is probably the same as that in eukaryotes. C) Proteins secreted by prokaryotes are synthesized on ribosomes bound to the cytoplasmic surface of the plasma membrane. D) Prokaryotes cannot secrete proteins because they lack ribosomes.

C

8) Cell size is limited by _____. A) the number of proteins within the plasma membrane B) the surface area of mitochondria in the cytoplasm C) surface to volume ratios D) the size of the endomembrane system

C

8. Which of the following pairs of alleles shows a homozygous recessive pair? a. XX b. Xx c. xx d. All of the above e. None of the above

C

At which bond would water need to be added to achieve hydrolysis of the peptide, back to its component amino acids?

C

Several researchers from an introductory psychology course observed infants, toddlers, and young children at a day care for one week. Over the course of the week, the researchers observed the gross and fine motor skills of all the children. After reviewing the data, the researchers were able to conclude that (A) infants gain control of their arm muscles before they gain control of their neck muscles (B) young children master fine motor skills more quickly than gross motor skills (C) young children master gross motor skills more quickly than fine motor skills (D) infants master using their fingers more quickly than their torso (E) infants master controlling their feet more quickly than lifting their head

C

Which of the following best explains how the sweet pea plants in the parental generation produce F1 offspring with 14 chromosomes based on Figure 5-1 and Table 5-1? A) Meiosis II and IIII lead to the formation of cells with 14 chromosomes. When two cells combine during fertilization, extra chromosomes are randomly broken down, leading to offspring with 14 chromosomes. B) Meiosis I and II lead to the formation of cells with 14 chromosomes. When two cells combine during fertilization, extra chromosomes with recessive traits are broken down, leading to offspring with 14 chromosomes. C) Meiosis I and II lead to the formation of cells with 7 chromosomes. During meiosis I, homologous chromosomes separate. During meiosis II, sister chromatids separate. Two cells combine during fertilization to produce offspring with 14 chromosomes. D) Meiosis I and II lead to the formation of cells with 7 chromosomes. During meiosis I, sister chromatids separate. During meiosis II, homologous chromosomes separate. Two cells combine during fertilization to produce offspring with 14 chromosomes.

C) Meiosis I and II lead to the formation of cells with 7 chromosomes. During meiosis I, homologous chromosomes separate. During meiosis II, sister chromatids separate. Two cells combine during fertilization to produce offspring with 14 chromosomes.

For sexually reproducing diploid parent cells, which of the following statements best explains the production of haploid cells that occurs in meiosis but not in mitosis? A) Separation of chromatids occurs once, and there is one round of cell division in meiosis. B) Separation of chromatids occurs twice, and there are two rounds of cell division in mitosis. C) Separation of chromatids occurs once, and there are two rounds of cell division in meiosis. D) Separation of chromatids occurs twice, and there is one round of cell division in mitosis.

C) Separation of chromatids occurs once, and there are two rounds of cell division in meiosis.

Figure 1. Gel electrophoresis of three prepared samples Which of the following statements best explains the pattern seen on the gel with regard to the size and charge of molecules A and B?

C. Molecules AA and BB are negatively charged, and molecule AA is smaller than molecule BB.

Figure 1. Mite Habitat Preferences (by R. colwelli and R. richardsoni) Which of the following is an accurate interpretation of the data in Figure 1 ?

C. R. richardsoni is found significantly more frequently on Species 3 and Species 4 compared to Species 1 and Species 2.

What would the population size of sika deer be one year after the carrying capacity increased to 70,000 as a result of deforestation? Assume rmax does not change.

C. The population would grow to 63,667 deer in a year, and the growth rate would decrease the following year.

Which of the following hypotheses about the effect of zebra mussels on the Hudson River community is best supported by the data in Figure 1 ?

C. The reduction in primary productivity has resulted in an unstable community that will eventually collapse.

A population of 250 birds inhabit the canopy of a tropical rain forest that has a carrying capacity of 400 birds. What is the maximum population growth rate (rmax) if the population grows to 283 in one year?

C. 0.35

The molecular formula for glucose is C6H12O6. What would be the molecular formula for a molecule made by linking three glucose molecules together by dehydration reactions?

C18H32O16

To apply parsimony to constructing a phylogenetic tree...

Choose the tree that represents the fewest evolutionary changes, either in DNA sequences or morphology

Of the following, which is the best next step for the researchers to best determine the long-term effectiveness of these insecticides with regards to the development of resistance?

Continue treating the three insect populations with the same insecticides and determine whether their efficiencies decline significantly after several generations.

Eukaryote gene expression

Control strategies maintain homeostasis and drive development

Which of the following best predicts the effect of the chromosomal segregation error shown in Figure 5-7? A) All of the resulting gametes will have an extra chromosome. B) All of the resulting gametes will be missing a chromosome. C) Half of the resulting gametes will have an extra chromosome and the other half will be missing a chromosome. D) Half of the resulting gametes will have the correct number of chromosomes, and the other half will have an incorrect number of chromosomes.

D) Half of the resulting gametes will have the correct number of chromosomes, and the other half will have an incorrect number of chromosomes.

Which of the following best explains a distinction between metaphase I and metaphase II? (You can use Figure 5-2 as a reference here) A) The nuclear membrane breaks down during metaphase I but not during metaphase II. B) Chromosomes align at the equator of the cell during metaphase II but not during metaphase I. C) The meiotic spindle is needed during metaphase I but not during metaphase II. D) Homologous pairs of chromosomes are aligned during metaphase I, but individual chromosomes are aligned during metaphase II.

D) Homologous pairs of chromosomes are aligned during metaphase II, but individual chromosomes are aligned during metaphase IIII.

A compound that prevents the separation of the homologous chromosomes in anaphase I is being studied. Which of the following questions can be best answered during this study based on Figure 5-3? A) Will the cells produced at the end of meiosis still be genetically identical to each other in the presence of this compound? B) Will the long-term development of the individual be affected by this meiotic error? C) When do the centrosomes start to move apart during meiosis I as compared to meiosis II? D) Is there a pattern to the movement of homologous chromosomes in the presence of this compound?

D) Is there a pattern to the movement of homologous chromosomes in the presence of this compound?

Using a significance level of p=0.05, which of the following statements best completes a chi-square goodness-of-fit test for a model of independent assortment based on Table 5-3? A) The calculated chi-square value is 0.66, and the critical value is 0.05. The null hypothesis can be rejected. B) The calculated chi-square value is 0.66, and the critical value is 3.84. The null hypothesis cannot be rejected. C) The calculated chi-square value is 3.91, and the critical value is 5.99. The null hypothesis can be rejected. D) The calculated chi-square value is 3.91, and the critical value is 7.82. The null hypothesis cannot be rejected.

D) The calculated chi-square value is 3.91, and the critical value is 7.82. The null hypothesis cannot be rejected.

The researchers calculated a chi-square value of 29.25. If there are three degrees of freedom and the significance level is p=0.05, which of the following statements best completes the chi-square test based on Table 5-6? A) The critical value is 0.05, and the null hypothesis cannot be rejected because the calculated chi-square value is greater than the critical value. B) The critical value is 0.05, and the null hypothesis can be rejected because the calculated chi-square value is greater than the critical value. C) The critical value is 7.82, and the null hypothesis cannot be rejected because the calculated chi-square value is greater than the critical value. D) The critical value is 7.82, and the null hypothesis can be rejected because the calculated chi-square value is greater than the critical value.

D) The critical value is 7.82, and the null hypothesis can be rejected because the calculated chi-square value is greater than the critical value.

Which of the following questions would be most useful to researchers trying to determine the role of meiosis in the F2 phenotypic frequencies based on Figure 5-1 and Table 5-1? A) What is the molecular mechanism underlying the dominance of erect petals and long pollen? B) Which phenotypes give pea plants the highest level of fitness: erect or hooded petals and long or round pollen? C) How do the phases of meiosis differ between sweet pea plants and other organisms? D) What is the recombination frequency between the genes for petal shape and pollen shape?

D) What is the recombination frequency between the genes for petal shape and pollen shape?

Genetic engineering techniques can be used when analyzing and manipulating DNA and RNA. Scientists used gel electrophoresis to study transcription of gene L and discovered that mRNA strands of three different lengths are consistently produced. Which of the following explanations best accounts for this experimental result?

D. Pre-mRNA of gene L is subject to alternative splicing, so three mRNA sequences are possible.

Figure 1. Effect of environmental temperature on body temperature of selected animals Which of the following statements is most consistent with the data in Figure 1 ?

D. Snakes display behaviors that allow them to absorb or radiate heat as required.

Which of the following correctly identifies the dependent variable and the independent variable for the experiment? Table 1. Response of ground squirrels to recorded vocalizations

D. The independent variable is the type of alarm, and the dependent variable is the percent of squirrels responding.

Response in Endo vs Nerv

Endo- 1 location or many Nerv- nerve impulses

Alternative gene splicing

Different RNA molecules are produced from the same primary transcript

RFLP (restriction fragment length polymorphisms)

Different in each individual (except identical twins), unique to each person and are used to determine paternity or rape and murder cases

Signal ENdo vs Nervous

Endo- molecules (hormones) Nervous- nerve impulses

Some researchers claim that the decrease in plant species richness of this woodlot is unrelated to human activities over the last forty years. Which of the following would be an appropriate alternative hypothesis?

During the last few decades, tall buildings have been built around the woodlot, and species 3, 4, and 5 are shade‑intolerant plants

10. Which of the following correctly describes a possible phenotype of an organism? a. XX b. AaBbCC c. Alive d. Dead e. Orange

E

23. Why are Drosophila (fruit flies) used as model organisms in the study of genetics? a. They are cheap b. They can experience approximately 75% of diseases that humans experience c. They have a short reproduction cycle d. They have a high reproduction rate e. All of the above

E

24. When does an aneuploidy occur? a. Incorrect number of alleles b. Incorrect number of sex cells (gametes) c. Incorrect number of somatic (body) cells d. Incorrect number of nucleotides e. Incorrect number of chromosomes

E

25. Which of the following is *not* a polygene? a. Eye color b. Skin color c. Weight d. Height e. None of the above

E

As a teenager, Amy often changed her wardrobe, her hair color, and the decorations in her bedroom. These actions are most strongly connected with Erik Erikson's theory of (A) moral development (B) sexual development (C) social development (D) cognitive development (E) identity development

E

Endothermy vs. Ectothermy-

Endothermy- warmed by metabolically generated heat, (humans, birds, insects)..warm blooded Ectothermy- heat from external sources (reptiles, fishes)

Mendel found that the generation between the P and F2 generation is fundamental to genetic theory. What is the generation between the P and F2 generations called? A. P2 B. F1 C. F0 D. P3

F1

Central Dogma of biology

From DNA to RNA to RNA directing assembly of proteins

Concerns about genetically modified foods include all of the following except A. GM foods are not labeled differently than non-GM foods. B. GM plants may threaten beneficial insects. C. GM plants cause overuse of weed killer. D. GM foods produce high yields.

GM foods produce high yields.

Which of the following best predicts why humans and mice have identical telomeric repeat sequences?

Humans and mice share a recent common ancestor that had the 5′-TTAGGG-3′′ repeat sequence in its telomeres.

why organisms found in India differ from those in Indonesia

India was a separate continent due to tectonic plates

rRNA

Involved in translation, makes up ribosome

Euchromatin

Is a lightly packed form of chromatin that is enriched in genes, and is often under active transcription

Which of the following shows a complete diploid set of chromosomes grouped together in pairs, arranged in order of decreasing size? A. Sex chromosome B. Genome C. Gene map D. Karyotype

Karyotype

Connective Tissue Loose and Dense-

Loose- binds cells to epithelia to underlying tissue ex: skin or adipose--fat, insulates Dense- fibrous, dense arrangement of parallel collagenous fibers (tendons and ligaments)

Deletion

Loss of one letter to DNA sequence

Which of the following statements is true regarding the molecule illustrated in Figure 5.3?

Molecules of this type are usually liquid at room temperature.

5 Kingdoms and why it changed...

Monera (prokaryotes), protista(unicell orgs), plantae, fungi and animalia *highlighted two types of cells *separated euks and pros BUT... some prokaryotes differas much from each other as from eukaryotes SO 3 DOMAINS

Mollusk fossils were excavated and collected from a coastal cliff. Scientists studying the fossils observed patterns of changing shell shape in the mollusks. The scientists identified a period of stability or stasis, followed by rapid change, and then stasis again with regard to shell shape. Which of the following statements best predicts the result of a comparison between the fossils found before and after the period of rapid change?

Most of the species found in the first static period will be absent in the second static period.

Silent mutation

Mutations in DNA that do not significantly alter the phenotype of the organism in which they occur

Prokaryote gene expression

Need to respond quickly to changes in environment, metabolism- turns genes on and off quickly, control strategies geared to adjust to environmental changes

Exons

Needed, coding sequence

Which is not true??

Only bacteria have histones associated with DNA

1) denaturation 2) Annealing of primers 3) Synthesis

PCR steps

Three living species X Y Z share a common ancestor T, as do extinct species U and V. A grouping that includes species T, X,Y, and Z makes up a...

Paraphyletic group

What term identifies the chart that can be used to analyze the pattern of inheritance followed by a particular trait? A. Autosome B. Karyotype C. Pedigree D. Codominance

Pedigree

Environmental conditions can affect gene expression, changing an organism's A. phenotype. B. genotype. C. fertilization. D. alleles.

Phenotype

Natural selection selects for or against

Phenotypes

Which of the following best explains how the pattern of DNA arrangement in chromosomes could be used, in most cases, to determine if an organism was a prokaryote or a eukaryote?

Prokaryotic DNA - Single circular chromosome Eukaryotic DNA - Multiple linear chromosomes

Histone acetylation

Promotes loosening of that chromatin structure and permits transcription

Poly-A tail polypeptide, attached to 3'

Protects mRNA from exonucleases

Elongation of transcription

RNA polymerase adds nucleotides to the 3' end of a growing chain

Scientists sometimes use radiation and chemicals when engaging in selective breeding, a form of biotechnology. What purpose does the use of radiation serve? A. Radiation induces hybridization. B. Radiation induces inbreeding. C. Radiation induces mutations. D. Radiation induces polyploidy.

Radiation induces mutations.

Which of the following is not a step in the process scientists use to copy a gene? A. DNA polymerase starts copying the region between the primers. B. As the DNA cools, primers bind to the strands. C. Scientists cool DNA, which fuses its two strands. D. The copies made by DNA polymerase can serve as templates to make more copies.

Scientists cool DNA, which fuses its two strands.

Which of the following statements provides the best explanation of the processes illustrated in Figure 1 ?

Sections of the pre-rRNA are removed, and the mature rRNA molecules are available to combine with proteins to form the ribosomal subunits.

.What term defines the event when the alleles for each gene separate from each other so that each gamete carries only one allele for each gene? A. Characterization B. Segregation C. Genetics D. Principle of dominance

Segregation

Based on the information provided in Figure 1 and Figure 2, which of the following best predicts the effects of a mutation in the promoter of the TYR gene that prevents it from being transcribed?

Skin pigmentation will not be able to change, resulting in a negative selection pressure.

Plasmid

Small, circular extrachromosomal DNAs that are dispensable to bacteria cell

A horse horse has 2N=64 and a donkey has 2N=62. the hybrid of these two species, mules have 63 chromosomes and are sterile. why are mules sterile?

Some chromosomes lack homologs and cannot undergo meiosis

In a particular region, a species of lizard lives in the lowlands. Even though there are numerous mountains in the region, the climate on the mountains is too cold for the lizards to survive. Scientists are concerned that the lowlands will become much warmer by the end of the twenty-first century and will become unsuitable for this lowland lizard species. Which of the following best predicts the impact on the lizard species if there is a gradual increase in the average temperatures found in both the lowlands and mountains in this region?

Some lizards will migrate to new habitats in the mountains and become isolated, leading to allopatric speciation.

Given the results shown in Figure 1, which of the following correctly describes a relationship between the two species?

Species B has more short fragments of DNA than species A does

Based on the data in Table 1, which of the following best describes the relationship between the MC1R gene and coat color in the Carrizozo, New Mexico, rock pocket mouse population?

The MC1RD allele is not responsible for dark coat color in the Carrizozo population, so the dark coat color is likely a result of convergent evolution.

Mendel's theory of segregation was highly supported by examining all of the following pea plant generations except A. the P generation B. the F1 generation C. the F2 generation D. the P2 generation

The P2 generation

The island was surveyed again in 2015, and scientists determined that the giant kangaroo rats originally in population A are now to be considered as a new species. Which of the following best explains the mechanism that caused this speciation event in the giant kangaroo rats of population A?

The animals in population A were reproductively isolated from those in populations B, C, and D.

A cell needs to metabolize the substrate illustrated in Figure 1 for a vital cellular function. Which of the following best explains the long-term effect on the cell of splicing that yields only enzyme C mRNA?

The cell will die because it is unable to metabolize the substrate without enzyme A, which is structurally specific for the substrate shown

Transcription

The info in DNA sequence is copied into complementary RNA sequence

The researchers determined that the East lava flow population is not in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. Which of the following best explains why the population is not in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

The presence of MC1Rd alleles in the East lava flow population is an indication of gene flow from mice populations living on light granite rocks.

One of the main points of those who oppose GM foods is A. insect-resistant GM plants require less insecticide, reducing chemicals that enter food products. B. the cost of agriculture decreases with an increased use of GM crops. C. there have not been any long-term studies done about possible health hazards of GM foods. D. the overall crop yield increases when GM foods are grown.

There have not been any long-term studies done about possible health hazards of GM foods

Most commercial pesticides are effective for only 2-3 years. this is because

Those pests with advantageous mutations will survive and reproduce

All of the following are goals of genetic modification except A. to produce more nutritious foods. B. to produce smaller food products. C. to create less expensive foods. D. to create less harmful manufacturing processes.

To produce smaller food products

Transformation

Transfer of genetic material from one cell to another, can alter genetic make up of cell. Provides a mechanism for recombinant DNA in bacteria

What can be produced when recombinant DNA is inserted into the genome of a host organism? A. Allele B. Transgenic organism C. Inbred organism D. Plasmid

Transgenic Organism

The human appendix which has no known function today is an example of a(n)

Vestigial structure

Missense mutation

When point/frameshift mutations change a codon within a gene into a stop codon

Which of the following would most likely represent the types of individuals found in one of the species resulting from shape becoming a prezygotic isolating mechanism in the initial population represented in Figure 1 ?

White Circle Gray Circle Black Circle

What sex chromosome pair is present in human males? A. YY B. XY C. YZ D. XX

XY

What chromosome would not carry genes that are absolutely necessary for survival? A. Y chromosome B. X chromosome C. Autosome D. Genome

Y chromosome

How do antibodies work?

Y shaped protein each with a slightly different pocket on tip, when matches a birus, they bump into each other and leads to destruction

The oxygen consumed during cellular respiration is involved directly in which process or event?

accepting electrons at the end of the electron transport chain

Where do the catabolic products of fatty acid breakdown enter into the citric acid cycle?

acetyl CoA

Which of the following intermediary metabolites enters the citric acid cycle and is formed, in part, by the removal of a carbon (CO2) from one molecule of pyruvate?

acetyl CoA

when 2nd meiotic division occurs in oogenesis

after fertilization occurs in the adult

Why is comparing DNA in orgs challenging?

after sequencing, must allign if species are very closely related, differ at one or fewer sites not closely related, diff bases at many sites and diff lengths a certain non coding DNA seq near spec gene are very sim in two species but base in one has been deleted....frameshift. technology to estimate better alignment

mutations

all of these

Changing a single amino acid in a protein consisting of 325 amino acids would

always alter the primary structure of the protein, sometimes alter the tertiary structure of the protein, and sometimes affect its biological activity.

One of the primary functions of RNA molecules is to

function in the synthesis of proteins.

Muscle Tissues-

body movement and contraction skeletal- (striated, striped)..voluntary movement, mult nucleii (bending finger) smooth- not striated, involuntary movement (peristalsis) cardiac (striated) interrelated disks, interconnect all cells, rhythmic movemtn (contractile wall of heart)

Negative Feedback-

body temp

Human metabolic activities- daily cycles:

body temp, cyclic rise and fall of 6 celsius every 24 hours...jet lag affects

hydra exchange materials-

body wall= two layers thick, outside and inside layers are constantly in contact with the environment

Molecules with which functional groups may form polymers via dehydration reactions?

either hydroxyl or carboxyl groups

Radiation-

emission of EM waves by all objects warmer thatn absolute 0. Absorb sun and radiates E to air.

Transmission Endo vs. Ner

endo- cells with receptors nerv- axons

Speed and Duration in Endo vs. Nervous

endo- seconds nerv- fraction of sec

In chemiosmosis, what is the most direct source of energy that is used to convert ADP + mc030-1.jpgi to ATP?

energy released from movement of protons through ATP synthase, down their electrochemical gradient

Whenever energy is transformed, there is always an increase in the

entropy of the universe.

plasmids in euks vs pros-

euks mito and chloro pros- addit DNA replication

membranes euks vs pros

euks- cells walls are chitin and cellulose pros- peptidoglycan capsule of polysacch and pro

Why CA heterotroph-

every org uses glycolysis, process use din heterotrophic orgs to catabolize food almost all euks have mitochondria, but only som ehave chloro....shows mito came first

Insulation-

fat, fur....goosebumps are from when we had hair, insulated "air" layer

disruptive selection

favors variants at both ends of distribution

The mechanism in which the end product of a metabolic pathway inhibits an earlier step in the pathway is most precisely described as

feedback inhibition.

Why are Archaea equally related to Bacteria and Eukarya?

first major split was when bacteria diverged...if true, arch and euk are more closely related recent findings say that euks share more recent CA with bacteria

tape worm exchange materials-

flat shape, reach several meters, most cells- direct contact with environment

During aerobic respiration, electrons travel downhill in which sequence?

food ® NADH ® electron transport chain ® oxygen

allopatric speciation

formation of new species in population that are geographically isolated from one another

sympatric speciation

formation of new species in populations that live in same geographic area (ex. from temporal isolation)

Epithetlial tissue function and location-

function- cover body and line organs, serves as barrier ag pathogens and fluid loss locations- nasal passage, kidneys, glands, intestines, skin, respt tract, anus, mouth, vagina ex: squamous, flat short thin, leaky, exchange by diffusion (lin of blood vessels or air sacs in lungs) cuboidal- dice shaped, secretion, (glands, kidney tubules) columnar- tall large, secretion and absorption, (linings of intestines)

why would genes in different species have a high degree of homology

genes code for protein with specific function and the gene can be highly conserved

what allows gene to act as molecular clock

genes must have a reliable average rate of mutation

what is founder effect & example

genetic drift that occurs when few individuals become isolated from larger population and form new population whose gene pool composition is not reflective of that of the original population // ex. Galapagos finches

Which of the following is not a polymer?

glucose

The enzyme amylase can break glycosidic linkages between glucose monomers only if the monomers are in the α form. Which of the following could amylase break down?

glycogen, starch, and amylopectin

Which process in eukaryotic cells will proceed normally whether oxygen (O2) is present or absent?

glycolysis

Which catabolic processes may have been used by cells on ancient Earth before free oxygen became available?

glycolysis and fermentation only

INtegumentary system-

hair, skin, nials

counter current heat exchange

heat is exchanged between blood vessels carrying blood in opposite directions

homeostasis

maintenance of a steady state, such as a constant temperature, by means of physiological or behavioral feedback responses

The great dane and the chhihuahua are both domestic dogs (the same species), but mating between them is limited by

mechanical incompatibility

molecular clock

method for estimating time required for a given amount of evolutionary change

Transformation-

method of horizontal gene transfer, bacteria takes in plasmids from environment

basal metabolic rate-

minimum metabolic rate of endotherms

Where are the proteins of the electron transport chain located?

mitochondrial inner membrane

Energy released by the electron transport chain is used to pump H+ into which location in eukaryotic cells?

mitochondrial intermembrane space

effect of locations and types of mutations on proteins // frameshift mutation (insertion & deletion)

most harmful mutation

where MHC class I proteins are found

on the surface of most cells in the mammalian body

end result of oogenesis

one ovum (haploid)

Why do antibiotics only affect bacteria cells and not euks?

peptidoglycan makes drugs able to penetrate cell walls prokary ribo are much smaller, and differ in pro and RNA...bind to ribosome and block protein synthesis

adaptive radiation

period of evolutionary change in which groups of organisms form many new species whose adaptations allow them to fill different ecological roles in their communities

The physical characteristics of an organism are called its ____________, whereas the genetic characteristics of an organism are called its ____________. A. genotype; phenotype B. phenotype; genotype C. heredity; genotype D. alleles; phenotype

phenotype; genotype

first terrestrial organisms

photosynthetic prokaryotes

types of evidence used to make phylogenetic trees

physical similarities // shared DNA & genes

In alcohol fermentation, NAD+ is regenerated from NADH by

reduction of acetaldehyde to ethanol (ethyl alcohol).

melatonin

regulates daily rhythms and is produced by the pineal gland

Regulators vs. Conformers-

regulator- internal mechanism is used to control internal change conformer- intern conditions changes with environment

Evaporation-

removal of heat from surfac...liquid lost as gas molecules, cooling

stabilizing selection

removes extreme variants from population & preserves intermediate types

Neuroendocrine PAthway-

sensory neurons respond to stimulus, send impules to nero secreting cells...secretion of neurohormone and binds to receptor es: oxytocin: regulation of milk in nursing, suckling infant stim sensory neuron in nipple, generates signal in nervous system sent to hypothalamus.....triggers realease of oxytocin, milk secretion

pituitary gland

serves as an interface between the nervous and endocrine systems

female Bobolinks tend to choose males who sing a familiar song. this is an example of

sexual selection

directional selection

shifts overall makeup of population by favoring variants that are at one extreme of the distribution

Thermogenesis

shivering

The principle of maximum parsimony-

simplest explanations, consistent with the facts measured by origin of shared derived morph char fewest base changes

Non-specific external barriers-

skin- first line defense, pathogens out, oily, acidic mucuos membrane- line all internal surfaces, viscous fluid, sweeps pathogens away low pH in stomach- hostile, outside body, selected for, pH is 2

epitopes (antigenic determinants)

small portions of non-self substances

relationship with BMR and Body Mass-

smaller the animal, higher the metabolic rate...due to SA:volume ratio. each gram of mouse requires 20X calories as gram of elephant

homologous structures

structures in different species that are similar because of common ancestry (ex. whale flipper & bat wing)

What is taxonomy?

study of classification that attempts to reflect relatedness names and groupings are continuously revised with new data

How is it determined where a shared char first evolved?

suitable outgroup can be deter based on evidence, morphology, paleantology.. compare members of ingroup with each other ex: backbones in vertegrates

What is phylogeny?

the evolutionary history of a species or group of species used to organize biodiversity sorted based on data: fossils, genes, biological molecules

advantage of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction

the generation of genetic diversity

which of the following possibilities can be measured to estimate an organisms evolutionary fitness

the number of offspring it produces over its lifetime that survive to breed

In mitochondria, chemiosmosis (via proton pumps) translocates protons from the matrix into the intermembrane space, whereas in chloroplasts, chemiosmosis translocates protons from

the stroma to the thylakoid space.

Assume a thylakoid is somehow punctured so that the interior of the thylakoid is no longer separated from the stroma. This damage will have the most direct effect on which of the following processes?

the synthesis of ATP

brown fat

uncouples oxidative phosphorylation from ATP production, releasing heat for non-shivering thermogenesis

The tertiary structure of a protein is the

unique three-dimensional shape of the fully folded polypeptide.

types of evidence that all living things have a common ancestor

universal genetic code // homologous structures // vestigial structures

Why DNA in CA

universal language, all orgs use

Convergent evolution occurs when

unrelated organisms develop analogous structures.

The molecule shown in Figure 5.3 is a(n)

unsaturated fatty acid.

factors that allow adaptive radiation

vacant niches // adaptive radiation or other organisms used for food // some sort of evolutionary innovation // population of area with few competitors

correct order of structure from when sperm pass to when egg fertilizes

vagina, cervix, uterus, oviduct

what must be present for natural selection to act on population

variation of individuals in population

In animal metabolism, most of the monomers released by digestion of food macromolecules are metabolized to provide energy. Only a small portion of these monomers are used for synthesis of new macromolecules. The net result is that

water is consumed by animal metabolism.

51) Cells require which of the following to form cilia or flagella? A) tubulin B) laminin C) actin D) intermediate filaments

A

Point mutation

Base-pair substitution

58) In plant cells, the middle lamella _____. A) allows adjacent cells to adhere to one another B) prevents dehydration of adjacent cells C) maintains the plant's circulatory system D) allows for gas and nutrient exchange among adjacent cells

A

59) Where would you expect to find tight junctions? A) in the epithelium of an animal's stomach B) between the smooth endoplasmic reticulum and the rough endoplasmic reticulum C) between plant cells in a woody plant D) in the plasma membrane of prokaryotes

A

Eukaryotes transcribe RNA from DNA that contains introns and exons. Alternative splicing is one posttranscriptional modification that can create distinct mature mRNA molecules that lead to the production of different proteins from the same gene. Figure 1 shows a gene and the RNA produced after transcription and after alternative splicing. Figure 1. Model of posttranscriptional alternate splicing of mRNA A cell needs to metabolize the substrate illustrated in Figure 1 for a vital cellular function. Which of the following best explains the long-term effect on the cell of splicing that yields only enzyme C mRNA?

(A) The cell will die because it is unable to metabolize the substrate without enzyme AA, which is structurally specific for the substrate shown.

(melanin synthesis pt 3) Which of the following pieces of evidence would best support the researchers' claim above?

(A) When researchers applied a drug that activates adenylyl cyclase to the mutant mice's ears, the level of melanin increased.

Huntington's disease, an autosomal dominant disorder, is caused by a mutation in the HTT gene. The HTT gene contains multiple repeats of the nucleotide sequence CAG. A person with fewer than 35 CAG repeats in the HTT gene is unlikely to show the neurological symptoms of Huntington's disease. A person with 40 or more CAG repeats almost always becomes symptomatic. Due to errors in meiosis, an individual without symptoms of Huntington's disease can produce gametes with a larger number of CAG repeats than there are in their somatic cells. A woman develops Huntington's disease. Her father had the disorder. Her mother did not, and there is no history of the disorder in the mother's family. Which of the following best explains how the woman inherited Huntington's disease?

(B) She inherited an allele with more than 40 CAG repeats in the HTT gene from her father.

Figure 1 represents a portion of a process that occurs during protein synthesis. Figure 1. Model of selected features of DNA transcription Which claim is most consistent with the information provided by the diagram and current scientific understanding of gene regulation and expression?

(B) Some sequences of DNA can interact with regulatory proteins that control transcription.

(melanin synthesis pt 1) In mammals, the dark color of skin, hair, and eyes is due to a pigment called melanin. Melanin is produced by specialized skin cells called melanocytes. The melanin is then transferred to other skin cells called keratinocytes. Melanocytes synthesize melanin in a multistep metabolic pathway (Figure 1). The amount of melanin produced is dependent on the amount of the enzymes TYR, TRP2, and TRP1 present inside melanocytes. Figure 1. Melanin synthesis pathway The peptide hormone α-melanocyte stimulating hormone (α-MSH) activates a signal transduction pathway leading to the activation of MITF. MITF is a transcription factor that increases the expression of the TYR, TRP2, and TRP1 genes (Figure 2). Figure 2. Activation of melanin synthesis genes in melanocytes Some mammals increase melanin production in response to ultraviolet (UV) radiation. The UV radiation causes damage to DNA in keratinocytes, which activates the p53 protein. p53 increases the expression of the POMC gene. The POMC protein is then cleaved to produce α-MSH. The keratinocytes secrete α-MSH, which signals nearby melanocytes. The increased melanin absorbs UV radiation, reducing further DNA damage Figure 3. Production of α-MSH in keratinocytes in response to UV radiation Which of the following claims about the TYR, TRP2, and TRP1 mammalian genes is most likely to be accurate?

(B) the TYR, TRP2, and TRP1 genes may be located on different chromosomes but are activated by the same transcription factor.

Lynch syndrome is an inherited condition associated with an increased risk for colon cancer, as well as certain other cancers. Mutations in one of several genes involved in DNA repair during DNA replication have been associated with Lynch syndrome. DNA sequencing was performed for an individual. The results indicated that the individual carries one of the dominant alleles that has been associated with Lynch syndrome. Which of the following best explains how the results should be interpreted?

(B) the individual has an increased risk of developing colon cancer.

Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a progressive genetic disease that causes persistent lung infections and affects the ability to breathe. CF is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner, caused by the presence of mutations in both copies of the gene for the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) protein. Partial nucleotide sequences and the corresponding amino acid sequences for an unaffected individual and an affected individual are modeled in Figure 1. Figure 1. CFTR protein sequences in unaffected and affected individuals Based on the information in Figure 1, which type of mutation explains the nature of the change in DNA that resulted in cystic fibrosis in the affected individual?

(C) Deletion, because a thymine is missing, which changes the reading frame

Scientists conducted a transformation experiment using E. coli bacteria and the pTru plasmid. Samples of the pTru plasmid (lane A) and the chromosomal DNA from two different E. coli strains that the scientists attempted to transform (lane B and lane C) were compared using gel electrophoresis. The results are shown in Figure 1. Figure 1. Results of E. coli transformation with pTru plasmid Which of the following statements best explains the experimental results observed in Figure 1 ?

(C) E. coli in lane C have been successfully transformed and contain additional genetic information.

Nucleotide base pairing in DNA is universal across organisms. Each pair (T−A; C−G) consists of a purine and a pyrimidine. Which of the following best explains how the base pairs form?

(C) Hydrogen bonds join a double-ringed structure to a single-ringed structure in each pair.

Figure 1 depicts a simplified model of a replication bubble. Figure 1. DNA replication bubble. Which of the following best explains how this model illustrates DNA replication of both strands as a replication fork moves?

(C) I is synthesized continuously in the 5′ to 3′ direction, and III is synthesized in segments in the 5' to 3′ direction

(melanin synthesis pt 2) Which of the following claims best explains why keratinocytes do not produce melanin?

(C) Keratinocytes do not express the MITF gene.

All cells must transcribe rRNA in order to construct a functioning ribosome. Scientists have isolated and identified rRNA genes that contribute to ribosomal structure for both prokaryotes and eukaryotes. Figure 1 compares the transcription and processing of prokaryotic and eukaryotic rRNA. Figure 1. Comparison of rRNA processing in prokaryotes and eukaryotes Which of the following statements provides the best explanation of the processes illustrated in Figure 1 ?

(C) Sections of the pre-rRNA are removed, and the mature rRNA molecules are available to combine with proteins to form the ribosomal subunits.

An evolutionary biologist hypothesizes that two morphologically similar plant species are not closely related. To test the hypothesis, the biologist collects DNA samples from each of the two plant species and then uses restriction enzymes to cut the DNA samples into fragments, which are then subjected to gel electrophoresis. The results are shown in Figure 1. Figure 1. DNA analysis of two species Given the results shown in Figure 1, which of the following correctly describes a relationship between the two species?

(C) Species B has more short fragments of DNA than species A does.

Retroviruses such as HIV and hepatitis B virus use RNA as their genetic material rather than DNA. In addition, they contain molecules of reverse transcriptase, an enzyme that uses an RNA template to synthesize complementary DNA. Which of the following best predicts what will happen when a normal cell is exposed to a retrovirus?

(C) The reverse transcriptase will produce DNA from the viral RNA, which can be incorporated into the host's genome and then transcribed and translated.

Which of the following best explains how the pattern of DNA arrangement in chromosomes could be used, in most cases, to determine if an organism was a prokaryote or a eukaryote?

(D) Prokaryotic DNA: singular circular chromosome Eukaryotic DNA: multiple linear chromosomes

Cycloheximide (CHX) is a eukaryote protein synthesis inhibitor. It is used in biomedical research to inhibit protein synthesis in eukaryotic cells studied in vitro. Its effects are rapidly reversed by simply removing it from the culture medium. In a translation experiment using a fungus culture, radiolabeled amino acids were added to the culture, allowing the researchers to measure the growth of a single polypeptide chain by measuring counts per minute (CPM). As the chain grew, the CPM increased. After a certain amount of time, CHX was added to the mixture, and the experiment continued. After an additional amount of time, the CHX was removed from the culture medium. Which of the following graphs best predicts the data collected during the experiment?

(D) (graph CPM x Time) increase=> Inhibitor added=> constant=> inhibitor removed=> decrease

(melanin synthesis pt 5) Which of the following best explains a process occurring between point 1 and point 2 in Figure 3 ?

(D) A poly‑A tail is added to RNA.

Labeled nucleotides were supplied to a cell culture before the cells began DNA replication. A simplified representation of the process for a short segment of DNA is shown in Figure 1. Labeled DNA bases are indicated with an asterisk (*). Figure 1. A simplified representation of the DNA replication process Which of the following best helps explain how the process represented in Figure 1 produces DNA molecules that are hybrids of the original and the newly synthesized strands?

(D) Each newly synthesized strand remains associated with its template strand to form two copies of the original DNA molecule.

A simplified model of a DNA replication fork is represented in Figure 1. The protein labeled Enzyme 1 carries out a specific role in the DNA replication process. Figure 1. A simplified model of a DNA replication fork Which of the following statements best explains the role of Enzyme 1 in the DNA replication process?

(D) Enzyme 1 is a topoisomerase that relieves tension in the overwound DNA in front of a replication fork.

(melanin synthesis pt 4) Based on the information provided in Figure 1 and Figure 2, which of the following best predicts the effects of a mutation in the promoter of the TYR gene that prevents it from being transcribed?

(D) Skin pigmentation will not be able to change, resulting in a negative selection pressure.

(melanin synthesis pt 6) Which of the following best predicts the phenotype of an individual who is homozygous for this TYR mutation?

(D) The mutation will change all subsequent amino acids in the TYRTYR protein, leading to nonfunctional TYRTYR protein. Individuals with this mutation will lack melanin in their hair, skin, and eyes and will not tan in response to UVUV radiation.

Exposure to ultraviolet (UV) radiation is the leading cause of skin cancer in humans. Figure 1 shows a model of how UV exposure damages DNA. Figure 1. Model of damage to DNA caused by UV exposure Which of the following statements best explains what is shown in Figure 1 ?

(D) UV photons cause dimers to form, leading to misshapen DNA, which results in replication and transcription errors.

Small single-stranded RNA molecules called microRNAs (miRNAs) are capable of base pairing with specific binding sites in the 3′ untranslated region of many mRNA transcripts. Transcription of gene Q yields an mRNA transcript that contains such an miRNA binding site, which can associate with miRNA‑delta, a specific miRNA molecule. Which of the following best supports the claim that binding of miRNA‑delta to the miRNA binding site inhibits translation of gene Q mRNA?

(D) When the miRNA binding site sequence is altered, translation of Q mRNA occurs in the presence of miRNA-delta.

The trp operon in E. coli is an example of a repressible operon that consists of genes coding for enzymes used to synthesize tryptophan. When tryptophan levels are high, the operon is turned off and these genes are not transcribed. However, it is also known that tryptophan does not bind directly to the operator DNA sequence. A regulatory gene called trpR has also been discovered although it is not part of the trp operon. The proposed model of how tryptophan acts as a corepressor is shown in Figure 1. Figure 1. Model of proposed regulation of the trp operon by corepressors trp repressor and tryptophan Which of the following evidence best supports a claim that tryptophan functions as a corepressor?

(D) When trpR is mutated, the trp operon is transcribed regardless of tryptophan levels.

levels of taxa

(from less specific to more specific) domains => kingdom => phylum => class => order => family => genus => species

Lipid Soluble Pathway-

(hormone receptors in cytosol prior) 1. steroid hormone binds to cytosolic receptor 2. hormone receptor complex forms and moves into the nucleus 3. receptor portion alters transcription of certain genes ex: estrogen (estradiol) in liver, birds transports to produce yolk

In addition to the ABO blood groups, humans have an MN blood type system in which the M and N alleles are co-dominant to one another. A group of scientists found that in one population the frequency of the M allele was 0.82, and the frequency of the N allele was 0.18. Assuming that the population is in Hardy‑Weinberg equilibrium, which of the following is the expected frequency of individuals with the genotype MN?

0.295

Water Soluble PAthway-

1. binding of molecule to recpetor...response (enzyme is activated ) 2. chnages from extracellular to intra cell...signal transduction ex: fight or flight 1. kidneys secrete epinephrin 2. epin binds to G pro 3. cascade of events, cAMP synthesis 4. act of protein kinase A leads to activ of enzyme for glycogen breakdown...release glucose

How many different kinds of polypeptides, each composed of 12 amino acids, could be synthesized using the 20 common amino acids?

2012

12. Which of the following correctly describes a possible sex genotype of an organism? a. XX b. AaBbCC c. Alive d. Dead e. Orange

A

13. Crossing an organism with the genotype Aa with an organism with the same genotype (Aa) yields what ratio of genotypes? a. 1:2:1 b. 3:1 c. 1:1 d. 1 e. 0

A

16) What is the function of the nuclear pore complex found in eukaryotes? A) It regulates the movement of proteins and RNAs into and out of the nucleus. B) It synthesizes the proteins required to copy DNA and make mRNA. C) It selectively transports molecules out of the nucleus, but prevents all inbound molecules from entering the nucleus. D) It assembles ribosomes from raw materials that are synthesized in the nucleus.

A

17. A plant with straight spikes is crossed with a plant with curly spikes. Their offspring have both straight and curly spikes. What is this an example of? a. Codominance b. Incomplete Dominance c. Corecessive d. Incomplete Recessive e. None of the above

A

19. The fact that only one of two genes from each parent is distributed to each gamete (randomly) is known as what? a. Law of Segregation b. Law of Independent Assortment c. Crossing over d. Polar bodies e. Zygote

A

22. A homozygous type A mother crosses with a type O father. What is the likelihood that their offspring will be type O? a. 0% b. 25% c. 50% d. 75% e. 100%

A

27) Which structure is the site of the synthesis of proteins that may be exported from the cell? A) rough ER B) plasmodesmata C) Golgi vesicles D) free cytoplasmic ribosomes

A

3. What stage of meiosis does crossing over occur? a. Prophase I b. Metaphase I c. Anaphase I d. Telophase I e. Cytokinesis I

A

35) Thylakoids, DNA, and ribosomes are all components found in _____. A) chloroplasts B) mitochondria C) lysosomes D) nuclei

A

38) The evolution of eukaryotic cells most likely involved _____. A) endosymbiosis of an aerobic bacterium in a larger host cell—the endosymbiont evolved into mitochondria B) anaerobic archaea taking up residence inside a larger bacterial host cell to escape toxic oxygen—the anaerobic bacterium evolved into chloroplasts C) an endosymbiotic fungal cell evolving into the nucleus D) acquisition of an endomembrane system and subsequent evolution of mitochondria from a portion of the Golgi

A

41) Cyanide binds with at least one molecule involved in producing ATP. If a cell is exposed to cyanide, most of the cyanide will be found within the _____. A) mitochondria B) peroxisomes C) lysosomes D) endoplasmic reticulum

A

46) Amoebae move by crawling over a surface (cell crawling), which involves _____. A) growth of actin filaments to form bulges in the plasma membrane B) setting up microtubule extensions that vesicles can follow in the movement of cytoplasm C) reinforcing the pseudopod with intermediate filaments D) cytoplasmic streaming

A

49) Spherocytosis is a human blood disorder associated with a defective cytoskeletal protein in the red blood cells (RBCs). What do you suspect is the consequence of such a defect? A) abnormally shaped RBCs B) an insufficient supply of ATP in the RBCs C) an insufficient supply of oxygentransporting proteins in the RBCs D) adherence of RBCs to blood vessel walls, causing plaque formation

A

5) What technique would be most appropriate to use to observe the movements of condensed chromosomes during cell division? A) standard light microscopy B) scanning electron microscopy C) transmission electron microscopy

A

6. Gregor Mendel concluded what about dominant and recessive phenotypes? a. They come in 3:1 ratios b. They come in 1:1 ratios c. They come in 9:3:3:1 ratios d. They come in 3:3:1:1 ratios e. None of the above

A

9. Which of the following pairs of alleles shows a homozygous dominant pair? a. XX b. Xx c. xx d. All of the above e. None of the above

A

Which of the following scenarios best illustrates Jean Piaget's theory of cognitive development? (A) Jimmy, an infant, is learning about the world by exploring with his hands and his mouth. (B) Milen, a sixth grader, is learning a new math concept with the help of a more advanced math student. (C) Frances, a toddler, is struggling between feelings of autonomy and self-doubt. (D) Riaesha, a seventh grader, is learning because her teacher models an activity and then steps back, providing assistance as needed. (E) Matthew, a three year old, tells his mother he wants to marry her when he grows up.

A

Which scenario best illustrates what Erik Erikson would predict would happen in middle adulthood? (A) Timothy has worked at a bank for many years, where he feels rather stifled. He then decides to volunteer to read books to young children because he finds this volunteerism fulfilling. (B) Shanika works hard to accomplish new things and is very proud when she does. (C) Jorge likes to reminisce about his life. He thinks of the things he is proud of and the times he was disappointed in his experiences. (D) Anthony likes when he does things independently and feels bad when he cannot accomplish things on his own. (E) Amelia has tried many different ways of defining herself over the past few years.

A

Zebra mussels, Dreissena polymorpha, were introduced into the Great Lakes on shipping vessels, first appearing in Lake St. Clair in the 1980s. Since that time, they have rapidly expanded in range, as shown in Figure 1. Figure 1. Map showing the current range of zebra mussels in the United States Which of the following best supports the alternate hypothesis that zebra mussels display characteristics of an invasive species?

A = Lacking natural predators and able to outcompete native species of mussels and other freshwater species for food, zebra mussels have experienced exponential population growth and rapid expansion into new habitats: Because invasive species typically do not have natural predators in the habitats into which they are introduced, they can experience rapid exponential population growth. In addition, because these mussels are able to outcompete native species, zebra mussel range has expanded rapidly.

Figure 1 shows a food web that describes the relationships within a community containing nine species. Each circle represents a separate species. The size of the circle represents the population size of the species relative to other species in the same trophic level. Figure 1. Trophic relationships among organisms in a community Based on the information in Figure 1, which of the following best predicts a short-term effect of removing secondary consumer X from the community?

A = No Consumer X and a significantly larger white striped circle (for the primary consumer), with two much smaller circles under it: If secondary consumer X is removed, then the leftmost primary consumer will increase in number. Consequently, the two producer species that this primary consumer eats will decrease in number. Note that disturbance events that remove a secondary consumer species can cause large shifts in community composition when the trophic web consists of only a few strong links instead of many weak links.

Climate change can affect oceanic ecosystems and their food webs. In the East China Sea (ECS), three major climactic events were considered: the Pacific Decadal Oscillation (PDO), the East Asia winter monsoon (EAWM), and the El Niño Southern Oscillation. Figure 1 shows the relationships among these climactic events, surface sea temperature (SST), amount of phytoplankton, and copepod abundance. Copepods are important primary consumers in this ecosystem, and many species of fish depend on copepods as a food source. Solid arrows on the diagram indicate a statistically significant effect. The thicker the arrow, the greater the effect. Dashed arrows indicate statistically insignificant relationships. Figure 1. Structural equation model deciphering interactions among climate, phytoplankton, and copepods in the southern East China Sea. Solid arrows indicate significant effects, with the thickness of the arrow reflecting the relative effect. Dashed arrows indicate inconsequential effects. What do the data in Figure 1 suggest about a null hypothesis that the East China Sea ecosystem is unaffected by climactic events?

A = The null hypothesis is rejected since there are significant effects of EAWM and PDO on surface sea temperature and copepod abundance: The null hypothesis should be rejected because the data indicate that the EAWM and the PDO have significant effects on surface sea temperature as well as copepod abundance.

Bison in Yellowstone National Park have a food-limited carrying capacity that determines how their population grows. If the population grows too large, some bison will either starve or migrate to search for more food. The park is able to support a maximum population of 4,500 bison. Park conservation officials must watch the population and prevent the bison from overpopulating, since they would migrate to nearby farms, causing agricultural damage and creating hazards to drivers. The bison begin to migrate when the population reaches 4,000 because of competition for food. If the current population size of bison is 3,652 and the maximum growth rate of the population is 0.28, calculate the population size after one year and determine whether the park will need to take measures to control the population.

A = The population will be 3,845 after a year. The bison will not pose a problem until the following year, and no conservation action will need to take place: dN/dt=rmaxN((K−N)/K) should be used to determine the one-year change in population size: 0.28×3,652((4,500−3,652)/4,500)=193. Adding 193 to 3,652 projects a population of 3,845, so the population will not reach the point at which bison migration occurs. However, it will reach a level to initiate migration the following year.

Related to Question 1 Information: Identify the independent variable for the experimental results shown in Figure 2.

A = The presence of wolves: The independent variable is selected by the researchers, and the researchers test its effect on the dependent variable. In this experiment, the researchers were looking at the effect of wolves' presence on the behavior of coyotes. Therefore, the presence of wolves is the independent variable, and the behavior of coyotes is the dependent variable.

Final problem related to Question 1: Following the reintroduction of wolves to Yellowstone National Park, researchers measured the mean height of young aspen trees in upland and streamside areas. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the change in mean aspen height from 1998 to 2010 ?

A = The reintroduction of wolves led to a decrease in the population of elk, allowing aspen trees to grow taller: Top carnivores are keystone species, meaning they have a larger role in maintaining an ecosystem than would be expected by their population size. After wolves were eliminated from Yellowstone National Park, the population of elk rose dramatically. The high elk population led to the overgrazing of plant species, including aspen. With the reintroduction of wolves, the elk population has declined, allowing plant species to recover.

Researchers were studying the effects of microbes on the growth of the yellow bedstraw plant, Galium verum. They grew yellow bedstraw plants under four treatments: in the presence of soil bacteria only, arbuscular mycorrhizal (AM) fungi only, both bacteria and AM fungi, or neither. After 6 months, they measured the biomass of the plants (Figure 1). Figure 1. The Effect of Soil Microbes on the Biomass of Galium verum Which of the following best describes a statistically significant relationship indicated in Figure 1 ?

A = Yellow bedstraw plants grow significantly more in the presence of both soil bacteria and AM fungi (treatment 4) than in the presence of soil bacteria alone (treatment 2): The error bars in treatments 2 and 4 do not overlap, which means that the differences between the two data sets are statistically significant. Thus, AM fungi significantly increases yellow bedstraw growth when these plants are exposed to soil bacteria.

Owls (primary predators of rock pocket mice) are nocturnal visual predators that are able to distinguish effectively between dark and light colors in low-light conditions. Which of the following best explains the relationship between coat color and predation rate in the rock pocket mouse population on the lava flow rocks with respect to the different coat color phenotypes?

A dark coat color provides camouflage to mice on the lava flow rocks; therefore, mice with dark coats have a lower predation rate in that habitat.

A scientist wishes to provide experimental evidence to support the model shown in Figure 1 by demonstrating the ability to synthesize an RNA molecule. Which of the following is an alternative hypothesis that can be tested to support the RNA World Hypothesis?

A mixture of ribonucleotides such as adenine and uracil will spontaneously form single-stranded chains of RNA .

Which of the following best explains a process occurring between point 1 and point 2 in Figure 3 ?

A poly‑A tail is added to RNA

Codons

A sequence of three nucleotides that together form a unit of genetic code in a DNA or RNA molecule

In comparison of birds and mammals, having four appendages is...

A shared ancestral character

Based on Figure 5-3, which of the following questions could best be addressed? A) Does synapsis of homologous chromosomes in the parent cell contribute to an increase in genetic diversity in the daughter cells? B) Do sister chromatids separate and form diploid daughter cells? C) Do chromatids from nonhomologous chromosomes rearrange to produce identical daughter cells? D) Does synapsis of homologous chromosomes produce daughter cells that are identical to the parent cell?

A) Does synapsis of homologous chromosomes in the parent cell contribute to an increase in genetic diversity in the daughter cells?

Figure 1. Relative abundance of plankton over time in the eastern equatorial Pacific Ocean Which of the following observations would best support this alternative hypothesis?

A. Previous dips in plankton abundance coincided with other El Niño events.

Which of the following best explains how bacteria can be genetically engineered to produce a desired antigen?

A. The gene coding for the antigen can be inserted into plasmids that can be used to transform the bacteria.

The researcher claims that there is no selective advantage to fur color, so light and dark fur color phenotypes are present in similar frequencies in the fourth generation of this mouse population. Based on the data in Figure 1, which of the following best evaluates this null hypothesis?

A. The null hypothesis is rejected, because the change to a darker background color led to an increase in the dark-colored fur phenotype.

Misfolding of polypeptides is a serious problem in cells. Which of the following diseases are associated with an accumulation of misfolded polypeptides?

Alzheimer's and Parkinson's only

Repressible operon

An operon whose transcription is reduced in the presence of a particular substance, often the end product of a biosynthetic pathway. Tryptophan

11) Prokaryotes are classified as belonging to two different domains. What are the domains? A) Bacteria and Eukarya B) Bacteria and Archaea C) Archaea and Protista D) Bacteria and Protista

B

11. Which of the following correctly describes a possible polygenic genotype of an organism? a. XX b. AaBbCC c. Alive d. Dead e. Orange

B

13) Which of the following is present in a prokaryotic cell? A) mitochondrion B) ribosome C) chloroplast D) ER

B

14. Crossing an organism with the genotype Aa with an organism with the same genotype (Aa) yields what ratio of phenotypes? a. 1:2:1 b. 3:1 c. 1:1 d. 1 e. 0

B

18. A blue plant is crossed with a red plant. Their offspring is purple. What is this an example of? a. Codominance b. Incomplete Dominance c. Corecessive d. Incomplete Recessive e. None of the above

B

2. A human cell undergoes meiosis. How many chromosomes will each daughter cell have? a. 12 b. 23 c. 46 d. 92 e. None of the above

B

23) A cell with an extensive area of smooth endoplasmic reticulum is specialized to _____. A) play a role in storage B) synthesize large quantities of lipids C) actively export protein molecules D) import and export protein molecules

B

26) The difference in lipid and protein composition between the membranes of the endomembrane system is largely determined by the _____. A) transportation of membrane lipids among the membranes of the endomembrane system by small membrane vesicles B) function of the Golgi apparatus in sorting and directing membrane components C) modification of the membrane components once they reach their final destination D) synthesis of different lipids and proteins in each of the organelles of the endomembrane system

B

29) The liver is involved in detoxification of many poisons and drugs. Which of the following structures is primarily involved in this process and, therefore, abundant in liver cells? A) rough ER B) smooth ER C) Golgi apparatus D) nuclear envelope

B

3) In the fractionation of homogenized cells using centrifugation, the primary factor that determines whether a specific cellular component ends up in the supernatant or the pellet is the _____. A) relative solubility of the component B) size and weight of the component C) percentage of carbohydrates in the component D) presence or absence of lipids in the component

B

30. Why are mtDNA and cpDNA mutations rare? a. They are inherited through one parent - the father b. They are inherited through one parent - the mother c. They are inherited through both parents - any mutations possible are shadowed by functional genes d. They are not inherited by any of the parents - mutations can not be passed down e. None of the above

B

34) Which organelle is the primary site of ATP synthesis in eukaryotic cells? A) lysosome B) mitochondrion C) Golgi apparatus D) peroxisome

B

4. What stage of meiosis does independent assortment occur? a. Prophase I b. Metaphase I c. Anaphase I d. Telophase I e. Cytokinesis I

B

44) Which of the following contain the 9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules, consisting of nine doublets of microtubules surrounding a pair of single microtubules? A) motile cilia and primary (nonmotile) cilia B) flagella and motile cilia C) basal bodies and primary (nonmotile) cilia D) centrioles and basal bodies

B

56) Plasmodesmata in plant cells are most similar in function to which of the following structures in animal cells? A) desmosomes B) gap junctions C) extracellular matrix D) tight junctions

B

6) A newspaper ad for a local toy store indicates that an inexpensive toy microscope available for a small child is able to magnify specimens nearly as much as the more costly microscope available in your college lab. What is the primary reason for the price difference? A) The toy microscope does not have the same fine control for focus of the specimen. B) The toy microscope magnifies a good deal, but has low resolution and therefore poor quality images. C) The college microscope produces greater contrast in the specimens. D) The toy microscope usually uses a different wavelength of light source.

B

62) Both the volume and the surface area for three different cells were measured. These values are listed in the following table: Volume Surface Area Cell 1 9.3 μm3 26.5 μm2 Cell 2 12.2 μm3 37.1 μm2 Cell 3 17.6 μm3 40.6 μm2 Using data from the table above, select the best explanation for why that cell will be able to eliminate waste most efficiently? A) Cell 1 since it has the smallest volume and will not produce as much waste as the other cells. B) Cell 2 since it has the highest surface areatovolume ratio which facilitates the exchange of materials between a cell and its environment. C) Cell 3 since it has the largest surface area which will enable it to eliminate all of its wastes quickly. D) Cell 3 because it is big enough to allow wastes to easily diffuse through the plasma membrane.

B

7. Which of the following pairs of alleles shows a heterozygous pair? a. XX b. Xx c. xx d. All of the above e. None of the above

B

9) Which of the following is a major difference between prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic cells? A) Prokaryotes have cells while eukaryotes do not. B) Eukaryotic cells have more intracellular organelles than prokaryotes. C) Prokaryotes are not able to carry out aerobic respiration, relying instead on anaerobic metabolism. D) Prokaryotes are generally larger than eukaryotes.

B

Anthony is an adolescent who has a pimple on his cheek and thinks everyone is looking at it. Which of the following best explains what Anthony is experiencing? (A) the personal fable phenomenon (B) the imaginary audience phenomenon (C) moratorium (D) identity foreclosure (E) identity diffusion

B

Becky just watched a video of a child hitting a doll. According to Albert Bandura's research, Becky will now (A) get a second doll (B) hit her own doll (C) hug her doll (D) hide her doll (E) stop playing with her doll

B

Cheryl has difficulty making friends. She frequently argues with her peers and is mean to them. Her poor peer relationships can be explained by the fact that (A) she has a strong identity (B) she has a tense relationship with her parents (C) she is identity foreclosed (D) she is experiencing adolescent egocentrism (E) her cerebellum is not fully developed so she is overly emotional

B

Gender identity is when children begin to do which of the following? (A) Believe that gender is consistent over the life span (B) Identify as either male, female, or some blend of male and female (C) Believe that there are set ways that people of different genders are supposed to behave (D) Make generalizations about a gender group (E) Develop a way of thinking about people of each gender

B

It is not possible to randomly assign the participants in Lawrence Kohlberg's studies on moral development into groups because (A) Kohlberg did not believe there were distinct stages of moral development (B) Kohlberg compared people of different ages (C) deception would be necessary (D) it would be unethical (E) his research would then not be generalizable to groups other than men

B

Which of the following is an example of a key element of Jean Piaget's theory of cognitive development? (A) Stephani's reading progressed the same from seventh grade to eighth grade as it did from first grade to second grade. (B) Catherine finally realized her grandfather is her father's father. (C) Erin excelled at math despite the fact that she did not have good math teachers. (D) Courtney's ability to read was equally influenced by all the books in her home and her age. (E) Spencer's vocabulary increased by the same number of words every ten years throughout his life.

B

Meerkats live together in groups to help raise and protect their offspring. Meerkat pups are most vulnerable when they are away from their burrow foraging for food. Adult meerkats exhibit sentinel behavior, standing upright and making alarm calls to warn other members in the group that predators are nearby. In a study of meerkat behaviors, scientists observed meerkat foraging groups and recorded the presence or absence of pups along with the frequency of adult sentinel behavior. The scientists determined that sentinel behavior increased when pups were present in the foraging group. Which of the following correctly identifies the dependent and independent variables in the described study?

B = The presence of pups is the independent variable, and the frequency of sentinel behavior is the dependent variable: The scientists are studying the relationship between the presence of pups (independent variable) and the frequency of sentinel behavior (dependent variable).

Related to Question 1 Information: Based on the data in the figure, a student claimed that since 2007, the carrying capacity of wolves in Yellowstone National Park has been 100 wolves, and the maximum annual per capita growth rate of gray wolves is 0.6 wolves per wolf per year. Which of the following is closest to the calculated wolf population size in 2017 based on the student's claim?

B = 103: According to the logistic growth model, the change in population size (dN/dt) can be calculated using the equation dN/dt=rmaxN((K−N)/K). According to the student's claim, rmax=0.6 wolves/year and K=100 wolves. From Figure 1, N=108 wolves in 2016. Therefore, dN/dt=0.6×108×((100−108)/100)=−5.184. The -5.184 needs to be added to the 2016 population size to get the population size for 2017: 108+(−5.184)=102.816108+(−5.184)=102.816, which is rounded to 103 to get the final answer.

In the mid-1920s, gray wolves, Canis lupus, were eliminated from Yellowstone National Park in the northwestern United States. Over the course of 1995 and 1996, 31 wolves from Canada were relocated to the park. Researchers have tracked the growth of the wolf population from 21 in 1995 to 108 at the end of the study in 2016 (Figure 1). Figure 1. Yellowstone National Park annual wolf population from 1995 to 2016 The wolves prey on large herbivores, primarily elk. The carcasses of wolf kills are a valuable food source for coyotes, Canis latrans. When coyotes are feeding on carcasses, they may be chased off the carcass and/or killed by wolves. Coyotes also hunt small mammals for food. Researchers were studying the effect of wolves' presence on the behavior of coyotes. Researchers observed coyotes in a specific area of Yellowstone National Park and recorded the proportion of the coyotes' time spent on five different activities when wolves were present in the study area and when wolves were absent (Figure 2). Figure 2. Coyote behavior in the presence and absence of wolves. Error bars represent a confidence interval of 95% (±2 standard errors of the mean). Based on information in Figure 1, which of the following is closest to the annual growth rate of the wolf population in Yellowstone National Park from 1996 to 2004 ?

B = 17 wolves per year: The equation for calculating a rate is dY/dt, which is the difference in the variable on the y-axis divided by the difference in the variable on the x-axis. In this case, that equation becomes annual population growth rate = (final population size - initial population size)/(number of years). According to Figure 1, in 1996 the population was 36 wolves, and 8 years later, in 2004, the population was 171 wolves. Therefore, (171−36)/8=16.875, which can be rounded to 17 wolves per year.

Soluble reactive phosphate (SRP) is a term used to describe the amount of phosphate available for uptake by living things. A study of river plants species and water phosphate levels was completed in Great Britain. Recently, in a section of one of the rivers studied, a population of fennel-leaved pondweed was replaced by spiked water-milfoil, even though these two plants are associated with different environmental conditions as indicated in the table below. A group of researchers suggest that the concentration of available phosphate in this particular section of the British river does not have a significant impact on which plant species grow. Alternatively, another group of researchers hypothesize that levels of available phosphate do affect which plant species grow at this location. Which of the following observations would best support this alternative hypothesis?

B = Increased fertilizer use near this section of the river has led to increased runoff of phosphates into the river: Human activities such as the addition of organic or chemical fertilizers to lawns, golf courses, and agricultural lands and the observed increase in runoff of the phosphorus in these fertilizers into the rivers is the most likely contributor to the increased SRP level in the water that resulted in the change in plant species.

Bt corn varieties are genetically modified to produce a toxin that specifically kills corn borers, a type of insect that eats and damages corn crops. Insects that are not closely related to corn borers are not affected by the toxin. Figure 1 shows the increasing production of Bt corn varieties and the change in the use of broad-spectrum pesticides that were the primary means of killing corn borers before the invention of Bt corn. Figure 1. Relative use of pesticides on corn fields and percent of Bt corn in crops How do the data in Figure 1 support the alternative hypothesis that increased use of Bt corn reduces the impact of corn farming on the natural environment?

B = The toxin in Bt corn kills only the corn pests, leaving other insects unharmed: Bt corn is modified to be toxic to certain insects; thus, it doesn't require as much insecticide. The graph shows this trend.

Based on Figure 5-8, If the woman and a man with normal clotting function have children, what is the probability of their children exhibiting hemophilia A? A) 50 percent for daughters, 0 percent for sons B) 50 percent for sons, 0 percent for daughters C) 50 percent for all children D) 0 percent for all children

B) 50 percent for sons, 0 percent for daughters

Which of the following is closest to the calculated chi-square (χ2) value for the data presented in Table 5-2? A) 8,35 B) 72.01 C) 98.00 D) 2,546.00

B) 72.01

When a mustard plant seedling is transferred to an environment with higher levels of carbon dioxide, the new leaves have a lower stomata-to-surface-area ratio than do the seedling's original leaves. Which of the following best explains how the leaves from the same plant can have different stomatal densities when exposed to an elevated carbon dioxide level? A) Increased photosynthesis leads to larger leaves that need more stomata for photosynthesis, leading to an increase in stomatal density. B) Leaf growth is promoted through increased photosynthesis, but the genetically regulated rate of stomatal production is not altered, leading to a decrease in stomatal density. C) Leaf growth is inhibited by decreased photosynthesis, and the genetically regulated rate of stomatal production remains the same, leading to an increase in stomatal density. D) Leaf growth is inhibited by decreased photosynthesis, and the genetically regulated rate of stomatal production remains the same, leading to a decrease in stomatal density.

B) Leaf growth is promoted through increased photosynthesis, but the genetically regulated rate of stomatal production is not altered, leading to a decrease in stomatal density.

Glycolysis is a metabolic pathway that converts glucose into pyruvate and is observed in each of the three domains. The hexokinase family of enzymes is required during glycolysis to phosphorylate six-carbon sugars. Researchers designed a general hexokinase inhibitor that is effective in the neurons of rats. Which of the following best predicts the effect of adding this inhibitor to a culture of plant cells? A) Plant cells will be unaffected by the inhibitor as they do not perform glycolysis. B) Plant cells will be unable to perform glycolysis due to the inhibitor and will die. C) Plant cells will be unable to perform photosynthesis due to the inhibitor and will die. D) Plant cells will still be able to perform glycolysis since plant hexokinase is not structurally similar to animal hexokinase.

B) Plant cells will be unable to perform glycolysis due to the inhibitor and will die.

Which of the follow indicates the mean number per cross of F2 plants producing medium-red grain and correctly explains the distribution of the phenotypes based on Table 5-7? A) The mean number of medium-red phenotypes per cross is 20.8. The distribution of phenotypes suggests that grain color is under environmental control. B) The mean number of medium-red phenotypes per cross is 20.8. The distribution of phenotypes suggests that multiple genes are involved in grain color determination. C) The mean number of medium-red phenotypes per cross is 104. The distribution of phenotypes suggests that grain color is under environmental control. D) The mean number of medium-red phenotypes per cross is 104. The distribution of phenotypes suggests that multiple genes are involved in grain color determination.

B) The mean number of medium-red phenotypes per cross is 20.8. The distribution of phenotypes suggests that multiple genes are involved in grain color determination.

Figure 1. Plant species richness in lightly and heavily grazed savanna communities. Which of the following best predicts the results of a drought in the savanna research area with regards to community resilience to this environmental change?

B. The lightly grazed area is likely to recover more quickly from the drought due to greater biodiversity.

Which of the following correctly identifies the dependent and independent variables in this experiment? Table 1. Phototropic responses of plants to different colors of light

B. The percentage of plants showing phototropism is the dependent variable, and the color of the light is the independent variable.

A scientist interested in investigating how human population trends might affect local animal species' richness stipulates a null hypothesis that animal biodiversity in rural areas will be unaffected in the future by the human population trends shown in Figure 1. Which of the following would best refute this null hypothesis?

B. Urbanization causes habitat fragmentation.

A fish population of 250 in a pond has a maximum annual rate of increase of 0.8. If the carrying capacity of the pond is 1,500 for this species, what is the expected population size after one year?

B. 417

Which of the following best predicts why the recombinant bacteria will fail to produce the eukaryotic protein?

Bacteria and eukaryotes use different mRNA codons for the same amino acids during translation.

3 Domains and why its better

Bacteria- currently known pros Archaea- diverse group of prokaryotes Eukaryotes- all orgs with cells, true nuclues, single cell, fungi, plants and animals Better--- highlights fact that history of earth has been mostly single celled orgs 2 pro domains---single celled orgs, only some are multicell

10) You have a cube of modeling clay in your hands. Which of the following changes to the shape of this cube of clay will decrease its surface area relative to its volume? A) Pinch the edges of the cube into small folds. B) Flatten the cube into a pancake shape. C) Round the clay up into a sphere. D) Stretch the cube into a long, shoebox shape.

C

12) Which structure is common to plant and animal cells? A) chloroplast B) central vacuole C) mitochondrion D) centriole

C

14) In a bacterium, we will find DNA in _____. A) a membraneenclosed nucleus B) mitochondria C) the nucleoid D) ribosomes

C

15) Which organelle or structure is absent in plant cells? A) mitochondria B) microtubules C) centrosomes D) peroxisomes

C

15. Crossing an organism with the genotype YyRr with an organism with the same genotype (YyRr) yields what ratio of phenotypes? a. 1:1:1:1 b. 1:2:2:1 c. 9:3:3:1 d. 6:4:4:2 e. 6:6:3:1

C

16. Recombination is most closely associated with what? a. Law of Segregation b. Law of Independent Assortment c. Crossing over d. Polar bodies e. Zygote

C

17) Which of the following macromolecules leaves the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell through pores in the nuclear membrane? A) DNA B) amino acids C) mRNA D) phospholipids

C

19) Large numbers of ribosomes are present in cells that specialize in producing which of the following molecules? A) lipids B) glycogen C) proteins D) nucleic acids

C

2) The advantage of light microscopy over electron microscopy is that _____. A) light microscopy provides for higher magnification than electron microscopy B) light microscopy provides for higher resolving power than electron microscopy C) light microscopy allows one to view dynamic processes in living cells D) light microscopy provides higher contrast than electron microscopy

C

20) The nuclear lamina is an array of filaments on the inner side of the nuclear membrane. If a method were found that could cause the lamina to fall into disarray, what would you most likely expect to be the immediate consequence? A) the loss of all nuclear function B) the inability of the nucleus to divide during cell division C) a change in the shape of the nucleus D) failure of chromosomes to carry genetic information

C

26. Which of the following is heavily influenced by environmental influences? a. Continuous Generations b. Discontinuous Generations c. Continuous Variation d. Discontinuous Variation e. None of the above

C

28) TaySachs disease is a human genetic abnormality that results in cells accumulating and becoming clogged with very large, complex, undigested lipids. Which cellular organelle must be involved in this condition? A) the endoplasmic reticulum B) the Golgi apparatus C) the lysosome D) mitochondrion

C

28. A person's weight is an example of what? a. Continuous Generations b. Discontinuous Generations c. Continuous Variation d. Discontinuous Variation e. None of the above

C

30) Which of the following produces and modifies polysaccharides that will be secreted? A) lysosome B) mitochondrion C) Golgi apparatus D) peroxisome

C

31) What is the most likely pathway taken by a newly synthesized protein that will be secreted by a cell? A) ER → Golgi → nucleus B) Golgi → ER → lysosome C) ER → Golgi → vesicles that fuse with plasma membrane D) ER → lysosomes → vesicles that fuse with plasma membrane

C

33) Which of the following is NOT true? Both chloroplasts and mitochondria _____. A) have their own DNA B) have multiple membranes C) are part of the endomembrane system D) are capable of reproducing themselves

C

36) In a plant cell, DNA may be found _____. A) only in the nucleus B) only in the nucleus and chloroplasts C) in the nucleus, mitochondria, and chloroplasts D) in the nucleus, mitochondria, chloroplasts, and peroxisomes

C

4) What is the reason that a modern transmission electron microscope (TEM) can resolve biological images to the subnanometer level, as opposed to tens of nanometers achievable for the best superresolution light microscope? A) The focal length of the electron microscope is significantly longer. B) Contrast is enhanced by staining with atoms of heavy metal. C) Electron beams have much shorter wavelengths than visible light. D) The electron microscope has a much greater ratio of image size to real size.

C

40) Suppose a cell has the following molecules and structures: enzymes, DNA, ribosomes, plasma membrane, and mitochondria. It could be a cell from _____. A) a bacterium B) an animal but not a plant C) nearly any eukaryotic organism D) a plant but not an animal

C

43) Motor proteins provide for molecular motion in cells by interacting with what types of cellular structures? A) membrane proteins of the inner nuclear envelope B) free ribosomes and ribosomes attached to the ER C) components of the cytoskeleton D) cellulose fibers in the cell wall

C

45) Vinblastine, a drug that inhibits microtubule polymerization, is used to treat some forms of cancer. Cancer cells given vinblastine would be unable to _____. A) form cleavage furrows during cell division B) migrate by amoeboid movement C) separate chromosomes during cell division D) maintain the shape of the nucleus

C

52) Which of the following statements about the cytoskeleton is true? A) The cytoskeleton of eukaryotes is a static structure most resembling scaffolding used at construction sites. B) Although microtubules are common within a cell, actin filaments are rarely found outside of the nucleus. C) Movement of cilia and flagella is the result of motor proteins causing microtubules to move relative to each other. D) Chemicals that block the assembly of the cytoskeleton would have little effect on a cell's response to external stimuli.

C

53) The cell walls of bacteria, fungi, and plant cells and the extracellular matrix of animal cells are all external to the plasma membrane. Which of the following is a characteristic common to all of these extracellular structures? A) They must block water and small molecules to regulate the exchange of matter and energy with their environment. B) They must provide a rigid structure that maintains an appropriate ratio of cell surface area to volume. C) They are constructed of polymers that are synthesized in the cytoplasm and then transported out of the cell. D) They are composed of a mixture of lipids and nucleotides.

C

54) A mutation that disrupts the ability of an animal cell to add polysaccharide modifications to proteins would most likely cause defects in its _____. A) nuclear matrix and extracellular matrix B) mitochondria and Golgi apparatus C) Golgi apparatus and extracellular matrix D) nuclear pores and secretory vesicles

C

60) H. V. Wilson worked with sponges to gain some insight into exactly what was responsible for holding adjacent cells together. He exposed two species of differently pigmented sponges to a chemical that disrupted the cellcell interaction (cell junctions), and the cells of the sponges dissociated. Wilson then mixed the cells of the two species and removed the chemical that caused the cells to dissociate. Wilson found that the sponges reassembled into two separate species. The cells from one species did not interact or form associations with the cells of the other species. How do you explain the results of Wilson's experiments? A) The two species of sponge had different enzymes that functioned in the reassembly process. B) The molecules responsible for cellcell adhesion (cell junctions) were irreversibly destroyed during the experiment. C) The molecules responsible for cellcell adhesion (cell junctions) differed between the two species of sponge. D) One cell functioned as the nucleus for each organism, thereby attracting only cells of the same pigment.

C

61) Gaucher disease is the most common of lipid storage diseases in humans. It is caused by a deficiency of an enzyme necessary for lipid metabolism. This leads to a collection of fatty material in organs of the body including the spleen, liver, kidneys, lungs, brain, and bone marrow. Using your knowledge of the structure of eukaryotic cells, identify the statement below that best explains how internal membranes and the organelles of cells would be involved in Gaucher disease. A) The mitochondria are most likely defective and do not produce adequate amounts of ATP needed for cellular respiration. B) The rough endoplasmic reticulum contains too many ribosomes which results in an overproduction of the enzyme involved in carbohydrate catalysis. C) The lysosomes lack sufficient amounts of enzymes necessary for the metabolism of lipids. D) The Golgi apparatus produces vesicles with faulty membranes that leak their contents into the cytoplasm of the cell.

C

Annette, who lives in the United States, experienced menarche at age ten, while her great-grandmother experienced it at age fourteen. Which of the following most likely explains the difference between the age that Annette and the age that her great-grandmother experienced menarche? (A) Annette's great-grandmother lived in a rural area, while Annette lives in a city. (B) Annette's great-grandmother was shorter than Annette. (C) Annette has better nutrition and medical care than her great-grandmother did. (D) Annette is the youngest child in her family, while her great-grandmother was the oldest child in her family. (E) Annette has more peers of the same age than her great-grandmother did.

C

Carol Gilligan was critical of Lawrence Kohlberg's theory of moral development. What is the basis of her critique? (A) She thought he should have used more men in his study. (B) She thought he should have conducted actual experiments. (C) She thought his findings about men are not generalizable to women. (D) She thought his research was unethical. (E) She thought he should have only studied adolescents.

C

Crystal has three children she loves and cares for very much. Denise has two children that she neglects. Crystal's children are very friendly and talk to people more often than Denise's children. Which of the following is the likely result of the children's attachment to their mothers? (A) Denise's children will have better identity formation. (B) Crystal used rewards and punishments more often than Denise. (C) Crystal's children will have better socialization skills. (D) Denise's children's schemas regarding parent-child relationships are quite strong (E) Crystal's children will have resolved the Oedipal complex, and Denise's children will not have.

C

Esther is looking back on her life and feels she has had a good life overall but that there are some things she could have done better. How would Erik Erikson explain Esther's thoughts? (A) She is starting to form her identity based on her past experiences. (B) She is experiencing proactive interference, which is causing her to reevaluate her life choices. (C) She is weighing whether she has succeeded in life, which is common in later adulthood. (D) She is reevaluating her life because she is following hypothetico-deductive thinking. (E) She is beginning to feel she can do things independently because she has had a good life.

C

Gender typing is best defined as (A) the belief or feeling that gender is constant throughout the life span (B) an overgeneralization about a group of people based on their gender (C) the process by which children become aware of their gender and thus behave accordingly by adopting attributes of members of the gender that they identify with (D) the development of an attraction or romantic relationship with people of a given gender or genders (E) a set of expectations about how people of certain genders should behave

C

Lawrence Kohlberg sampled 72 boys ages 10-16 years, the majority of whom he followed up with every 3 years for 20 years. He conducted interviews with the participants in which he presented them with a series of moral dilemmas. The participants judged the actions as right or wrong and provided their reasons for their decision. What type of research was Kohlberg conducting, and what were his findings? (A) Experimental; adolescents are typically in the conventional stage of moral reasoning (B) Experimental; adolescents are typically in the preconventional stage of moral reasoning (C) Longitudinal; adolescents are typically in the conventional stage of moral reasoning (D) Longitudinal; adolescents are typically in the preconventional stage of moral reasoning (E) Longitudinal; adolescents are typically in the postconventional stage of moral reasoning

C

Students in a class were divided into five groups to analyze community structure. Each group of students assessed the species of plants in four environments and determined the Simpson's Diversity Index for each environment. The Simpson's Diversity Index takes into account the number of species present as well as the abundance of each species. The index values are shown in Figure 1. Figure 1. Simpson's Diversity Index for four environments Based on the data in Figure 1, which of the following statements is most accurate about the species diversity of the four different environments that the students analyzed?

C = Based on the data, there is no statistically significant difference between the species diversity of plants in the light, moist environment and in the dark, moist environment: Because the error bars overlap, the light, moist and dark, moist environments show no significant statistical difference in diversity.

Related to Question 1 Information: Which of the following best describes the change in coyote behavior in the presence of wolves?

C = Decrease, No Effect, No effect, Increase, Increase: According to Figure 2, in the presence of wolves (white bars), the proportion of time spent on rest is less, the proportion of time spent feeding on carcasses is more, and the proportion of time spent on vigilance is more than in the absence of wolves (gray bars). Although the mean proportion of time spent on travel increases in the presence of wolves, the error bars overlap, showing that the difference is not statistically significant.

A study recorded changes in the distribution of some commercial marine species off the East Coast of the United States over a period of several decades. The results of the study are summarized in Figure 1. Figure 1. Latitude that is the center of commercial harvesting of specified marine species Some researchers link changes in the distribution of these species to warming of the oceans due to climate change. Which of the following pieces of data best supports this alternative hypothesis?

C = The prey of these species require colder waters to survive, and owing to warming in the oceans, they are moving farther north, to higher latitudes, where the water is colder: Global increases in average temperature are associated with global climate change. This would produce warming in the oceans, so the prey these fish depend on can survive only by moving to more northern latitudes with colder waters. The fish would move with their food sources.

Based on Table 5-9, which of the following is most likely the immediate cause of the first appearance of Huntington's disease in a person? A) A point mutation occurs in the HTT gene B) The first appearance of CAG repeat occurs in the HTT gene. C) An allele with more than 39 CAG repeats was inherited by the affected person. D) The person inherited two alleles that each contained 20 CAG repeats.

C) An allele with more than 39 CAG repeats was inherited by the affected person.

The tadpoles of Mexican spadefoot toads are known to exhibit phenotypic plasticity depending on food availability. Tadpole mouthparts can vary significantly, prompting researchers to categorize them as either omnivore-morph or carnivore-morph. Carnivore-morph tadpoles are larger and have mouthparts that are better suited for predation. Remarkably, carnivore-morph tadpoles can change into omnivore-morph tadpoles when the food supply changes. Which of the following best describes an advantage of the phenotypic plasticity displayed by the tadpoles? A) It allows the tadpoles to change their genome in response to environmental pressures. B) It enables the tadpoles to develop into a distinct species of toads. C) It gives the tadpoles increased versatility with respect to diet. D) It allows the tadpoles to delay metamorphosis until there is maximal food available for the adults.

C) It gives the tadpoles increased versatility with respect to diet.

Figure 2. Change in host preference by Culex cedecei between 1979 and 2016. Numbers do not add up to one hundred percent because these represent a subset of all the host species. Which of the following populations have significantly decreased in size between 1996 and 2011 ?

C. White-tailed deer and raccoons only

The molecular formula for glucose is C6H12O6. What would be the molecular formula for a polymer made by linking ten glucose molecules together by dehydration reactions?

C60H102O51

Which of the following statements describes the results of this reaction? C6H12O6 + 6 O2 ® 6 CO2 + 6 H2O + Energy

C6H12O6 is oxidized and O2 is reduced.

tRNA

Carries amino acids from the cytoplasmic pool of amino acids to mRNA at the ribosome

Vector

Carries the recombinant DNA molecule, DNA carrier of segment to be cloned

. Relationships of selected organisms based on catalase structure Which of the following student claims is best supported by the data provided?

Cattle and sheep are separated by only one node, and they are separated from the other organisms by more than one node.

Figure 1. Models of a prokaryote, first eukaryotic common ancestor, and last eukaryotic common ancestor. Based on the information provided in the figure, which of the following best describes how membrane-bound organelles provided unique evolutionary advantages to the last eukaryotic common ancestor?

Cells with mitochondria were able to utilize metabolic energy more efficiently.

Translocation

Chromosome abnormality caused by rearrangement of parts between nonhomologous chromosomes

Of what type of human trait transmission is blood type an example? A. Dominant alleles B. Codominant alleles C. Recessive alleles D. Y-linked alleles

Codominant alleles

Human activities can drive changes in ecosystems that affect the risk of extinction. An experiment is designed to help prevent the further decline and extinction of the Henslow's sparrow in which controlled burns will be set in the each of the ten Midwest counties in order to prevent the regrowth of the forest. Which of the following represents an alternate hypothesis tested by this experiment with regard to the population sizes of Henslow's sparrows?

Controlled fires in counties 4 and 5 will lead to an increase in the sparrow population.

Based on the phylogenetic relationships shown in Figure 1, which of the following best explains the similarities exhibited by whales, bony fishes, and cartilaginous fishes?

Convergent evolution, because these organisms do not share a recent common ancestor.

Transgenic animals are becoming more important to our food supply. Examples of genetically modified animals include all of the following except A. lactating goats injected with spider genes that produce silk along with their milk. B. genetically modified pigs that produce more lean meat. C. transgenic salmon placed into aquaculture facilities with wild salmon. D. cows injected with hormones to increase milk production.

Cows injected with hormones to increase milk production.

1. Meiosis creates how many functional daughter cells in females? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. None of the above

D

25) The Golgi apparatus has a polarity, or sidedness, to its structure and function. Which of the following statements correctly describes this polarity? A) Transport vesicles fuse with one side of the Golgi and leave from the opposite side. B) Proteins in the membrane of the Golgi may be sorted and modified as they move from one side of the Golgi to the other. C) Lipids in the membrane of the Golgi may be sorted and modified as they move from one side of the Golgi to the other. D) All of the listed responses correctly describe polarity characteristics of the Golgi function.

D

27. Which of the following is not heavily influenced by environmental influences? a. Continuous Generations b. Discontinuous Generations c. Continuous Variation d. Discontinuous Variation e. None of the above

D

29. A person's blood type is an example of what? a. Continuous Generations b. Discontinuous Generations c. Continuous Variation d. Discontinuous Variation e. None of the above

D

32) Asbestos is a material that was once used extensively in construction. One risk from working in a building that contains asbestos is the development of asbestosis caused by the inhalation of asbestos fibers. Cells will phagocytize asbestos, but are not able to degrade it. As a result, asbestos fibers accumulate in _____. A) mitochondria B) ribosomes C) peroxisomes D) lysosomes

D

37) In a liver cell detoxifying alcohol and some other poisons, the enzymes of the peroxisome remove hydrogen from these molecules and _____. A) combine the hydrogen with water molecules to generate hydrogen peroxide B) use the hydrogen to break down hydrogen peroxide C) transfer the hydrogen to the mitochondria D) transfer the hydrogen to oxygen molecules to generate hydrogen peroxide

D

42) Suppose a young boy is always tired and fatigued, suffering from a metabolic disease. Which of the following organelles is most likely involved in this disease? A) lysosomes B) Golgi apparatus C) ribosomes D) mitochondria

D

47) Researchers tried to explain how vesicular transport occurs in cells by attempting to assemble the transport components. They set up microtubular tracks along which vesicles could be transported, and they added vesicles and ATP (because they knew the transport process requires energy). Yet, when they put everything together, there was no movement or transport of vesicles. What were they missing? A) an axon B) contractile microfilaments C) endoplasmic reticulum D) motor proteins

D

48) Cilia and flagella bend because of _____. A) conformational changes in ATP that thrust microtubules laterally B) a motor protein called radial spokes C) the quick inward movements of water by osmosis. D) a motor protein called dynein

D

5. Gregor Mendel studied genetics with what type of plant? a. Pumpkin b. Potato c. Tomato d. Pea e. Bean

D

50) Cytochalasin D is a drug that prevents actin polymerization. A cell treated with cytochalasin D will still be able to _____. A) divide in two B) contract muscle fibers C) extend pseudopodia D) move vesicles within a cell

D

55) The extracellular matrix is thought to participate in the regulation of animal cell behavior by communicating information from the outside to the inside of the cell via which of the following? A) gap junctions B) the nucleus C) DNA and RNA D) integrins

D

57) Ions can travel directly from the cytoplasm of one animal cell to the cytoplasm of an adjacent cell through _____. A) plasmodesmata B) tight junctions C) desmosomes D) gap junctions

D

7) All of the following are part of a prokaryotic cell EXCEPT _____. A) a cell wall B) a plasma membrane C) ribosomes D) an endoplasmic reticulum

D

After surveying 100 parents, researchers concluded that 90 percent of babies can walk by the age of 10 months. Why is this an inappropriate conclusion? (A) The researchers should have conducted an experiment. (B) The cerebellum is completely developed by ten months. (C) A case study would have yielded more reliable data. (D) At 10 months, ninety percent of toddlers have not reached the developmental milestones to walk. (E) At 10 months, seventy percent of toddlers can walk.

D

Tanya is trying to remember a phone number, so she repeats it until she remembers it. Which of the following best explains why Tanya has chosen this way to remember? (A) Jean Piaget's theory of cognitive development, because she is using her frontal cortex. (B) Jean Piaget's theory of cognitive development, because this theory addresses encoding and storing information. (C) The information processing theory, because she is using deep processing. (D) The information processing theory, because this theory addresses encoding and storing information. (E) The information processing theory, because she is using a mnemonic device.

D

Heterochromatin

Is a tightly packed form of DNA, because it is tightly packed it is inaccessible to polymerases and is not transcribed

In a study of energy flow, the following data were collected: Each human requires 55 grams of protein per day. An acre of soybeans produces 200,000 grams of protein per year. A cow grazing on one acre of land produces 19,000 grams of protein per year. Based on these data, an acre of land would support: 10 humans per year on a diet of soy, or 0.9 human per year on a diet of beef. Which of the following statements best explains these relationships in terms of energy transfer?

D = Only 10% of the energy on each level of the trophic pyramid is available for use by the next level. The rest is lost as heat or used for growth and repair: The 10% rule states that approximately 90% of the energy at any trophic level is lost to heat, growth, and repair of the organisms, and only 10% is available for harvesting by the next trophic level.

A biologist was investigating the effects of herbivory on the amount of nicotine produced by the leaves of tobacco plants (Nicotiana rustica). Six groups of plants were grown from seed in the same greenhouse with identical environmental conditions. Three groups were then each exposed for a different interval of time to tobacco hornworms (Maduca sexta), which feed on the foliage of tobacco plants. The amount of nicotine present in the leaves was measured at the beginning and end of each time interval. As a control, the other three groups were not exposed to hornworms. The results of the experiment are summarized in Table 1. Which of the following correctly identifies the dependent variable and the independent variable for the experiment?

D = The dependent variable is the percent change in the amount of nicotine, and the independent variable is the time interval the plants were exposed to the hornworms: The change in the concentration of nicotine is the factor being studied and is therefore the dependent variable. The time interval the plants were exposed to the hornworms is changed by the biologist and therefore the independent variable.

Figure 1 shows the population fluctuations of phytoplankton and zooplankton in the eastern Pacific Ocean over the course of six years. The major dip in phytoplankton was attributed to a lack of nutrients for phytoplankton. Of the following, which explains why the zooplankton also dipped during the same year and then seemed to cycle over the next three years?

D = The reduction in the phytoplankton population meant that the zooplankton's energy source was drastically reduced, leading to the decrease in the zooplankton population size. After the dip, the phytoplankton provided a steady energy source, and the zooplankton population fluctuated around its carrying capacity: The energy source of zooplankton is the carbon compounds fixed by phytoplankton. Without the proper inorganic nutrients, the phytoplankton population is limited in its photosynthetic activity, leading to an energy deficit in the zooplankton populations. It is also correct that the annual fluctuations in zooplankton represent a stable population cycling around its carrying capacity.

Sea otters living along the Pacific coast were hunted to near extinction in the nineteenth century. After being protected from hunting in the early 1900s, a remnant population of otters near Adak Island, Alaska, recovered rapidly. Otters did not return to the environmentally similar nearby island, Alaid Island. Sea otters eat sea urchins, which eat kelp, a brown alga. Researchers surveyed both islands in 1988, to measure sea urchin biomass and kelp density. The data are presented in Table 1. In 1991, researchers at Adak Island observed the first attack by a killer whale on a sea otter in historical times. The researchers hypothesized that the population sizes of the larger marine mammals that the killer whales normally prey on declined, so the killer whales were starting to prey on different prey, including the smaller sea otters. Which of the following best predicts the effects of an increase in killer whale predation on sea otters on the Adak Island ecosystem?

D = The sea urchin population will increase and the kelp population will decrease, leading to reduced total biomass and diversity in the Adak Island ecosystem: Increased predation by killer whales will lead to a decrease in the sea otter population at Adak Island. A decline in the sea otter population will allow the sea urchin population to increase without predation as a limiting factor. An increasing sea urchin population will lead to overgrazing and reduced kelp densities. Kelp forests provide important habitat and food for many other organisms, and their decline would cause the entire ecosystem to decline. Due to this cascade effect, sea otters are described as a keystone species because when they are removed from an ecosystem, the ecosystem declines rapidly.

Baker's yeast, Saccharomycetes cerevisiae, is the species of yeast that is commonly used in baking, brewing, and making wine. It is a single-celled organism; each cell is capable of undergoing asexual reproduction by mitosis and sexual reproduction by meiosis, forming spores that combine with other spores. To find out if energy and nutritional resource availability determines which form of reproduction is used, researchers grew twenty yeast colonies on an agar medium plate providing ideal nutrient environments. Each colony was composed of a population of yeast that originated from a single yeast cell that had reproduced asexually to form a population of millions of yeast clones. That plate was used to produce replicate plates of yeast colonies. Each replicate plate was a mirror image of the original cultures, so each colony could be subjected to each treatment group. The replicate plates contained different media as follows. Robust media: Contains all nutrients required by yeast in excess amounts Complete media: Contains all nutrients at a level promoting exponential growth at rmax Minimal media: Nutrients available at a low level, allowing growth, but stressing the yeast colonies Deficient media: Nutrient content less than what is needed to sustain growth, extreme stress on yeast colonies Eight replica plates were made, two plates of each media, and all plates were incubated at 30°C for 24 hours. Yeast from each colony were observed through a microscope and their means of reproduction determined. Table 1 summarizes these results. Which of the following best explains the data in Table 1 ?

D = Yeast respond to nutritional stress with sexual reproduction, producing new genetic combinations, or dormancy: Increasing stress leads to an increased number of colonies using sexual reproduction. Sexual reproduction could lead to new combinations of alleles that might allow the yeast to survive using a different energy source or produce a dormant form that could survive until the yeast cells were in a more favorable environment.

Himalayan rabbits are a breed of rabbits with highly variable fur color. If genetically similar rabbits are raised in environments that have different temperature conditions, the rabbits can have different color patterns. Which of the following statements best explains how the fur color can be different in Himalayan rabbits raised under different temperature conditions? A) The genotype does not contribute to coat color in Himalayan rabbits. B) The phenotype determines the genotype of coat color in Himalayan rabbits. C) Different environments cause specific mutations in the genes controlling pigment production. D) The environment determines how the genotype is expressed.

D) The environment determines how the genotype is expressed.

WHat changes...for homeostasis, when climbing mountain

breathe heavier...more CO2 released pH changes... alkaline urine

Nucleotides

DNA is a polymer consisting of repeating units of ___

Studies have shown that identical twins raised together are more similar in relation to when they meet normative physical milestones than identical twins raised apart. Studies have also shown that identical twins are more similar in relation to when they meet normative physical milestones than ordinary siblings. What research method and explanation best fit the studies and their results? (A) Case studies, because heredity is more important than environment in development. (B) Correlational research, because environment is more important than heredity in development. (C) Experiments, because both heredity and environment are important in development. (D) Case studies, because environment is more important than heredity in development. (E) Correlational research, because both heredity and environment are important in development.

E

Which of the following scenarios best describes the relationship between temperament and child-parent relationships? (A) Garrett's parents reward him for having an easy temperament, so he remains an easy child. (B) Stanley has an easy temperament, which has made him more sensitive to differences in parenting. (C) Anthony has a difficult temperament, which has made him less sensitive to differences in parenting. (D) Fred has a slow-to-warm-up temperament, which has led his parents to be distant with him. (E) Sammy has a difficult temperament, but his parents love and care for him anyway.

E

Which of the following statements best explains the experimental results observed in Figure 1 ?

E. coli in lane C have been successfully transformed and contain additional genetic information.

three common modes of asexual reproduction

budding, regeneration, parthenogenesis

After double fertilization with an XX and XY, what would be the genotypes of the embryos and endosperm nuclei?

Embryo XX and endosperm XXX or embryo XY and endosperm XXY

Cleavage, gastrulation, organogenesis

Embryonic development stages

A population geneticist is conducting an investigation on a population of mice. The geneticist determines the genotypes for a particular trait of all of the mice in the population during generation 1 and then removes all of the mice with the genotype aa. The remaining members of the population are allowed to randomly mate with one another to produce generation 2 and future generations. A model of the investigation is shown in Figure 1. Each of the fifteen genotypes shown in generation 1 and generation 2 represents 100 mice. Figure 1. Model of effect of selective mouse removal on a population Which of the following best illustrates the change in the frequencies of the A and a alleles from generation 1 to generation 2 and to future generations, assuming Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is present after generation 1 ?

Future generations will eventually completely lose the a allele from the gene pool. There will not be any new individuals with the aa genotype.

relationship between drought and beak size in finches

Galapagos experienced drought => small seeds in short supply & large seeds easy to come by => finches with larger beaks can penetrate larger seeds => large beaked finches had higher survival rate => small beaked finch population greatly reduced => next generation of finches saw greater number of large beaks (natural selection demonstrated)

Geologic events such as mountain building can directly affect biodiversity. The Sino‑Himalayan fern, Lepisorus clathratus is widely distributed on the Qinghai‑Tibetan plateau. If geologic events lead to a series of new mountain ranges that divide the plateau into several discrete valleys, which of the following best describes how the L. clathratus population would be affected?

Geographic isolation will create separate gene pools, leading to speciation over time.

Horses and donkeys mate successfully to produce mules which are always sterile. Which genetic isolating mechanism is involved here to prevent horses and donkeys from becoming a single species?

Hybrid infertility

Crossing dissimilar individuals to bring together the most desirable characteristics of both in their offspring is known as A. inbreeding. B. biotechnology. C. bioinformatics. D. hybridization.

Hybridization

Nucleotide base pairing in DNA is universal across organisms. Each pair (T−A; C−G) consists of a purine and a pyrimidine. Which of the following best explains how the base pairs form?

Hydrogen bonds join a double-ringed structure to a single-ringed structure in each pair.

Which of the following best explains how this model illustrates DNA replication of both strands as a replication fork moves?

I is synthesized continuously in the 5′ to 3′ direction, and III is synthesized in segments in the 5′ to 3′ direction.

Based on the data in Figure 1, which of the following would most affect the allelic frequencies of the populations on Isabela and Butuan?

Immigration of individuals from Metro Manila into the two populations

There are genetic crosses in which neither of two alleles is dominant over the other. In these crosses, the phenotype is a blend of the two alleles. These crosses are described as A. non-Mendelian inheritance. B. multiple alleles. C. codominant. D. incomplete dominance.

Incomplete dominance

A group of researchers noticed that using a particular drug to treat cancer in mice would reduce the size of the tumor, but some of the tumor cells appeared to be resistant to the drug since some of these cells would increase in number over time. The researchers wish to increase the reliability of their experimental observations before investigating new claims that chemotherapy-resistant tumors are an example of continuing evolution. Of the following, which is the best next step the researchers might take to increase the reliability of their evidence?

Increasing the number of trials and the number of mice in each treatment group

What term defines why genetic variations are present in organisms even when they have the same parents? A. Punnett square B. Dependent assortment C. Genetics D. Independent assortment

Independent Assortment

RNA polymerase

Initiation begins with ___ recognizes and binds to DNA at the promoter region, must have access and capable of binding to promoter for transcription to begin

How can a small change in a person's DNA cause a genetic disorder? A. A change in a nitrogenous base can result in a translocation. B. None of the other answer choices C. It can alter the amino acid sequence of a protein, changing its structure and function. D. The deletion of a single nucleotide can result in a translocation.

It can alter the amino acid sequence of a protein, changing its structure and function.

Which of the following statements is true regarding the molecule illustrated in Figure 5.2?

It is a saturated fatty acid and a diet rich in this molecule may contribute to atherosclerosis.

You have a friend who lost 7 kg (about 15 pounds) of fat on a regimen of strict diet and exercise. How did the fat leave her body?

It was released as CO2 and H2O.

Which of the following claims best explains why keratinocytes do not produce melanin?

Keratinocytes do not express the MITF gene.

which species is most likely to become extinct

Kirtlands warbler, which breeds only in a small area of Michigan

Monoparaphyletic, Paraphyletic and Polyphletic-

Mono- consists of ancestral species and all descendants Para-ancestral species and some descendants, CA is part Poly- includes distantly related species but not CA

There are two species of elephant seals: northern elephant seals, Mirounga angustirostris, found off the western coast of North America from Baja California to the Gulf of Alaska, and southern elephant seals, M. leonina, found in the southern oceans. Hunting in the nineteenth century has been blamed for a drastic reduction in the northern elephant seal population. Even though the population has rebounded following restrictions on seal hunting, genetic variation is greatly reduced in the northern species compared to that in the southern species. Which of the following conditions of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium was most likely not met in the northern elephant seal population following overhunting?

Large population size

The R group or side chain of the amino acid serine is -CH2-OH. The R group or side chain of the amino acid leucine is -CH2-CH-(CH3)2. Where would you expect to find these amino acids in a globular protein in aqueous solution?

Leucine would be in the interior, and serine would be on the exterior of the globular protein.

Which of the following statements describes NAD+?

NAD+ is reduced to NADH during glycolysis, pyruvate oxidation, and the citric acid cycle.

How nitric oxide is affected by Viagra-

NO functions as a local regulator and neurotransmitter When O2 decreases, edothelial cells release NO into blood vessels...after diffusing to surround muscle cells, acts as enzyme to relax cells (vaodialation) In males, NO vasodilation enables sexual function by increased blood flow to the penis, sustains erection

Students created a model showing one possible mechanism for speciation in which a geographic barrier separated one large population into two smaller populations, A and B. Over time, populations A and B developed into two distinct species. The model is shown in Figure 1.

Natural selection acted on variation that was present in both populations A and B, and the lack of gene flow eventually led to the formation of two new species.

Students created a model showing one possible mechanism for speciation in which a geographic barrier separated one large population into two smaller populations, A and B. Over time, populations A and B developed into two distinct species. The model is shown in Figure 1. Which of the following best describes what occurred during the periods indicated by the arrows?

Natural selection acted on variation that was present in both populations A and B, and the lack of gene flow eventually led to the formation of two new species.

Introns

Not needed, noncoding sequence

Some scientists propose that due to human activity and climate change, a sixth mass extinction has already begun. Select the best alternate hypothesis to support this claim.

Observed modern extinction rates will resemble the rates found early in previous extinctions.

Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between photosynthesis and respiration?

Photosynthesis stores energy in complex organic molecules, whereas respiration releases it.

What is a legal tool that gives an individual or company the exclusive right to profit from its innovations for a number of years? A. Clone B. Gene map C. Pedigree D. Patent

Patent

Phylogeny and Taxonomy, main picture and mechanism

Picture- phylogentic tree ( model showing history of a group of organisms) mechanism- cladistics, method of hypothesizing relationships among organisms ex: cladogram, members of same species share unique characteristics not present in ancesters (ex. fur in mammals)

An experiment crosses an F1 generation of red-flowered (RR) plants and white-flowered (WW) plants. What is the color of the F2 generation if the allele for color is characteristic of incomplete dominance? A. White B. Red C. Pink D. Blue

Pink

Because cheetahs, Acinonyx jubatus, experienced a bottleneck event about ten thousand years ago, living cheetahs exhibit very little genetic variation compared to other living species of large cats. Which of the following principles best justifies a claim that cheetahs, compared to other large cats, have a relatively low resilience to environmental perturbations?

Populations with little genetic diversity are less likely to contain individuals that can withstand different selective pressures.

A _________ of genetically modified crops is that many of them produce higher yields, reducing the amount of land and other resources devoted to agriculture. A. restriction B. pro C. discrimination D. con

Pro

1.What term best defines the likelihood that a particular event will occur? A. Probability B. Accuracy C. Segregation D. Average

Probability

Transduction

Process by which DNA is transferred from one bacterium to another by a virus, phage viruses that contain bits of bacterial DNA as they infect one cell

Translation

Process by which the codons of an mRNA sequence are changed into an amino acid sequence

All of the following are characteristics of Punnett squares except A. Punnett squares are used only to predict homozygous combinations. B. Punnett squares are used to predict phenotype combinations in genetic crosses. C. Punnett squares follow the principle of segregation. D. Punnett squares are used to predict genotype combinations in genetic crosses.

Punnett squares are used only to predict homozygous combinations.

T and C

Pyrimidines nitrogen bases

The cystic fibrosis gene is A. dominant. B. recessive. C. codominant. D. segregated.

Recessive

Genetically engineered DNA molecules, pieces of which are extracted from various sources and chemically joined together, are called A. transfer RNA. B. recombinant DNA. C. None of the other answer choices D. messenger DNA.

Recombinant DNA

Highly specific substances that cut DNA molecules into fragments are known as A. restriction enzymes. B. nitrogen bases. C. alleles. D. gene sequencers.

Restriction enzymes

Which claim is most consistent with the information provided by the diagram and current scientific understanding of gene regulation and expression?

Some sequences of DNA can interact with regulatory proteins that control transcription.

Humans use _____, which takes advantage of naturally occurring genetic variation, to pass desired traits on to the next generation of organisms such as dogs. A. inbreeding B. selective breeding C. segregation D. bioinformatics

Selective breeding

Operon

Set of genes and the switches that control the expression of those genes

A sex-linked gene is a gene located on a _______ chromosome. Sex-linked genes that are located on the Y chromosome are found only in _______. A. sex; males B. sex; females C. autosomal; males D. autosomal; females

Sex; males

A woman develops Huntington's disease. Her father had the disorder. Her mother did not, and there is no history of the disorder in the mother's family. Which of the following best explains how the woman inherited Huntington's disease?

She inherited an allele with more than 40 CAG repeats in the HTT gene from her father.

Specimen 1 Specimen 2 Specimen 3 Specimen 4 Amino acid differences* 5 21 18 11 Percent of original carbon-14 remaining 38 73 25 11 Composition Sandstone Sandstone Limestone Shale DNA analysis 35% Guanine 28% Guanine 12% Guanine 29% Guanine *amino acid differences of a conserved protein compared with a fifth fossil specimen Which of the specimens indicated in the table is the oldest?

Specimen 4

A group of researchers claim that chance events play an important role in the evolution of populations. To test their claim, they monitored 12 populations of E. coli for 10,000 generations under the same environmental conditions. They found that although all 12 populations were exposed to the same environmental pressures, each population had differentiated from one another genetically after 10,000 generations. Which of the following statements includes a reasonable refinement that researchers could use in repeating the experiment?

Start each population with genetically identical bacterial cells from a single culture to make sure that the initial genetic variation in all of the populations was exactly the same.

Recombinant-DNA technology can be used in all of the following except A. treating disease. B. preventing disease. C. studying the environment. D. medical research.

Studying the environment

Evolutionary Adv of Torpor and Hibernation-

TOrpor- decrease activ, save E to avoid dangerous conditions Hibernation- temp decrease, survive through winters on limited food..

The degrees of relatedness in several native populations of prairie chickens in Marion and Jasper Counties in Illinois were determined. The degree of relatedness is inversely proportional to genetic diversity; that is, populations with a high degree of relatedness have less genetic diversity. Table 1 shows the collected data. Populations J1 through J5 are located in Jasper County. Populations M1 through M5 are located in Marion County. Numbers above 0.125 indicate a high degree of relatedness. Table 1. RELATEDNESS OF PRAIRIE CHICKEN POPULATIONS Population Degree of Relatedness J1 0.215 J2 0.215 J3 0.339 J4 0.280 J5 0.362 M1 0.305 M2 0.365 M3 0.199 M4 0.432 M5 0.405 Scientists claim that some of the populations in Marion County are at an increased risk of decline or extinction. Based on the data in table 1, which of the following best provides evidence to support this claim?

The M4 and M5 populations have the lowest genetic diversity of all populations.

Which of the following claims about the TYR, TRP2, and TRP1 mammalian genes is most likely to be accurate?

The TYR, TRP2, and TRP1 genes may be located on different chromosomes but are activated by the same transcription factor.

Based on the data in Figure 5-4, which of the following is the best prediction of the mode of inheritance of red eyes in Japanese koi? A) The allele for red eyes is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. B) The allele for red eyes is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern. C) The allele for red eyes is inherited in an X-linked recessive pattern. D) The allele for red eyes is inherited in an X-linked dominant pattern.

The allele for red eyes is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern.

A flask containing photosynthetic green algae and a control flask containing water with no algae are both placed under a bank of lights, which are set to cycle between 12 hours of light and 12 hours of dark. The dissolved oxygen concentrations in both flasks are monitored. Predict what the relative dissolved oxygen concentrations will be in the flask with algae compared to the control flask.

The dissolved oxygen in the flask with algae will be higher in the light, but lower in the dark.

What trait, dominant or recessive, will be expressed if an organism has one dominant allele and one recessive allele? A. The organism will lack that trait completely. B. Both the dominant and recessive traits C. The dominant trait D. The recessive trait

The dominant trait

Data from the Human Genome Project has raised a number of ethical and legal questions regarding all of the following except A. who should have access to personal genetic information. B. discrimination against people with genetic abnormalities. C. the effect of genetic projects on the environment. D. who owns and controls genetic information.

The effect of genetic projects on the environment

A scientist is studying the impact of mutagens on genetic variation in mice. In an experiment, the scientist creates two groups of twenty highly inbred mice. Because the mice are highly inbred, they are essentially identical to one another. One group is given food with an added substance that is known to be a mutagen. The second group is fed the same food without the mutagen. After several generations, both groups of mice are given a new type of food that is harder to digest than the previous food. After rearing five additional generations of the mice on this new food, the two groups are assessed for how efficiently this new food is digested. Which of the following is the most reasonable prediction about the results of the experiment?

The group of mice fed the mutagen will show a greater ability to digest the food, because the higher genetic variation within the group makes it more likely that some individuals will have a combination of genes better adapted to the new food.

A famous study from the nineteenth century involves the peppered moth, Biston betularia, commonly found in Great Britain and Ireland. At that time, the moths, normally white with black speckles, known as the peppered variety, became less common than the solid black variety. The population was predominantly black throughout the nineteenth century. By the end of the twentieth century, the peppered version of the moth was again more common than the black version. Which of the following best explains the phenotypic pattern in the moths over time?

The increased air pollution of the nineteenth century due to the use of coal led to a darkening of surfaces from soot. The darker backgrounds conferred a selective advantage to the black variety, as described by natural selection. A shift to less polluting fuel in the twentieth led to cleaner air and a lightening of the moth's normal habitat.

DNAase is an enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of the covalent bonds that join nucleotides together. What would first happen to DNA molecules treated with DNAase?

The phosphodiester bonds between deoxyribose sugars would be broken.

Some plant species flower in response to increasing daily temperatures in the spring. Many of these species rely on pollinators that migrate based on changes in day length and the position of the Sun. The current global warming trend is placing new selective pressures on the species involved in these relationships. Which of the following best explains the impact of these new selective pressures on the organisms involved?

The plant species will flower earlier in the spring in response to rising temperatures before the arrival of the pollinators, so seeds will not be produced.

Which of the following best predicts what will happen when a normal cell is exposed to a retrovirus?

The reverse transcriptase will produce DNA from the viral RNA, which can be incorporated into the host's genome and then transcribed and translated.

E area on ribosome

The ribosomal site harbouring decylated tRNA on transit out from the ribosome. Exit

A area on ribosome

The ribosomal site most frequently occupied by aminoacyl-tRNA. Arrival, mRNA binds to small unit of ribosome 1st

P area on ribosome

The ribosomal site most frequently occupied by peptidyl-tRNA, the tRNA carrying the growing peptide chain. Polypeptide

A scientist maintains a large population of the fruit fly Drosophila affinis in the laboratory. After 20 generations of allowing this population of about 1000 flies to mate randomly, 10 females and 10 males were isolated from the rest of the population. Both the larger population and the isolated population were maintained under identical conditions and allowed to mate randomly for another 20 generations. After the 20 generations, DNA sequencing was used to determine the genetic composition of each population. Which of the following predicts the expected outcome of the experiment?

The two populations will show significant genetic differences because the founder effect will result in significant losses in diversity in the smaller population.

Iridium is an element that is rare on Earth but commonly found in meteorites. A scientist believes that the first organic molecules may have come to Earth on meteorites 3.6 billion years ago. Which of these would be an appropriate null hypothesis to test related to whether meteorites hit the Earth 3.6 billion years ago?

There is no difference in iridium levels in sediments that were deposited on Earth 3.6 billion years old, compared to recent sediments.

Why are C4 plants able to photosynthesize with no apparent photorespiration?

They fix CO2 into a 4 carbon compound like malate

What term defines Mendel's plants that self-pollinated and produced identical successive generations? A. True-breeding B. Genetic C. F1 cross D. Cross-pollinated

True-breeding

Sex chromosome disorders include A. Klinefelter's syndrome and cystic fibrosis. B. Turner's syndrome and sickle cell disease. C. Turner's syndrome and Klinefelter's syndrome. D. cystic fibrosis and sickle cell disease.

Turner's Syndrome and Klinefelter's syndrome

Repression

Type of operon Trp

Figure 1. Model of damage to DNA caused by UV exposure Which of the following statements best explains what is shown in Figure 1 ?

UV photons cause dimers to form, leading to misshapen DNA, which results in replication and transcription errors.

Which of the following pieces of evidence would best support the researchers' claim above?

When researchers applied a drug that activates adenylyl cyclase to the mutant mice's ears, the level of melanin increased.

Which of the following best supports the claim that binding of miRNA‑delta to the miRNA binding site inhibits translation of gene Q mRNA?

When the miRNA binding site sequence is altered, translation of Q mRNA occurs in the presence of miRNA-delta.

Which of the following evidence best supports a claim that tryptophan functions as a corepressor?

When trpR is mutated, the trp operon is transcribed regardless of tryptophan levels.

Methylation

___ of certain bases to DNA silences that DNA temporarily or for long periods of time. Or by removing them genes are turned on

How are bacteria able to carry out photosynthesis and aerobic respiration without organelles?

anaer resp- use sulfate or nitrate as last electron accept take atmo nitrogen to make amino acids and organic molecules, just need light, CO2 and nitrogen

Why does the body not cause an autoimmune reaction?

antigen receptors are randomly arranged some immature lymphocytes produce receptors spec for epitopes on orgs own molecule as lymph mature, the receptors are tested for self react...if yes, apop.

Polytomy-

branch point from which two or more descendant groups emerge

Ex of why difference between analogy and homology is critical-

bats and birds both fly, but theyre not related. a bat's wing is more similar to forelimbd of cat and other mammals bats and birds descended from CA who could not fly skeletal systems are homologous, wings are not. bats- stretched membranes birds- feathers ANALOGOUS

If cells are grown in a medium containing radioactive 32P-labeled phosphate, which of these molecules will be labeled?

both phospholipids and nucleic acids

In photosynthetic cells, synthesis of ATP by the chemiosmotic mechanism occurs during

both photosynthesis and respiration.

Compared to C3 plants, C4 plants

can continue to fix CO2 even at relatively low CO2 concentrations and high oxygen concentrations.

effect of locations and types of mutations on proteins // point mutation

can have significant impact on phenotype // point mutations in noncoding regions are generally harmless or cause improvement

In the thylakoid membranes, what is the main role of the pigment molecules in a light-harvesting complex?

capture light energy to release electrons from Magnesium

Which of the following categories includes all others in the list?

carbohydrate

endocrine pathway-

cells respond to change in internal or external stimulus, secretes hormones, trigger response to target cells... ex: pH in duodenum, (sm intestine), very acidic, as contents enter, ther low pH stimulates cell to secret secretin...which diffuses into blood and each target in pancrease....release to neutralia

Positive Feedback example-

child birth, pressure of babys head stimulates uterus to contract...increases, baby is born

Another way to distinguish between homology and analogy-

chimp and human skull gene level, if genes in two orgs share many portions of nucleotide seq,..likely homologous. more elements similar in complex structures, ,C.A. analogous

All of the following contain amino acids except

cholesterol.

Practical applications of Phylogenetics-

corn- originated in Americas, now worldwide from phylogeny of DNA, researches ID two species of wild grass that are related to corn served as reservoirs, beneficial alleles transferred to cultivated corn by cross breeding or genetic engineering

Another issue with tree system

distinguishes mammals, amphibians and reptiles, but tells nothing of their evolutionary relations

whale exchange materials-

each cell has an exchange across membrane only works if every cell has access to suit aqueous env. spec surfaces, extend or branched increase SA

Why are there mistakes between the tree and taxonomy?

ex: taxonomy placed species in a genus where it's not most closely related reason: over course of evolution, a species lost a key feature shared by relatives (DNA reveals this and org is reclassified)

Breeders can increase the _____ in a population by introducing _____, which are the ultimate source of biological diversity. A. genetic variation; mutations B. genetic variation; inbreeding C. enzymes; mutations D. selective breeding; inbreeding

genetic variation; mutations

Non-specific internal defenses-

inflammatory response- second line, mast cells produce histamine...when something not self, search for invaders, bring WBCs to area (fluid) cellular innate defenses- leukocytes, phagocytes---macrophages are big eaters, guards that don't travel natural killer cells--recognize absense of MHC and kills other human cells dendritic--"bridge",, WBC that stimulates nect line of defense engulf, with lysosome and display part on outside

negative feedback

information that decreases a regulatory response, returning the system to set point

How do scientists avoid ambiguity when naming species and animals/organisms?

latin scientific names first part- genus to which species belongs second part- specific epithet, which is unique to species within a genus Panthera pardus--italicized Homo sapiens Genus is homo species is homo sapiens

punctuated equilibrium

long periods of apparent stasis, in which species undergoes little or no morphological change, interrupted by relatively brief periods of sudden change

Hypothalamus-

part of brain aboce roof of mouth, acts as a thermostat...increase, on sweat or vasilodil...decrease, off, goosebumps vasioconstrivtion

growth and reg in plants and animals-

plants- hormones, control growth pattern..flower animals- homeostatic development

Env Resp in Plants vs Animals

plants- photoreceptors, detect light animals- pathways

imagine a population of frogs in a tropical rain forest whose habitat has been reduced to the point where only 25 frogs survive. this is an example of

population bottlenecks

hybrid breakdown

postzygotic barrier // first generation hybrids are viable and fertile, but when they mate with one another or with the parental species the offspring of the next generation are feeble and may even be sterile

reduces hybrid fertility

postzygotic barrier // hybrids may be sterile, if chromosomes of two parent species differ in number or structure meiosis in hybrids may fail to produce normal gametes, if infertile hybrids can't produce offspring then genes can't flow freely between species

behavioral isolation

prezygotic mechanism // courtship rituals that attract mates other behaviors unique to a species are effective reproductive barriers, even between closely related species

habitat isolation

prezygotic mechanism // two species that occupy different habitats within the same area may encounter each other rarely, even though not isolated by physcical barriers

Thermoregulation-

process by which organisms maintain tolerable internal temperature

feedback information

reading on speedometer

Which of the following are directly associated with photosystem I?

receiving electrons from the thylakoid membrane electron transport chain

Nervous Tissues

reception processing and transmission of info, in the brain glia support nerve cells, nourish replenish and insulate neurons

paracrine pathway-

secreted molecules diffuse locally and trigger resp in neighboring cells ex: developing and embryogensis

correct order of structures from when sperm pass to when ejaculation produces

seminiferous tubules, epididymis, vas deferens, urethra

What is interstitial fluid and how does it aid with exchange of materials?

spaces between cells are filled with this fluid exchange between intersitial fluid and circulatory fluid enables cells in body to obtain nutrients and get rid of waste

gametic isolation

sperm of one species may not be able to fertilize egg of another species because sperm may not be able to survive in reproductive tract, may not be able to fertilize egg, etc

When oxygen is released as a result of photosynthesis, it is a direct by-product of

splitting water molecules.

metabolic rate-

sum of all the energy (calories) and organism uses in a unit of time

Elongation of translation

tRNA brings amino acids to the ribosome and a polypeptide chain is formed

two different species of pine release their pollen at different times. this is an example of

temporal isolation

Some of Darwin's most important discoveries were based on studies of birds captured in

the Galapagos Islands