AP2 Lecture Test 4
During the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle: a. progesterone levels rise and estrogen levels fall. b. developing follicles secrete estradiol. c. the combination of GnRH and elevated progesterone levels stimulates LH secretion. d. the follicular phase ends when FSH stimulates some secondary follicles to develop into tertiary follicles.
b
In which region of the nephron is tubular fluid first formed? a. nephron loop b. proximal convoluted tubule c. distal convoluted tubule d. renal corpuscle
b
Menstruation is triggered by a drop in the levels of a. FSH. b. progesterone. c. LH. d. relaxin. e. inhibin.
b
The bulbo-urethral glands: a. contribute about 60 percent of the volume of semen. b. secrete a thick, alkaline mucus that helps neutralize any urinary acids. c. encircle the proximal portion of the urethra. d. produce 20-30 percent of the volume of semen.
b
As the filtrate passes through the renal tubules, approximately what percentage is reabsorbed and returned to the circulation? a. 1 b. 74 c. 99 d. 63 e. 38
c
Angiotensin II has what effect on the CNS? (Module 24.9C) a. Angiotensin II triggers CNS responses including reducing thirst, reducing ADH production and reducing sympathetic motor tone. b. Angiotensin II suppresses the activity of the CNS including increasing thirst, increasing ADH production and increasing sympathetic motor tone. c. Angiotensin II has little effect on the CNS but activates the PNS. d. Angiotensin II triggers CNS responses including increasing thirst, increasing ADH production and increasing sympathetic motor tone. e. Angiotensin II suppresses the activity of the CNS including reducing thirst, reducing ADH production and reducing sympathetic motor tone.
d
The principal hormone secreted by the corpus luteum is a. FSH. b. luteosterone. c. LH. d. progesterone. e. estrogen.
d
The surge in luteinizing hormone that occurs during the middle of the ovarian cycle triggers a. follicle maturation. b. atresia. c. menopause. d. ovulation. e. menstruation.
d
Countercurrent multiplication takes place in the a. glomerulus. b. distal convoluted tubule. c. collecting duct. d. glomerular capsule. e. nephron loop.
e
The DCT secretes hydrogen ions in exchange for sodium ions by the process of a. facilitated diffusion. b. osmosis. c. cotransport. d. diffusion. e. energy-dependent exchange pump.
e
The amount of filtrate produced by the kidneys each minute is called the a. corpuscular output. b. net filtration pressure. c. filtration ratio. d. autoregulation capacity. e. glomerular filtration rate.
e
Although other nutrients can feed into the citric acid cycle, ________ yields energy the quickest. A. glucose B. fat C. protein D. glycogen E. All of the answers yield energy at the same rate.
A
The conversion of ammonia into a less toxic substance produces A. urea. B. nitrate. C. ketone bodies. D. water. E. acetyl-CoA.
A
Define beta-oxidation. (Module 23.11A) A. glucose catabolism B. fatty acid catabolism C. fatty acid anabolism D. glycogen catabolism E. glucose anabolism
B
The energy stored in ATP comes from which of the following? A. kinetic energy B. food molecules C. adenosine triphosphate D. heat
B
A rise in the blood levels of follicle-stimulating hormone at the beginning of the ovarian cycle is responsible for a. follicle maturation. b. atresia. c. ovulation. d. menstruation. e. menopause.
a
Choose the correct statement regarding glycolysis. A. There is a net gain of two ATP molecules for each glucose molecule. B. It occurs in the mitochondrion. C. NAD accepts carbon atoms that can be transferred to mitochondria. D. It is an aerobic process that breaks down a six-carbon glucose molecule into two three-carbon molecules of pyruvate.
A
Describe the role that hydrogen ion channels play in the generation of ATP. (Module 23.5C) A. They allow hydrogen ions to diffuse from the intermembrane space into the matrix to power ATP synthase. B. They allow oxygen to diffuse into the mitochondrial matrix. C. They act as cytochromes in the electron transport chain. D. They allow hydrogen ions to diffuse into the intermembrane space to power ATP synthase. E. They allow hydrogen ions and electrons to pass from one cytochrome to another along the chain.
A
In oxidative phosphorylation, energy for the synthesis of ATP is directly obtained from the A. movement of hydrogen ions through channels in the inner mitochondrial membrane. B. splitting of oxygen molecules. C. breaking of the covalent bonds in glucose. D. combination of two atoms of hydrogen and one atom of oxygen to form water. E. oxidation of acetyl-CoA.
A
The largest lipoproteins, ________, are produced by intestinal epithelial cells from the fats in food. A. chylomicrons B. low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) C. very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDLs) D. high-density lipoproteins (HDLs) E. intermediate-density lipoproteins (IDLs)
A
What is the definition of metabolism? A. The sum of all chemical reactions, both breakdown and build-up reactions. B. The breakdown of larger molecules into smaller molecules. C. The synthesis of more complex molecules from simple molecules or atoms. D. The rate of a chemical reaction is equal in the forward and reverse directions.
A
Which of the following is not a product of cellular respiration? A. oxygen (O2) B. water (H2O) C. ATP D. carbon dioxide (CO2)
A
Which of the following molecules is broken down in cellular respiration, providing fuel for the cell? A. glucose B. ATP C. water D. oxygen
A
Which step of glucose metabolism yields the greater amount of ATP? A. electron transport system B. citric acid cycle C. glycolysis D. glycolysis + citric acid cycle E. None of the answers is correct.
A
Which energy-rich molecule produced by cellular respiration directly powers cell work? A. glucose B. ATP C. water D. oxygen
B
Which of the following processes takes place in the cytosol of a eukaryotic cell? A. electron transport chain B. glycolysis C. acetyl CoA formation D. ATP production by ATP synthase E. citric acid cycle
B
Which statement describes the citric acid cycle? A. This process joins 2 pyruvic acid molecules into a molecule of glucose. B. This process produces some ATP and carbon dioxide in the mitochondrion. C. This process splits glucose in half and produces 2 ATPs for each glucose. D. This process converts pyruvic acid to acetyl CoA. E. This process uses energy captured from electrons flowing to oxygen to produce most of the ATPs in cellular respiration.
B
Compare catabolism and anabolism. A. Catabolism uses ATP, whereas anabolism generate ATP. B. Catabolism is the buildup of large molecules from smaller building blocks, whereas anabolism is the breakdown of large molecules into smaller ones. C. Catabolism is the breakdown of large molecules into smaller ones, whereas anabolism is buildup of large molecules from smaller building blocks. D. Catabolism is the sum of the chemical reactions in an individual cell, whereas anabolism is the sum of all chemical reactions in the body. E. Catabolism is the sum of all chemical reactions in the body, whereas anabolism is the sum of the chemical reactions in an individual cell.
C
How is ATP used in our bodies? A. It is converted to ADP for storage and later use. B. ATP is used to make potential energy. C. The energy released from ATP is converted into kinetic energy to do work D.It is used to create more energy.
C
Urea is formed in the A. stomach. B. kidneys. C. liver. D. large intestine. E. small intestine.
C
What is the correct general equation for cellular respiration? A. 6 CO2 + 6 H2O + ATP energy → C6H12O6 + 6 O2 B. C6H12O6 + 6 H2O → 6 CO2 + 6 O2 + ATP energy C. C6H12O6 + 6 O2 → 6 CO2 + 6 H2O + ATP energy D. 6 O2 + 6 H2O + ATP energy → C6H12O6 + 6 CO2 E. C6H12O6 + 6 CO2 → 6 O2 + 6 H2O + ATP energy
C
Which of the following contains the most energy that can be used to make ATP? A. 1 gram of muscle B. 1 gram of protein C. 1 gram of fat D. 1 gram of carbohydrate
C
Which statement describes glycolysis? A. This process uses energy captured from electrons flowing to oxygen to produce most of the ATPs in cellular respiration. B. This process produces some ATP and carbon dioxide in the mitochondrion. C. This process splits glucose in half and produces 2 ATPs for each glucose. D. This process converts pyruvic acid to acetyl CoA. E. This process joins 2 pyruvic acid molecules into a molecule of glucose.
C
Which statement regarding amino acid metabolism is true? A. When broken down in the mitochondrion, the energy yield of an amino acid is negligible. B. The body synthesizes all 10 essential amino acids. C. The removal of the amino group is the first step in amino acid catabolism. D. Liver cells must break down amino acids into urea, a toxic compound.
C
Explain when glycolysis is important in cellular metabolism. (Module 23.6B) A. When beta-oxidation no longer produces sufficient ATP to fuel the cellular metabolism. B. When gluconeogenesis has decreased then glycolysis becomes important. C. When glucose is only fuel source. D. When ATP must be produced anaerobically. E. When ATP must be produced aerobically.
D
Glycolysis breaks down glucose into what? A. citric acid B. NAD•H C. phosphate D. pyruvate E. glutaraldehyde
D
In what organelle would you find acetyl CoA formation, the citric acid cycle, and the electron transport chain? A. chloroplast B. nucleus C. lysosome D. mitochondrion E. Golgi apparatus
D
List the products of glycolysis. (Module 23.3A) A. 2 molecules of pyruvate, 2 molecules of ADP, 4 molecules of NADH2 B. molecules of pyruvate, 4 molecules of ATP, 4 molecules of NADH1 C. molecule of pyruvate, 2 molecules of ATP, 2 molecules of NADH2 D. molecules of pyruvate, 2 molecules of ATP, 2 molecules of NADH2 E. molecules of pyruvate, 2 molecules of ATP, 4 molecules of NADH
D
Select the correct sequence of steps as energy is extracted from glucose during cellular respiration. A. glycolysis → citric acid cycle → acetyl CoA → electron transport chain B. acetyl CoA → citric acid cycle → electron transport chain → glycolysis C. citric acid cycle → electron transport chain → glycolysis → acetyl CoA D. glycolysis → acetyl CoA → citric acid cycle → electron transport chain E. electron transport chain → citric acid cycle → glycolysis → acetyl CoA
D
What two coenzymes transfer hydrogen atoms to the electron transport chain? (Module 23.4C) A. ADP and GDP B. NADP and FAD C. pyruvate and acetyl CoA D. NAD and FAD E. ATP and GTP
D
Briefly describe the citric acid cycle, and explain its role. (Module 23.4A) A. The breakdown of glucose into pyruvate to provide ATP for the cell. B. The regeneration of ATP from ADP to provide high energy molecules to fuel cellular activities. C. The conversion of pyruvate into acetyl-CoA to allow it to enter the mitochondrial matrix. D. To establish the proton gradient used to make ATP. E. The breakdown of organic molecules to release hydrogen atoms bound to coenzymes that can enter the electron transport chain
E
Describe the roles of LDLs and HDLs. (Module 23.10C) A. LDLs absorb unused bile and return it to the liver and LDLs deliver bile to the small intestine. B. LDLs deliver bile to the small intestine and HDLs absorb unused bile and return it to the liver. C. LDLs deliver excess cholesterol to adipocytes and HDLs remove excess cholesterol from adipocytes. D. LDLs absorb unused cholesterol and return it to the liver and HDLs deliver cholesterol to tissues. E. LDLs deliver cholesterol to tissues and HDLs absorb unused cholesterol and return it to the liver.
E
Explain the role of glycogen in cellular metabolism. (Module 23.9B) A. It is the primary fuel that enters the citric acid cycle. B. It is the primary fuel that enters glycolysis. C. It can easily be converted to other non-carbohydrate fuel sources. D. It is the primary fuel that enters the electron transport chain. E. It serves as an intracellular glucose reserve.
E
Identify when most of the CO2 is released during the complete catabolism of glucose. (Module 23.6A) A. preparatory step B. electron transport chain C. Calvin cycle D. glycolysis E. citric acid cycle
E
Of all the energy released in catabolism, about ________ percent is lost as heat which warms the surrounding tissues. A. 20 B. 80 C. 40 D. 10 E. 60
E
Which statement describes the electron transport chain? A. This process joins 2 pyruvic acid molecules into a molecule of glucose. B. This process produces some ATP and carbon dioxide in the mitochondrion. C. This process splits glucose in half and produces 2 ATPs for each glucose. D. This process converts pyruvic acid to acetyl CoA. E. This process uses energy captured from electrons flowing to oxygen to produce most of the ATPs in cellular respiration.
E
Describe how blood enters and leaves the glomerulus. (Module 24.5B) a. Blood enters by the afferent arteriole and leaves by the efferent arteriole. b. Blood enters by the cortical radiate arteries and leaves by the cortical radiate veins. c. Blood enters by the renal artery and leaves by the renal vein. d. Blood enters by the interlobar arteries and leaves by the interlobar veins. e. Blood enters by the segmental arteries and leaves by the segmental veins.
a
During the luteal phase of the ovarian cycle, __________. a. progesterone secretion by the corpus luteum stimulates endometrial growth and secretion b. FSH levels decline due to the negative feedback effects of inhibin c. the combination of GnRH and elevated estrogen levels inhibits LH secretion d. a precipitous decrease in LH level triggers the completion of meiosis I by the primary oocyte
a
Explain why blood pressure is higher in glomerular capillaries than in other systemic capillaries. (Module 24.8B) a. Blood pressure is higher in glomerular capillaries because the efferent arteriole has a smaller diameter than the afferent arteriole. b. Blood pressure is higher in glomerular capillaries because less proteins enter the afferent arterioles. c. Blood pressure is higher in glomerular capillaries because the distal convoluted tubule constricts the afferent arteriole. d. Blood pressure is higher in glomerular capillaries because the efferent arteriole drains into peritubular capillaries. e. Blood pressure is higher in glomerular capillaries because the kidneys are in close proximity to the renal arteries.
a
The granulosa cells of developing follicles work with thecal cells to produce a. estrogens. b. GnRH. c. LH. d. FSH. e. progesterone.
a
The male gonad is called a(n) a. testis. b. ductus. c. scrotum. d. spermatid. e. epididymis.
a
Which of the following is greater? a. the number of primordial follicles in the ovaries at birth b. the number of primordial follicles in the ovaries at puberty
a
Which of the following is not a function of the urinary system? A) excretes abundant protein molecules B) regulates blood volume C) contributes to stabilizing blood pH D) eliminates organic waste productsE) regulates plasma concentrations of electrolytes
a
A boy has a genetic mutation such that FSH is not produced, but LH is normal. After the boy grows to maturity, it is likely he will a. not develop secondary sex characteristics. b. be sterile. c. be impotent. d. produce large amounts of inhibin. e. have impaired function of the interstitial cells.
b
A glomerulus is A) the expanded end of a nephron. B) a knot of capillaries within the renal corpuscle. C) the middle segment of the renal tubule. D) attached to the collecting duct. E) the horseshoe-shaped segment of the nephron.
b
An increase in sodium and chloride ions in the peritubular fluid affects the descending thin limb in what way? (Module 24.11C) a. When the osmotic concentration around the peritubular fluid increases around the descending limb the result is secretion of hydrogen ions. b. When the osmotic concentration around the peritubular fluid increases around the descending limb the result is an increased osmotic outflow of water. c. When the osmotic concentration around the peritubular fluid increases around the descending limb the result is secretion of potassium ions. d. When the osmotic concentration around the peritubular fluid increases around the descending limb the result is a decreased osmotic outflow of water. e. When the osmotic concentration around the peritubular fluid increases around the descending limb the result is reabsorption of potassium ions.
b
Define oocyte. (Module 26.10A) a. Oocyte is the nest a gamete develops in. b. Oocyte is an immature female gamete. c. Oocyte is the empty follicle after ovulation. d. Oocyte is the stage of a female gamete during ovulation. e. Oocyte is a mature female gamete.
b
Describe filtrate. (Module 24.4A) A) similar to blood plasma B) similar to blood plasma without proteins C) similar to blood plasma without proteins, hormones, glucose, and amino acids D) similar to cerebrospinal fluid E) similar to cerebrospinal fluid without proteins
b
Eighty-five percent of nephrons in the human kidney are located in the ________ and have short nephron loops. a. medulla b. cortex c. renal pelvis d. renal columns e. fibrous capsule
b
In response to increased levels of aldosterone, the kidneys produce a. urine with less glucose. b. urine with a lower concentration of sodium ions. c. urine with a lower concentration of potassium ions. d. urine with a higher concentration of sodium ions. e. a larger volume of urine.
b
The efferent arteriole of a nephron divides to form a network of capillaries within the cortex called the ________ capillaries. a. cortical b. peritubular c. vasa recta d. efferent e. glomerular
b
The nephron loops of juxtamedullary nephrons have an important function that other parts of the nephron do not share. What is this function? a. reabsorption of water and ions b. establishing the concentration gradient in the renal medulla c. reabsorption of glucose d. secretion of drugs and toxins
b
The pituitary hormone that stimulates the interstitial cells to secrete testosterone is a. ADH. b. LH. c. ACTH. d. GH. e. FSH.
b
Urine passes, in the order given, through which of the following structures? a. renal pelvis, collecting duct, bladder, ureter, urethra b. collecting duct, renal pelvis, ureter, bladder, urethra c. renal pelvis, urethra, bladder, ureter, collecting duct d. collecting duct, renal pelvis, urethra, bladder, ureter e. collecting duct, ureter, renal pelvis, urethra, bladder
b
What is the final product of meiosis? a. 2 haploid cells b. 4 haploid cells c. 4 diploid cells d. 2 diploid cells
b
What is the function of the ductus deferens? (Module 26.5A) a. produces sperm and secretes testosterone b. stores sperm and transports sperm to the ejaculatory duct c. produces alkaline, mucus secretions d. carry fluid from the seminal gland and ampulla to the urethra e. secretes the majority of semen
b
What is the role of nurse cells? (Module 26.4C) a. Nurse cells secrete androgens. b. Nurse cells create a microenvironment that supports spermatogenesis and form the blood testis barrier that isolates sperm from the blood. c. Nurse cells undergo spermatogenesis to become mature sperm. d. Nurse cells produce testosterone. e. Nurse cells undergo synapsis to create secondary spermatocytes.
b
What portion of the spermatozoon contains the enzymes necessary for fertilization? a. head b. acrosome c. flagellum d. middle piece
b
Which of the following is greater? a. the concentration of solute in the filtrate at the beginning of the nephron loop b. the concentration of solute in the filtrate at the bottom of the nephron loop c. The concentrations at the top and bottom are identical.
b
Which structure of the kidney functions to reabsorb nutrients from the filtrate? a. the renal pelvis b. the proximal convoluted tubule c. minor calyx d. the glomerulus e. the collecting system
b
________ is the process of sloughing off the old functional layer of the endometrium. a. Perimenopause b. Menstruation c. Menopause d. Menarche e. Ovulation
b
Identify the structures of the renal corpuscle. (Module 24.4B) A) glomerular capsule and the proximal convoluted tubule B) collecting duct and papillary duct C) glomerular capsule and glomerulus D) proximal convoluted tubule and distal convoluted tubule E) glomerular capsule and nephron loop
c
In which direction do fluids and solutes move in each of the three kidney processes? (Module 24.6A) a. During filtration, fluids move from the glomerular capillaries into the capsular space; during reabsorption, fluids move from the peritubular fluid into the tubular fluid; during secretion, fluids move from the tubular fluid into the peritubular fluid. b. During filtration, fluids move from the peritubular fluid into the tubular fluid; during reabsorption, fluids move from the glomerular capillaries into the capsular space; during secretion, fluids move from the tubular fluid into the peritubular fluid. c. During filtration, fluids move from the glomerular capillaries into the capsular space; during reabsorption, fluids move from the tubular fluid into the peritubular fluid; during secretion, fluids move from the peritubular fluid into the tubular fluid. d. During filtration, fluids move from the tubular fluid into the peritubular fluid; during reabsorption, fluids move from the peritubular fluid into the tubular fluid; during secretion, fluids move from the glomerular capillaries into the capsular space. e. During filtration, fluids move from the peritubular fluid into the tubular fluid; during reabsorption, fluids move from the tubular fluid into the peritubular fluid; during secretion, fluids move from the glomerular capillaries into the capsular space.
c
Name the specialized smooth muscle of the urinary bladder, and describe its function. (Module 24.16C) a. The trigone muscle compresses the bladder and expels the urine into the urethra. b. The bulbospongiosus muscle compresses the bladder and expels the urine into the urethra. c. The detrusor muscle compresses the bladder and expels the urine into the urethra. d. The lateral umbilical ligaments compresses the bladder and expels the urine into the urethra. e. The middle umbilical ligament compresses the bladder and expels the urine into the urethra.
c
The structure that transports the ovum to the uterus is the a. vagina. b. myometrium. c. uterine tube. d. infundibulum. e. uterosacral ligament.
c
The thick ascending limb of the nephron loop actively pumps what substances into the peritubular fluid? (Module 24.11B) a. water b. sodium and potassium ions c. sodium and chloride ions d. potassium ions e. sodium and hydrogen ions
c
What is the function of countercurrent multiplication? a. To increase the flow of fluids and solutes through the nephron to increase urine volume. b. To reduce the reabsorption of solutes in the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT). c. To create a concentration gradient in the renal medulla that permits the production of concentrated urine. d. To decrease the blood flow to the juxtamedullary nephrons.
c
When the pH of body fluids decreases, which of the following are secreted in exchange for sodium ions reabsorbed in the distal convoluted tubule? a. potassium ions b. glucose c. hydrogen ions d. toxins and drugs
c
Which ovarian structure remains in a state of suspended development until the individual reaches puberty? a. polar body b. oogonia c. primary oocyte d. secondary oocyte
c
Which structure filters the blood? a. collecting duct b. nephron loop c. renal corpuscle d. proximal convoluted tubule
c
Within which structure does sperm production occur? a. efferent duct b. ulerete c. testis d. seminiferous tubule e. spermatic cord
c
Define countercurrent multiplication as it occurs in the kidneys. (Module 24.11A) a. The secretion of ions in response to hormones in the distal convoluted tubule. b. The exchange of substances in the adjacent limbs of the nephron loop containing fluid moving in the same directions. c. The bulk reabsorption of substances in the proximal convoluted tubule and the bulk movement of water due to osmosis. d. The exchange of substances in the adjacent limbs of the nephron loop containing fluid moving in opposite directions. e. The cycling of urea from the collecting duct to the nephron loop and back.
d
Describe the three layers of the uterine wall. (Module 26.11B) a. The endometrium is the middle, muscular layer; the myometrium is the inner, glandular layer; the perimetrium is the outer, incomplete serosal layer. b. The endometrium is the outer, incomplete serosal layer; the myometrium is the inner, muscular layer; the perimetrium is the middle, glandular layer. c. The endometrium is the outer, muscular layer; the myometrium is the middle, incomplete serosal layer; the perimetrium is the inner, glandular layer. d. The endometrium is the inner, glandular layer; the myometrium is the middle, muscular layer; the perimetrium is the outer, incomplete serosal layer. e. The endometrium is the outer, glandular layer; the myometrium is the middle, muscular layer; the perimetrium is the inner, incomplete serosal layer.
d
Formation of angiotensin I is triggered by ______. a. ADH b. aldosterone c. angiotensin II d. renin
d
How does the urethra differ between males and females? (Module 24.15C) a. The male urethra is shorter. b. The male urethra is longer. c. The male urethra is the same length as the female but also transports semen. d. The male urethra is longer and also transports semen. e. The male urethra is shorter and also transports semen.
d
In which portion of the nephron and collecting system does the most reabsorption occur? a. distal convoluted tubule b. collecting duct c. nephron loop d. proximal convoluted tubule
d
The left kidney lies ________ to the right kidney. a. slightly inferior b. slightly posterior c. slightly transverse d. slightly superior e. slightly ipsilateral
d
The primary role of FSH in males is to a. develop and maintain secondary sex characteristics. b. stimulate the interstitial cells to produce testosterone. c. stimulate the nurse cells to produce inhibin. d. initiate sperm production in the testes. e. influence sexual behaviors and sex drive.
d
The process of filtration is driven by a. blood colloid osmotic pressure. b. facilitated diffusion. c. active transport. d. glomerular hydrostatic pressure. e. renal pumping.
d
What effect does an increase in ADH levels have on the DCT? (Module 24.12C) a. Increased ADH will decrease the number of aquaporins in the DCT which decreases water reabsorption and reduces urine volume. b. Increased ADH will increase the number of aquaporins in the DCT which increases water reabsorption and increases urine volume. c. Increased ADH will decrease the number of aquaporins in the DCT which increases water reabsorption and reduces urine volume. d. Increased ADH will increase the number of aquaporins in the DCT which increases water reabsorption and reduces urine volume. e. Increased ADH will increase the number of aquaporins in the DCT which decreases water reabsorption and reduces urine volume.o
d
What is the function of gonads? a. produce gametes b. transport gametes c. produce hormones d. produce gametes and produce hormones e. None of the answers is correct.
d
What roles do the ovaries perform? (Module 26.9B) a. produce oocytes, anchor and support the uterus structurally, and act as the site for fertilization b. produce oocytes and provide the site for fetal development c. secrete female and male sex hormones and secrete catecholamines d. produce oocytes, secrete female sex hormones, secrete inhibin e. secrete FSH and LH to control female reproductive cycles
d
When the level of ADH (antidiuretic hormone) decreases, a. less urine is produced. b. the osmolarity of the urine decreases. c. more urine is produced. d. both more urine is produced and the osmolarity of the urine decreases. e. both less urine is produced and the osmolarity of the urine decreases.
d
Which event correctly occurs under maximum ADH stimulation? a. Facultative water reabsorption occurs in the PCT. b. Obligatory water reabsorption occurs in the DCT. c. The DCT and collecting system become impermeable to water. d. The DCT and collecting system become more permeable to water.
d
Which male accessory organ functions as the site of sperm maturation? a. urethra b. ductus deferens c. prostate gland d. epididymis
d
Which of the following processes occurs during meiosis II? a. the formation of tetrads b. the formation of secondary spermatocytes c. the formation of diploid cells d. the formation of haploid cells
d
Which of the tubules is impermeable to water? a. distal convoluted tubule b. descending limb of the nephron loop c. proximal convoluted tubule d. ascending limb of the nephron loop e. None of the answers is correct. All of the tubules are water-permeable.
d
One mechanism the kidney uses to raise systemic blood pressure is to a. increase filtration into glomerular (Bowman's) capsule. b. decrease urinary albumin concentration. c. increase release of angiotensin II by the suprarenal glands. d. decrease secretion of aldosterone. e. increase secretion of renin by the juxtaglomerular complex.
e
The functional unit of the kidney is the a. collecting duct. b. renal sinus. c. kidney lobe. d. calyx. e. nephron.
e
The most abundant waste solute in urine is a. creatinine. b. protein. c. potassium. d. uric acid. e. urea.
e
The organ that surrounds the urethra and secretes an antibiotic protein is the a. seminal gland (seminal vesicle). b. Bartholin's gland. c. bulbourethral gland. d. vestibular gland. e. prostate gland.
e
What does the juxtaglomerular complex do in response to decreased filtration pressure? (Module 24.9B) a. It decreases ADH production and release. b. It decreases renin production and release. c. It increases aldosterone production and release. d. It increases ADH production and release. e. It increases renin production and release.
e
What effect would increased amounts of aldosterone have on the K+ concentration in urine? (Module 24.10B) a. It would decrease the K+ concentration in urine because Na+ is retained. b. It would not affect K+ concentration in the urine because Cl- is exchanged for Na+. c. It would decrease the K+ concentration in urine because Na+ is secreted with it. d. It would increase the K+ concentration in urine because Na+ is secreted with it. e. It would increase the K+ concentration in urine because Na+ is retained.
e
Which of the following substances is not secreted A) hydrogen. B) penicillin. C) creatinine. D) potassium ions. E) glucose.
e