AS 221 Unit 1

During a skidding turn to the right, what is the relationship between the component of lift, centrifugal force, and load factor?

Centrifugal force is greater than horizontal lift and the load factor is increased.

During coordinated turns, which force moves the pendulous vanes of a vacuum-driven attitude indicator resulting in precession of the gyro toward the inside of the turn?

Centrifugal.

What is the flight attitude? One instrument has malfunctioned (Fig. 150)

Climbing turn to the right.

The rod/cones are used during day flight.

Cones

What is attitude instrument flying?

Control of an aircrafts positions by using instruments rather than visual references

Who is responsible for monitoring the GPS satellite constellation?

DOD

Which clearance items are always given in an abbreviated IFR departure clearance? (Assume radar environment.)

Destination airport, altitude, DP Name, Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

What is the first priority when an unusual attitude is identified?

Determine how to get back to straight and level as quickly as possible

What is the greatest resistor to radio waves?

Earth

The "ILS critical area boundary" sign identifies the

Edge of the ILS critical area.

Another name for "Glass flight deck" is

Electronic flight instrument display

Giving too much credit to any single instrument can allow and instrument to fail without notice and is called ___________.

Emphasis

Human factors is a broad field that examines the interaction between People, machines and the _____________.

Environment

The 4 step attitude change process is:

Establish, Trim, Cross-Check, Adjust

Which sense is the most important in providing information to maintain safe flight?

Eye

Electronic database of worldwide navigational data including NAVAIDS, airways, SIDs, IAPs, and STARs are use by___________ to create a flight plan.

FMS

What is the primary means for routing IFR aircraft?

Federal Airway System

Staring at one instrument for any period of time is called ____________.

Fixation

The control element is __________.

Ground based monitoring and control stations

What else can the VOR be used for beyond navigation?

Ground-to-air communication

The rate of turn at any airspeed is dependent upon

Horizontal lift component.

Which of the following indications would a pilot see while approaching to land on a runway served by a 2-bar VASI?

If departing to the high side of the glidepath, the far bars will change from red to white.

Pitot pressure measures:

Impact air pressure

Under what condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter setting of 29.92" Hg?

In colder than standard air temperature.

What changes in control displacement should be made so that "1" would result in a coordinated standard rate turn?

Increase right rudder and increase rate of turn.

What is the definition of calibrated airspeed?

Indicated airspeed corrected for installation and instrument errors

What does the miniature aircraft of the turn coordinator display?

Initially rate of bank and then directly rate of turn.

Aircraft equipped with certain ADS-B capabilities can receive information such as

Instant speed changes of other aircraft and NOTAMs

What is the first fundamental skill in attitude instrument flying?

Instrument cross-check.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND..."?

It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000

What is the flight attitude? One instrument has malfunctioned.

Level turn to the right.

What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time?

Light quartering tailwind.

Which types of airspace are depicted on the En Route Low Altitude Chart?

Limits of controlled airspace, military training routes, and special use airspace.

What does the ATC term "Radar Contact" signify?

Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight-following will be provided until radar identification is terminated.

When the CDI needle begins to deviate side to side where is the aircraft?

Zone of Confusion

Somatogravic Illusion

a rapid acceleration

Conditions that determine pitch attitude required to maintain level flight are

airspeed, air density, wing design, and angle of attack.

Hand-held GPS systems, and GPS systems certified for VFR operation, may be used during IFR operations as

an aid to situational awareness.

The "runway hold position" sign denotes

an entrance to a runway from a taxiway.

While cruising at 160 knots, you wish to establish a climb at 130 knots. When entering the climb (full panel), it is proper to make the initial pitch change by increasing back elevator pressure until the

attitude indicator shows the approximate pitch attitude appropriate for the 130-knot climb.

The local altimeter setting should be used by all pilots in a particular area, primarily to provide for

better vertical separation of aircraft.

When an aircraft is accelerated, some attitude indicators will precess and incorrectly indicate a

climb.

You have not yet been cleared for the approach, but you are being vectored to the ILS approach course. It is clear that you will pass through the localizer course unless you take action. You should

continue as assigned and query ATC.

Primary flight displays

include instruments like the attitude indicator.

If the outside air temperature increases during a flight at constant power and at a constant indicated altitude, the true airspeed will

increase and true altitude will increase.

The displacement of a turn coordinator during a coordinated turn will

increase as angle of bank increases.

To maintain a standard rate turn as the airspeed increases, the bank angle of the aircraft will need to

increase.

As a rule of thumb, altitude corrections of less than 100 feet should be corrected by using

less than a full bar width on the attitude indicator.

If an approach is being made to a runway that has an operating 3-bar VASI and all the VASI lights appear red as the airplane reaches the MDA, the pilot should

level off momentarily to intercept the proper approach path.

If the pitot tube ram air pressure hole and drain hole become obstructed, the airspeed indicator will operate

like an altimeter as the aircraft climbs and descends.

The lighter workloads associated with glass (digital) flight instrumentation

may lead to complacency by the flightcrew.

If a 180° steep turn is made to the right and the aircraft is rolled out to straight-and-level flight by visual references, the attitude indicator

may show a slight climb and turn.

You check the flight instruments while taxiing and find the vertical speed indicator (VSI) indicates a descent of 100 feet per minute. In this case, you

may take off under IFR and use 100 feet descent as the zero indication.

Prior to starting an engine, you should check the turn-and-slip indicator to determine if the

needle is approximately centered and the tube is full of fluid.

A handheld GPS is

not authorized for IFR use.

An abbreviated departure clearance "...CLEARED AS FILED..." will always contain the name

of the destination airport filed in the flight plan.

Wake turbulence is near maximum behind a jet transport just after takeoff because

of the high angle of attack and high gross weight.

Approximately what percent of the indicated vertical speed should be used to determine the number of feet to lead the level-off from a climb to a specific altitude?

10 percent

To level off at an airspeed higher than the descent speed, the addition of power should be made, assuming a 500 FPM rate of descent, at approximately

100 to 150 feet above the desired altitude.

When checking the sensitivity of a VOR receiver, the number of degrees in course change as the OBS is rotated to move the CDI from center to the last dot on either side should be between

10° and 12°.

What angular deviation from a VOR course centerline is represented by a full-scale deflection of the CDI?

10°.

To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "C" correspond? (Fig. 96 & 97)

12

To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "C" correspond? (fig. 98 & 99)

12

Flight watch can be contacted on what frequency?

122.0

The altitude transmitted by the transponder is required to be within ________ feet of altitude indicated on the instrument used to maintain flight altitude.

125

While flying at an altitude of 8,000 ft., what CAS must be used to maintain a TAS of 155 kt. if the outside air temperature is -5°C?

139 KCAS

The required instruments for IFR flight are prescribed by which regulation ...

14 CFR 91.205

What CAS must be used to maintain the filed TAS of 158 kt. at the flight planned altitude of 8,000 ft.? (Temperature 0°C.)

140 KCAS

To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "F" correspond? (Fig. 98 & 99)

16

Which OBS selection on the No. 1 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO?

165°.

To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "D" correspond? (Fig. 98 & 99)

17

Which OBS selection on the No. 2 NAV would center the CDI? (Fig. 95)

174°.

Which indications are acceptable tolerances when checking both VOR receivers by use of the VOT?

176° TO and 003° FROM, respectively.

Determine the approximate time and distance to a station if a 5° wingtip bearing change occurs in 1.5 minutes with a true airspeed of 95 knots.

18 minutes and 28.5 NM.

The vertical extent of the Class A airspace extends from

18,000 feet to and including FL 600.

Errors in both pitch and bank indication on an attitude indicator are usually at a maximum as the aircraft rolls out of a

180° turn.

VOR Ground Station accuracy is usually within how many degrees?

1⁰

The course selector of each aircraft is set on 360°. Which aircraft would have a FROM indication on the TO/FROM indicator and the CDI pointing left of center? (Fig. 106)

2

The eye has ____ blind spot(s).

2

An aircraft which is located 30 miles from a VOR station and shows a 1/2 scale deflection on the CDI would be how far from the selected course centerline?

2 1/2 miles.

Standard glideslope is ________.

2.5⁰-3.5⁰

For operations off established airways at 17,000 feet MSL in the contiguous U.S., (H) Class VORTAC facilities used to define a direct route of flight should be no farther apart than

200 NM.

When intercepting a radial what range should you keep the deflection angles between?

20⁰-90⁰

The speed limit below 10,000' MSL unless the airplane cannot fly that slow is ...

250 KIAS

The pressure altitude at a given location is indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is set to

29.92" Hg.

A VOR receiver with normal five-dot course sensitivity shows a three-dot deflection at 30 NM from the station. The aircraft would be displaced approximately how far from the course centerline?

3 NM.

A "Standard Rate" turn is _____ degrees per second making an entire 360 degree turn require ______ minute(s).

3 degrees | 2 minutes

How many satellites does the US GPS use?

30

When a VOR/DME is collocated under frequency pairings and the VOR portion is inoperative, the DME identifier will repeat at an interval of

30 second intervals at 1350 Hz

Airplane is heading 090 and ATC instructs the pilot to turn left to 360. The pilot's only directional reference is the magnetic compass due to the G-1000 failure. The pilot should roll out of the turn when the magnetic compass indicates ...

330

Which OBS selection on the No. 2 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO? (Fig. 95)

354°.

To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "F" correspond? (Fig. 96 & 97)

4

If a half-standard-rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 360°?

4 minutes.

VORs are usually able to provide coverage at least _____ nm from the station above minimum IFR altitudes.

40

The standard service volume for a low altitude (LVOR) is _______.

40 nm from 1000 feet up to 18000 feet

During a flight, the controller advises "traffic 2 o'clock 5 miles southbound." The pilot is holding 20° correction for a crosswind from the right. Where should the pilot look for the traffic?

40° to the right of the aircraft's nose.

En route at FL 290, your altimeter is set correctly, but you fail to reset it to the local altimeter setting of 30.26 in. Hg during descent. If the field elevation is 134 feet and your altimeter is functioning properly, what will it indicate after landing?

474 Feet MSL

While airborne, what is the maximum permissible variation between the two indicated bearings when checking one VOR system against the other?

4° between the two indicated bearings to a VOR.

What is the lateral displacement in degrees from the desired radial on the No. 2 NAV? (Fig. 95)

4°.

When completing a dual VOR check what is the maximum variation permissbale between the 2 VOR indications?

4⁰

What is the lateral displacement of the aircraft in NM from the radial selected on the No. 1 NAV? (Fig. 95)

5.0 NM.

If a standard-rate turn is maintained, how much time would be required to turn to the left from a heading of 090° to a heading of 300°?

50 seconds.

To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "E" correspond? (Fig. 98 & 99)

6

Trend indicators tell you what will be read in approximately _____ seconds

6

At an altitude of 6,500 feet MSL, the current altimeter setting is 30.42" Hg. The pressure altitude would be approximately

6,000 feet.

When setting the barometric scale how different may the indication be from the surveyed elevation of the airport before being sent to a repair station?

75 feet

To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation "E" correspond? (Fig. 96 & 97)

8 and 3.

You are planning an IFR flight off established airways below 18,000 feet MSL. If you use VOR navigation to define the route, the maximum distance between NAVAIDs should be

80 NM.

Some aspect of human factors now accounts for over ____ of all accidents.

80%

On what headings will the magnetic compass read most accurately during a level 360° turn, with a bank of approximately 15°?

90° and 270°.

False Horizon

A dark spread with ground lights and stars

Graveyard Spiral

A prolonged coordinated constant-rate turn which give the illusion of not turning

When climbing to a high altitude at night, oxygen deprivation can cause

A significant reduction in vision

Autokenisis

A stationary light will appear to move when stared at for many seconds

Information such as a moving map, instrument approach plates, and TAWS information can be found one the

MFD

Where are loss of signals most likely to occur?

Mountains and valleys

Coriolis Illusion

Movement of the head while in a steady turn

Which information is always given in an abbreviated departure clearance?

Name of destination airport or specific fix and altitude.

IS GPS approved in all countries?

No

If a flight director is in use can the pilot assume that the autopilot is engaged?

No

Is the heading of the aircraft relevant to the course indication provided by a VOR?

No

What indication should a pilot receive when a VOR station is undergoing maintenance and may be considered unreliable?

No coded identification, but possible navigation indications.

In which general direction from the VORTAC is the aircraft located? (Fig. 110)

Northeast.

What action should you take if your DME fails at FL 240?

Notify ATC of the failure and continue to the next airport of intended landing where repairs can be made.

What kind of information will the controllers NOT see on your data block?

Number of passengers

Forgetting to include instruments like the stand-by instruments in your scan is called _________.

Omission

In RNAV mode the DME ground speed is accurate ___________________.

On any track

Where can the VOT frequency for a particular airport be found?

Only in the Chart Supplement.

What is maintained through the body's sensory organs?

Orientation

What is the biggest problem associated with partial panel flying?

Over controlling the aircraft

Which of the following is a common VOR Operational Error?

Over/Undershooting Radials on interception

In a Technologically Advanced Aircraft, the pilot sees the flight instruments on what?

PFD.

Where can you find information to make corrections for configuration changes that may impact the static port?

POH/AFM

Altimeter, Airspeed and Vertical Speed Indictors give an aircraft's

Performance information

Who is responsible for the understanding of each GPS equipment used?

Pilot

What is the best place to find terms and definitions of aviation specific terms used on the radios?

Pilot/Controller Glossary

When weather becomes a concern pilots should _______________.

Plan for deviations as early as possible

When flying directly over a published airborne VOR checkpoint, what is the maximum error allowed for IFR flight?

Plus or minus 6° of the designated radial.

In order to guide pilots in planning and minimizing route changes what was been established?

Preferred IFR routes

Which altitude is indicated when the altimeter is set to 29.92" Hg?

Pressure

What altitude is displayed when the barometric scale is adjusted to 29.92" Hg?

Pressure altitude

Density altitude is

Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature

Which of the following defines the type of altitude used when maintaining FL 210?

Pressure.

One reason for having 2 static ports on in an aircraft is:

Prevention of lateral movement of the aircraft from giving erroneous static pressure indications.

What is the purpose of the Flight Director System?

Provide easily interpreted understanding of the aircrafts flight path

What are the primary benefits of satellite based area navigation (RNAV)?

Provides optimal routing and altitudes.

When reading a course from a station on a VOR this is called a:

Radial

What indications are displayed by the miniature aircraft of a turn coordinator?

Rate of roll and Rate of turn

The Vertical Speed Indicator provides what data

Rate-of-pressure change

What response is expected when ATC issues an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?

Read back those parts containing altitude assignments or vectors and any part requiring verification.

Automation in aircraft has proven

to present new hazards in its limitations

If you are departing from an airport where you cannot obtain an altimeter setting, you should set your altimeter

to the airport elevation.

Altimeter setting is the value to which the scale of the pressure altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates

true altitude at field elevation.

A "CRUISE FOUR THOUSAND FEET" clearance would mean that the pilot is authorized to

vacate 4,000 feet without notifying ATC.

When the CDI needle is centered during an airborne VOR check, the omni-bearing selector and the TO/FROM indicator should read

within 6° of the selected radial.

_______ and _______ are the same in standard atmosphere at sea level.

TAS and CAS

The main difference between TIS and TCAS is

TIS is ground based while TCAS is airborne based

Which airspace is defined as a transition area when designated in conjunction with an airport which has a prescribed IAP?

The Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet or more above the surface and terminating at the base of the overlying controlled airspace.

What is the meaning of a single coded identification received only once approximately every 30 seconds from a VORTAC?

The DME component is operative and the VOR component is inoperative.

What would be the indication on the VSI during entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level flight if the static ports were iced over?

The VSI pointer would remain at zero regardless of the actual rate of descent.

True airspeed (TAS) is

The actual speed of an airplane as it moves through undisturbed air

Reverse sensing using a conventional VOR indicator (OBS) can occur when ____________.

The aircraft heading and OBS selection are opposite

After passing a VORTAC, the CDI shows 1/2 scale deflection to the right. What is indicated if the deflection remains constant for a period of time?

The airplane is flying away from the radial.

A blockage of the static port could cause:

The altimeter to freeze at the blocked altitude

If an alternate static source is used the pilot can expect

The altimeter to show slightly higher than actual altitudes

If, while in level flight, it becomes necessary to use an alternate source of static pressure vented inside the airplane, which of the following variations in instrument indications should the pilot expect?

The altimeter will read higher than normal, airspeed greater than normal, and the VSI will momentarily show a climb.

Pressure altitude is

The altitude displayed when the altimeter is set to 29.92 in. Hg

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere?

The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a westerly heading in the Northern Hemisphere?

The compass will indicate the approximate correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth.

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from an easterly heading in the Northern Hemisphere?

The compass will indicate the approximate correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth.

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard-rate turn to the left from an east heading in the Northern Hemisphere?

The compass will indicate the approximate correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth.

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a northerly heading in the Northern Hemisphere?

The compass will initially indicate a turn to the left.

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the left from a north heading in the Northern Hemisphere?

The compass will initially indicate a turn to the right.

Isogonic lines represent

The difference between TRUE north and MAGNETIC north.

VOR station passage is indicated by

The first positive, complete reversal of the TO/FROM indicator

What causes the northerly turning error in a magnetic compass?

The magnetic dip characteristic.

The most critical period of an instrument approach is when the pilot must decide to land or _______________.

The most critical period of an instrument approach is when the pilot must decide to land or _______________.

What is the rule for a pilot receiving a "Land and Hold Short Operation (LAHSO) clearance?"

The pilot has the option to accept or reject all LAHSO clearances regardless of the meteorological conditions.

What is a lead radial?

The radial at which the final turn from the arc to the inbound course is initiated.

The user element is ______________.

The receivers on board the aircraft

The aneroid capsules measure the absolute pressure of the ambient air and displays it in terms of feet above __________

The selected pressure level

When making corrections using the cold temperature error table you should use

The temperature at the reporting station

If, while in level flight, it becomes necessary to use an alternate source of static pressure vented inside the airplane, which of the following should the pilot expect?

The vertical speed to momentarily show a climb.

Which is true of glass cockpits?

They enhance situational awareness.

Which report should be made to ATC without a specific request when not in radar contact?

When leaving final approach fix in bound on final approach.

Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude?

When standard atmospheric conditions exist.

When is the groundspeed provided by a DME accurate?

When tracking directly to/from the station

The receivers on board the aircraft

When using GPS while operating under IFR

When is a pilot on an IFR flight plan responsible for avoiding other aircraft?

When weather conditions permit, regardless of whether operating under IFR or VFR.

What is key information when completing a DME arc to ensure minimal drift?

Wind orientation

Can ATC approve an non-published RNAV route to be flown under IFR?

Yes

Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that you are on the airway and to "RESUME OWN NAVIGATION." This phrase means that

You are to assume responsibility for your own navigation.

The maximum permissible error when performing a VOR check using a designated ground checkpoint is _________.

+/- 4 degrees

The relative bearing when using a fixed card indicator with the needle pointing to the right wing of the airplane is?

090 degrees

The course selector of each aircraft is set on 360°. Which aircraft would have a FROM indication on the TO/FROM indicator and the CDI pointing right of center? (Fig. 106)

1

To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "A" correspond? (Fig. 98 & 99)

1

When checking a dual VOR system by use of a VOT, which illustration indicates the VOR's are satisfactory? (Fig. 81)

1

Which DME indication should you receive when you are directly over a VORTAC site at approximately 6,000 feet AGL?

1

If a standard-rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 180°?

1 minute.

Which illustration indicates a skidding turn? (Fig. 144)

1.

When starting a turn from a north heading the initial indication on the magnetic compass will be

A turn in the opposite direction

Where can the VOT location be found?

A/FD (Chart Supplement)

Class G airspace is that airspace where

ATC does not control air traffic.

The degree of flying skill depends largely upon what skill of the aviator?

Ability to keep the aircraft trimmed

True altitude is

Actual height of an object above sea level

Absolute altitude is

Actual height of an object above the Earth's surface

Which is the correct sequence for recovery from the unusual attitude indicated? (Fig. 147)

Add power, lower nose, level wings, return to original attitude and heading.

What pre-takeoff check should be made of a vacuum-driven heading indicator in preparation for an IFR flight?

After 5 minutes, set the indicator to the magnetic heading of the aircraft and check for proper alignment after taxi turns.

Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than actually flown (true altitude)?

Air temperature warmer than standard

Finding an error in which instrument will alert the pilot to a blockage in the pitot tube?

Airspeed Indicator

Which instrument is affected by a blocked pitot tube?

Airspeed indicator

You are flying an aircraft equipped with an electronic flight display and the air data computer fails. What instrument is affected?

Airspeed indicator.

When an altimeter is changed from 30.11" Hg to 29.96" Hg, in which direction will the indicated altitude change and by what value?

Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower.

Inversion Illusion

An abrupt change from climb to straight and level flight

The Leans

An abrupt correction from a steady turn cause fluid in the semicircular canals to change direction

Elevator Illusion

An abrupt vertical acceleration, such as an updraft

To comply with ATC instructions for altitude changes of more than 1,000 feet, what rate of climb or descent should be used?

As rapidly as practicable to 1,000 feet above/below the assigned altitude, and then between 500 and 1,500 feet per minute until reaching the assigned altitude.

When should your transponder be on Mode C while on an IFR flight?

At all times if the equipment has been calibrated, unless requested otherwise by ATC.

Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value?

At standard temperature.

"Command" indicators tell the pilot in which direction and how much to change aircraft ____________ to achieve the desired result.

Attitude

For maintaining level flight at constant thrust, which instrument would be the least appropriate for determining the need for a pitch change?

Attitude indicator.

Why should pilots understand how to cancel entries made on a GPS?

Because heavy workloads and turbulence can increase data entry errors.

Autopilots use which method to function?

Both

What acronym will help pilots remember the order to expect clearance delivery information?

CRAFT

WAAS allows the GPS to be used down to a _________________.

Cat I precision approach

Which category of approach requires the pilot to hold special certification?

Cat III

What is the flight attitude? One system which transmits information to the instruments has malfunctioned. (Fig. 149)

Straight-and-level flight.

What is the pilot in command's responsibility when flying a propeller aircraft within 20 miles of the airport of intended landing and ATC requests the pilot to reduce speed to 160? (Pilot complies with speed adjustment.)

Reduce IAS to 160 knots and maintain that speed within 10 knots.

What is the correct sequence for recovery from the unusual attitude indicated? (Fig. 145)

Reduce power, level the wings, bring pitch attitude to level flight.

The best method to reduce disorientation from limited visibility to is to:

Rely on your instruments

En route at FL 290, the altimeter is set correctly, but not reset to the local altimeter setting of 30.57" Hg during descent. If the field elevation is 650 feet and the altimeter is functioning properly, what is the approximate indication upon landing?

Sea level.

What part of your ear can detect angular acceleration?

Semicircular canals

What service is provided by departure control to an IFR flight when operating from an airport within the outer area of Class C airspace?

Separation from all IFR aircraft and participating VFR aircraft.

How can you determine the pressure altitude on an airport without a tower or FSS?

Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg and read the altitude indicated.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to an IFR flight?

Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting. The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual elevation for acceptable accuracy.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or higher on a direct flight off airways?

Set the altimeter to the current reported setting for climb-out and 29.92" Hg upon reaching 18,000 feet

How can you obtain the pressure altitude on flights below 18,000 feet?

Set your altimeter to 29.92 "Hg and read the pressure altitude on the instrument face

The main benefit of the PFD is the pilots increased

Situational awareness

DME is given in

Slant range

What is ATC's first duty priority?

To separate aircraft and issue safety alerts

What is the best method to cope or prevent these undesirable sensations?

Training and awareness

Which of the following is not attached to the static system (standard "6 pack" system)?

Turn coordinator

Which practical test should be made on the electric gyro instruments prior to starting an engine?

Turn on the electrical power and listen for any unusual or irregular mechanical noise.

RNAV equipment is capable of computing aircraft position, actual track, groundspeed, and _______.

Turning this into meaningful information to the pilot

What minimum aircraft equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?

Two-way communications and Mode C transponder.

When may VFR waypoints be used in IFR flight plans?

VFR waypoints may not be used on IFR flight plans.

What is the primary navigational aid (NAVAID) used by Civil Aviation?

VOR

Which of the following is the magnetic compass error caused by the angular difference between the true and magnetic north pole?

Variation

Which sensory system is most susceptible to illusions leading to disorientation?

Vestibular

To ensure situational awareness while using an autopilot system

pilots must verify that the aircraft is tracking the intended flight profile.

The primary purpose of runway end identifier lights, installed at many airfields, is to provide

rapid identification of the approach end of the runway during reduced visibility.

The two main ILS errors are

reflection and false courses

One characteristic that a properly functioning gyro depends upon for operation is the

resistance to deflection of the spinning wheel or disc.

When a pilot believes advanced avionics enable operations closer to personal or environmental limits,

risk is increased.

During recoveries from unusual attitudes, level flight is attained the instant

the altimeter and airspeed needles stop prior to reversing their direction of movement.

Aircraft operating under IFR with TSO-C129 or TSO-C196 GPS for en route navigation must also have installed

the avionics necessary to receive appropriate NAVAIDs along the route.