Athletic Training Exam Review

On the average, a college athlete expends between __________ to __________ calories per day. A. 4000 to 5000 B. 2000 to 3000 C. 2500 to 3000 D. 2200 to 4400 E. 1000 to 1800

D

The amount of power generated by an ultrasound unit is defined as what? A. Frequency B. Duty cycle C. Duration D. Intensity E. An ohm

D

____ and _____ determine the amount of blood that is pumped through the heart in a given period of time. A. Cardiac output, heart rate B. Respiratory rate, ventricular filling rate C. Stroke volume, cardiac output D. Heart rate, stroke volume E. Respiratory rate, cardiac output

D

Which one of the following would be an example on a component of evidence-based practice? A. Defining a clinically relevant question B. Determine appropriate cost of supplies C. Decreasing the opportunity for third-party reimbursement D. Improve patient compliance E. None of the above

A

Which structures pass through the femoral triangle? A. Femoral artery, femoral vein, femoral nerve B. Femoral artery, femoral nerve, iliac vein C. Deep circumflex vein, femoral nerve D. Great saphenous vein, femoral vein, iliac vein E. Superficial circumflex vein, femoral artery, femoral nerve

A

An athlete with a skull fracture will have which of the following? a. battle's sign b. raccoon eyes c. tenderness in the hard palate d. all of the above e. none of the above

E

Symptoms of caffeine withdrawal include all of the following except: A. Fatigue B. Headache C. Irritability D. Yawning E. Drowsiness

E

What is the maximum number of degrees of freedom a joint can possess? A. 2 B. 5 C. 4 D. 6 E. 3

E

What is the nerve root that affects elbow extension? A. C4 B. C8 C. C5 D. C6 E. C7

E

Which of the following is an indirect method of monitoring oxygen consumption? a. measuring respiratory rate b. measuring vital capacity c. drawing blood gases during testing d. measuring tidal volume e. measuring heart rate

E

Which of the following is not a medication that is delivered via a metered dose inhaler for exercise induced asthma? a. proventil b. alupent c. atrovent d. ventolin e. butisol

E

Which of the following is not part of a SOAP note? A. Subjective information B. Objective information C. Assessment D. Participation level E. Plan

E

According to Maitlands five grades of joint motion, which grade would be most appropriate when joint movement is limited by pain and spasm?

- 1

What is the incubation period for HIV in Human papillomavirus? A. B. C. D. E.

- 1 to 6 months

What is the average respiratory rate for a healthy adult (18 years of age or older)? A. B. C. D. E.

- 12 to 15 breaths/min

What is the usual mechanism of injury for a Colles' fracture? A. B. C. D. E.

- a fall on an outstretched arm and hand

Your team physician sent a prescription to you for your ass he did read "whirlpool treatment TID". What does TID mean?

- three times a week

External muscular force available for useful work is the result of all the following factors except:

- whether the muscle is fast or slow twitch

What type of joint is the hip joint? A. Fibrous B. Amphiarthrotic C. Synarthrotic D. Diarthrotic E. Semiarthrotic

D

Lomotil is what type of medication? A. Antibiotic B. Antidiarrheal C. Antifungal agent D. Antiemetic E. Antipyretic

B

All of the following are indications for the u of warm whirlpool except: A. Cleaning large, open wounds B. Relieving pain C. Initial edema reduction D. Increasing range of motion E. Reflexation

C

When rehabilitating the lateral epicondylitis, which muscle group needs to be strengthened? a. Wrist flexors b. Wrist extensors c. Elbow flexors d. Elbow extensors e. Shoulder abductors

C

NUTRITION

NUTRITION

ORGANIZATION AND PROFESSIONAL HEALTH AND WELL-BEING

ORGANIZATION AND PROFESSIONAL HEALTH AND WELL-BEING

PHARMACOLOGY

PHARMACOLOGY

PSYCHOLOGY

PSYCHOLOGY

Bone grows via a process of opposition and resorption on its surface. To the following cells are responsible for the resorption of bone during its growth or repair?

osteoclasts

When you seen iontophoresis, the athletic trainer should be aware of possible _____ and ____ as a result of ion flux during treatment.

- skin irritation, chemical burn

"Spearing" in football is a dangerous technique. Football coaches have discontinued his practice when teaching tackling techniques because it may cost of your head and neck injuries. What is the resulting force on the cervical spine with a football player spears an opponent? A. B. C. D. E.

- sudden neck hyperflexion with rotation

An indication for suctioning includes which of the following?

- vomiting in an unresponsive individual

When was the NATA officially formed? A. 1948 B. 1953 C. 1955 D. 1962 E. 1950

- 1950

What is the normal systolic blood pressure range for a child between 6 to 10 years of age?

- 80 to 122 mm Hg

Pulsed oximetry is used to measure oxygen saturation. Which of the following is a normal reading?

- 95% to 100%

The patellar tendon reflex correlates to what spinal level? A. B. C. D. E.

- L2-L4

Which of the following is not characteristic of a managed care organization? A. They require provider accountability B. They promote the use of a physician as a gatekeeper C. They are based on a fee-for-service model D. They utilize various strategies E. They utilize specific providers

C

Which of the following is not one of the 3 phases of the needs assessment as it is related to budget planning? A. Exploration B. Information gathering C. Negotiation D. Decision making E. A and B

C

Which of the following should be included in a pre-participation physical examination? I. height and weight II. orthopedic screening III. vital signs IV. ear/nose/throat exam V. blood work A. I, II, V B. II, IV, V C. I, II, III, IV D. I, III, V E. All of the above

C

In order to prevent medial epicondylitis, all of the following action should be avoided via technique modification except: A. too much wrist flexion at follow-through during a golf swing B. excessive elbow valgus when throwing a javelin C. hyperextension of the wrist when performing a backhand shot in tennis D. excessive wrist flexion during a racquetball forehand shot E. A and B

C

Nutrition labels that are found on food packages allow the purchaser to compare nutritional values of food and are expressed in "percent daily values" (based on a 2000-calorie diet) that follow a new nutrient label, which used to be known as the US recommended daily allowance. What new standards does the new label now follow? A. Recommended percent nutrients B. US recommended daily allowance C. Reference daily intakes D. US advised allowances E. None of the above

C

One of your patients is having significant pain as a result of a hallux valgus deformity. Which of the following individuals should the athletic trainer consult with in the care of this patient? A. A hand surgeon B. A physical therapist C. A podiatrist D. A dentist E. A neurologist

C

Prevention of chronic or debilitation illness or injury through appropriate care and rehabilitation is called what? a. primary prevention b. secondary prevention c. tertiary prevention d. luminary prevention e. bimodal prevention

C

The athletic trainer notices one of the baseball players routinely clean his cleats after every game in practice or not there is visible and checked his equipment bag multiple times to assure himself his "lucky towel" is with him. This is an example of what type of behavior? a. schizopherenic b. anxiety c. obsessive-compulsive d. passive-aggressive e. A and B

C

Which of the following are types of state regulation statuses for athletic trainers? I. Certification II. Licensing III. Active IV. Registration V. Inactive A. I, II, V B. II, III, IV C. I, II, IV D. II, IV, V E. I, II, III

A

Which of the following is not a contraindication or precaution for the use of ultrasound? a. Scarring b. Acute hemorrhage c. Anesthesia d. Treating over the endocrine gland e. Open wounds

A

Which of the following is the least occurring type of shoulder subluxation/dislocation? A. Superior B. Inferior C. Anterior D. Posterior E. C and D

A

A _____ is a device used to measure joint range of motion. A. B. C. D. E.

- goniometer

A male patient sustained a direct blow to the general area. How can the athletic trainer immediately decrease the pain? A. B. C. D. E.

- have the patient lie supine with knees bent to his chest to decrease the strain on the scrotum and apply ice to the affected area

Which of the following is a sign of heat stroke?

- hot and relatively dry skin

Which of the following means "the abnormal development of tissue"? A. B. C. D. E.

- hyperplasia

Which of the following conditions is also known as Graves' disease? A. B. C. D. E.

- hyperthyrodism

__________ and ______ are important qualities that an athletic trainer must possess when counseling a patient during a time of distress. A. Honesty, respect B. Sympathy, pity C. Confidence, logic D. Objectivity, decisiveness E. Logic, detachment

A

______________ and _________ are 2 signs of occupational "burnout." A. Exhaustion, anger B. Excitement, creativeness C. Confusion, anxiety D. Paranoia, skepticism E. Anger, forgetfulness

A

________________ and _____________ are 2 major components of "professionalism." A. Commitment, open-mindedness B. Status, narcissism C. Procrastination, decisiveness D. Job titles, upward mobility E. Dedication, upward mobility

A

___ and ___ are 2 conditions that will interfere with fracture healing. A. B. C. D. E.

- increased blood supply, callus formation

All fall on our contraindications for using cryotherapy except:

- inflammation

Where would the athlete complain of pain with acute appendicitis? A. B. C. D. E.

- lower right quadrant of the abodomen

Cranial nerve dysfunction in ultra breathing patterns or signs of pathology of what part of the brain?

- midbrain and medulla

Which of the following is not one of the 4 principles of the NATA Code of Ethics? A. I: "Members Shall Practice With Compassion, Respecting the Rights, Welfare and Dignity of Others" B. II: "Members Shall Comply With the Laws and Regulations Governing the Practice of Athletic Training. National Athletic Trainers' Association (NATA) Memberships Standards and the NATA Code of Ethics" C. III: "Members Shall Maintain and Promote High Standards in Their Provision of Services" D. IV: "Members May Engage in Conduct That Constitutes a Conflict of Interest if the BOC Board of Supervisors Grants Prior Approval" E. A and C

-

Holding a vibrating tuning fork next to the athlete's ear to determine air conduction of sound is a test for the cranial nerve. A. VIII B. VI C. V D. X E. 111

A

According to the NATA's position statement on anabolic-androgenic steroids, "stacking" of anabolic-androgenic steroids (ASS) is defined as: a. simultaneously administering multiple AAS b. methodically increasing doses within a specific time period c. alternating 2 types of AAS d. increasing then decreasing dosages over a 48-hour period e. starting with the lowest dosage possible of a given AAS and increasing each subsequent dose by 1/2 strength

A

According to the hypertension guidelines set in 2014 by the Joint National Committee (JNC8) panel, the blood pressure threshold for initiating drug therapy for an individual younger than 60 years old is: A. Systolic Bp > 140 mm Hg, diastolic 90 mm Hg B. Systolic Bp > 130 mm Hg, diastolic 90 mm Fig C. Systolic Bp = 120 mm Hg, diastolic = 80 mm Hg D. Systolic Bp = 150 mm Hg, diastolic S 80 mm Hg E. Systolic Bp 130 mm Hg, diastolic z 70 mm Hg

A

Adverse effect of insulin use include all of the follow-ing except: A. Hypoglycemia B. Weight gain C. Immune-based responses D. Lipohypertrophy E. Hyperglycemia

A

A victim of sexual abuse may demonstrate all of the following interpersonal problems except: A. Negative self-concept B. Low self-esteem C. Mania D. Anxiety and guilt about sexuality E. A distorted body image

C

"Like charges repel while unlike charges attract each other." This is known as what law? A. Ohm's B. Coulomb's C. Murphy's D. Wolff's E. Horner's

B

A patient with a disability should not be discriminated against, but he or she must have documentation that supports his or her condition. How can he or she justify the disability? A. He or she tells you about the condition B. He or she has a record of such impairment with medical documentation C. He or she has trouble performing in class or in the sport D. All of the above E. None of the above

B

A stress management technique that involves systemic, purposeful tension followed by relaxation of predetermined muscle groups is known as which of the following? A. Autogenic training B. Contract-relax-release-contract C. Progressive relaxation D. Rhythmic relaxation E. None of the above

C

A torus fracture is the result of what kind of force? A. shearing B. traction C. compressive D. twisting E. bending

C

A dry, nonproductive cough is most often caused by which of the following? A. Lung infection B. Bronchitis C. Allergies D. Pneumothorax E. Cancer

C

A positive clunk test is indicative of what pathology? a. unstable ankle b. olecranon fracture c. meniscus tear of the knee d. glenoid labrum tear e. anterior cruciate ligament tear

D

EXERCISE PHYSIOLOGY

EXERCISE PHYSIOLOGY

HUMAN ANATOMY

HUMAN ANATOMY

HUMAN PHYSIOLOGY

HUMAN PHYSIOLOGY

IMMEDIATE AND EMERGENCY CARE

IMMEDIATE AND EMERGENCY CARE

Which of the following types of electrical stimulators is considered "subsensory"? A. Interferential stimulator B. Low-intensity stimulator C. TENS D. Diathermy E. High-intensity stimulator

B

How high should the electrical outlets be placed above the floor in the athletic training facility? A. 2 to 3 feet B. 4 to 5 feet C. 6 feet D. 1 to 2 feet E. None of the above

B

The D2 flexion pattern of the hip works which group of muscles? A. Abductors, flexors, internal rotators B. Abductors, flexors, external rotators C. Adductors, flexors, internal rotators D. Adductors, extensors, external rotators E. The abductors and flexors only

B

The flexor pollicis longus is responsible for which of the following actions? A. great toe flexion B. thumb flexion C. thumb flexion and adduction D. thumb flexion and abduction E. none of the above

B

What does a positive drop-arm sign indicate? a. posterior shoulder subluxation b. torn rotator cuff muscle c. axillary nerve injury d. a labral tear e. humeral head fracture

B

What role does the quadriceps musculature assume during active knee extension against gravity? A. Antagonist B. Agonist C. Synergist D. Stabilizer E. None of the above

B

When rehabilitating a patient who has been diagnosed with "jumper's knee; which muscle group should eventually be strengthened? a. Hamstrings b. Quadriceps c. Hip adductors d. Hip extensors e. Triceps surae

B

Which of the following is a type of exercise that involves a muscle contraction in which the length of the muscle is changing while the contraction is performed at constant velocity? a. isokinetic b. isotonic c. isometric d. progressive resistance e. PNF

B

A patient informed the athletic trainer that he is taking tetracycline for respiratory infection. Tetracycline will bind with which of the following 2 minerals to form a non-absorbable complex (and therefore should not be taken before meals)? A. Potassium and zinc B. Sodium and magnesium C. Iron and calcium D. Iron and phosphorus E. Folic acid and niacin

C

A patient reports to the athletic trainer with the presence of a lesion on his upper lip and mouth area that looks like a blister with a crusted yellow appearance and a red, weeping base. What is the probable cause of these lesions? a. impetigo b. HIV c. shingles d. a fungal infection e. hives

C

While treating a patient for chronic patellar tendinitis, his coach tells you it is tough to get the patient motivated to practice and his performance has significantly declined since the beginning of the season. What problem might the athletic trainer suspect? A. Undertraining B. Staleness C. A personality disorder D. The patient is accident prone E. Bipolar disorder

B

What nerve passes through the carpal tunnel? A. musculocutaneous B. radial C. median D. ulnar E. cubital

C

What quick test can be performed to check if nerve root L5 is intact? a. have the patient flex his or her hips while standing b. have the patient walk on his or her toes c. have the patient extend his or her great toe d. have the patient extend his or her hip e. have the patient flex his or her knee

C

When a muscle is stretched to a point where a mild discomfort is felt and the limb is held in one position, it is known as what type of stretch? A. Ballistic B. PNF C. Static D. Dynamic E. None of the above

C

Where is the most heat lost from the body in cold weather? A. hands B. feet C. torso D. head and neck E. A and B

D

Which of the following drugs is an appropriate treatment for a panic disorder? A. Ritalin B. Depakote C. Warfarin D. Xanax E. Theophylline

D

Which type of insurance should the athletic train_ er carry in case of a criminal complaint involving negligence? A. General secondary insurance B. Catastrophic insurance C. Accident insurance D. Professional liability insurance E. Primary insurance

D

How long (generally) should a "warm-up" be to adequately prepare the body for athletic performance? A. 5 to 10 minutes B. 35 to 45 minutes C. 60 minutes D. 10 to 15 minutes E. 45 to 60 minutes

D

You have been asked to initiate an athletic training program in the high school in which you work. One of the areas you are covering is sexually transmitted diseases. The following topics relating to AIDS should include all of the following except: A. Blood-borne pathogens B. HIV testing C. Universal precautions D. Bacterial infections E. OSHA guidelines

D

Strengthening of which muscle is vital in the throwing athlete? A. Lower trapezius B. Pectineus C. Serratus posterior D. Obliques E. Rhomboids

E

What is air hunger marked by labored or difficult breathing called? A. Dysuria B. Dystrophy C. Diaphoresis D. Dysphagia E. Dyspnea

E

Who should be involved in making the decisions about transporting an injured athlete? A. Athletic trainer B. Team physician C. Paramedics D. Emergency medical technicians E. All of the above

E

What is the appropriate treatment of a Bennett's fracture?

- RICE and analgesics followed by immobilization of the carpometacarpal joint; it is structurally unstable an the athlete should be immediately referred to an orthopedic surgeon

An athlete receives a head injury during a soccer game. While performing the on field evaluation, the athletic trainer notices that the Ashley has a hearing defect after testing for air and bone conduction using a tuning fork. Which of the cranial nerves is injured?

- VII (vestibulocochlear)

Which of the following carries impulses toward the central nervous system?

- afferent pathways

Speed's test is an evaluative test for which of the following problems? A. B. C. D. E.

- bicipital tendinitis

Commotio cordis is a result of which of the following?

- blunt trauma to the chest

Which cells are active after an injury to begin building collagen?

- fibroblasts

During a track meet, you know that one of the runners appear somewhat disoriented. During your assessment of this athlete, you find he is complaining of being lightheaded, his skin is cool and clammy, he is sweating profusely, and his radial pulse is rapid. You take a rectal temperature is fine it is mildly elevated 102°F. You suspect the athlete is suffering from which of the following problems? A. B. C. D. E.

- head exhaustion

Which of the following is a condition of rapidly rising internal body temperature that occurs when the bodies mechanism for the release of heat are overwhelmed?

- heat stroke

Shock after a severe injury can result from _____ or _____. A. B. C. D. E.

- hemorrhage, stagnation of blood

Which of the following is not included in a rehabilitation program after an injury?

- immobilization

What is the possible consequence of a poorly manage shin contusion?

- osteomylitis

While training in a high altitude climate, a rock climber experiences acute dyspnea, off, headache, and weakness. What is the probable cause of the symptoms? A. B. C. D. E.

- pulmonary edema

What type of shock is commonly referred to as fainting?

- pyschogenic shock

What is the first I've been treating an abrasion or laceration?

- reduce wound contamination

Which is not a sign/symptoms of post concussion syndrome?

- restlesness

What isa stretching exercise that consist of a "stretch and hold" position called?

- static stretch

What is a common bony process broken during adult CPR?

- xyphoid process

A football helmet should be removed only under which of the following circumstances?

- you cannot gain adequate access to the airway

"Counting the number of seconds from lighting flash until the sound of thunder divided by 5" describes the "flash-to-bang" method utilized by athletic trainers to roughly calculate which of the following? a. how far away thunder is occurring b. the amount of time before play is resumed c. how far away lighting is occurring d. the intensity of the thunder e. none of the above

A

"Handlebar palsy," which occurs in cyclists, presents with motor weakness of what nerve(s)? A. Ulnar B. Median C. Musculocutaneous D. Ulnar and median E. Radial

A

During a football player's rehabilitation of a fractured lower leg, he will experience moments of intense pain. What may the athletic trainer suggest to the patient as a means of controlling his own pain? A. Rehearse various plays in his mind B. Scream at the top of his lungs C. Tell the athletic trainer to stop when he feels a little discomfort D. Only come to therapy when no other patient or coach is in the facility E. Tell him it is going to hurt and not to complain

A

During a preparticipation physical examination, what type of assessment should be utilized to documents the maturity of an athlete's secondary sexual characteristics? A. tanner's 5 stages of assessment B. HOPS assessment scale C. Glosgow scale D. Erickson's hierarchy E. Maslow's maturity scale

A

If the calcaneofibular ligament of the ankle is torn, which of the following would be positive? a. talar tilt test b. anterior drawer sign c. distraction test d. clunk test e. hawkins-kennedy test

A

The _____ is a nongovernmental, nonprofit organization that gathers injury data from a number of sources including educational institutions. A. NSC B. NOCSAE C. ACSM D. OSHA B. ISS

A

The subscapularis muscle originates on the _____ and inserts into the _____. A. Subscapular fossa, lesser tubercle of the humerus B. Supraspinous fossa, greater tubercle of the humerus C. Distal two-thirds of the humerus, coronoid process of the ulna D. Scapula, middle third of the humerus E. None of the above

A

What is a primary indication for cervical traction? a. Muscle spasm b. Hemorrhage c. Muscle weakness d. Vertigo e. None of the above

A

What is the primary care physician who is appointed by an insurance company to oversee the medical care given to a patient and assigns any specialty and ancillary services called? A. The gatekeeper B. The participating provider C. The third-party administrator D. The policyholder E. None of the above

A

What is the recommended dosage for the NSAID Naprosyn? A. 250 to 500 mg twice a day B. 500 to 750 mg twice a day C. 50 to 100 mg twice a day D. 200 mg once a day E. None of the above

A

_____ is a form of record keeping that allows the athletic trainer to list the athlete's injury information, the actions taken by the athletic trainer, and the response of the athlete to the athletic trainer's treatment in column form. A. SOAP notes B. Focus charting C. Charting by exception D. Computerized documentation E. WOTS UP

B

In order to be diagnosed with anorexia nervosa, a patient must be underweight by _____ or below what is considered normal weight for him or her. A. 70% B. 50% C. 25% D. 85% E. 65%

D

What is the major side effect of the NSAID group? A. B. C. D. E.

- gastrointestinal upset

A leading cause of hypothyroidism is Hashimoto's thyroiditis, which is an auto immune disorder. What is the primary symptom of this disease? A. B. C. D. E.

- goiter

Sensory receptors located at the musculotendinous junction, which monitor active tension generated by the muscle during a contraction, are called:

- golgi tendon organs

When evaluating a patient for Sinding-Larsen-Johansson disease, the athletic trainer should be sure to do the following: A. B. C. D. E.

- palpate the inferior patellar pole with patient's knee extended and the patellar tendon relaxed

Mumps is it contagious viral disease that is primarily manifested by: A. B. C. D. E.

- parotits

If a patient human athletic trainer is working with has a history of asthma, what daily test should he or she used to monitor the patient's condition? A. B. C. D. E.

- peak flow meter

A drug that is used to increase the effect of another, such as aspirin when using combination with codeine, is known as what? A. B. C. D. E.

- potentiating

What conditioning component is needed to perceive the position of the food as it lands on the ground after the swing phase of gait?

- proprioception

An athlete has been kicked in the low back area during a soccer game. He is complaining of significant flank pain, is having difficulty voiding, and there is blood in his urine. What should the athletic trainer suspect is injured? A. B. C. D. E.

- the kidney

When taking a blood pressure with a sphygmomanometer, at what point is the systolic pressure noted?

- the point at which the pulse is first heard

Sickle-cell anemia may cause rhabdomyolysis in the athlete. Which of the following is a cardinal sign of rhabdomyolysis? A. B. C. D. E.

- the presence of myoglobin in the urin

One of your patients has just purchased a bicycle helmet and found a crack in the shell. To which organization should the manufacturer of the helmet report this defect? A. NATA B. CPSC C. NOCSAE D. USOC E. NASM

B

Pain occurring at a site distant to damaged tissue that does not follow the course of a peripheral nerve describes what type of pain? A. Muscular B. Referred C. Radicular D. Visceral E. Parasympathetic

B

Repeated rubbing over the epidermis may cause which of the following conditions? A. Avulsion B. Blisters C. Contusions D. Bursitis E. Impetigo

B

Which of the following is not a stage of the general adaptation syndrome (response phases of stress)? A. Exhaustion B. Anger C. Resistance D. Alarm E. All of the above

B

Which of the following patients should avoid high-volume, high-intensity plyometric exercises? a. patients who way more than 220 pounds b. premenstrual female patients c. patience for way less than 75 kg d. diabetic patients e. asthmatic patients

A

Which of the following qualities is needed in order to be an effective educator in an athletic training program? A. Competence in classroom teaching methods B. Competence in speech writing and communication skills C. A background in sociology D. Competence in computer language and audiovisual technology E. All of the above

A

A patient who will be experiencing a long rehabilitation process and may have his or her position filled by another player may be at risk for which problem? A. Schizophrenia B. Mania C. Severe depression D. Bipolar disorder E. Personality disorder

C

A patient with an infection or serious disease, such as leukemia, may demonstrate an abnormal raise white blood cell count. What is the normal leukocyte count? A. 200,000 to 400,000/cu mm B. 500 to 1500/cu mm C. 4000 to 10,000/cu mm D. 1000 to 40,000/cu mm E. 250 to 500/cu mm

C

During prolonged, intense training and conditioning of a patient, what cardiac change may occur over a period of time? A. Development of heart murmurs B. Development of premature ventricular contractions C. Increase in heart size D. Decrease in heart size E. Mitral valve prolapse

C

Spinal immobilization is best achieved with a full body splint. All the following are examples of full body immobilization equipment except: a. the standard rigid spine board b. vacuum mattress c. a stryker frame d. scoop stretcher e. miller full-body splint

C

As a head athletic trainer at a Division I university, you are charged with designing a drug testing procedure. It is up to you how to design and implement the procedure and select the individuals being tested. The best way to select subjects is to use which of the following methods? A. Random timing B. Announced testing C. Preseason testing D. Random selection E. Scheduled weekly testing

D

Fixed payments made on a monthly basis to a managed care provider are known as what type of reimbursement? A. Point-of-service plan B. Fee for service C. Third-party reimbursement D. Capitation E. Managed care option

D

All of the following symptoms are considered "red flags," requiring urgent referral to a physician, expect: a. persistent headaches b. constant pain c. insomnia d. malaise, fatigue e. hunger

E

All of the following types of infection are transmitted through the air except: a. meningitis b. pneumonia c. tuberculosis d. scarlet fever e. malaria

E

All the following structures should be evaluated before and after a dislocated elbow is reduce except: a. the median nerve b. the radial nerve c. the neurovascular status of the brachial artery d. the ulnar nerve e. the axillary nerve

E

When using shortwave diathermy, which of the following objects should not be located within the treatment area? A. Towels B. Wooden treatment tables (metal-free) C. A container of ultrasound gel D. Swiss balls and Theraband E. Metal stools

E

Which muscle reflexes both the foot and the knee? A. biceps femoris B. flexor digitorum C. posterior tibialis D. anterior tibialis E. gastrocnemius

E

You notice that a gymnast you have been treating becomes sarcastic, loses her appetite, and appears unusually fatigued all the time after a severe wrist injury. These are all symptoms of what? A. Denial B. Anxiety C. Bulimia D. Anorexia E. Depression

E

________ states that muscle strength, power, endurance, and hypertrophy increase only when muscles perform workloads greater than those loads previously encountered. a. PRE principle b. the DAPRE principle c. the strength-duration curve d. the power training principle e. the overload principle

E

_________ refers to the concept of dividing the annual training plan into smaller segments, phases, or cycles. a. specificity b. frequency c. duration d. segmental division e. periodization

E

__________ supplies include such items as adhesive tape, gauze pads, and bandages. A. Permanent B. Capital C. Nonexpendable D. Nonfixed E. Expendable

E

If necessary, the removal of the helmet and shoulder pads from a nasty with a suspected spinal cord injury should be coordinated to avoid which of the following?

- cervical hyperextension

What is the most common in devastating mechanism of injury seen in neck injury sustained during football? A. B. C. D. E.

- cervical hyperflexion and axial compression

Evaluating an unconscious athlete, what should the athletic trainer do first? A. B. C. D. E.

- check that the athlete's airway is open and he or she is breathing normally

An athlete sustains a blow to the head with a temporary loss of consciousness. He appears to have a lucid. In which he seems to be normal for a period of a couple hours and then becomes significantly lethargic. What type of medical emergency with the athletic trainer suspect? A. B. C. D. E.

- extradural hemorrhage

What precautionary measures should be taken prior to transferring and securing an athlete with protective equipment (as in football or ice hockey) to a rigid immobilization device such as spine board?

- facemaks removal and preparation of shoulder pads

During a lower extremity D1 flexion PNF pattern, what movements are taking place at the hip?

- flexion, adduction, external rotation

Which modality would be best utilized to desire therapeutic effect is decreased pain, edema, and inflammation?

- fluidotherapy

One of your athletes presents with diarrhea, vomiting, and abnormal cramping 1 to 6 hours after eating at a local restaurant. What do you suspect the problem is?

- food poisining

The contact phase of the running gate is divided into which components? A. B. C. D. E.

- foot strike, midsupport, and take-off

The Inter-Associate Task Force recommends that no fewer than _____ persons lift athletes suspected of having a spinal cord injury.

- four plus

Deep stroking during massages is known as what?

- friction massage

What is the first thing you should do if you suspect a spinal injury?

- hold in-line stabilizaiton

Which of the following components of a rehabilitation program is most often overlooked by the athletic trainer during rehabilitation?

- proprioception

An athlete has suspected fracture involving the knee. Which of the following areas should be splinted? A. B. C. D. E.

- the lower limb joints and one side of the trunk

Which type of budgeting model requires justification for every budget line item without reference to previous spending patterns? A. Fixed B. Variable C. Zero-based D. Performance E. Need-based

C

Which type of heat injury is considered a medical emergency? a. dehydration b. heat cramps c. heat stroke d. heat exhaustion e. all of the above except A

C

How long does it take for a patient's heart rate to plateau at a given level during a cardiorespiratory training session? A. 10 minutes B. 30 seconds C. 45 seconds D. 5 minutes E. 2 to 3 minutes

E

How many degrees of movement does the scapula contribute to shoulder abduction? A. 30 B. 80 C. 100 D. 180 E. 60

E

The optimum time an ice pack should be applied to a body part is 10 minutes. This is to avoid the response. A. Vasomotor B. Blocking C. Moro D. Belle E. Hunting

E

Which of the following is not a major type of open wound?

- contusion

How is cranial nerve VII tested? A. B. C. D. E.

- crumpling paper near the ear

Which of the following describes in neurapraxia?

- demyelination of the axon sheath that leads to a conduction block. Usually heals in approximately 1 to 2 weeks

_____ pupils indicate possible shock, hemorrhage, or cardiac arrest

- dilated

Which of the following best describes a copayment? A. An occasional payment made by a policyholder to an insurance company B. The amount owed yearly by the policyholder before the insurance company will begin to pay for services C. The amount of money that both an employee and employer share when paying for medical benefits D. A percentage of the total amount the policyholder is required to pay for medical services rendered The amount of money that a provider offers as a E. discount for services

- A percentage of the total amount the policyholder is required to pay for medical services rendered The amount of money that a provider offers as a

Where would you place direct pressure on a wound that is bleeding?

- directly on the wound

What is the best way to prevent otitis externa? A. B. C. D. E.

- dry the external auditory canal after swimming

A capillary refill time of greater than ____ seconds is a sign of inadequate perfusion

- 2.0

When feeding Ashley for crutches, the elbow should be there in approximately what angle? A. B. C. D. E.

- 30 degrees

What is the compression-to-breath ratio during one person adult CPR? A. B. C. D. E.

- 30:2

When performing two person adult CPR, what is the correct compression-to-breath ration? A. B. C. D. E.

- 30:2

What is the normal daughters for one tablet of aspirin? A. B. C. D. E.

- 325 mg

How long can the brain be deprived of oxygen into brain cells begin today?

- 4 to 6 minutes

Descending hills during running requires what type of muscular contraction by the quadriceps to the decelerate the body?

- eccentric

It is critical that CPR be administer as soon as possible during a life-threatening situation. In what amount of time is brain damage likely to occur if the brain is deprived of oxygen? A. B. C. D. E.

- 4 to 6 minutes

Which of the following diagnostic test is considered the "gold standard" for detecting signs of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy? A. B. C. D. E.

- echocardiogram

How quickly may the adaptations in skeletal muscle reverse if strength training is discontinued or interrupted during rehabilitation? A. 24 hours B. 36 hours C. 48 hours D. 1 week E. 4 weeks

- 48 C

If an athlete needs to lose weight for health reasons, how many calories must his or her daily diet been reduced by in order to lose 1 to 2 pounds per week?

- 500 to 1000 calories/day

During your examination of a football player who has a stain a low back and read during a tackle, you find that he has reporting dulled sensation along the dorsum of his right foot, he has difficulty walking on his heels, and his patellar tendon reflex is diminished. You suspect which of the following nerve roots is affected? A. B. C. D. E.

- L5

An acronym used for immediate care of an acute musculoskeletal injury is which of the following? A. B. C. D. E.

- RICE

What are the four sensations and Ashley were experience with the application of cryotherapy?

- cold, burning, aching, numbness

Taping continuously around a limb may cause what problem? A. B. C. D. E.

- compromised circulation

To test the function of the rhomboid major muscle, the athletic trainer should ask the patient to perform what movement? A. scapular retraction B. shoulder internal rotation C. scapular protraction D. shoulder shrug E. shoulder external rotation

A

Under what condition(s) is a patient likely to experience a stress fracture of a bone? A. after a few high loads or many small loads are applied to the bone B. after a large traumatic insult to the bone C. after traumatic incident that is quickly followed by a few small loads to the bone D. after 1 or 2 small loads are applied to the bone E. none of the above

A

What should be avoided by an athlete who has frequent episodes of constipation? A. Laxatives or enemas B. High fiber diet C. Bland diet D. Calcium supplements E. B and D

A

Which of the following is a way for an athletic trainer to protect him- or herself from negligence? A. Good documentation B. Testimony in court C. Sovereign immunity D. Having good malpractice insurance E. All of the above

A

Which of the following is considered a medical emergency? a. acute compartment syndrome b. navicular fracture c. bulimia d. mitral valve prolapse e. cellulitis

A

Which of the following is exercises does not address proprioception? a. Recumbent stationary bicycling b. Mimi-trampoline exercises c. Stork-standing exercises with the eyes open d. Treadmill exercises of the above e. All of the above

A

After a wrestler is injured, you notice he has developed a very negative attitude and is generally depressed. Two methods of redirecting this patient's negative and angry ideas are _____ and _____. A. Thought stopping, refuting irrational thoughts B. Meditation, progressive relaxation C. Therapeutic imagery, attention diversion D. Thought stopping, mediation E. None of the above

A

All of the following are exceptions to the rule of confidentiality except: A. When the media desires information regarding the athlete's health status B. When there is clear and imminent danger to the athlete C. When there is clear and imminent danger to other persons D. When legal requirements demand that confidential information be released

A

All of the following are physiological responses to cryotherapy except: A. Increased metabolism B. Decreased muscle spasm C. Analgesia D. Increased joint stiffness E. B and D

A

All of the following are possible factors regarding why a patient might be injury prone except: a. bad luck b. problems at home c. joint hypermobility d. poor endurance e. poor coordination

A

All of the following movements occur in the saggital plane except: a. hip abduction b. shoulder flexion c. knee extension d. hip flexion e. elbow flexion

A

All the following are symptoms of caffeine withdrawal except: a. diaphoresis b. fatigue c. headache d. irritability e. runny nose

A

All the following symptoms should alert the athletic trainer to serious pathology that requires immediate referral to a physician except: a. itchy skin, specially when it involves areas on the feet and toes b. painful urination c. unexpected weight loss d. night pain e. palpable lump in the breast or axilla

A

During what season would it be beneficial for an athlete to participate in a sport (other than his or her primary sport) to maintain an adequate level of fitness? A. Off-season B. Postseason C. In-season D. Preseason E. Transition phase of in-season

A

Electrical stimulating currents are classified into 3 categories. Which of the following is not one of these categories? A. Interferential current B. Direct current C. pulsed current 9. Alternating current E. Galvanic current

A

Football helmets may fall into 1 or 2 categories. These 2 types are known as ________ or ________. A. air- or fluid-filled, padded B. gel-filled, padded C. plastic, fiberglass D. standard, adjustable E. molded, nonmolded

A

Herpes simplex labialis is caused by which of the following? A. Virus B. Fungus C. Bacteria D. Parasite E. None of the above

A

How far from the nose should the face mask of a football helmet be located? a. 1 inch b. 2 fingers widths c. 3 finger widths d. 0.75 inch e. 3 inches

A

Which of the following is known as the separation of electrically charged particles causing a transmembrane electrical potential difference? A. Resting membrane potential B. Membrane permeability threshold C. Electrogenic pump D. Depolarization threshold E. Ion interference

A

It is important to set specific short- and long-goals when developing a treatment program Goals serve all of the following purposes except: A. Insure full reimbursement from a third-party payer B. Identify outcomes C. Measure the effectiveness of the treatment protocol D. Establish timeliness of the treatment program E. Allows the athlete to be a part of the treatment

A

Which of the following is not a cause of weight-training injury? a. the use of a "spotter" b. barbell or platform defects c. poor technique d. not properly warming up before lifting weights e. C and D

A

The female athletic triad describes the simultaneous presence of which of the following? A. An eating disorder, amenorrhea, and osteoporosis B. Depression, premenstrual syndrome, and osteoporosis C. A medial collateral and anterior cruciate ligament sprain with meniscus tear D. Menstrual cramping, overeating, and premenstrual syndrome E. Dysmenorrhea, eating disorder, and osteoporosis

A

The most common form of hyperthyroidism identified by tremors, weakness, difficulty in swallowing speaking, and facial/eye tics is known as: A. Graves disease B. Legg-Calve-Perthes disease C. Paget's disease D. Reye's syndrome E. Sarcoidosis

A

A lever is considered in rotational equilibrium when any muscle acting on that lever is neither shortening nor lengthening. This results in what kind of contraction? A. Isometric B. Isotonic C. Passive D. Concentric E. Eccentric

A

A patient has been diagnosed with bulimia and has a known history of laxative abuse. Complications of chronic laxative use include which of the following? a. electrolyte imbalance and dehydration b. hyperactivity c. hematemsis d. chronic nasal congestion e. all of the above

A

A patient who uses mood-altering substances on a frequent basis in the belief that the substance helps him or her perform better in any key area of life such as school, sports, relationships, or otherwise may be developing which of the following? A. Psychological dependence B. Physical dependence C. Somatic dependence D. Psychological binge E. None of the above

A

A patient with mononucleosis should not play sports until the symptoms subside because of which of the following problems? a. enlarged spleen b. stress on the liver c. possible kidney complication s d. malaise and fatigue e. possible gallbladder rupture

A

The sternocleidomastoid muscle originates on the and inserts into the _______. A. Clavicle, mastoid process B. Clavicle and sternum, mastoid process C. Manubrium, occipital protuberance D. Manubrium, clavicle E. Third cervical vertebra, clavicle

A

To avoid gastric upset, NSAIDS should be taken with which of the following? A. Food or milk B. A glass of wine C. Gatorade D. An energy drink E. Cranberry juice

A

During your examination of a patient who has been complaining of weakness when using the rowing machine in the weight room, you notice his right latissimus dorsi muscle appears atrophied. Which nerve is affected? A. trigeminal B. thoracodorsal C. dorsal scapular D. thoracic spinal E. none of the above

B

EIA stands for what clinical entity? A. Exercise-induced arrhythmia B. Exercise-induced asthma C. Exercise-induced allergy D. Exercise-induced aneurysm E. Exercise-induced angina

B

All of the following are true about state certification and/or licensure with respect to athletic trainers except: A. Certification is a less restrictive form of professional regulation than licensure B. Licensure does not prohibit anyone from performing the tasks of an athletic trainer under state law C. The BOC is recognized as the certifying board D. Licensure is the most restrictive form of state credentialing E. A and C

B

Flexion and extension of the knee joint occurs in the _______ plane around a______ axis. A. Sagittal, transverse B. Sagittal, coronal C. Frontal, anterior-posterior D. Transverse, longitudinal E. Sagittal, longitudinal

B

A Q-angle of >25 degrees may predispose a patient to what postural deviation? A. Excessive genu varus B. Excessive genu valgus C. Genu recurvatum D. Coxa valgus E. Coxa vara

B

All of the following are true when fitting shoulder pads except: a. axillary straps should not be very tight but just enough to be snug around the chest to keep the shoulder pads in place b. shoulder pads should stop at midsternum c. acromioclavicular joint should have a channel of foam padding d. lateral flaps should cover down the deltoid tuberosity e. the neck opening must allow the athlete to raise the arm overhead, but not allow the pad to shift

B

All of the following are ways of reducing risk of injury except: a. assess activity areas for safety b. frequent hand washing c. proper equipment maintenance d. documentation of treatments e. all of the above

B

A female athlete should choose a sports bra that is supportive enough to prevent stretching of which structure? A. the skin B. the pectoralis major C. cooper's ligaments D. the nipples E. ligamentum pectoris

C

25. Which of the following drugs is used to treat Type 2 diabetes? A. Dilantin B. Prozac C. Zocor D. Glucophage E. Coumadin

D

The _______ is a charge that represents the maximum amount that an insurance company will pay a provider. A. HCFA B. NCR C. ADA D. CPT E. UCR

E

One of your patients has just been stung by a bee. He appears to be showing signs of anaphylaxis. Which of the following medication would be appropriate to administer to stop the reaction? A. B. C. D. E.

- epinephrine

What should a post season conditioning program specially focus on?

- identifying and improving the areas of conditioning in which the athlete is deficient

Transport to a medical facility for a concussion may be necessary for all the following reasons except:

- if the athlete complains of a headache

Which of the carpal bones is most commonly dislocated? A. B. C. D. E.

- lunate

Patient presents with loss of strength at the L3 and L4 nerve root level. What muscle should the Athletic Trainer test to confirm an injury at this level? A. B. C. D. E.

- quadriceps

An AED is used for what purposes?

- to defrrillate the heart when an unconscious victim has no pulse

What is the primary reason an athletic trainer would perform pulmonary auscultation?

- to identify potential abnormal breath sounds

What amount of time made it take for complete remodeling up tissues to occur after a soft tissue injury?

- up to 1 year

Where would a Baker's cyst be located? A. In the popliteal fossa B. In the groin area C. On the breast D. On the lip E. The wrist

A

During a return to play progression for a concussion, what is the typical time frame between stages? A. 12 hours B. 1 hour C. at least 24 hours D. 1 month E. none of the above

C

A certified athletic trainer is observed to be intoxicated while at work at a major university. This is in violation of which principle of the NATA Code of Ethics? A. I: "Members Shall Practice With Compassion, Respecting the Rights, Welfare and Dignity of Others" B. II: "Members Shall Comply With the Laws and Regulations Governing the Practice of Athletic Training, National Athletic Trainers' Association (NATA) Memberships Standards and the NATA Code of Ethics" C. "Members Shall Maintain and Promote High Standards in Their Provision of Services" D. IV: "Members Shall Not Engage in Conduct That Could be Construed as a Conflict of Interest, Reflects Negatively on the Athletic Training Profession or Jeopardizes a Patient's Health and Well - Being" E. None of the above

B

A male patient gets kicked in the groin area and sustains an injury to the testicles. The major function of the testes is to produce _____ and _____. A. Semen, urine B. Spermatozoa, testosterone C. Testosterone, estrogen D. Semen, spermatozoa E. Testosterone, progesterone

B

A patient comes to the athletic training facility with what appears to be a tick in bedded in his lower leg. The athletic trainer should instruct the patient not to do which of the following? a. keep the area clean and free of other debris b. pull the tick off with tweezers c. cover the tick with mineral oil d. put fingernail polish remover onto the ticks body e. all of the above

B

A patient is poked in the eye with a finger and comes to the athletic trainer for evaluation. The patient is having significant difficulty opening his eye. Which of the following muscles might have sustain injury? A. levator capitis inferioris B. splenius capitis C. levator palpebrae superioris D. levator palpebrae orbitis E. scalenes

C

A patient must be__________ and take ______ if he or she is to completely rehabilitate an injury. A. Emotionless, time off B. Passive, all prescribed medications C. Cooperative, responsibility D. Dependent, time off E. Aggressive, responsibility

C

Which of the following is not an approach to ethical decision making? A. Egoism B. Utilitarianism C. Formalism D. Socialism E. A and C

D

Which of the following is not a good source of vitamin C? a. brocoli b. strawberries c. oranges d. nuts e. spinach

D

. In what year were certified athletic trainers recognized by the AMA as "allied health care professionals"? A. 1988 B. 1997 C. 1994 D. 2000 E. 1990

E

Submaximal exercise tests, which evaluates physical working capacity by measuring heart rate increases with exercise, include all of the following except: A. progressive pulse rate B. harvard step test C. cooper 12-minute run-walk test D. the saltin-astrand VO2 debt test E. none of the above

D. the saltin-astrand VO2 debt test

How many degrees of freedom does the knee have? A. 0 B. 1 C. 3 D. 4 E. 2

E

All of the following are routes of drug administration except: A. Oral B. Topical C. Parenteral D. Sublingual E. Pressurization

E

Alpine skiing world championships are scheduled in Japan. Jet lag is bound to occur as a result of crossing several time zones. What should the athletic trainer recommend to the team members prior to their flight to combat the jet lag effect? A. upon arrival, adjust all training, eating, and sleeping schedules to the local time of the country in which they are competing B. consume caffeine only when traveling east C. reset watches to the new time zone 3 days in advance to get used to the time change D. when traveling west, it is important to have a large breakfast in the morning to carry the athlete through the day E. make sure the team trains late in the prior to the trip

A

Which test, if positive, is indicative of a torn posterior cruciate ligament? a. sag sign b. anterior drawer sign c. McMurray's sign d. Ober's sign e. lachman's sign

A

Who is the accrediting body for entry-level athletic training programs? A. CAATE B. JRC-AT C. NATA D. BOC E. CAAHEP

A

What is the primary component muscle? A. Sarcomere B. Muscle fiber C. Myofibril D. Fascicle E. None of the above

B

Which of the following is a cardinal sign of inflammation? A. Cyanosis B. Loss of function C. Cold skin D. Numbness E. None of the above

B

While discussing general nutrition principles with a female swimmer who is a strict vegetarian, the athletic trainer should be aware that her diet might lack what mineral? A. chloline B. iron C. niacin D. folate E. potassium

B

How would you define a policy? A. A specific plan for members of an organization to follow B. A broad statement of an intended action C. An organizational plan that provides program direction for 1 or 2 years D. A mission statement of an organization E. A vision statement of an organization

B

If it was determined that a 25-year-old patient should work 80% of his maximal heart rate, what would be his target heart rate? A. 170 BPM B. 156 BPM C. 145 BPM D. 14 BPM E. 130 BPM

B

If there is inflammation at the side of the medial epicondyle of the elbow, which of the following would be positive? a. tennis elbow test b. golfer's elbow test c. tinel's sign d. finkelstein's test e. allen's test

B

Who is responsible for compiling medical histories and conducting physical examinations for each athlete on a team? A. The athletic trainer B. The team physician C. The athletic director D. All of the above E. None of the above

B

In order to improve a patient's flexibility, PNF techniques may be incorporated into a training program. Which of the following techniques involves an isotonic contraction during the "push" phase? A. Hold-relax B. Contract-relax C. Slow-reversal-hold- relax D. Fast-reversal-hold-relax E. Slow-hold-relax

B

Joint mechanoreceptors are found in all of the following structures except: A. Ligaments B. The brain C. Menisci D. Fat pads E. Musculotendinous junction

B

All of the following muscles form the pes anserinus muscle group except: A. Semimembranosus B. Semitendinosus C. Gracilis D. Sartorius E. B and D

B

The term dexamethasone is the _____ name this medication A. Secondary B. Brand C. Generic D. FDA approved E. Trade

C

Hemorrhoids may be treated by all of the following except: A. Corticosteriods B. Local anesthetics C. Astringents D. Vasoconstrictors E. Antihistamines

E

Hip internal/external rotation occurs in the plane around a _____ axis. A. Sagittal, medial-lateral B. Horizontal, anterior-posterior C. Frontal, anterior-posterior D. Horizontal, vertical E. Sagittal, anterior-posterior

D

All of the following are steps an athletic trainer can take to avoid litigation except: A. Develop a comprehensive emergency plan B. Establish a detailed, written job description C. Establish a yearly plan for modality maintenance D. Keep dispensed E.of all prescription medications E. A and B

D

After what period of time should an individual demonstrating symptoms of depression be referred to a mental health professional? A. 24 hours B. 2 days C. 1 week D. 2 weeks E. 100 hours

D

Which of the following is a contract between a policyholder and an insurance company to reimburse a percentage of the cost of the policyholder's medical bills? A. An insurance claim B. Point-of-service insurance C. A promissory note D. Medical insurance E. Treatment agreement

D

All of the following are functions of the liver except: A. carbohydrate metabolism B. detoxification of blood C. protein synthesis D. detoxification of urine E. bile production

E

Why is it important for an active individual to follow a varied diet that reflects the Dietary Guidelines for America? a. the individual will be making smart choices from every food group b. the individual will get the most nutrition out of calories c. the individual will stay within daily calorie needs d. all of the above e. none of the above

E

While elevating a patient shoulder, you know that the patient is unable to abduct through the full range of motion against gravity. When performing a manual muscle test, this finding would be a sign which of the following muscle grades? A. B. C. D. E.

- (-3/5)

When transporting and athlete off the field by manual conveyance, it is more convenient to do this with how many athletic trainers? A. B. C. D. E.

- 2

During CPR, the adult sternum must be compressed toward death for compression to be effective? A. B. C. D. E.

- 2 to 2.4 inches

How long should the admin be auscultated before the athletic trainer decides if the bowel sounds are absent?

- 2 to 3 minutes

During the acute phase of an ankle injury, the water temperature of a whirlpool should be set at what temperature?

- 55 F to 65 F

The biceps brachii tendon reflex correlates to what spinal level? A. B. C. D. E.

- C5

When the athletic trainer places his or her thong over the patient's distal bicep tendon and strikes the thumb with the reflex hammer, which nerve level is being evaluated? A. B. C. D. E.

- C5

During which of the circumstances below should an athlete be immediately refer to a dentist? I. the tooth is knocked out II. when a tooth is displaced 2 mm or more III. when a crown is fracture and the tooth is still alive IV. when a filling is knocked out or fractured and the athlete is sensitive to hot or cold food V. when an artificial plate is broken during competition

- I, II, III

Which of the measures below are appropriate steps in the management of an athlete who is experiencing a seizure? I. keep spectators out of the way II. protect the athlete's head and body from injury III. turn the athlete on his or her side IV. if the athlete is in status epilepticus or it is a first seizure, immediately seek further medical support V. try to keep the athlete's mouth open by any means to prevent airway obstruction VI. call the athlete's next of kin to inform him or her of the problem and of the care given

- I, II, III, IV

Which of the following signs and symptoms are characteristics of tension pneumothorax? I. tracheal deviation II. distended neck veins III. unilateral absence of breath sounds IV. dizziness V. cyanosis

- I, II, III, V

What physiological effects occur under the cathode of an electrical stimulator?

- I, III, IV

Which of the following are the three most common size for avulsion fractures in apophysitis in the pelvic region? I. ischial tuberosity and hamstring attachment II. pubic symphysis and the adductor magnus attachement III. anterior inferior iliac spine and the rectus femoris attachment IV. iliac creats and quadratus lumborum attachment V. anterior superior iliac spine where the sartorious attaches

- I, III, V

Which of the following muscle groups are involved during a full squat with weights? I. Quadriceps II. Hamstrings III. Erector spinae IV. Middle deltoid V. Gluteus maximus VI. Serratus anterior a. I, II, IV, V b. II, III, IV, V c. II, II, III, V d. II, III, V, VI e. All of the above

- II, II, III, V

The athletic trainer notices an athlete is prone to abnormal bruising. After discussing the problem with the team doctor, he recommends which of the following vitamins? A. B. C. D. E.

- K

Portable radios and landline telephones or prefer over personal cell phones when communicating and Emergency primarily because which of the following?

- a cell phone may be unreliable in some areas due to weak cellular signals

What was the athletic trainer established with an athlete prior to enduring the rehabilitation in order for the rehabilitation open and your athlete to be successful?

- a good raport

The athletic trainer performs a cervical distraction test on a patient. A positive finding is observed. This is indicative of which of the following? A. B. C. D. E.

- a nerve root compression or facet dysfunction

Athletic trainers are qualified to use emergency oxygen systems to care for an hour and you're asking. All the following are true regarding emergency oxygen systems except:

- a prescription is required for its use

Wolf-Parkinson-White syndrome is characterized by which of the following? A. B. C. D. E.

- a short PR interval and prolonged QRS coplex

What type of force typically causes injury to the medial collateral ligament, medial meniscus, in anterior cruciate ligament of the knee? A. B. C. D. E.

- a valgus force with the tibia in external rotation

Your patient is on the medication for staphylococcus aureus infection. Which of the following adverse reactions may you expect with antibiotic treatment? A. B. C. D. E.

- abdominal cramping

What is the most common mechanism of injury for an anterior shoulder dislocation? A. B. C. D. E.

- abduction and external rotation

You evaluate a basketball player who has sustained a finger injury while attempting to catch a ball. During your examination, you observe the athlete is unable to extend the distal phalanx in the tip of his finger is position in approximately 30° of flexion. You determine the athlete has a mallet finger. This injury is caused by which of the following? A. B. C. D. E.

- an avulsion of the extensor tendon from its insertion

All the following are signs/symptoms of anaphylactic shock except:

- an increase in blood pressure

If a palpable "clunk" or shift at approximately 20° to 30° of knee flexion is found during a pivot-shift test, this may be indicative of what? A. B. C. D. E.

- anterolateral rotary instability of the knee

What is the repair response to limited in the articular cartilage of a joint after an injury in the adult athlete?

- articular cartilage cells do not undergo mitosis in the mature athlete

Which of the following drugs must the athletic trainer determine the athlete is not allergic to prior to administering a NSAID? A. B. C. D. E.

- aspirin

A patient who has been diagnosed with infectious mononucleosis has just been clear by the team doctor to return to full activity. How long should the patient remain out of contact participation from the time of onset to the timer for recovery? A. B. C. D. E.

- at least 3 weeks

When resolving a conflict, there are many approaches that an athletic trainer can take to successfully manage a difficult situation. Of the following conflict resolution method, which one is least likely to successfully resolve a problem?

- avoidance

When a patient reports to the athletic trainer complaining of lateral hip pain, all the following conditions might be the source of pain except: A. B. C. D. E.

- avulsion of the ischial tuberosity

An athlete who is not properly dress with exercising in the cold weather may be subject to hypothermia. At what core temperature of the shivering seas, skeletal muscle stiffen, and cold diuresis occur?

- below 90 degrees

Where do primitive stem cells mature into red and white blood cells and platelets? A. B. C. D. E.

- bone marrow

What are the two most common sites to apply direct pressure to control severe bleeding of the upper and lower extremities?

- brachial artery and femoral artery

Which test is appropriate to perform if the athletic trainer suspects the patient has meningitis? A. B. C. D. E.

- brudzinski-kerning test

Which of the following is the correct sequence of tissue healing?

- cellular response, regeneration, remodeling

A soccer player sustained a mild head injury during a game. The athletic trainer administers a Romberg's test on the sideline, assessing which of the following? A. B. C. D. E.

- cerebellum or basal ganglia dysfunction

Changes in cognition and behavior and disorientation after a traumatic head injury or indicative of this function of which part of the brain? A. B. C. D. E.

- cerebrum

Which of the following is not a component of a primary survey?

- check for sensations of numbness, tingling, or burning

During the inflammatory response, leukocytes are drawn to the side of injury by chemical mediators. This process is known as which of the following? A. B. C. D. E.

- chemotaxis

One of your patient begins to complain of intense itching of the skin under the cold pack that you apply to his shoulder five minutes ago. When you remove the packing notice that hires have developed on the area that has been cooled. What is the patient experiencing?

- cold urticaria

Lysosomes function to do which of the following during the inflammatory process? A. B. C. D. E.

- contain enzymes that digest material brought into the cytoplasm of the cells during phagocytosis

Which of the following massage techniques is a method of tapotement?

- cupping

One of your female patient presents with dysuria, a sense of urgency to urinate, decrease urine volume, nocturia, low back pain, in pyuria. What do you suspect the patient has?

- cystitis

After a severe head injury, an individual may posture as follows: turn of the lower limbs and flexion of the elbows, wrists, and fingers. This condition is known as what? A. B. C. D. E.

- decortication

Which of the following is the underlying cause of multiple sclerosis? A. B. C. D. E.

- demyelination of the neurons of the central nervous system

A predisposing conditions such as a spinal stenosis may mean an athlete is more likely to: A. B. C. D. E.

- develop paralysis after a fracture-dislocation

Which pulse should always be assessed with an injury to the lower extremity?

- dorsal pedal pulse

_____ and _____ are 2 signs of diabetic coma. A. B. C. D. E.

- drowsiness, acetone-smelling breath

What are heat-producing current antibody they are formed by magnetic field that is externally applied and shortwave diathermy called?

- eddy currents

When massage is utilized to induce a sedative effect, which type of massage technique is indicated?

- effleurage

An athlete sustains a neck injury during an ice hockey game and it is complaining of numbness and tingling along the ulnar border of his forearm and fourth and fifth fingers. Which of the following roentgenograms would be most appropriate in detecting nerve root compression? A. B. C. D. E.

- electromyography or nerve root conduction velocity test

One of your patient presents with abnormal pain that he described as a burning. He states that it becomes worse when he lies and supine or consume caffeine, spicy foods, or alcohol. What made you suspect is the problem?

- esophageal reflux or peptic ulcer

Which type of food should an athletic trainer recommend the patient avoid gallbladder pathology is suspected?

- fatty acids

Which of the following statement accurately describes isokinetic training?

- generation of muscular force with visible joint movement that occurs at a constant speed but with variable external resistance

Before returning and athlete to full activity, all the following criteria should equal those taken from the uninvolved side at the end of the rehabilitation program except:

- girth measurements at 6 inches above and below the joint line

Which of the following things would you not want to do for someone who has gone into shock?

- give food or drink to the athlete

Tennis player comes to the athletic trainer complaining of medial thigh pain. He is limping and has pain with a resisted hip abduction and hip flexion. There is diffuse tenderness and ecchymosis along the proximal aspect of the medial thigh. What is the probable cause of the pain? A. B. C. D. E.

- groin strain

The adrenal glands release all the following hormones except: A. B. C. D. E.

- growth hormone

A patient reports having had a recent upper respiratory infection two weeks ago and is now having rapidly evolving bilateral muscle weakness of unknown origin. He is afebrile. What should the athletic trainer suspect? A. B. C. D. E.

- guillain-barre sydrome

Profuse sweating, dizziness, and nausea are signs and symptoms of which of the following?

- heat exhaustion

Diabetic ketoacidosis may result from which of the following conditions?

- high blood glucose levels

After an acute injury, chemical mediators are given off by various cells. Which of the following chemicals is the first to appear? A. B. C. D. E.

- histamine

Mast cells release which of the following chemicals to initiate the inflammatory response? A. B. C. D. E.

- histamine

Which of the following signs is tested for when a deep vein thrombosis is is suspected after a traumatic incident occurs involving the lower leg? A. B. C. D. E.

- homan's sign

A patient comes to the athletic training facility after being kicked in the lower leg by an opponent during a football game. He is complaining of decreasing station in the L4 dermatome. What is this change in sensation called? A. B. C. D. E.

- hypoesthesia

How are the following injuries may be associated with a "popping" sensation of the knee joint except: A. B. C. D. E.

- iliotibial band friction syndrome

A second-degree medial collateral ligament sprain is characterized by all the following except: A. B. C. D. E.

- immediate, severe pain following the feeling of a "pop" in the knee; the pain quickly subsides and the athlete is left feeling a dull ache in the knee jiont

Which of the following should be done for an unconscious patient suffering from insulin shock?

- immediately transport the patient to an emergency care facility

When a minor is injured and he is a life-threatening situation, the athletic trainer must try to contact the parents of the child. If the parents of the child cannot be contacted and they did not give consent and written before the child began participation, the athletic trainer still has a ride to give the child emergency care. Which type of consent is this?

- implied

During CPR, it is most convenient and efficient to monitor the athletes circulation by palpating the carotid artery. Where is the pulse located? A. B. C. D. E.

- in the groove between the larynx and the sternocleidomastoid muscle

What does "extension lag" mean?

- inability to fully extend the knee

If hyperventilation does not adequately increase the oxygen supply in the blood during aerobic exercise, what must occur to meet the gas exchange demands?

- increased cardiac output

The effects of treating a subacute musculoskeletal injury with a warm whirlpool include all the following except:

- increased deep tissue temperature

With ice application during the initial care of an acute injury, all of the following occur except:

- increased metabolism in the area

A moist heat pad causes all the following effects except:

- increases in muscle tissue temperature

A patient seen by the athletic trainer for weeks postoperatively after shoulder arthroscopic. During the athletic trainers assessment, it is found at the patient has limited abduction secondary to capsular stiffness. Which of the following joint glides would be appropriate to improve this motion?

- inferior humeral glide

What is the primary mode of action of penicillin? A. B. C. D. E.

- inhibits metabolism of the bacteria

What is the proper protocol for administering Pepcid AC to an adult patient (assuming the patient does not have difficulty swallowing or persistent abdominal pain)?

- initial dose: 1 tablet, 10 mg each with water up to twice a day. Do not administered more than 2 tablets in a 24-hour period

What is the proper protocol for administering Advil to an adult patient (assuming he or she is not allergic to ibuprofen or aspirin and does not have renal or gastrointestinal pathology)?

- initial dose: 1 to 2 tablets, 200 mg each, repeat every 6 hours, PRN. Do not exceed 6 tablets in a 24-hour period without consulting with a physician

Which of the following is the proper protocol for administering Tylenol to an adult patient (assuming the patient is not allergic to acetaminophen)?

- initial dose: 2 tablets, 325 mg each, repeat every 4 to 6 hours, PRN

What is the hallmark sign of peripheral arterial disease? A. B. C. D. E.

- intermittent claudication

Foot pronation results in _____ of the tibia during midsupport in the running gait. A. B. C. D. E.

- internal rotation

What type of exercise may be safely initiated immediately after knee surgery?

- isometric exercises

Why is it important that an acid with an abdominal injury never be given anything to eat or drink?

- it increases the risk of surgery if an operative procedure becomes necessary

One of the hormones that the pancreas produces is glucagon. What is the function of this hormone? A. B. C. D. E.

- it stimulates the release of glucose from the liver into the blood

After an athlete has suffered a ruptured spleen, he or she may experience pain that radiates down the left shoulder in approximately 1/3 of the way down the upper left arm. What is this pain called? A. B. C. D. E.

- kehr's sign

What problem might the athletic trainer see if the L4 nerve root was compress? A. B. C. D. E.

- knee extension weakness

One of your athletes presents with rhinorrhea, rhinitis, a sore throat, nonproductive cough, low-grade fever, headache, chills, and malaise. What actions should the athletic trainer take?

- limit the athlete's activities until fever resolves and resume full activity as the symptoms resolve

When developing an emergency action plan, it is critical that the athletic trainer identify certain aspects of the venue he or she is working in prior to an event. All the following should be considered except:

- location of press box

Which of the following cells release histamine and serotonin during the cellular response phase of tissue healing? A. B. C. D. E.

- mast cells and platelets

How is the correct size of an oropharyngeal airway measured and selected?

- measure the distance between the tip of the hear and the corner of the mouth

High voltage post monophasic generators deliver current to the tissues without damaging superficial tissues and I use for pain modulation. What type of wave form is used with this type of stimulator?

- monophasic spike delivered in pairs

Which of the following structures is affected in an individual who has been diagnosed with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (also know as Lou Gehrig disease)? A. B. C. D. E.

- motor neuron

Which infuse an abrupt, firm, springy resistance to motion?

- muscle spasm

A young gymnast sustains a fracture/dislocation of the right talus and is immobilized in non-weight bearing for 6 weeks. After the cast is removed, she begins to complain of skin hypersensitivity, pain that is disproportional to the injury, and a significant resistance to the move her ankle or toes. Do you have a train recognizes this to be the initial sentence of which of the following disorders? A. B. C. D. E.

- muscular dystrophy

With a patient setting, the scapula stabilize, and the shoulder maximally flexed, the patient complains of pain and appears apprehensive. This is a positive _____ test. A. B. C. D. E.

- neer's

Which dermatomes correlates to the T7 nerve root? A. B. C. D. E.

- nipple line

Which of the following is a sign of an adequate breathing?

- noisy respiratory, such as wheezing or gurgling

Under what condition can CPR be stopped?

- not until the athletic trainer is exhausted, spontaneous respirations and pulse have returned, or a physician or another party continues CPR in place of the athletic trainer

Basketball player reports to the athletic training facility complaining of a burning pain along the lateral aspect of his right knee during and after running. No edema or ecchymosis is found during the exam, but he is tender to palpation of the affected area. Which of the following specialties might be positive? A. B. C. D. E.

- ober's test

During the foreign body airway obstruction maneuver, the AT should grasp one fist with the other hand and place the thumb side of the fist where? A. B. C. D. E.

- on the abdomen between the xyphoid process and the umbilicus

Which of the following instruments is used to visually examine the ear canal and tympanic membrane?

- otoscope

Where should the bell of a stethoscope place when taking blood pressure? A. B. C. D. E.

- over the brachial artery

Tenderness and paint with induration and swelling of the pretibial musculature following overexrteion is indicative of which syndrome? A. B. C. D. E.

- periostitis

An athlete comes to the athletic trainer holding a tooth that has been just knocked out of his mouth. What would be the proper steps for the athletic trainer to take to allow for a successful re-implantation? A. B. C. D. E.

- place the tooth in a cloth soaked with saline or water and get the athlete to a dentists within 30 minutes

One of your patient presents with sudden onset of chest pain, dyspnea, hemoptysis, and cyanosis. What do you suspect is the problem?

- pneumothorax

Sign and symptoms of Sever's disease include which of the following? A. B. C. D. E.

- point tenderness at or just anterior to the insertion of the Achilles tendon along the posterior border of the calcaneous

Which of the following is considered a medical emergency?

- posterior elbow dislocation

Balance and coordination are critical for athletic performance. Feedback from the muscles are as to what they are doing during particular activities is known as _____. The area of the brain that assists in controlling movement is the _____.

- proprioception, cerebellum

When treating an athlete who presents with an unidentified somatoform disorder, what should the athletic trainer do:

- provide the athlete with psychological counseling focused on having the athlete recognize and acknowledge the source of his or her anger

The wrestler comes into the athletic training facility after sustaining a major elbow injury. There is an intense pain, in the area is grossly swollen. The athlete is unable to straighten his elbow, in the form appear shortened. The athletic trainer suspects in acute dislocation. Which two areas with the athletic trainer checked for possible vascular impairment? A. B. C. D. E.

- radial pulse and color of nailbeds after compression

When we have a lactating and musculoskeletal injury what is the proper progression of treatment?

- range of motion, strength, endurance, proprioception

Deep frostbite is a medical emergency. What would the proper course of treatment be for this problem? A. B. C. D. E.

- rapid rewarming of the affected body part with warm water

One of your athlete is complaining of constipation related to a dietary change. What would be the most appropriate recommendation for the athletic trainer to make?

- recommend increased fluid intake and increased intake of fruits, bulk vegetables, and cereal

When symptoms are experienced distal to the pathology, this is known as what?

- referred symptoms

What is one of the greatest concerns in primary life-threatening affective rhabdomyolysis? A. B. C. D. E.

- renal failure

How is the strength of the pes anserinus musculature manually muscle tested? A. B. C. D. E.

- resistance to knee flexion and internal rotation of the lower leg

How is cranial nerve XI tested? A. B. C. D. E.

- resisting a shoulder shrug

One of your athletes is experiencing anxiety attack. He is hyperventilating. You talk to him to calm him down and have him slowly breathe into a paper bag. What process does re-breathing into a paper bag reversed?

- respiratory alkalosis

A lacrosse player comes limping into the athletic training facility with assistance from a coach. He is holding his leg in a slight hip and knee flexion. There's a large bulge in the proximal thigh. During the exam, the athletic trainer request the athlete to extend his knee as he sits on the edge of the taping table. He is able to partially straighten his leg, although there is pain down the anterior thigh area with the attempt to move it. What does the athletic trainer suspect is wrong? A. B. C. D. E.

- ruptured rectus femoris muscle

Where is the primary location for adenosine triphosphate production and skeletal muscle?

- sarcomere

_______ shock is a widely disseminate infection in many areas of the body, with the infection being borne through the blood from one tissue to another

- septic

OK basketball player who has sprained his ankle for the second time in three months reports to the athletic training facility for her third treatment session. Diaspora trainer notices she is demanding and wants to know why the athletic trainer "did not fix her ankle the right way the first time". She becomes somewhat threatening, stating that she will find someone else to help her if she is not successful your help this time. What would be the best response to an attention seeking athlete?

- set specific but reasonable time limits with the athlete per treatment session so the athletic trainer is not overtaxed

What is one of the most common symptoms of lumbar discogenic injury? A. B. C. D. E.

- sharp, radiating pain down the back of the leg

Heat is dissipated in the body by all the following except:

- shivering

When recommending a running sneaker the athletic trainer should recommend a soul that has what major qualities?

- shock absorbing and durable

The proper position to manual muscle test the anterior deltoid? A. B. C. D. E.

- shoulder at 90 degrees of abduction, full external rotation , and supination with force directed downward

During a D2 extension pattern of the upper extremity, what is the proper timing sequence?

- shoulder extension, forearm pronation, finger flexion

What would be a functional skill for a patient and an ankle rehabilitation program?

- single-leg hopping

What are the 3 most commonly affected organ systems in the Marfan syndrome? A. B. C. D. E.

- skeletal, cardiovascular, gastrointestinal

Frostbite include which of the following signs?

- skin is purple

Which of the following is not a sign of diabetic coma?

- slow and weak pulse

Which of the following is not a sign of hypervolemic shock?

- slow and weak pulse

A patient is brought to the athletic training facility after sustaining a hard kick to the abdominal area. Which of the following symptoms is not a sign of a significant abdominal injury? A. B. C. D. E.

- slow, deep respirations

The Athletic Trainer ask a patient to shrugged his shoulders after a neck and shoulder injury. He has difficulty performing this movement, even though it is not painful. What nerve is injured? A. B. C. D. E.

- spinal accessory

Orthostatic syncope is caused by which of the following conditions? A. B. C. D. E.

- sudden peripheral vasodilation

Which of the following categories of drugs does not have a synergistic affect to cryotherapy?

- systemic antibiotics

Which of the following categories of drugs has an antagonist effect to superficial and deep heat therapy?

- systemic vasoconstrictors

When a bronchial dilator is used more often than recommended, it can cause which of the following?

- tachycardia

_____ and _____ are both examples of histamine-2-blockers. A. B. C. D. E.

- tagamet, ventolin

Which of the following is not part of the management of turf toe?

- taping to limit motion of the distal interphalangeal joint

According to the NATA position statement, Pre-participation Physical Examinations and Disqualifying Conditions, who should make the final decision regarding an athlete's participation in a sport?

- team physician and institution

Which of the following is not a good reason to refer an athlete to a psychiatrist or psychologist?

- the athlete is showing undue concern over minor injuries, but the concern is brief

One of your diabetic athletes appears confused and is dizzy, apprehensive, and diaphoretic. How she does actually be treated?

- the athlete should be treated for insulin shock and should be transported to the nearest hospital if he or she odes not respond to sugar within 2 to 3 minutes

What is spina bifida occulta? A. B. C. D. E.

- the incomplete formation of the posterior vertebral arch without herniation of the meninges or spinal cord

Allen's test is used to test what? A. B. C. D. E.

- the integrity of the radial and ulnar arteries of the hand

When testing for paresthesia on the C5 nerve root, where should the athletic trainer perform pinprick testing? A. B. C. D. E.

- the lateral aspect of the upper arm over the middle deltoid

What special test identifies owner nerve compression or transmission interference at the elbow?

- tinel's sign

The acute phase of an injury last approximately 3 to 4 days. What occurs at the time of initial trauma? A. B. C. D. E.

- transitory vasoconstriction, followed by vasodilation and increased permeability

The ideal relationship between the athletic trainer and athlete is built on _____ and _____.

- trust, mutual respect

An athlete reports to the athletic trainer with a deep laceration to his thigh. The cut is approximately 1/8 inch deep, 1 inch long, and bleeding moderately. What would be the proper steps for the athletic trainer to take to treat this one? A. B. C. D. E.

- use a pressure bandage to control bleeding, keep the wound clean and free of debris, use butterfly strips for temporary closure, and apply ice and compression to the area

What is the prudent method of transporting an athlete with a suspected spinal injury? A. B. C. D. E.

- use a spine board with medical assistance

What is the best method of determining the recovery status of the hand and forearm after flexor injury?

- use of a hand dynamoter

What is the appropriate treatment for an athlete who has sustained a rib fracture? A. B. C. D. E.

- use of a rib belt

One of your cross-country runners has an ongoing problem with tinea pedis. Which of the following actions should you take to assist this athlete in minimizing the problem? A. B. C. D. E.

- use talcum powder daily and keep his or her feet dry after showering

An injured athlete is lightweight therapeutic mental process in which he pictures himself being evaluated by the athletic trainer and assure the injury is not serious. He didn't pictures himself moving through rehabilitation, recovering nicely, and, finally, returning to his portfolio. What is the therapeutic approach to the recovery process called?

- visulization

The football quarterback is sag during 18. He comes off the field holding his throwing arm and complains of chest and anterior shoulder pain. After evaluating the athlete, the athletic trainers expects a torn pectoralis major muscle. Which of the following physical findings will be seen if the athletic trainer is correct? A. B. C. D. E.

- weakness in adduction, flexion , and internal rotation of the affected arm

When taking a history during a physical examination of a patient, all of the following information is pertinent except: a. the mechanism of injury b. if a "pop" or "snap" was heard or felt c. if the patient is on medication d. whether the patient has medical insurance or not e. history of previous injury

- whether the patient has medical insurance or not

Which of the following conditions has a cardiac ideology as a relates to sudden death in the athlete?

- wolf-parkinson-white syndrome

What medication is often used for anxiety or panic attacks? A. B. C. D. E.

- xanax

A certified athletic trainer refuses to treat an athlete based on the athlete's ethnicity. This is in violation of which principle of the NATA Code of Ethics? A. I: "Members Shall Practice With Compassion, Respecting the Rights, Welfare and Dignity of Others" B. II: "Members Shall Comply With the Laws and Regulations Governing the Practice of Athletic Training, National Athletic Trainers' Association (NATA) Memberships Standards and the NATA Code of Ethics" C. III: "Members Shall Maintain and Promote High Standards in Their Provision of Services" D. IV: "Members Shall Not Engage in Conduct That Could be Construed as a Conflict of Interest, Reflects Negatively on the Athletic Training Profession or Jeopardizes a Patient's Health and Well-Being" E. None of the above

A

A cross-country runner comes to you because he would like to begin a strength-training program for general body development. He informs you that he "has never really lifted weights before." How would you instruct him regarding his breathing pattern during a lift? a. Have the athlete inhale deeply at the beginning of the lift and then forcefully exhale at the end of the lift b. Have the athlete hold his breath during the lift c. Have the athlete inhale during the lift and hold his breath at the end of the lift d. Have the athlete breathe in, blow out, and breathe in again at the end of the lift e. Breathe normally

A

A female gymnast is complaining of symptoms of premenstrual syndrome such as irritability, anxiety, depression, and bloating. Which of the following vitamins might be helpful in alleviating these symptoms? A. vitamin B6 B. vitamin B12 C. vitamin K D. vitamin A E. vitamin C

A

A moist heat pack offers what type of thermotherapy? a. Superficial b. Deep c. Cutaneous d. Surface e. None of the above

A

A patient sustained a blunt trauma injury to the upper right quadrant of the abdomen. What structure might be injured in this area? A. liver B. gallbladder C. spleen D. pancreas E. kidney

A

A wrestler comes to the athletic training facility inquiring about a "drug that will make him lose weight quickly". He mentions a diuretic. Which of the following drugs has been banned by the International Olympic Committee and causes diuresis? a. furosemide b. salbutamol c. caffeine (<12 mcg/mL) d. salicylates e. none of the above

A

According to the NATA's position statement on lightning safety for athletics and recreation, aspects of an emergency action plan specific to lightning and safety include all the following except: a. promote lighting safety slogans b. establish a chain of command c. use a reliable means of monitoring the weather d. identify locations safe from lighting hazard e. make sure all emergency vehicles are grounded during inclement weather

A

Although no cure exists for myasthenia gravis, medical treatment to minimize the symptoms include which of the following? A. Medications that act on the neuromuscular junction B. Cold laser C. Skeletal muscle relaxants D. Radiation E. Antipyretic drugs

A

An athlete and his coach from your wrestling program have been trying to convince you that the athlete, who has been diagnosed with impetigo, can return early to wrestle. Your response should be based upon which NATA Code of Ethics principle? A. I: "Members Shall Practice With Compassion, Respecting the Rights, Welfare and Dignity of Others" B. II: "Members Shall Comply With the Laws and Regulations Governing the Practice of Athletic Training, National Athletic Trainers' Association (NATA) Memberships Standards and the NATA Code of Ethics" C. III: "Members Shall Maintain and Promote High Standards in Their Provision of Services" D. IV: "Members Shall Not Engage in Conduct That Could be Construed as a Conflict of Interest, Reflects Negatively on the Athletic Training Profession or Jeopardizes a Patient's Health and Well-Being" E. None of the above

A

An athlete is brought into the athletic training facility with a 2.5 inch nail embedded in his foot. All of the following actions are appropriate in the treatment of this injury except: a. immediately remove the nail from the foot b. keep the athlete calm c. pack the nail and foot as they are in a large dressing to help control the bleeding and stabilize the object d. transport the athlete to the hospital with the nail still embedded in the foot e. verify that the athlete's tetanus shot is current

A

An athlete steps out of a whirlpool onto a slippery, wet floor and slips and falls, fracturing his wrist. The athletic trainer may be considered ______ in this case. A. Negligent B. Immune C. A plaintiff D. A witness E. Not guilty

A

An athlete who wipes off his golf clubs after every shot and constantly makes sure each club is returned to exactly the same spot in his bag every time it is used is demonstrating which of the following behaviors? A. Obsessive-compulsive B. Anxiety disorder C. Staleness D. Overachievement E. Obsessive-defiant disorder

A

An athlete's diet should consist of approximately __________ protein, __________ fat, and _________ carbohydrate. A. 12% to 15%, 40% to 50%, 55% to 70% B. 10% to 20%, 30% to 40%, 50% to 70% C. 5% to 35%, 55% to 65%, 70% to 90% D. 25% to 35%, 55% to 65%, 70% to 90% E. 45% to 55%, 10% to 20%, 45% to 55%

A

An athletic trainer discovers that he is infected with WV. All of the following would be prudent steps for the athletic trainer to take except: A. Avoid seeking medical care B. Inform, if or when it becomes appropriate to do so, his patients, coworkers, and supervisors of his status C. Take the necessary steps to avoid the possibility of infecting others D. Make sure he has ongoing medical evaluations E. B and D

A

An athletic trainer shares a patient's electronic medical record (EMR) via email with a local podiatrist for his medical opinion without the patient's consent. This podiatrist has never met the patient. This violates which of the 4 principles of the NATA Code of Ethics? A. I: "Members Shall Practice With Compassion, Respecting the Rights, Welfare and Dignity of Others" B. HI: "Members Shall Maintain and Promote High Standards in Their Provision of Services" C. IV: "Members Shall Not Engage in Conduct That Could be Construed as a Conflict of Interest, Reflects Negatively on the Athletic Training Profession or Jeopardizes a Patient's Health and Well-Being" D. A and B

A

At the secondary school level, the athletic training student should be involved in the educational efforts involving bloodborne pathogens. These educational items should include all the following except: a. education on the availability of herpes testing b. eduction/training in the use of universal precautions and wound care c. education on access to hepatitis B virus vaccinations and testing d. education of parents and guardians regarding the student's risk of infection e. education on the modes of infection and risk of infection from the athletes they care for

A

At what point should the athletic trainers initial evaluation of an injury begin? a. at the moment of injury witnessed b. once the patient has been stabilized in the athletic training facility c. once the athletic trainer receives a medical referral from a doctor d. after the patient is seen by the team doctor e. B and D

A

Bulimia nervosa typically results in feelings of _____ after a binge. A. Guilt B. Elation C. Anger D. Depression E. Peace

A

Changes in blood pressure may occur as a result of many factors. Two of the factors may include _______ and _______. A. exercise, change in posture B. change in posture, respiratory rate C. level of consciousness, body size D. respiratory rate, pH levels of the blood E. change in mood, respiratory rate

A

Deep pain may originate from 3 specific areas when a nerve is injured. These areas are known as sclerotomes, myotomes, and dermatomes. Sclerotomic pain is transported by what type of nerve fiber? A. Unmyelinated C fibers B. Unmyelinated D fibers C. Myelinated A-Delta fibers D. Myelinated C fibers E. Myelinated B-Delta fibers

A

During aerobic metabolism, enzymes reduce large molecules of carbohydrates, fat, and protein into smaller particles so they can be oxidized in a chain of chemical reactions. What is this series of chemical reactions collectively called? A. The Krebs cycle B. Oxidative carboxylic acid cycle C. Thermocaloric cycle D. Phosphocreatine reaction E. Electron transport cycle

A

During ballistic stretching, the Golgi tendon organs are unable to produce a relaxing effect of the muscle because of the constant stimulation of which of the following structures? A. Muscle spindles B. Posterior horn of the spinal cord C. The antagonist muscle D. Cerebral cortex E. None of the above

A

In moderation, caffeine stimulates the _________ and ______ centers of the brain, causing increased alertness. A. Cerebral cortex, medulla B. Reticular formation, medulla C. Hypothalamus, midbrain D. Cerebellum, midbrain E. Brain stem, midbrain

A

It is well known that many athletes will utilize nutritional supplements in an effort to enhance performance. An athlete ask you to explain the action of an antioxidant. Which of the following best describes the role of an antioxidant? A. a nutrient that protects the cell from the detrimental effects of substances that may cause health problems, such as premature aging B. a mineral that is known to protect the body from cancer C. a vitamin that is known to protect the body from heart disease D. a substance that is found in vegetables and dairy products and prevents certain types of cancer and osteoporosis E. none of the above

A

Medical records are defined as which of the following? A. Cumulative documentation of a person's medical history and health care interventions B. Widely accepted principles that are intended to guide the professional activities of the health care practitioner C. The act of recording health care assessments or treatment on cassette tapes or directly into a computer for later transcription D. A method of recording details of an athlete's assessment and treatment using a detailed prose-based format E. All of the above

A

Muscular fiber arrangements may be known as ____ or______. A. Fusiform, pennate B. Oblique, striated C. Striated, smooth D. Multinuclear, un in uclear E. Transverse, longitudinal

A

Muscular tension may be increased by increasing the _____ or _____. A. Frequency of motor units firing, the number of motor units that are stimulated B. External force, inert muscle force C. Contractile tension, viscoelastic tension D. Number of repetitions while weight lifting, the poundage of weight E. Angle of applied force, frequency of motor units firing

A

Of the following statements, which is true about anatomic pulleys? A. Anatomic pulleys change the direction of the muscle force but not the magnitude of the force B. Anatomic pulleys always deflect the line of pull of a muscle away from the joint axis C. Anatomic pulleys change the direction and magnitude of the force D. Anatomic pulleys improve leverage and, therefore, increase the magnitude of the force E. None of the above

A

One of your athletes goes out of his way to avoid eating carbohydrates, such as bread and potatoes, because of his fear of becoming fat. Which of the following substances will the body begin to utilize for energy if there is a significant lack of carbohydrates in the diet? A. Protein B. Fat C. Glucose D. Antioxidants E. None of the above

A

One of your patients has been diagnosed with Sinding-Larsen-Johansson disease. Which of the following is not appropriate when advising the patient in regard to minimizing his symptoms? a. To increase the strength of the vastus medialis obliqus muscle with isotonic quadriceps strengthening exercises b. Use ice packs frequently to minimize pain and swelling c. Avoid stressful activities, such as running, for approximately 6 months d. Avoid deep squatting e. All of the above

A

Over the past 6 months, you notice one of the athletic trainers on your staff exhibiting some behaviors that are out of character for that individual. You recognize these behaviors as signs of "burnout." Which of the following are signs of job burnout? I. Insomnia II. Angry behavior III. Manic behavior IV Self-preoccupation V. Attentiveness VI. Daily feelings of exhaustion A. I, II, IV, VI B. I, III, IV, V C. II, III, V, VI D. II, III, IV, VI E. All of the above

A

Panner's disease is an osteochondrosis of which of the following? a. capitellum b. tibial tubercle c. olecranon d. first ray of foot e. talus

A

Part of professional development is networking within your profession. This is accomplished by which of the following? A. Going to professional meetings B. Having a professional appearance at all times C. Arriving late to a conference D. Not keeping in contact with colleagues in your profession E. All of the above

A

Patients with down syndrome are restricted from participating in sports such as gymnastics, diving, soccer, and high jump without documented medical clearance because of the possible presence of which of the following conditions? a. atlantoaxial instability b. strabismus c. slipped capital epiphysis d. aortic aneurysm e. talar subluxation

A

Physiologic adaptations of the respiratory system during aerobic endurance training include all following except: A. Reduced submaximal heart rate B. Enhanced oxygen exchange within the lungs C. Decreased submaximal pulmonary ventilation D. Improved circulation throughout the lungs E. B and D

A

Purging is a major symptom of what? A. Bulimia B. Anorexia nervosa C. Obsessive-compulsive disorder D. Manic depression E. None of the above

A

Result of severe fluid restriction during weight loss attempts by wrestler may indicate which of the following? A. Higher resting heart rate B. Increased renal flow C. Increased stroke volume D. Higher O2 consumption E. Lower resting heart rate

A

Shoulder pads provide protection for which type of injury? a. acromoclavicular joint separation b. glenohumeral joint separation c. rotator cuff tendinitis d. impingement c. brachial plexus injuries

A

The NATA's position statement on the prevention of pediatric overuse injury suggest a pediatric to athlete should be at least ______ per week from competitive practice, competitions, sport-specific training. a. 1 to 2 days off b. 3 days off c. 3 to 5 days off d. 2 to 3 days off e. 1/2 to 1 full day off

A

The ______ pulse and ______ pulse should be palpated after an acute traumatic injury to the knee area to make sure the peripheral circulation to the involved limb is adequate. a. posterior tibial, dorsalis pedis b. anterior tibial, plantar c. saphenous, dorsalis pedis d. femoral, posterior tibialis e. femoral, popliteal

A

The abbreviation GERD stands for which of the following? A. Gastroesophageal reflux disease B. Gall bladder esophageal reflux disease C. Gastroesophageal renal disease D. Gastrointestinal entero-renal disease E. None of the above

A

The athlete may have difficulty performing what actions if the medial and lateral pectoral nerves are injured? A. flexion, adduction, and internal rotation of the upper arm B. shoulder shrugs C. abduction and external rotation of the upper arm D. extension, internal rotation, and adduction of the upper arm E. flexion, abduction, and external rotation of the upper arm

A

The athletic trainer may use any of the following to treat an injured or ill patient except: A. Prescription drug B. Hydrotherapy C. Cryotherapy D. Electrotherapy E. Massage

A

The coracoclavicular ligaments consist of the _____ and ______ ligaments. A. Trapezoid, conoid B. Coracoacromial, conoid C. Acromioclavicular, trapezoid D. Costoclavicular, conoid E. Trapezoid, glenoid

A

The foot becomes a "rigid lever" for push-off when it is in what position? A. Supination B. Pronation C. Dorsiflexion D. Adduction E. Plantar flexion

A

The function of the pituitary gland is to do all of the following except: a. increase the levels of calcium in the blood b. increase thyroid function c. increase estrogen release (in females) d. increase testosterone release (in males) e. Increase water absorption in kidneys

A

The only individuals who should have access to databases containing an athlete's medical records should be the _____ and ______. A. Athletic trainer, team physician B. Athletic trainer, school nurse C. Team physician, athletic director D. Parents, school nurse E. Athletic trainer, coach

A

The process by which something is done in a sports medicine program is defined as a(n) _____. A. Procedure B. Policy C. Agreement D. Chain of command E. Protocol

A

The rectus femoris muscle performs what 2 actions? A. Hip flexion and knee extension B. Hip extension and knee flexion C. Hip flexion and hip internal rotation D. Knee extension and hip internal rotation E. None of the above

A

To help prevent an athlete from developing hypothermia while playing in very cold weather, what should the athletic trainer advise the athlete to do? A. Wear a hooded sweatshirt B. Only stay out in the cold for brief periods of time C. Wear layers of clothing D. Wear lined pants E. B and D

A

To prevent a hazardous electrical problem in the athletic training facility, __________ and ___________ should never be used. a. multiple adapters, extension cords b. ground fault interruptors, 3-pronged wall outlets c. ground fault interrupters, fluorescent lights d. hanging lights, 3-pronged wall outlets e. equipment with electrical cords, equipment that conforms to National Electrical Code guidelines

A

Treatment for cystic fibrosis 'includes which of the following? A. Nutritional counseling/modification, pulmonary therapies to clear secretions, antibiotics B. Regular exercise, nutritional counseling/modifications, expectorants C. Bed rest, daily suction to clear secretions, antihistamines D. Bed rest, daily suction to clear secretions, antibiotics and expectorants E. Bronchodilators, antihistamines and expectorants

A

Under which of the following conditions is the tension created in a muscle the greatest during exercise? A. When the interaction between the cross-bridges of the actin and myosin myofilaments are at a maximum B. When the muscle position is at its shortest C. When a muscle is at its most lengthened point D. When the muscle insertion is at a 90-degree angle to the shaft of a bone E. None of the above

A

Unlimited access to fluids is critical during hot weather because the patient will sweat more. Sweat is hypo-tonic, which means the patient is likely to experience what imbalance? A. Water loss in excess of salt loss B. Salt loss in excess of water loss C. Water loss is equal to salt loss D. Sugar loss in excess of water loss E. Sugar loss equal to water loss

A

Upper extremity closed kinetic chain exercises are used primarily for strengthening and improving proprioception of which of the following structures? A. Muscles that stabilize the shoulder girdle B. Ligaments that stabilize the glenohumeral joint C. Tendons that support the joints of the cervical spine, shoulder, and elbow D. The articular surfaces of the glenohumeral and acromioclavicular joints E. The articular surfaces of the acetabulum and femoral head

A

What 2 structures pass through the tunnel of Guyon? A. The ulnar nerve and ulnar artery B. The radial and ulnar nerves C. The radial nerve and radial artery D. The ulnar nerve and radial artery E. None of the above

A

What can be defined as the training effect on the cardiac system? A. Cardiac output (CO) increased stroke volume (SV) + decreased heart rate (HR) B. CO SV / HR C. CO = decreased SV — increased HR D. SV = CO x HR E. None of the above

A

What does a sunscreen SPF of 5 represent? A. an individual can exposed to ultraviolet light 5 times longer than he or she could without having the sunscreen on before his or her skin turns red B. an individual will be protected from the sun 105% C. nothing D. the sunscreen contains 5% of SPF E. the number of applications it takes for 100% protection

A

What does the production of black, tar-like stools indicate? A. Upper gastrointestinal bleeding B. Infection C. Lower gastrointestinal bleeding D. A diet that is too high in iron E. Colon cancer

A

What happens when a patient consumes a simple sugar prior to an event? A. May cause a sudden decrease in blood glucose because of a sudden increase in insulin production B. May lead to a sudden increase in blood glucose because of a decrease in insulin production C. May lead to increased blood levels of electrolytes D. May lead to hyperlipidemia E. May cause a sudden increase in bilirubin levels

A

What is a deductible? A. An out-of-pocket expense before the insurance policy begins paying B. The amount of coverage provided by an insurance company C. The monthly premium for insurance coverage D. The amount of money you will pay for each medical visit E. The maximum amount of money the insurance company will pay minus your co-pay

A

What is a quick method of testing the motor ability of the sacroiliac nerve root? A. have the patient walk on his or her toes B. manually resist ankle inversion C. manually resist great toe extension D. assess the patients ability to squat E. resisted ankle eversion

A

What is negligence? A. A situation in which an athletic trainer fails to act as a reasonably prudent athletic trainer would act under the same circumstances B. A legal wrong, other than breach of contract, for which a remedy will be provided, usually in the form of monetary damage C. An unexcused failure to perform the duties specified in a contract D. Liability generating conduct associated with the adverse outcome of a patient treatment E. None of the above

A

What is one of the most important steps an athletic trainer needs to take when starting a new high school athletic training program? A. Make an emergency plan B. Make sure there is enough tape and first-aid kits C. Have uniforms made for the athletic training staff so they may be identified by the coaches D. Meet with the school's booster clubs to begin fundraising E. Network with local physical therapists

A

What is one of the most serious adverse reactions during iontophoresis treatment? a. Galvanic burns b. Anaphylactic shock c. Dermatitis d. Histamine reaction e. None of the above

A

What is the best position for the patient to be in to muscle test the piriformis? A. sitting B. prone C. supine D. side-lying E. standing

A

What is the level of desirable total cholesterol? A. Less than or equal to 200 mg/100 mL B. Greater than 250 mg/100 mL C. 55 mg/100 mL D. Less than 100 mg/100 mL E. None of the above

A

What is the most important thing an athletic trainer should do when taking a history from an athlete after an injury has occurred or when a problem arises? A. Be an active listener B. Make sure the athlete "gets to the point" C. Find out when the injury occurred D. Be sure to ask plenty of leading questions E. Ask what type of insurance policy he or she has

A

What is the sensation that a patient experience just prior to an epileptic seizure called? A. an aura B. a hallucination C. a delusion D. pre-epileptic vertigo E. a premonition

A

What is the series of codes used by insurance agencies and providers alike to identify a patient's diagnosis for reimbursement purposes called? A. International Classification of Diseases or ICD-10 codes B. Interclinician Codes of Diagnoses or ICD-5 codes C. Third-party payer codes D. International Procedure and Diagnoses or IPD-10 codes E. None of the above

A

What occurs at the articulating surfaces of a joint that is subjected to a compressive load? A. The joint surfaces are brought closer together B. The joint surfaces are forcefully separated C. There is a "twisting" movement at the joint surfaces D. There is a "bending" motion that occurs at the joint surfaces E. There is a "gliding" motion that occurs at the joint

A

What occurs at the knee joint during the screw-home mechanism? A. The tibia externally rotates on the femur during knee extension B. The femur externally rotates on the tibia during knee flexion C. The femur internally rotates on the tibia during knee extension D. The tibia internally rotates on the femur during knee extension E. The tibia externally rotates on the femur during knee flexion

A

What occurs during a joint mobilization technique when a convex surface moves on a concave surface? A. Roll and glide occur in opposite directions B. Glide and spin occur in opposite directions C. A shearing force occurs at the joint surface D. Roll and glide occur in the same direction E. Straight glide in same direction

A

What organization publishes CPT codes on an annual basis? A. AMA B. NATA C. CAATE D. BOC E. None of the above

A

What position is the recommended position for manually muscle testing the gluteus medius muscle? A. side-lying, with the affected limb on top B. supine C. prone D. sitting E. standing

A

What should the athletic trainer advise his or her athletes to do to minimize the negative effects of jet lagged? A. drink an adequate amount of fluids, especially water, to avoid dehydration B. keep watches set to their "home" time zone C. get up and go to bed 2 to 3 hours earlier for each time zone crossed D. wear warm clothing to avoid getting cold while on the plane E. get at least 8 hours of sleep at night the week before the flight

A

What type of stretching is not recommended because of the potential for causing muscle soreness and possible injury when done over a period of time? A. ballistic B. PNF C. static D. concentric E. none of the above

A

What types of medications are most commonly used in the treatment of epilepsy? A. Tranquilizers and sedatives B. COX-2 inhibitors C. Beta-blockers D. Vasopressors E. Psychogenic drugs

A

What would be an appropriate action for the athletic trainer to take to relax a patient who is very anxious about his or her injury? A. Teach the patient about his or her injury B. Teach the patient about controlled breathing C. Have the patient speak with the school nurse D. Downplay the injury E. All of the above

A

When acquiring capital equipment for your athletic training facility, a decision must be made regarding leasing or purchasing the equipment. What might be a possible advantage in leasing the equipment? A. Less risk that the equipment will become obsolete B. Lower overall cost C. Outright ownership of the equipment D. Purchased equipment has little resale value E. All of the above

A

When advising an athlete about the proper construction of running shoes, which of the following criteria will help prevent foot and ankle injuries? I. the midsole should be somewhat soft, but should not easily flatten out with pressure II. The shoe should have a good forefoot flexibility III. the heal counter should be shallow and firm IV. the heel counter should be strong and fit well around the foot V. the upper should be constructed of quality leather or rubber A. I, II, IV B. I, III, IV, V C. II, III, IV D. II, IV, V E. I, II, III

A

When choosing a prophylactic knee brace, the brace should meet all the following criteria except: a. it should always be custom molded to avoid a poorly fitting brace b. it should not interfere with normal knee function c. it should not increase injuries to the lower extremity d. it should be cost effective and durable e. B and D

A

When developing preparticipation physical examination forms, it is important to make sure all patients have all of the following included in their medical folders except: A. Treatment consent form signed by their parents if the patient is 18 years of age or older B. History of any previous conditions documented C. Documentation of medications being taken D. Assumption-of-risk forms E. C and D

A

When educating an injured patient about the rehabilitative process, all of the following steps taken by the athletic trainer are appropriate except: A. Clearly explain to the patient what is covered or not covered by insurance B. Educate the patient about the injury, using charts or visual aids C. Explain how the healing process occurs with estimated time frames D. Explain the consequences of not following the recommended protocol E. Explain the overall rehabilitation plan

A

When evaluating the inner structures of a joint, passive range of motion is used to determine all the following except: a. the patient's willingness to move b. limitations of joint motion c. joint stability d. muscle elasticity e. soft tissue elasticity

A

When is maximum protection provided by a properly fitting mouthguard? A. when it is made of flexible, resilient material and is form fitted to the teeth and upper jaw B. when it is made of rigid, plastic material that is fitted to both the upper and lower jaw C. when it is certified by the National Operating Committee on Standards for Athletic Equipment D. when it is certified by the National Collegiate Athletic Association E. when it contains titanium fibers

A

When is seasonal affective disorder (SAD) most likely to occur? A. Winter B. Spring and summer C. Fall D. Summer into the Fall E. None of the above

A

When is the best time for an athlete to eat carbohydrate-rich foods? A. Within 2 hours after training B. 1 hour prior to training C. In small amounts while training D. A half-hour prior to training and throughout the training session E. 4 to 6 hours after training

A

When is the best time to begin a rehabilitation pro-gram after an injury? a. Immediately b. After the injured part is "healed" c. After the inflammation is under control d. Once the pain subsides e. All of the above

A

When monitoring a carbohydrate-loading program for an endurance athlete, what should the athlete do the day prior to competition? A. eat a high-carbohydrate meal and perform little to no exercise B. eat a low-carbohydrate meal and participate in a regular amount of exercise C. eat a high-carbohydrate meal and participate in regular amount of exercise D. hyper-hydrate and rest the day before competition E. eat a low-protein diet and participate in a regular amount of exercise

A

When reading an exercise prescription, which of the following statements represents the frequency of exercise? A. 3 sessions a week B. 45 minutes of continuous exercise C. 80% of VO2 max D. Running or cycling E. None of the above

A

When rehabilitating a cervical strain, what must the athletic trainer maintain the integrity of? a. Shoulder girdle b. Lower back c. Upper arm d. Hand e. Kyphosis of the thoracic spine

A

When rehabilitating a patient, it is important that the area being rehabilitated is stressed with a variety intensities and durations during conditioning. The body responds to these stresses by adapting to the specific demands imposed on it. What is this principal known as? a. The SAID principle b. The DAPRE principle c. The RICE principle d. The SITS principle e. None of the above

A

When rehabilitating an athlete following a lumbar strain, the athletic trainer should emphasize the significance of having the athlete improve the flexibility of all of the following structures except: A. The abdominals B. The iliopsoas C. The paraspinals D. The hamstrings E. The hip extensors

A

When rehabilitating an athlete, goal setting influences performance by increasing confidence levels and reducing anxiety. Which of the following is not a specific type of goal that is found in the goal-setting literature? A. Subjective goals B. General objective outcome goals C. Specific objective/performance goals D. Process goals E. Reward-based goals

A

When sodium ions move into a cell and the trans- membrane potential is reduced (approaches zero), and when potassium ions rush out of the cell and the transmembrane potential is gradually re-established, an action potential is created. The 2 phases described above are known as what? A. Depolarization and repolarization B. Repolarization and depolarization C. Stimulation and propagation D. Propagation and repolarization E. Permability and repolarization

A

When stretching during a warm-up routine, which type of stretching should not be encouraged because it may lead to an injury? a. Ballistic b. Active c. Static d. Plyometric e. PNF

A

When trying to decrease the chance of injury during activity, one should stretch thoroughly. Which one of these stretches represents bouncing type movements to achieve a stretch? a. ballistic b. dynamic c. static d. active e. PNF-slow-reverse hold

A

Where is the olecranon process located? A. Ulna B. Tibia C. Vertebrae D. Sternum E. Clavicle

A

Which 2 structures regulate water excretion? A. Kidneys, brain B. Kidneys, bladder C. Stomach, small intestines D. Kidneys, ureters E. Adrenal glands, thyroid

A

Which muscle does not assist in plantarflexion of the ankle? A. Peroneus tertius B. Posterior tibialis C. Plantaris D. Soleus E. Gastrocnemius

A

Which muscle does the axillary nerve innervate? A. Deltoid B. Latissimus dorsi C. Pectoralis minor D. Trapezius E. Scalenes

A

Which muscle is usually affected with tennis elbow? A. Extensor carpi radialis brevis B. Flexor carpi radialis C. Extensor carpi ulnaris D. Extensor pollicis brevis E. Coracobrachialis

A

Which of the following actions may help to decrease skin-electrode resistance when performing an electrotherapy treatment? A. Moisten the electrodes with water B. Cool the skin first with an ice pack C. Place the electrodes on the skin that has excessive hair D. Use a plastic-meshed cloth electrode E. Apply body lotion on the skin

A

Which of the following are braces used after rehabilitation? A. Functional B. Prophylactic C. Patellofemoral D. Rehabilitative E. Postoperative

A

Which of the following best describes the function of the school nurse in the sports medicine program of a high school? A. As a liaison between the athletic director and the athletic trainer B. The direct supervisor of the "health" services C. As the "first assistant" to the team physician D. As a liaison between the athletic trainer and the school health services E. All of the above

A

Which of the following could present a problem for the athletic trainer when using a computer to store medical records? A. Maintaining security B. Retrieving specific information C. Loading files D. Using email E. All of the above

A

Which of the following describes an impacted fracture? A. A fracture that telescopes one part of the bone on the other B. The bone splits along its length C. The fracture is at a right angle to the shaft D. A fracture consisting of 3 or more fragments at the fracture site E. None of the above

A

Which of the following describes an insurance "rider?" A. A supplementary clause to an insurance contract that covers the cost of conditions that extend beyond those associated with the standard policy B. The usual fee charged by a health care provider for a particular service C. A policy that pays for medical expenses only after all of the athlete's other medical insurance policies have reached their limit D. A universally accepted insurance claim form used by hospitals E. None of the above

A

Which of the following describes the plane and axis for cervical rotation? A. Horizontal, vertical B. Horizontal, sagittal C. Sagittal, anterior-posterior D. Frontal, vertical E. Frontal, horizontal

A

Which of the following diseases is the most commonly inherited disorder among white Americans? a. cystic fibrosis b. tay-sachs disease c. down syndrome d. sickle-cell anemia e. hemophilia

A

Which of the following exercises should be avoided in the early stages (phase 1) of anterior cruciate reconstruction rehabilitation? a. Full knee extension exercises b. Resisted hip abduction c. Toe raises d. Hamstring curls e. Isometric contraction of the quadriceps

A

Which of the following forms should the athletic trainer fill out to gain the quickest reimbursement from an insurance company? A. HCFA-1500 form B. CPT I -A form C. UCR form D. An incident report form E. None of the above

A

Which of the following is a D2 patterns of an extremity? a. external rotation with flexion and abduction to internal rotation with extension and adduction b. external rotation with flexion and adduction to internal rotation with flexion and abduction c. external rotation with adduction and flexion to internal with abduction and flexion d. external rotation with abduction and extension to internal rotation with adduction and flexion e. none of the above

A

Which of the following is a common adverse effect of an opioid analgesic? A. Constipation B. Headache C. Stomach upset D. Diarrhea E. Anxiety

A

Which of the following is a form of state credential, established by statute and intended to protect the public, that regulates the practice by specifying who may practice and what duties they may perform? A. Licensure B. Exemption C. Certification D. Registration E. None of the above

A

Which of the following is a prudent action that the athletic trainer should take prior to an emergency arising? A. The athletic trainer should arrange a meeting between him- or herself, the local rescue squad, year to establish and practice procedures that will team physician, and any other individual involved in handling an injured athlete at least once per be used in the event of an emergency B. Make sure all of the golf carts are fully charged and ready to roll C. Make sure the athletic director and school nurse are on campus D. Know all of the emergency routes of the campus and have directions to the nearest hospital E. B and D

A

Which of the following is not an error when planning the design of a sports medicine facility? A. Concentrating on function rather than style B. The use of wood for the main flooring material C. Having the adaptive access on the other side of the building D. Non-ground fault interrupter receptacles placed within the hydrotherapy area E. Having only one entrance and exit

A

Which of the following is the biggest budgetary obstacle that many high school athletic trainers must face? A. Lack of a room and special facilities/equipment necessary to operate an adequate athletic training program B. Lack of athletic tape and wraps, athletic training kits, and a table C. Location of the athletic training facility D. Lack of an athletic training student program, which would provide the certified athletic trainer with free help E. Lack of a budget plan

A

Which of the following is the only NSAID used topically in the United States? A. Salicylate B. Ibuprofen C. Meloxicam D. Celebrex E. Naproxen NA

A

Which of the following joints is classified as a uniaxial diarthrodial joint? A. The interphalangeal joints of the fingers B. Hip joint C. Carpometacarpal joint of the thumb D. Scapulothoracic joint E. None of the above

A

Which of the following may be linked to Reye's syndrome in children and teenagers when treating a viral infection? A. Aspirin B. Acetaminophen C. Pencillin D. Amoxicillin E. Lotrimin

A

Which of the following may occur as a result of a puncture wound that has not been properly treated? A. Tetanus infection B. A streptococcus infection C. A spirochete infection D. A staphylococcus infection E. Dissemination of the wound

A

Which of the following modalities results in the movement of ions into the body through the use of an electrical current? A. Iontophoresis B. Pulsed diathermy C. Phonophoresis D. Direct coupling E. Ultrasound

A

Which of the following models of supervision for a head athletic trainer could be described as a "mentoring" approach? A. Developmental supervision B. Inspection supervision C. On-field supervision D. Clinical supervision E. None of the above

A

Which of the following movements is greatest in the thoracic region? A. Lateral flexion of the spine B. Flexion and extension of the spine C. Rotation and extension of the spine D. Flexion of the spine E. None of the above

A

Which of the following sequences contains the appropriate steps in rehabilitating a grade 11 ankle sprain) a. RICE, stretching the Achilles tendon, isometric exercises, proprioceptive exercises, isotonic exercises b. RICE, isotonic exercises, hopping exercises, stretching the Achilles tendon, active range of motion exercises c. RICE, isotonic exercises, isokinetic exercises, active range of motion exercises d. RICE, treadmill ambulation, active range of motion exercises, figure-8 exercises, stretching of the Achilles tendon, foot intrinsic exercises e. None of the above

A

Which of the following statements is true about hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)? a. the incidence of sudden death from HCM is 2 to 3 times higher in children and adolescents than in adults b. the incidence of sudden death from HCM is 2 to 3 times higher in adults than in teenagers c. the incidence of sudden death from HCM is 4 to 6 times higher in black males than in white males d. the incidence of sudden death from HCM is 4 to 6 times higher in males than females e. the incidence of sudden death from HCM is 4 to 6 times higher in females than males

A

Which of the following steps below are correct when fitting a football helmets? I. place the helmet over the head, tilt it backward, and rotate it forward into position II. try to turn the helmet side-to-side with head in a stationary position III. check to make sure the helmet sits 3 fingers breadths above the eyebrows IV. press straight down on the crown of the helmet to see if the pressure is at the crown of the head V. check to see if the jaw fits snugly against the jaw VI. check the chin strap adjustments for a tight fit A. I, II, IV, V, VI B. I, II, III, VI C. I, III, IV, V D. I, III, IV, VI E. I, III, IV, V, VI

A

Which of the following types of exercise can produce a spike in systolic blood pressure that can result in a potentially life-threatening cardiovascular accident? A. Isometric B. Plyometric C. Isotonic D. Eccentric E. Isokinetic

A

Which of the following types of programs appears to be effective anabolic-androgenic steroid (ASS) abuse deterrents for adolescent student athletes? a. sex specific, sports centered, and coach-facilitated educational programs that promote performance-enhancing alternatives (ie, sport nutrition and strength training) b. co-educational, sports centered, and coach-facilitated educational programs c. gender specific, community base, and parent supported programs d. gender specific and school- and parent-educational programs focused on behavior altering strategies e. educational programs focus on specific physical and cognitive consequences of AAS abuse

A

Which two structures are injured with a Bankart lesion? A. anterior capsule of the shoulder and the glenoid labrum B. the inferior capsule of the shoulder and glenoid fossa C. the articular surface of the humeral head and glenoid labrum D. the surgical neck of the humerus and the coracoacromial ligament E. the acromioclavicular joint and glenoid fossa

A

You are aware of the general use a smokeless tobacco among your high school baseball players. You decide to develop a seminar for the coaches and players to discourage its use. Which of the following are effects of the chronic use of chewing tobacco? I. leukoplakia II. mouth and throat cancer III. increased aggression IV. bad breath V. mood swings VI. gynecomastia A. I, II, IV B. III, V, VI C. I, II, III D. II, III, IV E. II, III, IV, V

A

You have a Black patient with known sickle-cell disease who is training in high altitudes for a long-distance road race. This patient might be at risk for which condition? A. Ruptured spleen B. Enlarged gallbladder C. Cystic fibrosis D. Tinea corporis E. Hypertension

A

Your athlete comes to the athletic training facility after injuring his neck and left arm. You suspect involvement of the C5, 6 nerve root. Which of the following actions would not be involved with an injury to a muscle with this innervation? A. Little finger abduction B. Elbow flexion C. Shoulder abduction D. Forearm supination E. Shoulder flexion

A

A dynamic program of prescribed exercise for preventing or reversing the destructive effects of inactivity while returning an individual to his or her former level of competition is known as what? A. Pilates B. Rehabilitation C. A DAPRE program D. Cardiovascular program E. Yoga

B

A female field hockey player reports to the athletic trainer complaining that her knee still hurts from a grade II medial collateral ligament sprain she suffered almost 3 months ago. How long may it take for a ligament to completely heal after a significant injury? A. Between 4 and 6 months B. Up to 1 year C. Up to 4 months D. Between 1.5 and 2 years E. Between 4 and 6 weeks

B

A football player desires to increase his body weight and wants to know how he should go about it in a safe manner. To increase his muscle mass without causing negative results, both his _____ and _____ should increase appropriately. A. Fat intake, carbohydrate intake B. Muscular exercise, dietary intake C. Dietary intake, caloric expenditure D. Caloric expenditure, water intake E. None of the above

B

A patient comes to the athletic trainer just prior to his first soccer game complaining of nausea and informs the athletic that he is really nervous. Which of the following is an appropriate method to relax a nervous patient? A. Yoga B. Progressive muscle relaxation C. Have the coach calm the patient D. Resting in a warm sauna for 10 minutes E. Pilates

B

A patient has a wrist injury that is limiting his ability to supinate his forearm. In what plane of motion does supination and pronation of the forearm take place (in the anatomical position)? A. frontal B. horizontal C. sagittal D. vertical E. A and C

B

A patient needs instruction on how to properly per-form an abdominal sit-up. What should the athletic trainer recommend? a. Place his hands behind his head, take a deep breath and hold it. and pull his torso up toward his bent knees b. Cross his arms across his chest, tuck in his chin, bend his knees, inhale, and then exhale as he pulls his torso up toward his knees c. Place his hands behind his head, bend his knees. exhale completely first, and inhale deeply as he pulls his torso up toward his knees d. Keeping his arms down by his sides, bend his knees, inhale deeply, and hold it as he pulls his torso up toward his knees e. None of the above

B

A patient presents with insidious pain along the posterior aspect of the thigh. Which of the following steps should be performed first by the athletic trainer? A. Palpate the muscle bellies of the posterior thigh B. Ask how and when the pain started C. Manual muscle test the hamstring muscles D. Perform a functional test E. Assess sensation of the hip

B

A shoe with __________ and __________ cleats has been shown to reduce the risk of knee injuries? a. longer, fewer b. shorter, more c. longer, more d. shorter, fewer e. longer, sharper

B

A stretch injury to a nerve resulting in transient symptoms of paresthesia and weakness is known as what? A. Neurotmesis B. Neurapraxia C. Neurofibromatosis D. Nerve gliding E. Myopraxia

B

A swimmer reports to the athletic training facility complaining of symptoms related to Scheuermann's disease. Which type of exercises are beneficial in trying to diminish the symptoms during the early stages of the disease? A. Cervical range of motion exercises B. Extension and postural exercises C. Williams' flexion exercises D. Hughston exercises E. Deep breathing exercises

B

A type five Salter-Harris fracture involves what kind of fracture through the physeal plate? A. the epiphysis and metaphysis separate without fragmentation B. a crush injury to the epiphysis C. the epiphysis and metaphysis separate with fragmentation D. the epiphysis, metaphysis, and physis all separate from each other E. the metaphysis is separated with fragmentation

B

A type of training that employs a series of stations that consist of various combinations of weight training, flexibility, calisthenics, and brief aerobic exercise is known as which of the following? A. Isokinetic training B. Circuit training C. Plyometrics D. Progressive resistance exercises E. Specificity training

B

According to the American College of Sports Medicine, when performing flexibility exercises, how long should a stretch be held for optimal results? A. 5 to 10 seconds; after 10 seconds, minimal/no results are achieved B. 10 to 30 seconds; only as long as it feels comfortable C. 45 to 60 seconds; no less than 45 seconds D. 60 to 90 seconds; until the athlete feels some mild discomfort E. a minimum of 1 1/2 to 2 minutes

B

According to the NATA position statement on the prevention of pediatric overuse injuries, full effort throwing limits for players 9 to 14 years old should be as follows? a. 90 pitches/game, 800 pitches/season b. 75 pitches/game, 600 pitches/season c. 25 pitches/game, 350 pitches/season d. 50 pitches/game, 500 pitches/season e. there are no pitching limits for those players participating in a year-round sport

B

All athletes should be required to participate in a pre-participation physical examination prior to any athletic-related activity. During this exam, an athlete should also be required to fill out pertinent paperwork. What is one of the most important forms the athlete must complete? A. Previous athletic experience form B. Assumption of risk form C. Statutes of limitations form D. Person al information form E. Health insurance form

B

All of the following are components of outcome assessment methods from the Agreement-Trust Matrix except: A. Patient chart documentation B. Internal chart audits C. Randomized clinical trials D. Patient review E. A and D

B

All of the following are effects of immobilization on muscle except: a. increase in muscle contraction time b. increase in muscle tension produced c. decrease in muscle fiber size d. decrease in total muscle weight e. decrease in neuromuscular efficiency

B

All of the following are measures for preventing infectious diseases except: a. appropriate diet, recovery time between workouts, and sleep b. use individual water bottles, towels, uniforms, and personal equipment c. frequent laundering of uniforms d. use water to clean contaminated surfaces or equipment e. B and C

B

All of the following are ways athletic trainers can help keep insurance premiums to a minimum except: A. Insist that the athletes purchase their own personal insurance B. Adopt and communicate policies that increase the institution's financial obligations to those injuries that are covered by the school's insurance policy C. Spread the risk among all concerned parties D. Pass the cost or some fraction of the cost to the athlete E. Have the team physician see athletes in the athletic training facility

B

All of the following effects are true regarding changes that take place as a result of resistive exercise except: A. Increased ligament strength B. Improved elasticity of skeletal muscle C. Increased mineral content of bone D. Improved maximal oxygen uptake E. Increased tendon strength

B

All the following are possible side effects of oral contraceptives except: a. nausea and vomiting b. shortness of breath c. fluid retention d. amenorrhea e. feeling sluggish

B

An athlete collides with a teammate during an ice hockey game in sustains a blow to the jaw with a hockey stick. He is holding his lower face with his hands and is in intense pain. All of the following procedures will assist the athletic trainer in determining if there's a fracture of the jaw except: a. have the athlete bite and observe for a monocclusion b. palpate the jaw for a hematoma c. ask the athlete to open and close his mouth, notting asymmetry with movement d. palpate for jaw deformity when it is at rest, open, and closed e. see if the athlete can retract his jaw and observe for difficulty with movement

B

An athlete experiences a catastrophic injury in which she is permanently unable to return to playing the only sport with which she is familiar. What would be the athletic trainer's appropriate response when discussing the injury with the athlete? a. Tell her it is not appropriate to deny her condition and that it is best to accept her limitations b. Tell her it is OK for her to feel a variety of emotions and to openly express her needs and concerns c. Tell her to speak to her coach about her future in athletics d. Tell her to seek psychological counseling until she is no longer angry about her injury e. Tell her it happens all of the time and eventually she will get used to her situation

B

An athlete falls on an outstretched hand and injures his wrist. After evaluating the injury, the athletic trainer suspects a scaphoid fracture. Because this area has a poor blood supply, which of the following conditions may occur if the injury is mistreated? A. de Quervain's syndrome B. Aseptic necrosis C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Swan neck deformity E. Bennett's deformity

B

An athletic trainer working in a sports medicine clinic may have to read a SOAP note. In what section would a finding such as a positive Lachman's test be recorded? a. Subjective (S) b. Objective (0) c. Assessment (A) d. Plan (P) e. Special tests (S)

B

An excessive valgus force to the knee may result in an injury to which ligament? A. Lateral collateral ligament B. Medial collateral ligament C. Anterior cruciate ligament D. Posterior cruciate ligament E. Arcuate ligament

B

Articular cartilage has limited ability to heal because of which of the following reasons? A. Constant movement of the joint does not allow for healing B. Cartilage has limited or no direct blood supply C. The high incidence of aseptic necrosis D. Poor results with NSAID treatment E. None of the above

B

At what concentrations is topical hydrocortisone available over the counter? A. 1% and 5% B. 0.25% and 1% C. 1.5% and 2% D. 10% and 15%

B

Athletic trainers are which type of decision maker? A. Primary B. Secondary C. Tertiary D. Supplemental E. Definers

B

Athletic trainers should carry what type of insurance? A. Catastrophic event insurance B. Professional liability insurance C. Accident insurance D. Life insurance E. Primary insurance

B

Besides sources such as fortified milk and fatty fish oils (such as in tuna fish), what is another major mode of obtaining vitamin D? A. Topical creams B. Sunlight C. Artichokes D. Fried beef liver E. None of the above

B

Circuit training is an effective training technique if the athletic trainer desires to improve ____ and ____. A. Agility, endurance B. Strength, flexibility C. Agility, proprioception D. Power, endurance E. Strength, power

B

Conventional TENS uses a frequency in the _____ pulses per second range with a phase duration of _____ useconds a. 50 to 100, 250 b. 50 to 100, 2 to 50 c. 2 to 4, >150 d. > 100, 20 to 30 e. < 10, 50

B

Diuretics increase the excretion of: A. Sodium (Na+) and Potassium (K+) ions B. Sodium (Na+) and Chloride (Cl-) ions C. Potassium (K+) and Chloride (CI-) ions D. Magnesium (Mg) and Potassium (K+) ions E. None of the above

B

During a preparticipation physical examination that utilizes stations, which of the following personnel is able to perform an examination for adenopathy, abnormalities of the genitalia, and hernias in an athlete? A. athletic training student B. physician or physician assistant C. physical therapist D. certified athletic trainer E. school nurse

B

During exercise, the body's oxygen stores are greatly diminished. The recovery O2 is used for all of the following except: a. replacing O2 dissolved in tissue fluids b. returning muscle myoglobin to resting values c. increasing venous oxyhemoglobin to pre-exercise levels d. returning the catecholamine level in the blood to normal e. A and E

B

During vigorous activity, accessory muscles come into play to aid respiration. During inspiration, these muscles include the _____ and ______. A. Upper trapezius, levator scapulae B. Sternocleidomastoid, scalenes C. Intercostals, abdominals D. Intercostals, levator scapulae E. Abdominals, sternocleidomastoid

B

Following multiple ankle sprains over the course of the year, the athletic trainer detect some weakness of the inverters and evertors of a patient's ankle. Which of the following muscles does not involve the ankle? A. tibialis posterior B. extensor digitorum longus C. flexor digitorum longus D. flexor hallucis longus E. C and D

B

Frequently abused drugs include stimulants such as amphetamines (speed), cocaine (coke or crack), and depressants (alcohol or downers). An athlete who has overdosed on a stimulant would manifest all of the following signs except: A. Agitation B. Decreased reaction time C. Rapid pulse and respirations D. Convulsions E. Arrhythmias

B

Hans Selye's phenomenon of the general adaptation syndrome, which occurs when an individual responds to a stressful situation, includes which 3 stages of the stress response? A. Fright, flight, exhaustion B. The alarm stage, resistance stage, exhaustion C. The alarm stage, flight stage, acceptance stage D. Anger stage, bargaining stage, acceptance stage E. The alarm stage, flight, exhaustion

B

High-voltage pulsed stimulation may be used as an adjunct treatment in controlling acute and chronic pain through which 2 mechanisms? A. Gate control and opiate release mechanisms B. Gate control and histamine release mechanisms C. Analgesia production and counterirritation D. Edema control and spasm reduction E. Stimulation of both motor and sensory nerves

B

How may a urinary track infection be avoided in female athlete? A. drinking fluids that are acidic, such as orange juice B. practicing sanitary bowel and bladder habits C. avoiding food high in magnesium D. avoid wearing colored underwear E. none of the above

B

How might an athletic trainer assist the patient in helping him- or herself heal after an injury? A. Provide the patient access to painkillers B. Help the patient "visualize" the healing process through imagery C. Give the patient articles to read about his or her injury D. Make sure therapeutic modalities are applied in the correct sequence E. Move the patient through rehabilitation as rapidly as possible

B

How soon after a patient sustains a concussion should he or she be allowed to return to competition or practice? a. immediately b. following evaluation and clearance by physician or designee specifically trained and experienced in concussion evaluation and management c. when the patient feels he or she is ready d. 12 hours later e. 7 days

B

Momentum is created by the combination of _____ and _____. A. Speed, weight B. Mass, velocity C. Acceleration, weight D. Torque, friction E. Acceleration, inertia

B

Noxious stimuli that are created by musculoskeletal injury result in the release of endorphins and enkephalins during the mediation of pain. These opioids are produced by the stimulation of the of the midbrain and in the pons and medulla. A Periaqueductal gray area, substantia gelatinosa B. Periaqueductal gray area, raphe nucleus C. Central cortex, substantia gelatinosa D. Raphe nucleus, red nucleus E. Periaqueductal white area, substantia gelatinosa

B

One of your basketball players often complains about localized lumbar "backaches." After performing your evaluation on this patient, it appears his primary problem is postural. All of the following are actions that the patient can take to prevent low back pain except: A. When standing for long periods of time, rest one loot on a stool if it is available B. Avoid sleeping in side-lying position with the knees slightly bent C. Carry objects at waist level when possible D. Sit on chairs with a firm seat and straight back E. Keep his abdominals strong

B

One of your male cross-county runners is a committed lactovegetarian. Which of the following minerals may be deficient with this type of diet? A. Calcium, fluoride B. Iron, zinc C. Folic acid D. Copper, iron E. None of the above

B

Primary coverage is defined as which of the following? A. "Self-pay" insurance B. A coverage that begins to pay for covered expenses after the deductible has been met C. Protection for an individual against future loss of earnings because of injury D. The invoiced cost of an insurance policy E. Third-party payment

B

Properly fitting shoulders pads should adequately cover the shoulder complex. Which structure should the epaulets and cups completely cover? A. the scapula B. the deltoids C. the pectoralis major D. the trapezius E. the pectoralis minor

B

Screening for Marfan syndrome includes musculoskeletal and eye exams. Which of the following test is also part of the screening process? a. urinalysis b. echocardiogram c. pulmonary function test d. electrocardiogram e. complete blood count

B

The NATA's position statement on the management of the athlete with type 1 diabetes recommends that each athlete with diabetes have a diabetes care plan. The plan should include all the following except: a. blood glucose monitoring guidelines b. guidelines for dietary management c. insulin therapy guidelines d. guidelines for hypoglycemia recognition and treatment e. guidelines for hyperglycemia recognition and treatment

B

The __________ and __________ should be involved with the athlete and athletic trainer in selecting and maintaining the athlete's protective equipment. A. coach, team physician B. coach, equipment manager C. equipment manager, team manager D. team physician, coach E. team physician, school nurse

B

The adrenal glands secrete which of the following substances? I. Cortisol II. Epinephrine III. Serotonin IV. Aldosterone V. Estrogen VI. Human growth hormone A. I, II, III, VI B. I, II, IV, V C. II, III, V, VI D. III, IV, V, VI E. I, II, III, IV

B

The anorexic female is usually a _________ and an ______. A. Hypochondriac, underachiever B. Perfectionist, overachiever C. Type B individual, underachiever D. Neurotic individual, antisocial personality E. Type A individual, amusing personality

B

The athletic trainer should be aware of which of the following when setting up an exercise regimen for an individual who is taking beta blockers for hypertension? a. extreme drowsiness b. exercise fatigue c. sudden onset of vertigo d. inattentiveness e. diaphoresis during aerobic exercise

B

The coach confers with the athletic trainer concerning a difficult athlete on his team. During his description of the athlete's behavior, he complains of the athlete's lack of assertiveness, procrastination, constant criticism of others, and evasiveness. What type of behavior does this profile? A. Obsessive-compulsive B. Passive-aggressive C. Anxiety disorder D. Depression E. Post-traumatic stress disorder

B

The maximal rate at which oxygen is consumed and utilized while exercising is known as the maximal oxygen consumption, or VO2 max. What is the normal range of VO2 max for an average college athlete? A. 80 to 100 mL/kg/min B. 45 to 60 mL/kg/min C. 70 to 80 mL/kg/min D. 45 to 60 dL/kg/min E. 25 to 40 mL/kg/min

B

The pre-event meal should be eaten _________ before competitions to ensure proper digestion. A. 2 to 3 hours B. 3 to 4 hours C. 5 to 6 hours D. 6 to 8 hours E. 1 to 2 hours

B

The rate at which a drug disappears from the body through metabolism, excretion, or both is known as which of the following? A. Biotransformation B. Half-life C. Efficacy D. Bioavailability E. Expiration rate

B

The therapeutic conversion of electrical energy into high-frequency sound energy above the audible range to create heat in the tissues is the definition of what modality? a. Diathermy b. Ultrasound c. Electric stimulation d. TENS e. Interferential current

B

To prevent the feeling of sedation during the day while taking medication for allergic rhinitis, the athletic trainer you should suggest the athlete not to take which of the following medication until he or she is ready to go to bed? A. expectorants B. antihistamines C. decongestants D. NSAIDs E. antipyretic agents

B

To test the hypoglossal nerve, the athletic trainer should request the patient to perform what action? A. Shrug his or her shoulders B. Stick his or her tongue out C. Open his or her mouth wide D. Smile E. None of the above

B

Two major symptoms of spontaneous pneumothorax include _________ and _________. a. bradycardia, cyanosis b. sudden chest pain, dyspnea c. apnea with rales, rhonchi d. left shoulder pain, cyanosis e. diaphoresis, bradycardia

B

Under which of the following conditions should an athletic helmet be removed after an injury? a. if the athlete requests it to be removed b. if, after a reasonable period of time, the facemask cannot be removed to gain access to the airway c. the chief EMT request that it be removed d. if the helmet causes immobilization of the head and jaw e. the helmet should never be removed

B

Weight loss occurs when which of the following conditions exists? A. Less than 1000 calories are expended per day B. There is a negative caloric balance C. There is a positive caloric balance D. There is perfect caloric balance E. None of the above

B

What 3 different lipoproteins make up total cholesterol? A. Triglycerides, high-density lipoproteins (HDL), and low-density lipoproteins (LDL) B. LDL, HDL, and very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDL) C. LDL, VLDL, and triglycerides D. Alpha lipoprotein, LDL, and triglycerides E. Triglycerides, omega-3 fatty acids, HDL

B

What are cost-based providers contracted by the federal government and charged with reviewing Medicare claims made by hospitals called? A. An intermediary B. An insurance "carrier" C. A joint review board D. An insurance network E. Business manager

B

What class lever does the gastrocnemius use during plantar flexion? A. First B. Second C. Third D. Fourth E. Fifth

B

What is a protective spasm of the muscular abdominal wall called? A. Gas pains B. Rigidity C. Myositis D. Splinting E. Very painful

B

What is amenorrhea? A. Diminished flow during menses B. Absence of flow during menses C. Painful menses D. Late onset of menses E. None of the above

B

What is an example of an activity taking place with the upper extremity in a closed-chain position? A. Swinging a bat B. Performing a push-up C. Throwing a ball D. Running with closed fists E. All of the above

B

What is the average range of motion of elbow flexion? A. 0 to 90 degrees B. 0 to 135 degrees C. 0 to 115 degrees D. 0 to 100 degrees E. 0 to 180 degrees

B

What is the brand name for the NSAID diclofenac? A. Indocin B. Voltaren C. Orudis D. Feldene E. Relafen

B

What is the conversion of glucose to lactic acid called? A. Photosynthesis B. Glycolysis C. Lactolysis D. The Krebs cycle E. Glycogenosis

B

What is the efferent response to sensory information called? A. Kinesthesia B. Neuromuscular control C. Proprioception D. Coordination E. Parathesia

B

What is the proper method to manual muscle test the biceps femoris muscle? A. sitting, resisting knee extension B. lying prone, resisting knee flexion with the tibia in external rotation C. sitting, resisting hip flexion D. lying prone, resisting knee flexion with the tibia in internal rotation E. sitting, resisting elbow flexion

B

What is the structure that carries deoxygenated blood from the head and upper body to the heart? A. Descending aorta B. Superior vena cava C. Ascending aorta D, Jugular vein E. None of the above

B

What is wrong with an athlete eating a 12- to 16-ounce steak, baked potato, scrambled eggs, and coffee with sugar 4 hours prior to an event? A. Coffee with sugar may take as long as 3 hours to metabolize B. The intestinal tract will be full of the time of competition because it is a large meal C. The athlete may be hungry 8 hours later after he or she competes D. Nothing; the pre-event meal should be at least 500 calories or more E. Nothing; the athlete should eat whatever makes him or her feel comfortable

B

What kind of heating method does a warm whirlpool utilize? a. Conduction b. Convection c. Radiation d. Evaporation e. All of the above

B

What mineral must be present in adequate amounts in the muscle fiber for a contraction to occur? A. Na+ B. Ca++ C. CI- D. PO4 E. All of the above

B

What position should the patient's shoulder be in to manually muscle test the deltoids? A. abducted to 0 degrees and externally rotated to 45 degrees B. abducted to 90 degrees C. flexed with the palm down D. flexed with the palm up E. extended with the palm down

B

What should the athletic trainer do when teaching a patient how to properly use crutches? a. Make sure the patient's weight is fully supported on his or her hands and armpits b. Caution the patient not to lean on the crutches so that his or her weight is on the crutches' axillary pads c. Teach him or her how to use a cane first d. Teach the patient a 4-point gait e. Teach the patient a 5-point gait

B

When manually resisting the tibia during knee extension, all of the following statements regarding the torque produced are true except: A. The torque of an external force (ie, the hand against the anterior tibia) can be increased by increasing the magnitude of the applied force B. The torque of an external force can be increased by applying the force perpendicular to the tibial crest C. The torque of an external force can be increased by moving the force distally near the ankle D. The torque of an external force can be increased by applying the force parallel to the tibial shaft E. A and B

B

When providing "emotional first aid" to a newly injured patient, if the athletic trainer notices the patient failing to answer questions, looks confused, and is lacking emotion, how should the athletic trainer appropriately respond? A. Give the patient "space" and let him or her come to you B. With empathy and encourage the patient to express feelings C. Be direct and firm with questioning D. Ask the patient if he or she is "on any medication" E. None of the above

B

When rehabilitating a patient with a recent herniated lumbar disc, which of the following exercises are most appropriate? a. William flexion exercises b. Mckenzie extension exercises c. Lumbar stabilization exercises d. Posterior pelvic tilts and knee-to-chest exercises e. PNF stretching exercises

B

When the length of a muscle prevents full range of motion at the joint or joints over which the muscle crosses, it is known as what? A. Adhesive capsulitis B. Passive insufficiency C. Hypomobility D. Muscle contracture E. None of the above

B

When treating an athlete with trochanteric bursitis, flexibility should be increased in which of the following muscles? a. Gluteus maximus b. Tensor fasciae latae c. Iliacus d. Piriformis e. Lumbar

B

When using massage to reduce edema in an extremity, the athletic trainer should begin the technique _____ and move _____ A. Medially, laterally B. Proximally, distally C. Distally, proximally D. Deeply, superficially E. Superficially, deeply

B

Where is a Morton's neuroma most commonly located? A. Between the first and second metacarpals B. Between the third and fourth metatarsals C. Between the second and third metacarpals D. Between the second and third metatarsals E. Plantar surface of the heel

B

Which cranial nerve is injured if the athlete complains of a decrease in the sense of smell after a high velocity head injury? A. II B. IV C. Ill D. V E. I

B

Which of the following acoustical interfaces is most reflective of ultrasound energy? A. Water-soft tissue B. Soft tissue-fat C. Soft tissue-bone D. Soft tissue-air E. None of the above

B

Which of the following are contraindications to massage? I. Inflammation II. Pregnancy III. Hemorrhage IV. Infection V. Phlebitis a. I, II, III, IV b. I, III, IV, V c. II, III, IV d. II, III, IV, V e. All of the above

B

Which of the following are the "building blocks" of protein? A. Sugars B. Amino acids C. Triglycerides D. Sterols E. All of the above

B

Which of the following bones is not a carpal bone of the wrist? A. Lunate B. Cuneiform C. Hamate D. Pisiform E. Scaphoid

B

Which of the following cervical nerve roots represents the sensory dermatomes of the hand? I. C5 II. C6 III. C7 IV. C8 V. T1 A. I, II, III B. II, III, IV C. III, IV, V D. I, III, IV E. I, III, V

B

Which of the following describes a grade HI joint mobilization technique? a. Small amplitude movement at the end range b. Large amplitude movement throughout the full available range of motion of the joint c. Small amplitude movement in the beginning of the range of motion d. Thrusting movement done at the anatomical limits of the joint e. None of the above

B

Which of the following documents would be most likely subpoenaed during a civil litigation suit against an athletic trainer? A. Equipment inventory B. Treatment log C. Budget reports D. Sporting event schedules E. Proof of athletic trainer credentials and certifications

B

Which of the following does not occur when an individual is in shock? a. skin is pale and cool b. blood pressure is high c. pulse is rapid d. blood pressure is low e. respiration is shallow

B

Which of the following drugs is commonly used to treat hyperlipidemia? A. Flonase B. Crestor C. Wellbutrin D. Tagamet E. None of the above

B

Which of the following exercises improves proprioceptive feedback when rehabilitating a lower extremity injury? a. Stationary bicycling b. Single-leg standing on a mini-trampoline c. Using a knee extension machine d. Bilateral calf raises e. All of the above

B

Which of the following involves the use of ice or a cold spray before performing a stretch? A. Cryokinetics B. Cryostretch C. Cold therapy stretching D. Dynamic stretching E. Cryogenics

B

Which of the following is a manual technique in which an injured patient's muscles are actively contracted against a counterforce in a specific position? A. Myofascial release B. Muscle energy techniques C. Joint mobilization D. Strain-counterstrain E. Multi-angle isokinetics

B

Which of the following is a priority when developing a sports medicine center for the local community? A. An area for massage therapy B. A mission statement C. An open house D. An educational seminar for coaches E. All of the above

B

Which of the following is a simple movement to check the integrity of the radial nerve? a. elbow flexion b. wrist extension c. forearm supination d. thumb-to-little finger opposition e. shoulder flexion

B

Which of the following is an example of a papule? a. a freckle b. a wart c. a hive d. a friction blister e. a fungus

B

Which of the following is covered in a "rider" in athletic accident insurance policy? A. Acute traumatic injuries B. Chronic overuse injuries C. Long-term permanent disabilities D. All of the above E. None of the above

B

Which of the following is not a bone of the middle ear? A. Malleus B. Cochlea C. Stapes incus E. All of the above

B

Which of the following is not a contraindication to the use of diathermy? A. Acute inflammation and joint effusion B. Muscle spasm C. Pregnancy D. Open wounds E. C and D

B

Which of the following is not a domain of athletic training? A. Clinical Evaluation and Diagnosis B. Diagnosis of Athletic Injuries C. Immediate and Emergency Care D. Injury/Illness Prevention and Wellness Protection E. Organizational and Professional Health and Well-Being

B

Which of the following is not a preventive measure for fungal skin infections? a. use powders to absorb moisture b. wear the same pair of shoes everyday c. shower frequently d. avoid contact with contaminated surfaces e. towel off completely following a shower

B

Which of the following is not a proper action for an athlete to take it lightning is observed during game? a. avoid standing near metal bleachers on the field b. stand near a telephone pole c. assume crouched positions in a ditch d. take cover in an automobile if he or she cannot get indoors e. A and C

B

Which of the following is not a responsibility of the athletic trainer? A. Counsel and advise the athlete about health care B. Diagnose and treat illnesses C. Administer first aid as necessary D. Supervise proper equipment fitting E. Organize and set up preparticipation physical exams

B

Which of the following is not necessary when obtaining insurance information for a patient's medical records? A. The insured's name B. The insured's mother's maiden name C. The insurance company's phone number D. Policy numbers E. The insurance company's address

B

Which of the following is the most common type of cerebral palsy? a. flaccid b. spastic c. dyskinetic d. ataxic e. atrophic

B

Which of the following medication is not an antihistamine drug? a. dimetapp b. ultram c. bendadryl d. claritin e. allegra

B

Which of the following muscles is a strong extensor of the trunk? A. Gluteus maximus B. Erector spinae C. Quadratus lumborum D. Iliacus E. None of the above

B

Which of the following pairs are chemically identical? A. Diazepam, Skelaxin B. Cimetidine, Tagamet C. Triacetin, Tinactin D. Tetracaine, Lanacane E. Ibuprofen, Naprosyn

B

Which of the following proton pump inhibitors is an over-the-counter medication? A. Nexium B. Prilosec C. Prevacid D. Proton ix E. Aciphex

B

Which of the following standards are performance evaluation standards intended to help foster practicality in the employee appraisal process? A. Accuracy standards B. Feasibility standards C. Utility standards D. Proprietary standards E. Quality standards

B

Which of the following structures is responsible for relaying information regarding muscle dynamics to the conscious and subconscious parts of the central nervous system? A. Muscle spindle B. Proprioceptors C. Golgi tendon organs D. Type III muscle fibers E. Brain stem

B

Which of the following techniques allows the patient to assess his or her own efforts at controlling a specific physiological response, such as muscular tension? A. Moist heat pack B. Biofeedback C. Massage D. PNF E. Imagery

B

Which of the following would help an athletic trainer determine space needs when planning to build a sports medicine center? A. Enlisting the help of a doctor who is in private practice B. Developing a traffic pattern chart C. Buying the equipment first and then determining space needs D. Performing site visits at various gyms to get ideas E. All of the above

B

Which of the joints below compose the shoulder girdle? I. Sternoclavicular II. Acromioclavicular III. Glenohumeral IV. Scapulothoracic V. Costoclavicular VI. Scapulohumeral A. I, II, VI B. I, II, III, IV C. III, IV, V, VI D. III, V, VI E. I, II, V

B

Which of the sentence below are seen with acute mountain sickness? I. insomnia II. vomiting III. shortness of breath with exertion IV. headache V. fatigue A. II, III, IV B. I, III, IV, V C. I, II, IV, V D. I, II, III, V E. II, III, IV

B

Which organization must certify facemasks that are used in ice hockey helmets? A. CSA B. HECC C. NOCSAE D. ASTM E. NCAA

B

Which physical law is applied with the use of an infra-red lamp? a. Joule's law b. Inverse square law c. Wolff's law d. Ohm's law e. Newton's law

B

Which structures are located in the lateral compartment of the lower leg? A. Extensor digitorum longus, peroneus longus, and peroneus brevis muscles B. Peroneus longus and brevis muscles, the superficial branch of the peroneal nerve, and the peroneal artery C. Posterior tibialis muscle, posterior tibial artery, and the deep peroneal nerve D. Extensor digitorum longus, peroneal brevis, and peroneal tertius muscles E. Anterior tibialis, peroneal brevis, and Achilles tendon

B

Which type of drink would not be appropriate prior to a long-distance run? A. water B. regular soda C. gatorade D. water with lemon juice added E. any drink containing sodium

B

While covering a football game, a player gets tackled and sustains a spiral fracture of the tibial shaft. Which of the following force(s) comes into play when a bone is fractured in this manner? A. Compression, tension B. Torsion C. Compression, shearing D. Impaction E. Shearing, distraction

B

Year-round sports conditioning is developed through the concept of periodization. Periodization is an approach that allows the athlete to train in stages so peak performance may be attained at the appropriate time and injuries are avoided. Which of the following describe the different phases in periodization? A. Fall season, winter season, spring season, off-season B. Postseason, off-season, preseason, in-season C. First, second, third, and fourth quarters D. Preparation phase, active phase, maintenance phase E. Active phase, prepatory phase, competition phase

B

You are part of a planning committee that has been given the responsibility of designing the new athletic training facility at your school. You have been through the initial process of conducting a needs assessment and selecting an architect/contractor. You now are meeting with the architect to begin the development of the schematic drawings that will be submitted for approval. and are 2 major elements that must be addressed in these schematic drawings. A. Plumbing, electrical layouts B. Space needs, traffic patterns C. Field access, escape routes D. Aesthetics, large equipment positioning E. Color, furniture location

B

You have a patient who comes to your office and is very depressed. He is not doing well academically, his parents are in the process of a divorce, and the coach just cut him from the baseball team after tryouts. He tells you he wants to kill himself. What is your appropriate response? A. Tell the patient he should see a psychiatrist B. Listen to the patient, take him seriously, and consult the team doctor immediately C. Tell the patient he is not normal D. Ignore the patient and hope he will not do anything E. Tell the patient he is just looking for attention

B

You were given the permission to to hire a new staff athletic trainer. What order should these components follow when conducting staff selection activities? I. Retention II. Hiring III. Promotion IV, Performance evaluation V. Demotion A. III, V, IV, II, I B. II, III, I, IV, V C. I, II, III, IV, V D. IV, I, V, III, II E. I, II, IV, V, III

B

____ and ____ are 2 medications that can be combined when utilizing iontophoresis A. Acetic acid, lidocaine B. Dexarnethasone, lidocaine C. Dexamethasone, epinephrine D. Hydrocortisone, Medrol E. Antibiotic creams, lidocaine

B

_____, _____, and ______ must be taken into consideration when developing a risk management plan. A. Security, liability, competence B. Security, fire safety, management of emergency injuries C. Insurance procedures, policies/procedures, materials D. Licensing, certifications, administrative policy E. Employees, liability, security

B

__________ is a type of electrotherapy used to reeducate muscle. A. Interferential B. Russian C. Iontophoresis D. Premodulated E. Low intensity

B

BIOMECHANICS

BIOMECHANICS

"Cauliflower ear" is an injury to which structure of the year? A. tympanic membrane B. external auditory canal C. pinna D. eustachian tube E. internal auditory canal

C

A basketball player comes limping off the court complaining of a hamstring spasm. Which of the following procedures would be the most effective in reducing the spasm? A. Massage the hamstring B. Moist heat pack followed by ultrasound C. Static stretch of the involved muscle D. Static stretch of the antagonistic muscle E. Ice massage followed by ballistic stretch

C

A high school athlete is pitching during a baseball game and is hit in the head with a line drive. He is seriously injured. The assistant coach is also the athlete's father. In this situation, who is legally responsible for the athlete's immediate care? A. The head coach B. The assistant coach/parent C. The athletic trainer D. The high school at which the event is taking place E. All of the above

C

A patient comes to your office complaining of intense itching and burning pain between his toes, and he cannot find anything to help alleviate the symptoms. The area is reddened with some white flakes. What might you recommend? A. Neosporin ointment B. Tinactin spray C. Silvadene cream D. Eucerin cream E. Hydrocortisone

C

A patient has just been diagnosed with plantar fasciitis. All of the following would be appropriate measures to provide support/relieve to the affected area except: a. an orthotic for arch support b. low dye taping c. metatarsal pad d. a heel cup e. stretching program

C

A patient who ignores his or her diagnosis of cardiac hypertrophy and continues to exercise at an intense level risks which of the following? a. commotio cordis b. pulmonary hypertension c. a fatal cardiac event d. aortic rupture e. stroke

C

A patient who is hyperflexible (mobile beyond the joint's normal range) is subject to what types of injuries? A. Tendinitis and bursitis B. Fractures and ligament tears C. Sprains and strains D. Fractures and dislocations E. Tendinitis and adhesive capsulitis

C

A patient you have just evaluated for a possible head injury has a noticeable facial drop on the left side of his face. Which cranial nerve(s) is involved? A. I B. IV, V C. VII D. III, IX E. II, VI

C

A patient's pulmonary function is tested via spirometry. Several measurements are taken during this test. What is the maximum amount of air that can be expired after a maximum inspiration called? A. Maximum expiratory flow rate B. Forced expiratory volume C. Vital capacity D. Tidal volume E. Residual volume

C

According to program management theory, which of the following is defined as a decision-making process in which a course of action is determined in order to bring about a future state of affairs? A. Vision statement B. Mission statement C. Planning D. Program evaluation E. Implementation evaluation

C

Adverse reactions related to skeletal muscle relaxants include all the following except: A. Drowsiness B. Dizziness C. Hyperventilation D. Decreased liver and kidney function E. Physical dependence

C

After an acute musculoskeletal injury, such as a shoulder dislocation, the body releases a natural opiate-like substance that provides temporary pain relief. What is the substance called? A. prostaglandins B. substance P C. endorphins D. insulin E. histamines

C

All of the following are advantages of inspection-production supervision except: A. Helps ensure goal achievements B. Sets well-defined limits on job behavior C. Documents input and output of a sports medicine clinic D. Enhances common understanding of athletic roles E. A and D

C

All of the following are application except: A. Subacute injuries B. Contusions C. Anesthetized skin D. Muscle spasm Overuse injuries

C

All of the following are basic function of athletic taping in bandaging except: a. to support an injured body part b. to protect. wounds from infection c. to enhance the athlete's skill d. to hold protective equipment in place e. B and D

C

All of the following are considered members of the primary sports medicine team except: A. Coach B. Athletic trainer C. Physical therapist D. Team physician E. A and D

C

All of the following are contraindications for electrical stimulation electrode placement except: A. Stimulation across the heart B. Stimulation over an acute thrombophlebitis C. Control of labor pain by stimulation of the lower back D. Stimulation over the temples E. Directly over the spine

C

All of the following are contraindications for the use of aquatic therapy except: A. An excessive fear of the water B. An open wound C. An athlete who is unable to tread water D. Urinary tract infection E. A skin infection

C

All of the following are guidelines and position statements released by the NATA except: A. Exertional heat illness B. Fluid replacement for patients C. Eye safety in sports D. Lightning safety for athletics and recreation E. Asthma in athletics

C

All of the following are methods of enhancing a budget plan except: A. Keep an accurate inventory on all disposable and nondisposable supplies B. Figure out how much of your disposable supplies have been used and estimate how much more will be needed to finish out the fiscal year C. Consult with a certified public accountant or professional financial advisor and follow his or her direction regarding the development of a budget plan D. Consult with several vendors to get an estimate of how much prices will rise in the upcoming year E. Determine how many athletes will be receiving care

C

All of the following free weight exercises require one or more spotters except: a. free-weight exercise in which the bar passes over the face b. free-weight exercise in which the bar moves over the head c. free-weight exercise in which a bar curls up in front of the chest d. free-weight exercise in which the bar is positioned on the back e. free-weight exercise in which the bar moves over the chest

C

All of the following principles must be considered before the athletic trainer begins an activity designed to improve balance except: A. Multiple planes of motion must be stressed B. The activities must progress to sport-specific activities C. The activity should incorporate a unisensory approach D. The exercises must be safe but challenging E. A and B

C

All of the following questions are significant when screening a young patient for an underlying cardiac abnormality except: a. does the patient have chest pain with activity? b. does the patient have a family history of sudden cardiac death in a family member under the age of 50 years old? c. does the patient have numbness or tingling in either or both hands in cold weather? d. does the patient have a history of a "racing heart"? e. does the patient have a history of heart problems?

C

All the following are useful in evaluating low back pathology except: a. valsalva's maneuver b. bilateral straight leg test c. scouring test d. lasegue's test c. slump test

C

Although an athletic trainer has successfully passed the BOC exam, he or she must be educated on the rules and regulations of the state(s) in which he or she intends to practice. The individual be knowledgeable of the state's: A. Certification guidelines B. Code of ethics C. Medical practice act E. Board of directors directives E. OSHA guidelines

C

Although ice bags are the most commonly used modality in the treatment of acute injuries, a drawback of this modality may be which of the following? A. They leak easily B. They take longer to cool the skin than reusable ice packs C. Ice machines are expensive and their cost may be too prohibitive D. Ice takes a long time to make on a regular basis E. Ice machines tend to be unreliable

C

An associated complex of pathologies affecting active women that includes disordered eating, amenorrhea, and osteoporosis is known as which of the following? A. Premenstrual syndrome B. Female athlete triad C. Female athlete trifecta D. Athletic perimenstrual syndrome E. None of the above

C

An asthmatic patient who lives and trains in an urban area is susceptible to the effects of air pollution. To avoid an asthma attack while training, the athletic trainer should recommend that the patient train at which of the following times of day? A. Predawn hours B. Mid-day C. Late afternoon D. On weekends and the evening E. None of the above

C

An athlete reports to you that another member of the women's gymnastics team has recognizable problem with eating. She reports that the athlete binge eats, followed by self-induced vomiting. What is this athlete suffering from? A. anorexia nervosa B. amenorrhea C. bulimia nervosa D. B and C E. none of the above

C

Anabolic steroids are often abused by athletes. Which of the following results may occur in the female athlete after ingesting testosterone? a. decreased libido b. gynecomastia c. hirsutism d. increased body fat e. all of the above

C

As the director of a free-standing sports medicine clinic, it is important to keep accurate records of an employee's personnel record. All of the following should be included in this file except: A. Performance evolution records B. Salary and promotion records C. Time-off request sheets D. Employee contracts E. B and D

C

At low workloads, muscle cells use___________ for fuel, while_______ is used for periods of intense exercise of short duration. A. Fat, protein B. Carbohydrate, fat C. Fat, phosphocreatine D. Protein, carbohydrate E. Glycogen, protein

C

Athletic directors, owners, staff, and are part of a major inside interest group. A. Parents B. Clients C. Coaches D. Professional groups E. None of the above

C

Athletic training equipment can be either leased or bought. Which of the following is an advantage to leasing equipment? A. Higher overall cost B. No ownership C. Lower initial cost D. Higher effective interest rate than traditional financing E. None of the above

C

Athletic training scope of practice parameters set by legislation fall into all of the following areas except: A. Restrictions regarding site of practice B. Modality use restrictions C. Restrictions regarding classroom teaching D. The definition of athletic training or athletic trainer F. Supervision of athletic trainers

C

Beta-blockers inhibit the action of catecholamines and decrease cardiac output. In which of the following sports would the effects of beta-blockers potentially enhance performance? A. Swimming B. Long-distance running C. Archery D. Baseball E. All of the above

C

Bracing for scoliosis of the spine may be effective with all ages except: a. 5 year olds b. 10 year olds c. 18 year olds d. 14 year olds e. Bracing is not effective at any age

C

Contraindications to cervical traction include all of the following except: A. A positive vertebral artery test B. A positive alar ligament test C. Disc herniation D. increased radicular symptoms with treatment E. Nystagmus

C

Delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS) can occur with high-intensity exercise. Which of the following types of exercise is most likely to cause DOMS? A. Endurance B. Isometric C. Plyometric D. PNF E. Isotonic

C

Delayed-onset muscle soreness normally occurs how long after a strenuous exercise session? A. 1 hour after exercise B. 12 hours after exercise C. 24 to 72 hours after exercise D. 4 to 6 hours after exercise E. Immediately after exercise

C

During a 400-meter sprint, which energy systems is predominant? A. Lactic acid system B. ATP-CP system C. Anaerobic glycolysis system D. Aerobic metabolic system E. Anaerobic metabolic system

C

During a closed-chain exercises are recommended because they do all of the following except: A. Stimulate proprioceptors B. Increase joint stability C. Isolate a specific muscle group for strengthening D. Reduce shear forces E. Increase muscle co-contraction

C

During a preparticipation physical examination, what should the team physician and athletic trainer do jointly? A. perform blood test B. perform Sentinel's test C. review each examination for the final approval to participate D. perform an orthotic screening E. perform psychological fitness assessments

C

During the rehabilitation of a knee injury, the athletic trainer decides the use of neuromuscular stimulation is indicated. As the athletic trainer is applying the electrodes to the patient's thigh, the patient says he has never had electric stimulation and is scared of electricity. Which of the following would be an appropriate response by the athletic trainer? a. Tell him he is being childish b. Demonstrate how it works c. Teach him about the general principles of electric stimulation d. Tell a joke about electricity to relax him e. Do not use an electrotherapeutic modality on the patient

C

During your evaluate of the patient's shoulder, you notice his left scapula is "winging". What does this indicate? A. rhomboid major B. deltoid weakness C. serratus anterior weakness D. upper trapezius weakness E. long thoracic nerve entrapment

C

Each lever has a_________ which is the perpendicular distance from the line of force to the axis, and a, which is the perpendicular distance from the resistance to the axis. A. Force arm, rotary arm B. Short arm, long arm C. Force arm, resistance arm D. Rotary arm, translatory arm E. Force arm, translatory arm

C

For which of the following injuries would the use of a hard shell pad be appropriate? a. cover a large skin infection b. a toe injury c. a painful contusion d. plantar fasciitis e. none of the above

C

General maintenance and cleaning task of the athletic training facility and activities areas of an athletic facility should include all the following except: a. wood flooring should be kept free of splinters, holes, protruding nails, uneven boards, and screws b. all areas should be swept, vacuumed, and mopped according to the designated cleaning schedules c. check to make sure the athletic uniforms/ equipment are properly stored in inventoried on regular basis d. lightning apparatuses should be checked and changed on regular basis e. check to see the ground fault interrupt her's are working in appropriately located

C

Have you had just been injured on the basketball court, and the athletic trainer begins administering first aid. During the initial contact, the athletic trainer notices the athlete is hyperactive, argumentative, and sarcastic and his responses to questions. All the following actions by the athletic trainer are inappropriate except: a. telling the athlete he or she is a wimp and that is "not that bad" b. being abrupt and telling the athlete to snap out of it c. allowing the athlete to express his emotions as they occur d. calling the referee over to calm the athlete e. walking away to prevent an argument

C

How is pediculosis spread between individuals? A. coughing and sneezing B. poor hand washing/hygiene C. close sexual contact D. contact with open sores E. sharing eating utensils

C

How many glasses of water should an athlete consume on a daily bases? A. no more than 8 B. 2 to 3 C. 8 or more D. 5 to 7 E. 4 to 6

C

How often should an ultrasound unit be calibrated to ensure the safe application of ultrasound? A. Every 3 months B. Every month C. Every other year D. Every 5 years E. At least once per year

C

If a patient who is covered by an HMO insurance policy needs to see a specialist, who must make the referral in most cases? A. Athletic trainer B. Specialist C. Primary care physician Patient D. Patient E. None of the above

C

If an athlete is not well hydrated, is in poor physical condition in the beginning of a sport season, and is exercising in a very hot, humid environment, he or she may be susceptible to heat injuries. What is the area of the body that is responsible for thermoregulation? A. Barioceptors B. Thymus C. Hypothalamus D. Pituitary gland E. Adrenal gland

C

If the patient complains of a burning sensation during an ultrasound treatment, all of the following may be the source of the problem except: A. The intensity is too high B. Not enough ultrasound medium is being used C. Too much ultrasound gel is being used D. The movement of the transducer head is too slow E. B and D

C

Immunization against hepatitis B virus will also prevent a manifestation of which of the following viruses? a. hepatitis A b. hepatitis C c. hepatitis D d. HIV e. human papillomavirus

C

In addition to the release of energy, the breakdown of ATP during a muscle contraction produces which of the following byproducts? A. H2O + CO2 B. Cr + PO4 C. ADP + PO4 D. ADP + ATPase E. Bilirubin

C

In athletic training, database software has been primarily used to perform what function? A. Write letters and produce forms B. Perform simple calculations and integrate text with graphics C. Store and retrieve information regarding athletic injury and treatment D. Merge lists and develop spreadsheets E. All of the above

C

In what position should the patient be to manual muscle test the hip flexors, and where should the athletic trainers force be directed during testing? A. prone, with the force directed down onto the posterior thigh B. side-lying, with the force directed down onto the side of the thigh C. sitting, with the force directed down onto the anterior aspect of the thigh D. sitting, with the force directed down onto the medial aspect of the thigh E.none of the above

C

In which of the following sports would plyometric training be beneficial? a. Rock climbing b. Cross-country c. Volleyball d. Archery e. Swimming

C

Indications for ultrasound include all of the following except: A. Bursitis B. Fasciltis C. Acute hemorrhage D. Plantar warts E. Tendinitis

C

Injury or disease of the pancreas creates pain in which quadrant of the abdomen? A. Lower right B. Upper right C. Upper left D. Lower left E. Central

C

Knee braces can be classified as either functional. prophylactic, or rehabilitative, Which type of brace might be worn for I to 2 weeks after a grade 11 medial collateral ligament tear? a. Functional b. Prophylactic c. Rehabilitative d. Custom fit e. No brace is necessary for this injury

C

Maintaining up-to-date records is extremely important. How often should the athletic trainer document? A. Monthly B. Weekly C. Daily D. Every 6 months E. Every 2 weeks

C

One of your baseball players reports that he is having difficulty playing in the outfield under lights and has similar difficulty seeing at night while driving. While evaluating him you find out he hates vegetables and drinks milk infrequently. He "enjoys hamburgers and French fries:' What substance might this athlete be lacking in his diet? A. Carbohydrates B. Protein C. Vitamin A D. Phosphorus E. None of the above

C

One of your basketball players comes in to the athletic training facility insisting that his ankles need to be taped even though he has no known injury. The athlete should be advised of which of the following? A. to let the athletic trainer know if he starts developing any knee problems B. an elastic or neoprene ankle brace is more effective than taping in preventing an injury C. for the ankle taping to be effective, the athlete should rely on ankle-strengthening exercises rather than prophylactic taping if there is no injury present D. advice the athlete to contact his family physician to evaluate his ankles E. none of the above

C

One of your female cheerleaders has been diagnosed by your team physician with a combination of anorexia, osteoporosis, and amenorrhea. You recognize this combination as signs of what? A. Marfan syndrome B. The unhappy triad C. Female triad syndrome D. Paget's disease E. Bone cancer

C

One of your female gymnast has been complaining of feeling generally fatigue on a constant basis. After being examined by the team physician, he orders a complete blood count. This blood test assesses all the following except: a. red blood cell count b. white blood cell count c. plasma volume d. hemoglobin levels e. platelet count

C

Paraffin bath therapy is commonly used on the hands and feet as a method of superficial heating. To keep the paraffin mixture in a molten state, the temperature should be maintained between: a. 100°F to 115°F b. 80°F to 105°F c. 126°F to 130°F d. 118°F to 125°F e. 140°F to 150°F

C

Shoulder abduction occurs in the__________ plane and moves around a________ axis. A. Frontal, sagittal B. Horizontal, vertical C. Frontal, anterior-posterior D. Sagittal, medial-lateral E. Frontal, superior-inferior

C

Sixty-five percent of the heat produced by the body during exercise is lost through what? A. convection B. conduction C. evaporation D. radiation E. none of the above

C

Somatically based strategies to manage stress include all of the following except: A. Rhythmic breathing B. Concentration breathing C. Desensitization D. Progressive relaxation E. "5 to 1" count

C

The NATA Code of Ethics is defined as which of the following? A. Moral legal privileges inherent in being a member of a community B. Violation of commitment to privacy and protection of information or communications C. A set of rules by which an athletic trainer should conduct him- or herself D. The basis or explanation for an action taken by an athletic trainer E. None of the above

C

The abbreviation IBS stands for which of the following? A. Irregular bowel syndrome B. Inflammatory bowel disease C. Internal bowel syndrome D. Irritable bowel syndrome E. None of the above

C

The collateral ligaments of the knee are taut in which of the following? A. Flexion B. Extension C. Extension and flexion D. Genu varus E. Genu valgum

C

The purpose of a proper cool-down period after exercising is to _____ and _____ A. Decrease the heart rate, decrease cardiac output B. Increase ventilation, prevent dizziness C. Help the blood return to the heart to be reoxygenated, decrease muscular lactic acid build-up D. Improve flexibility, decrease body temperature E. Decrease heart rate, restore thermoregulation

C

The rotator cuff consists of all the following muscles except: A. Supraspinatus B. Infraspinatus C. Teres major D. Subscapularis E. Teres minor

C

The supinator muscle is innervated by which of the following nerves? A. musculocutaneous nerve B. axillary nerve C. radial nerve D. flexor digitorum longus E. A and D

C

Thermal moldable plastics, such as Orthoplast or Aquaplast, may be indicated for many different situations. Which of the following conditions may benefit from the use of this type of material? a. genu recurvatum b. thoracic outlet syndrome c. quadriceps contusion d. anterior cruciate sprain e. genu varum

C

To be a successful athletic trainer, an individual must possess all of the following personal qualities except: A. The ability to adapt to a changing environment B. A good sense of humor C. An interest in making money D. Empathy E. B and D

C

Torts are legal wrongs committed against a person or his or her property. Such wrongs may be a direct result of _____ or _____. A. Negligence, commission B. Negligence, liability C. Omission, commission D. Omission, negligence E. Commission, liability

C

Trendelenburg's test as a method used to evaluate a competent of what structures? a. hip flexors b. peroneal muscles c. hip abductors d. erector spinae e. abdominals

C

What 3 motions compose of the foot? A. Inversion, abduction, dorsiflexion B. Inversion, adduction, plantar flexion C. Eversion, abduction, dorsiflexion D. Eversion, adduction, plantar flexion E. Eversion, abduction, plantar flexion

C

What are the 2 phases of menstruation? A. Anovulation, luteal B. Prolactin, menarche C. Follicular, luteal D. Menarche, follicular E. First phase, second phase

C

What are the primary actions of the psoas major? A. Abduction of the hip B. Extension and internal rotation of the hip C. Hip flexion and internal rotation D. Trunk flexion E. Lateral flexion of the trunk

C

What does a motor unit consist of? A. A cell body, axon, and dendrites B. The axon and single muscle fiber it innervates C. A motor neuron and the group of muscle fibers it innervates D. The motor neuron, muscle fiber, and muscle group E. The dendrite and the group of muscle fibers it innervates

C

What effect does aerobic exercise have on a patient's diastolic blood pressure? A. Diastolic blood pressure will increase at the same pace as systolic B. Diastolic blood pressure will significantly decrease at higher workloads C. It will remain closely the same level as at rest D. Diastolic blood pressure will significantly increase with increasing workloads E. None of the above

C

What is a type of athletic insurance that pays for covered medical expenses only after all other insurance policies have reached their limits? A. Self B. Primary coverage C. Secondary coverage D. Catastrophic E. Liability coverage

C

What is a type of organizational culture characterized by autonomy in decision making and problem solving? A. Organizational culture B. Collegial culture C. Personalistic culture D. Informal culture E. Independent culture

C

What is a vascular reaction to cold that results in a white, red, or blue discoloration of the extremities? A. Neurapraxia B. Analgesia C. Raynaud's phenomenon D. Hypothermia E. Cyanosis

C

What is also known as vitamin C? A. Retinol B. Thiamine C. Ascorbic acid D. Niacin E. Folic acid

C

What is an excessive lateral curvature of the vertebral column called? A. kyphosis B. spondylolysis C. scoliosis D. lordosis E. ankylosing spondylolysis

C

What is the definition of power? A. Power = work x force B. Power = speed x distance C. Power = force x distance D. Power = work x velocity E. Power = work x distance

C

What is the internal reaction or resistance of tissue to an external load called? A. Mechanical failure B. Strain C. Stress D. Yield point E. Threshold

C

What is the primary target of the AIDS virus in the body? A. Neutrophils B. Basophils C. T-helper lymphocytes D. Phagocytes E. Red blood cells

C

What is the process in which health care practitioners are reimbursed by a policyholder's insurance? A. Primary-party reimbursement B. Secondary-party reimbursement C. Third-party reimbursement D. Tertiary-party reimbursement E. Direct reimbursement

C

What is the typical mechanism of injury for an interior shoulder dislocation? A. shoulder abduction with internal rotation B. maximal shoulder extension C. shoulder abduction with external rotation D. shoulder adduction with internal rotation E. shoulder flexion with internal rotation

C

What may proteinuria indicate? A. pancreatitis B. possible gallstones C. renal or urinary tract pathology D. diabetes E. chohn's disease

C

What type of analysis would be considered a useful tool in the strategic planning of an existing athletic training program? A. The HCFA analysis B. The strengths/weaknesses analysis C. The WOTS UP analysis D. The Samson analysis E. Flow chart analysis

C

What type of gate deviation like the athletic trainer see with a patient who has a stain and ankle injury and has decreased range of motion in dorsiflexion? A. Lateral trunk bending B. Trendelenburg gait C. Hip hiking D. Wide walking base E. Extension lag

C

When an athletic is trainer performing CPR, certain steps should be taken to minimize the risk of disease transmission via bloodborne pathogen. Which of the following should be used according to OSHA guidelines to protect the athletic trainer? a. gloves b. an eye shield c. barrier mask d. new AED pads e. striker bag

C

When counseling and athlete about the adverse effects of anabolic steroids on females, all the following affects should be included except: a. severe acne b. increased libido c. increased body fat d. development of a deep voice e. change in menstrual cycle

C

When explaining to a parent the difference between an athletic trainer and a physical therapist, the expertise of a physical therapist might best be described by which of the following? A. Expertise in the rehabilitation of the handicapped individual B. Those health care professionals trained in the rehabilitation of orthopedic injuries C. Those individuals trained in the rehabilitation of a diverse population D. Expertise in the rehabilitation of athletic, geriatric, and neurologically impaired populations 111. E. None of the above

C

When palpating the knee joint after an injury, the athletic trainer should be sure to palpate which of the following structures? A. Anterior superior iliac spine B. The navicular C. Medial condyle of the femur D. The tibial crest E. Dorsal i5 pedis

C

When rehabilitating a patient with patellofemoral pain syndrome, which muscle groups should be strengthened? a. Quadriceps, hamstrings b. Hip abductors, hamstrings c. Hip adductors, quadriceps d. Hip flexors, hip external rotators e. lliotibial band, hip external rotators

C

When rehabilitating a shoulder, in what area should strengthening exercises be initiated first? a. Rotator cuff musculature b. Cervical musculature c. Scapular musculature d. Shoulder abductors, flexors, and internal rotators e. A and D

C

When using an ice pack at home to decrease pain and swelling of an injured limb, what should the athletic trainer recommend to the athlete to prevent a cryotherapy injury? A. add acetone to the ice at a 3:1 ratio B. keep the injured limb elevated while using ice C. place a damp towel between the athlete's skin and the ice pack D. leave the ice pack on the body part between 20 to 40 minutes at a time E. all of the above

C

When using fluidotherapy, the treatment temperature range is normally set at which of the following temperatures? A. 60°F to 70°F B. 85°F to 100°F C. 100°F to 113°F D. 75°F to 96°F E. 40°F to 60°F

C

When working on a bleeding patient, what should the athletic trainer always do? A. avoid touching the bloody areas B. wash hands before treatments C. wear gloves D. wear eye protection E. elevate the body part

C

Where is the odontoid process located? A. Base of the sacrum B. Proximal end of the ulna C. Off the second cervical vertebra D. Base of the skull E. Distal to the olecranon process

C

Where is the scaphoid bone of the wrist palpated? A. Proximal to the radial head B. Lateral to the cuboid bone C. Just distal to the styloid process of the radius D. Just distal to the styloid process of the ulna E. Just proximal to the styloid process of the ulna

C

Which artery is closely involved with the brachial plexus and becomes the brachial artery at the lower border of the tendon of the teres major muscle? A. Subclavian B. Radial C. Axillary D. Subscapular E. None of the above

C

Which muscle supinates the forearm and flexes the shoulder? A. brachialis B. coracobrachialis C. biceps brachii D. flexor pollicis longus E. pronator quadratus

C

Which nerves innervate the hip adductor musculature? A. femoral, superior gluteal B. femoral, tibial C. femoral, obturator D. femoral, obturator, inferior gluteal E. tibial, obturator

C

Which of the following piques is most co g electrode placement techniques is most commonly used when treating an individual with "brief-intense" TENS? A. Direct placement B. Dermatorne placement C. Stimulation point placement D. Continuous placement E. Bracket method

C

Which of the following PNF techniques is not a strengthening technique? a. slow reversal b. rhythmic stabilization c. slow-reversal-hold-relax d. rhythmic initiation e. all of the above

C

Which of the following actions taken by the athletic trainer can help make the patient more compliant with rehabilitation of an injury? A. Have the coach threaten to kick him or her off the team if he or she does not cooperate B. Have the patient bring a friend to the rehabilitation session C. Plan the rehabilitation sessions around the patient's daily routine D. Make the rehabilitation sessions "fun" E. All of the above

C

Which of the following drugs are anticonvulsants? A. Xanax, Valium B. Benadryl, Phenegran C. Klonopin, Tegretol D. Thorazine, Clozaril E. Dilaudid, Demerol

C

Which of the following is a legal defense that attempts to claim that an injured plaintiff understood the risk of an activity and freely chose to undertake the activity regardless of the hazards associated with it? A. Sovereign immunity B. Comparative negligence C. Assumption of risk D. Statutes of limitations E. None of the above

C

Which of the following is a method that allocates a fixed amount of money for an entire program without specifying how the money will be spent? A. Lump-sum budgeting B. Request for quotation C. Lump-sum bidding D. Line-item budgeting E. Need-based budgeting

C

Which of the following is a term that refers to a group of techniques used for the purpose of relieving soft tissue from the abnormal grip of tight fascia? A. Glides B. Traction C. Myofascial release D. Therapeutic massage E. Joint mobilization

C

Which of the following is an example of muscle spindle activity? A. Nystagmus B. Babinski's re flex C. Knee-jerk reflex D. Moro's reflex E. None of the above

C

Which of the following is defined as an uninterrupted direct current? A. Interferential current B. Microcurrent C. Galvanic current D. Pulsed current E. None of the above

C

Which of the following is not a classification of regulation utilized when allowing an athletic trainer the right to practice within a specific state? A. Certification B. Licensing C. Delegation D. No Regulation E. Registration

C

Which of the following is not a neural effect of resistance training? a. increased motor unit activation and recruitment b. increased discharge frequency of motoneurons c. increased muscle capillary density d. decreased neural inhibitions e. increased neuromuscular efficiency

C

Which of the following is not a type of budget? A. Fixed budgeting B. Variable budgeting C. Laissez-faire budgeting D. Lump-sum budgeting Line-item budgeting

C

Which of the following is not recommended for the prevention of heat-related illness? a. check the humidity and temperature daily b. drink 20 ounces of water every 15 minutes c. wear layers of lightweight clothing d. acclimatize e. all of the above

C

Which of the following is the most common order for steps in recruiting and hiring sports medicine personnel? A. Request for position, application collection, position request approval B. Application collection, position vacancy notice, offer of contract C. Request for position, telephone interviews, hiring D. Hiring, offer of contract, request for position E. Application collection, interview, request for position

C

Which of the following medications can contribute to heat-related illnesses? a. porton pump inhibitors b. antiemetics c. beta-blockers and antihistamines d. anti-inflammatories e. antibacterials

C

Which of the following medications is not an NSAID? a. aspirin b. motrin c. tylenol d. celebrex e. aleve

C

Which of the following methods for funding public sector sports medicine facilities utilizes an institution's assets in cash and investments not normally used for operational purposes? A. Capital campaign B. Tax-exempt bonds C. An endowment D. Commercial loans E. Unrestricted loans

C

Which of the following muscles does not extend the trunk? a. semispinalis (thoracic) b. erector spinae c. quadratus lumborum d. multifidi e. gluteus maximus

C

Which of the following nutrients is absolutely necessary for every body chemical reaction to take place normally? A. Vitamins B. Amino acids C. Water D. Fats E. All of the above

C

Which of the following positions must be avoided when rehabilitating an athlete who has posterior instability of the glenohumeral joint? A. Abduction with external rotation B. Full forward flexion C. Internal rotation with horizontal adduction and flexion D. Internal rotation with shoulder extension E. A and B

C

Which of the following principles must be adhered to when designing a training program for an athlete in order to obtain optimal training effects? I. Overload II. Specificity III. Progression IV. Consistency V. Environmental factors VI. Psychological well-being A. I, III, IV, V B. II, IV, V, VI C. I, II, III, IV D. II, III, V, VI E. I, II, IV, VI

C

Which of the following stages of disease prevention focuses on early detection and appropriate referral? a. primary stage b. secondary stage c. initial stage d. tertiary stage e. none of the above

C

Which of the following tools has the Inter-Associate Task Force recommended not to be used as a primary tool for loop strap removal on a football helmet after an injury? a. FM extractor b. the trainers angel c. a flathead screwdriver d. the anvil pruner e. B and D

C

Which of the muscle groups listed below are involved during a bench press? I. Anterior deltoid II. Rhomboids III. Triceps IV. Pectoralis major V Latissimus dorsi VI. Upper trapezius a. I, II, III, IV b. III, IV, V, VI c. I, III, IV, V d. II, III, IV, VI e. I, II, III, V

C

Which of these muscles are innervated by the tibial nerve? I. gastrocnemius II. flexor hallucis longus III. extensor hallucis longus IV. tibialis anterior V. biceps femoris A. I, II, III, IV B. II, III, V C. I, II, V D. I, III, IV, V E. I, II, III

C

Which one of these is not a step for recruiting and hiring sports medicine personnel? A. Placing a position vacancy notice in the NATA Career Center B. Interviewing C. Creating program goals D. Hiring a head athletic trainer E. All of the above

C

Which organization has identified the domains of athletic training as defined by the Role Delineation Study? A. AMA B. APTA C. BOC D. NATA Ethics Committee E. CAATE

C

Which type of training program is most beneficial if the coach or athletic trainer is trying to improve muscular strength and flexibility? A. Plyometric training B. Anaerobic training C. Circuit training D. Power lifting E. All of the above

C

While assisting an athlete in stretching exercises, the athletic trainer should follow some guidelines. Which one of the following is not true? a. the athlete should be relaxed b. the stretch should be stopped when the athlete reports mid discomfort c. the stretch should be unilaterally administered d. the body part should be stretched for up to 30 seconds e. all of the above

C

You are aware of a diabetic patient who has just self- administered his morning dose of insulin and has basketball practice within the following hour. Which of the following would be a prudent action to suggest to this patient before he begins exercising? A. Hyperhydrate prior to practice B. Eat a candy bar before practice C. Eat a slice of bread with peanut butter or cheese prior to practice D. Drink a soft drink before exercising E. None of the above

C

You are beginning to lay the foundation for your new athletic training facility at North High School. In order to expedite the process and cut down on the amount of individuals you must deal with, you have decided to use one of the following construction process models. Which of the following uses only one firm to both design and construct the new building? A. Lump-sum bidding model B. Construction development model C. Design/build model D. Contractor supply model E. None of the above

C

You notice one of your basketball players is showing signs of overtraining. Which of the following would not be an appropriate response to an overtrained athlete by the athletic trainer? A. Listening to the athlete's fears B. A tapered decrease in training over a period of 1 week C. An abrupt cessation of training D. Counseling the athlete in relaxation techniques E. All of the above

C

You suspect one of your soccer players is experiencing "training staleness." Which of the following should you assess when developing a counseling approach with the patient? a. The level of the patient's ability to play the sport b. The relationship between the patient and his family c. The patient's training schedule and diet d. The patient's competition schedule e. The relationship between the patient and coach

C

You're covering a football game when 2 players collide. You notice that one player grabs his neck and shakes his arm. When you examine him, he complains of lateral neck discomfort and a feeling of "numbness" or "burning" down his arm. His arm is hanging limp by his side. In a few minutes, the symptoms subside. What do you expect? a. carpal tunnel syndrome b. long thoracic nerve injury c. a "burner" or pinched nerve syndrome d. dorsal scapular nerve injury e. thoracic outlet syndrome

C

A baseball player comes to see the athletic trainer and is complaining of diffuse pain, clicking, and a sensation of "slipping" of his right shoulder when throwing. What pathology might the athletic trainer expect with this type of presentation? a. torn rotator cuff b. thrower's exostosis c. acromioclavicular joint pathology d. labral pathology e. bicipital tendinitis

D

A baseball player complains of reoccurring ingrown toenails. What might the athletic trainer suggest to prevent this problem? A. have the athlete put a small amount of cotton under his nails B. have the athlete wear shoes with a large toe-box C. have the athlete trim his toenails in a rounded shape parallel to the border of the cuticle D. have athlete trim his toenails weekly and cut them straight across E. have the athlete purchase larger shoes

D

A diet that is very low in carbohydrates may result in all of the following except: a. fatigue b. hypoglycemia c. ketosis d. very high blood pH levels e. headaches

D

A flak jacket is a piece of equipment designed to protect the athlete after what type of injury? A. scapular injury B. hip pointer injury C. abdominal injury D. rib injury E. clavicle injury

D

A football player sustained a large laceration to his lower leg 4 weeks ago. Which type of repair has taken place by this time? A. Callus formation B. Primary healing C. Margination D. Secondary healing E. Erythrocyte migration

D

A grade 1 ankle inversion sprain involves which structure? a. tibiofibular ligament b. posterior talofibular ligament c. calcaneofibular ligament d. anterior talofibular ligament e. spring ligament

D

A gymnast reports to the athletic trainer with a complaint of low back pain, which has been present for approximately 1 week. After being sent to the doctor for evaluation, a "Scottie dog" defect is seen on the x-ray. This finding confirms which condition? A. fractured transverse process of a vertabrae B. fractured demifacet of a vertebrae C. spondylolisthesis D. spondylolysis E. A and B

D

A patient becomes hysterical after learning she has suffered a severe shoulder injury and cannot compete in her sport anymore. She is crying, screaming, and generally appears out of control. The appropriate response from the athletic trainer would be which of the following? A. Find her coach and have him deal with her B. Call her parents and have one of them calm her down C. Give the patient "space" D. Allow the patient to express her fears but remain calm and demonstrate understanding. Assist the patient in seeing the problem in proportion to the situation E. Tell the patient she is acting like a 3 year old

D

A patient is brought to the athletic training facility after being struck in the back of the head with a bat by accident. The patient is complaining of blurred vision. Which lobe of the brain has been affected? A. frontal B. parietal C. temporal D. occipital E. cerebellum

D

A patient presents to you with a suspected shoulder dislocation. What should you do? a. evaluate the injury then reduce the dislocation as soon as possible b. evaluate the shoulder motion and send the patient to the hospital c. tell the patient to sit and wait until you have time to deal with it d. check the cerebrovascular status of the upper extremity, including dermatomes and myotomes e. immediately immobilize the joint and refer the patient to the team physician

D

A patient presents with an acute injury of the foot and has an antalgic gait pattern. Which of the following should you do first? A. Have the patient run half speed on a treadmill for cardiorespiratory health B. Give the patient crutches C. Instruct the patient in a heel-to-toe gait pattern D. Observe/palpate the injured area for gross deformity and point tenderness E. Have the patient wear an open toe shoe

D

A patient routinely complains of bloating, flatulence, and diarrhea after ingesting milk or ice cream. What might be the cause of this patient's symptoms? A. Proteinuria B. Rickets C. Scurvy D. Lactase deficiency E. None of the above

D

A properly organized athletic training facility should have separate, designated areas for all of the following except: A. Modality area B. Hydrotherapy area C. Storage facilities D. Changing room for the athletes E. Physician treatment

D

A rugby player sustains a confirmed head injury during a game is removed from the game. All of the following are symptoms/signs of increasing intracerebral pressure that the athletic trainer should monitor except: a. nausea and vomiting b. pupil irregularity c. increase in systolic blood pressure with decrease in diastolic blood pressure d. romberg's sign e. changes in cognition

D

A second degree burn will have which of the following characteristics? A. a raised, reddened appearance B. a white, mottled appearance C. a blackened, hard appearance D. a reddend area with blisters E. blanched, shiny appearance

D

A sphygmomanometer is a device that measures which of the following? A. Grip strength B. Body fat percentage C. Intra-abdominal pressure D. Blood pressure E. None of the above

D

A sports medicine program should include which of the following in order to be successful? A. Provide the best possible health care B. Good communication among members of the sports medicine team C. Good communication between the athletic trainer and parents D. All of the above E. None of the above

D

A sprinter who is in the "ready" position at the start of a race has a lot of potential energy. What is his potential energy converted into as he takes off when the gun is heard? A. Lactic acid B. Thermal energy C. Work energy D. Kinetic energy E. Aerobic energy

D

A tight Achilles tendon can cause _____ or _____ in order to allow the lower leg to move over the foot during running. a. Late heel-off, early heel strike b. Early heel-off, excessive supination c. Late heel-off, late toe-off d. Early heel-off, excessive pronation e. Early heel-off, early heel strike

D

According to the consensus statement between the Inter-Associate Task Force for a Preseason Secondary School Athletics in the NATA's Secondary School Athletic Trainer's Committee, Preseason Heat Acclimatization Guidelines for Secondary School Athletics, a 1-hour maximum walk-through is permitted during days 1 through 5 of the heat acclimatization. How long should a recovery period be between practices and walk-through (or visa versa)? a. 1/2 hour b. 1 hour c. 2 hours d. 3 hours e. 24 hours

D

Achieving a deep state of relaxation by disciplining the mind against encroaching thoughts is known as: A. Dissociation B. Autogenic training C. Desensitization D. Meditation E. Reframing

D

All of the following are components of a well-written SOAP note except: A. It is legible, clear, and concise B. It contains many objective measurements C. Progress is expressed in functional terms D. It is written with the intent to mislead an insurance company E. It describes a clear plan of treatment

D

All of the following are considered support personnel that work along with the athletic trainer to ensure the health and safety of the athlete except: A. Nurse B. Sport psychologist C. Social worker D. All of the above E. B and C

D

All of the following are controlled by the cranial nerves except: a. vision b. smell c. tongue movement d. cervical flexion e. hearing

D

All of the following are factors in lower extremity overuse syndromes in runners except: a. poor footwear b. poor posture c. change in surface d. short strides e. A and B

D

All of the following are important steps in avoiding legal problems when administering care to the patient except: A. Keeping accurate records B. Staying familiar with the health history of the patient C. Following orders of the team physician D. Allowing the coach to decide when the patient should return to play after injury E. B and C

D

All of the following are intrinsic factors of injury except: a. flexibility b. weather c. age d. weight e. C and D

D

All of the following are items used to prevent internal ear damage from excessive noise except: a. ear plugs b. ear muffs c. semi-aural devices d. a headband e. B and C

D

All of the following are medication routes of administration except: A. Oral B. Rectal C. Parenteral D. Aerosol E. Buccal

D

All of the following are methods of measuring body composition except: A. Measuring muscle and fat girths B. Hydrostatic weighing C. Electrical impedance D. Measuring skin-fold thickness E. C and D

D

All of the following are reasons why an insurance claim might be denied except: A. Lack of patient progress B. The duration of care is considered excessive C. Improper coding D. The goals are based on functional outcomes E. Treating beyond the approved number of visits

D

All of the following are reasons why good documentation skills are an absolute necessity for the athletic trainer except: A. To protect the legal rights of the patient and athletic trainer B. To improve the communication between the athletic trainer and other health care providers C. To enhance the care given by the athletic trainer and to determine when release from the athletic trainer's immediate care is appropriate D. To improve the athletic trainer's position for financial gain through reimbursement by the insurance company E. To keep an accurate log of treatment as a means of evaluating successful outcomes

D

All of the following are true about infectious mononucleosis except: a. the attack rate is highest between 15 to 25 year olds b. the virus is excreted in saliva c. the primary symptom is low back pain d. it is caused by transmission of the Epstein-Barr virus e. it causes splenomegaly in over half of all cases

D

All of the following are violations of the BOC standards of practice except: A. Practicing as an athletic trainer without a license in a state that has an athletic trainer regulation B. Representing oneself as a BOC-certified athletic trainer using another individual's certification number C. Divulging the contents of a section of the certification exam to another certified athletic trainer or to a prospective student D. Functioning as a clinical athletic trainer in a sports medicine clinic within the confines of the individual state's practice act E. Prescribing medication

D

All of the following arrhythmias require limitations of activity (in asymptomatic patients without structural heart disease) except: a. atrial flutter b. atrial fibrillation c. ventricular tachycardia d. short QT syndrome e. long QT syndrome

D

All of the following conditions would disqualify a patient from athletic competition except: a. renal disease b. uncontrolled hypertension c. acute mononucleosis d. the absence of one testicle e. HIV

D

All of the following forms are critical parts of the patient's permanent medical record and should be completed before the patient is permitted to participate in the first team practice except: A. Permission-to-treat form B. Preparticipation physical examination form C. Release form for patients subjected to high risk D. Coach's injury report form E. Medical history form

D

All of the following functions contribute to the athlete's ability to maintain a steady state during periods of increased metabolic needs while exercising except: A. pulmonary diffusion B. vascular adaptation C. physical condition of the involved muscles D. a high-protein pre-event meal E. A and C

D

All of the following muscles are innervated by the ulnar nerve except: A. Flexor carpi ulnaris B. Adductor pollicis C. All the hypothenar muscles D. Extensor carpi ulnaris E. None of the above

D

All of the following muscles are intrinsic muscles of the hand except: A. The lumbricals B. The muscles of the thenar eminence C. The interossei D. The multifidi muscles E. All of the above are intrinsic muscles of the hand

D

All of the following parameters should be assessed when checking the neurovascular status of an injured limb except: a. sensation b. the pulse distal to the injury c. motor function d. joint range of motion e. atrophic changes

D

All of the following statements regarding fluid replacement during performance are appropriate except: A. The athlete should drink cold fluids to decrease body core temperature B. It is best for the athlete to consume small amounts of fluids frequently rather than large amounts of fluid infrequently C. Water is the ideal fluid replacement D. Do not force fluids on the athlete; he or she will seek out fluid replacement when thirsty E. A and B

D

All the following are risk factors for osteoporosis except: a. early menopause b. high consumption of alcohol, cigarettes, and caffeine c. sedentary lifestyle d. obesity e. lack of folic acid in the diet

D

All the following are signs of an injury except: a. change in skin color or texture b. change in body temperature c. change in blood pressure d. complaint of headaches e. change in respiratory rate

D

All the following are symptoms of an over train patient except: a. emotional liability b. loss of appetite c. reduced concentration d. excessive motivation e. fatigue

D

All the following drugs may be used with phonophoresis during the acute phase of treatment except: a. dexamethasone b. hydrocortisone 1% c. lidocaine d. naproxen e. hydrocortison 10%

D

All the following treatments would be appropriate for an acute quadriceps contusion except: a. light massage b. pulsed ultrasound c. ice massage followed by gentle stretch d. ice pack with compression wrap with the knee in flexion e. heat pack and massage

D

An ICD-10 code identifies which of the following? A. The cost of a medical procedure B. Who the provider is C. The prognosis of the injury D. A diagnosis E. A treatment procedure

D

An athlete is recovering from a partial meniscectomy performed 5 days ago. All of the following actions would be appropriate at this time except: a. Achilles stretching b. Four quadrant straight leg raises c. Stationary bicycling with minimal/no resistance d. Eccentric quadriceps strengthening e. Hip flexor strengthening

D

An athletic trainer can release a patient's medical records to which of the following? A. Professional athletic team organizations B. Insurance companies C. The media D. No organization or individual without the consent of the patient or legal guardian E. B and C

D

An individual who has sustained a psychologically traumatic event may experience a numbing of general responsiveness, insomnia, or increased aggressiveness. This is known as which of the following? A. Paranoia B. Obsessive-compulsive disorder C. Tourette syndrome D. Post-traumatic stress disorder E. Bipolar disorder

D

An involuntary muscle contraction characterized by alternate contraction and relaxation in rapid succession is known as which of the following? A. Tonic contraction B. Alternating contraction C. Eccentric contraction D. Clonic contraction E. Phasic contraction

D

Asking the patient to move his or her eyes from side to side and up and down test the integrity of which cranial nerve? A. II B. V C. I D. III E. VIII

D

At the time of injury, the patient experiences a great 11. deal of stress. The patient responds to this stressor by passing through 3 psychophysiological phases. During which of the following phases is the adrenal gland most active? A. Exhaustive B. Resistance C. Anger D. Alarm E. Frustration

D

Bismuth subsalicylate (Kaopectate, Pepto-Bismol) should not be taken by a patient for whom use of _________ is a precaution or contraindication. a. penicillin b. albuterol c. prednisone d. aspirin e. claritin

D

Body fat percentage should not go below _______ and females because the internal organs lose a protective layer of fat? A. 20% B. 25% C. 17% D. 12% E. 8%

D

Cognitive function may be affected by all of the following conditions except: A. Dehydration B. Malnutrition C. Abnormal body temperature D. Depression E. Medication

D

Continuing education units may be obtained through all of the following methods except: A. Attending a BOC-approved seminar B. Completing a NATA journal quiz C. Completing postgraduate course work D. Writing a medical column in a local newspaper or popular magazine E. Home study courses

D

During a preparticipation physical, a patient is diagnosed with myopia. What is this patient's problem? A. Double vision B. Farsightedness C. Blindness in one eye D. Nearsightedness E. None of the above

D

How many hours of evidence-based practice continuing education is a certified athletic trainer required to get every 2 years? A. 25 B. 50 C. 80 D. 10 E. 20

D

Ibuprofen is available in which of the below dosages? I. 400 mg II. 200 mg III. 600 mg IV. 50 mg V. 100 mg VI. 800 mg A. II, IV, V B. II, III, V C. III, V, VI D. I, II, III, VI E. III, IV, V

D

If an athlete is unconscious from a blow to the head, he or she should be assumed to have a neck injury in addition to a possible head injury. If the airway appears to be impaired, all the following would be appropriate steps in management except: a. cut the facemask with an appropriate tool and move it out of the way b. leave the helmet on c. stabilize the head and neck d. do a finger sweep of the mouth to remove any debris and clear the airway e. activate EMS

D

In addition to the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveolar gas of the lungs, what other factors influence the rate of diffusion of oxygen into the bloodstream? A. The respiratory rate and pleural surface area B. The amount of CO2 present in the alveoli and the pulmonary veins C. The respiratory rate and CO2 partial pressure D. The thickness of the alveolar capillary membrane and the amount of surface area available for diffusion E. All of the above

D

In what position will the movement arm of a force be the greatest? A. When the movement arm is at a 45-degree angle to the applied force B. When the force of gravity is 90 degrees to the applied force C. When the lever being moved is parallel to the applied force D. When the angle of application of the force is at 90 degrees to the lever being moved E. None of the above

D

In which of the following foods is a high concentration of vitamin A found? A. Liver, yogurt, milk B. Red meat, oranges, tea C. Nuts, cereals, fish D. Liver, carrots, greens E. None of the above

D

Information gain during the palpation phase of the athletic trainers initial assessment might include all the following except: a. presence of crepitus b. sensory function c. presence of deformity d. degree of functional movement e. A and B

D

Just before a big game, one of your patients is demonstrating symptoms of moderate anxiety. Which of the following responses would be appropriate when caring for the patient? A. Tell the patient to "get a grip on himself" B. Tell the patient you feel sorry for him C. Tell the patient to talk to the coach D. Tell the patient it is okay to be nervous but to focus on his goal E. Tell the patient you will ask the team physician to prescribe an antidepressant

D

Keratoderma can be prevented by all of the following except: a. wearing 2 pairs of socks b. applying a lubricant to the skin to prevent friction d. using an anti fungal ointment d. using a glove or moleskin e. wearing properly fitting shoes

D

Large purchases for an educational institution are usually done through a process known as what? A. Direct purchase B. Indirect purchase C. Soliciting D. Bid process E. None of the above

D

Maintaining accurate medical records is the responsibility of which of the following individuals in the school setting? I. Athletic trainer II. Athletic director III. Principal IV School nurse V. Team physician A. I, II, III B. II, IV, V C. III, IV, V D. I, IV, V E. All of the above

D

Massage can be used as an effective modality to control pain because it activates which of the following? A. Central nervous system and chemosensitive receptors B. Parasympathetic nervous system and mechanosensitive receptors C. Parasympathetic nervous system and the pacinian receptors D. Autonomic nervous system and the pacinian receptors E. Autonomic nervous system and chemosensitive receptors

D

Of the following pieces of equipment, which is not an NCAA-mandated piece of equipment a. wrestling - ear guards b. men's lacrosse - protective gloves c. baseball - double ear flap helmet for batting d. gymnastics - palm protectors for uneven parallel bars e. women's lacrosse - protective eyewear

D

One of your athletes has been diagnosed with impetigo. What should the athletic trainer recommend to the athlete to prevent spread of the infection to other individuals? A. clean his clothing daily with bleach B. wear gloves C. practice safe sex D. prevent others from borrowing his clothing or using his towels E. cover his mouth when coughing and avoid socializing in large crowds

D

One of your athletes has been diagnosed with psoriasis. All of the following medication are appropriate for treatment of this condition except: a. aristocrot b. keflex c. zoloft d. betadine e. benadryl

D

One of your high school baseball players is having elbow surgery at the end of the season. He is a major league prospect, and a scout has asked you to detail the surgery and outline the anticipated rehabilitation. When answering the scout's questions, the athletic trainer should do which of the following? A. Refer the scout to the athletic director B. Refer the scout to the team physician C. Refer the scout to the athlete D. None of the above E. All of the above

D

One of your lacrosse players has blonde hair, light green eyes, and a very fair complexion. You suggest she wear a sunscreen with which of the following levels of SPF? A. 4 B. 6 C. 10 D. 30 E. 8

D

One of your male patients notices a tingling sensation in his urethra followed by a discharge of greenish-yellow pus from his penis. He is also complaining of pain during urination. You suspect which sexually transmitted disease and recommend which of the following actions? a. Syphilis; have the patient take Zovirax for 7 to 10 days b. Trichomoniasis; have the patient drink acidic fluids, call his family physician, and have the patient refrain from all sexual contact c. Genital candidiasis; have the patient apply a fungicide to his penis d. Gonorrhea; refer the patient to a physician and have him refrain from all sexual contact e. Genital herpes; have the patient take Diflucan

D

Opioid analgesics do all of the following except: A. Causes drowsiness B. Reduces anxiety and distress C. Causes constipation D. Increases heart rate E. Suppresses coughing

D

Redness and swelling during the inflammation process are caused by all of the following except: A. Histamine B. Prostagladins C. Seratonin D. Acetylcholine E. Bradykinin

D

Running utilizes _________ motion of the entire body and_________ motion of the arms and legs. A. Decelerant, accelerant B. Vertical, horizontal C. Rotary, translatory D. Linear, angular E. Vertical rotary

D

Significant losses of electrolytes, such as sodium, chloride, potassium, or magnesium, during heavy exercise may lead to symptoms such as _____ or _____. A. Drop in pressure, diuresis B. Muscle strains, ligament strains C. Dyspnea, indigestion D. Muscular cramps, heat illness F.. None of the above

D

The MMR vaccine is given in protection against which of the following diseases? a. mononucleosis, meningitis, rubella b. meningitis, mononucleosis, rubella c. mumps, meningitis, rubeola d. measles, mumps, rubella e. mumps, measles, rhabdomyolysis

D

The athletic administrator's role includes which of the following? A. Establishes the chain of command for the sports medicine team B. Makes certain that each member has appropriate credentials C. Is responsible for having appropriate personnel for the appropriate positions D. All of the above E. None of the above

D

The athletic trainer can avoid the risk of litigation by doing all of The following except: A. Keep medical records confidential B. Establish positive personal relationships with athletes C. Create a safe playing environment with documentation of such D. Keep an updated résumé on file with the athletic director E. B and C

D

The athletic trainer should look for all of the following features when purchasing a stationary bicycle except: A. A comfortable seat B. An easily modified workload C. Good construction D. An on-board computer for easy programming E. Adjustable to fit all athletes

D

The condition intertrigo is treated by which of the following? A. Application of a topical astringent B. Application of a topical antibiotic C. There is no known treatment for intertrigo E. Application of a cold compress, cleaning the area D. Application of a warm compress with mild soap and water, followed by the application of a soothing ointment

D

The dangers of possible hypothermia during exercise in very cold weather are significantly pronounced by __________ and __________. a. light clothing, low chill factor b. wind, wet weather c. layered clothing, dry weather d. wind, dry weather e. heavy clothing, wind

D

The frontal plane divides the body into___________ and _______ parts. A. Top, anterior B. Right, left C. Top, bottom D. Anterior, posterior E. Superior, lateral

D

The gluteus maximus is responsible for what following motion(s)? A. Flexion and internal rotation of the thigh B. Extension of the hip C. External rotation of the hip D. Extension and external rotation of the hip E. Abduction of the hip

D

The pes anserinus is made up of the tendons of what 3 muscles? A. Biceps femoris, gracilis, semitendinosus B. Iliotibial band, sartorius, semimembranosus C. Sartorius, gracilis, semimembranosus D. Sartorius, gracilis, semitendinosus E. Tensor fasciae latae, gracilis, semitendinosus

D

The plantar fascia or plantar aponeurosis is located where in the body? A. Base of the neck B. Lumbar region C. Lateral side of the thigh D. Sole of the foot E. Cervical spine

D

The progression for strengthening exercises is usually in what order? A. Isometric, isokinetic, isotonic, plyometric B. Isokinetic, isometric, plyometric, isotonic C. Isotonic, plyometric, isokinetic, isometric D. Isometric, isotonic, isokinetic, plyometric E. Plyometric, isometric, isotonic, isokinetic

D

The rectus femoris muscle _____ and _____ when it contracts. A. flexes the hip, externally rotates the hip B. extends the hip, flexes the knee C. flexes the knee, plantar flexes the ankle D. flexes the hip, extends the knee E. extends the hip, extends the knee

D

There are 2 types of heel cups that are designed to help prevent heel bruises. Of these 2 heel cups, which has an elevated heel that can compress downward so that the heel never actually makes contact with the inferior of the shoe? a. a rubberized padded cut b. a rigid plastic cup c. a jelly-filled cushion cup d. an air-filled cushion cup e. all of the above

D

To determine if an athlete is breathing, you should do all the following except: a. place your ear over the athlete's mouth to listen to breath sounds b. observe the chest c. feel for the rise and fall of the chest d. ask the athlete to say his or her name e. A and C

D

Treatment for facet dysfunction consists of all of the s following except: A. Facet joint mobilization B. Passive rotation C. Pelvic rock exercises D. McKenzie extension exercises E. Abdominal strengthening

D

Treatment of "snapping hip" syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Ice and NSAIDs B. Biomechanical correction C. Flexibility exercises D. Excision of the greater tuberosity in severe cases E. Instruction in proper training techniques

D

True leg-length discrepancy is measure between which 2 points? A. the posterior inferior iliac spine of the medial malleolus B. the umbilicus to the midpatella C. the umbilicus to the lateral malleolus D. the anterior superior iliac spine to the medial malleolus E. the anterior superior iliac spine of gerdy's tubercle

D

Two exercises that are designed to stabilize the lumbar spine during low back rehabilitation include _____ and _____ a. Single knee-to-chest exercise, double knee to chest b. Hamstring stretching, bridging exercises c. Partial sit-ups, active trunk extension in prone d. Resisted hip abduction exercise, iliotibial band stretching e. Hamstring stretching, piriformis strengthening

D

Type 1 diabetes is characterized by an impaired capacity to secrete insulin due to beta cell defect. This type of diabetes is commonly seen in what types of individual? A. obese, geriatric B. lean, insulin dependent C. noninsulin dependent, obese D. noninsulin dependent, juvenile E. none of the above

D

Ultrasound waves are reflected by ____ and absorbed by _____ a. Bone, skin b. Skin, connective tissue c. Skin, blood d. Bone, muscle e. Nerve, muscle

D

Using a best practices approach suggests that medical documentation of all physician referrals, initial evaluation, assessment, treatments, and dates of follow-up, care for all patients is a good idea for all of the following reasons except: A. Professional standards of practice B. Legal protection if sued C. Improved communication between the team or family physician D. Protection against a possible malpractice suit E. B and C

D

What evaluation test is used to examine the integrity of the lateral collateral ligament of the knee? a. pivot shift test b. valgus stress test c. lachman's test d. varus stress test e. none of the above

D

What guidelines does the athletic trainer have to follow regarding maintaining proper hygiene and sanitation in the athletic training facility? A. JCAHO B. AMA C. CARF D. OSHA E. CAATE

D

What is a contraction that occurs as the muscle shortens? A. Isotonic B. Eccentric C. Isometric D. Concentric E. Static

D

What is a medical condition called that is not covered by health insurance? A. A rider B. A deductible C. A premium D. An exclusion E. A liability

D

What is a type of tort in which an athletic trainer fails to act as a reasonably prudent athletic trainer would act under the same circumstances? A. Breach of contract B. Omission C. Abandonment D. Negligence E. Foreseeable harm

D

What is an upward force experienced by a body in a fluid that acts in the opposite direction of gravitY and is responsible for the feeling of weightlessness in water? A. Specific gravity B. Viscosity C. Hydrostatic pressure D. Buoyancy E. None of the above

D

What is the primary purpose of the Achilles tendon tape job? a. to give support and help prevent inversion ankle sprains b. used with acute ankle sprains to help prevent swelling if an elastic wrap is not available c. to prevent the medial foot from flattening d. to restrict the amount of dorsiflexion at the ankle e. A and C

D

What is the temperature range of an ice bath? A. 35°F to 50°F B. 70°F to 75°F C. 65°F to 70°F D. 50°F to 60°F E. 60°F to 80°F

D

What is the term used in ultrasound to describe the time that sound waves are being emitted during one pulse period? a. Ultrasound frequency b. Cavitation c. Attenuation d. Duty cycle e. Intensity

D

What type of fracture falls to heal spontaneously within a normal time frame? A. Malunion B. Oblique C. Osteogenesis D. Nonunion E. Spiral

D

What would be included in the capital expenses of an athletic training program? A. Staff salaries B. Equipment under $500 C. Athletic training supplies D. Buildings and room construction E. All of the above

D

When 2 drugs are combined and there is a response that is 2 times the response as when each drug is used alone, this is known as what type of effect? A. Antagonistic B. Mutually exclusive C. Agonistic D. Synergistic E. None of the above

D

When advising a patient about his year-long strength-training program, the athletic trainer should have the patient limit his heavy lifting workouts to which periods? A. In-season and postseason B. Preseason and in-season C. Postseason and off-season D. Off-season and preseason E. None of the above

D

When bench-pressing a barbell, the triceps and pectoralis major musculature contract in what manner during the "lift" phase? A. Isokinetically B. Isometrically C. Eccentrically D. Concentrically E. None of the above

D

When counseling a patient about the proper way to self-administer a medication, it is important that the athletic trainer make the patient aware of what 2 factors? a. Any side effects and, in detail, how the drug works on the body b. If the drug may be addictive and how long the effects will last c. If the drug may cause depression and, in detail, how the drug works on the body d. When to take the medication and what foods/ drugs not to mix with it e. B and C

D

When developing a functional progression for an athlete who is undergoing a rehabilitation program, all of the following factors need to be considered except: A. The physician's expectations for the athlete's return to activity B. The athlete's expectations for his or her return to activity C. The severity of the athlete's disability D. The length of the rehabilitation program E. The athlete's position in the sport

D

When developing an emergency plan, all of the following should be established except: A. The athletic trainer and coaches should have the appropriate keys to important gates and locks B. There should be a phone accessible for immediate use C. The athletic trainer should be familiar with the community emergency medical system D. Making sure there is a student athletic trainer available to accompany an injured athlete to the hospital if necessary E. A and C

D

When is it best to have athletes practice outdoors in an urban environment? a. early in the morning b. in the middle of the afternoon c. early afternoon d. very late afternoon/early evening e. never

D

When performing a urinalysis with a dipstick (such as Clinistix or a similar product) for abnormal glucose and protein levels, which of the following are considered abnormal findings in the adolescent? A. +2 B. +3 C. +4 D. All of the above E. None of the above

D

Where is the C3,4 dermatome located? A. The top of the head B. Over the posterior upper arm area C. Over the lateral upper arm area D. The superior aspect of the shoulders and posterior neck area E. Anterior chest area

D

Where is the origin of the vastus lateralis located? A. Gerdy's tubercle B. The anterior inferior iliac spine C. The greater trochanter of the femur D. The lateral aspect of the femur E. Lister's tubercle

D

Which is not a thermal effect of ultrasound? A. Increased blood flow B. Secretion of chemotactics C. Reduction of muscle spasm D. Edema reduction E. Muscular heating

D

Which muscle does not need to be strengthened after a rotator cuff repair? A. Supraspinatus B. Biceps C. Teres minor D. Sternocleidomastoid E. Triceps

D

Which of the behaviors below are seen with abuse of anabolic steroids? I. Mania II. Depression III. Anxiety IV. Psychosis V. Hyperactivity VI. Insomnia A. III, V, VI B. I, II C. V, VI D. I, II, III, VI E. II, III, IV, V

D

Which of the categories below are of the 6 classes of nutrients? I. Carbohydrates II. Proteins III. Antioxidants IV. Water V. Fats VI. Vitamins A. I, IV B. II, V C. V, VI D. III E. I, II

D

Which of the following conditions often contributes to shoulder impingement? a. acute bicipital tendinitis b. suprascapular nerve entrapment c. adhesive capsulitis d. glenohumeral instability e. serratus anterior weakness

D

Which of the following devices is more effective in decreasing skin temperature during a cryotherapy treatment? A. A microwaveable pack B. A chemical spray C. A cold towel D. An ice pack E. A fan

D

Which of the following drugs is used to treat the herpes simplex virus? A. Penicillin G (Bicillin LA) B. Doxycycline (Vibramycin) C. Azithromycin (Zithromax) D. Acyclovir ( Zovirax) E. Permethrin (Elimite)

D

Which of the following exercises are appropriate in attempting to decrease the symptoms of thoracic outlet syndrome? a. Cervical range of motion exercises, anterior shoulder strengthening b. Cervical range of motion exercises, cervical isometrics c. Anterior chest wall strengthening, cervical isometrics d. Stretching the anterior chest wall, the posterior midthoracic area e. None of the above

D

Which of the following factors has a significant impact on the amount of stress a patient will experience during his or her recovery from an injury? A. Whether or not soothing music is played in the athletic training facility Whether or not the coach is present during treatment Whether or not the same athletic trainer renders care D. The degree to which the patient perceives he or she has control over his or her care E. The amount of pressure the patient's family places on him or her to play

D

Which of the following is a condition that is associated with the enlargement of the spleen? a. grave's disease b. constipation c. appendicitis d. hepatitis e. mononucleosis

D

Which of the following is not a factor in designing an appropriate treatment program? a. The stage of tissue healing b. Pain with joint motion c. The severity of the injury d. How soon the coach feels the athlete should return to play e. A and B

D

Which of the following is not a way for a throwing athlete to prevent injuries while training? a. minimizing the effects of microtrauma during training b. maintaining cardiovascular and lower extremity conditioning c. good communication between the athlete, athletic trainer, coach, and physician during training d. all of the above e. B and C

D

Which of the following is not among the best means by which an athletic trainer may educate the general public and other health care workers regarding the profession of athletic training? A. Organizing professional seminars and conferences B. Providing high-quality care to the physically active individual C. Publishing articles in professional journals and participating in research D. Developing television advertisements E. A and C

D

Which of the following is not an indication for diathermy? a. To increase local circulation b. Reduction of spasms c. Pain relief d. Cardiac abnormalities e. Osteoarthritis

D

Which of the following is the most restrictive form of regulation for the profession of athletic training? A. Exemption B. Certification C. Registration D. Licensure E. Reciprocity

D

Which of the following medications is not a medication that could predispose an athlete to heat illness? A. Decongestants B. Antihistamines C. Diuretics D. NSAIDs E. Beta-adrenergic blockers

D

Which of the following muscle tendons form the borders of the anatomical snuff-box? I. Extensor hallucis longus II. Extensor pollicis brevis III. Flexor pollicis longus IV. Abductor pollicis longus V. Extensor pollicis longus A. I, III, V B. I, II, IV C. III, IV, V D. II, IV, V E. I, II, III

D

Which of the following muscles are involved in a seated military press? I. Trapezius II. Latissimus dorsi III. Pectoralis major IV. Serratus anterior V. Posterior deltoid VI. Triceps a. II, Ill, VI b. I, III, IV, V c. I, IV, V, VI d. I, III, IV, VI e. All of the above

D

Which of the following muscles are involved in a seated row exercise? I. Latissimus dorsi II. Teres minor III. Teres major IV. Middle trapezius V. Rhomboids VI. Pectoralis major A. I, III, IV, VI B. II, III, IV, V C. II, IV, V, VI D. I, III, IV, V E. I, II, III, IV

D

Which of the following muscles are the primary muscles involved when performing a resisted wrist curl (palms up)? I. Flexor digitorum longus II. Flexor digiti minimi III. Adductor pollicis IV Flexor carpi radialis V. Flexor carpi ulnaris VI. Brachialis A. I, II, IV B. I, IV, V, VI C. III, IV, VI D. IV, V E. III, IV, V

D

Which of the following muscles does not dorsiflex the ankle? A. Extensor digitorum longus B. Peroneus tertius C. Tibialis anterior D. Peroneus brevis F. A and C

D

Which of the following muscles does not extend and laterally flex the neck? a. splenius capitis b. splenius carvicis c. levator scapulae d. sternocleidomastoid e. multifundus

D

Which of the following muscles is not involved in internal rotation of the hip? a. adductor magnus b. gluteus maximus c. gracilis d. tensor fasciae latae e. gluteus minimus

D

Which of the following organisms is one of the most common causes of vaginitis in women? A. AIDs B. genital herpes C. chlamydia trachomatis D. candida E. gonorrhea

D

Which of the following organizations sets the standard for eye protection for racquet sports? A. ACSM B. NATA C. FDA D. ASTM E. NOCSAE

D

Which of the following organizations was established in 1950 and created a code of ethics and standards for the profession of athletic training? A. AOSSM B. ACSM C. APTA D. NATA E. NASM

D

Which of the following physiological adaptations does not occur in skeletal muscle during endurance training? A. Increased aerobic enzyme activity B. Increased myoglobin levels C. Increased mitochondria density D. Decreased mitochondrial density E. A and B

D

Which of the following pieces of equipment is not considered closed kinetic chain? a. Treadmill b. Leg-press machine c. Upper body ergometer d. Isokinetic knee extension machine e. BAPS board

D

Which of the following pieces of information are important for the athletic trainer to keep on record in the athletic training facility? A. Injury reports B. Injury evaluations and progress notes C. Daily treatment logs D. All of the above E. None of the above

D

Which of the following professionals possesses expertise in the analysis of human motion? A. A physiatrist B. An exercise physiologist C. A strength and conditioning specialist D. A biomechanist E. An athletic trainer

D

Which of the following structures is not innervated? A. Periosteum of bone B. Peritoneum of the abdomen C. Epithelium of the skin D. Enamel of a tooth E. All of the above are innervated

D

Which piece of information is not part of the athletic trainer's daily documentation? A. Treatment technique B. Playing status C. Daily injury log D. Patient's insurance information E. Rehabilitation progression

D

While performing an isometric contraction, a patient should be instructed to breathe normally to prevent the valsalvis effect. Which of the following occurs when the patient produces the valsalva's effect? A. The patient experiences dyspnea B. The patient will hyperventilate C. The patient becomes hypotensive D. There is a significant, rapid rise in blood pressure E. The patient will pass out

D

While rehabilitating a patient, you find he is excessively willing to do "whatever it takes" to recover fully and as quickly as possible. In doing so, you often have to remind the patient not to push himself too hard and do too much. Which of the following is not a possible cause of overcompliance? A. Obsessive-compulsive behavior B. Slight feelings of denial C. Masking an underlying fear D. Manic-depressive behavior E. B and C

D

You have been given the opportunity to assist in hiring a new team physician. What type of agreement should be drawn up between the school and the physician? A. School emergency systems agreement B. A noncompete agreement C. A medical consent agreement D. A physician's letter of agreement E. Liability contract agreement

D

____ and ____ are 2 means that deliver medication via sound waves and electricity. a. Ultrasound, iontophoresis b. Ultrasound, phonophoresis c. Micromassage, phonophoresis d. Phonophoresis, iontophoresis e. High-volt electric stimulation, iontophoresis

D

"Rehabilitation" includes all of the following components except: A. Assessment of level of function/dysfunction B. Organization and interpretation of results of the initial evaluation C. Formulation of patient problems D. Establishment of long- and short-term goals E. Diagnosis of the patient's condition

E

A baseball player has been stung by a bee. This player has a history of severe allergy to bee stings. A couple minutes after being stung, the area becomes red and raised and begins to H. The athlete begins to complain to his tongue feels thick, and he starts to have difficulty breathing. What type of shock is he beginning to develop? A. neurogenic B. metabolic C. hypovolemic D. respiratory E. anaphylactic

E

A loss of water equal in what percent of body weight will be going to threaten athletic performance? A. 10% to 20% B. 0.5% to 1% C. 1% to 2% D. 1% to 1.5% E. 2% to 3%

E

A megadose of which of the following vitamins is potentially very dangerous? A. thiamin B. vitamin B6 C. vitamin C D. vitamin B12 E. vitamin A

E

A patient presents to the athletic training facility common the back of his neck. It appears as a dark red, hard area, which later develops plaining of a "sore spot" as a lesion discharging yellowish-red pus from numerous areas. The athletic trainer suspects what type of infection? A. Viral B. Fungal C. Systemic D. Parasitic E. Bacterial

E

A patient who has a seizure should be referred to a physician under which of the following conditions? a. after a seizure that last more than 5 minutes b. there is no history of previous seizures c. if the seizure does not fit into the patient's pattern of previous seizures d. all of the above e. none of the above

E

A patient who is "burned out may display which of the following symptoms? A. Negative self-concept B. Chronic fatigue C. Negative attitude toward his or her teammates D. Headaches E. All of the above

E

A patient who sustained a severe or career ending injury may go through a progression of emotional reactions, which are frequently seen with an individual who has experienced a significant loss. All the fall or not included in the series of reactions except: a. bargaining b. anger c. acceptance d. denial e. guilt

E

A patient's pulmonary function is tested via spirometry. Several measurements are taken during this test. What is the maximum amount of air that can be expired after a maximum inspiration? A. Maximum expiratory flow rate B. Forced expiratory volume C. Residual volume D. Tidal volume E. Vital capacity

E

A positive Phalen's sign a suspected of what problem? a. tarsal tunnel syndrome b. long thoracic nerve injury c. thoracic outlet syndrome d. suprascapular entrapment syndrome e. carpaL tunnel syndrome

E

A positive Thompson's sign is indicative of what problem? a. tight hip flexor b. tight iliotibial band c. ruptured anterior tibialis tendon d. ruptured posterior tibialis tendon e. ruptured Achilles tendon

E

A soccer player gets kicked in the low back and is brought to the athletic training facility. During his examination, he goes to the bathroom and reports that there is blood in his urine. Which of the following terms describes this sign of an internal injury? A. Hyperpnea B. Hematoma C. Hypernatremia D. Hemarthrosis E. Hematuria

E

A soccer player has a fracture his right lower leg, been placed in a cast, and giving crutches. The addition of crutches is what to his center of gravity? A. Moves it to the left B. Moves it to the midabdominal area C. Moves it to the right D. There is no effect on the center of gravity E. Enlarges the base of support

E

A soccer player has been kicked in the upper right quadrant of his abdomen. Which of the following internal organ(s) could have sustained a significant injury? A. Kidney B. Ureters C. Spleen D. Appendix and sigmoid colon E. Liver and gallbladder

E

A soccer player sustains a strain to the quadriceps muscle group. You are trying to prevent atrophy during rehabilitation. What method of treatment would you use? a. ultrasound and TENS b. interferential current c. stretching d. high-volt galvanic stimulation e. Russian stimulation

E

According to the NATA position statement on anabolic-androgenic steroids, and Athletic Trainer can offer specific support to an athlete suspected of abusing anabolic-androgenic steroids (AAS) through all of the following means except: A. building trust with athletes, coaches, and clients through consistent, year-round, evidence-based educational meetings and inservice sessions B. avoiding unfounded scare tactics and hyperconcerning the negative consequences of AAS C. being alert for excessive discussion about and focus on supplements and nutrition practices or self-education about AAS (ie, types, stacks, and cycles) D. remaining attentive because AAS abusers are typically secretive and good at not getting caught; a passed drug screen does not prove AAS nonuse E. by supporting the athlete's self-esteem; it is important to compliment his or her physical appearance and strength gains as changes become evident

E

According to the NATH position statement regarding safe weight loss and maintenance practice and sports and exercise, when determining goal weight, body weight should be assessed relative to what? a. skin-fold measurements b. body mass index c. basla metabolic rate d. bioelectric impedance measurements e. body composition

E

All of the following are basic steps in the purchasing process except: A. Request a quotation B. Negotiation C. Purchase order D. Bid requests E. Quality control

E

All of the following are predisposing conditions to heat illness except: a. medications b. age c. conditioning level d. hydration status e. small body mass

E

All of the following are signs and symptoms of dehydration except: a. sunken, soft eyes b. high specific gravity of urine c. weight loss d. thrists e. seizures

E

All of the following are signs of anorexia nervosa except: a. dramatic weight loss b. obsession with weight gain c. social isolation d. reaching competitive weight and continuing to lose weight in off-season e. signification weight gain during off-season

E

All of the following are tests for glenohumeral instability except: A. Clunk test B. Anterior apprehension C. Anterior glide D. Load and shift E. Neer's test

E

All of the following structures pass through the popliteal fossa except: A. Tibial nerve B. Popliteal artery C. Popliteal vein D. Common peroneal nerve E. Peroneal artery

E

All of the following substances have stimulating properties except: A. Nicotine B. Theophylline C. Pseudoephedrine E. Caffeine E. Pepcid

E

An "operational plan" is a plan that defines organizational activities in the short-term and should be no longer than which of the following? A, 10 years B. 15 years C. 25 years D. 7 years E. 2 years

E

An athlete is injured during an ice hockey game arid, after being examined by the team physician, is diagnosed with a complete anterior cruciate ligament cannot compete the rest of the season. When you see the athlete the next day he states, "The doctor doesn't know what he is talking about. I'll be fine" This athlete tear. You have been told by the doctor that this athlete is demonstrating what behavior? A. Hysteria B. Depression C. Anger D. Bargaining E. Denial

E

An athletic trainer is working in a clinical setting 12,1' Which of the following populations is the athletic trainer best suited to treat? A. Neurologically impaired B. Mentally impaired G Burn patients p. Geriatric patients E. Physically active

E

An athletic trainer should make a psychological referral under all of the following circumstances except: A. When the athletic trainer does not have time or resources to meet the needs of the patient B. When the patient becomes a danger to him- or herself and others, including the athletic trainer C. When the athletic trainer does not have the support system or supervision to address the psychological needs of the patient D. When the patient with psychological issues is affecting him- or herself in a way that it is counterproductive to proper life functioning. E. When the patient displays a bad mood that cannot be tempered by the athletic trainer or close friends

E

An avulsion fracture of a bone is caused by which type of tissue stress? A. Compression B. Bending C. Shearing D. All of the above E. None of the above

E

Anxiety is often manifested by all of the following symptoms except: A. Tachycardia B. Nausea C. Intense worry D. Paranoia E. Sleepiness

E

At which of the following structures does gas exchange occur in the lungs? A. Terminal bronchiole B. The parietal pleura C. The pulmonary arteries D. The pulmonary veins E. The alveoli

E

Athletes can prevent lower leg injuries by all of the following except: a. stretching b. proper footwear c. proprioceptive training d. strength training e. all of the above

E

Athletes foot (tinea pedis) may be prevented by all of the following except: a. dusting the feet daily with powder b. completely drying feet after getting them wet, including between toes c. wearing sandals when showering in a public facility d. washing the feet on a regular basis e. sharing shoes with teammates

E

Contraindications for joint mobilization include all the following except: A. Acute inflammation B. Osteoporosis C. Malignancy D. Infection E. Joint hypomobility

E

Developing significant muscle bulk is dependent on the levels present in the body of which of the following hormones? A. Epinephrine B. Cortisol C. Norepinephrine D. Estrogen E. Testosterone

E

Diaphoresis is also known as which of the following? A. Rapid heart beat B. Body odor C. Bad breath D. Slow heart beat E. Sweating

E

Drugs may be classified according to all of the following except: A. Chemical classification B. Mechanism of action C. Therapeutic effect D. Legal classification E. Route of administration

E

During a preparticipation physical, the team physician comes across a basketball player with the following profile. The athlete is tall with an arm span greater than his height, pectus carinatum or excavatum, high-arched palate, and myopia. What is the probable diagnosis? A. Paget's disease B. Milch disease C. Addison's disease D. Gigantism E. Marfan syndrome

E

During an emergency, all the following information should be given over to telephone by the athletic trainer for emergency personnel except: a. the type of emergency b. the current status of the athlete c. where the athlete is currently located d. the type of treatment currently being given to the athlete e. the name of the next of kin

E

During an upper quarter screen, checking the strength of thumb extension correlates to what nerve root? a. T1 b. T3 c. C5 d. C4 e. C8

E

During digestion, food passes through the small intestine as it is being broken down into smaller components. Which area of the small intestine does it not pass through first? A. ileum B. esophagus C. jejunum D. cecum E. duodenum

E

During what phase of the menstrual cycle does a graafian follicle mature? A. Second phase B. Ovulatory C. Luteal D. Menstrual E. Follicular

E

Eliminating negative thoughts that are connected to the effects of anxiety by substituting a positive thought in its place is known as which of the following? A. Dissociation B. Autogenic training C. Redirection D. Thought stopping E. Thought substitution

E

Extrinsic risk factors of athletic injury include which of the following? a. training errors b. poor of inappropriate coaching c. improper technique d. all of the above e. none of the above

E

Factors to incorporate into goal setting for a patient include all of the following except: A. Set specific and measurable goals B. Use positive language C. Make goals challenging but realistic D. Set a reasonable time frame E. Connect the outcome to the effort

E

Fat is a nutrient that is utilized as an energy source in the form of triglycerides. Triglycerides are stored in what type of cell? A. Striated B. Lipoma C. Beta E. White blood cells E. Adipose

E

Foot drop may be indicative of what pathology? a. plantar nerve injury b. shin splints c. osteochondritis dissecans d. achilles tendinitis e. peroneal nerve injury

E

Footstrike anemia can be controlled by having the athlete wear well-cushioned shoes, limiting running to very soft surfaces, and teaching the athlete to land lightly on his or her feet while exercising. What is this condition called? A. Hemolysis B. Hyperkalemia C. Rubefacients D. Hemarthrosis E. Hemoptysis

E

General warts are caused by which of the following? a. HIV b. herpes I virus c. herpes II virus c d. chlamydia e. human papillomavirus

E

Hemophilia occurs when which of the following blood factors is missing? A. Granulocytes B. Hemoglobin C. Factor IV D. Rh factor E. Factor VIII

E

How many servings of fruit should an athlete have as a minimum daily requirement? A. 2 to 6 servings B. 5 to 7 servings C. 2 to 4 servings D. number of servings are according to athlete's age E. number of servings are according to the athlete's height and weight

E

How much calcium should a female athlete who shows signs of low bone mass consume a day? A. 500 to 700 mg B. 750 mg C. 1000 mg D. 1500 mg E. 1200 mg

E

If a 20-year-old patient is exercising at 80% of his or her maximal heart rate, his or her target heart rate could be calculated to equal what? A. 150 BPM B. 140 BPM C. 170 BPM D. 200 BPM E. 160 BPM

E

If a joint capsule is stretched beyond its physiological limitations causing a reflexive muscle contraction, which of the following laws is being demonstrated? A. Ohm's B. Harrod's C. Wolff 's D. Newton's E. Hilton's

E

In hot, wet environments, the patient's ability to adjust to a significantly increased cardiovascular workload is limited by which factor? A. Hypoxia B. Hypervolemia C. Dehydration D. Hypernatremia E. Inability to dissipate heat by evaporation

E

In terms of specificity of training, which type of exercise would be appropriate during the late phases of rehabilitation of a soccer player? a. Stairmaster b. Swimming c. Stationary bicycle d. Leg press e. Treadmill exercise

E

In the human body, the point of attachment of the muscle causing the motion is almost always closer to the joint axis than the resisting motion. What type of II. lever system most commonly exists in the body? A. Fourth B. Second C. Fifth D. First E. Third

E

In very cold environments, the athlete's body will attempt to produce heat through many different mechanisms. One of these methods is by hypothalamic stimulation of what? A. Posterior hypothalamus B. Sweat glands C. Pituitary glands D. Adrenal glands E. Thyroid gland

E

In what abdominal quadrant is the spleen located? A. Central B. Lower right C. Lower left D. Upper right E. Upper left

E

In which of the following foods would be a high concentration of the mineral phosphorus be found? A. Potatoes B. Dark green vegetables C. Oranges D. Table salt E. Milk and cheese

E

Interval training would be appropriate for all the following sports except: A. Football B. Soccer C. Volleyball D. Basketball E. Archery

E

Isotonic external rotation of the glenohumeral joint during shoulder rehabilitation focuses on what muscles? A. Infraspinatus B. Teres minor C. Posterior deltoid D. All of the above E. None of the above

E

Loading of a joint that is unstable due to a ligament rupture produces which of the following stresses on the joint cartilage? A. No change at all B. Rolling/pivoting stress C. Tension forces D. Abnormally low stress E. Abnormally high stress

E

One method of estimating body fat has been through the use of skin-fold measurements at 4 sites. These 4 sites include all of the following except: A. biceps B. triceps C. suprailiac E. suprascapular E. none of the above

E

One of your gymnasts had a bone density test that came back positive for mild osteoporosis. Which of the following minerals should be supplemented to prevent osteoporosis in a high-risk athlete? A. Folate B. Niacin C. Folic acid D. Fluoride E. Calcium

E

One of your soccer players is requesting to play in the conference championship in 2 days. This athlete is 2 days post concussion. Who should make the final decision of an athlete's eligibility for participation in organized athletic activity in this situation? A. Coach B. Athlete C. Parent D. School nurse E. Physician

E

Pediculosis is most effectively treated with which of the following? A. Mouthwash B. An antibiotic C. Time D. An antifungal E. A parasiticide

E

Polydipsia is also known as which of the following? A. Excessive urination B. Excessive hunger C. Excessive blood glucose D. Low urine pH E. Excessive thirst

E

Signs and symptoms of addiction for a physically active individual may include all of the following except: A. Attendance problems B. Deterioration of athletic performance C. Escalating issues with school, job, and team D. Belligerent behavior E. Desire to stay close to the team and coach when away from the performance venue

E

Smooth muscle tissue is found in all of the following structures except: A. Lungs B. Arterial walls C. Colon D. Intestines E. Scalenes

E

Sports medicine encompasses all of the following fields of study related to sport except: A. Biomechanics B. Massage therapy C. Sports nutrition D. Sport psychology E. Coaching

E

Sports medicine is a term that includes all of the following specializations related to the study of sport except: A. Exercise physiology B. Biomechanics C. Sports psychology D. Sports nutrition E. Recreational therapy

E

Substance abuse, as defined by the DSM-IV-TR (Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders), is manifested by which of the following criteria (occurring within a 12-month work period)? A. Recurrent substance abuse resulting in a failure to fulfill a major role obligation at school, work, or home. B. Recurrent substance abuse in situations where it is physically hazardous (ie, driving a car while impaired) C. Recurrent substance abuse-related legal problems (ie, arrests for substance-related disorderly conduct) D. Continued substance abuse despite having persistent or recurrent social or interpersonal problems caused by the effects of the substance (ie, arguments or fighting) E. All of the above

E

The "half-life" of following of a drug refers to which of the following? A. The amount of time it takes for a drug to lose half its potency while it is in storage B. Half the amount of time it takes for a drug to reach its therapeutic level in the bloodstream C. The time required for the amount of the drug in the blood to be increased by one-half D. The time required for half the therapeutic drug level to be excreted in the urine E. The time required for the amount of drug in the blood to be reduced by one-half

E

The BOC Standards of Professional Practice consists of 2 sections. What are the 2 sections? A. Code of Ethics and Professional Responsibility B. Practice Standards C. Code of Professional Responsibility D. A and B E. B and C

E

The NATA position statement on safe weight loss and maintenance practices in sports and exercise recommends the individual assessing body composition use a valid and reliable body composition assessment technique. These include all the following except: a. hydrodensitometry b. air displacement plethysmography c. skin-fold measurements d. bioelectric impedance e. doppler measurements

E

The NATA's position statement on exertional heat illness recommends which of the following? a. ensure that the appropriate medical care is available and the rescue personnel are familiar with exertional heat illness prevention, recognition, and treatment b. plan rest breaks to match environmental conditions and the intensity of the activity c. weigh high-risk athletes (in high-risk conditions, weigh all athletes) before and after practice to estimate the amount of body water lost during practice and to ensure a return to preparticipate weight before next practice d. allow athletes to practice in shaded areas or use electric or cooling fans to circulate air when feasible e. all of the above

E

The athletic trainer of a collegiate women's swimming and diving team suspects one of his patients might have a severe eating disorder. After lengthy discussions with both the coach and patient, the athletic trainer decides it would be best for the patient if she is referred for professional help. To which of the following professionals should the patient be initially referred? a. An endocrinologist b. A chiropractor c. A registered dietitian d. A registered nurse e. A psychologist

E

The athletic trainer should do which of the following when dealing with an athlete would heat exhaustion? a. administer cool fluids b. remove unnecessary clothing c. move to a cool place d. all of the above e. none of the above

E

The athletic trainer should perform which of the following tests for posterior cruciate ligament laxity? A. Apley distraction test B. Jerk test C. Apley compression test D. Pivot shift test E. Posterior drawer test

E

The bottom number of a blood pressure reading is the ______ pressure. A. Intrinsic B. Systolic C. Ejection fraction D. Venous E. Diastolic

E

The codes that were established by the AMA for health care providers to receive third-party reimbursement are CPT codes. What does CPT mean? A. Current Procedural Treatments B. Current Provider Terminology C. Consensus Procedural Treatments D. Current Provider Treatments E. Current Procedural Terminology

E

The equal employment operating chief works with employees who have filed what type(s) of complaint? A. Discrimination B. Sexual harassment C. Racism D. All of the above E. None of the above

E

The following test is used to detect a possible meniscal tear in the knee? a. Fabers test b. Allen's test c. Jerk test d. Lachmans test e. McMurray's test

E

The inflammatory process includes all the following signs and symptoms except: a. redness b. pain c. warmth d. swelling e. numbness

E

The label on a dietary supplement must contain all the following elements except: a. name and location of the manufacturer b. distributor c. a complete list of ingredients d. the contents of the product e. the date of initial packaging

E

The loss of___________ and_______ account for the greatest percentage of electrolytes lost through sweat. A. Potassium, chloride B. Magnesium, potassium C. Sodium, potassium D. Potassium, zinc E. Sodium, chloride

E

The pre-event meal should be planned by whom? a. the coach b. the athlete c. the athletic trainer d. A and B e. all of the above

E

The rules, standards, and principles that dictate proper conduct among members of a society or profession are known as which of the following? A. Rights of conduct B. Code of conduct C. Morality D. Professional demeanor E. Ethics

E

The statute of limitations involving a negligence suit has a limit of how many years? A. Up to 2 years B. 4 to 5 years C. 7 to 10 years D. 10 to 15 years E. 1 to 3 years

E

The use of a reusable cold pack may significantly increase the possibility of frostbite because of which of the following? A. The chemicals in the packs are caustic to the skin B. Wet toweling significantly drops the skin temperature C. Reusable cold packs cause anesthesia after 10 minutes D. It decreases the cellular metabolic rate E. It may lower the skin temperature below the freezing point

E

There are different models of supervision that may be used by a head athletic trainer when managing an athletic training staff. Two of these models are known as _____ and _____ supervision. A. Monarchical, sovereign B. Clinical, directional C. Transitional, directional D. Inspection-production, administrative E. Clinical, developmental

E

To prevent the possibility of an acute compartment syndrome, the athletic trainer should advise his or her field hockey players to wear which of the following pieces of equipment? A. thigh pads B. mouthguards C. helmets D. gloves E. shin guards

E

Ultrasound is based on the _____ effect. a. Resonance b. Sounding c. Cavitation d. Phoresor e. Reverse piezoelectric

E

Under which of the following environmental conditions with an undiagnosed patient with sickle cell trait be most risk? a. hot, humid environment b. cold, dry environment c. high-altitude environment d. cold, humid environment e. A and C

E

Uou notice one of your gymnast has lost a significant amount of weight over the past month. She is always concerned about her image when she discusses her performance with you. What made you suspect as the problem? A. Drug dependence B. Depression C. Narcissims D. Bipolar disease E. Anorexia nervosa

E

What are the most appropriate exercise for a diagnosis of lumbar spinal stenosis? a. Kegal exercises b. McKenzie extension exercises c. Lumbar stabilization exercises d. Postural awareness exercises e. William's flexion exercises

E

What does it mean when one fails to act when there is a legal duty to do so? A. Negligence B. Malpractice C. Commission D. Misdemeanor E. Omission

E

What general topics should be addressed in an athletic training program policies and procedures manual? A. Who the athletic training program will serve B. Facility use and maintenance C. Risk management plans D. Chains of command and supervision E. All of the above

E

What internal organ is diseased if the patient presents with jaundice? A. spleen B. pancreas C. gallbladder D. kidney E. liver

E

What is a form of exercise that helps develop eccentric control during dynamic movements? A. Isometric B. PNF C. Hydraulic training D. Isokinetics E. Plyometric

E

What is inflammation of the common flexor origin of the forearm musculature called? A. Lateral epicondylitis B. Cycler's wrist C. Tennis elbow D. Pronation overuse syndrome E. Medial epicondylitis

E

What is the average range of motion of knee flexion? A. 0 to 180 degrees B. 0 to 120 degrees C. 0 to 100 degrees D. 0 to 155 degrees E. 0 to 135 degrees

E

What is the potential to influence the behavior of a superior called? A. Superior power B. Position power C. Counter power D. Subordination power E. Personal power

E

What is the primary mechanism of action of penicillin? A. Inhibits DNA synthesis B. Inhibits cell wall synthesis C. Inhibits protein synthesis D. It is a metabolic inhibitor E. It enhances protein catabolism

E

What is the state law that gives an individual the length of time (in years) to file a claim? A. Foreseeable harm B. Liability negligence C. Statute of limitations D. Tort E. Statute of suitability

E

What is the state of being legally responsible for the harm one causes another person? A. Criminal intention B. Foreseeable harm C. Tort D. Negligence E. Liability

E

What medium does not transmit ultrasound waves? a. Water b. Gel c. Body lotion d. Steroid creams e. Air

E

What type of joint is the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb? A. Pivot B. Ball and socket C. Hinge D. Plane E. Saddle

E

What type of muscle fiber is more prevalent in a sprinter's lower extremity? A. Pink B. Type I C. Slow twitch D. Smooth E. Fast twitch

E

When a football player has a possible cervical injury, which of the following should you do first? a. remove the shoulder pads (only) b. remove the helmet (only) c. remove the shoulder pads then the helmet d. place the athlete on a spine board e. assess level of consciousness

E

When assisting the general public in understanding the term sports medicine, the definition should include which of the following descriptors? A. Strength training B. Physician C. Rehabilitation D. Fitness E. Multidisciplinary

E

When exercising in cold temperatures, what should be done by the athlete to prevent hypothermia? a. keep his or her clothes dry b. warm-up exercises and remain active c. wear warm clothes d. all of the above e. none of the above

E

When following the DAPRE technique of progressive resistive exercise, the first set of 10 repetitions is performed with a weight that is _____ of the weight that be lifted in set 3. a. 10% b. 25% c. 100% d. 75% e. 50%

E

When instructing a patient in the proper techniques of applying an elastic wrap to control pain and edema of an extremity, the athletic trainer should instruct the patient to remove the wrap if all except the following occurs at the distal end of the extremity: A. numbness B. coolness C. tingling D. cyanosis E. pink hue to the skin

E

When rehabilitating a patient who has undergone an anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction, which of the following muscle groups must be strengthened to support the graft? a. Triceps surae b. Hip adductors c. Quadriceps d. Gluteals e. Hamstrings

E

When rehabilitating an athlete following a ligamentous wrist injury, once the ligament has healed enough where active motion can be initiated, it is important to educate the athlete to exercise only: a. Isometrically b. In water c. While using a prophylactic brace d. First thing in the morning e. In a pain-free range

E

When selecting and fitting protective gear and sports equipment, the athletic trainer should do which of the following to minimize liability? a. buy protective gear or equipment from a reputable manufacturer b. ensure that the individuals who assembles the equipment is competent to do so c. if the athlete is wearing a cast, brace, or other type of immobilization device, ensure that it does not violate the rules of the sport d. ensure the equipment is not defective e. all of the above

E

When taking a history from an athlete during the initial evaluation after an injury, at which of the following levels of listening" should the athletic trainer be functioning? A. Passive B. Active C. Courteous D. Appreciative E. Analytical

E

When testing the physical conditioning of a patient, the coach asks the patient to sprint 50 yards. What does this test? A. Aerobic endurance B. Vital capacity C. Lower extremity power D. Power E. Anaerobic capacity

E

When using ultrasound under water, a rubber-type basin should be used. Which of the following is the reason this technique should not be performed in a metal basin or whirlpool? A. Cavitation may occur B. The ultrasound transmission is significantly increased C. Minerals in the water block the transmission of the ultrasound energy D. Ultrasound energy is reflected off metal and may damage the transducer head E. Ultrasound energy is reflected off metal, increasing the intensity in various areas near the metal

E

Which of the following are common complications of hepatitis C? a. cirrhosis and liver cancer b. bile duct constricture and gastroesophageal reflux disease c. cirrhosis and colon cancer d. ascites and pancreatic cancer e. gastritis

E

Which of the following are factors that influence space requirements when designing a sports medicine facility? A. Number of clients to be served B. Types of clients to be served C. Amount and type of equipment needed D. Projected growth of the program E. All of the above

E

Which of the following best describes an athletic trainer in a nontraditional athletic training setting? A. Controller B. Organizer C. Director D. Planner E. Manager

E

Which of the following can cause an indirect sports fatality? a. contact sports b. a blow to the head c. blunt chest trauma d. rodeo riding e. heat stroke

E

Which of the following conditions is not indicated for mechanical traction? a. An acute interspinous sprain b. Degenerative joint disease c. Herniated discs or protrusions d. Degenerative disc disease e. Muscle spasm

E

Which of the following describes a person or organization that supports a program but has a history of untrusting behavior (these people tend to be manipulative in their dealings)? A. Opponents B. Challengers C. Allies D. Adversaries E. Bedfellows

E

Which of the following health care providers would be known as a primary care provider? A. A physical therapist B. An orthopedic technician C. A nurse D. An athletic trainer E. A physician

E

Which of the following individuals is most susceptible to heat stroke and, therefore, must be carefully educated regarding the importance of adequate fluid intake during activity in hot, humid weather? a. basketball guard b. a wrestler c. female gymnasts d. swimmer e. a defensive lineman in football

E

Which of the following individuals should the athletic trainer advise and consult with when developing a reconditioning program for a patient following a musculoskeletal injury while playing football? A. The team physician B. The school nurse C. The head football coach D. The patient's parents if he is a minor E. The team strength and conditioning coach

E

Which of the following is a growing concept in the insurance industry stressing cost control through coordination of medical services? A. A primary care provider B. Health maintenance organization C. Exclusive provider organization D. Preferred provider organization E. Managed care

E

Which of the following is a possible employment setting for an athletic trainer? A. Industrial setting B. High school setting C. Hospital setting D. College or university E. All of the above

E

Which of the following is a type of organizational culture characterized by consensus, teamwork, and participatory decision making? A. Transformational B. Personalistic C. Formulistic D. Organizational E. Collegial

E

Which of the following is an example of an overreaction to a recent injury? A. Trembling B. Nausea C. Anxiety D. Tachycardia E. Inappropriate joke telling

E

Which of the following is not a type of insurance policy that is offered to organizations seeking to purchase insurance for athletic teams? A. Accident insurance B. Indemnity policy C. Basic medical coverage D. Group insurance E. Capitation

E

Which of the following is not an adverse effect associated with the abuse of human growth hormone? A. Laryngeal thickening B. Hypercalciuria C. Hypertrophic neuropathy D. Mandibular growth E. Diarrhea

E

Which of the following is not an example of an isotonic device? a. Free weights b. A total gym c. A squat rack d. Wall pulleys e. A wall

E

Which of the following is not part of a treatment for plantar fasciitis? a. heel cups b. soft orthotics c. ultrasound d. arch taping e. use of metatarsal pad

E

Which of the following is one of the most common eye injury sustain in athletics? A. detached iris B. detached retina C. zygomatic fracture D. corneal abrasion E. hypertrophic retina

E

Which of the following is the most effective motivator for compliance to rehabilitation of an athletic injury? A. Coercion B. Bribery C. Fear D. Collaboration E. Goal setting

E

Which of the following is the trade or brand name of the drug hydrocodone? A. Darvocet-N 100 B. Percocet C. Demerol D. Codeine E. Vicodin

E

Which of the following is true regarding the hepatitis B immunization? a. it is a series of three shots giving over three months b. the one injection will be affected for a lifetime c. the immunization may be given as an injection or nasal spray d. it is not effective in children e. it is a series of three shots given a course of nine months

E

Which of the following joints is a "mortise" joint? A. First metatarsophalangeal B. Elbow C. Sacroiliac D. Knee E. Ankle

E

Which of the following joints is an example of a hinge joint? A. Acromioclavicular B. Atlantoaxial C. Talocrural D. Shoulder E. Elbow

E

Which of the following materials in the athletic trainer used to construct a custom protective or supportive device? a. felt b. gauze padding c. cotton d. foam e. all of the above

E

Which of the following medications has antipyretic properties? A. Tylenol B. Aspirin C. Benadryl D. Codeine E. A and B

E

Which of the following medications is often used for depression? A. Relafen B. Lithium C. Midol D. Ritalin E. Prozac

E

Which of the following minerals decreases the risk of osteoporosis and increases the density of the bone? a. zinc b. folate c. molybdenum d. iron e. calcium

E

Which of the following modalities should be used sparingly, if at all, with a patient who has been diagnosed with multiple sclerosis? A. Cold whirlpool B. Interferential current C. TENS D. Ice packs E. Moist heat packs

E

Which of the following muscles abducts the little finger of the hand? A. interossei B. abductor digiti minimi C. lumbricals D. abductor digitorum brevis E. adductor digiti minimi

E

Which of the following muscles does not adduct the shoulder? a. pectoralis major b. teres major c. subscapularis d. latissimus dorsi e. serratus anterior

E

Which of the following muscles does not flex the hip? A. Tensor fasciae latae B. Pectinous C. Iliopsoas D. Rectus femoris E. Biceps femoris

E

Which of the following must the patient feel if he or she is to have a good rapport with the athletic trainer? A. Neglect B. Empathy C. Pity D. Love E. Trust

E

Which of the following organizations certifies football helmets to make sure they are able to withstand repeated blows of high mass and low velocity? A. FDA B. NSA C. NATA D. NFL E. NOCSAE

E

Which of the following organizations establishes standards of quality for organizations that provide rehabilitative services? A. TJC B. AMA C. APTA D. OSHA E. CARF

E

Which of the following should a certified athletic trainer be concerned with when treating athletes? A. Foreseeable harm B. Tort C. Malfeasance D. The good samaritan act E. Malpractice

E

Which of the following signs/symptoms are present in a depressed patient? a. decreased appetite b. insomnia c. fatigue d. feeling hopelessness e. all of the above

E

Which of the following structures is not part of the pelvis? a. coccyx b. pubis symphysis c. ileum d. innominate bones e. sacrum

E

Which of the muscle grade denotes active muscle movement in a gravity-eliminated position? A. -3/5 B. +3/5 C. 5/5 D. 1/5 E. 2/5

E

Which type of budget allocates a fixed amount of money for specific program functions and activities? A. Lump-sum budgeting B. Fixed budgeting C. Need-based budgeting D. Variable budgeting E. Line-item budget

E

Which type of exercise utilizes a rapid stretch of centric contraction and is used to develop explosive the muscle eccentrically followed by a rapid concentric contraction and is used to develop explosive movements? A. Ballistic B. Isokinetic C. Isotonic D. Internal E. Plyometric

E

Which word defines a person who is highly cooperative in a support plan? A. Bedfellow B. Opponent C. Plaintiff D. Adversary E. Ally

E

Why are men generally much stronger than women? A. Women have a lower strength:body weight ratio B. Men have a greater strength:muscle mass ratio C. Men have a lower strength:body weight ratio D. Women have a greater strength:fat percentage ratio E. Women have a lower strength:body mass ratio

E

Would be the most appropriate type of roentgenogram for a possible tibial stress fracture? A. X-ray B. PET scan C. MRI D. CT scan E. Bone scan e

E

You are in the position to hire an assistant athletic trainer. You have a specific person in mind, but your athletic director implies he is not comfortable with this person's gender. Which level of the law mandates the hiring and firing of employees? A. State B. Local C. City D. District E. Federal

E

You find out that a certified athletic trainer in your conference is selling a protein shake to his athletes on a regular basis for personal profit. Which of the following codes is the individual violating? A. APTA Code of Honor B. NASM Code of Ethics C. NCAA Code of Honor D. ACSM Code of Medicine E. NATA Code of Ethics

E

____________ is a method of massage that involves the lifting and kneading of the skin, subcutaneous tissue, and muscle with the fingers or hand. A. Friction B. Tapotement C. Effleurage D. Rolfing E. Petrissage

E

TREATMENT AND REHABILITATION

TREATMENT AND REHABILITATION