BBC: Session Prep Questions
What is the DOC for status epilepticus?
Diazepam
What nerve roots contribute to the pelvic splanchnic nerve?
S2-4
In what dermatomes does the anus lie?
S5
What type of ovarian tumor is characterized by cysts lined with ciliated epithelium
Serous (an epithelial malignancy (carcinoma) that arises from the lining of a cavity that produces a serum-like fluid (a serous cavity)).
What nerve roots innervate the small intestine with the exception of a portion of the duodenum?
T10-11 --(T9-11 in Foundations book)
When does REM begin when a narcoleptic falls into a narcoleptic state?
At onset
What "type" of bladder is created by damage of the sensory nerves?
Atonic bladder (losses tone)
What "type of bladder is created by spinal cord damage above the sacral cord?
Automatic
Which cholinergic (ACh) receptors are found in the autonomic ganglia and the neuromuscular junctions
Autonomic = N1 NMJ = N2
What type of inheritance pattern does Huntington's disease have?
Autosomal Dominant
In the male peripheral metabolism, to what two types of molecules is testosterone converted?
Dihydrotestoterone and estrogen
What is the drug of choice for Trichomonas?
metroniazole
What component of muscle measures muscle length? When stimulated, does it acitivate or inhibit alpha motorneurons?
muscle spindles --Activates
In considering craniosacral extension, is there sacral nutation or counternutation?
nutation
The thalamus received ALL sensory input except for this one type of sensory input...what is it?
olfactory
What is the route of transmission and the incubation time for Hep C?
parental 1-2 months
What is the renin level (hi, lo, normal) in Bartter's syndrome? What is the blood pressure (hi, lo, normal)?
renin = HI BP = normal
What disorder exists if an L5 transverse process articulates or is fused with the sacrum?
sacralization
What type of transport is utilized in the sodium-glocose carriers?
secondary (fasilitated) active transport
What muscle is responsible for miosis
sphincter pupilae
How does a pathologically small Ferguson's angle affect the curvature of the lumbar spine?
straight/flat spine decreased lumbar lordosis
What lesion tops your list of differential diagnoses if there is muscle weakenss and loss of sensation in the right arm?
stroke....left middle cerebral artery
Does BUM-BUL-BUM refer to the inferior or superior facets?
superior
What part of the kidney tubule functions in glucose and amino acid resorption?
PCT
What type of congenital heart anomaly is characterized by a continuous machine-like murmur
PDA (patent ductus arteriosis)
What is the generic term for HIV (or any other virus for that matter) when it integrates itself into the host cell's genome?
PROvirus
What clotting pathway does PTT test? PT test? bleeding time?
PTT: Intrinsic and common PT: Extrinsic and common Bleeding time: platelet function
What touch receptors sense vibration?
Pacinian corpuscles
Prostaglandins and bradykinins share what common feature in terms of their effect on how we feel when we get sick or injured?
Pain and vasodilation
In what developmental stage are Plasmodia when they are injected into the human body?
Sporozorites
What are the 5 features of the Major Jones Criteria? (Dx for acute rheumatic fever)
*JONES--Major* Joint (arthritis) Obvious (Carditis) Nodule (Rheumatic-subcutaneous) Erythema marginatum Sydenham chorea **· Minor criteria:* nflammatory cells (leukocytosis) Temperature (fever) ESR/CRP elevated Raised PR interval Itself (previous Hx of Rheumatic fever) Arthralgia
What are the three major drugs/drug classes that enhance neuromuscular block?
(Block mm. function even more) --Halothane, Aminoglycosides, CCB
What are teh 4 risk factors for physical child abuse?
(These are things that stress parents) 1.Poverty 2. LBW/Premature child birth 3. Parent uses drugs 4. Parent was also abused
What is the main physiologic effect of stimulated H2 receptors?
Stimulate gastric parietal cells --> increase HCl and IF
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1. What two amino acids does trypsin cleave? 2. Does it cleave at the carboxy- or amino- side of those amino acids?
1-Arginne or Lysine 2. Carboxy-
What part of the basal ganglion is the site of copper accumulation in Wilson's disease? What 2 structures comprise this part of hte basal ganglion?
1-lentaform nucleus 2 stuctures = putamen and globus palidus
What 3 effects does insulin generally have on the liver in terms of metabolic pathways
Stimulate glycogenesis suppress gluconeogenesis stimulate lipogenesis
Why is hte lower lumbar spine particularly most susceptible to herniated intervertebral disks?
1)increased weight/verticle load 2) narrowing of post. longitudinal ligament
What kind of blocker or stimulator is conidine, and what specific type of receptor does it affect?
Stimulator -alpha-2 (centrally--in CNS)
What are the 5 major risk factors for breast cancer?
1. >40 y/0 2. Early menarchy 3. Late menopause 4. Null parity 5. Obesity
What are the 5 major risk factors for endometrial carcinoma?
1. >40 y/0 2. Early menarchy 3. Late menopause 4. Null parity 5. Obesity
Name the 4 types of lung carcinoma
1. Adenocarcinoma 2. Squamous cell 3. Small cell 4. Large cell
Name three anatomic aspects of the cervical vertebrae that differ from other spinal vertebrae
1. Bifid spinous process Transersarium foramen (vertebral canal) Unconvertable joints of luckia (Uncinate process)
After treating the dysfunction responsible for initiating the facilitated spinal cord segment, what are the next three major steps in treating the patient?
1. Decrease SNS contribution 2. move fluids (1. open diaphrams, 2. pumps) 3. Bring PSNS balance (give it a kick start)
What are the 5 stages of dying?
1. Denial 2. Anger 3. Bargining 4. Grief 5. Acceptance 6.....Die
What are teh 2 major risk factors for child sexual abuse?
1. Drug abuse (lack of inhabition from parent) 2. Single parent house
What are the 4 situations in which parental consent is not necessary in the treatment of a minor?
1. Emergency 2. STD, 3. Pregnancy 4. Any minor who is emancipated
Name 4 types of prion disease
1. Kuru 2. scrapie 3. Creutzfeldt-Jakob 4. Varient Creutzfeldt-Jakob (from bovine w/ spongiform encephalophy)
What is the drug of choice for vaginal candidiasis? Systemic candidiasis?
1. Miconazole (vaginal) 2. fluconazole (systemic)
What are teh 4-5 major physiologic effects that stimulated H1 receptors have?
1. Nasal and brancial mucus secretions 2. Diarrhea and cramping 3. Bronchoconstriction (most powerful effects) 4. Exudation and puritis (itching and swelling) 5. Vasodilation (most deadly w/ #3)
What is the drug of choice for (1) Neisseria meningitidis? (2) N. gonorrheae?
1. Pen G 2. ceftriaxome
What is the most common cuase of meningitis in neonates?
1. Strep. Acalactea (Group B strep) 2. E. Coli 3. Glyceria monocytogenes?
What steps of heme synthesis does lead inhibit?
1. inhibit converstion of delta ALA-->porforbilinigin 2. inhibit ability ot have iron put on protoprophin-9
What is the MOA for killing of Plasmodium by chloroquine?
1. poison (hemoglobin toxin) 2. Lyse RBC holding Plasm. 3. Alkalyze plasmodium food vacule (stomach) 4. Inhibit DNA synthesis
What are the 6 major side effects of estrogen treatment?
1. skin pigmentation 2. HTN 3. breakthrough bleeding 4. Breast tenderness 5. Neausa 6. Vomiting
Name the layers of the spermatic cord, going from the most superficial to deepest layer.
1. superficial fascia 2. external spermatic fascia 3. cremasteric mm. and fascia 4. internal spermatic fascia 5. Loose CT
In an observational cohort, 1. what is the term for the ability of the test to actually test what it is meant to test? 2. Term for how well the test results can be reproduced?
1. validity 2. reliablility
What are the 3 components of Charcot's triad? What does Charcot's triad indicate in terms of abdominal disease?
1.Fever 2. RUQ pain 3. jaundice acute cholangitis
What is the normal carrying angle of hte femal?
10-12 degrees
What is the average IQ score?
100
What is the causative agent of subacute sclerosing panencephalitis?
Measles/Rubeola virus
What is a normal value for the GFR?
125 ml/min
Name the drugs that compete for renal transporters (in proximal tubule):
Sulfonamides (ABx), Probenecid, Penicillin, Urate, Salicylates (aspirin), Thiazides (Some Pharmaceuticals Plus Urate Stop Transporters)
List what percentage is "included" in +/- 1, 2, and 3 standard deviations
1SD= 68% 2SD = 95% 3SD = 99%
From what brancial arch are the mucles of mastication derived?
1st
To what generation of cephalosporins does cefazolin belong? Cefoxitin? Ceftriaxone?
1st, 2nd, and 3rd
What blood clotting factors are directly affected by a deficiency in Vit K?
2, 7, 9, 10
From what branchial arch are the muscles of facial expression derived?
2nd
Where is the Chapmans's Reflex Point for the sinus?
2nd Rib
What generation of cephalosporins are cefamandole and cefoxitin?
2nd generation
From what pharyngeal pouches are the thymus and inferior parathyroids derived?
3rd
How many kcal/g of energy are produced by the metabolism of carbohydrates and proteins?
4 kcal/g
What chromosomal deletion is associated with cri du chat?
5P
Where is the chapmans reflex for the liver?
5th costochondral joing--right
Name the false ribs
8-12
What type of coxsackie virus is associated with hand-foot-mouth disease?
A
How does fentanyl compare to morphine in terms of potency?
8x stronger
How many kcal/g of energy are produced by the meta bolism of fat?
9 kcal/g
What is hte typical duration of pain associated with MI?
>30 min
What two bacterial genera were commonly confused with fungi due to their filamentous, branching growth? How do these two genera differ in terms of natural habitats and osygen requirements?
? check session 5 prep questions and come back and answer!
What are the drugs that are easily displaced from albumin?
Sulfonamides, (Abx), Phenylbutazone (NSAID not used), Coumadin (anti-coag), Sulfonylureas (DMII) Serum Proteins Can Spew
What type of cranial dysfunction is marked by cephalic deviation of the sphenoid?
Sup. vertical strain
What type of inheritance pattern does cystic fibrosis have?
Autosomal recessive
Auer rods in myeloblasts is evidence of what myeloproliferative disorder?
AML
What autoantibody is associated with SLE?
ANA = screening Anti-dsDNA Anti-smith?
What type of nerve fiber innervates skeletal muscles? What is its diameter in comparison with other types of nerve fibers?
Aa (A-alpha) --largest in diameter
At what level of the brainstem may a transection occur that will have no effect on respiration?
Above the Pons
In 17-alpha-hydroxylase deficiency, what major adrenal gland hormone is made abundantly? What major adrenal gland hormones are not made in sufficient quantities?
Abundant = aldosterone Lacking= cortison and Testosterone
What CO inhibitor has no anti-inflammatory activity systemically?
Acetominophin
What effect does phosphorylation have on hormone sensitive lipase?
Activates
What is the primary adductor of the hip?
Adductus Magnus and minimus
What two types of nerve fibers are involved with afferent and efferent innervation of the muscle spindles?
Afferent = Aa (A-alpha) Efferent = A gamma's
What ligament connects the dens to the foramen magnum?
Alar
What layer of the adrenal cortex produces aldosterone? Cortisol? Testosterone?
Aldosterone = Glomeruloso Cortisol = fasciculata Testosterone = reticularis
In 21-alpha-hydroxylase deficiency, what two major adrenal gland hormones are not made in sufficient quantities?
Aldosterone and Cortisol
What two major adrenal gland hormones are not produced sufficiently in 11-beta-hydroxylase deficiency?
Aldosterone and cortisol
What 2 members of the complement pathway are anaphylotoxins?
C3A, C5A
What is the risk of develping colon cancer if one has familial polyposis? if one has Gardner's disease?
Almost 100%
What 4 classes of antibiotics work to inhibit translation in bacteria? (protein synthesis inhibitors)
Aminoglycosides Macrolides Tetracyclines Clindamyicin and Clorinphenicol group
What ribosomal subunit is acted upon by aminoglycosides? by tetracyclines? by chloramphenicol? by macrolides?
Aminoglycosides - 30s tetracyclines - 30s Chloramphenicol - 50s macrolides - 50s
What verve root is being tested by the biceps reflex?
C5
Class of steroid of DHEAs?
Androgen
What nerve root supplies the musculocutaneous nerve?
C5-6
What nerve root supplies the axillary nerve?
C7
What nerve root supplies the radial nerve?
C7
What nerve root supplies the ulnar nerve?
C8 and T1
What triggers the classical pathway for the complement system?
Antigen-antibody complexes (immune complexes)
What set of ligaments are the most common ones involved in ankle sprains?
Antiotalofibular, calcaneofibular, posterior talofibular lateral ligaments
Which scalenes aid in elevation of the first rib?
Ant. and Middle scalenes
What is the most common compartment syndrome?
Anterior (leg)
Where are cervical cysts located? From what fetal structure do they derive?
Anterior lateral neck --brachial clefts
What Autoantibody is associated with RA?
Anti-IgG Rheumatoid Factor
What does the Coombs test evaluate?
Anti-RBC antibodies
What autoantibody is associated with Celiac sprue?
Anti-gliadin Anti-glutin
Besides pain control, what other pharmacology use does codeine have?
Antitussive (coughing)
To waht one category of disorders do phobias, agoraphobia, and PTSD belong?
Anxiety
To what classes of drugs (general and specific) do lorazepam, diazepam, triazolam, and chlordiazepoxide belong?
Anxiolytics Benzodiazepams
From what artery does the ovarian artery directly originate?
Aorta! = High pressure system
In what part of the lung does ventilation far exceed perfusion?
Apex
What tests are used to assess meniscal injury to the knee?
Aply compression and McMurray's
If you wanted to test range of motion of hte shoulder, what test would be probably best utilized?
Aply scratch test
What tests are positive or tend to be posiitive in thoracic outlet syndrome? why?
Aply scratch-->decreased ROM ROOS Adsons --both promote compression of NV bundle
Name the four major classifications of lung disease that represent obstructive lung disease
Asthma Chronic bronchitis emphysemia brochiectasis
What is the primary motion of T11 and T12?
Flexion and Extension
DOC for Cryptococcus neoformans?
Fluconazole
What cell type is stimulated by IL-4 and IL-5?
B-cells
What do cloxacillin, oxacillin, and methicillin have in common with respect to their particularly good ability to destroy certain pathogens?
B-lactamase resistant
Adrenergic receptor in the postsynaptic sympathetic in heart?
B1
Adrenergic receptor for postsynaptic sympathetic with vasodilatory and bronchodilatory effects--
B2
Is ALS an UMN or LMN disease?
BOTH
In what part of the lung is perfusion the greatest?
Base
In what part of the lung is ventilation the greatest?
Base
What kind of aneurysm is often associated with polycystic kidney disease?
Berry aneurysm
What is the term for the disorder marked by thiamine deficiency?
Berry-berry
What 2 receptor types, if stimulated, result in increase cAMP?
Beta and H2 receptors
What enzyme is defective in Gaucher's disease?
Beta-glucosidase
Which sacral dysfunction is VERY common in postpartum females?
Bilateral sacral flexion
Is there increase conjugated or unconjugated serum bilirubin in Gilbert's? Crigler-Najjar? Dubin-Johnson? Rotor?
Bilbert's = unconjugated Crigler-Najjar = unconjugated Dubin-Johnson = conjugated Rotor = conjugated
What class of steroid are glycocholae and Taurocholate?
Bile Acids
What effect does botulinum toxin have on neurons? What effect does this have on the body?
Blocks release of ACh at NMJ -Flaccid paralysis
Name the attachments of the diaphragm.
Body & Discs of L1-3 Xiphoid process Ribs 6-12 bilateral
What is the causative agent of Lyme disease adn what is the name of the primary lesion that develops shortly after infection?
Borrelia burgdorferi -Erythema chronica Migranes (ECM)lesions
Which cholinergic receptors are on sweat glands? Which ones are postsynaptic parasympathetics?
Both = Muscarinic
If hte MCP and DIP joints are exteded and the PIP is contracted, what hand deformity is present?
Boutonniere
Compare Broca's aphasia with Wernicke's aphasia in terms of fluency of speech and comprehension of language
Brocas= non-fluent speech but good word comprehension Wernicke's= fluent speech (word salad) but no meaning
What adrenal disorder is characterized by overproduction of mineralocorticoids
Conn's
What is hte disease entity defined by hyperaldosteronism?
Conn's
Which type of leukemia is associated with the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome?
CML
What CN is served by the Edinger-Westphal nucleaus?
CN III
What structures pass through the superior orbital fissure?
CN III, IV, V, VI and sympathetics and opthalmic veins
What CN is served by the inferior salivary nucleus?
CN IX
What structures pass throug hte foramen ovale?
CN V (branch 3)
What cranial nerve is affected by manipulation of the sphenopalatine ganglion?
CN VII
What is the parasympathetic innervaton ot the mucous membrane glands of the sinuses and nasal mucosa?
CN VII
What cranial nerves function for taste?
CN VII and IX
CN for sensory transmission from viscera?
CN X
What CN is served by the dorsal motor nucleus?
CN X
What are the three components of the respiratory mechanism?
CNS, CSF, and dura membranes
Compare chickenpox in terms of the synchrony/asynchrony between lesional evolution?
CP=asynchronous (all vesicles are at different stages) SP = synchronous
What is the composition of most kidney stones
Ca++
What 5 features are characteristic for CREST?
Calcinosis Raynaud's syndrome Esophageal dysmotility Sclerodactyly Telangiectasia
If a slide made from a vaginal swab is examined and germ tubes are pseudohyphae are noticed, what infection probably exists?
Candidiasis
Prostaglandins (from AA) does what?
Casues vasodilation, ,exudation, and pain
What part of the stratum atrophies in Huntington's disease?
Caudate and Putamen
What is the sympathetic collateral ganglion associated with the greater splanchnic nerve?
Celiac ganglion
What is the difference between central vs. obstructive sleep apnea?
Central = no resp. effort (lack of respitory drive from CNS) Obstructive = There is an increase in respitory effort against obstruciton in airway
What are the three most common antibiotics to cause pseudomembranous colitis (C.diff)?
Cephalsporins Clindamycin Ampucillin **any antibiotic really except vancomycin and metronidazole (DOC to treat) can cause it**
What is the formula for elasticity?
Change in pressure/change in volume
What 2 mucopolysaccharidoses have a defect in alpha-L iduronidase?
Hurley and Shey
Name 3 common foods naturally high in tyramine?
Cheese, wine & beer, chicken liver
List the main secretory products of gastric chief cells, parietal cells, and mucus cells.
Chief cells = pepsinogen Parietal cells - HCl and IF Mucus cells = mucus
What one laryngeal muscle is NOT innervated by the recurrent laryngeal nerve? What is its innervation?
Chricothyroid mm. --Superior laryngeal nerve
If a patient presents with lots of abdominal pain, very little or no blood in the stool, and skip lesions of the ileum or radiographic inquiry, from what disease would be most likely be suffering?
Chrones Disease
If a patient present with a cool, dry, ropy right paraspinal area, is that most probably representative of a chronic problem or an acute problems?
Chronic
What disease do blue bloaters have? Is it an obstructive or restrictive lung disease?
Chronic Broncritis -Obstructive
What is the term for the region of DNA that encodes a single protein in a prokaryotic?
Cistron
What is the most common causative agent of non-gonoccocal urethritis?
Clamedia Trochomatis (spelling?)
Waht disease is endemic to the Southwest US and is marked by fever, cough, and arthralgia?
Coccidioidmycosis
Does operant conditioning or classical conditioning work on reflexive behavior?
Classical
In decreasing sympathetic contribution to a facilitated segment, what structures should be assessed and tereated after rib raising?
Collateral ganlion
What type of fracture is a fracture of the distal radius?
Collie Fx (on an out-stretched hand)
What is thesympathetic collateral ganglion is associated with the least splanchnic nerve?
Inferior messenteric ganglion
What are the four types of sacral motion?
Inheret motion-Cranial/sacral-S2 Postural--Torso--F/E--S3 Dynamic = Walking--Sacro-oblique axis Respiratory = breathing--S2
Do organophosphates stimulate or inhibit cholinesterase? Why are they so highly toxic?
Inhibit --They are IRREVERSIBLE
With regard to G proteins, which one inhibits adenylate cyclase? Stimulate AC?
Inhibit = Gi Stimulate = Gs
What similarity do methotrexate, trimethoprim, adn pyrimethamine have in common in terms of their MOA?
Inhibit Dihydrofolate reductase
Which Coxsackie virus causes myocarditis?
Coxsackie-B
What type of coxsackie virus is associated with myocarditis?
Coxsackie-B virus
What 4 diaphragms should be assessed and released, as necessary, when addressing proper lymphatic drainage?
Craniocervical, cervicothoracic, abdominal and pelvic
What is the major prophylactic agent for asthma?
Cromalin
What adrenal disorder is characterized by overproduciton of glucocorticoids?
Cushings syndrome
What ligaments are usually the first to become tender whenever there is any lumbosacral dysfunction?
Iliolumbar lig.
What enzyme does methotrexate inhibit? What effect does this have molecularly, in terms of what major product can no longer be produced?
DHF reductase Inhbitor -nucleaic acid can't be produced= no DNA
What specific type of macromolecule is reliant on folic acid and vitamin B12 for its synthesis? How is this related to anemia?
DNA!! --Megloblastic anemia (can't make DNA!)
Draw the alternate and common pathways of the complement cascade!
DO IT!
What is the DOC for GOUT? What is first line?
DOC-Colchicine 1st line-NSAID (except aspirin)
DOC for Mycobacterium leprae?
Dapsone and rifampin
Name what neurotransmitter is at an abnormal level in Alzheimers (1)
Decrease ACh
What is hte PRIMARY disturbance causing metabolic acidosis?
Decrease HCO3-
Name what neurotransmitter is at an abnormal level in anxiety (1)
Decreased GABA
Describe the lens elasticity in presbyopic patients.
Decreased elasticity...can't read w/out rading glasses
Name what neurotransmitter is at an abnormal level in depression (3)
Decreased: NE, seratonin and dopamine
What is the vector for Hantavirus? What body system is most affected by hantavirus?
Deer mouse Resp. system
Why odes Von Gierke disease not involve skeletal muscle?
Def. in G6Phosphatase (not in SM) -->glycogen storage Dz
What is the difference between denial and repression?
Denial = the blocking of unacceptable information or preceptions from awareness Repression = blocking of unacceptable urges or feelings
What is the triad for pellagra?
Dermatitis, dementia, diarhhea
What type of immunodeficiency is associated with tetany as well as fungal and viral infections?
DiGeorges
What mucle is responsible for mydriasis?
Dialator pupilae
What type of disease or disorder does rotavirus cause? To what family does rotavirus belong?
Diarrhea Reoviridae
In what part of the kidney is the macular densa found? What does the macular densa "sense" to play a role in renin release?
Distal CT senses decreased Na/Cl dilivery
What specific receptors are stimulated by dobutamine? dopamine? Isoproterenol?
Dobutamine = Beta-1 Dompaine = dopamine and Beta Isoproterenol = Beta 1 and 2
Pasteurella is a common pathogen found in wounds incurred by what? What are two types of infections common to Pasteurella infections?
Dog and cat bites -cellulitis & osteomylitis
What are the common contaminating agents/sources that frequently serve to contaminate bodies of water with Leptospira interrogans?
Dog, catand rat urine
DOC for Chlamydia trachomatis?
Doxyclcline --unless prego or child: Z-pack
What syndrome involving the pericarium may occur following an MI?
Dresler syndrome (Pericarditis is inflammation and swelling of the covering of the heart (pericardium). The condition can occur in the days or weeks following a heart attack)
Procainamide adn hydralazine share a common side effect that has system-wicde effects; what is it?
Drug-induced lupus
What is the most common brachial plexus injury and what verve roots are damaged in this case?
Erb-Duchenne palsy C5-6
DOC for Mycoplasma pneuomoniae?
Erythromycin
What is most common cause of UTI?
E. Coli
Compare E. coli, Salmonella, and Shigella in terms of their gram staining character, motility and lactose fermentation.
E. Coli-->gram - -->+motility-->+lactose Salmonella --> (-) -->+ motility --> (-) lactose Shigella--> (-) -->(-) motility --> (-) lactose
What is the etiologic agent for infectious mononucleosis?
EBV
What gene is responsible for producing gp41 and gp120 in HIV?
ENV gene?
At what point in the night doesa person with major depression generally have the most difficulty getting to sleep/remaining asleep?
Early morming awakining
What are the 3 germ layers?
Ectoderm, Mesoderm, endoderm
What cholinesterase inhibitor is the classic one used to test for myasthenia gravis?
Edrophonium
In what form are chlamydia when they are infective?
Elementary bodies
What triggers the alternate pathway for the complement system?
Endotoxins (complex polysaccrides--like in fungi) Cobra venom
What type of nematode classically causes perianal pruritis, especially at night?
Enterobius vermicularis (pin worm)
If a patient were infected with parasites, what type of WBC would you expect to see increased in number?
Eosinophils
What are the three types of typhus?
Epidemic Endemic Scrub
What are the 3 signs of portal hypertension?
Esophageal varicies, caput medusa, hemrrhoids
Whate are the 3 functions of the piriformis?
Estenstion of the thigh ER of thigh Abduct thigh when hip flexed
In the granulosa cells of the ovary, to what two molecules is androstenedione directly converted?
Estrone and testosterone
What is the DOC for petit mal seizures? What's another name of this?
Ethosuximide --Abscence seizures
What are the two major signs of opioid intoxication?
Euphoria and apathy
What are the three positions of the foot necessary in order for it to be considered pronated?
Everted, dorsiflexed, aBduction
What species of Plasmodium is hte most severe and life-threatening one?
Falciparum
Describe how rib raising has the effect it does?
Fascia around rib head is the same fascia around the sympathetic chain, which causes the medulla to cause an inhibitory reflex in response to rib raising.
Does the slow or fast phase of eye movement determine the direction of nystagmus that we note?
Fast
In what gender is dysplastic spondylolisthesis most common? What type of spondylolisthesis is it? When does the initial defect occur?
Female Type I At birth...it's conginital (symptomatic between 7-9 years of age)
What degree range is considered normal for the femoral head angulation?....for the Q angle?
Femoral head = 120-135 degrees Q angle = 10-12 degrees
What is the primary innervation of the quadriceps femoris?
Femoral nn.
What 2 molecules store iron?
Ferratin, hemosiderin
In assessing cardiac pressures, what does the "a" wave represent?
Filling
What are the 3 dural attachments (its really more than 3)?
Foramen magnum C2 and C3 All inner cranial bones S2
What touch receptors sense pain and temperature?
Free nerve endings
DOC for CMV?
Gancyclovir
What is the DOC for CMV retinits?
Gancyclovir
What type of gastritis does Helicobacter pylori cause, and why must it be treated ASAP?
Gastritis type B Risk of cancer!
What class of steroid is cortisol?
Glucocorticoids
Compare and contrast hexokinase and glucokinase in terms of the tissues in which they are found adn their affinity for glucose
Glucokinase-->Liver-->Low affinity for glucose Hexokinase-->many tissues-->high affinity for glucose (foster uptake of glucose)
In a normal, non-fasted human, what is the only energy source for the brain? for the RBC? How does this differ for these two tissues under states of starvation?
Glucose for both in fed state -->Brain will use glucose and ketones in starvation -->RBC only use glucose
What muscle is the primary hip extensor?
Glut Max
What is the primary internal rotator of the hip?
Glut medius and minimus
What is the primary external rotator of the hip?
Glut. Max
What is the primary abductor of the hip?
Glut. medius
What amino acid is hte source for GABA?
Glutamine
What type of lipid is lecithin?....cardiolipin?
Glycerol-phospholipid (type of phospholipid)
What HIV glycoprotein mediates HIV binding to the CD4 receptor?
Glycoprotein 120
What HIV glycoprotein mediates HIV fusion to the cell?
Glycoprotein 41
To what clsas of inotropic agents do digoxin and digitoxin belong?
Glycosides
With regard to G proteins, which one activates phospholipase C?
Gq
What is the gram staining character of E.Coli?
Gram -
Are aminoglycosides most effective against gram (+), gram (-), or both
Gram negatives!
What disease is associated with anti-TSH receptor autoantibodies?
Graves Disease
What demyelinating disease often follows a viral infection and affects the peripheral nerves, mostly motor, and ascends those peripheral nerves to cause muscle weakness and paralysis?
Guianne Barre
What is p24?
HIV core capsid-->serum marker to determine viral load
What disorder is marked by personality changes, intellectural deterioration, and autonomic or motor dysfunctions, and is a disorder that occurs as a result of HIV infection?
HIV dimentia = HIV encephalophathy
What HLA type is associated with ankylosing spondylitis
HLA-B27
With what HLA-type is psoariatic arthritis associated? What other major diseases that we have discussed are also associated with the HLA type?
HLA-B27 Alkolysing spondolysis, reactive arthrities (ritters syndrome)
What HLA type do most with nmultiple sclerosis and narcolepsy share?
HLA-DR2
What enzyme is inhibited by statins, such as lovastatin?
HMG-CoA reductase (rate limiting enzyme in cholesterol synthesis)
What are the two normal hemoglobins of hte adult?
HbA and HbA2
If a patient presents with cirrhosis, new onset diabetes mellitus, and a bronze skin pigmentation, what disorder would top your list of differential diagnoses?
Hemochromatosis is too much iron in the body
Most common, specific side effect of cyclophosphamide?
Hemorragic cystitis
Compare the transmission routes and incubation times of Hepatitis A and Hepatitis B
Hepatitis A: fecal-oral, 2-6 weeks incubation Hepatitis B: Parenteral, 2-6 months
What kind of sugar is glucose, based on the number of carbons it has?
Hexose
What type of arteriosclerosis is due to high serum calcium? due to malignant hypertension? due to old age? due to high lipid diet?
High serum Ca: Munkaburgs malignant HTN: hyperplastic arterioloschlerosis old age: hyaline arteriololoschlerosis high lipid diet: athrosclerosis
Cimetidine and ranitidine block what receptor?
Histamine-2 (H2)
What personality type is marked by a dramatic, emotional personality that may also exhibit some level of sexual promsicuity or other inappropriate sexual behavior?
Histronic
What are the 4 major side effects in terms of electrolytes, urea, and glucose that may occur with thiaxide use?
HypoK+ HyperCa++ decrease urea hyperglycemia (don't use in DM)
Arthritis, vasculitis, and glomerulonephritis are key signs of what type of hypersensitivity?
III
What anti-tuberculosis drug is notorious for its hepatotoxicity?
INH (isoniazid)
What antibody type crosses the placenta?
IgG
Term for the number of NEW people that develop a specific disease IN ONE YEAR per 100,000 people?
Incidence
What effect does magnesium have on bowel movements? why?
Increase BM b/c of its osmotic effect-->draws water into the bowel
What is the purpose of the CV4 method?
Increase amplitude of the CRI
Name what neurotransmitter is at an abnormal level in schizophrenia (1)
Increased dopamine
What stain is used to microscopically visualize Cryptococcus?
Indian ink stain of CNS
Why is thromboxane a pro-coagulant?
Induces platelet stickiness
What are teh three components of the staghorn renal calculus? Is it a result of infectious agents, cancer, or gout?
Infectious agents 1. Magnessium 2. Ammonia 3. Phosphate
Name four causes for a superior pubic shear
Innominate rotation tight rectus abdominus trauma Baby delivery
Is fat lysis or synthesis stimulated by insulin?...by glucoagon?...by growth hormone?
Insulin = synthesis Glucoagon and GH = lysis
Why cancervical dysfunction result in heart problems?
It tugs the fascia around cervical ganglia-->nerve fibers that mingle with cardiac plexus-->SNS stimulation to the heart.
What is the causative agent of Kala-Azar? What is another name for this disease?
Leishmaniasis Donovani --Black sickness/fever
What opioid receptor is responsible for sedation?
Kappa
If a 3 year old Japanese boy presents with very red hands and soles of the feet, fever, and conjunctivitis, what arteritis does he most likely have?
Kawasaki
What is the MOA for killing Plasmodium by Primaquine?
Kill hypnozoite and inhibit gametocyte formation
What is the vector and causative agent of Chagas disease?
Kissing bug Trypanosoma Cruzi
What kind of organism causes a pneumonia whereby the patient expectorates "current jelly sputum"?
Klebsiella pneomonia
What are teh 2 major etiologic agents for lobar pneumonia?
Klebsiella pneumonia Strep pneumonia
At what level does the spinal cord end in most people?
L1-L2
What nerve roots does the femoral nerve arise?
L2-L4
A patient complains about superficial pain on the medial aspect of the leg half-way between the ankle and the knee. What dermatoome is involved?
L4
If a patient is suffering from a herniated L3, what nerve will be affected?
L4!
What dermatome encompasses the dorsum of hte great toe?
L5
Waht is the name of the type of cell one looks for in a test for SLE that involves the patient's macrophages being mixed with injured leukocytes?
LE cell
If the Km of an enzyme is high, what is its affinity for the substrate? (high, low, or unknown?)
LOW
What are the neve root contributions to the lumbar plexus? Sacral plexus? Sciatic nerve?
LP = T12-L4 SP = L4-5, S1-3 and part of 4 Lciatic nerve = L4-S3
What is the innervation of the lateral rectus muscle of the eye? What is the innervation of the superior oblique muscle of the eye?
LR6SO4AO3
In what organ is angiotensin converting enzyme primarily found?
LUNGS!
Session 16
Last set!
Which pterygoid muscle operates to open the mouth?
Lateral
What cerebral artery supplies the lateral cortex? the medial cortex?
Lateral = MCA Medial = ACA
What cutaneous loss is associated with musculocutaneous nerve damage?
Lateral arm, extensor forearm
What part of the brainstem is destroyed in Wallenberg syndrome, and what artery infarcts to bring this about?
Lateral medulla --PICA
Whereis the Chapmans point for the retina?
Lateral superior humerous
What metabolic process does niacin prevent in adipocytes? What is its primary ADR?
Lipolesis ADR = cutaneous flushing
What two bacteria lspecies are arranged in a growth pattern such that they appear as "Chinese characters" undre microscopic examination?
Listeria monocytoenes Corynebacterium diphtheriae
In order to minimize hearing damage, aminoglycosides should never be combined with what type of drug?
Loop diuretics
How is one's ability to move their foot affected by a peroneal nerve injury?
Loss of dorsiflexion
What occurs to the body if the corticospinal tract is damaged?
Loss of motor function-->UMN lesion-->spastic paralysis
What cutaneous loss is associated with ulnar nerve damage?
Loss of sensation of 4th and 5th and palmar side of medial hand
What is the effect of nicotine on blood pressure?
Low dose = increase BP High dose = decrease BP (shock and death)
What does the standing flexion test evaluate that the seated flexion test does not?
Lower Extremeties
What is the formula for claculating mean blood pressure?
MBP = P(diastole) + 1/3 (Psystole-Pdiastole)
What is hte general MOA of rifampin and what disease is it classically used to treat?
MOA: bind to DNA dependant RNA polyermerase-->prevent transcription TB!
What cell type produces IL-1 and what cell type does IL- stimulate?
Macrophages stimulate: CD4 T-cells
What are the two primary functions of albumin as a blood protein?
Maintain oncotic pressure Binding of hormones and drugs
Waht is the direct result of CCK release?
Makes gall bladder contract and pancreas to release exocrine enzymes for digestion
How does female peripheral metabolism differ from male peripheral metabolism with regard t othe cholesterol-dependent products (sex hormones)?
Males-Dihydrotestosterone Females = estriol
What are the indiciations for the use of lithium?
Mania Bipolar disorder (DOC)
Koplik's spots in the mouth indicate what disease?
Measles (Rubeola)
What is the DOC for vertigo?
Meclozine
What nerves can be damaged in bishops deformity?
Median (only when grabbing) or ulnar (constant)
What nerve is entrapped in carpal tunnel syndrome?
Median nerve
What touch receptors sense touch?
Meissners corpuscles and hair follicle sensors
What two components are necessary for someone to be involuntarily treated?
Mentally ill and endanger to self/others
What touch receptors sense pressure?
Merkel receptors
What is the DOC for chemotheraphy--induced nausea?
Metacloprimide
What is the first line drug for newly diagnosed Type II DM?
Metformin --but really....get off your butt and excersize and eat right
DOC for amebiasis?
Metroniazole
What is the DOC in the treatment of infections with Entamoeba histolytica, Giardia lamblia, and Trichomonas?
Metronidazole!!
What structures pass through the foramen spinosum?
Middle minnigeal artery
Define the IQ ranges for mild mental retardation (MR), moderate MR, severe MR, and profound MR.
Mild MR = 55-70 moderate MR = 40-55 severe MR = 25-40 profound MR = <25 **subtract 15 from each level starting at 70**
What is the most common nephrotic syndrome in children?
Minimal change disease
What effect does parasympathetic stimulation of hte pupillary muscles cause?
Miosis (pinpoint pupils)
What is a common indication for scopolamine use?
Motion sickness
What opioid receptor is responsible for respiratory depression?
Mu
What opioid receptor is responsible for analgesia?
Mu (little kappa)
What mucle above the eye becomes relaxed in Horner's syndrome due to the syndrome's involvment of the sympathetic nervous system? What is the physical result of the relaxation?
Muellers muscle (SM in the upper eye lids under sympathetic control) Ptsois
What disorder is associated with osteolytic lesions of the skull and pelvis, along with Bence Jones proteins in the urine?
Multiple myeloma
What type of bacterium has no cell wall?
Mycoplasma
What is the most common cause for pneumonia in adults?
Mycoplasma pneumonia
What type of pneumonia may result in the production of cold antibodies? (Anti-RBC)
Mycoplasma pneumonia
Infection with what organism is associated with Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome?
N. meningititis
What is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose?
NAC
What neurotransmitters do tricyclic amine antidepressants (TCA) block the reuptake of?
NE and Serotonin
Do the testes make glucocorticoids and aldosterone?
NO
If a patient's blood tests indicate that she is positive for anti-HBsAg, does that mean that she is currently suffering from an active Hepatitis B infection?
NO! already immunized
What 3 hormones/drugs described in our chapter serve to increase cGMP
NO....?.....Viagra?
What ion channel is open during hte upstroke phase of the action potential?
Na
Name the general action of each of the 4 classes of antiarrhythmics drugs
Na blockage B-blocker K channel blocker Ca Channel blocker
What is the antidote to opioid overdose?
Naloxone
What personality type is marked by one feeling as if they were better than others on a regular basis?
Narcististic
What are the 5 major signs of opioid withdrawal?
Nausa, Vomiting, Sweaty, fever, and muscle ache
What type of glomerulonephritis is Goodpasture's disease?
Nephritic-->may progress to RPGN --ABx to glomular BM-->compliment activation --Type I
What is the most common, most specific side effect of cisplatin?
Nephrotoxicity
How does adhesive capsulitis develop, from a general perspective?
Non-movement...fibrosis
What are the 4 anatomic transition sites of fascia?
OA, Cervicothoracic, Thoracolumbar, lumbarsacral
Compare osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis in terms of which finger joints each are more likely to affect.
OA: DIP RA: MCP & PIP
Name the drugs that are P450 inducers.
OC, phenytoin, barbituates, EtOH, rifamptin, levodopa, methadone (One Pharmaceutical Brings About Rapid Liver Metabolism)
How owuld one classify Mycobacterium tuberculosis in terms of its oxygen requirements?
Obligate anarobes (need o2!)
Does operant or classical conditioning invole a reward or punishment dependent upon the response ot hte stimulus?
Operant
The segment of bacterial DNA that consists fo a promoter, an operator, and one or more structural genes is generally termed what?
Operate?
Name each of the steps (main product produced) from phenylalanine (PA) to the production of EPI.
PA-->Tyrosine-->Dopa-->Dopamine-->NE-->EPI
What PAS character do the mucosal macrophages of Whipple's disease patients have?
PAS +
Leukotrienes cause what?
POTENT bronchoconstriction!
Classify the following fatty acids in terms of whether they ar esaturated, monounsaturated, or polyunsaturated: Palmitic acid, linoleic acid, linolenic acid, oleic acid
Palmitic acid = Sat. linoleic acid = poly unsat. Linolenic acid = poly unsat. Oleic acid = mono unsat.
What is the direct result of secretin release
Pancreas to release a HCO3- rich solution, nutrilize HCl that enters the SI
What organs are affected by MEN type 1?
Pancreas, pituitary, parathyroid, adrenal cortex
What organs are affected by MEN Type 2?
Parathyroid, thyroid medulla, adrenal medulla
What is the causative agent of 5th disease? What are two other terms for 5th disease?
Parvovirus B19 -Erythema infectiosum & Slap Check Disease
Is Prader Willi due to the maternal or paternal deletion of 15q 11-13?
Paternal
What is enterohepatic circulation?
Release and then reabsorption of Bile salts
What type of epilepsy is marked by 3/sec spike and domes on EEG during the attack?
Petit mal seizures = Abscence
Describe the soles of the feet of Friedreich's ataxia patients?
Pez cavits (cavitiy in sole)-->HIGH arch!
What street drug is renowned for causing very aggressive, fearless behavior??
Phencyclidine (PCP) = angel dust
What enzyme is missing in phenylketonuria?
Phenyalanine hydroxylase
What is THE major DNA polymerase in prokaryotes? Besides being able to catalyze DNA replication, what are two important roles/abilities it has?
Polymerase 3 Proof reading, 3' exonuclease activity
If a schizophrenic presents with hallucinations and delusions, what type of symptoms are these classified as under the heading of schizophrenia?
Positive
What cutaneous loss is associated with radial nerve damage?
Post. arm and dorsal hand
A patient presents with a supinated right foot. What can be said about this patients right fibular head?
Posterior fibular head
What drug is used to eliminate tapeworms?
Praziquantel
Name the collateral ganglia
Pre-aortic ganglia (celiac, SM and IM ganglia) Cervical ganglia
In ischemic heart disease, what two different conditions can an ST segment elevation often present?
Prince metals angina MI
Term for number of people who have a specific disease at a given point in time PER 100,000 PEOPLE?
Prevalence
How many structural genes may be associated with a promoter in the prokaryotic genome? How many genes may be associated with a promoter in the eukaryotic genome?
Pro= many Euk= 1
What 2 kinds of tumor markers may be used in tracking prostate carcinoma?
Prostate specific antigen Acid phosphate
What is the most common type of cancer in men? Women?
Prostate, Breast
What is the basic molecular "tyupe" (ie type of macromolecule) that comprises all exotoxins?
Protein
What two species of bacteria are associated with the development of struvite (Staghorn calculus, triple stone, Mg, ammonia, P-stone
Proteus Staph. seprophiticus
At what part of hte renal tubule do carbonic anhydrase inhibitors function?
Proximal CT
What organism generally creates a greenish blue exudate or pus, often smells musty, and is particularly troublesome for burn patients?
Pseudomonias aregenosa
Most common, specific side effect of bleomycin?
Pulm. fibrosis
To what two vessels does the ductus arteriosus connect?
Pulmonary artery to Aorta
What ribs primarily move with pump-handle motion? bucket-handle motion? caliper motion?
Pump-handle: 1-5 bucket-handle: 6-10 caliper handle: 11-12
What lesion tops your list of differential diagnoses if there is muscle weakness and loss of sensation in the LEFT LEG?
R. anterior cerebral artery
What nerve risks injury with a fracture ot the humerus?
Radial
Specifically, what type of glomerular disease is marked by crescent formation? How amn ytypes exist within that type or category?
Rapidly progressing glomerular nephritis --3
Is most "illness" and morbidity or TB due to the primary infection or due to reactivation of a previous infections?
Reactivation!
What is the triad for peritonitis?
Rebound tenderness Abdominal muscle rigidity Severe pain
What cell type is classic in Hodgkin's disease?
Reed-sternburg cell
What cell type is classic in the diagnosis of Hodgkin's disease?
Reed-sternburg cells
Barbiturates have a high suicide potential; what is the common way for them to cause death if overdose occurs?
Resp. Depression
What type of cell will rise in number in the blood following a severe hemorrhage?
Reticulocyte
What is Eisenmenger syndrome?
Reversal of a L-->R shunt to a R-->L shunt
What is the primary manipulative method most often used to moderate hypersympathetic activity?
Rib raising
What structures comprise the clinical thoracic inlet?
Ribs 1-2 T1-4 Menubrium Angle of Lewis
What is the causative agent and vector for Endemic typhus?
Rickettsiae Typhii-->Fleas
What is the causative agent and vector for Epidemic typhus?
Rickettsiae prowazekii-->Lice
What is the causative agent and vector for Scrub typhus?
Rickettsiae tsutsugamushi-->mites
If L5 is sidebent right, to what side is an oblique axis of the sacrum engaged?
Right
If one has a seated flexion test positive on the left, and there is evidence to indicate the presence of sacral oblique axis, on what side will that axis be?
Right
What is the primary method for treating and modulating the pelvic splanchnic nerve?
Rocking sacrum
What is the main motion of the upper cervicals?
Rotation
What is the primary motion of the thoracic spine?
Rotation
Virus casing German measles?
Rubella virus
What virus causes measles?
Rubeola virus
What part of the nervous system is activated by LSD?
SNS
What is the term for anterior displacemtn of one vertebra with respect to the one inferior to it?
SPONDYLOLISTHESIS
What are the 3 accessory ligaments of the sacrum?
Sacrospinous ligament Sacrotubuerous ligament Iliolumbar ligament: L4,5, S1
What two bones, when fractured, are notoriously prone ot avascular necrosis?
Scaphoid Head of femur
Name the major contents of the superior mediastinum, the middle mediastinum, the posterior mediastinum, and the anterior mediastinum.
Superior = thymus, great vessels, esophagus, trachea Middle = heart Posterior = Descending aorta and esophagus Anterior = thymus (infant), nothing in adult
What is the primary innervation of the hamstrings?
Sciatic nerve
What is the DOC for motion sickness?
Scopolamine
What three muscles comprise the "hamstrings"?
Semimembranosis, semitendinosis, biceps femoris
Which test determines that probability that an ill patient will have a positive test?
Sensitivity
When will kids develop abilities/fears? separation anziety, sits alone, stands holding onto nearby objects, stands alone, walks alone
Separation anxiety = 1-3 years sits alone = 7 mo. stands holding onto nearby objects = 10 mo. stands alone = 14 mo. walks alone= 15 mo.
What is the sympathetic collateral ganlion is associated iwth the less splanchnic nerve?
Superior messenteric ganglion
What three major arterial trunks arise from the aorta to feed the abdominal viscera? Which trunk supplies the sigmoid colon?...the SI?...the transverse colon?...the stomach?
Sigmoid colon = IMA SI = SMA (celiac to proximal duodenum) Transverse colon = SMA Stomach= celiac trunk
What does calcium bind to intracellularly in the process of activation of contraction of skeletal muscle? Smooth muscle? Cardiac muscle?
Skeletal = traponin SM = calmodulin cardiac = traponin
How does the duration of symptoms compare between somatization disorder and conversion disorder?
Somatization = exist for most of ones life Conversion = symptoms come and go
What type of reflex is occurring when a chronic biceps (c5) strain results in a respiratory difficulties secondary to diaphrogmatic dysfunction (c3-5)?
Somatosomatic reflex
What test determines that a healthy patient will have a negative test?
Specificity
What are the major types of spina bifida and what does each repesent in terms of contents herniated?
Spina bigida occulta spina bifida meningocele spina bifida meningomyeolocele Rachischisis
If contralateral body pain and temperature sensation is lost, what spinal tract has been injured?
Spinalthalamic tract
If a tissue specimen of an infected area reveals, microscopically, cigar shaped budding yeast, what is the most likely causative agent of that infection?
Sporothrix Schenckii
What type of Staph species is most associated with UTI's?
Staph. Saprophyticus
What are the three features of Virchow's triad?
Stasis, Endothelial injury, hypercoagulability (develop clots!)
What is the DOC for leishmaniasis?
Stibogluconate
What are the 2 most common causes of otitis media?
Strep. Pneumonia H. influenza
What is the DOC for Strep. pyogenes? for Borrelia burgdorfen?
Strep. pyogenes: Pen G Borrelia burgdorferi: Doxycycline (2nd: Tetracycline)
What is the only species that is a Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus?
Strep. pyrogenese
What is the most common cause of bacterial endocarditis?
Strep. viradans (in the mouth)
What kind of endocarditis are those with previously damaged or abnormal heart valves more at risk of getting? What are the common organisms responsible for this?
Subacute Strep viradans and Gram (-) bacilli
What brainstem area is lost in Parkinson's disease?
Substantia Nigra
What types of glycosidic bonds exist between the sugars of sucrose, glycogen, and cellulose?
Sucrose--> alpha1, B2 Glycogen--> a1,4 and a1,6 Cellulose--> B 1,4
Name the drugs that are P450 inhibitors
Sulfonamides (ABx), Phenylbutazone (NSAID), Chloramphenicol (Abx), Isoniazid (INH), Dicumarol (anti-coag), Cimetidine (H2 blocker) (Some Pharmaceutical Classes Inhibit Drug Catabolism) --May cause drug overdose!--
Explain the Rules of Threes relevant to thoracic vertebrae.
T1-3: SP is at same level as TP T4-6: SP 1/2 segment below the corresounding TP T7-9: SP is 1 level below correspounding TP T10=T7-9 T11 = T4-6 T12 = T1-3
What dermatome does the umbilicus lie?
T10
If a patient had an ovarian cyst, you might notice dysfunction in visceralor somatic structures innervated by what nerve roots? What cutaneous landmark would be included in possible reflex sites in the aforementioned situation?
T10-11 Umbilicus
At what vertebral level is the sternal notch? the sternal angle?
T2 = notch T4 = angle
The spine of hte scapula is a t what vertebral level?
T3
What is the sympathetic innervation to the gallbladder?
T6 right
What is the sympathetic innervation to the pancrease (be specific)?
T7 right-->embrologically stated on the right
Describe the 4 components of a TG....and a glycerophospholipid.
TG = 3 FA and 1-Glycerol Glycerophospholipid = 2 FA, 1 glycerol, 1 head
What is the main difference in the mechanism of action between streptokinase and TPA?
TPA-->Fibrin selective, only degrades clots in existance at time TPA is administered Streptokinase-->activates all plasminogen-->degrade continually
What is the generic term for cestodes?
Tape worms
What sphingolipidosis is associated wit hblindness and a cherry red macula, and is more associated with Ashkenazi Jews?
Tay-sacchs
What are the components of the O'Donahue's Triad? What another name for this?
Terrible Triad ACL, MCL, Medial Miniscus tears
What cells of the ovary have the same cholesterol-dependent pathway and the same products of hte pathway as the Leydig cells of the testes?
Theca cells (produce androgens)
What is the largest joint in the body?
Tibiofemoral (knee)
What are the three common tests for carpal tunnel syndrome?
Tinels, pahlens, prayer
Where is the Chapman's point for the appendix?
Tip of the 12th rib-->Rib
What blood disorder and liver disorder can result from OCPs?
Thomboemboli (DVT/PE) Liver-->benign adenoma
What type of arterialinflammation is associated with hypersensitivity to tobacco?
Thromboangitis obliderance (Burgers Dz)
What are the two divisions of hte sciatic nerve?
Tibial Peroneal (Common fibular)
What dermatome does the great toe lie?
Top = L5 Medial = L4 bottom = S1
What molecule transports iron?
Transferrin
What is the motion that should be used in assessing the OA?
Translation
What is the causative agent of syphillis? What is the DOC for the treatment of syphilis?
Treponema pallidum DOC: Pen G
In a randomized clinical trial, what type of error results in the rejection of the null hypothesis even though the null hypothesis is true?
Type I
What type of hypersensitivity is characterized by urticaria, erythema, and bronchiole constricion?
Type I
DOC for Pneumocystis carinii?
Trimethoprim-sulfanethoxazole (TMP-SMX) -fungal infection of lungs seen mostly in HIV pts.
What type of esophageal diverticulum involves all layers of the esophagus? Involves only the mucosal layer?
True False
In Lesch Nyhan disease, defective hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase results in the inability ot salvage purine bases, such that they are all degraded to this molecule (which is largely responsible for hte symptomology seen with Lesch Nyhan). What is molecule?
Uric Acid
Name the primary defect that results in each of the following type of hyperlipidemia Type I, IIA, IIB, III, IV
Type I = lipoprotein lipase defect Type IIA = LDL receptor Type IIB = B100 (mutated) Type III = mutant Apo E Type IV = overproduction of VLDL w/ under utilization of the VLDL
A 20 y/o male presents with complains of several bouts of fairly bloody loose stool over the past year; he has mild abdominal pain, and has now started to notice that he has symptomatic arthritis. He was diagnosed with iritis last week. What disease tops your list of differential diagnoses for the bloody stool?
Ulcerative colitis!
The medial umbilical ligament was once what structure in the fetus?
Umbilical artery
The median umbilical ligament was once what structure in the fetus?
Uracus
What are the VDRL and FTA-ABS test results for an SLE patient? Why?
VDRL = (+) --Checks for cardio-lichen antibodies, + for syphillis as weel FTA-ABS = (-) --test for Trapanedium paladis presence (casitive agent for syphillis)
What three amino acids build up in maple syrup disease?
Valine, Isoleucine, and leucine --Branched chain A.A.
Location that Schistosoma japonicum dwells in veins?
Veins of SI
Location that Schistosoma hematobium dwells in veins?
Veins of bladder
Location of Schistosoma mansoni dwell in veins?
Veins of colon
Name all 5 signs/sysmptoms that your text lists that would be associated with transient ischemia involving vertebrobasilar artery insufficiency.
Vertigo, diplopia, ataxia, facial mm weakness, nausea
What comma-shaped organism is renowned for causing rice-water stool, and is transmitted via contaminated water?
Vibrio Cholea
What comma-shaped organism may cause rice water stool?
Vibrio Cholea
What adrenal disorder is characterized by overproduciton of androgens?
Virulization
Deficiency of what may result in megaloblastic anemia and neurological symptoms?
Vit B12
What is the antidote to a warfarin overdose?
Vit K
What part of hte circulatory system holds the largest volume of blood? Has the greatest cross-sectional area?...provides the greatest resistance?
Volume = veins Cross section = capillaries resistance = arterioles
What are the 3 major side effects of treatment with progesterones?
Weight gain, depression, hirstuism
Which has the higher glycolytic capacity: Red skeletal muscle or White?
White
What duct eventually develops into the vas deferens and epididymis in the male? What duct eventually develops into the fallopian tubes in the female?
Wolfian (mesonephric) ducts = male Valarian (paranesophrenic) duct = female
What inheritance pattern exists for a particular disease if there is no male-to-male transmission and the parents of the sick child are not sick?
X-linked recessive
What type of inheritance pattern does glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency have?
X-linked recessive
Is Cryptococcus a yeast or mold?
YEAST
Which type of testicular germ cell tumor is characterized by very high production of AFP? Which type of ovarian germ cell tumor shares the same characteristic?
Yolk sac --Endodermal sinus
Adrenergic receptor in the postynaptic sympathetic with vasoconstrictive and GI inhibitory effects?
a1
Adrenergic receptor in the CNS?
a2
Adrenergic receptor in the presynaptic sympathietic?
a2
What cell type produces IL-1
activated macrophages
What 2 major cytokines are best known for their antiviral action?
alpha and beta interferon
What kind of blocker is prazosin?
alpha blocker
What are the two major toxins produced by Clostridium perfringens, and what diseases are caused as a result of the toxins?
alpha-->gas gangrene Entrotoxic-->C. perf. food poisoning
Describe the viridans streptoccocci in terms of hemolytic nature, bile solubility, and Optochin sensitivity.
alpha-hemolytic insouable in bile insensitive to Optochin
What are teh 4 major complications that may follow a MI?
arrythmia, CHF, cardiogenic shock, muscle rupture
Why is Takayasu disease called the "pulseless disease'?
b/c granulomas that form in aortic arch limit its elastic recoil
2 major supinators of the forearm?
biceps and supinator
What autoantibody is associated with Wegener's granulomatosis?
c-ANCA
What oncogene has been associated with Burkitt lymphoma?
c-myc
Formula for compliance?
change volume/change pressure
Sidebending occurs in what plane and axis?
coronal plane, A-P axis
Describe the mechanism for photosensitivity associatated with certain porphyrias. (heme not made properly)
cuases accumulation of profrinogens-->in blood stream--> go to skin (exposed to sunlight)-->make prophrins-->increase ROS--when exposed to O2
What anesthetic agent has teh potential to cause malignant hyperthermia?
halothane
What do nodules, be they macronodular or micronodular, indicate about the liver?
damaged liver that's trying to regenerate
What is teh MOA of gold in teating RA?
decrease the ability of macrophages to migrate and activate in the area
In what position is the ankle more stable?
dorsiflexion
What is the antidote to a benzodiazepine overdose?
flumazenil
What are teh main clinical effects of fructosuria versus fructose intolerance?
fructosuria= harmless fructose intolerance= produces severe hypoglycemia
What gene is responsible for producting p24 in HIV?
gag gene
By what 2 metabolic processes does the liver maintain glucose levels?
glycogenolsis gluconeogenesis
What 5 structures must be present in order for a rib to be a "typical rib"?
head, neck, tuberacle, shaft, angle
Name three things that may trigger sickling in sickle cell anemia.
hypoxia, dehydration, acidosis
What is the PRIMARY disturbance causing respiratory acidiosis
increase PCO2
Name the 4 situations listed in the text that will serve to reduce the binding of oxygen to hemoglobin.
increase hydrogen ions (decrease pH) increase CO2 increase 2,3-DPG increase TEMP
What effect do alcohol and barbiturates have on P450?
induce
What part of the kidney tubule functions in potassium secretion?
late DCT and collecting duct
What primary enzyme in the glycolytic pathway is inhibited by ATP and citrate, but activated by AMP and fructose 2,6-diphosphate?
phosphfructosekinase-1
Thromboxanes cuase what?
platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction-locally
What restrictive lung disease is caused by the habitual inhalation of irritants such as coal dust and silica?
pneumochomiosis
What gene is responsible for producting reverse transcriptase in HIV?
pol gene
What three mediators of inflammation are most likely to cause fever?
prostaglandins, IL-1, TNF-alpha
Name the two purines and 3 pyrimidines
purines = G, A Pyrimidines = C, U, T
