BIO 2870 Final Exam
(15.5) How does fluid accumulation in the lungs affect vital capacity? A) Vital capacity increases in females but not in males. B) Vital capacity decreases in females but not in males. C) Vital capacity increases in both sexes equally. D) Vital capacity decreases in both sexes equally. E) Accumulating fluid has no effect on vital capacity.
Vital capacity decreases in both sexes equally
(16.4) The largest area of the stomach is called the A) fundus. B) pylorus. C) cardia. D) body. E) sphincter.
body
(7.4) The enzyme acetylcholinesterase causes acetylcholine to A) break down B) synthesize C) bond to actin D) be secreted E) form cross-bridges
break down
(15.1) Label I represents which structure(s)? A) trachea B) smallest bronchioles C) bronchus D) alveoli E) bronchioles
bronchioles
(15.1) Label H represents which structure(s)? A) bronchus B) larynx C) esophagus D) trachea E) pharyn
bronchus
(16.3) Which phase of swallowing begins with compression of the bolus against the hard palate? A) esophageal B) gastric C) buccal D) pharyngeal E) duodenal
buccal
(5.1) The layer containing adipose tissue is A) A B) B C) C D) O E) M
c
(5.1) Which layer is the stratum granulosum? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E
c
(5.1) Which layer of the diagram identifies the area where a hypodermic needle would be placed for an injection of a drug? A) A B) B C) C D) N E) K
c
(16.4) Besides proteins, which of the following is (are) a potent stimulator(s) of gastrin? A) caffeine and small doses of alcohol B) parasympathetic innervation C) the sight and smell of food D) chyme entering the duodenum E) chyme entering the esophagus
caffeine and small doses of alcohol
(7.4) In response to action potentials arriving from the transverse tubules, the sarcoplasmic reticulum releases A) acetylcholine B) sodium ions C) potassium ions D) calcium ions E) acetylcholinesterase
calcium ions
(16.2) Salivary amylase functions to digest A) proteins. B) lipids. C) cellulose. D) nucleic acids. E) carbohydrates
carbohydrates
(15.6) Which of the following has the lowest partial pressure in inhaled dry air? A) oxygen B) nitrogen C) water vapor D) carbon dioxide E) mercury
carbon dioxide
(15.7) The enzyme carbonic anhydrase causes what to occur in RBCs? A) carbon dioxide to be converted to carbonic acid B) carbon dioxide to be converted to water C) water to be converted to oxygen and carbon dioxide D) water to react with hydrogen ions E) carbonic acid to be converted to hemoglobin
carbon dioxide to be converted to carbonic acid
(16.4) The esophagus connects to the smallest part of the stomach, known as the A) body. B) antrum. C) pylorus. D) cardia. E) fundus
cardia
(16.2) Which of the following covers the dentin, providing protection and firmly anchoring the periodontal ligament? A) root B) enamel C) cementum D) gingiva E) blood vessels and nerves
cementum
(16.6) Which structures of liver lobules ultimately merge to form the hepatic veins? A) hepatic ducts B) hepatic arteries C) capillary beds D) central veins E) portal veins
central veins
(16.6) Which intestinal hormone stimulates contractions within the walls of the gallbladder and pushes bile into the small intestine? A) enterokinase B) secretin C) cholecystokinin D) gastric inhibitory peptide E) gastrin
cholecystokinin
(15.1) The respiratory mucosa is made up of A) dense irregular connective tissue. B) squamous epithelium. C) ciliated cuboidal epithelium. D) ciliated columnar epithelium. E) dense regular connective tissue.
ciliated columnar epithelium
(16.1) Label G represents which structure? A) circular fold B) submucosa C) muscularis externa D) serosa E) mucosa
circular fold
(16.1) Label B represents which structure(s)? A) circular folds B) submucosa C) muscularis externa D) serosa E) mucosa
circular folds
(16.5) The intestinal lining bears a series of transverse folds called A) rugae. B) mucous glands. C) villi. D) circular folds. E) microvilli
circular folds
(16.1) Label R represents which structure? A) muscularis mucosa B) circular muscle layer C) longitudinal muscle layer D) submucosal gland E) mucosal gland
circular muscle layer
(8.2) Branches that sometimes occur along the length of an axon are called A) action potentials. B) synaptic knobs. C) collaterals. D) hillocks. E) synapse
collaterals
(16.6) The fusion of the common hepatic duct with the cystic duct forms the A) hepatic portal vein. B) porta hepatis. C) common bile duct. D) common pancreatic duct. E) bile canaliculus.
common bile duct
(16.6) The pancreatic duct penetrates the duodenal wall with the A) cystic duct. B) hepatic portal vein. C) common hepatic duct. D) common hepatic artery. E) common bile duct.
common bile duct
(16.2) Dental plaque A) anchors teeth to their bony sockets. B) protects teeth from bacteria-induced tooth decay. C) is calcified organic matter on the surface of teeth. D) consists of food particles trapped in a sticky matrix. E) forms a bone-like protective layer.
consists of food particles trapped in a sticky matrix
(15.2) The function of the nasal conchae is to A) divide the nasal cavity into a right and a left side. B) provide an opening into the pharynx. C) provide a surface for gas exchange. D) create turbulence in the air to trap small particles in mucus. E) provide an opening to the outside of the body
create turbulence in the air to trap small particles in mucus
(15.2) The structure that provides posterior support to the larynx is the A) glottis. B) cricoid cartilage. C) epiglottis. D) arytenoid cartilage. E) cuneiform cartilage.
cricoid cartilage
(16.2) The ________ are conical teeth used for tearing or slashing. A) incisors B) cuspids C) bicuspids D) molars E) premolars
cuspids
(5.1) The skin is also called the ________ membrane. A) serous B) mucous C) synovial D) cutaneous E) peritoneal
cutaneous
(5.4) The blood supply to the skin arises from a network of blood vessels called the ________ plexus in the hypodermis, at its border with the reticular layer of the dermis. A) cervical B) mesenteric C) brachial D) celiac E) cutaneous
cutaneous
(4.5) The skin is sometimes referred to as the A) cutaneous membrane B) mucous membrane C) serous membrane D) synovial membrane E) peritoneal membrane
cutaneous membrane
(4.5) Which of the following consists of stratified squamous epithelial tissue, areolar tissue, and dense irregular connective tissue? A) mucous membrane B) synovial membrane C) serous membrane D) glandular membrane E) cutaneous membrane
cutaneous membrane
(15.2) Identify the most common lethal inherited disease affecting Caucasians of Northern European descent that results from a defective gene located on chromosome 7. A) asthma B) emphysema C) pneumothorax D) pneumonia E) cystic fibrosis
cystic fibrosis
(16.2) The first set of teeth to appear are the ________ teeth. A) permanent B) succession C) secondary D) impacted E) deciduous
deciduous
Which of the following factors would increase the amount of oxygen released by hemoglobin from the bloodstream? A) decreased temperature and decreased pH B) decreased pH and increased temperature C) increased tissue PO2 and increased pH D) decreased tissue PO2 and increased pH E) decreased temperature and increased pH
decreased pH and increased temperature
(10.3) This condition develops when the posterior pituitary no longer releases adequate amounts of ADH. A) diabetes mellitus B) diabetes insipidus C) pituitary dwarfism D) exophthalmos E) gigantism
diabetes insipidus
(15.2) The pitch of a vocal sound is controlled by changing the A) force of air. B) diameter, length, and tension of the vocal cords. C) size of the laryngeal cartilage. D) shape of the laryngeal cartilage. E) length and depth of the nasal cavity.
diameter, length, and tension of the vocal cords
(15.5) Contraction of which muscle normally accounts for around 75% of the air movement in normal quiet breathing? A) diaphragm B) rectus abdominis C) internal intercostals D) external intercostals E) internal obliques
diaphragm
(16.5) The portion of the small intestine that is closest to the stomach is the A) ileum. B) colon. C) cecum. D) jejunum. E) duodenum.
duodenum
(15.5) The volume of air that can be voluntarily exhaled at the end of a single resting respiratory cycle is known as A) residual volume. B) vital capacity. C) tidal volume. D) inspiratory reserve volume. E) expiratory reserve volume.
expiratory reserve volume
(10.3) Diabetes insipidus can be caused by A) decreased levels of insulin. B) decreased numbers of insulin receptors. C) failure of the kidneys to respond to ADH. D) increased numbers of ADH receptors. E) increased levels of ADH.
failure of the kidneys to respond to ADH
(16.6) The ________ ligament marks the division between the left and right lobes of the liver. A) quadrate B) falciform C) inguinal D) visceral E) umbilical
falciform
(10.3) Which of the following primarily targets the gonads (ovaries and testes)? A) growth hormone B) follicle-stimulating hormone C) prolactin D) insulin E) thyroxine
follicle-stimulating hormone
(16.6) The human liver is typically composed of ________ lobe(s). A) one B) two C) three D) four E) five
four
(16.4) The region of the stomach superior to the cardia is the A) rugae. B) pylorus. C) fundus. D) antrum. E) body.
fundus
(16.5) Which gastrointestinal hormone is released when fats and glucose enter the small intestine? A) cholecystokinin B) gastrin C) secretin D) pepsin E) gastric inhibitory peptide
gastric inhibitory peptide
(16.5) Which gastrointestinal hormone targets the pancreas and stimulates the release of insulin by the islets? A) intrinsic factor B) gastric inhibitory peptide C) secretin D) cholecystokinin E) gastric lipase
gastric inhibitory peptide
(16.4) Which of the following digestive enzymes is produced by the stomachs of newborns, but not adults? A) trypsin B) CCK C) intrinsic factor D) gastric lipase E) pepsin
gastric lipase
(16.4) During the gastric phase of gastric secretion, which of the following stimulates stomach contractions? A) secretin B) HCl C) pepsinogen D) gastrin E) trypsin
gastrin
(8.3) Changes in the membrane potential that cannot spread far from the site of stimulation are called A) threshold. B) graded potentials. C) refractories. D) hyperpolarizations. E) action potentials.
graded potentials
(16.2) The roof of the oral cavity is formed by the A) vestibule. B) hard and soft palate. C) palatal arches. D) upper labium. E) pharynx
hard and soft palate
(11.5) The primary function of white blood cells is to A) remove carbon dioxide from active cells. B) clump together and stick to the blood vessel walls. C) carry oxygen from the lungs to the body's cells. D) carry nutrients from the digestive system to the body's cells. E) help defend the body against pathogens.
help defend the body against pathogens
(5.1) Through which cellular interactions are the cells of the stratum basale firmly attached to the plasma membrane? A) gap junctions B) CAMs C) tight junctions D) connexons E) hemidesmosomes
hemidesmosomes
(16.4) Parietal cells secrete intrinsic factor and A) pepsinogen. B) gastric lipase. C) pancreatic amylase. D) hydrochloric acid. E) cholecystokinin
hydrochloric acid
(8.3) A stimulus that opens gated potassium ion channels, moving the membrane voltage value below the resting potential value, results in which of the following? A) repolarization B) hyperpolarization C) depolarization D) refraction E) summation
hyperpolarization
(5.5) Lipid is concentrated with the cells of the A) hypodermis B) dermis C) cornified region D) stratum granulosum E) stratum spinosum
hypodermis
(5.5) The loose connective tissue that separates the integument from deeper tissues and organs is called the A) dermis B) epidermis C) hypodermis D) integument. E) papillary layer
hypodermis
(10.3) Hypothalamic signals reach the anterior pituitary through the A) infundibulum. B) hypophyseal portal system. C) hypothalamic axons. D) hypophysis. E) thymus.
hypophyseal portal system
(10.3) Hormones from the ________, which travel in the hypophyseal portal vessels, alter the activity of the anterior pituitary. A) brain stem B) hypothalamus C) cerebellum D) thyroid E) thalamus
hypothalamus
(10.3) Where are the hormones secreted by the posterior pituitary made? A) thyroid B) anterior pituitary C) hypothalamus D) posterior pituitary E) suprarenal gland
hypothalamus
(15.4) The condition of low tissue oxygen levels is known as A) cystic fibrosis. B) hypoxia. C) hyperventilation. D) pneumothorax. E) emphysema.
hypoxia
(16.5) The longest portion of the small intestine is the A) cecum. B) appendix. C) ileum. D) jejunum. E) duodenum.
ileum
(8.2) Most neurons in the brain are A) bipolar. B) unipolar. C) anaxonic. D) multipolar. E) tripolar.
multipolar
(8.2) Neurons that have two or more dendrites and a single axon extending away from the cell body are called A) polypolar. B) unipolar. C) bipolar. D) tripolar. E) multipolar
multipolar
(7.6) Exhaustion of energy reserves or decline in pH due to production and dissociation of lactic acid causes A) muscle contraction. B) the conduction of neural information to the muscle fiber. C) muscle relaxation. D) muscle fatigue. E) the striated appearance of skeletal muscle.
muscle fatigue
(16.1) Contraction of the ________ layers of the intestinal wall functions to both agitate materials and propel them along the digestive tract. A) mucosa B) submucosa C) serosa D) muscularis externa E) adventitia
muscularis externa
(16.1) Label E represents which structure? A) circular fold B) submucosa C) muscularis externa D) serosa E) mucosa
muscularis externa
(16.4) Which major layer of the stomach contains an extra layer that adds strength and assists in the formation of chyme? A) serosa B) mucosa C) adventitia D) submucosa E) muscularis externa
muscularis externa
(16.1) Label N represents which structure? A) muscularis mucosa B) circular muscle layer C) longitudinal muscle layer D) submucosal gland E) mucosal gland
muscularis mucosa
(16.1) Label S represents which structure(s)? A) myenteric plexus B) artery and vein C) lymphatic vessel D) submucosal plexus E) mucosal glands
myenteric plexus
(16.1) The muscularis externa layer contains nerves referred to as the A) muscularis nerves. B) submucosal plexus. C) enteric nerves. D) myenteric plexus. E) circular plexus.
myenteric plexus
(7.4) After death, rigor mortis lasts until A) ATP is produced B) T-tubules recapture calcium ions C) sodium ions are released by the sarcoplasmic reticulum D) sarcomeres lengthen E) myofilaments are broken down
myofilaments are broken down
(15.1) Label C represents which structure(s)? A) nose B) nasal cavity C) pharynx D) sinuses E) larynx
nasal cavity
(15.2) The portion of the nasal cavity contained within the flexible tissues of the nose is the A) nasopharynx. B) nasal vestibule. C) internal chamber. D) glottis. E) nasal septum.
nasal vestibule
(15.2) A chamber shared by the respiratory and digestive systems is the A) larynx. B) glottis. C) vestibule. D) pharynx. E) trachea.
pharynx
(15.2) Which structure extends posteriorly from the hard palate and is inferior to the nasopharynx? A) larynx B) vestibule C) soft palate D) external nares E) internal nares
soft palate
(8.3) The resting potential of a neuron is A) 0 mV. B) +10 mV. C) -70 mV. D) -10 mV. E) +70 mV.
-70 mV
(7.4) Place these steps of muscle contraction in the correct order. 1. Action potential is generated along the sarcolemma 2. Nerve impulse arrives at synapse 3. Calcium is released into muscle cell cytoplasm 4. Acetylcholine is produced 5. Actin and myosin molecules continuously cross-link, with actin molecules being pulled inward A) 2, 3, 4, 1, 5 B) 4, 2, 1, 5, 3 C) 1, 2, 4, 3, 5 D) 2, 4, 1, 3, 5 E) 1, 2, 4, 5, 3
2, 4, 1, 3, 5
(5.1) Choose the correct order of the cell layers, or strata, in a section of thick skin, from the basement membrane toward the free surface (deep to superficial). 1. stratum lucidum 2. stratum basale 3. stratum corneum 4. stratum granulosum 5. stratum spinosum A) 3, 5, 4, 1, 2 B) 3, 4, 1, 5, 2 C) 2, 1, 4, 5, 3 D) 2, 4, 5, 3, 1 E) 2, 5, 4, 1, 3
2, 5, 4, 1, 3
(15.7) Active tissues receive approximately ________ as much O2 as inactive tissues. A) 2 times B) 3 times C) 5 times D) 10 times E) 100 times
3 times
(8.3) Identify the correct sequence of steps in the generation of an action potential. 1. Activation of sodium channels and rapid depolarization 2. Inactivation of sodium channels and activation of potassium channels 3. Depolarization to threshold 4. Closing of potassium channels A) 1, 3, 4, 2 B) 3, 1, 2, 4 C) 4, 3, 2, 1 D) 1, 3, 2, 4 E) 3, 1, 4, 2
3, 1, 2, 4
(6.3) The following are major steps in the process of endochondral ossification: 1. Bone forms at the diaphysis surface. 2. Secondary ossification centers form in the epiphyses. 3. Chondrocytes enlarge and calcify. 4. Osteoclasts create a marrow cavity. 5. Blood vessels invade the inner cartilage and new osteoblasts form spongy bone at a primary ossification center. The correct order for these events is A) 3, 1, 5, 4, 2 B) 1, 3, 5, 4, 2 C) 1, 5, 3, 4, 2 D) 2, 3, 1, 5, 4 E) 3, 1, 4, 5, 2
3, 1, 5, 4, 2
(16.2) Secondary dentition results in a permanent tooth count of A) 32. B) 24. C) 21. D) 40. E) 38
32
(15.5) The inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) of males averages A) 500 ml. B) 1200 ml. C) 1900 ml. D) 3300 ml. E) 5500 ml.
3300 ml
(15.2) The following is a list of some of the structures of the respiratory tree: 1. secondary bronchi 2. tertiary bronchi 3. bronchioles 4. primary bronchi The order in which air passes through these structures beginning at the trachea is A) 4, 1, 2, 3. B) 3, 2, 1, 4. C) 2, 3, 1, 4. D) 4, 1, 3, 2. E) 1, 2, 3, 4.
4, 1, 2, 3
(15.5) Diagnostic tests on a 50-year-old male show the following results: IRV = 3000 ml, ERV = 900 ml, tidal volume = 500 ml, residual volume = 1300 ml What is this patient's vital capacity? A) 5700 ml B) 5200 ml C) 4400 ml D) 3900 ml E) 3500 ml
4400 ml
(11.5) A normal WBC count is about ________ cells per microliter. A) 1,500-4,000 B) 1,800-7,300 C) 5,000-10,000 D) 150,000-500,000 E) 4.4 million-6 million.
5,000-10,000
(15.6) Atmospheric pressure at sea level can be summarized as follows: PN2 + PO2 +PH2O +PCO2 = A) 760 mm Hg B) 14 mm Hg C) 569 mm Hg D) 380 mm Hg E) 100 mm Hg
760 mm Hg
(15.2) How many tertiary bronchi are typically present in each lung? A) 1-2 B) 3-4 C) 9-10 D) 15-20 E) 20-25
9-10
(10.3) The pituitary hormone that controls the release of glucocorticoids is A) TSH. B) ACTH. C) FSH. D) LH. E) MSH
ACTH
(7.4) The stiffness that occurs at death, when actin and myosin molecules stay linked to each other in a contracted state, is due to a lack of A) cAMP B) DNA C) RNA D) ATP E) tRNA
ATP
(7.4) Which of the following is one of the steps that ends a contraction? A) Sarcoplasmic reticulum absorbs sodium ions B) Acetylcholine binds to receptors on the sarcolemma C) Calcium ions bind to troponin D) Acetylcholine is broken down by acetylcholinesterase E) An action potential spreads across the entire surface of the muscle fiber
Acetylcholine is broken down by acetylcholinesterase
(10.3) Two hormones referred to as gonadotropins are A) GH and TSH. B) FSH and LH. C) ADH and ACTH. D) PRL and OT. E) ADH and OT.
FSH and LH
(6.3) Which of the following occurs in intramembranous ossification? A) Hyaline cartilage model forms B) Periosteum forms a collar around the cartilage C) Fibrous connective tissue is converted to bone tissue, which first resembles spongy bone D) As the bone enlarges, osteoclasts break down some of the spongy bone and create a marrow cavity E) Ossification centers are formed as blood vessels and osteoblasts enter the centers of the epiphyses
Fibrous connective tissue is converted to bone tissue, which first resembles spongy bone
(10.3) The pituitary hormone that stimulates the breakdown of stored fats and the release of fatty acids into the bloods is A) TSH. B) ACTH. C) MSH. D) LH. E) GH.
GH
(10.3) Which of the following hormones is secreted by the human pituitary during fetal development in very young children and in pregnant women, but is not usually found in adults? A) MSH B) TSH C) ACTH D) LH E) PRL
MSH
(16.6) ________ is a buffer that helps to increase the pH of chyme. A) Secretin B) Trypsin C) Sodium bicarbonate D) Bile salt E) Cholecystokinin
Sodium bicarbonate
(15.4) Pulmonary ventilation refers to A) the movement of air into and out of the lungs. B) the movement of dissolved gases from the alveoli to the blood. C) the movement of dissolved gases from the blood to the interstitial space. D) the movement of dissolved gases from the interstitial space to the cells. E) the utilization of oxygen.
the movement of air into and out of the lungs
(16.6) Which of the following is a protease produced by the pancreas? A) secretin B) trypsin C) amylase D) nuclease E) gastrin
trypsin
(15.3) Fever, coughing, chest pain, fatigue, and weight loss are signs and symptoms of A) pneumonia. B) cystic fibrosis. C) emphysema. D) tuberculosis. E) pleurisy
tuberculosis
(15.1) Air entering the body is filtered, warmed, and humidified by the A) upper (conducting) portion of the respiratory tract. B) lower (respiratory) portion of the respiratory tract. C) lungs. D) alveoli. E) bronchioles
upper (conducting) portion of the respiratory tract
(10.3) Another name for antidiuretic hormone is A) cortisol. B) parathyroid hormone. C) thymosin. D) growth hormone. E) vasopressin.
vasopressin
(16.2) The space between the cheeks or lips and the teeth is called the A) pharynx. B) larynx. C) epiglottis. D) vestibule. E) cheek.
vestibule
(16.1) Label K represents which structure(s)? A) mucosal glands B) muscularis mucosa C) villi D) submucosal glands E) lamina propria
villi
(15.3) The layer of serous membrane that covers the surface of the lungs is the A) mediastinum. B) visceral pleura. C) surfactant. D) parietal pleura. E) pleural fluid.
visceral pleura
(15.5) Which of the following is defined as the maximum amount of air that can be moved into and out of the respiratory system in a single respiratory cycle? A) vital capacity B) inspiratory reserve volume C) tidal volume D) expiratory reserve volume E) residual volume
vital capacity
(16.4) Intrinsic factor aids the absorption of ________ across the intestinal lining. A) vitamin C B) vitamin B12 C) vitamin D D) vitamin K E) vitamin B5
vitamin B12
(6.3) Rickets is a condition marked by a softening and bending of bones that occurs in growing children, as a result of ________ deficiency. A) vitamin A B) vitamin D3 C) growth hormone D) vitamin C E) thyroid hormone
vitamin D3
(4.5) A difference between mucous membranes and serous membranes is A) whether the cavity is open to the exterior or not B) the amount of blood vessels lining the cavity wall C) whether the tissue is epithelial or connective D) the density of collagen fibers in the cavity wall E) whether the membrane is thick or thin
whether the cavity is open to the exterior or not
(8.2) Most neurons lack centrioles. This observation explains A) why neurons grow such long axons. B) why such neurons cannot divide through mitosis. C) the conducting ability of neurons. D) the ability of neurons to communicate with each other. E) the longevity of neurons.
why such neurons cannot divide through mitosis
(15.7) About how much of the oxygen content of arterial blood consists of oxygen molecules in solution? A) 50% B) 25% C) 10% D) 5% E) 1.5%
1.5%
(16.4) Hydrochloric acid keeps the stomach contents at a pH of A) 6.5-8.0. B) 1.5-2.0. C) 4.5-6.0. D) 7.0. E) 3.5-5.0
1.5-2.0
(15.3) The alveolar exchange surfaces of the lungs are approximately A) 75 square kilometers. B) 140 square meters. C) 1400 square centimeters. D) 7 square kilometers. E) 14 square meters.
140 square meters
(11.4) Bill wants to determine his blood type, so he takes a few drops of blood from a puncture wound in his finger and mixes it with various antisera. His blood cells agglutinate when mixed with the anti-A serum and anti-Rh serum, but not with the anti-B serum. This means A) Bill could receive type B blood in a transfusion. B) Bill could donate blood to an individual with type AB blood. C) Bill is Rh-negative. D) Bill's plasma would cross-react with type O negative red blood cells. E) Bill's plasma contains anti-B antibodies.
Bill's plasma contains anti-B antibodies
(11.5) ________ is the characteristic of WBCs that allow them to enter surrounding tissue by squeezing between adjacent epithelial cells in the capillary wall. A) Hemotaxis B) Positive chemotaxis C) Hemolysis D) Diapedesis E) Amoeboid movemen
Diapedesis
(10.3) Which statement regarding growth hormone (GH) is true? A) GH stimulates the breakdown of stored fats and the release of fatty acids into the blood. B) Liver cells respond to GH by releasing prostaglandins. C) Skeletal muscle cells and chondrocytes are extremely insensitive to GH. D) GH production is regulated by releasing and inhibiting hormones from the thyroid. E) In epithelial tissues, GH inhibits stem cell division.
GH stimulates the breakdown of stored fats and the release of fatty acids into the blood
(7.6) During moderate activity, which of the following is true regarding muscle metabolism? A) The ATP produced is used to build energy reserves of ATP and glycogen. B) Most ATP is produced through glycolysis, with lactate and hydrogen ions as byproducts. C) Glucose and fatty acids are catabolized. D) Mitochondrial activity provides about one-third of the ATP consumed. E) Mitochondria are not involved.
Glucose and fatty acids are catabolized
(15.7) Which statement regarding carbon dioxide transport in the blood is true? A) The chloride shift occurs when Cl- moves out of RBCs in exchange for HCO3-. B) HCO3- dissociates into CO2 and O2. C) 25% is converted to H2CO3 by carbonic anhydrase. D) H2CO3 dissociates into H+ and HCO3-. E) 93% remains dissolved in plasma as CO2.
H2CO3 dissociates into H+ and HCO3-
(16.6) ________ are arranged within a lobule of the liver into a series of irregular, one-cell-thick plates radiating outward. A) Portal cells B) Hepatocytes C) Bile canaliculi D) Bile ducts E) Hepatic ducts
Hepatocytes
(8.3) Which statement is true regarding action potential propagation? A) In salutatory conduction, the myelin is composed of fat, which insulates the axon membrane against sodium ion flow across the membrane. B) Continuous propagation results in one graded potential producing multiple action potentials. C) The action potential will die out along the axon if another graded potential does not occur. D) All voltage-gated channels along the axon open at the same time, allowing sodium to flow in simultaneously. E) The active transport of sodium and potassium through sodium-potassium ion pumps causes depolarization of the axon membrane
In salutatory conduction, the myelin is composed of fat, which insulates the axon membrane against sodium ion flow across the membrane
(4.5) What is the primary function of any serous membrane? A) It covers the outer surface of the body B) It lines joint cavities and produces fluid within a joint C) It lines cavities that communicate with the exterior, including the digestive, respiratory, reproductive, and urinary tracts D) It attaches muscles to the skeleton E) It minimizes friction between the opposing surfaces when an organ moves or changes shape
It minimizes friction between the opposing surfaces when an organ moves or changes shape
(16.6) Which hepatic cells are antigen-presenting cells that can stimulate an immune response? A) islets B) alpha cells C) hepatocytes D) Kupffer cells E) beta cells
Kupffer cells
(10.3) The pituitary hormone that promotes testosterone release in males and ovulation in females is A) TSH. B) ACTH. C) FSH. D) LH. E) GH.
LH
(7.6) Which of the following occurs when glycolysis produces pyruvate faster than it can be used by the mitochondria? A) Pyruvate levels drop in the cytoplasm. B) Lactic acid is produced. C) Pyruvate is converted to sucrose. D) Lactic acid dissociates into a water molecule and hydrogen. E) Oxygen is produced.
Lactic acid is produced
(11.5) ________ are large phagocytic WBCs that remain in circulation for only about 24 hours before entering peripheral tissues to become tissue macrophages. A) Neutrophils B) Eosinophils C) Basophils D) Lymphocytes E) Monocytes
Monocytes
(16.4) Which statement regarding the regulatory controls of the intestinal phase of gastric secretion is true? A) Neural controls are excitatory, but endocrine controls are inhibitory. B) Endocrine controls are excitatory, but neural controls are inhibitory. C) There are no regulatory controls during the intestinal phase. D) Most neural and endocrine controls are excitatory. E) Most neural and endocrine controls are inhibitory
Most neural and endocrine controls are inhibitory
(7.6) Which statement regarding "heat loss" is true? A) Muscle activity does not generate heat. B) Shivering in a cold environment results in higher levels of heat loss. C) When skeletal muscles are contracting at peak levels, body temperature drops. D) Heat loss is reduced when blood flow to the skin increases. E) Muscle contractions play an important role in the maintenance of normal body temperature.
Muscle contractions play an important role in the maintenance of normal body temperature
(8.2) Clusters of rough endoplasmic reticulum and free ribosomes are known as A) neurofilaments. B) neurofibrils. C) synapses. D) Nissl bodies. E) microglia.
Nissl bodies
(15.7) The amount of oxygen bound (or released) by hemoglobin depends primarily on which of the following? A) PCO2 of its surroundings B) PN2 of its surroundings C) the carbonic anhydrase available D) PO2 of its surroundings E) the effect of the chloride shift
PO2 of its surroundings
(8.2) The neurilemma of axons in the peripheral nervous system is the outer layer of A) astrocytes. B) Schwann cells. C) oligodendrocytes. D) microglia. E) ependymal cells.
Schwann cells
(5.5) Why are injections administered in the hypodermis when administering drugs using a hypodermic needle? A) There is an abundance of capillaries in the hypodermis B) The hypodermis is highly innervated C) Since it is vascularized, the hypodermis can absorb a lot of fluid D) Both elastic fibers and collagen fibers are present E) The presence of blood vessels and lymphatic vessels help local tissues defend and repair themselves
Since it is vascularized, the hypodermis can absorb a lot of fluid
(10.3) Which statement is true about the pituitary? A) The anterior pituitary controls the posterior pituitary. B) The alternate name for the pituitary is the infundibulum. C) The hypothalamus communicates with the anterior pituitary only. D) The pituitary hormones all work by activating G proteins and triggering cAMP within cells. E) The pituitary glands, both anterior and posterior, control every other endocrine gland
The pituitary hormones all work by activating G proteins and triggering cAMP within cells
(15.5) Which statement regarding respiration is true? A) The sternocleidomastoid muscle elevates the rib cage. B) Internal intercostal muscles elevate the rib cage. C) The rectus abdominis muscle elevates the rib cage. D) The external intercostal muscles lower the rib cage. E) Elevation of the rib cage decreases the volume of the thoracic cavity.
The sternocleidomastoid muscle elevates the rib cage
(16.3) Which of the following statements regarding the muscularis externa of the esophagus is true? A) The upper third portion of the esophagus consists of smooth muscle, the middle third portion is a mixture of smooth and skeletal muscles, and the lower third consists of skeletal muscle. B) The entire muscularis of the esophagus consists of skeletal muscle only. C) The entire muscularis of the esophagus consists of smooth muscle only. D) The upper third portion of the esophagus consists of smooth muscle, and the remaining portion is a mixture of skeletal and smooth muscles. E) The upper third portion of the esophagus consists of skeletal muscle, the middle third portion is a mixture of skeletal and smooth muscles, and the lower third consists of smooth muscle.
The upper third portion of the esophagus consists of skeletal muscle, the middle third portion is a mixture of skeletal and smooth muscles, and the lower third consists of smooth muscle
(5.1) The most mitotically active part of the skin is structure A) A B) B C) C D) D E) Q
a
(5.1) The structure composed of stratified squamous epithelium is A) A B) B C) C D) M E) L
a
(5.1) Where is keratin concentration the highest? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E
a
(16.4) The lesser omentum is A) a major portion of the stomach. B) attached to the stomach at the greater curvature. C) important in the digestion of fats. D) a fatty sheet that hangs like an apron over the abdominal viscera. E) a mesentery that extends from the stomach to the liver.
a mesentery that extends from the stomach to the liver
(15.5) Forced breathing during exhalation involves contraction of the internal intercostal muscles and the A) scalenes. B) diaphragm. C) abdominal muscles. D) external intercostals. E) serratus anterior.
abdominal muscles
(16.1) The movement of small organic molecules, electrolytes, vitamins, and water across the digestive epithelium and into the interstitial fluid of the digestive tract is called A) secretion. B) ingestion. C) digestion. D) absorption. E) excretion.
absorption
(7.4) Upon the nerve impulse arriving at the axon terminal, A) active sites on actin are exposed B) active sites on myosin are exposed C) actin heads will bind to myosin D) muscle relaxation occurs E) acetylcholine is released
acetylcholine is released
(16.6) Pancreatic enzymes and buffers are secreted by which of the following? A) chief cells B) alpha cells C) lobules D) acinar cells E) beta cells
acinar cells
(7.6) A resting muscle generates most of its ATP by A) conversion of creatine phosphate. B) anaerobic respiration. C) aerobic respiration. D) glycolysis. E) heat loss.
aerobic respiration
(11.4) Type AB blood contains A) A agglutinins on the red blood cells. B) agglutinogen A and agglutinogen B. C) B agglutinogens on the red blood cells. D) B agglutinins in the plasma. E) agglutinin A and B.
agglutinogen A and agglutinogen B
(8.3) The all-or-none principle states that A) all stimuli will produce identical action potentials. B) all stimuli great enough to bring the membrane to threshold will produce identical action potentials. C) the greater the magnitude of the stimuli, the greater the intensity of the action potential. D) only sensory stimuli can activate action potentials. E) only motor stimuli can activate action potentials.
all stimuli great enough to bring the membrane to threshold will produce identical action potentials
(15.1) Label K represents which structure(s)? A) trachea B) smallest bronchioles C) bronchus D) alveoli E) bronchioles
alveoli
(15.3) The actual sites of gas exchange within the lungs include A) bronchioles. B) alveolar ducts. C) pleural spaces. D) alveoli. E) capillary beds.
alveoli
(16.5) In the duodenum, submucosal glands secrete which of the following? A) brush border enzymes B) an alkaline mucus C) pepsin D) secretin E) cholecystokinin
an alkaline mucus
(6.3) The presence of ________ strongly indicates that the long bone is still growing. A) an epiphyseal plate B) an articular cartilage C) an epiphyseal line D) an epiphysis E) trabeculae
an epiphyseal plate
(10.3) Target cells of hypothalamic releasing and inhibiting hormones are located in the A) thymus gland. B) suprarenal gland. C) anterior pituitary. D) posterior pituitary. E) testes.
anterior pituitary
(10.3) Which of the following is released by the posterior pituitary? A) adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) B) thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) C) growth hormone (GH) D) antidiuretic hormone (ADH) E) melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH)
antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
(6.3) An increase in the diameter of growing bone is termed ________ growth. A) epiphyseal B) endochondral C) intramembranous D) appositional E) ossification
appositional
(11.50 Neutrophils A) are agranulocytes. B) are not phagocytic. C) have multiple nuclei. D) are active in fighting bacterial infection. E) are responsible for specific defenses.
are active in fighting bacterial infection
(11.4) Agglutinins A) are surface antigens on RBCs. B) prevent blood clotting. C) are substances that can trigger a protective defense mechanism called an immune response. D) are antibodies that will attack surface antigens on RBCs of a different blood type. E) contain abundant stained "granules.
are antibodies that will attack surface antigens on RBCs of a different blood type
(8.2) Interneurons A) are found only in the central nervous system. B) carry only sensory impulses. C) carry only motor impulses. D) only connect motor neurons to other motor neurons. E) are found between neurons and their effectors.
are found only in the central nervous system
(15.1) The paranasal sinuses, together with other structures of the upper respiratory tract, A) are where a small percentage of gas exchange occurs. B) form part of the respiratory membrane. C) are involved in filtering, warming, and humidifying incoming air. D) provide a large area for gas exchange between air and circulating blood. E) are lined by a delicate simple squamous epithelium
are involved in filtering, warming, and humidifying incoming air
(15.1) The lamina propria of the respiratory mucosa consists of which of the following connective tissues? A) reticular B) adipose C) dense fibrous D) areolar E) elastic
areolar
(5.5) The subcutaneous layer consists of A) epithelial and adipose tissues B) areolar and adipose tissues C) dense connective and loose connective tissues D) epithelium and loose connective tissues E) skeletal muscles and adipose tissue
areolar and adipose tissues
(5.4) What is the composition of the papillary layer of the dermis? A) dense, regular connective tissue B) stratified squamous epithelium C) reticular connective tissue D) areolar connective tissue E) dense, irregular connective tissue
areolar connective tissue
(5.1) Structure L on the skin diagram is the A) blood vessel B) skeletal muscle C) ligament D) arrector pili E) hair papilla
arrector pili
(16.1) Label P represents which structure(s)? A) myenteric plexus B) artery and vein C) lymphatic vessel D) submucosal plexus E) mucosal glands
artery and vein
(8.2) The glial cells responsible for maintaining the blood-brain barrier are the A) astrocytes. B) Schwann cells. C) microglia. D) ependymal cells. E) satellite cells.
astrocytes
(8.2) The largest and most numerous of the glial cells in the central nervous system are the A) astrocytes. B) Schwann cells. C) oligodendrocytes. D) microglia. E) ependymal cells.
astrocytes
(7.4) The ________ contains vesicles filled with acetylcholine. A) axon terminal B) motor end plate C) neuromuscular junction D) synaptic cleft E) transverse tubule
axon terminal
(11.5) The least numerous white blood cells in peripheral circulation are the A) neutrophils. B) eosinophils. C) basophils. D) lymphocytes. E) monocytes.
basophils
(8.2) Neurons that have one axon and one dendrite with the cell body between them are called A) polypolar. B) unipolar. C) bipolar. D) tripolar. E) multipolar.
bipolar
(8.2) The branching structures that, together with the cell body, are sensitive to chemical, mechanical, or electrical stimulation are called A) axons. B) Nissl bodies. C) synapses. D) dendrites. E) neurofibrils.
dendrites
(5.4) The dermis is composed largely of A) adipose B) fluid connective C) dense irregular connective D) muscle E) neural
dense irregular connective
(16.2) The bulk of a tooth consists of a mineralized matrix similar to that of bone called A) enamel. B) cementum. C) dentin. D) pulp. E) periodontium.
dentin
(8.3) Opening of voltage-gated sodium channels in the membrane of a neuron results in A) depolarization. B) repolarization. C) hyperpolarization. D) increased negative charge inside the membrane. E) myelination.
depolarization
(5.1) Projections of loose connective tissue from the dermis, which extend upward between the adjacent ridges of the epidermis, are called A) epidermal ridges B) strata C) reticular layers D) accessory structures E) dermal papillae
dermal papillae
(5.1) Epidermal cells are supplied with nutrients from blood vessels in the A) dermis B) epidermis C) hypodermis D) epidermis and dermis E) subcutaneous layer
dermis
(5.1) Structure B on the skin diagram is the A) epidermis B) dermis C) subcutaneous layer D) cutaneous membrane E) hypodermis
dermis
(5.1) The part of the skin at the bottom of the picture, seen in a lighter shade of gray, is the A) strata B) carotene C) dermis D) cornified region E) hypodermis
dermis
(5.4) The highly vascular layer of the skin, which provides thermoregulation via changing blood flow, is the A) epidermis B) subcutaneous layer C) stratum basale D) stratum corneum E) dermis
dermis
(5.4) This layer is composed of a high concentration of collagen fibers. A) stratum corneum B) stratum granulosum C) dermis D) hypodermis E) cornified region
dermis
(16.6) Bile salts break lipid droplets apart in a process called A) absorption. B) emulsification. C) bile storage. D) bile synthesis. E) secretion
emulsification
(16.2) Which of the following contains a crystalline form of calcium phosphate and is the hardest biologically manufactured substance? A) enamel B) cementum C) dentin D) pulp E) periodontium
enamel
(15.3) Someone suffering from a lack of angiotensin-converting enzyme may have a problem with their A) endothelial cells of the alveolar capillaries. B) septal cells of the alveolar ducts. C) squamous epithelial cells of the alveoli. D) alveolar macrophages within the alveolar sacs. E) type II pneumocytes lining the respiratory bronchioles.
endothelial cells of the alveolar capillaries
(8.2) Which neuroglial cells produce CSF in some regions of the brain? A) microglia B) Schwann cells C) ependymal cells D) oligodendrocytes E) astrocytes
ependymal cells
(5.1) Structure A on the skin diagram is the A) epidermis B) dermis C) subcutaneous layer D) cutaneous membrane E) hypodermis
epidermis
(5.1) Thin skin is defined by the thickness of the A) dermis B) epidermis C) hypodermis D) subcutaneous layer E) integument as a whole
epidermis
(5.1) Which of the following is the correct order of the layers of the cutaneous membrane? A) epidermis, hypodermis, dermis B) dermis, epidermis, hypodermis C) epidermis, dermis, hypodermis D) hypodermis, dermis, epidermis E) dermis, hypodermis, dermis
epidermis, dermis, hypodermis
(15.2) The elastic structure that folds back over the glottis, preventing the entry of liquids or solid food into the respiratory tract during swallowing, is the A) thyroid cartilage. B) glottis. C) corniculate cartilage. D) cuneiform cartilage. E) epiglottis.
epiglottis
(6.3) The presence of an epiphyseal line indicates A) epiphyseal growth has ended B) epiphyseal growth is just beginning C) growth in bone diameter is just beginning D) the bone is fractured at that location E) The presence of an epiphyseal line does not indicate any particular event
epiphyseal growth has ended
(16.3) The esophagus passes through a hole in the diaphragm called the A) esophageal hiatus. B) cardia. C) pylorus. D) upper esophageal sphincter. E) lower esophageal sphincter.
esophageal hiatus
(15.1) Label A represents which structure(s)? A) bronchus B) larynx C) esophagus D) trachea E) pharynx
esophagus
(16.2) Which type of teeth is used for clipping and cutting? A) cuspids B) bicuspids C) canines D) molars E) incisors
incisors
(5.1) Which of the following is the function of the combination of epidermal ridges and dermal papillae? A) increase storage of nutrients in the digestive tract B) increase surface area for diffusion between the dermis and epidermis C) increase sensory reception D) increase secretion of milk in specialized integumentary glands E) increase large reserves of lipids in adipose tissue
increase surface area for diffusion between the dermis and epidermis
(16.5) Plicae and intestinal villi A) increase the absorptive surface area of the small intestine. B) carry products of digestion that will not pass through the walls of blood capillaries. C) produce new cells for the mucosa of the small intestine. D) secrete digestive enzymes. E) produce hormones
increase the absorptive surface area of the small intestine
(16.4) Gastrin causes A) inhibition of HCl secretion. B) increases in the secretion of chief cells and parietal cells. C) the conversion of pepsin into pepsinogen. D) the upper esophageal sphincter to open. E) the pyloric sphincter to alternately open and close.
increases in the secretion of chief cells and parietal cells
(11.5) A sample of tissue from an injury shows a large number of eosinophils. This would indicate that the tissue was A) abscessed. B) inflamed. C) being rejected. D) infected by viruses. E) infected by parasites.
infected by parasites
(16.1) Ingestion refers to the A) progressive dehydration of indigestible residue. B) input of food into the digestive tract through the mouth. C) chemical breakdown of food. D) absorption of nutrients in the gut. E) mixing of nutrients with digestive enzymes.
input of food into the digestive tract through the mouth
(15.5) In quiet breathing, A) inspiration and expiration involve muscular contractions. B) inspiration is passive and expiration involves muscular contractions. C) inspiration involves muscular contractions and expiration is passive. D) inspiration and expiration are both passive processes. E) only the diaphragm is active during inhalation.
inspiration involves muscular contractions and expiration is passive
(15.5) The amount of air that can be taken in over and above the tidal volume is the A) vital capacity. B) residual volume. C) expiratory reserve volume. D) inspiratory reserve volume. E) minimal volume.
inspiratory reserve volume
(15.2) An inability to contract the trachealis muscle would A) necessitate the Heimlich maneuver. B) lead to immediate respiratory failure. C) cause the lungs to collapse. D) interfere with the passage of large volumes of food. E) slacken both the false and true vocal cords.
interfere with the passage of large volumes of food
(15.2) The nasal cavity opens into the nasopharynx at the A) internal nares. B) external nares. C) vestibules. D) turbinates. E) palates.
internal nares
(15.4) Which of the following is defined as the absorption of oxygen and the release of carbon dioxide by cells? A) hypoxia B) external respiration C) anoxia D) pulmonary ventilation E) internal respiration
internal respiration
(7.6) Glycolysis A) is an anaerobic process. B) is the breakdown of pyruvate to glucose. C) acts as the only source of ATP in muscle tissue. D) is only active during rest. E) occurs in the nucleus
is an anaerobic process
(8.3) Saltatory conduction A) occurs only if the myelin sheath is continuous. B) occurs only if nodes of Ranvier are lacking. C) is faster than conduction on an unmyelinated axon. D) produces a stronger action potential. E) occurs at the synapse
is faster than conduction on an unmyelinated axon
(10.3) The hormone oxytocin A) reduces uterine contractions. B) is involved in the milk "letdown" reflex. C) regulates blood pressure. D) governs the ovarian cycle. E) stimulates melanocytes in the skin.
is involved in the milk "letdown" reflex
(16.6) Decreased levels of bile salts in the bile would interfere with digestion of A) protein. B) lipid. C) disaccharides. D) complex carbohydrates. E) vitamins.
lipid
(15.1) Glands within the lamina propria of the respiratory mucosa secrete A) hormones. B) saliva. C) mucus. D) sweat. E) acids.
mucus
(5.5) The hypodermis A) provides mechanical strength to the skin B) is quite elastic C) has no blood vessels D) is composed of strata with various functions E) contains a variety of sensory receptors
is quite elastic
(15.2) The trachea A) is lined by dense regular connective tissue. B) is reinforced with C-shaped cartilages. C) contains the vocal cords. D) always maintains the same diameter. E) ends distally at the level of the diaphragm.
is reinforced with C-shaped cartilages
(16.5) The portion of the small intestine that performs the bulk of chemical digestion and nutrient absorption is the A) ileum. B) duodenum. C) jejunum. D) pylorus. E) cecum
jejunum
(5.1) The protein that contributes to many of the skin's protective qualities is called A) melanin B) keratin C) carotene D) dermicidin E) calcitriol
keratin
(16.1) Label I represents which structure(s)? A) mucosal glands B) muscularis mucosa C) villi D) mucous epithelium E) lamina propria
lamina propria
(16.1) The layer of the digestive tract that underlies the mucosal epithelium and consists of areolar connective tissue is the A) lamina propria. B) submucosa. C) muscularis. D) serosa. E) adventitia.
lamina propria
(16.4) In the fundus and body of the stomach, gastric glands extend deep into the A) adventitia. B) lamina propria. C) serosa. D) muscularis externa. E) submucosa
lamina propria
(15.1) Label F represents which structure(s)? A) larynx B) trachea C) pharynx D) bronchus E) bronchioles
larynx
(11.5) Formed elements that are nucleated and capable of amoeboid movement are A) leukocytes. B) chondrocytes. C) thrombocytes. D) erythrocytes. E) melanocytes.
leukocytes
(16.5) Cholecystokinin from the intestinal wall is stimulated by the presence of A) lipids and partially digested proteins in the duodenum. B) proteins and partially digested lipids in the duodenum. C) lipids and partially digested carbohydrates in the duodenum. D) proteins and partially digested carbohydrates in the duodenum. E) carbohydrates and partially digested lipids in the duodenum.
lipids and partially digested proteins in the duodenum
(16.1) Which of the following is an accessory organ of digestion? A) stomach B) liver C) spleen D) colon E) esophagus
liver
(16.6) Synthesis of plasma proteins is a major function of the A) gallbladder. B) duodenum. C) pancreas. D) stomach. E) liver.
liver
(16.6) Which of the following is the primary digestive organ involved in regulating the composition of circulating blood? A) pancreas B) stomach C) small intestine D) large intestine E) liver
liver
(7.6) Regarding lactic acid regulation, which cells in the body consume extra oxygen and produce ATP for the conversion of excess lactate absorbed from the blood back to glucose? A) neurons B) cardiac muscle cells C) skeletal muscle fibers D) liver cells E) erythrocytes
liver cells
(15.3) The lungs are divided into ________ that are separated by deep fissures. A) lobules B) alveoli C) bronchi D) bronchioles E) lobes
lobes
(16.6) The basic functional units of the liver are the A) hepatocytes. B) liver cells. C) lobules. D) portal areas. E) bile canaliculi.
lobules
(8.3) During continuous conduction, A) action potentials move in all directions along an axon. B) action potentials occur at successive nodes along the length of the stimulated axon. C) local currents depolarize adjacent areas of membrane so that action potentials continue along the membrane. D) the action potential starts at the beginning of the neuronal pathway and continues form neuron to neuron. E) local potentials produce a continuous outward flow of potassium ions.
local currents depolarize adjacent areas of membrane so that action potentials continue along the membrane
(16.1) Label T represents which structure? A) muscularis mucosa B) circular muscle layer C) longitudinal muscle layer D) submucosal gland E) mucosal gland
longitudinal muscle layer
(16.1) Label O represents which structure(s)? A) myenteric plexus B) artery and vein C) lymphatic vessel D) submucosal plexus E) mucosal glands
lymphatic vessel
(11.5) When foreign cells invade the body, one would most likely expect to see increased numbers of A) erythrocytes. B) eosinophils. C) basophils. D) lymphocytes. E) thrombocytes.
lymphocytes
(6.3) Which of the following is formed via intramembranous ossification? A) tibia B) humerus C) carpal bones D) femur E) mandible
mandible
(16.2) Chewing is called A) segmentation. B) pendulum movements. C) peristalsis. D) ingestion. E) mastication.
mastication
(16.1) Label A represents which structure(s)? A) myenteric plexus B) mesenteric artery and vein C) lymphatic vessel D) submucosal plexus E) mucosal gland
mesenteric artery and vein
(16.1) Which of the following consists of double sheets of serous membrane and provides a pathway for blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatic vessels? A) lamina propria B) serosa C) adventitia D) submucosa E) mesenteries
mesenteries
(8.2) Small phagocytic glial cells, which are derived from white blood cells, are called A) astrocytes. B) Schwann cells. C) oligodendrocytes. D) microglia. E) ependymal cells.
microglia
(15.5) When the chest cavity has been penetrated, as in a pneumothorax, the amount of air in the respiratory system is reduced to the A) tidal volume. B) vital capacity. C) minimal volume. D) residual volume. E) inspiratory reserve volume.
minimal volume
(5.1) The lowest level of cells of the strata, marked E, consists of A) keratin protein B) collagen fibers C) dead cells D) carotene-producing cells E) mitotically active epithelial cells
mitotically active epithelial cells
(16.2) The ________ are teeth with flattened crowns and prominent ridges that are adapted for grinding, crushing, and mashing. A) molars B) cuspids C) eyeteeth D) canines E) incisors
molars
(5.4) Nerve fibers in the dermis most likely function in A) defending of local tissues after infection B) providing nutrients and oxygen to the skin C) monitoring sensory receptors in the dermis D) repairing tissue after injury E) removing carbon dioxide and waste products
monitoring sensory receptors in the dermis
(11.5) Which of the following is an agranulocyte? A) erythrocyte B) basophil C) neutrophil D) eosinophil E) monocyte
monocyte
(11.5) The white blood cells that are important in leaving the blood vessels and phagocytizing large materials, releasing chemicals that draw fibroblasts to the injured areas, are A) neutrophils. B) eosinophils. C) basophils. D) lymphocytes. E) monocytes
monocytes
(7.4) The specialized sarcolemma that contains acetylcholine receptors is the A) synaptic knob B) motor end plate C) motor unit D) synaptic cleft E) I band
motor end plate
(7.4) Neurotransmitters that cause skeletal muscle contraction are normally stored in A) myofibrils B) motor neuron axon terminals C) motor units D) motor end plates E) actin
motor neuron axon terminals
(16.1) Label C represents which structure? A) circular fold B) submucosa C) muscularis externa D) serosa E) mucosa
mucosa
(16.1) Label J represents which structure(s)? A) mucosal glands B) mucosa C) villi D) mucous epithelium E) lamina propria
mucosa
(16.1) The lamina propria is a component of the A) serosa. B) muscularis. C) submucosa. D) mucosa. E) adventitia.
mucosa
(16.1) Label L represents which structure(s)? A) mucosal glands B) mucosa C) villi D) mucous epithelium E) lamina propria
mucosal glands
(16.4) Rugae are A) mucosal ridges in the stomach. B) involved in absorption of liquids from the stomach. C) pockets in the lining of the stomach that contain secretory cells. D) located in the esophagus. E) present when the stomach is at maximum distention.
mucosal ridges in the stomach
(16.1) Label H represents which structure(s)? A) mucosal glands B) muscularis mucosa C) submucosal glands D) mucous epithelium E) lamina propria
mucous epithelium
(4.5) Which membrane type lines cavities that communicate with the exterior and have moist surfaces? A) cutaneous membranes B) serous membranes C) mucous membranes D) synovial membranes E) fibrocartilaginous membranes
mucous membranes
(16.2) The pH of saliva is A) highly basic. B) slightly basic. C) neutral. D) slightly acidic. E) very acidic.
neutral
(11.5) The most abundant type of WBC in a normal blood sample is the A) basophil. B) neutrophil. C) lymphocyte. D) eosinophil. E) monocyte.
neutrophil
(11.5) Pus associated with infected wounds contains which type of white blood cell? A) basophils B) lymphocytes C) eosinophils D) monocytes E) neutrophils
neutrophils
(11.5) Which of the following are the most active type of leukocytes, phagocytically, and are usually the first to arrive at an injury site? A) neutrophils B) eosinophils C) basophils D) lymphocytes E) erythrocyte
neutrophils
(15.6) Decompression sickness is a painful condition that results in ________ gas coming out of solution in the bloodstream. A) oxygen B) hydrogen C) nitrogen D) carbon dioxide E) carbon monoxide
nitrogen
(15.6) Which of the following gases has the highest partial pressure in saturated alveolar air? A) oxygen B) nitrogen C) water vapor D) carbon dioxide E) carbon monoxide
nitrogen
(15.6) Which of the following is the most abundant gas in the air? A) oxygen (O2) B) nitrogen (N2) C) water vapor (H2O) D) carbon dioxide (CO2) E) hydrogen (H2)
nitrogen (N2)
(15.1) Label B represents which structure(s)? A) nose B) nasal cavity C) pharynx D) sinuses E) larynx
nose
(5.1) Drugs suspended in ________ or ________ can be carried across the plasma membranes of the epidermal cells. A) water; blood B) water; lipids C) oils; alcohol D) oils; lipid-soluble solvents E) sebum; water
oils; lipid-soluble solvents
(8.2) The myelin sheaths that surround the axons of some of the neurons in the CNS are formed by A) astrocytes. B) Schwann cells. C) oligodendrocytes. D) microglia. E) ependymal cells
oligodendrocytes
(16.2) The digestion of carbohydrates and lipids begins in the A) oral cavity. B) esophagus. C) stomach. D) small intestine. E) large intestine
oral cavity
(16.2) The first place in which mechanical processing of food takes place is the A) oral cavity. B) esophagus. C) stomach. D) large intestine. E) small intestine.
oral cavity
(15.2) The palatine tonsils lie in the lateral walls of the A) oropharynx. B) nasal vestibule. C) larynx. D) esophagus. E) laryngopharynx
oropharynx
(6.3) During the process of ________, an existing tissue is replaced with bone. A) blood cell production B) calcification C) resorption D) ossification E) osteolysis
ossification
(7.6) The additional oxygen required during the recovery period to restore the normal pre-exertion levels is called the A) oxygen debt. B) refractory oxygen amount C) anaerobic oxygen threshold D) aerobic oxygen threshold E) aerobic oxygen conversion
oxygen debt
Normal interstitial fluid has a PO2 of 40 mm Hg and PCO2 of 45 mm Hg. As a result, A) both oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse into the capillaries. B) both oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse out of the capillaries. C) no diffusion occurs. D) oxygen diffuses out of the capillaries and carbon dioxide diffuses in. E) oxygen diffuses into the capillaries and carbon dioxide diffuses out.
oxygen diffuses out of the capillaries and carbon dioxide diffuses in
(10.3) The effect of prolactin closely interacts with the hormone A) oxytocin. B) renin. C) ADH. D) melatonin. E) calcitonin.
oxytocin
(10.3) The posterior pituitary gland stores A) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). B) thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). C) adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). D) oxytocin (OT). E) melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH).
oxytocin (OT)
(15.7) When a skeletal muscle works hard, A) PO2 and pH increase. B) pH increases and PCO2 declines. C) pH declines and PCO2 increases. D) pH and PCO2 increase. E) pH and PCO2 decline.
pH declines and PCO2 increases
(5.1) Thick skin can be found on the A) back B) palms C) legs D) arms E) chest
palms
(16.6) Enzymes from the ________ do most of the digestive work in the small intestine. A) pancreas B) liver C) gallbladder D) stomach E) large intestine
pancreas
(16.6) Which of the following digestive structures is retroperitoneal? A) ileum B) pancreas C) stomach D) gallbladder E) liver
pancreas
(15.2) The respiratory surfaces of the nasal cavity are cleared by mucus produced in part by which of the following? A) external nares B) paranasal sinuses C) soft palate D) nasal vestibule E) nasopharynx
paranasal sinuses
(16.2) The ________ duct empties into the vestibule at the level of the second upper molar. A) submaxillary B) submandibular C) parotid D) sublingual E) vestibular
parotid
(16.2) The salivary glands that produce secretions rich in salivary amylase are the A) sublingual glands. B) submandibular glands. C) lingual glands. D) parotid glands. E) submaxillary glands.
parotid glands
(16.2) Which of the following lies under the skin covering the lateral and posterior surfaces of the mandible? A) sublingual salivary gland B) parotid salivary glands C) exocrine pancreas D) frenulum E) submandibular salivary glands
parotid salivary glands
(16.4) Chief cells secrete A) pepsinogen. B) gastric amylase. C) cholecystokinin. D) hydrochloric acid. E) intrinsic factor.
pepsinogen
(16.2) The root of a tooth is anchored by the A) pulp. B) periodontal ligament. C) the root canal. D) enamel. E) dentin
periodontal ligament
(4.5) The serous membrane that covers the exposed surfaces of enclosed organs such as the liver and stomach is called the A) pleura B) peritoneum C) pericardium D) perichondrium E) periosteum
peritoneum
(16.3) Which is the second phase of the swallowing process, beginning when the bolus comes into contact with the palatal arches? A) pharyngeal phase B) buccal phase C) duodenal phase D) esophageal phase E) gastric phase
pharyngeal phase
(15.1) Label E represents which structure(s)? A) larynx B) trachea C) pharynx D) bronchus E) bronchioles
pharynx
(15.3) Surfactant A) is produced by pneumocytes type I. B) phagocytizes dust or debris. C) replaces mucus in the alveoli. D) plays a key role in keeping alveoli open. E) is not found in healthy lung tissue.
plays a key role in keeping alveoli open
(15.3) Which of the following is described as an inflammation of the pulmonary lobules that typically results from infection? A) pneumonia B) pneumothorax C) cystic fibrosis D) pleurisy E) emphysema
pneumonia
(10.3) Excessive urine production, which is a characteristic symptom of all forms of diabetes, is known as A) polyphagia. B) polydipsia. C) polyuria. D) polymyositis. E) diabetes mellitus.
polyuria
(11.4) A person's blood type is determined by the A) size and shape of red blood cells. B) number of antibodies in the plasma. C) chemical character of hemoglobin. D) presence or absence of specific surface antigens on the plasma membrane. E) type of oxygen- and carbon dioxide-binding sites on the hemoglobin molecules.
presence or absence of specific surface antigens on the plasma membrane
(5.4) The reticular layer's collagen fibers directly provide which function? A) prevent damage to the tissue B) nourish the epidermis C) provide flexibility D) provide sensory information E) increase surface area of the dermis
prevent damage to the tissue
(15.1) Functions of the respiratory system include A) protecting respiratory surfaces from dehydration and temperature changes. B) producing leukocytes needed to defend against invading pathogens. C) generating neurotransmitters essential to the neural control of respiration. D) providing erythrocytes, especially during times of increased oxygen demand. E) melanin synthesis and utilization to shield alveoli from environmental hazards.
protecting respiratory surfaces from dehydration and temperature changes
(15.3) Damage to the septal cells of the lungs would most likely result in A) a thickening of the respiratory membrane. B) an increased rate of gas exchange. C) alveolar rupture. D) reduction in surfactant production. E) decreased surface tension in the alveoli.
reduction in surfactant production
(5.1) Functions of the skin include A) regulating body temperature B) synthesizing antibodies C) producing adipose tissue D) synthesizing digestive enzymes E) release of large amounts of hormones
regulating body temperature
(15.2) Sympathetic activation leads to A) relaxation in skeletal muscle of bronchioles, causing bronchodilation. B) contraction of smooth muscles of bronchioles, causing bronchoconstriction. C) relaxation in smooth muscles of bronchioles, causing bronchodilation. D) relaxation of smooth muscles of bronchioles, resulting in bronchoconstriction. E) contraction of smooth muscles of bronchioles, causing bronchodilation.
relaxation in smooth muscles of bronchioles, causing bronchodilation
(16.4) Which gastric enzyme functions to coagulate milk, thus slowing its passage through the stomach? A) intrinsic factor B) pepsinogen C) rennin D) gastric lipase E) hydrochloric acid
rennin
(15.5) Which is defined as the amount of air that remains in the lungs after a maximum exhalation? A) minimal volume B) inspiratory reserve volume C) vital capacity D) expiratory reserve volume E) residual volume
residual volume
(16.5) Which of the following is a gastrointestinal hormone that increases the rate of bile secretion by the liver? A) cholecystokinin B) gastrin C) gastric inhibitory peptide D) pepsin E) secretion
secretion
(7.4) Botulism A) is the result of an attack on acetylcholine receptors by the immune system B) is usually tied to a genetic predisposition C) is a viral illness D) results from the loss of acetylcholine receptors at the motor end plate E) results from a bacterial toxin that prevents the release of acetylcholine at the axon terminale
results from a bacterial toxin that prevents the release of acetylcholine at the axon terminals
(5.4) The ________ layer of the dermis contains bundles of collagen fibers and elastin, and is responsible for the mechanical strength and flexibility of the skin. A) germinative B) reticular C) subcutaneous D) papillary E) corneal
reticular
(15.5) The respiratory rate is A) higher in adults than in children. B) roughly 20-30 breaths per minute for toddlers. C) the movement of about 500 ml of air per breath at rest. D) the number of breaths per hour. E) needed to calculate residual volume.
roughly 20-30 breaths per minute for toddlers
(15.2) Airways that supply one lobe of a lung are called A) secondary bronchi. B) bronchioles. C) tertiary bronchi. D) primary bronchi. E) alveoli.
secondary bronchi
(16.5) Duodenal endocrine cells A) carry products of digestion that will not pass through the walls of blood capillaries. B) produce new cells for the mucosa of the small intestine. C) function in the absorption of nutrients, especially vitamin B12. D) secrete hormones that coordinate the activities of other digestive organs. E) secrete a watery intestinal juice that includes intrinsic factor and hydrochloric acid.
secrete hormones that coordinate the activities of other digestive organs
(16.5) Which gastrointestinal hormone is released when the pH in the duodenum falls as acidic chyme arrives from the stomach? A) HCl B) gastric inhibitory peptide C) cholecystokinin D) secretin E) gastrin
secretin
(16.1) The release of water, acids, enzymes, and buffers by the digestive epithelium is called A) digestion. B) secretion. C) excretion. D) absorption. E) ingestion
secretion
(16.2) Functions of the tongue include A) sensory analysis of food. B) production of salivary antibodies such as IgA. C) production of salivary amylase. D) absorption of nutrients. E) secretion of buffers and mucus.
sensory analysis of food
(5.1) Structures marked J on the skin diagram are A) sudoriferous glands B) smooth muscles C) sebaceous glands D) immature hair follicles E) sensory receptors
sensory receptors
(16.1) Label F represents which structure? A) circular fold B) submucosa C) muscularis externa D) serosa E) mucosa
serosa
(16.1) The oral cavity, pharynx, esophagus, and rectum have an adventitia in place of the A) mucosa. B) lamina propria. C) serosa. D) muscularis externa. E) submucosa
serosa
(15.5) When a patient has low compliance, it is no reference to her adhering to hospital policy, rather A) she may suffer from pneumonia. B) she may have an overproduction of surfactant. C) she may have alveolar damage. D) she may have lower energy demands while breathing. E) she may be diagnosed with chronic epistaxis.
she may have alveolar damage
(15.3) The walls of the alveoli are lined by A) stratified cuboidal epithelium. B) pseudostratified epithelium. C) simple squamous epithelium. D) loose connective tissue. E) hyaline cartilage
simple squamous epithelium
(15.1) Label D represents which structure(s)? A) nose B) nasal cavity C) pharynx D) sinuses E) larynx
sinuses
(16.5) Lacteals are found in the A) liver lobules. B) stomach rugae. C) pancreatic islets. D) esophageal adventitia. E) small intestinal villi
small intestinal villi
(16.5) Most nutrient absorption takes place in the A) small intestine. B) mouth. C) stomach. D) ascending colon. E) sigmoid colon
small intestine
(15.1) Label J represents which structure(s)? A) trachea B) smallest bronchioles C) bronchus D) alveoli E) bronchioles
smallest bronchioles
(15.2) The walls of bronchioles are dominated by ________, whose activity is regulated by the autonomic nervous system. A) C-shaped rings of hyaline cartilage B) elastic cartilage C) skeletal muscle D) a mix of cartilage plates and smooth muscle E) smooth muscle
smooth muscle
(7.4) As a skeletal muscle contraction is initiated, acetylcholine binding alters the motor end plate membrane's permeability to A) acetylcholinesterase B) sodium ions C) calcium ions D) chloride ions E) potassium ions
sodium ions
(16.6) The hormone secretin functions to A) convert trypsinogen into trypsin. B) activate chymotrypsin. C) stimulate the release of sodium bicarbonate. D) stimulate the release of enzymes from the pancreas. E) decrease the pH of chyme.
stimulate the release of sodium bicarbonate
(15.1) Microorganisms removed from incoming air by the mucus of the respiratory tract are ultimately exposed to and destroyed by A) toxins in the mucus. B) the cilia. C) stomach acids and enzymes. D) a lack of nutrients. E) alveolar macrophages.
stomach acids and enzymes
(16.6) Which function is lost in a patient who has had his gall bladder removed? A) synthesizing bile B) emulsifying lipids C) absorbing lipids D) storing bile E) forming chylomicrons
storing bile
(16.1) The oral cavity, pharynx, esophagus, and anus are lined by A) pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium. B) cuboidal epithelium. C) stratified squamous epithelium. D) simple epithelium. E) simple columnar epithelium.
stratified squamous epithelium
(5.1) The deepest layer of cells in the epidermis is the cells of the A) stratum corneum B) stratum lucidum C) stratum basale D) stratum granulosum E) stratum spinosum
stratum basale
(5.1) The layer marked A is the A) stratum basale B) stratum corneum C) stratum lucidum D) stratum spinosum E) stratus germinativum
stratum corneum
(5.1) The layer of the epidermis at the exposed surface is the A) stratum corneum B) stratum lucidum C) stratum basale D) stratum granulosum E) stratum spinosum
stratum corneum
(5.1) The epidermal layer whose cells have stopped dividing and started to produce large amounts of keratin is the A) stratum corneum B) stratum lucidum C) stratum basale D) stratum granulosum E) stratum spinosum
stratum granulosum
(16.2) Which of the following produces secretions with mostly buffers and mucus, but few enzymes? A) parotid and submandibular salivary glands B) parotid salivary glands only C) sublingual and parotid salivary glands D) submandibular and sublingual salivary glands E) pancreas and parotid salivary glands
submandibular and sublingual salivary glands
(16.2) Ducts from which of the following open into the mouth behind the teeth on either side of the lingual frenulum? A) sublingual salivary glands B) pancreas C) submandibular salivary glands D) parotid salivary glands E) lingual salivary glands
submandibular salivary glands
(16.1) Label D represents which structure? A) circular fold B) submucosa C) muscularis externa D) serosa E) mucosa
submucosa
(16.1) Which layer of the digestive tract consists of dense irregular connective tissue? A) submucosa B) muscularis externa C) lamina propria D) muscularis mucosae E) mucosa
submucosa
(16.1) Label M represents which structure? A) muscularis mucosa B) circular muscle layer C) longitudinal muscle layer D) submucosal gland E) mucosal gland
submucosal gland
(16.1) Label Q represents which structure(s)? A) myenteric plexus B) artery and vein C) lymphatic vessel D) submucosal plexus E) mucosal glands
submucosal plexus
(7.6) Creatine phosphate serves to A) cause the decomposition of ATP B) supply energy to synthesize ATP C) decompose ADP D) synthesize ADP E) synthesize glucose
supply energy to synthesize ATP
(11.4) Agglutinogens of the various blood types are examples of A) surface antibodies. B) channel proteins. C) leukocytes. D) surface antigens. E) agranulocytes
surface antigens
(5.1) Structure F on the skin diagram is a(n) A) oil gland B) sweat gland C) sensory receptor D) wax gland E) naked nerve ending
sweat gland
(7.4) Acetylcholinesterase is found within the A) nucleus B) sarcolemma C) myofibril D) sarcomere E) synaptic cleft
synaptic cleft
(4.5) Membranes that consist primarily of areolar tissue and an incomplete layer of epithelial tissue are called ________ membranes. A) serous B) mucous C) cutaneous D) synovial E) peritoneal
synovial
(16.4) The gastric phase of gastric secretion begins with A) the sight, thought, or smell of food. B) the arrival of food in the stomach. C) the entry of chyme into the small intestine. D) the entry of chyme into the large intestine. E) the release of cholecystokinin and secretin by the small intestine.
the arrival of food in the stomach
(16.4) During the cephalic phase of gastric secretion, A) the stomach responds to distention and a decrease in pH. B) the release of secretin inhibits parietal and chief cell action. C) the parasympathetic division of the ANS is active. D) the intestinal reflex inhibits gastric emptying. E) local reflexes in the submucosal and myenteric plexuses activate.
the parasympathetic division of the ANS is active
(15.2) The glottis is A) the inferior margin of the soft palate. B) a flap of elastic cartilage. C) the passage from the pharynx to the larynx. D) the opening to the pharynx. E) the cartilaginous part of the hard palate.
the passage from the pharynx to the larynx
(15.5) During exhalation, A) pressure inside the lungs is less than the outside pressure. B) pressure within the thoracic cavity decreases. C) inside and outside pressures are equal. D) the volume of the thoracic cavity increases. E) the volume of the thoracic cavity decreases.
the volume of the thoracic cavity decreases
(5.1) As cells are pushed from the deeper portion of the epidermis toward the surface, A) they divide B) they die C) their nutrient supply increases D) they enter the dermis E) they produce daughter cells
they die
(15.2) Harry suffers from cystic fibrosis and frequently has periods where he can hardly breathe. The problem is most likely the result of A) inflammation of the bronchi. B) constriction of the trachea. C) thick secretions that exceed the ability of the respiratory tract cilia to remove them. D) laryngeal spasms that occur in response to a toxic substance produced by the epithelial cells. E) collapse of one or both lungs.
thick secretions that exceed the ability of the respiratory tract cilia to remove them
(15.3) The removal of pleural fluid for diagnostic purposes is called A) pneumotachometry. B) pneumothorax. C) spirometry. D) thoracentesis. E) amniocentesis.
thoracentesis
(15.2) Which of the following forms much of the anterior and lateral surfaces of the larynx, and often contains an "Adam's apple"? A) arytenoid cartilage B) thyroid cartilage C) cuneiform cartilage D) corniculate cartilage E) cricoid cartilage
thyroid cartilage
(15.5) When at rest, the amount of air that enters and leaves the lungs in a normal respiratory cycle is the A) total lung capacity. B) vital capacity. C) tidal volume. D) residual volume. E) inspiratory volume.
tidal volume
(15.1) Label G represents which structure(s)? A) larynx B) trachea C) pharynx D) bronchus E) bronchioles
trachea
(15.2) The ends of each tracheal cartilage are connected by an elastic ligament and the A) cuneiform cartilages. B) diaphragm. C) arytenoid cartilages. D) pleura. E) trachealis muscle.
trachealis muscle
(15.2) In this procedure, an incision is made through the anterior tracheal wall and a tube is inserted. A) tracheostomy B) Heimlich maneuver C) bronchoscopy D) laryngectomy E) intubation
tracheostomy
(8.2) Bundles of CNS axons that share a common origin, destination, and function are called A) the cortex. B) centers. C) nuclei. D) tracts. E) ganglia
tracts
(15.7) Most of the carbon dioxide transported by the blood (approximately 70%) is A) dissolved in plasma. B) bound to hemoglobin. C) transported as bicarbonate ions in the plasma. D) bound to the same protein as carbon dioxide. E) carried by white blood cells.
transported as bicarbonate ions in the plasma
