Biochemistry Final

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Compounds that contain a nitrogenous base, a sugar, and a phosphate group are called (a)_________________. Two purines found in DNA are (b)______________ and __________________. A pyrimidine found in all DNA but in only some RNA is (c)_________________. In DNA, the base pair (d)___-___ is held together by three hydrogen bonds; the base pair (e)___-___ has only two such bonds.

(a) nucleotides; (b) adenine and guanine; (c) thymidine; (d) G-C; (e) A-T

Describe three factors that contribute to the high degree of sensitivity of signal transduction systems.

(a) the high affinity of receptors for signal molecules; (b) cooperative binding of signal molecules to receptors; (c) signal amplification by enzyme cascades.

Phenyl-methane-sulfonyl-fluoride (PMSF) inactivates serine proteases by binding covalently to the catalytic serine residue at the active site; this enzyme-inhibitor bond is not cleaved by the enzyme. This is an example of what kind of inhibition? A) irreversible B) competitive C) non-competitive D) mixed E) pH inhibition

A) irreversible

The double-reciprocal transformation of the Michaelis-Menten equation, also called the Lineweaver-Burk plot, is given by 1/V0 = Km /(Vmax[S]) + 1/Vmax. To determine Km from a double-reciprocal plot, you would: A) multiply the reciprocal of the x-axis intercept by −1. B) multiply the reciprocal of the y-axis intercept by −1. C) take the reciprocal of the x-axis intercept. D) take the reciprocal of the y-axis intercept. E) take the x-axis intercept where V0 = 1/2 Vmax.

A) multiply the reciprocal of the x-axis intercept by −1.

simple diffusion

A- net movement of an electrically neutral solute is toward the lower concentration

Why are chitin and cellulose hydrophobic, and essentially insoluble in an aqueous media?

A. Because beta-glycosidic linkages are nonpolar and alpha linkages are polar.

From the abbreviated name of the compound Gal(B1->4)Glc, we know that: A. C-4 of glucose is joined to C-1 of galactose by a glycosidic bond. B. The compound is a D-enantiomer C. The galactose residue is at the reducing end D. The glucose is in its pyranose form E. The glucose residue is the B anomer

A. C-4 of glucose is joined to C-1 of galactose by a glycosidic bond

Which group of carbohydrates is unique in that its members are strong anions, containing a significant concentration of carbohydrates and sulfate?

A. Glycoaminoglycans

What term is given to carbohydrates linked at their anomeric carbons? A. Non-reducing sugars B. Glycosides C. Glycans D. Anomers E. Hemiketals

A. Non-reducing sugars

Sanger sequencing was performed on a long sequence of DNA from chloroplasts of a new plant species discovered in the rain forst of Puerto Rico. The X-ray film showed bands in the A, C, and T lanes, but the G lane was blank. What is the most likely explanation for this unexpected result? A. ddG was not added to the reaction tube B. Different template DNA was added to the reaction strand C. The template DNA contained no G D. All 4 ddNTPs were added to that tube E. The template DNA contained no C

A. ddG was not added to the reaction tube

ion transport

ATP is generated in mitochondria and chloroplasts by a mechanism that is essentially _______ __________

How are receptor tyrosine kinases related to cancer?

Abnormal functioning of receptor tyrosine kinases (RTKs) is associated with many types of cancers. For example, patients with breast cancer cells that have excessive levels of a receptor tyrosine kinase called HER2 have a poor prognosis. Using molecular biological techniques, researchers have developed a protein called Herceptin that binds to HER2 on cells and inhibits their growth, thus thwarting further tumor development. (Awesome.) In some clinical studies, treatment with Herceptin improved patient survival rates by more than one-third. One goal of ongoing research into these cell-surface receptors and other cell-signaling proteins is development of additional successful treatments.

irreversible inhibitor

Acetylcholinesterase is an important enzyme in the nervous system. Acetylcholinesterase activity is blocked by the nerve agent sarin gas, which forms a covalent bond with a Ser in the active site of the enzyme. Sarin gas is a(n) a. allosteric effector. b. competitive inhibitor. c. reversible inhibitor. d. irreversible inhibitor.

few GPCRs

Activation of a few ________ leads to the activation of few adenylyl cyclase enzymes

Compare and contrast the modes of action of epinephrine, acting through the β-adrenergic receptor, and of insulin, acting through the insulin receptor.

Adrenergic receptor: Indirectly activates a catalyst (adenylate cyclase), which produces a second messenger (cAMP). Insulin receptor: is itself a catalyst when occupied with insulin; its tyrosine kinase activity phosphorylates and activates another protein kinase, which initiates a cascade of phosphorylations of other proteins.

What is the advantage and disadvantage of direct regulation of transcription by hormones

Advantage: >> immediate physiological response Disadvantage: << amplified signal No GPCR involvement

van der Waals

All of the following are common catalytic reaction mechanisms in enzyme active sites EXCEPT __________ catalysis. a. acid-base b. covalent c. metal ion d. van der Waals

lowering; transition state

An enzyme can increase the rate of a reaction inside a cell by __________ the energy of the __________. a. lowering; transition state b. increasing; product c. lowering; substrate d. increasing; transition state

ANS: The enzyme follows the induced-fit model of enzyme catalysis. Adding the substrate caused the enzyme to change conformation, which caused the crystal to shatter.

An enzyme is crystallized in preparation for X-ray crystallography. The crystal is then soaked in a solution of substrate and the crystal shatters. Propose a reason for this result.

oxidoreductases

An enzyme that requires the coenzyme nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide belongs to which enzyme class? a. transferases b. isomerases c. ligases d. oxidoreductases

Tyr → Phe

An enzyme undergoes a mutation that causes it to lose the ability to be regulated via phosphorylation. Which of the following mutations may lead to this loss of regulation? Assume that the overall structure is not altered by the mutation. a. Ser→Thr b. Thr→Ser c. Tyr → Phe d. Ser→Tyr

A chemical group within the enzyme that has a pKa of around 7 is likely involved in the catalytic mechanism.

An experiment is performed in which the kinetics of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction at different pHs is monitored. It is found that the Km does not change but that the kcat increases as the pH goes above 7. Which of the following is true? a. A chemical group within the enzyme that has a pKa of around 7 is likely involved in the catalytic mechanism. b. A chemical group with a pKa of around 7 must be deprotonated in order for substrate to bind. c. A chemical group with a pKa of around 7 must be positively charged in order for the substrate to bind. d. Protons are acting as positive heterotropic allosteric effectors of this enzyme.

uncompetitive

An inhibitor that binds only to the ES complex and not free enzyme is known as a(n) __________ inhibitor. a. irreversible b. competitive c. uncompetitive d. mixed

What chemical features distinguish a plasmalogen from a common glycerophospholipid?

Ans: (1) The long-chain acyl group attached to C-1 of glycerol is ether-linked in a plasmalogen, but is an ester-linked fatty acyl group in typical glycerophospholipids. (2) There is a double bond between C-1 and C-2 of this fatty acyl chain in plasmalogens, but not in other phospholipids. (See Fig. 10-10, p. 351.)

Circle the fatty acid in each pair that has the higher melting temperature. (a) 18:19 18:29,12 (b) 18:0 18:19 (c) 18:0 16:0

Ans: (a) 18:19 (b) 18:0 (c) 18:0

In cells, fatty acids are stored as triacylglycerols for energy reserves. (a) What is the molecule to which fatty acids are esterified to form triacylglycerols? (b) Define the logic behind cells storing fatty acids in esterified form.

Ans: (a) Three fatty acids are esterified to glycerol. (b) Triacylglycerols are uncharged and insoluble in water. They form lipid droplets within adipocytes, which do not contribute to the osmolarity of the cytosol in those cells, and do not require any water of hydration.

What chemical features distinguish a cerebroside from a ganglioside?

Ans: A cerebroside has a single sugar residue joined to ceramide; a ganglioside has an oligosaccharide joined to ceramide. (See Fig. 10-13, p. 353.)

What are the chemical components of a biological wax, and what is their general structure?

Ans: A wax consists of a long-chain fatty acid in ester linkage with a long-chain fatty alcohol. (See Fig. 10-5, p. 348.)

In one sentence, identify the most obvious structural difference between A-form (Watson-Crick) DNA and Z-form DNA.

Ans: A-form DNA is a right-handed helix; Z-form DNA is a left-handed helix.

Show the basic structure of all glycerophospholipids.

Ans: All glycerophospholipids have two fatty acids in ester linkage with C-1 and C-2 of glycerol; often the fatty acid at C-1 is saturated, and that at C-2 is unsaturated. C-3 of glycerol is joined to an alcohol-containing head group through a phosphodiester linkage, which is negatively charged at neutral pH. (See Fig. 10-9, p. 351.)

Describe the dependence of the melting point of a fatty acid upon (a) chain length and (b) unsaturation; (c) explain these dependencies in molecular terms.

Ans: All other things being equal, (a) the longer the acyl chain, the higher the melting temperature; and (b) the more unsaturation, the lower the melting temperature. (c) The melting temperature is a measure of the thermal energy needed to break the intermolecular interactions that stabilize the "solid" form of a lipid, which depends upon how well the individual lipid molecules fit into the nearly crystalline array of lipids. When a shorter acyl chain lies between two longer chains in a nearly crystalline array of lipid molecules, there is a cavity at the end of the short acyl group that allows freer motion to the neighboring acyl chains. A cis double bond introduces a "kink" into the acyl chain, so that it does not pack as easily with its straighter neighbors.

Write a double-stranded DNA sequence containing a six-nucleotide palindrome.

Ans: Any double-stranded sequence that has the form: 1-2-3-4-5-6-6'-5'-4'-3'-2'-1' 1'-2'-3'-4'-5'-6'-6-5-4-3-2-1 where each number and its prime represent correctly paired bases (A with T, C with G) all along the double-stranded molecule.

How are a nucleoside and a nucleotide similar and how are they different?

Ans: Both have a nitrogenous base and a pentose; nucleotides also have a phosphate group, which nucleosides lack.

Draw the structure of phosphatidylserine in the ionic form it would have at pH 7.

Ans: For this structure, see Fig. 10-8, p. 350. At neutral pH, there is a charge on the phosphate group, and serine is in the zwitterionic form; it has a protonated amino group and an ionized carboxyl group.

Draw the structure of phosphatidylcholine. Circle the part of the molecule that is polar and draw an arrow to the part that is nonpolar.

Ans: For this structure, see Fig. 10-9, p. 351. At neutral pH, there is a negative charge on the phosphate group, and the quaternary amino group of choline carries a fixed positive charge; this entire phosphorylcholine moiety is polar. The acyl chains attached to glycerol are the nonpolar part of the molecule.

Describe briefly how noncovalent interactions contribute to the three-dimensional shapes of RNA molecules.

Ans: Hydrogen-bonding in regions of complementarity within an RNA chain can result in regions of double helix that are stabilized by base-stacking. Breaks in complementary regions can result in loops and bulges that together with the helical regions, can generate a precise three-dimensional structure.

If beeswax, cholesterol, and phosphatidylglycerol were dissolved in chloroform, then subjected to thin-layer chromatography on silica gel using a mixture of chloroform/methanol/water as the developing solvent, which would move fastest?

Ans: In this chromatography, the least polar compound (beeswax) moves fastest and the most polar (phosphatidylglycerol, which has a negative charge on its head group) moves the slowest. (See Fig. 10-24, p. 364.)

Match each of these vitamins with its biological role: Vitamins A, D, E, K. ____ blood clotting ____ vision ____ Ca2+ and phosphate metabolism ____ prevention of oxidative damage

Ans: K; A; D; E

Explain why extraction of lipids from tissues requires organic solvents.

Ans: Lipids are either strongly hydrophobic or amphipathic. Because the solvent in tissues is water, lipids are mainly present in aggregates. This aggregation does not occur in organic solvents; as a result, the lipids are more soluble and thus extractable from the tissues.

What is the effect of a double bond on fatty acid structure?

Ans: Most double bonds in fatty acids are in the cis configuration. This results in a rigid bend in the hydrocarbon chain. (See Fig. 10-1, p. 345.)

Give the structure of phosphatidylethanolamine containing one palmitate and one oleate. Show the ionic form expected at pH 7. How many ester bonds are there in this compound?

Ans: See Fig. 10-9, p. 351 for the phospholipid structure and Table 10-1, p. 344 for the structures of the fatty acids. There are two carboxylate esters and two phosphate esters (one phosphodiester) in the molecule.

Describe briefly what is meant by saying that two DNA strands are complementary.

Ans: The nucleotide sequences of complementary strands are such that wherever an A occurs in one strand, there is a T in the other strand with which it can form a hydrogen-bonded base pair. Wherever a C occurs in one strand, a G occurs in the other. A is the base complementary to T, and C is the base complementary to G.

Show the structure of isoprene; explain what is meant by isoprenoid compounds and give an example.

Ans: The structure is shown on page 361. Isoprenoid compounds contain chains that consist of multiple isoprene units. (See Fig. 10-22, p. 362, for examples.)

Show the structure of sphingosine and indicate the relationship between sphingosine and ceramide.

Ans: The structure of sphingosine is shown in Fig. 10-13, p. 353, which also shows that the attachment of a fatty acyl group to sphingosine in amide linkage converts it to ceramide.

Describe the differences between the glycosphingolipids corresponding to the A, B and O human blood group antigens.

Ans: The type O structure is found in all three glycosphingolipids. In both type A and type B, there is an added sugar; this sugar differs between type A and B.

Explain the cause of hereditary diseases of sphingolipid metabolism, such as Tay-Sachs and Niemann-Pick diseases.

Ans: These diseases are the result of mutations in the genes that code for enzymes of sphingolipid breakdown. The mutant enzyme is defective and unable to catalyze its reaction in the metabolic pathway; this results in the accumulation of the metabolic intermediate that is the substrate for the enzyme. (See Box 10-2, p. 356.)

What do all these compounds have in common: vitamin A, vitamin K, ubiquinone, and dolichol?

Ans: They are all lipids with potent biological activities derived from isoprenoid precursors.

What is the most significant chemical difference between triacylglycerols and glycerophospholipids that leads to their different functions?

Ans: Triacylglycerols are nonpolar hydrophobic molecules that can be stored in specialized nonaqueous cellular compartments. Glycerophospholipids are amphipathic molecules that can serve as structural components of membranes, which have hydrophilic and hydrophobic regions.

Describe three functions of triacylglycerols in mammals and one function in higher plants.

Ans: Triacylglycerols provide mammals with (1) stored fuel, (2) insulation, and (3) a source of metabolic water. In some animals, such as camels and desert rats, the oxidation of stored lipids provides water; in hibernating animals, oxidation of stored lipids generates heat to maintain body temperature (see Chapter 4). In plants, oxidation of the triacylglycerols stored in seeds provides the energy and precursors for biosynthetic processes during germination, before photosynthetic mechanisms become functional.

Match the type of bond with the role below: Bond_type Role (a) phosphodiester ___ links base to pentose in nucleotide (b) N-glycosidic ___ joins adjacent nucleotides in one strand (c) phosphate ester ___ joins complementary nucleotides in two strands (d) hydrogen ___ difference between a nucleoside and a nucleotide

Ans: b; a; d; c

Match the compounds on the left with the important roles they play listed on the right. (Answers are used only once.) (a) prostaglandins ___ blood clotting (b) sphingolipids ___ necessary for sight (c) thromboxanes ___ mediates pain and inflammation (d) vitamin A ___ important component of myelin membranes

Ans: c; d; a; b

Cotransport that moves two compounds in the opposite direction

Antiport

65) Lipid-soluble signal molecules, such as testosterone, cross the membranes of all cells but affect only target cells because A) only target cells retain the appropriate DNA segments. B) intracellular receptors are present only in target cells. C) most cells lack the Y chromosome required. D) only target cells possess the cytosolic enzymes that transduce the testosterone. E) only in target cells is testosterone able to initiate the phosphorylation cascade leading to activated transcription factor.

B

A compound containing N-acetylneuraminic acid (sialic acid) is: A) cardiolipin. B) ganglioside GM2. C) phosphatidylcholine. D) platelet-activating factor. E) sphingomyelin.

B

Biological waxes are all: A) trimesters of glycerol and palmitic acid. B) esters of single fatty acids with long-chain alcohols. C) trimesters of glycerol and three long chain saturated fatty acids. D) sphingolipids. E) none of the above.

B

Consider the transport of glucose into an erythrocyte by facilitated diffusion. When the glucose concentrations are 5 mM on the outside and 0.1 mM on the inside, the free-energy change for glucose uptake into the cell is: (These values may be of use to you: R = 8.315 J/mol•K; T = 298 K; 9 (Faraday constant) = 96,480 J/V; N = 6.022 1023/mol.) A) less than 2 kJ/mol. B) about 10 kJ/mol. C) about 30 kJ/mol. D) about -30 kJoule/mol. E) impossible to calculate without knowledge of the membrane potential.

B

Fatty acids are a component of: A) carotenes. B) cerebrosides. C) sterols. D) vitamin D. E) vitamin K.

B

For the process of solute transport, the constant Kt is: A) analogous to Ka for ionization of a weak acid. B) analogous to Km for an enzyme-catalyzed reaction. C) analogous to Vmax for an enzyme reaction D) proportional to the number of molecules of glucose transporter per cell. E) the maximum rate of glucose transport.

B

In one catalytic cycle, the Na+/K+ ATPase transporter transports: A) 2 Na+ out, 3 K+ in, and converts 1 ATP to ADP + Pi. B) 3 Na+ out, 2 K+ in, and converts 1 ATP to ADP + Pi. C) 3 Na+ in, 2 K+ out, and converts 1 ATP to ADP + Pi. D) 1 Na+ out, 1 K+ in, and converts 1 ATP to ADP + Pi. E) 2 Na+ out, 3 K+ in, and converts 1 ADP + Pi to ATP.

B

L-selectin is a leukocyte adhesion protein that specifically binds carbohydrate on its extracellular N-terminus. It crosses the plasma membrane once, and the internal carboxyl tail is thought to stimulate secretion. What is the best characterization of this protein? A. Type III membrane protein, integral B. Type I membrane protein, transmembrane C. Type IV membrane protein, integral D. Type II membrane protein, transmembrane ​ E. Type II membrane protein, peripheral

B

Lipid storage diseases are the result of alterations of what chemical group on membrane lipids? A. Fatty acids B. Carbohydrate C. Sphingosine D. Peptide E. Glycerol

B

Movement of water across membranes is facilitated by proteins called: A) annexins. B) aquaporins. C) hydropermeases. D) selectins. E) transportins.

B

Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS) like aspirin and ibuprofen act by blocking production of: A) biological waxes B) prostaglandins C) sphingolipids D) vitamin D E) none of the above

B

Nuclear magnetic resonance spectroscopy was performed on a derivative of cortisol, a steroid hormone. What structural feature was not observed in this molecule that would be present in sterols? A. Four six-membered rings in the nucleus rather than three. B. A carbonyl rather than a hydroxyl on the A-ring C. An alkyl chain on the D-ring D. Characteristic alcohol groups on each of the four rings E. An absence of polar groups

B

The shortest helix segment in a protein that will span a membrane bilayer has about _____ amino acid residues. A) 5 B) 20 C) 50 D) 100 E) 200

B

Which of the following is a useful consequence of the action of a Na+/K+ ATPase in the plasma membrane? A. Depletes cells of Na+, which can be harmful B. Membrane repolarization C. Draws K+ into cells, contributing to buffering capacity D. Maintains charge equilibrium across the membrane E. Promotes the movement of water into cells

B

Which of the following is not a fat-soluble vitamin? A) A B) C C) D D) E E) K

B

Which of the following is not true of sterols? A) Cholesterol is a sterol that is commonly found in mammals. B) They are commonly found in bacterial membranes. C) They are more common in plasma membranes than in intracellular membranes (mitochondria, lysosomes, etc.). D) They are precursors of steroid hormones. E) They have a structure that includes four fused rings.

B

Which of the following molecules in signaling is not considered a second messenger? A. Calcium ​B. GTP ​C. Inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate ​D. Diacylglycerol ​E. Cyclic AMP

B

Which of the following signaling systems actually moves a molecule across the plasma membrane, as opposed to only a conformational change in the receptor? ​A. G-protein coupled receptors ​B. Steroid hormone receptors ​C. Guanylyl cyclases ​D. Tyrosine kinase receptors ​E. Adhesion receptors

B

Which of the following statements is true of lipids? A) Many contain fatty acids in ester or amide linkage. B) Most are simply polymers of isoprene. C) Testosterone is an important sphingolipid found in myelin. D) They are more soluble in water than in chloroform. E) They play only passive roles as energy-storage molecules.

B

6) Which of the following is true of synaptic signaling and hormonal signaling? A) Hormonal signaling occurs in animals only. B) Hormonal signaling is important between cells that are at greater distances apart than in synaptic signaling. C) Both act on target cells by a G-protein-signaling pathway. D) Only A and B are true. E) A , B, and C are true.

B Topic: Concept 11.1 Skill: Comprehension

1) In yeast (Saccharomyces cerevisiae), the two sexes are called A) S plus and S minus. B) a and α. C) a and b. D) b and β. E) male and female.

B Topic: Concept 11.1 Skill: Knowledge

3) Which of the following is true of the mating signal transduction pathway in yeast? A) The pathway carries an electrical signal between mating cell types. B) Mating type a secretes a signal called a factor. C) The molecular details of the pathway in yeast and in animals are very different. D) Scientists think the pathway evolved long after multicellular creatures appeared on Earth. E) The signal reception, transduction, and response occur in the nucleus.

B Topic: Concept 11.1 Skill: Knowledge

8) From the perspective of the cell receiving the message, the three stages of cell signaling are A) the paracrine, local, and synaptic stages. B) signal reception, signal transduction, and cellular response. C) signal reception, nucleus disintegration, and new cell generation. D) the alpha, beta, and gamma stages. E) signal reception, cellular response, and cell division.

B Topic: Concept 11.1 Skill: Knowledge

9) The process of transduction usually begins A) when the chemical signal is released from the alpha cell. B) when the signal molecule changes the receptor protein in some way. C) after the target cell divides. D) after the third stage of cell signaling is completed. E) when the hormone is released from the gland into the blood.

B Topic: Concept 11.1 Skill: Knowledge

23) Testosterone functions inside a cell by A) acting as a signal receptor that activates ion-channel proteins. B) binding with a receptor protein that enters the nucleus and activates specific genes. C) acting as a steroid signal receptor that activates ion-channel proteins. D) becoming a second messenger that inhibits adenylyl cyclase. E) coordinating a phosphorylation cascade that increases glycogen metabolism.

B Topic: Concept 11.2 Skill: Comprehension

12) A small molecule that specifically binds to another molecule, usually a larger one A) is called a signal transducer. B) is called a ligand. C) is called a polymer. D) seldom is involved in hormonal signaling. E) usually terminates a signal reception.

B Topic: Concept 11.2 Skill: Knowledge

20) Membrane receptors that attach phosphates to specific animo acids in proteins are A) not found in humans. B) called receptor tyrosine-kinases. C) a class of GTP G-protein signal receptors. D) associated with several bacterial diseases in humans. E) important in yeast mating factors that contain amino acids.

B Topic: Concept 11.2 Skill: Knowledge

49) Which of the following is an incorrect association? A) kinase activity and the addition of a phosphate group B) phosphodiesterase activity and the removal of phosphate groups C) GTPase activity and hydrolysis of GTP to GDP D) phosphorylase activity and the catabolism of glycogen E) adenylyl cyclase activity and the conversion of AMP to cAMP

B Topic: Concept 11.3 Skill: Application

28) Which of the following is (are) true regarding the activity of a protein regulated by phosphorylation? A) It depends mostly on the concentration of inorganic phosphate inside the cell. B) It depends on the balance in the cell between active kinase and active phosphatase molecules. C) It is dependent on the site of attachment of the protein to the plasma membrane. D) Only A and B are true. E) A, B, and C are true.

B Topic: Concept 11.3 Skill: Comprehension

48) Which of the following statements is incorrect? A) When signal molecules bind to receptor tyrosine kinases, the receptors phosphorylate themselves. B) In response to some G-protein-mediated signals, a special type of lipid molecule associated with the plasma membrane is cleaved to form IP3and calcium. C) In most cases, signal molecules interact with the cell at the plasma membrane and never actually enter the cell. D) Toxins such as those that cause botulism and cholera interfere with the ability of activated G proteins to hydrolyze GTP to GDP, resulting in adenylyl cyclase activity in the absence of an appropriate signal molecule. E) Protein kinase A activation is one possible result of signal molecules binding to G-protein-linked receptors.

B Topic: Concept 11.3 Skill: Comprehension

33) Which of the following is not considered a second messenger? A) cAMP B) GTP C) calcium ions D) diacylglycerol (DAG) E) inositol trisphosphate (IP3)

B Topic: Concept 11.3 Skill: Knowledge

Which of the following deoxyoligonucleotides will hybridize with a DNA containing the sequence (5')AGACTGGTC(3')? A) (5')CTCATTGAG(3') B) (5')GACCAGTCT(3') C) (5')GAGTCAACT(3') D) (5')TCTGACCAG(3') E) (5')TCTGGATCT(3')

B) (5')GACCAGTCT(3')

A novel subclass of thromboxane was discovered in lipids isolated from a newly discovered poison dart from the Amazon valley. What unique structural feature is likely present in these lipids? A) Four conjugated double bonds B) A six membered ring C) A long-chain alcohol bound to a double-ring D) A five membered ring E) An amido group

B) A six membered ring

Which of the following statements about a plot of V0 vs. [S] for an enzyme that follows Michaelis-Menten kinetics is false? A) As [S] increases, the initial velocity of reaction V0 also increases. B) At very high [S], the velocity curve becomes a horizontal line that intersects the y-axis at Km. C) Km is the [S] at which V0 = 1/2 Vmax. D) The shape of the curve is a hyperbola. E) The y-axis is a rate term with units of μm/min.

B) At very high [S], the velocity curve becomes a horizontal line that intersects the y-axis at Km.

Lipid storage diseases are the result of alterations of what chemical group on membrane lipids? A) Fatty acids B) Carbohydrate C) Sphingosine D) Peptide E) Glycerol

B) Carbohydrate

D-Glucose is called a reducing sugar because it undergoes an oxidation-reduction reaction at the anomeric carbon. One of the products of this reaction is: A) D-galactose. B) D-gluconate. C) D-glucuronate. D) D-ribose. E) muramic acid.

B) D-gluconate.

D-Glucose is called a reducing sugar because it undergoes an oxidation-reduction reaction at the anomeric carbon. One of the products of this reaction is: A) D-galactose. B) D-gluconate. C) D-glucuronate. D) D-ribose. E) muramic acid.

B) D-gluconate.

D-Glucose is called a reducing sugar because it undergoes an oxidation-reduction reaction at the anomeric carbon. One of the products of this reaction is: A) D-galactose. B) D-gluconate. C) D-glucuronate. D) D-ribose. E) muramic acid.

B) D-gluconate.

Which of the following is an epimeric pair? A) D-glucose and D-glucosamine B) D-glucose and D-mannose C) D-glucose and L-glucose D) D-lactose and D-sucrose E) L-mannose and L-fructose

B) D-glucose and D-mannose

Which of the following is an epimeric pair? A) D-glucose and D-glucosamine B) D-glucose and D-mannose C) D-glucose and L-glucose D) D-lactose and D-sucrose E) L-mannose and L-fructose

B) D-glucose and D-mannose

Which of the following is an epimeric pair? A) D-glucose and D-glucosamine B) D-glucose and D-mannose C) D-glucose and L-glucose D) D-lactose and D-sucrose E) L-mannose and L-fructose

B) D-glucose and D-mannose

Which of the following should be considered when looking for a way to increase an enzyme reaction rate? A) Decreasing Ka B) Decreasing Kd between the substrate and enzyme C) Decreasing pO2 D) Increasing Kw E) Any change in nH

B) Decreasing Kd between the substrate and enzyme

Sephadex is a commercially produced branched homopolysaccharide. It contains alpha-glycosidic linkages at carbons 2, 3, 4, and 6. The degree of cross-linking those carbons can be controlled, yielding holes within the molecule of known size. What method can use such a molecule? A) SDS-PAGE B) Gel exclusion chromatography C) Differential centrifugation D) Tandem mass spectroscopy E) Ion exchange chromatography

B) Gel exclusion chromatography ****Based on size

An enzyme accepts H+ from hydronium and transfers it to an amine group of the substrate. The result is an increase in the rate of release of the product. This is an example of which of the following? A) Induced fit B) General acid catalysis C) Covalent catalysis D) Entropy reduction E) Specific acid catalysis

B) General acid catalysis

In a plot of 1/V against 1/[S] for an enzyme-catalyzed reaction, the presence of a competitive inhibitor will alter the: A) Curvature of the plot B) Intercept of the 1/[S] axis C) Intercept on the 1/V axis D) pK of the plot E) Vmax

B) Intercept of the 1/[S] axis

What function is served by the major groove in DNA?

B) It is a binding site for regulatory proteins

Which of the following is true of the binding energy derived from enzyme-substrate interactions? A) It cannot provide enough energy to explain the large rate accelerations brought about by enzymes. B) It is sometimes used to hold two substrates in the optimal orientation for reaction. C) It is the result of covalent bonds formed between enzyme and substrate. D) Most of it is derived from covalent bonds between enzyme and substrate. E) Most of it is used up simply binding the substrate to the enzyme.

B) It is sometimes used to hold two substrates in the optimal orientation for reaction

A laboratory is studying the binding properties of a glycoprotein on the plasma membrane. What amino acids should they analyze for the presence of branched heteropolysaccharides? A) Ser, Thr, and Tyr B) Ser, Thr, and Asn C) Trp, Tyr, and Asn D) Asp and Glu E) Lys, His, and Arg

B) Ser, Thr, and Asn

When double-stranded DNA is heated at neutral pH, which change does not occur? A) The absorption of ultraviolet (260 nm) light increases. B) The covalent N-glycosidic bond between the base and the pentose breaks. C) The helical structure unwinds. D) The hydrogen bonds between A and T break. E) The viscosity of the solution decreases.

B) The covalent N-glycosidic bond between the base and the pentose breaks.

What chemical feature determines if a sugar is an aldose or a ketose?

B) The position of the carbonyl carbon

Which of the following statements concerning receptor enzymes is correct? A) They are not usually membrane-associated proteins. B) They contain an enzyme activity that acts upon a cytosolic substrate. C) They contain an enzyme activity that acts upon the extracellular ligand. D) They have a ligand-binding site on the cytosolic side of the membrane. E) They have an active site on the extracellular side of the membrane.

B) They contain an enzyme activity that acts upon a cytosolic substrate.

Enzyme X exhibits maximum activity at pH = 6.9. X shows a fairly sharp decrease in its activity when the pH goes much lower than 6.4. One likely interpretation of this pH activity is that: A) a Glu residue on the enzyme is involved in the reaction. B) a His residue on the enzyme is involved in the reaction. C) the enzyme has a metallic cofactor. D) the enzyme is found in gastric secretions. E) the reaction relies on specific acid-base catalysis.

B) a His residue on the enzyme is involved in the reaction

A good transition-state analog: A) binds covalently to the enzyme. B) binds to the enzyme more tightly than the substrate. C) binds very weakly to the enzyme. D) is too unstable to isolate. E) must be almost identical to the substrate.

B) binds to the enzyme more tightly than the substrate.

Steroid hormones are carried on specific carrier proteins because the hormones: A) are too unstable to survive in the blood on their own. B) cannot dissolve readily in the blood because they are too hydrophobic. C) cannot find their target cells without them. D) need them in order to pass through the plasma membrane. E) require subsequent binding to specific receptor proteins in the nucleus.

B) cannot dissolve readily in the blood because they are too hydrophobic.

The benefit of measuring the initial rate of a reaction V0 is that at the beginning of a reaction: A) [ES] can be measured accurately. B) changes in [S] are negligible, so [S] can be treated as a constant. C) changes in Km are negligible, so Km can be treated as a constant. D) V0 = Vmax. E) varying [S] has no effect on V0.

B) changes in [S] are negligible, so [S] can be treated as a constant.

Compounds that generate nitrous acid (such as nitrites, nitrates, and nitrosamines) change DNA molecules by: A) breakage of phosphodiester bonds. B) deamination of bases. C) depurination. D) formation of thymine dimers. E) transformation of A to T.

B) deamination of bases.

Enzymes differ from other catalysts in that only enzymes: A) are not consumed in the reaction. B) display specificity toward a single reactant. C) fail to influence the equilibrium point of the reaction. D) form an activated complex with the reactants. E) lower the activation energy of the reaction catalyzed.

B) display specificity toward a single reactant

Which of the following monosaccharides is not an aldose? A) erythrose B) fructose C) glucose D) glyceraldehyde E) ribose

B) fructose

Which of the following monosaccharides is not an aldose? A) erythrose B) fructose C) glucose D) glyceraldehyde E) ribose

B) fructose

Which of the following monosaccharides is not an aldose? A) erythrose B) fructose C) glucose D) glyceraldehyde E) ribose

B) fructose

The experiment of Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty in which nonvirulent bacteria were made virulent by transformation was significant because it showed that: A) bacteria can undergo transformation. B) genes are composed of DNA only. C) mice are more susceptible to pneumonia than are humans. D) pneumonia can be cured by transformation. E) virulence is determine genetically.

B) genes are composed of DNA only.

The basic structure of a proteoglycan consists of a core protein and a: A) glycolipid. B) glycosaminoglycan. C) lectin. D) lipopolysaccharide. E) peptidoglycan.

B) glycosaminoglycan.

The basic structure of a proteoglycan consists of a core protein and a: A) glycolipid. B) glycosaminoglycan. C) lectin. D) lipopolysaccharide. E) peptidoglycan.

B) glycosaminoglycan.

The basic structure of a proteoglycan consists of a core protein and a: A) glycolipid. B) glycosaminoglycan. C) lectin. D) lipopolysaccharide. E) peptidoglycan.

B) glycosaminoglycan.

In a double-stranded nucleic acid, cytosine typically base-pairs with: A) adenosine. B) guanine. C) inosine. D) thymine. E) uracil.

B) guanine

The DNA oligonucleotide abbreviated pATCGAC: A) has 7 phosphate groups. B) has a hydroxyl at its 3'end. C) has a phosphate on its 3' end. D) has an A at its 3' end. E) violates Chargaff's rules.

B) has a hydroxyl at its 3'end.

In a plot of l/V against 1/[S] for an enzyme-catalyzed reaction, the presence of a competitive inhibitor will alter the: A) curvature of the plot. B) intercept on the l/[S] axis. C) intercept on the l/V axis. D) pK of the plot. E) Vmax.

B) intercept on the l/[S] axis.

The ion channel that opens in response to acetylcholine is an example of a ____________ signal transduction system. A) G protein B) ligand-gated C) receptor-enzyme D) serpentine receptor E) voltage-gated

B) ligand-gated

Most transduction systems for hormones and sensory stimuli that involve trimeric G proteins have all of the following in common except: A) cyclic nucleotides. B) nuclear receptors. C) receptors that interact with a G protein. D) receptors with multiple transmembrane segments. E) self-inactivation.

B) nuclear receptors.

The force that drives an ion through a membrane channel depends upon: A) the charge on the membrane. B) the difference in electrical potential across the membrane. C) the size of the channel. D) the size of the ion. E) the size of the membrane.

B) the difference in electrical potential across the membrane.

Both water and glucose share an —OH that can serve as a substrate for a reaction with the terminal phosphate of ATP catalyzed by hexokinase. Glucose, however, is about a million times more reactive as a substrate than water. The best explanation is that: A) glucose has more —OH groups per molecule than does water. B) the larger glucose binds better to the enzyme; it induces a conformational change in hexokinase that brings active-site amino acids into position for catalysis. C) the —OH group of water is attached to an inhibitory H atom, while the glucose —OH group is attached to C. D) water and the second substrate, ATP, compete for the active site resulting in a competitive inhibition of the enzyme. E) water normally will not reach the active site because it is hydrophobic.

B) the larger glucose binds better to the enzyme; it induces a conformational change in hexokinase that brings active-site amino acids into position for catalysis.

The G-protein involved in visual signal transduction is: A) a leukotriene. B) transducin. C) arrestin. D) rhodopsin. E) a GTP receptor.

B) transducin

Sephadex is a commercially produced branched homopolysaccharide. It contains alpha-glycosidic linkages at carbons 2, 3, 4, and 6. The degree of cross-linking at those carbons can be controlled, yielding holes within the molecule of known size. What method can use suck a molecule?

B. Gel exclusion chromatography

Which of the following is a useful consequence of the action of a Na+/K+ ATPase in the plasma membrane? A. Depletes cells of Na+, which can be harmful B. Membrane polarization C. Draws K+ into cells, contributing to buffering capacity D. Maintain charge equilibrium across the membrane E. Promotes movement of water into cells

B. Membrane polarization

Of these 4 fatty acids, which one has the HIGHEST melting point? Why? 12:0 Lauric acid 14:0 Myristic acid 16:0 Palmitic acid 18:0 Stearic acid A. Lauric; due to a higher degree of van der Waals and hydrophobic interactions B. Stearic; due to its 18 double bonds C. Lauric; due to its 12 double bonds D. Stearic, due to a higher degree of van der Waals and hydrophobic interactions E. Myristic; due to closer packing

B. Stearic; due to its 18 double bonds

What chemical feature determines if a sugar is an aldose or a ketose? A. The direction of rotation of polarized light B. The position of the carbonyl carbon C. If the enantiomers resemble glyceraldehyde D. If the epimers differ around configuration around 1 carbon atom E. Contains one carbon or more than one carbon

B. The position of the carbonyl carbon

What chemical feature determines if a sugar is an aldose or a ketose? A. The direction of rotation of polarized light B. The position of the carbonyl carbon C. The number of chiral carbons D. If the enantiomers resemble either glyceraldehyde or dihydroxyacetone E, If the epimers differ in configuration around one carbon or more than one carbon

B. The position of the carbonyl carbon

L-selectin is a leukocyte adhesion protein that specifically binds carbohydrate on its extracellular N-terminus. It crosses the plasma membrane once, and the internal carboxyl tail is thought to stimulate secretion. What is the best characterization of this protein? A. Type III membrane protein, integral B. Type I membrane protein, transmembrane C. Type IV membrane protein, integral D. Type II membrane protein, transmembrane E. Type II membrane protein, peripheral

B. Type I membrane protein, transmembrane

The DNA oligonucleotide abbreviated pATCGAC: A. has seven phosphate groups B. has a hydroxyl at its 3' end C. has a phosphate on its 3' end D. has an A at its 3' end E. violates Chargaff's rule

B. has a hydroxyl at its 3' end

anitporter

Bicarbonate transporter is an ______________

How is a ligand binding similar to the process of allosteric regulation of enzymes?

Binding of a ligand to a receptor changes the shape of the receptor, altering the ability of the receptor to transmit a signal. Binding of an allosteric regulator to an enzyme changes the shape of the enzyme, either promoting or inhibiting enzyme activity.

Explain how the cytokine erythropoetin activates transcription of specific genes essential in blood maturation.

Binding of erythropoetin to its plasma membrane receptor causes the receptor to dimerize. The soluble cytoplasmic protein kinase JAK can now bind to receptor, become activated, and phosphorylate three tyrosine residues on the receptor, some of which in turn are bound by the STAT5 transcription factor, positioning it for phosphorylation by JAK. The phosphorylated STAT5 then dimerizes, facilitating its transport into the nucleus, where it activates transcription of specific genes essential in blood maturation.

Induced-fit

Binding of glucose to hexokinase causes a conformational change in the enzyme. This is an example of the __________ model of enzyme catalysis. a. substrate-induced b. lock and key c. induced-fit d. glove and hand

undergo a nucleophilic attack

Both the substrate and the tetrahedral intermediate, when associated with chymotrypsin, a. contain an oxyanion. b. interact with the oxyanion hole. c. undergo a nucleophilic attack. d. hydrogen bond to Asp102.

How do most intracellular receptors function?

By acting as a transcription factor, the testosterone receptor itself carries out the complete transduction of the signal. Most other intracellular receptors function in the same way, although many of them, such as the thyroid hormone receptor, are already in the nucleus before the signaling molecule reaches them. Interestingly, many of these intracellular receptor proteins are structurally similar, suggesting an evolutionary kinship.

61) Which of the following provides the best evidence that cell-signaling pathways evolved early in the history of life? A) They are seen in "primitive" cells such as yeast. B) Yeast cells signal each other for mating. C) Signal transduction molecules found in distantly related organisms are similar. D) Signals can be sent long distances by cells. E) Most signals are received by cell surface receptors.

C

62) Which observation suggested to Sutherland the involvement of a second messenger in epinephrine's effect on liver cells? A) Enzymatic activity was proportional to the amount of calcium added to a cell-free extract. B) Receptor studies indicated that epinephrine was a ligand. C) Glycogen breakdown was observed only when epinephrine was administered to intact cells. D) Glycogen breakdown was observed when epinephrine and glycogen phosphorylase were combined. E) Epinephrine was known to have different effects on different types of cells.

C

63) Protein phosphorylation is commonly involved with all of the following except A) regulation of transcription by extracellular signal molecules. B) enzyme activation. C) activation of G-protein-linked receptors. D) activation of receptor tyrosine kinases. E) activation of protein kinase molecules.

C

66) Signal transduction pathways benefit cells for all of the following reasons except A) they help cells respond to signal molecules that are too large or too polar to cross the plasma membrane. B) they enable different cells to respond appropriately to the same signal. C) they help cells use up phosphate generated by ATP breakdown. D) they can amplify a signal. E) variations in the signal transduction pathways can enhance response specificity.

C

A ligand-gated ion channel (such as the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor) is: A) a charged lipid in the membrane bilayer that allows ions to pass through. B) a membrane protein that permits a ligand to pass through the membrane only when opened by the appropriate ion. C) a membrane protein that permits an ion to pass through the membrane only when opened by the appropriate ligand. D) a molecule that binds to the membrane thereby allowing ions to pass through. E) always requires a second ligand to close the channel once it is opened.

C

A process not involving the fusion of two membranes or two regions of the same membrane is: A) endocytosis. B) entry of enveloped viruses into cells. C) entry of glucose into cells. D) exocytosis. E) reproductive budding in yeast

C

An example of a glycerophospholipid that is involved in cell signaling is: A) arachidonic acid. B) ceramide. C) phosphatidylinositol. D) testosterone. E) vitamin A (retinol).

C

An integral membrane protein can be extracted with: A) a buffer of alkaline or acid pH. B) a chelating agent that removes divalent cations. C) a solution containing detergent. D) a solution of high ionic strength. E) hot water.

C

How do both major classes of G-proteins become activated? A. GTP is hydrolyzed to GDP. B. GDP is phosphorylated. C. GDP leaves the G-proteins and GTP binds. D. GDP binds after the alpha subunit dissociates from the delta and gamma subunits. E. A conformational change causes the G-protein to adhere to the inner surface of the plasma membrane.

C

Integrins are: A) membrane proteins that are involved in ion transport. B) membrane proteins that are involved in sugar transport. C) membrane proteins that mediate cell adhesion. D) proteins of the extracellular matrix that bind to cell surface proteins. E) proteins that are found at the membrane-cytoplasm interface.

C

Micelles were constructed for delivery of a hydrophobic chemotherapeutic drug. What change would increase the diameter of the micelles? A. Use liposomes instead. B. Increase the concentration of cholesterol. C. Increase the length of the acyl chains used to make them. D. Increase the concentration of polyunsaturated fatty acids. E. Use lipids with head groups having greater polarity.

C

Self-Quiz Questions 58) Phosphorylation cascades involving a series of protein kinases are useful for cellular signal transduction because A) they are species specific. B) they always lead to the same cellular response. C) they amplify the original signal manyfold. D) they counter the harmful effects of phosphatases. E) the number of molecules used is small and fixed.

C

The fluidity of the lipid side chains in the interior of a bilayer is generally increased by: A) a decrease in temperature. B) an increase in fatty acyl chain length. C) an increase in the number of double bonds in fatty acids. D) an increase in the percentage of phosphatidyl ethanolamine E) the binding of water to the fatty acyl side chains.

C

The inner (plasma) membrane of E. coli is about 75% lipid and 25% protein by weight. How many molecules of membrane lipid are there for each molecule of protein? (Assume that the average protein is Mr 50,000 and the average lipid is 750.) A) 1 B) 50 C) 200 D) 10,000 E) 50,000

C

What sort of carbohydrate (below) is found on glycolipids, one of the glycoconjugates? A. Peptidoglycan B. Glycosaminoglycan C. Branched heteropolysaccharide D. Glycoside E. Lectin

C

When a bacterium such as E. coli is shifted from a warmer growth temperature to a cooler growth temperature, it compensates by: A) increasing its metabolic rate to generate more heat. B) putting longer-chain fatty acids into its membranes. C) putting more unsaturated fatty acids into its membranes. D) shifting from aerobic to anaerobic metabolism. E) synthesizing thicker membranes to insulate the cell.

C

Which of the following molecules is not typically highly enriched in microdomains (membrane rafts)? A. Sphingolipids B. Cholesterol C. Lipid-linked proteins containing myristoyl and lauroyl groups on the inner-membrane leaflet D. GPI-linked proteins E. Caveolin

C

Which of the following would decrease the transition temperature for a mixture of triglycerides and cholesterol? A. Add glycerophospholipids with two (18:0). B. Reduce cholesterol concentration. C. Add triglycerides with two (16:1) and one (21:2) fatty acids. D. Add diacylglyerols with fully saturated fatty acids. E. Add a low concentration of a wax.

C

Which of these statements about the composition of membranes is true? A) All biological membranes contain cholesterol. B) Free fatty acids are major components of all membranes. C) The inner and outer membranes of mitochondria have different protein compositions. D) The lipid composition of all membranes of eukaryotic cells is essentially the same. E) The lipid:protein ratio varies from about 1:4 to 4:1

C

Which one of the following statements about membranes is true? A) Most plasma membranes contain more than 70% proteins. B) Sterol lipids are common in bacterial plasma membranes. C) Sterol lipids are common in human cell plasma membranes. D) Sterol lipids are common in plant cell plasma membranes. E) The plasma membranes of all cell types within a particular organism have basically the same lipid and protein composition.

C

Which vitamin is derived from cholesterol? A) A B) B12 C) D D) E E) K

C

7) The old saying "one rotten apple spoils the whole barrel" is due to chemical signaling in plants via A) an increased uptake of carbon dioxide during respiration in target cells. B) a local regulator for apple development. C) release of ethylene gas, a plant hormone for ripening. D) an a/α cell signal system in the rotten apple. E) a signal transduction pathway involving glycogen phosphorylase.

C Topic: Concept 11.1 Skill: Comprehension

10) When a cell releases a signal molecule into the environment and a number of cells in the immediate vicinity respond, this type of signaling is A) typical of hormones. B) autocrine signaling. C) paracrine signaling. D) endocrine signaling. E) synaptic signaling.

C Topic: Concept 11.1 Skill: Knowledge

18) G proteins and G-protein-linked receptors A) are found only in animal cells. B) are found only in bacterial cells. C) are thought to have evolved very early, because of their similar structure and function in a wide variety of modern organisms whose common ancestors diverged billions of years ago. D) probably evolved from an adaptation of the citric acid cycle. E) are not widespread in nature and were unimportant in the evolution of eukaryotes.

C Topic: Concept 11.2 Skill: Knowledge

44) Caffeine is an inhibitor of phosphodiesterase. Therefore, the cells of a person who has recently consumed coffee would have increased levels of A) phosphorylated proteins. B) GTP. C) cAMP. D) adenylyl cyclase. E) activated G proteins.

C Topic: Concept 11.3 Skill: Application

34) Which of the following is the best explanation for the inability of an animal cell to reduce the Ca2+concentration in its cytosol compared with the extracellular fluid? A) blockage of the synaptic signal B) loss of transcription factors C) insufficient ATP levels in the cytoplasm D) low oxygen concentration around the cell E) low levels of protein kinase in the cell

C Topic: Concept 11.3 Skill: Comprehension

36) Which of the following is not true of cell communication systems? A) Cell signaling was an early event in the evolution of life. B) Communicating cells may be far apart or close together. C) Most signal receptors are bound to the outer membrane of the nuclear envelope. D) Protein phosphorylation is a major mechanism of signal transduction. E) In response to a signal, the cell may alter activities by changes in cytosol activity or in transcription of RNA.

C Topic: Concept 11.3 Skill: Comprehension

35) The general name for an enzyme that transfers phosphate groups from ATP to a protein is A) phosphorylase. B) phosphatase. C) protein kinase. D) ATPase. E) protease.

C Topic: Concept 11.3 Skill: Knowledge

38) Which of the following is not part of the phosphorylation cascade model? A) A signal molecule binds to a membrane receptor protein. B) Protein kinase is activated. C) GTP donates a phosphate group to an inactive protein kinase. D) A specific protein is activated via phosphorylation. E) A cellular response is initiated.

C Topic: Concept 11.3 Skill: Knowledge

43) Adenylyl cyclase has the opposite effect of which of the following? A) protein kinase B) protein phosphatase C) phosphodiesterase D) phosphorylase E) GTPase

C Topic: Concept 11.3 Skill: Knowledge

50) A drug designed to inhibit the response of cells to testosterone would almost certainly result in which of the following? A) lower cytoplasmic levels of cAMP B) an increase in receptor tyrosine kinase activity C) a decrease in transcriptional activity of certain genes D) an increase in cytosolic calcium concentration E) a decrease in G-protein activity

C Topic: Concept 11.4 Skill: Application

Which O-glycosidic bond is commonly found in amylose, amylopectin and glycogen? A) (Beta 1 --> 4) B) (Alpha 1 --> 6) C) (Alpha 1 --> 4) D) (Beta 1 --> 6) E) (Alpha 1 --> 3)

C) (Alpha 1 --> 4)

The following data were obtained in a study of an enzyme known to follow Michaelis-Menten kinetics: V0 Substrate added (μmol/min) (mmol/L) ————————————— 217 0.8 325 2 433 4 488 6 647 1,000 ————————————— The Km for this enzyme is approximately: A) 1 mM. B) 1,000 mM. C) 2 mM. D) 4 mM. E) 6 mM.

C) 2 mM.

An enzyme-catalyzed reaction was carried out with the substrate concentration initially a thousand times greater than the Km for that substrate. After 9 minutes, 1% of the substrate had been converted to product, and the amount of product formed in the reaction mixture was 12 μmol. If, in a separate experiment, one-third as much enzyme and twice as much substrate had been combined, how long would it take for the same amount (12 μmol) of product to be formed? A) 1.5 min B) 13.5 min C) 27 min D) 3 min E) 6 min

C) 27 min

Which of the following would DECREASE the transition temperature for a mixture of triglycerides and cholesterol?

C) Add triglycerides with two(16:1) and one (21:2) fatty acids.

Nuclear magnetic resonance spectroscopy was performed on a derivative of cortisol, a steroid hormone. What structural feature was NOT observed in this molecule that would be present in sterols? A) Four six-membered rings in the nucleus rather than three. B) A carbonyl rather than a hydroxyl on the A-ring. C) An alykyl chain on the D-ring. D) Characteristic alcohol groups on each of the four rings. E) An absence of polar groups.

C) An alykyl chain on the D-ring.

Which of the following statements about starch and glycogen is false? A) Amylose is unbranched; amylopectin and glycogen contain many (alpha1--> 6) branches. B) Both are homopolymers of glucose. C) Both serve primarily as structural elements in cell walls. D) Both starch and glycogen are stored intracellularly as insoluble granules. E) Glycogen is more extensively branched than starch.

C) Both serve primarily as structural elements in cell walls.

Which of the following statements about starch and glycogen is false? A) Amylose is unbranched; amylopectin and glycogen contain many (α1 → 6) branches. B) Both are homopolymers of glucose. C) Both serve primarily as structural elements in cell walls. D) Both starch and glycogen are stored intracellularly as insoluble granules. E) Glycogen is more extensively branched than starch.

C) Both serve primarily as structural elements in cell walls.

Which of the following statements about starch and glycogen is false? A) Amylose is unbranched; amylopectin and glycogen contain many (α1 → 6) branches. B) Both are homopolymers of glucose. C) Both serve primarily as structural elements in cell walls. D) Both starch and glycogen are stored intracellularly as insoluble granules. E) Glycogen is more extensively branched than starch.

C) Both serve primarily as structural elements in cell walls.

What sort of carbohydrate (below) is found on glycolipids, one of the glycoconjugates? A) Peptidoglycan B) Glycosaminoglycan C) Branched heteropolysaccharide D) Glycoside E) Lectin

C) Branched heteropolysaccharide

Which of the following is not involved in signal transduction by the β-adrenergic receptor pathway? A) ATP B) Cyclic AMP C) Cyclic GMP D) GTP E) All of the above are involved.

C) Cyclic GMP

Which of the following statements is false? A) A reaction may not occur at a detectable rate even though it has a favorable equilibrium. B) After a reaction, the enzyme involved becomes available to catalyze the reaction again. C) For S → P, a catalyst shifts the reaction equilibrium to the right. D) Lowering the temperature of a reaction will lower the reaction rate. E) Substrate binds to an enzyme's active site.

C) For S → P, a catalyst shifts the reaction equilibrium to the right

Which of the following does not involve cyclic AMP? A) Regulation of glycogen synthesis and breakdown B) Regulation of glycolysis C) Signaling by acetylcholine D) Signaling by epinephrine E) Signaling by glucagon

C) Signaling by acetylcholine

Which one of the following statements about membranes is true? A) Most plasma membranes contain more than 70% proteins. B) Sterol lipids are common in bacterial plasma membranes. C) Sterol lipids are common in human cell plasma membranes. D) Sterol lipids are common in plant cell plasma membranes. E) The plasma membranes of all cell types within a particular organism have basically the same lipid and protein composition.

C) Sterol lipids are common in human cell plasma membranes.

Which of the following statements concerning the tautomeric forms of bases such as uracil is correct? A) The all-lactim form contains a ketone group. B) The lactam form contains an alcohol group. C) The lactam form predominates at neutral pH. D) They are geometric isomers. E) They are stereoisomers.

C) The lactam form predominates at neutral pH.

A graduate student carefully heated DNA to about 80 C and then prepared it for electron microscopy. She observed a number of small open loops of DNA. What conclusion did she correctly make from her observation?

C) The open loops contain DNA with high A-T content

Which of the following is not true of all naturally occurring DNA? A) Deoxyribose units are connected by 3',5'-phosphodiester bonds. B) The amount of A always equals the amount of T. C) The ratio A+T/G+C is constant for all natural DNAs. D) The two complementary strands are antiparallel. E) Two hydrogen bonds form between A and T.

C) The ratio A+T/G+C is constant for all natural DNAs.

Which of the following could NOT be part of a reversible enzyme inhibition mechanism? A) An enzyme that performs metal ion catalysis B) The release of a cofactor C) The release of a prosthetic group D) Protonation of amino acid side chains by a single slight change in pH E) Binding of a small molecule to the active site using hydrogen bonds

C) The release of a prosthetic group

Allosteric enzymes:

C) Usually have more than one polypeptide chain

Protein kinase A (PKA) is: A) activated by covalent binding of cyclic AMP. B) affected by cyclic AMP only under unusual circumstances. C) allosterically activated by cyclic AMP. D) competitively inhibited by cyclic AMP. E) noncompetitively inhibited by cyclic AMP.

C) allosterically activated by cyclic AMP.

To possess optical activity, a compound must be: A) a carbohydrate. B) a hexose. C) asymmetric. D) colored. E) D-glucose.

C) asymmetric.

To possess optical activity, a compound must be: A) a carbohydrate. B) a hexose. C) asymmetric. D) colored. E) D-glucose.

C) asymmetric.

To possess optical activity, a compound must be: A) a carbohydrate. B) a hexose. C) asymmetric. D) colored. E) D-glucose.

C) asymmetric.

Double-stranded regions of RNA: A) are less stable than double-stranded regions of DNA. B) can be observed in the laboratory, but probably have no biological relevance. C) can form between two self-complementary regions of the same single strand of RNA. D) do not occur. E) have the two strands arranged in parallel (unlike those of DNA, which are antiparallel).

C) can form between two self-complementary regions of the same single strand of RNA.

Guanyl cyclase receptor enzymes: A) are all membrane-spanning proteins. B) are examples of ligand-gated ion channels. C) catalyze synthesis of a phosphate ester. D) catalyze synthesis of a phosphoric acid anhydride. E) require hydrolysis of ATP in addition to GTP

C) catalyze synthesis of a phosphate ester.

Which of the following monosaccharides is not a carboxylic acid? A) 6-phospho-gluconate B) gluconate C) glucose D) glucuronate E) muramic acid

C) glucose

Which of the following monosaccharides is not a carboxylic acid? A) 6-phospho-gluconate B) gluconate C) glucose D) glucuronate E) muramic acid

C) glucose

Which of the following monosaccharides is not a carboxylic acid? A) 6-phospho-gluconate B) gluconate C) glucose D) glucuronate E) muramic acid

C) glucose

Hemoglobin glycation is a process where_______ is _________ attached to hemoglobin. A) glycerol; covalently B) glucose; enzymatically C) glucose; non-enzymatically D) N-acetyl-galactosamine; enzymatically E) galactose; non-enzymatically

C) glucose; non-enzymatically

The reference compound for naming D and L isomers of sugars is: A) fructose. B) glucose. C) glyceraldehyde. D) ribose. E) sucrose.

C) glyceraldehyde.

The reference compound for naming D and L isomers of sugars is: A) fructose. B) glucose. C) glyceraldehyde. D) ribose. E) sucrose.

C) glyceraldehyde.

The reference compound for naming D and L isomers of sugars is: A) fructose. B) glucose. C) glyceraldehyde. D) ribose. E) sucrose

C) glyceraldehyde.

When the linear form of glucose cyclizes, the product is a(n): A) anhydride. B) glycoside. C) hemiacetal. D) lactone. E) oligosaccharide.

C) hemiacetal.

When the linear form of glucose cyclizes, the product is a(n): A) anhydride. B) glycoside. C) hemiacetal. D) lactone. E) oligosaccharide.

C) hemiacetal.

When the linear form of glucose cyclizes, the product is a(n): A) anhydride. B) glycoside. C) hemiacetal. D) lactone. E) oligosaccharide.

C) hemiacetal.

The effects of acetylcholine on the postsynaptic ion channel are mainly due to: A) cyclic nucleotide synthesis. B) protein cleavage (proteolysis). C) protein conformational changes. D) protein phosphorylation. E) protein synthesis.

C) protein conformational changes.

A transition-state analog: A) is less stable when binding to an enzyme than the normal substrate. B) resembles the active site of general acid-base enzymes. C) resembles the transition-state structure of the normal enzyme-substrate complex. D) stabilizes the transition state for the normal enzyme-substrate complex. E) typically reacts more rapidly with an enzyme than the normal substrate.

C) resembles the transition-state structure of the normal enzyme-substrate complex.

In nucleotides and nucleic acids, syn and anti conformations relate to: A) base stereoisomers. B) rotation around the phosphodiester bond. C) rotation around the sugar-base bond. D) sugar pucker. E) sugar stereoisomers.

C) rotation around the sugar-base bond

The steady state assumption, as applied to enzyme kinetics, implies: A) Km = Ks. B) the enzyme is regulated. C) the ES complex is formed and broken down at equivalent rates. D) the Km is equivalent to the cellular substrate concentration. E) the maximum velocity occurs when the enzyme is saturated.

C) the ES complex is formed and broken down at equivalent rates.

For enzymes in which the slowest (rate-limiting) step is the reaction k2 ES → P Km becomes equivalent to: A) kcat. B) the [S] where V0 = Vmax. C) the dissociation constant, Kd, for the ES complex. D) the maximal velocity. E) the turnover number.

C) the dissociation constant, Kd, for the ES complex.

Which of the following is true of sphingolipids? A. Phosphatidylcholine is a typical sphingolipid B. They always contain glycerin and fatty acids C. Gangliosides are sphingolipids D. They contain two esterified fatty acids

C. Gangliosides are sphingolipids

Micelles were constructed for delivery of a hydrophobic chemotherapeutic drug. What change would increase the diameter of the micelles? A. Use liposomes instead. B. Increase the concentration of cholesterol. C. Increase the length of the acyl chains used to make them. D. Increase the concentration of polyunsaturated fatty acids. E. Use lipids with head groups having greater polarity

C. Increase the length of the acyl chains used to make them.

Which ONE of the following statements is true? A. When ∆G > 0, a reaction is spontaneous B. When ∆G > 0, a reaction will proceed forward, toward products C. When ∆G < 0, a reaction is exergonic D. When ∆G < 0, a reaction is at equilibrium E. Creating bonds requires absorptions of energy by the system (∆H > 0)

C. When ∆G < 0, a reaction is exergonic

The reference compound for naming D and L isomers of sugars is: A.fructose B. glucose C. glyceraldehyde D. ribose E. sucrose

C. glyceraldehyde

Receptor Guanylyl Cyclase (def.)

Catalytic domain that converts GTP to cGMP works thru activation of protein kinase G guanylin receptor is also target of bacteria endotoxin that causes diarrhea

FAST

Cell membranes are permeable to small nonpolar molecules that passively diffuse through the membrane -(FAST/SLOW)

What type of sterol is present in human myelin sheet?

Cholesterol

What type of sterol is present in the mouse liver?

Cholesterol

ANS: forming hydrogen bonds with the oxyanion.

Complete the following statement: The NH groups of Ser195 and Gly193 in chymotrypsin are able to stabilize the intermediate of the reaction by

ANS: By considering the reaction at an early time, when the velocity is the initial velocity (v0), no appreciable product has been generated. Therefore the back reaction, where ES forms from EP with a rate constant k−2, is negligible.

Connect the use of v0 to the ability to treat k−2 as negligible in Michaelis-Menten kinetics.

What are cyclins? What is their role in the regulation of the cell cycle?

Cyclins are regulatory subunits of protein kinases. Cyclin subunits are essential for activation of protein kinase activity. Cyclin levels fluctuate during the cell cycle in response to cellular & extracellular signals. These changes result in changes to activities of cyclin-dependent protein kinases that regulate and control the cell cycle.

59) Binding of a signal molecule to which type of receptor leads directly to a change in the distribution of anions and/or cations on opposite sides of the membrane? A) receptor tyrosine kinase B) G-protein-linked receptor C) phosphorylated receptor tyrosine kinase dimer D) ligand-gated ion channel E) intracellular receptor

D

According to the current model for HIV infection, which of the following is not involved in the process of membrane fusion? A) A cell surface co-receptor protein B) A cell surface receptor protein C) A viral glycoprotein complex D) The viral chromosome E) The viral envelope

D

Consider the transport of K+ from the blood (where its concentration is about 4 mM) into an erythrocyte that contains 150 mM K+. The transmembrane potential is about 60 mV, inside negative relative to outside. The free-energy change for this transport process is: (These values may be of use to you: R = 8.315 J/mol.K; T = 298 K; 9 (Faraday constant) = 96,480 J/V; N = 6.022 1023/mol.) A) about 5 J/mol. B) about 15 J/mol. C) about 5 kJ/mol. D) about 15 kJ/mol. E) impossible to calculate with the information given.

D

G-proteins were initially named because they were found to be GTP-binding proteins, yet they have an active site. What is the enzymatic reaction mechanism? A. Phosphorylation of GDP B. Reduction of GDP C. Formation of a covalent bond between GDP and the alpha subunit D. Hydroylsis of GTP E. G-proteins have no enzyme active site.

D

Glucose transport into erythrocytes is an example of: A) active transport. B) antiport. C) electrogenic uniport D) facilitated diffusion. E) symport.

D

How do the features of Vitamins E and K cause them to be in a different cellular location than Vitamins B and C? A. Their mass is too large to move through membrane transporters, unlike Vitamins B and C. B. They are synthesized in endoplasmic reticulum, unlike Vitamins B and C, which are made in cytosol. C. They have receptors on the plasma membrane, whereas Vitamins B and C have nuclear receptors. D. They are hydrophobic, so they are located in membranes rather than in the cytosol, like Vitamins B and C. E. They are negatively charged, and are segregated in the plasma membrane rather than neutral as Vitamins B and C, which are found in many cellular locations

D

Membrane fusion leading to neurotransmitter release requires the action of: A) cadherins. B) selectins. C) flipases. D) tSNARE and vSNARE. E) none of the above.

D

The fluidity of a lipid bilayer will be increased by: F) decreasing the number of unsaturated fatty acids. C) decreasing the temperature. G) increasing the length of the alkyl chains. D) increasing the temperature. E) substituting 18:0 (stearic acid) in place of 18:2 (linoleic acid).

D

The type of membrane transport that uses ion gradients as the energy source is: A) facilitated diffusion B) passive transport. C) primary active transport. D) secondary active transport. E) simple diffusion.

D

What can be learned from a hydropathy plot of caveolin? A. The protein may have several alpha-helices and at least one beta-strand. B. There is a calcium-binding domain. C. There are three polypeptides in the functional protein. D. The prediction of two membrane-spanning regions. E. It is positively charged at neutral pH.

D

What would be learned from a Scatchard analysis of cells that were incubated with various concentrations of human growth hormone? A. The hormone stimulated activation of heterotrimeric G-proteins. B. The average number of receptors per cell. C. Receptor number on the membrane increases with increasing hormone concentration. D. The affinity was high. E. Growth hormone increases the expression of new proteins.

D

Which of the following contains an ether-linked alkyl group? A) Cerebrosides B) Gangliosides C) Phosphatidyl serine D) Platelet-activating factor E) Sphingomyelin

D

Which of the following elements would likely be found in a protein functioning in signaling through a receptor tyrosine kinase? ​A. A covalent lipid-link to the membrane ​B. Beta-barrel motif ​C. Calcium-binding domain ​D. SH2 domain ​E. Transmembrane domain

D

Which of the following statements about membrane lipids is true? A) Glycerophospholipids are found only in the membranes of plant cells. B) Glycerophospholipids contain fatty acids linked to glycerol through amide bonds. C) Lecithin (phosphatidylcholine), which is used as an emulsifier in margarine and chocolate, is a sphingolipid. D) Some sphingolipids include oligosaccharides in their structure. E) Triacylglycerols are the principal components of erythrocyte membranes.

D

4) What could happen to the target cells in an animal that lack receptors for local regulators? A) They could compensate by receiving nutrients via an a factor. B) They could develop normally in response to neurotransmitters instead. C) They could divide but never reach full size. D) They would not be able to multiply in response to growth factors from nearby cells. E) Hormones would not be able to interact with target cells.

D Topic: Concept 11.1 Skill: Comprehension

15) Most signal molecules A) bind to specific sites on receptor proteins in a membrane. B) are water-soluble. C) are able to pass through the plasma membrane by active transport. D) A and B only E) A, B, and C

D Topic: Concept 11.2 Skill: Comprehension

19) The ability of a single ligand bound to a receptor protein to trigger several pathways is A) characteristic of the synaptic signal system. B) unique to the yeast mating system. C) rare in animals, but common in bacteria. D) a key difference between the tyrosine-kinase and G-protein-linked receptor systems. E) common to all plasma membrane receptor proteins.

D Topic: Concept 11.2 Skill: Knowledge

21) Up to 60% of all medicines used today exert their effects by influencing what structures in the cell membrane? A) tyrosine-kinases receptors B) ligand-gated ion channel receptors C) growth factors D) G proteins E) cholesterol

D Topic: Concept 11.2 Skill: Knowledge

22) Which of the following are chemical messengers that pass through the plasma membrane of cells and have receptor molecules in the cytoplasm? A) insulin B) nitric oxide C) testosterone D) B and C only E) A, B, and C

D Topic: Concept 11.2 Skill: Knowledge

24) Which is true of transcription factors? A) They regulate the synthesis of DNA in response to a signal. B) Some transcribe ATP into cAMP. C) They initiate the epinephrine response in animal cells. D) They control which genes are turned on to form mRNA. E) They are needed to regulate the synthesis of protein in the cytoplasm.

D Topic: Concept 11.2 Skill: Knowledge

25) Chemical signal pathways A) operate in animals, but not in plants. B) are absent in bacteria, but are plentiful in yeast. C) involve the release of hormones into the blood. D) often involve the binding of signal molecules to a protein on the surface of a target cell. E) use hydrophilic molecules to activate enzymes.

D Topic: Concept 11.2 Skill: Knowledge

42) An inhibitor of phosphodiesterase activity would have which of the following effects? A) block the response of epinephrine B) decrease the amount of cAMP in the cytoplasm C) block the activation of G proteins in response to epinephrine binding to its receptor D) prolong the effect of epinephrine by maintaining elevated cAMP levels in the cytoplasm E) block the activation of protein kinase A

D Topic: Concept 11.3 Skill: Application

46) If a pharmaceutical company wished to design a drug to maintain low blood sugar levels, one approach might be to A) design a compound that mimics epinephrine and can bind to the epinephrine receptor. B) design a compound that stimulates cAMP production in liver cells. C) design a compound to stimulate G protein activity in liver cells. D) design a compound that increases phosphodiesterase activity. E) All of the above are possible approaches.

D Topic: Concept 11.3 Skill: Application

47) An inhibitor of which of the following could be used to block the release of calcium from the endoplasmic reticulum? A) tyrosine kinases B) serine/threonine kinases C) phosphodiesterase D) phospholipase C E) adenylyl cyclase

D Topic: Concept 11.3 Skill: Application

26) The receptors for a group of signaling molecules known as growth factors are often A) ligand-gated ion channels. B) G-protein-linked receptors. C) cyclic AMP. D) receptor tyrosine kinases. E) neurotransmitters.

D Topic: Concept 11.3 Skill: Knowledge

52) Which example below is a protein that can hold several other relay proteins as it binds to an activated membrane receptor? A) active transcription factor B) third messenger C) ligand D) scaffolding protein E) protein kinase

D Topic: Concept 11.4 Skill: Knowledge

57) Which of these is not correct? A) Phospholipase C catalyzes the formation of IP3 B) Receptor tyrosine kinases consist of two polypeptides that join when activated by a signal molecule. C) Ion channels are found on both the plasma membrane and the endoplasmic reticulum. D) Cyclic AMP binds to calmodulin. E) Kinases are enzymes that phosphorylate other molecules.

D Topic: Web/CD Activity: Cellular Responses

54) Thyroid hormones bind to ________ receptors. A) receptor tyrosine kinases B) plasma membrane ion-channel C) steroid D) intracellular E) G-protein-linked

D Topic: Web/CD Activity: Reception

The ribonucleotide polymer (5')GTGATCAAGC(3') could only form a double-stranded structure with: A) (5')CACTAGTTCG(3'). B) (5')CACUAGUUCG(3'). C) (5')CACUTTCGCCC(3'). D) (5')GCTTGATCAC(3'). E) (5')GCCTAGTTUG(3').

D) (5')GCTTGATCAC(3').

The alkaline hydrolysis of RNA does not produce: A) 2'- AMP. B) 2',3'-cGMP. C) 2'-CMP. D) 3',5'-cAMP. E) 3'-UMP.

D) 3',5'-cAMP.

Which of the following statements about sterols is true?

D) All sterols share a fused-ring structure with four rings.

Which of the following does not contain a glucosamine? A) Syndecans B) Glypicans C) Chitin D) Amylopectin E) Chondrotin

D) Amylopectin

In competitive inhibition, an inhibitor:

D) Binds reversibly at the active site

What name is given to the nucleotide found in DNA and not in RNA? A) Uridylate B) Thymidine C) Uracil D) Deoxythymidylate E) Deoxythymidine

D) Deoxythymidylate

Which of the following is a palindromic sequence? A) AGGTCC TCCAGG B) CCTTCC GCAAGG C) GAATCC CTTAGG D) GGATCC CCTAGG E) GTATCC CATAGG

D) GGATCC CCTAGG

Which of the following is a heteropolysaccharide? A) Cellulose B) Chitin C) Glycogen D) Hyaluronate E) Starch

D) Hyaluronate

Which of the following is a heteropolysaccharide? A) Cellulose B) Chitin C) Glycogen D) Hyaluronate E) Starch

D) Hyaluronate

Which of the following is a heteropolysaccharide? A) Cellulose B) Chitin C) Glycogen D) Hyaluronate E) Starch

D) Hyaluronate

Epinephrine binding to its receptors stimulates an increase in blood glucose levels, whereas insulin has the opposite effect. What term applies to a situation in which both hormones are bound to their receptors on the same cells? A) amplification B) specificity C) desensitization D) integration E) none of the above is correct

D) Inegration

Which of the following is a dominant feature of the outer membrane of the cell wall of gram negative bacteria? A) Amylose B) Cellulose C) Glycoproteins D) Lipopolysaccharides E) Lipoproteins

D) Lipopolysaccharides

Which of the following is a dominant feature of the outer membrane of the cell wall of gram negative bacteria? A) Amylose B) Cellulose C) Glycoproteins D) Lipopolysaccharides E) Lipoproteins

D) Lipopolysaccharides

Which of the following is a dominant feature of the outer membrane of the cell wall of gram negative bacteria? A) Amylose B) Cellulose C) Glycoproteins D) Lipopolysaccharides E) Lipoproteins

D) Lipopolysaccharides

What other name can be given to a nucleotide? A) Glycosylated nucleoside B) Purinated pentose C) Deoxyribonucleotide D) Nucleoside phosphate E) Pyrmidinate

D) Nucleoside phosphate

Which one of the following signaling mechanisms is used most predominantly in plants? A) Cyclic-nucleotide dependent protein kinases B) DNA-binding nuclear steroid receptors C) G protein-coupled receptors D) Protein serine/threonine kinases E) Protein tyrosine kinases

D) Protein serine/threonine kinases

Which statement is true regarding the relationship between biochemical standard free energy change and equilibrium?

D) Small changes in free energy can lead to large changes in equilibria

Telomeres are non-coding sequences on the ends of chromosomes. They contain a high concentration of guanosine. Given this information, what other structure may be in the telomeres? A) Cyclobutane B) A high concentration of triplexes C) Cruciform D) Tetraplexes E) A-form DNA

D) Tetraplexes

Which of these statements about enzyme-catalyzed reactions is false? A) At saturating levels of substrate, the rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction is proportional to the enzyme concentration. B) If enough substrate is added, the normal Vmax of a reaction can be attained even in the presence of a competitive inhibitor. C) The rate of a reaction decreases steadily with time as substrate is depleted. D) The activation energy for the catalyzed reaction is the same as for the uncatalyzed reaction, but the equilibrium constant is more favorable in the enzyme-catalyzed reaction. E) The Michaelis-Menten constant Km equals the [S] at which V = 1/2 Vmax.

D) The activation energy for the catalyzed reaction is the same as for the uncatalyzed reaction, but the equilibrium constant is more favorable in the enzyme-catalyzed reaction.

What is the definition of Km, the Michaelis constant?

D) The concentration of substrate at which the enzyme is operating at half its maximal velocity

Which one of the following is true of the pentoses found in nucleic acids? A) C-5 and C-1 of the pentose are joined to phosphate groups. B) C-5 of the pentose is joined to a nitrogenous base, and C-1 to a phosphate group. C) The bond that joins nitrogenous bases to pentoses is an O-glycosidic bond. D) The pentoses are always in the β-furanose forms. E) The straight-chain and ring forms undergo constant interconversion.

D) The pentoses are always in the β-furanose forms.

How do the features of Vitamins E and K cause them to be in a different cellular location than Vitamins B and C?

D) They are hydrophobic, so they are located in membranes rather than in the cytosol, like Vitamins B and C.

Which one of the following statements is true of enzyme catalysts? A) Their catalytic activity is independent of pH. B) They are generally equally active on D and L isomers of a given substrate. C) They can increase the equilibrium constant for a given reaction by a thousand fold or more. D) They can increase the reaction rate for a given reaction by a thousand fold or more. E) To be effective, they must be present at the same concentration as their substrate.

D) They can increase the reaction rate for a given reaction by a thousand fold or more.

Which one of the following statements is true of enzyme catalysts? A) They bind to substrates, but are never covalently attached to substrate or product. B) They increase the equilibrium constant for a reaction, thus favoring product formation. C) They increase the stability of the product of a desired reaction by allowing ionizations, resonance, and isomerizations not normally available to substrates. D) They lower the activation energy for the conversion of substrate to product. E) To be effective they must be present at the same concentration as their substrates.

D) They lower the activation energy for the conversion of substrate to product.

Which of the following are possible base compositions for single-stranded RNA? %A %G %C %T %U A) 5 45 45 0 5 B) 25 25 25 0 25 C) 35 10 30 0 25 D) all of the above E) none of the above

D) all of the above

Which of following is an anomeric pair? A) D-glucose and D-fructose B) D-glucose and L-fructose C) D-glucose and L-glucose D) alpha-D-glucose and beta-D-glucose E) alpha-D-glucose and beta-L-glucose

D) alpha-D-glucose and beta-D-glucose

Starch and glycogen are both polymers of: A) fructose. B) glucose1-phosphate. C) sucrose. D) alpha-D-glucose. E) beta-D-glucose.

D) alpha-D-glucose.

The nucleic acid bases: A) absorb ultraviolet light maximally at 280 nm. B) are all about the same size. C) are relatively hydrophilic. D) are roughly planar. E) can all stably base-pair with one another.

D) are roughly planar.

Why is it surprising that the side chains of tryptophan residues in proteins can interact with lectins? A) because the side chain of tryptophan is hydrophilic and lectins are hydrophobic. B) because the side chain of tryptophan is (-) charged and lectins are generally (+) charged or neutral. C) because the side chain of tryptophan can make hydrogen bonds and lectins cannot. D) because the side chain of tryptophan is hydrophobic and lectins are generally hydrophilic. E) none of the above.

D) because the side chain of tryptophan is hydrophobic and lectins are generally hydrophilic.

In competitive inhibition, an inhibitor: A) binds at several different sites on an enzyme. B) binds covalently to the enzyme. C) binds only to the ES complex. D) binds reversibly at the active site. E) lowers the characteristic Vmax of the enzyme.

D) binds reversibly at the active site.

Triple-helical DNA structures can result from Hoogsteen (non Watson-Crick) interactions. These interactions are primarily: A) covalent bonds involving deoxyribose. B) covalent bonds involving the bases. C) hydrogen bonds involving deoxyribose. D) hydrogen bonds involving the bases. E) hydrophobic interactions involving the bases.

D) hydrogen bonds involving the bases

The role of an enzyme in an enzyme-catalyzed reaction is to: A) bind a transition state intermediate, such that it cannot be converted back to substrate. B) ensure that all of the substrate is converted to product. C) ensure that the product is more stable than the substrate. D) increase the rate at which substrate is converted into product. E) make the free-energy change for the reaction more favorable.

D) increase the rate at which substrate is converted into product

Vmax for an enzyme-catalyzed reaction: A) generally increases when pH increases. B) increases in the presence of a competitive inhibitor. C) is limited only by the amount of substrate supplied. D) is twice the rate observed when the concentration of substrate is equal to the Km. E) is unchanged in the presence of a uncompetitive inhibitor.

D) is twice the rate observed when the concentration of substrate is equal to the Km.

Michaelis and Menten assumed that the overall reaction for an enzyme-catalyzed reaction could be written as k1 k2 E + S ES → E + P k-1 Using this reaction, the rate of breakdown of the enzyme-substrate complex can be described by the expression: A) k1 ([Et] − [ES]). B) k1 ([Et] − [ES])[S]. C) k2 [ES]. D) k-1 [ES] + k2 [ES]. E) k-1 [ES].

D) k-1 [ES] + k2 [ES].

The double helix of DNA in the B-form is stabilized by: A) covalent bonds between the 3' end of one strand and the 5' end of the other. B) hydrogen bonding between the phosphate groups of two side-by-side strands. C) hydrogen bonds between the riboses of each strand. D) nonspecific base-stacking interaction between two adjacent bases in the same strand. E) ribose interactions with the planar base pairs.

D) nonspecific base-stacking interaction between two adjacent bases in the same strand.

Which one of the following is not among the six internationally accepted classes of enzymes? A) Hydrolases B) Ligases C) Oxidoreductases D) Polymerases E) Transferases

D) polymerase

B-form DNA in vivo is a ________-handed helix, _____ Å in diameter, with a rise of ____ Å per base pair. A) left; 20; 3.9 B) right; 18; 3.4 C) right; 18; 3.6 D) right; 20; 3.4 E) right; 23; 2.6

D) right; 20; 3.4

The Lineweaver-Burk plot is used to: A) determine the equilibrium constant for an enzymatic reaction. B) extrapolate for the value of reaction rate at infinite enzyme concentration. C) illustrate the effect of temperature on an enzymatic reaction. D) solve, graphically, for the rate of an enzymatic reaction at infinite substrate concentration. E) solve, graphically, for the ratio of products to reactants for any starting substrate concentration.

D) solve, graphically, for the rate of an enzymatic reaction at infinite substrate concentration.

The biochemical property of lectins that is the basis for most of their biological effects is their ability to bind to: A) amphipathic molecules. B) hydrophobic molecules. C) specific lipids. D) specific oligosaccharides. E) specific peptides.

D) specific oligosaccharides.

The biochemical property of lectins that is the basis for most of their biological effects is their ability to bind to: A) amphipathic molecules. B) hydrophobic molecules. C) specific lipids. D) specific oligosaccharides. E) specific peptides.

D) specific oligosaccharides.

The biochemical property of lectins that is the basis for most of their biological effects is their ability to bind to: A) amphipathic molecules. B) hydrophobic molecules. C) specific lipids. D) specific oligosaccharides. E) specific peptides.

D) specific oligosaccharides.

The concept of "induced fit" refers to the fact that: A) enzyme specificity is induced by enzyme-substrate binding. B) enzyme-substrate binding induces an increase in the reaction entropy, thereby catalyzing the reaction. C) enzyme-substrate binding induces movement along the reaction coordinate to the transition state. D) substrate binding may induce a conformational change in the enzyme, which then brings catalytic groups into proper orientation. E) when a substrate binds to an enzyme, the enzyme induces a loss of water (desolvation) from the substrate.

D) substrate binding may induce a conformational change in the enzyme, which then brings catalytic groups into proper orientation

For the oligoribonucleotide pACGUAC: A) the nucleotide at the 3' end has a phosphate at its 3' hydroxyl. B) the nucleotide at the 3' end is a purine. C) the nucleotide at the 5' end has a 5' hydroxyl. D) the nucleotide at the 5' end has a phosphate on its 5' hydroxyl. E) the nucleotide at the 5' end is a pyrimidine.

D) the nucleotide at the 5' end has a phosphate on its 5' hydroxyl.

In the chemical synthesis of DNA: A) the dimethoxytrityl (DMT) group catalyzes formation of the phosphodiester bond. B) the direction of synthesis is 5' to 3'. C) the maximum length of oligonucleotide that can be synthesized is 8-10 nucleotides. D) the nucleotide initially attached to the silica gel support will become the 3' end of the finished product. E) the protecting cyanoethyl groups are removed after each step.

D) the nucleotide initially attached to the silica gel support will become the 3' end of the finished product.

In DNA sequencing by the Sanger (dideoxy) method: A) radioactive dideoxy ATP is included in each of four reaction mixtures before enzymatic synthesis of complementary strands. B) specific enzymes are used to cut the newly synthesized DNA into small pieces, which are then separated by electrophoresis. C) the dideoxynucleotides must be present at high levels to obtain long stretches of DNA sequence. D) the role of the dideoxy CTP is to occasionally terminate enzymatic synthesis of DNA where Gs occur in the template strands. E) the template DNA strand is radioactive.

D) the role of the dideoxy CTP is to occasionally terminate enzymatic synthesis of DNA where Gs occur in the template strands.

When two carbohydrates are epimers: A) one is a pyranose, the other a furanose. B) one is an aldose, the other a ketose. C) they differ in length by one carbon. D) they differ only in the configuration around one carbon atom. E) they rotate plane-polarized light in the same direction.

D) they differ only in the configuration around one carbon atom.

When two carbohydrates are epimers: A) one is a pyranose, the other a furanose. B) one is an aldose, the other a ketose. C) they differ in length by one carbon. D) they differ only in the configuration around one carbon atom. E) they rotate plane-polarized light in the same direction.

D) they differ only in the configuration around one carbon atom.

When two carbohydrates are epimers: A) one is a pyranose, the other a furanose. B) one is an aldose, the other a ketose. C) they differ in length by one carbon. D) they differ only in the configuration around one carbon atom. E) they rotate plane-polarized light in the same direction

D) they differ only in the configuration around one carbon atom.

Which of following is an anomeric pair? A) D-glucose and D-fructose B) D-glucose and L-fructose C) D-glucose and L-glucose D) α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose E) α-D-glucose and β-L-glucose

D) α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose

Which of following is an anomeric pair? A) D-glucose and D-fructose B) D-glucose and L-fructose C) D-glucose and L-glucose D) α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose E) α-D-glucose and β-L-glucose

D) α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose

Starch and glycogen are both polymers of: A) fructose. B) glucose1-phosphate. C) sucrose. D) α-D-glucose. E) β-D-glucose.

D) α-D-glucose.

Starch and glycogen are both polymers of: A) fructose. B) glucose1-phosphate. C) sucrose. D) α-D-glucose. E) β-D-glucose.

D) α-D-glucose.

Which of the following deoxyoligonucleotides will hybridize with a DNA containing the sequence (5')AGACTGGTC(3')? A. (5')CTCATTGAG(3') B. (5')GACCAGTCT(3') C. (5')GAGTCAACT(3') D. (5')TCTGACCAG(3') E. (5')TCTGGATCT(3')

D. (5')TCTGACCAG(3')

Why is it logical for sugars to be added to only one end of amylopectin or glycogen, making them excellent molecules for glucose storage?

D. Because there are many nonreducing ends on one molecule, allowing rapid glucose storage and release.

The biochemical property of lectins that is the basis for most of their biological effects is their ability to bind to: A. Amphipathic molecules B. Hydrophobic molecules C. Specific lipids D. Specific oligosaccharides E. Specific peptides

D. Specific oligosaccharides

What can be learned from a hydropathy plot of caveolin? A. The protein may have several alpha-helices and at least one beta-strand. B. There is a calcium-binding domain. C. There are three polypeptides in the functional protein. D. The prediction of two membrane-spanning regions. E. It is positively charged at neutral pH.

D. The prediction of two membrane-spanning regions.

ANS: Zymogen is the inactive precursor of an enzyme, or proenzyme, that must be cleaved by a protease to generate the active enzyme

Define the term zymogen.

ANS: The catalytic subunits are brought closer together. The catalytic subunits rotate.

Describe two conformational changes that occur when aspartate transcarbamoylase shifts from the R state to the T state.

What are integral membrane proteins removed by?

Detergents

What does dimerization activate in RTK's?

Dimerization activates the tyrosine kinase region of each monomer; each tyrosine kinase adds a phosphate from an ATP molecule to a tyrosine on the tail of the other monomer. The dimerization activates the tyrosine kinase regions which is also known as an unphosphorylated dimer. After the addition of ATP, the dimer becomes a fully activated receptor tyrosine kinase known as a phosphorylated dimer.

hydrolysis of GTP

Down-regulation of cAMP occurs by the _______________ of _______ in the alpha subunit of the G-protein (self inactivation)

A hydropathy plot is used to: A) determine the water-solubility of a protein. B) deduce the quaternary structure of a membrane protein. C) determine the water content of a native protein. D) extrapolate for the true molecular weight of a membrane protein. E) predict whether a given protein sequence contains membrane-spanning segments.

E

An electrogenic Na+ transporter: A) catalyzes facilitated diffusion of Na+ from a region of high Na+ concentration to one of lower Na+ concentration. B) must catalyze an electron transfer (oxidation-reduction) reaction simultaneously with Na+ transport. C) must transport both Na+ and a counterion (Cl-, for example). D) transports Na+ against its concentration gradient. E) transports Na+ without concurrent transport of any other charged species.

E

Another GLUT transporter was discovered in vertebrates. Which observation would be unexpected if this protein is similar to other GLUT transporters? A. It is expressed in only a few tissues in an organism. B. Transport kinetics yield a hyperbolic curve. C. The hydropathy plot suggests many transmembrane domains. D. Transporters decrease in concentration on the plasma membrane as glucose levels drop outside the cell. E. The ATP/ADP ratio decreases when the transporter is maximally active.

E

Identify the molecule(s) derived from sterols. A) Arachidonic acid B) Gangliosides C) Phosphatidylglycerol D) Prostaglandins E) Vitamin D

E

Liposomes were constructed for an experiment with liver cells in culture. The experiment will be at 25°C and not 37°C. Which of the following would NOT increase liposome fluidity at the lower temperature? A. Increase the concentration of sterols. B. Increase the concentration of mono-unsaturated fatty acids in phospholipids. C. Increase the concentration of polyunsaturated fatty acids in phospholipids. D. Decrease the concentration of saturated fatty acids in sphingolipids. E. Increase the concentration of triacylglycerol in liposomes.

E

Membrane proteins: A) are sometimes covalently attached to lipid moieties. B) are sometimes covalently attached to carbohydrate moieties. C) are composed of the same 20 amino acids found in soluble proteins. D) diffuse laterally in the membrane unless they are anchored E) have all of the properties listed above.

E

Phospholipase C acts on the lipid shown here. What would be the best method to purify the resulting phosphorylated ring product? A. Gel filtration chromatography B. Hydrophobic interaction chromatography C. Affinity chromatography D. SDS-PAGE E. Ion exchange chromatography

E

Phosphorylation plays an important role in signaling for the adaptation shown in the figure to the right. Which one of these events cannot be a regulator of phosphorylation in signaling? ​A. A competitive inhibitor of ATP binding ​B. A calcium channel blocker ​C. An uncompetitive inhibitor of GTP binding ​D. A membrane-associated phosphatase ​E. An inhibitor of DNA-Response Elements (DRE)

E

Which is not a significant structural difference between archaeal membrane lipids and most other membrane lipids? A. Ether linkages B. Very long chain hydrocarbons C. Stability at temperature and pH extremes D. Two backbone molecules E. Lack of both phosphate and sugars in their structures

E

Which method could help determine what signaling system is likely stimulated though a receptor that binds a newly described nonsteroidal hormone? ​A. Tandem mass spectroscopy ​B. Two-dimensional gel electrophoresis ​C. Scatchard analysis ​D. Ramachandran plot ​E. Hydropathy plot

E

Which of the following is not consistent with facilitated diffusion? A. Rapid movement of polar molecules across a membrane. B. Solute movement can only proceed down a concentration gradient. C. Two different solutes can move through the same transporter, in the same or opposite directions. D. There can be solute movement across the membrane that does not change Vm. E. Solute movement proceeds against a concentration gradient as long as there is a specific transporter.

E

Which of the following molecules or substances contain, or are derived from, fatty acids? A) Beeswax B) Prostaglandins C) Sphingolipids D) Triacylglycerols E) All of the above contain or are derived from fatty acids.

E

Which of the following would result from the action of phospholipase C on a membrane glycerophospholipid? A. Glycerol and two fatty acids B. One fatty acid and one monoacylglycerol C. A sugar phosphate and glycerol D. A lysophospholipid and a diacylglycerol E. A diacylglycerol and a polar group containing phosphate

E

16) Which of the following signal systems use(s) G-protein-linked receptors? A) yeast mating factors B) epinephrine C) neurotransmitters D) A and C only E) A, B, and C

E Topic: Concept 11.2 Skill: Comprehension

13) Which of the following is (are) true of ligand-gated ion channels? A) They are important in the nervous system. B) They lead to changes in sodium and calcium concentrations in cells. C) They open or close in response to a chemical signal. D) Only A and B are true. E) A, B, and C are true.

E Topic: Concept 11.2 Skill: Knowledge

40) Which of the following would be inhibited by a drug that specifically blocks the addition of phosphate groups to proteins? A) G-protein-linked receptor signaling B) ligand-gated ion channel signaling C) adenylyl cyclase activity D) phosphatase activity E) receptor tyrosine kinase activity

E Topic: Concept 11.3 Skill: Application

45) If a pharmaceutical company wished to design a drug to maintain low blood sugar levels, one approach might be to A) design a compound that blocks epinephrine receptor activation. B) design a compound that inhibits cAMP production in liver cells. C) design a compound to block G-protein activity in liver cells. D) design a compound that inhibits phosphorylase activity. E) All of the above are possible approaches.

E Topic: Concept 11.3 Skill: Application

29) Which of the following is s widely used second messenger in signal transduction pathways? A) calcium ions B) cyclic AMP C) inositol trisphosphate D) A and B only E) A, B, and C

E Topic: Concept 11.3 Skill: Knowledge

30) Sutherland discovered that epinephrine A) signals bypass the plasma membrane of cells. B) lowers blood glucose by binding to liver cells. C) interacts with insulin inside muscle cells. D) interacts directly with glycogen phosphorylase. E) elevates the cytosolic concentration of cyclic AMP.

E Topic: Concept 11.3 Skill: Knowledge

39) In a typical cell, calcium ions are A) far more abundant in the blood and other extracellular fluid than in the cytoplasm. B) rapidly released from the endoplasmic reticulum in response to G-protein-mediated signals. C) often concentrated within the endoplasmic reticulum. D) A and B only E) A, B, and C

E Topic: Concept 11.3 Skill: Knowledge

51) The response of a particular cell to a signal depends on A) its particular collection of signal receptor proteins. B) its relay proteins. C) the proteins needed to carry out the response. D) A and B only E) A, B, and C

E Topic: Concept 11.4 Skill: Knowledge

Media Activity Questions 53) A(n) ________ is an example of a signal molecule that can bind to an intracellular receptor and thereby cause a gene to be turned on or off. A) ion B) protein C) carbohydrate D) nucleic acid E) steroid

E Topic: Web/CD Activity: Reception

55) ________ catalyzes the production of ________, which then opens an ion channel that releases ________ into the cell's cytoplasm. A) Adenylyl cyclase; cyclic AMP; Ca2+ B) Adenylyl cyclase; IP3; Ca2+ C) Protein kinase; PIP2; Na+ D) Phospholipase C; cyclic AMP; Ca2+ E) Phospholipase C; IP3; Ca2+

E Topic: Web/CD Activity: Signal Transduction Pathway

Chargaff's rules state that in typical DNA: A) A = G. B) A = C. C) A = U. D) A + T = G + C. E) A + G = T + C.

E) A + G = T + C.

Which of the following would result from the action of phospholipase C on a membrane glycerophospholipid?

E) A diacylglycerol and a polar group containing phosphate

Which of the following is an irreversible enzyme inhibition mechanism? A) Phosphorylation B) Glycosylation C) Acetylation D) Ubiquitination E) Activation of zymogen

E) Activation of zymogen

Which of the following would NOT alter the equilibrium of a biochemical reaction? A) Increasing the substrate concentration B) Changing the pH of the reaction mixture C) Changing the temperature of the reaction mixture D) Adding a non-competitive inhibitor to the reaction mixture E) Adding an enzyme to the reaction mixture

E) Adding an enzyme to the reaction mixture

Which method can take advantage of the specific function of lectins? A) Isoelectric focusing B) SDS-PAGE C) Mass spectroscopy D) Scatchard analysis E) Affinity Chromatography

E) Affinity Chromatography

Which of the following is not involved in signal transduction by the β-adrenergic receptor pathway? A) Cyclic AMP synthesis B) GTP hydrolysis C) GTP-binding protein D) Protein kinase E) All of the above are involved.

E) All of the above are involved.

Which of the following is not a nucleotide? A) Coenzyme A B) FADH2 C) ATP D) Anti-cytidine monophosphate E) All of the above are nucleotides

E) All of the above are nucleotides

What name is given to monosaccharides that differ in configuration about the hemiacetal carbon atom? A) Enatiomers B) Glycosides C) Isomers D) Epimers E) Anomers

E) Anomers

Which structure is found in RNA, but would be the result of a mutation or faulty annealing in DNA? A) Hairpin B) Double-stranded helix C) Cruciform D) Sequence complementation E) Bulge

E) Bulge

Phospholipase C acts on the lipid below. What would be the BEST method to purify the resulting phosphorylated ring product? A) Gel filtration chromatography B) Hydrophobic interaction chromatography C) Affinity chromatography D) SDS-PAGE E) Ion exchange chromatography

E) Ion exchange chromatography

Which is NOT a significant structural difference between archaeal membrane lipids and most other membrane lipids? A) Ether linkages B) Very long chain hydrocarbons C) Stability at temperature and pH extremes D) Two backbone molecules E) Lack of both phosphate and sugars in their structures

E) Lack of both phosphate and sugars in their structures

In comparison with DNA-DNA double helices, the stability of DNA-RNA and RNA-RNA helices is: A) DNA-DNA > DNA-RNA > RNA-RNA. B) DNA-DNA > RNA-RNA > DNA-RNA. C) RNA-DNA > RNA-RNA > DNA-DNA. D) RNA-RNA > DNA-DNA > DNA-RNA. E) RNA-RNA > DNA-RNA > DNA-DNA.

E) RNA-RNA > DNA-RNA > DNA-DNA.

Which of the following is not a reducing sugar? A) Fructose B) Glucose C) Glyceraldehyde D) Ribose E) Sucrose

E) Sucrose

Which of the following is not a reducing sugar? A) Fructose B) Glucose C) Glyceraldehyde D) Ribose E) Sucrose

E) Sucrose

Which of the following is not a reducing sugar? A) Fructose B) Glucose C) Glyceraldehyde D) Ribose E) Sucrose

E) Sucrose

Which of the following statements concerning signal transduction by the insulin receptor is not correct? A) Activation of the receptor protein kinase activity results in the activation of additional protein kinases. B) Binding of insulin to the receptor activates a protein kinase. C) Binding of insulin to the receptor results in a change in its quaternary structure. D) The receptor protein kinase activity is specific for tyrosine residues on the substrate proteins. E) The substrates of the receptor protein kinase activity are mainly proteins that regulate transcription.

E) The substrates of the receptor protein kinase activity are mainly proteins that regulate transcription.

Which of the following is not involved in the specificity of signal transduction? A) Interactions between receptor and signal molecules B) Location of receptor molecules C) Structure of receptor molecules D) Structure of signal molecules E) Transmembrane transport of signal molecules by receptor molecules

E) Transmembrane transport of signal molecules by receptor molecules

The compound that consists of ribose linked by an N-glycosidic bond to N-9 of adenine is: A) a deoxyribonucleoside. B) a purine nucleotide. C) a pyrimidine nucleotide. D) adenosine monophosphate. E) adenosine.

E) adenosine.

Cholera and pertussis toxins are: A) enzyme inhibitors. B) enzyme modifiers. C) enzymes. D) G protein signal transduction disrupters. E) all of the above.

E) all of the above.

In living cells, nucleotides and their derivatives can serve as: A) carriers of metabolic energy. B) enzyme cofactors. C) intracellular signals. D) precursors for nucleic acid synthesis. E) all of the above.

E) all of the above.

Which of the following pairs is interconverted in the process of mutarotation? A) D-glucose and D-fructose B) D-glucose and D-galactose C) D-glucose and D-glucosamine D) D-glucose and L-glucose E) alpha-D-glucose and beta-D-glucose

E) alpha-D-glucose and beta-D-glucose

To calculate the turnover number of an enzyme, you need to know: A) the enzyme concentration. B) the initial velocity of the catalyzed reaction at [S] >> Km. C) the initial velocity of the catalyzed reaction at low [S]. D) the Km for the substrate. E) both A and B.

E) both A and B.

In the laboratory, several factors are known to cause alteration of the chemical structure of DNA. The factor(s) likely to be important in a living cell is (are): A) heat. B) low pH. C) oxygen. D) UV light. E) both C and D.

E) both C and D.

The phosphodiester bonds that link adjacent nucleotides in both RNA and DNA: A) always link A with T and G with C. B) are susceptible to alkaline hydrolysis. C) are uncharged at neutral pH. D) form between the planar rings of adjacent bases. E) join the 3' hydroxyl of one nucleotide to the 5' hydroxyl of the next.

E) join the 3' hydroxyl of one nucleotide to the 5' hydroxyl of the next.

Enzymes are potent catalysts because they: A) are consumed in the reactions they catalyze. B) are very specific and can prevent the conversion of products back to substrates. C) drive reactions to completion while other catalysts drive reactions to equilibrium. D) increase the equilibrium constants for the reactions they catalyze. E) lower the activation energy for the reactions they catalyze.

E) lower the activation energy for the reactions they catalyze

Calmodulin is a(n): A) allosteric activator of calcium-dependent enzymes. B) allosteric inhibitor of calcium-dependent enzymes. C) calcium-dependent enzyme. D) cell surface calcium receptor. E) regulatory subunit of calcium-dependent enzymes.

E) regulatory subunit of calcium-dependent enzymes.

The "energy carrier" ATP is an example of a(n): A) deoxyribonucleoside triphosphate B) di-nucleotide C) peptide D) ribonucleotide E) ribonucleoside triphosphate

E) ribonucleoside triphosphate

In the Watson-Crick model of DNA structure (now called B-form DNA): A) a purine in one strand always hydrogen bonds with a purine in the other strand. B) A-T pairs share three hydrogen bonds. C) G-C pairs share two hydrogen bonds. D) the 5' ends of both strands are at one end of the helix. E) the bases occupy the interior of the helix.

E) the bases occupy the interior of the helix

In the Watson-Crick model of DNA structure: A) both strands run in the same direction, 3' to 5'; they are parallel. B) phosphate groups project toward the middle of the helix, where they are protected from interaction with water. C) T can form three hydrogen bonds with either G or C in the opposite strand. D) the distance between the sugar backbone of the two strands is just large enough to accommodate either two purines or two pyrimidines. E) the distance between two adjacent bases in one strand is about 3.4 Å.

E) the distance between two adjacent bases in one strand is about 3.4 Å.

In double-stranded DNA: A) only a right-handed helix is possible. B) sequences rich in A-T base pairs are denatured less readily than those rich in G-C pairs. C) the sequence of bases has no effect on the overall structure. D) the two strands are parallel. E) the two strands have complementary sequences.

E) the two strands have complementary sequences.

The number of substrate molecules converted to product in a given unit of time by a single enzyme molecule at saturation is referred to as the: A) dissociation constant. B) half-saturation constant. C) maximum velocity. D) Michaelis-Menten number. E) turnover number.

E) turnover number.

A major component of RNA but not of DNA is: A) adenine. B) cytosine. C) guanine. D) thymine. E) uracil.

E) uracil.

Which of the following pairs is interconverted in the process of mutarotation? A) D-glucose and D-fructose B) D-glucose and D-galactose C) D-glucose and D-glucosamine D) D-glucose and L-glucose E) α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose

E) α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose

Which of the following pairs is interconverted in the process of mutarotation? A) D-glucose and D-fructose B) D-glucose and D-galactose C) D-glucose and D-glucosamine D) D-glucose and L-glucose E) α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose

E) α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose

Which method can take advantage of the specific function of lectins?

E. Affinity chromatography

What name is given to monosaccharides that differ in configuration about the hemiacetal carbon atom? A. Enantiomers B. Glycosides C. Isomers D. Epimers E. Anomers

E. Anomers

The phosphodiester bonds that link adjacent nucleotides in BOTH RNA and DNA: A. always link A with T and G with C B. are susceptible to alkaline hydrolysis C. are uncharged at neutral pH D. form between the planar rings E. join the 5'-phosphate of 1 nucleotide to the 3' hydroxyl of the next

E. join the 5'-phosphate of 1 nucleotide to the 3' hydroxyl of the next

ATP hydrolysis

Energy of _____ __________ can be used to drive protons through the membrane -pH control in the cell by F-type ATPase

ATP

Energy of the proton gradient can be used to synthesize ______

are a pocket or cleft

Enzyme active sites a. are nonspecific. b. are a pocket or cleft. c. always exclude water. d. can only bind a single substrate at a time.

insulin receptor

Enzyme-linked receptors

high; high

Enzymes usually bind substrates with __________ affinity and __________ specificity. a. high; high. b. high; low c. low; low d. low; high

lipid hydrolysis

Epinephrine binding to receptors in adipose cells induces:

heart rate

Epinephrine binding to receptors in heart cells increases:

breakdown of glycogen

Epinephrine binding to receptors in muscle or liver cells induce:

short

Epinephrine is meant to be a short/long-acting signal

What type of sterol is present in yeast?

Ergosterol

What is X-Ray Crystallography?

Examine figure 5.24 for further study.

ANS: Catalytic efficiency can be controlled by the binding of regulatory molecules or by covalent modification.

Explain the two ways that catalytic efficiency of enzymes can be controlled within a cell.

How do integrins mediate cell adhesion

Extracellular domain interacts w/ Arg-Gly-Asp containing proteins this triggers cytoskeleton rearrangement and gene expression newly expressed genes bind to intracellular domain and trigger an extracellular response no catalytic activity

What diffusion moves compounds down electrchemical gradient

Facilitated

True or false: Cholesterol is present in mitochondria

False

Is lateral movement of a single lipid molecule through the process of diffusion in a membrane fast or slow?

Fast

What enzyme moves leaflets from outer to cytosolic?

Flippase

What enzyme moves leaflets from cytosolic to outer?

Floppase

What mosaic model of membranes was proposed that proteins in the membrane are in lipids which is the proposed solvent?

Fluid

What phase of membranes allows individual molecules to move around?

Fluid

is a second-order rate constant

For a reaction of Q + R → P, the rate constant a. is equal to [Q][R] / [P]. b. has units of s−1 . c. is a second-order rate constant. d. is equal to [P] / [Q][R].

k

For a reaction of S → P, the rate constant of the reaction is equal to a. k. b. −k. c. 1/v. d. [S]/v.

Why are ligand-gated ion channels important in the nervous system?

For example, the neurotransmitter released at a synapse between two nerve cells bind as ligands to ion channels on the receiving cell, causing the channels to open. Ions flow in (or, in some cases, out) triggering an electrical signal that propagates down the length of the receiving cell. Some gated ion channels are controlled by electrical signals instead of ligands; these voltage-gated ion channels are also crucial to the functioning of the nervous system, as we will discuss in Chapter 48.

What are the functions of GPCR systems?

G protein-coupled receptor systems are extremely widespread and diverse in their functions, including roles in embryonic development and sensory reception. In humans, for example, vision, smell, and taste depend on such systems. Similarities in structure in G proteins and G protein-coupled receptors in diverse organisms suggest that G proteins and associated receptors evolved very early. G protein systems are involved in many human diseases, including bacterial infections. The bacteria that cause cholera, pertussis (whooping cough), and botulism, among others, make their victims ill by producing toxins that interfere with G protein function. Pharmacologists now realize that up to 60% of all medicines used today exert their effects by influencing G protein pathways.

epinephrine receptor

G-protein coupled receptors

What moves glucose into cells by facilitation of downhill efflux

GLUT2

Why are GPCR's so hard to crystallize?

GPCRs (G Protein coupled Receptors) are flexible and inherently unstable, so they have been difficult to crystallize, a required step in determining their structure by X-ray crystallography. Recently, however, researchers have crystallized the human beta2-adrenergic receptor in the presence of a ligand similar to the natural one and the cholesterol, which stabilized the receptor enough for its structure to be determined.

GTP-binding proteins play critical roles in many signal transductions. Describe two cases in which such proteins act, and compare the role of the G proteins in each case.

GTP-binding proteins are self-inactivating switches; when a hormonal or other signal activates the G protein, GTP replaces bound GDP, changing the activity of the G protein. These active G proteins then act on the next element in the signaling cascade. In the case of the β-adrenergic receptor, Gs activates adenylate cyclase; in the IP3 pathways, Gp activates the phospholipase that generates the second messengers diacylglycerol and IP3. (See Figs. 12-4, p. 424, and 12-10, p. 433.)

What phase of membranes does not allow individual molecules to move around?

Gel

deadenylated.

Glutamine synthetase is in the R state when Tyr397 is a. deadenylated. b. uridylated. c. phosphorylated. d. dephosphorylated.

no many GPCRs have yet to be identified (orphan receptors)

Have all ligands for GPCRs been identified?

Briefly describe the Hershey-Chase experiment, which showed that DNA is the genetic material.

Hershey and Chase showed that when the bacteriophage (virus) T2 infected the bacterium E. coli, new genetic instructions appeared in the infected cells. Because only the DNA and not the proteins of T2 entered the infected cell, DNA must carry the new genetic instructions.

G-Proteins (def.)

Heterotrimeric (αβγ) membrane associated proteins that bind to GTP & mediate signal transduction from GPCRs to other target proteins

ANS: The enzyme activity would be lower at the higher pH. The cytoplasm has a near neutral pH and hexokinase likely has optimal activity at that pH.

Hexokinase catalyzes the first step of glycolysis, which occurs in the cell cytoplasm. The protocol for an in vitro enzyme activity assay of hexokinase suggests that the assay is carried out at a pH of 7.4. Predict what may occur if the assay is carried out at a pH of 8.8 instead. Explain your reasoning.

transferase

Hexokinase catalyzes the phosphorylation of glucose to glucose 6-phosphate. Hexokinase belongs to which enzyme class? a. transferase b. ligase c. oxidoreductase d. hydrolase

What temperature do cells need more saturated fatty acids to maintain integrity?

High

Signals carried by hormones must eventually be terminated; the response continues for a limited time. Discuss three different mechanisms for signal termination, using specific systems as examples.

Hormonal responses may be terminated by: A) removal of the second messenger (degradation of cAMP, resequestration of Ca2+); B) dephosphorylation of the target protein (by phosphoprotein phosphatases); C) Self-inactivation of G proteins (by hydrolysis of bound GTP to GDP). D) If stimulus is present for extended periods, desensitization of the hormone receptor (e.g., by phosphorylation) makes the system unresponsive to the hormone.

Epinephrine

Hormone made in the adrenal glands (pair of organs on top of kidneys) -mediates stress response: mobilization of energy

What index measures the free energy change when an amino is moved from a hydrophobic solvent into water?

Hydropathy

histidine

If an enzyme carries out acid-base catalysis, which of the following amino acids could act as general acid? a. phenylalanine b. glycine c. histidine d. alanine

R plus Q to a product

If the rate constant for a reaction is determined to be equal to v / [Q][R], the reaction is the conversion of a. QtoR. b. RtoQ. c. R plus Q to a product. d. It is impossible to determine the reaction given the information provided.

Explain how nucleoside triphosphates (such as ATP) act as carriers of chemical energy.

In ATP, there is a phosphoric anhydride linkage between the phosphates. Hydrolysis of this linkage (i.e., of ATP to ADP and phosphate) is a highly EXERGONIC reaction that releases large amounts of free energy. Conversely, the input of a large amount of free energy is required for the synthesis of the linkage; i.e., for the phosphorylation of ADP to form ATP. synthesis of ATP results in the storage of energy that can be released upon hydrolysis.

The

In a reversible covalent modification reaction involving the phosphorylation of a target protein, which of the following amino acids is LEAST likely to be modified with a phosphate group? a. Ser b. Phe c. Tyr d. Thr

mixed

In the formation of an ESI complex, __________ inhibition can result. a. mixed b. competitive c. covalent d. anticompetitive

[ES]

In the steady-state condition assumed in Michaelis-Menten kinetics, __________ is relatively constant. a. [ES] b. [S] c. v0 d. [ES] / [S]

ANS: Arginine decarboxylase activity is regulated by proteolytic processing. When the proteases responsible for activating arginine decarboxylase are inhibited, the activity of arginine decarboxylase is reduced.

In vivo arginine decarboxylase activity is monitored over several days in the absence and presence of protease inhibitors. The activity is greatly reduced when protease inhibitors are present. Arginine decarboxylase is not a protease. Interpret these findings.

What membrane proteins span the entire membrane and are assymetric like the membrane?

Integral

Where are intracellular receptor proteins found?

Intracellular receptor proteins are found in either the cytoplasm or nucleus of target cells. Top reach such a receptor, a chemical messenger passes through the target cell's plasma membrane. A number of important signaling molecules can do this because they are either hydrophobic enough or small enough to cross the hydrophobic interior of the membrane.

What channel moves ions down electrochemical gradient by a ligand or ion itself

Ion

What is the role of the acetylcholine receptor

Ion channel for influx of Na+ and Ca++ The gate opens for acetylcholine the subunit folds into 4 transmembrane alpha helices

ligand-gated versus voltage-gated ion channels

Ion channels are protein-based passages in the plasma membrane where ions pass thru Gated channels open or close in response to external signals, either specific molecules (ligand-gated) or changes in transmembrane electrical potential (voltage-gated). Examples: ligand-gated: acetylcholine receptor voltage-gated: sodium and potassium channels

What moves ions down electrochemical gradient by mediation

Ionophore

What is the largest family of human cell-surface receptors consisted of?

It consists of nearly 1,000 G protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs). After persistent efforts, researchers have made significant breakthroughs in elucidating (making clear) the structure of several G protein receptors over the past few years.

what function is served by the major groove in DNA?

It is a binding site for regulatory proteins

What is a G protein-coupled receptor (GPCR)?

It is a cell-surface transmembrane protein that works with the help of a G protein, a protein that binds the energy-rich molecule GTP. Many different signaling molecules, including yeast mating factors, epinephrine and many other hormones, and neurotransmitters, use G protein-coupled receptors. These receptors vary in the binding sites for their signaling molecules (often referred to as their ligands) and also for different types of G proteins inside the cell. Nevertheless, G protein-coupled receptor proteins are all remarkably similar in structure. In fact, they make up a large family of eukaryotic receptor proteins with a secondary structure in which a single polypeptide, represented here as a ribbon, has seven transmembrane "alpha" helices, outlined with cylinders and depicted in a row for clarity. Specific loops between the helices form binding sites for signaling and G protein molecules.

ANS: An enzyme that catalyzes a hydrolysis reaction uses water as a substrate within the microenvironment of the active site. Excess water that is not specifically acting as a substrate in the reaction mechanism is still excluded.

Justify how an enzyme that catalyzes a hydrolysis reaction does not contradict the concept that enzyme active sites are microenvironments that exclude excess water.

(k−1+k2)/k1

KM is equal to a. k1/(k−1+k2). b. (k−1+k2)/k1. c. 1⁄2 vmax. d. vmax[S] / v0.

nicotinic acetylcholine receptor

Ligand-gated ion channels

Insulin: insulin receptor

Ligands Peptides

Heparin: fibroblast growth factor

Ligands Polysaccharides

ferric ion: bacterial ferric receptor

Ligands Small ions

adrenalin: epinephrine receptor

Ligands Organic molecules

Vascular endothelial growth factor: VEGF receptor

Ligands Proteins

These are the clusters of glcyosphingolipids with longer than usual tails, higher oerder, allow segregation of proteins, and contain double or triple acylated proteins

Lipid rafts

What happens when GDP is attached to the G protein?

Loosely attached to the cytoplasmic side of the membrane, the G protein functions as a molecular switch that is either on or off, depending on which of the two guanine nucleotides is attached, GDP or GTP-hence the term G protein. (GTP, or guanosine triphosphate, is similar to ATP). When GDP is bound to the G protein, the G protein is inactive. The receptor and G protein work together with another protein, usually an enzyme.

What temperature do cells need more unsaturated fatty acids to maintain integrity?

Low

Why does lowering the ionic strength of a solution of double-stranded DNA permit the DNA to denature more readily (for example, to denature at a lower temperature than at a higher ionic strength)?

Lower ionic strength REDUCES the screening of the - charges on the phosphate groups by + ions in the medium. The result is stronger charge-charge repulsion between the phosphate, which favors strand separation.

stable

Many medicinal drugs are transition state analogs. They are good drugs because they can interact with the target enzyme active site and are a. higher in energy than the transition state. b. identical in structure to the transition state. c. stable. d. polar.

Describe the structure most RTK's.

Many receptor tyrosine kinases have the structure depicted schematically here. Before the signaling molecule binds, the receptors exist as individual units referred to as monomers. Notice that each has an extracellular ligand-binding site, an "alpha" helix spanning the membrane, and an intracellular tail containing multiple tyrosines.

What are the complex lipid-based structures that form pliable sheets that are composed of lipids and proteins?

Membrane

What is the structure that consists of two leaflets of lipid monolayers.

Membrane Bilayer

What are the amphiphatic molecules that have a hydrophilic tail and a hydrophobic head and they aggregate when their concentration of molecules is higher than a certain threshold.

Micelle

Nerve growth factor (NGF) is a water-soluble signaling molecule. Would you expect the receptor for NGF to be intracellular or in the plasma membrane? Why?

NGF is water-soluble (hydrophilic), so it cannot pass through the lipid membrane to reach intracellular receptors, as steroid hormones can. Therefore, you'd expect the NGF receptor to be in the plasma membrane - which is, in fact, the case.

What is the hydrophilic portion in a hydropathy plot?

Negative

cofactor; holoenzyme

Nitrite reductase contains two histidine amino acids that coordinate a Cu2+ ion. When the ion is present in the enzyme, the ion is a __________ and the enzyme is a __________. a. cofactor; apoenzyme b. cofactor; holoenzyme c. coenzyme; apoenzyme d. coenzyme; holoenzyme

Is a purified peripheral membrane protein associated with lipids after removal?

No

What happens when the receptor is fully activated?

Now that the receptor is fully activated, it is recognized by specific relay proteins inside the cell. Each such protein binds to a specific phosphorylated tyrosine, undergoing a resulting structural change that activates the bound protein. Each activated protein triggers a transduction pathway, leading to a cellular response.

Steroid receptors

Nuclear receptors

GDP bound

OFF conformation

GTP bound

ON conformation

slope of the line

On a plot of [product] versus time for an enzyme-catalyzed reaction, the v0 is equal to the a. slope of the line / [S]. b. [P] at the lowest time point. c. slope of the line. d. y-intercept.

What is the key difference between RTK's and GPCR's?

One receptor tyrosine kinase complex may activate ten or more different transduction pathways and cellular responses. Often, more than one signal transduction pathway can be triggered at once, helping the cell regulate and coordinate many aspects of cell growth and cell reproduction. The ability of a single ligand-binding event to trigger so many pathways is a key difference between receptor tyrosine kinases and G protein-coupled receptors. Abnormal receptor tyrosine kinases that function even in the absence of signaling molecules are associated with many kinds of cancer.

('consensus' sequence)

PKA downstream targets share a region of sequence similarity around the phosphorylation site (__________ _________) that marks them as PKA targets

IP3 and diacylglycerol

PLC is specific for PIP2 -->

SLOW

Passive diffusion of polar molecules involves desolvation and thus has a higher activation barrier -(FAST/SLOW)

What membrane proteins are associated with polar head groups of membranes and are loosely associated with membranes through ionic interactions?

Peripheral

Ser14; R state

Phosphorylation of __________ in glycogen phosphorylase shifts the enzyme to the __________. a. Tyr397; T state b. Tyr397; R state c. Ser14; T state d. Ser14; R state

What conditions causes the membrane phase to be more fluid than gel-like

Physiological

C, D, B, A

Place the following HMG-CoA reductase steps in the correct order: A. Reduction of aldehyde B. Breakdown of hemithioacetal C. Reduction of thioester D. Cofactor exchange a. A,D,C,B b. C,D,B,A c. A,B,D,C d. C,B,D,A

What is the hydrophobic portion in a hydropathy plot?

Positive

What active transport moves compounds against electrochemical gradient driven by ATP

Primary

a zymogen

Procathepsin B is a lysosomal protease that is first translated as a proenzyme. On autocleavage it is fully activated. Procathepsin B is a. a zymogen. b. in the T state after autocleavage. c. an allosteric enzyme. d. inactive at low pH.

ANS: To determine the presence of a predicted hydrophobic channel, determine the structure of the enzyme in the presence of polyethylene glycol using X-ray crystallography. If a channel is there, the hydrophobic polyethylene glycol should bind into the channel.

Propose an experiment to determine the presence of a predicted hydrophobic channel in a newly discovered enzyme. At your disposal you have the purified enzyme, the ability to analyze the enzyme by X-ray crystallography, a spectrophotometer, the enzyme substrate, and polyethylene glycol. Be sure to explain how the results will determine if the protein contains a hydrophobic channel.

Explain the importance of membrane rafts in cell signaling pathways.

Rafts are membrane regions enriched in sphingolipids and sterols, which can sequester certain signaling proteins (usually from same pathway), increasing probability of productive interactions between them.

below the E + S

Reaction coordinate diagrams clearly show that the energy of an enzyme bound to a transition state is higher than the energies of the E + S, E + P, and ES that occur along the same reaction coordinate. The energy of an enzyme bound to a transition state analog would lie __________ in the diagram. a. above the E + S but below the transition state b. below the E+S c. above the transition state d. above E+S but below ES

How does the activated hormone-receptor complex turn on genes?

Recall that the genes in a cell's DNA function by being transcribed and processed into messenger RNA (mRNA), which leaves the nucleus and is translated into a specific protein by ribosomes in the cytoplasm. Special proteins called transcription factors control which genes are turned on, that is, which genes are transcribed into mRNA - in a particular cell at a particular time. The testosterone receptor, when activated, acts as a transcription factor that turns on specific genes.

Solution: -Measure total binding (T) -Measure nonspecific binding (NSB) in the absence of receptors -Subtract NSB from T to get specific binding -Analyze specific binding data

Receptor Binding Studies: Nonspecific Binding Problem: Hydrophobic ligands are nonspecifically soaked into the membrane

What is a kinase?

Receptor tyrosine kinases (RTKs) belong to a major class of plasma membrane receptors characterized by having enzymatic activity. A kinase is an enzyme that catalyzes the transfer of phosphate groups. The part of the receptor protein extending into the cytoplasm functions as a tyrosine kinase, an enzyme that catalyzes the transfer of a phosphate group from ATP to the amino acid tyrosine on a substrate protein.

Signal Transduction

Receptors detect 'information' (signals) and convert it to cellular responses that always involves a biochemical process

What are peripheral membrane proteins removed by?

Salt or pH

What enzyme moves lipids in either direction toward equilibrium?

Scramblase

What active transport moves compounds against electrochemical gradient by ion movement

Secondary

What is the length of fatty acids that fluid membranes require?

Short

Specificity

Signal molecule fits binding site on its complementary receptor; other signals do not fit.

What diffusion moves nonpolar compounds down the concentration gradient

Simple

What type of sterol is present in the maize leaf?

Sitosterol

Is transverse diffusion of a leaflet in a membrane slow or fast?

Slow

What symporter moves glucose into cells by high extracellular sodium concentration

Sodium glucose

5 Features of the Signal-Transducing System

Specificity, amplification, modularity, desensitation/adaptation, integration

What type of sterol is present in paramecium?

Stigmasterol

What chemical messengers are capable of reaching intracellular receptor proteins?

Such hydrophobic chemical messengers include the steroid hormones and thyroid hormones of animals. Another chemical signaling molecule with an intracellular receptor is nitric oxide (NO), a gas; its very small molecules readily pass between the membrane of phospholipids.

Cotransport that moves two compounds in the same direction

Symport

A solution of DNA is heated slowly until the tm is reached. What is the likely structure of the DNA molecules at this temperature?

The DNA molecules are partially denatured; in each molecule approximately 50% of the DNA is single-stranded and 50% is double-helical. The single-stranded regions, which appear as "bubbles" within the molecules, are those which denatured at lower temperatures because of their higher content of A-T base pairs.

What happens when the activated G protein dissociates from the receptor?

The activated G protein dissociates from the receptor, diffuses along the membrane and then binds to an enzyme, altering the enzymes shape and activity. Once activated, the enzyme can trigger the next step leading to a cellular response. (Binding of signaling molecules is reversible: Like other ligands, they bind and dissociate many times. The ligand concentration outside the cell determines how often a ligand is bound and causes signaling)

ANS: The higher temperature destabilizes the protein structure to the point where the enzyme is no longer folded properly. The enzyme cannot act as a catalyst when unfolded.

The activity of an enzyme is monitored as a function of temperature. At low temperature very little activity is seen; the activity peaks as the temperature increases and then dramatically decreases to zero as higher temperatures are attained. Explain why the activity drops off completely at higher temperatures.

...

The behavior of testosterone is representative of steroid hormones. In males, the hormone is secreted by cells of the testes. It then travels through the blood and enters cells all over the body. However, only cells that contain receptor molecules for testosterone. In these cells, the hormone binds to the receptor protein, activating it. With the hormone attached, the active form of the receptor protein then enters the nucleus and turns on specific genes that control male sex characteristics.

Why is it important to be able to crystallize GPCRs?

The beta2-adrenergic receptor is found on smooth muscle cells throughout the body, and abnormal forms of it are associated with diseases such as asthma, hypertension, and heart failure. Current drugs used for these conditions produce unwanted side effects, and further research may yield better drugs. Also, since GPCRs share structural similarities, this work on the beta2-adrenergic receptors will aid development of treatments for diseases associated with other GPCRs.

How does a dimer get formed?

The binding of a signaling molecule (such as a growth factor) causes two receptor monomers to associate closely with each other, forming a complex known as a dimer (dimerization).

Asp102

The catalytic triad of chymotrypsin is composed of His57, Ser195, and a. Gly193. b. Glu103. c. Asp120. d. Asp102.

What would the effect be if a cell made defective receptor tyrosine kinase proteins that were unable to dimerize?

The cell with the faulty receptor would not be able to respond appropriately to the signaling molecule when it was present. This would most likely have dire consequences for the cell, since regulation of the cell's activities by this acceptor would not occur appropriately.

How does a G protein function as a GTPase enzyme?

The changes in the enzyme and G protein are only temporary because the G protein also functions as a GTPase enzyme - in other words, it then hdyrolyzes its bound GTP to GDP. Now inactive again, the G protein leaves the enzyme, which returns to its original state. The G protein is now available for reuse. The GTPase function of the G protein allows the pathway to shut down rapidly when the signaling molecule is no longer present.

dehydration

The conversion of 2-phosphoglycerate to phosphoenolpyruvate is an example of which type of reaction? a. hydrolysis b. dehydration c. isomerization d. condensation

prosthetic group

The dihydrolipoyl transacetylase enzyme contains a lipoyl group. The lipoyl group is a(n) a. ion. b. apoenzyme. c. prosthetic group. d. holo group.

a conformational change triggers the exchange of NADP+ for NADPH.

The glutamate side chain in the active site of HMG-CoA reductase acts as a general base only after a. the mevalonate binds to the active site. b. the hydride from the second NADPH attacks the carbonyl center of the aldehyde. c. a conformational change triggers the exchange of NADP+ for NADPH. d. CoA is reduced to CoA-SH.

Lys267

The hemithioacetal intermediate formed during the action of HMG-CoA reductase is stabilized by a. Lys267. b. Asp283. c. His381. d. Glu83.

Describe qualitatively how the tm for a double-stranded DNA depends upon its nucleotide composition.

The higher the proportion of G and C, the higher the melting temperature, tm. More thermal energy is required to break the 3 hydrogen bonds holding G≡C pairs than to break the 2 hydrogen bonds holding A=T pairs.

1000

The human genome encodes about _______ GPCRs

the maximum velocity

The initial velocity of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction is followed at various substrate concentrations. At very high substrate concentrations it is observed that the initial velocity no longer increases as more substrate is added. The velocity under these conditions is known as a. the ultimate velocity. b. the maximum velocity. c. v[S]. d. optimal velocity.

Two NADPH

The mechanism of HMG-CoA reductase involves a. two NADPH. b. one NADPH. c. two NADH. d. one NADH.

glucose

The organism must stop _________ synthesis if there is no more need to fight or flee

reversible covalent modifications

The regulation of a biomolecule through the addition or removal of a molecular tag involves __________ reactions. a. coenzyme-dependent redox b. reversible covalent modification c. metabolite transformation d. isomerization

act as a general acid on the intermediate

The role of Glu211 in the mechanism of enolase is to a. facilitate the orientation of the phosphate group of the substrate. b. act as a general base on the substrate. c. act as a general acid on the intermediate. d. make the proton at the C-2 position more acidic.

a aromatic group

The side chains of the amino acids that make up the catalytic triad of chymotrypsin contain all EXCEPT a. a hydroxyl group. b. a carboxylic acid. c. an aromatic group. d. an imidazole.

kcat / Km

The specificity constant is equal to a. [Et][S] / v0. b. Km/v0. c. kcat / Km. d. kcat / [Et].

trypsin; Asp

The substrate binding pocket of __________ contains a(n) __________, which facilitates substrate specificity. a. trypsin; Ser b. chymotrypsin; Asp c. trypsin; Asp d. elastase; Gly

elastase

The substrate binding pocket of __________ is best at accommodating substrates with small side chains. a. elastase b. chymotrypsin c. enolase d. trypsin

Why is a cell-surface receptor protein not required for this steroid hormone to enter the cell?

The testosterone molecule is hydrophobic and can therefore pass directly through the lipid bilayer of the plasma membrane into the cell. (Hydrophilic molecules cannot do this).

hydrophobic collapse reactions

The three general categories of enzyme-mediated reactions, which are determined on the basis of the work they accomplish, include all EXCEPT a. coenzyme-dependent redox reactions. b. reversible covalent modification. c. hydrophobic collapse reactions. d. metabolite transformation reactions.

higher in free energy than the product

The transition state of a reaction is a. higher in free energy than the product. b. lower in free energy than the ground state of the substrate. c. easily isolated. d. equal to the ∆G‡ of the uncatalyzed reaction minus the ∆G‡ of the catalyzed reaction.

1/vo.

The y-axis of a Lineweaver-Burk plot is a. v0. b. 1/vo. c. Km/vmax. d. 1/[S].

GPCRs

There are also hundreds of different ________ that can be responsible for similar processes -such as taste or smell

Where do water-soluble signaling molecules bind?

They bind to specific sites on receptor proteins that span the cell's plasma membrane. Such a transmembrane receptor transmits information from the extracellular environment to the inside of the cell by changing shape or aggregating when a specific ligand binds to it. We can see how cell-surface transmembrane receptors work by looking at three major types: G protein-coupled receptors, receptor tyrosine kinases, and ion channel receptors.

What role do cell-surface receptor molecules play in the body?

They play crucial roles in the biological systems of animals, and not surprisingly, their malfunctions are associated with many human diseases including cancer, heart disease, and asthma. Working out the structure and function of these receptors will allow us to better understand and treat these conditions. Therefore, this endeavor has been a major focus of both university research teams and the pharmaceutical industry. In spite of this effort, and although cell-surface receptors make up 30% of all human proteins, they make up only 1% of the proteins whose structures have been determined by X-ray crystallography. Their structures are very challenging to determine. (There is much left to learn about the nature of proteins).

why are two different restriction endonucleases used in DNA recombination?

To permit proper orientation of the DNA insert into the plasmid

True or false: Galactolipids are in plants and absent in animals

True

True or false: Prokaryotes lack sterols

True

What type of Integral membrane protein is a single transmembrane helix that has the amino terminal on the outside of the cell and the carbonyl group on the inside?

Type 1

What type of Integral membrane protein is a single transmembrane helix that has the amino terminal on the inside of the cell and the carbonyl group on the outside?

Type 2

What type of Integral membrane protein has multiple transmembrane helices in a single polypeptide?

Type 3

What type of integral membrane protein are formed from several polypeptides to make a channel through the membrane?

Type 4

What type of integral membrane protein that is held to the bilayer covalently to lipids anchors?

Type 5

Transport system that moves only one compound

Uniport

What type of fatty acids are required in more fluid membranes?

Unsaturated

ANS: Initial velocity (v0) for an enzyme-catalyzed reaction is the reaction rate at the beginning of the reaction before the substrate concentration has changed significantly.

Using words, define initial velocity (v0) for an enzyme-catalyzed reaction

What are the small artificial carriers of molecules that has a central cavity for transport. Similar to micelle.

Vesicle

Ion channels

What allows rapid ion movement? Regulates the cytosolic concentration of ions membrane potential (Vm)

G-Protein Coupled Receptors (GPCRs)

What are alpha-helical integral membrane proteins

ligand gated or voltage gated

What are the two types of gated ion channels?

Anchoring proteins (AKAPs)

What confines signaling process to a specific region and limits the duration of the signal?

ANS: Henry Eyring's transition state theory states that the conversion of substrate to product involves a high-energy transition state in which a molecule can either become a product or remain a substrate.

What is Henry Eyring's transition state theory?

A, C, B

What is the appropriate order of the following steps? A. Glutamine binding to uridylyltransferase B. Adenylation of glutamine synthetase C. Deuridylation of glutamine synthetase adenylyltransferase a. C,B,A b. A,C,B c. A,B,C d. C,A,B

200

What is the rate enhancement as a result of the presence of an enzyme if the uncatalyzed rate of the reaction is 1.2 × 102 mmol/sec and the catalyzed rate is 2.4 × 104 mmol/sec? a. 0.005 b. 200 c. 2.88 × 106 d. 2

increase the CO2 carrying capacity of the blood

What is the role of the chloride-bicarbonate exchanger?

ANS: Serine, threonine, tyrosine

What three amino acids are targeted for phosphorylation by kinases?

insulin; protein phosphatase 1

When __________ is increased, __________ is activated, which acts on glycogen phosphorylase, leading to a decrease in the activity of the enzyme. a. glucagon; phosphorylase kinase b. epinephrine; phosphorylase kinase c. insulin; protein phosphatase 1 d. glucagon; protein phosphatase 1

covalent

When a nucleophile present in the enzyme attacks an electrophilic substrate to form an enzyme-substrate intermediate, this is an example of __________ catalysis. a. covalent b. acid-base c. metal ion d. hydrophobic

has greater separation of the catalytic subunits

When compared with the T state of aspartate transcarbamoylase, the R state a. has dissociated into two C3R3 complexes. b. has greater separation of the catalytic subunits. c. is bound to CTP . d. has substrate bound in the ATP binding site.

How does the G protein get activated?

When the appropriate signaling molecule binds to the extracellular side of the receptor, the receptor is activated and changes shape. Its cytoplasmic side then binds an inactive G protein, causing a GTP to displace the GDP. This activates the G protein.

The model in figure 11.8 represents the receptor in an inactive state, not bound to a G protein. Can you suggest conditions for crystallizing the protein that would reveal the structure of the receptor while it is actively signaling to the inside of the cell?

When the receptor is actively transmitting a signal to the inside of the cell, it is bound to a G protein. To determine a structure corresponding to that state, it might work to crystallize the receptor in the presence of many copies of the G protein. (In fact, the researchers planned to try this approach next. Another research group also used this approach successfully with a related GPCR the following year.)

His57

Which amino acid acts as a general acid and a general base in the mechanism of chymotrypsin? a. Ser195 b. His57 c. Gly193 d. Asp102

ATP; allosteric activator

Which answer correctly classifies the compound with its relationship to asparate transcarbamoylase? a. A TP; allosteric inhibitor b. A TP; allosteric activator c. CTP; allosteric activator d. CTP; substrate

isomerase; intramolecular rearrangements

Which answer correctly pairs the enzyme class with the type of reaction catalyzed? a. lyase; formation of two products by hydrolyzing a substrate b. transferase; transfer of H or O atoms c. isomerase; intramolecular rearrangements d. oxidoreductase; transfer of groups within molecules

Lys345

Which of the following functions as a general base in the mechanism of enolase? a. Lys345 b. His57 c. Mg2+ d. Glu211

electrophilic attack on the scissile bond

Which of the following is NOT a function of the Mg2+ ions in the mechanism of enolase? a. orientation of substrate in the active site b. stabilizing the intermediate c. making the proton at the C-2 position more acidic d. electrophilic attack on the scissile bond

cofactor degradation

Which of the following is NOT a primary mechanism that affects catalytic efficiency? a. binding of regulatory molecules b. covalent modification c. proteolytic processing d. cofactor degradation

pyruvate kinase with a bound K+

Which of the following is a holoenzyme? a. pyruvate kinase with a bound K+ b. alcohol dehydrogenase c. nitrite reductase d. hexokinase

heme

Which of the following is a prosthetic group? a. Mg2+ b. NADH c. Zn2+ d. heme

orienting substrates appropriately for the reaction to occur

Which of the following is a way that an enzyme can increase the rate of a reaction inside a cell? a. increasing the temperature of the cell b. increasing the pressure inside the cell c. increasing the substrate concentration inside the cell d. orienting substrates appropriately for the reaction to occur

The conversion of EP→ E + P is rapid.

Which of the following is an assumption made when using Michaelis-Menten kinetics? a. The conversion of E + P → ES does not occur. b. k1>k2 c. v0=vmaxatlow[S] d. The conversion of EP → E + P is rapid.

it is loosely associated with the enzyme

Which of the following is true of a coenzyme but NOT true of a prosthetic group? a. It contains an organic component. b. It is loosely associated with the enzyme. c. It is necessary for enzyme function. d. It is present in a holoenzyme but not an apoenzyme.

It involves a conformation change of the enzyme

Which of the following is true of the induced-fit model of enzyme catalysis but NOT of the lock and key model of enzyme catalysis. a. It was proposed by Emil Fisher. b. it involves weak interactions of a substrate with an enzyme c. it involves a conformational change of the enzyme d. it involves non covalent interactions of the substrate with the enzyme.

it contains an oxyanion

Which of the following is true of the tetrahedral intermediate in the chymotrypsin mechanism? a. It is lower in free energy than the substrate. b. It is partially positively charged. c. All bonds are the same length. d. It contains an oxyanion.

hydrogen bonding; reversible

Which of the following pairs correctly matches the type of interaction observed between an inhibitor and an enzyme with the type of inhibition? a. ionic; irreversible b. covalent; irreversible c. hydrogen bonding; reversible d. hydrophobic; irreversible

ATCase is regulated by feedback inhibition

Which of the following statements are true? a. A TCase is regulated by feedback inhibition. b. CTP is an allosteric activator of ATCase. c. A TP is an allosteric inhibitor of A TCase. d. GTP is an allosteric inhibitor of ATCase.

NAD+/NADH; redox at C-O bonds

Which pair correctly matches the coenzymes most often used to mediate the described redox reactions? a. NAD+/NADH; redox at C-O bonds b. NADP+/NADPH; redox at C-C bonds c. FAD/FADH2; redox at C-O bonds d. FMN/FMNH2 ; redox at C-O bonds

covalent bond

Which type of interaction is more likely to be found between an enzyme and an irreversible inhibitor? a. covalent bond b. hydrogen bond c. ionic interaction d. van der Waals interaction

isomerization

Which type of reaction does not change the molecular formula of the product compared with that of the substrate? a. condensation b. reduction c. hydrolysis d. isomerization

Is a purified integral membrane protein still associated with lipids after removal?

Yes

rate of ion flux

______ ___ _____ _____ through a channel is several order of magnitude higher than through a transporter ( can approach a max value for free diffusion)

PKA

______ activate enzymes that produce glucose from glycogen

primary active transport

__________ active transport, the energy released by ATP hydrolysis drives solute (S1) movement against an electrochemical gradient

G-proteins

__________ are heterotrimeric (alpha, beta, gamma) membrane-associated proteins that bind GTP

Adenylate cyclase

___________ _________ is now always (constitutively) active and produces too much cAMP from ATP

secondary active transport

___________ active transport, a gradient of ion X (S1) (often Na+) has been established by primary active transport. movement of X (S1) down its electrochemical gradient nwo provides the energy to drive cotransport of a second solute (S2) against its electrochemical gradient

G-Proteins

____________ mediate signal transduction from GPCRs to other target proteins

What type of integral membrane protein that is held to the bilayer covalently to lipids and contains both helices and lipid anchors?

`Type 6

Sphingosine is not a component of: A) cardiolipin. B) ceramide. C) cerebrosides. D) gangliosides. E) sphingomyelin.

a

Tay-Sachs disease is the result of a genetic defect in the metabolism of: A) gangliosides. B) phosphatidyl ethanolamine. C) sterols. D) triacylglycerols. E) vitamin D.

a

The size of the DNA region specifically recognized by type II restriction enzymes is typically: A) 4 to 6 base pairs. B) 10 to 15 base pairs. C) 50 to 60 base pairs. D) 200 to 300 base pairs. E) about the size of an average gene.

a

Which of the following best describes the cholesterol molecule? A) Amphipathic B) Nonpolar, charged C) Nonpolar, uncharged D) Polar, charged E) Polar, uncharged

a

Which of the following is not needed to build a cDNA library? A) Genomic DNA B) mRNA C) Reverse transcriptase D) dNTPs E) DNA polymerase

a

Which of the following is not used as a heterologous host for the expression of recombinant proteins? A) Retroviruses B) Bacteria such as E. coli C) Eukaryotes such as S. cerevisiae D) Insect cells E) Mammalian cells

a

Which of the following is true of sphingolipids? A) Cerebrosides and gangliosides are sphingolipids. B) Phosphatidylcholine is a typical sphingolipid. C) They always contain glycerol and fatty acids. D) They contain two esterified fatty acids. E) They may be charged, but are never amphipathic.

a

Which of the following statements about sterols is true? A) All sterols share a fused-ring structure with four rings. B) Sterols are found in the membranes of all living cells. C) Sterols are soluble in water, but less so in organic solvents such as chloroform. D) Cholesterol is the principal sterol in fungi. E) The principal sterol of animal cells is ergosterol.

a

Which of the following statements concerning fatty acids is correct? A) A fatty acid is the precursor of prostaglandins. B) Phosphatidic acid is a common fatty acid. C) Fatty acids all contain one or more double bonds. D) Fatty acids are a constituent of sterols. E) Fatty acids are strongly hydrophilic.

a

polar solute

a __________ solute must give up its hydration shell, then diffuse through a substance (lipid) in which is poorly insoluble

Definition: Receptor

a membrane-bound protein, soluble protein, or protein complex that exerts a physiological effect (intrinsic) after binding to its natural ligand

A compound containing N-acetylneuraminic acid (sialic acid) is: A) cardiolipin. B) ganglioside GM2. C) phosphatidylcholine. D) platelet-activating factor. E) sphingomyelin.

b

Biological waxes are all: A) triesters of glycerol and palmitic acid. B) esters of single fatty acids with long-chain alcohols. C) triesters of glycerol and three long chain saturated fatty acids. D) sphingolipids. E) None of the above

b

Current estimates indicate that ________ % of the human genome is translated into protein. A) less than 0.5% B) roughly 1.5% C) roughly 10% D) roughly 25% E) more than 50%

b

Fatty acids are a component of: A) carotenes. B) cerebrosides. C) sterols. D) vitamin D. E) vitamin K.

b

Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS) like aspirin and ibuprofen act by blocking production of: A) biological waxes B) prostaglandins C) sphingolipids D) vitamin D E) none of the above

b

The E. coli recombinant plasmid pBR322 has been widely utilized in genetic engineering experiments. pBR322 has all of the following features except: A) a number of conveniently located recognition sites for restriction enzymes. B) a number of palindromic sequences near the EcoRI site, which permit the plasmid to assume a conformation that protects newly inserted DNA from nuclease degradation. C) a replication origin, which permits it to replicate autonomously. D) resistance to two different antibiotics, which permits rapid screening for recombinant plasmids containing foreign DNA. E) small overall size, which facilitates entry of the plasmid into host cells.

b

The biological role of restriction enzymes is to: A) aid recombinant DNA research. B) degrade foreign DNA that enters a bacterium. C) make bacteria resistant to antibiotics. D) restrict the damage to DNA by ultraviolet light. E) restrict the size of DNA in certain bacteria.

b

Which of the following answers is not true? A) Phospholipase A1 hydrolyzes the fatty acid from the 1-position on the glycerol backbone. B) Phospholipase B1 hydrolyzes the fatty acid from the 2-position on the glycerol backbone. C) Phospholipase C hydrolyzes the complete phospho-head group from the glycerol backbone. D) Phospholipase D hydrolyzes just the head group from the phospho-glycerol backbone.

b

Which of the following does not apply to the construction or use of a DNA library? A) Determining the location of a particular DNA sequence in a DNA library requires a suitable hybridization probe. B) Genomic libraries are better for expressing gene products than cDNA libraries. C) Many segments of DNA from a cellular genome are cloned. D) Specialized DNA libraries can be made by cloning DNA copies of mRNAs. E) The DNA copies of mRNA found in a cDNA library are made by reverse transcriptase.

b

Which of the following is not a consequence of partial hydrogenation of vegetable oils? A) Longer shelf life B) Lower melting temperature C) Reduction of some cis double bonds to single bonds D) Conversion of some cis double bonds to trans double bonds E) Increased risk of cardiovascular disease upon consumption by humans

b

Which of the following is not a fat-soluble vitamin? A) A B) C C) D D) E E) K

b

Which of the following is not true of sterols? A) Cholesterol is a sterol that is commonly found in mammals. B) Sterols are commonly found in bacterial membranes. C) Sterols are more common in plasma membranes than in intracellular membranes (mitochondria, lysosomes, etc.). D) Serols are precursors of steroid hormones. E) Sterols have a structure that includes four fused rings.

b

Which of the following statements about the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is false? A) DNA amplified by PCR can be cloned. B) DNA amplification is linear in magnitude. C) Newly synthesized DNA must be heat-denatured before the next round of DNA synthesis begins. D) The boundaries of the amplified DNA segment are determined by the synthetic oligonucleotides used to prime DNA synthesis. E) The technique is sufficiently sensitive that DNA sequences can be amplified from a single animal or human hair.

b

Which of the following tags is not used to study protein function? A) Green fluorescent protein (GFP) B) Synteny tag C) Tandem affinity purification (TAP) D) Gal4p DNA binding domain E) Gal4p activation domain

b

Which of the following are consistent with facilitated diffusion? 1) Movement is against a concentration gradient 2) Movement is with a concentration gradient 3) Involves a carrier molecule 4) Involves cotransport 5) Involves counter transport 6) Exhibits competition and saturation a. 1, 2, 4, 5, 6 b. 2, 3, 6 c. 2, 3, 5, 6 d. 1, 3, 4, 5, 6 e. 2, 3, 4, 6

b. 2, 3, 6

How id cAMP synthesized and what does it do?

by ATP and adenylyl clyclase, which is activated by the α-subunit of a G-Protein cAMP then goes on to activate specific proteins like PKA which phosphorylate certain cell proteins

A convenient cloning vector with which to introduce foreign DNA into E. coli is a(n): A) E. coli chromosome. B) messenger RNA. C) plasmid. D) yeast "ARS" sequence. E) yeast transposable element.

c

An example of a glycerophospholipid that is involved in cell signaling is: A) arachidonic acid. B) ceramide. C) phosphatidylinositol. D) testosterone. E) vitamin A (retinol).

c

Certain restriction enzymes produce cohesive (sticky) ends. This means that they: A) cut both DNA strands at the same base pair. B) cut in regions of high GC content, leaving ends that can form more hydrogen bonds than ends of high AT content. C) make a staggered double-strand cut, leaving ends with a few nucleotides of single-stranded DNA protruding. D) make ends that can anneal to cohesive ends generated by any other restriction enzyme. E) stick tightly to the ends of the DNA they have cut.

c

Current estimates indicate that humans have about ________ genes. A) 3,000 B) 10,000 C) 30,000 D) 100,000 E) 300,000

c

Rank the following organisms in order from smallest genome (number of base pairs of DNA) to largest genome. A) Human, fruit fly, E. coli bacterium B) E. coli bacterium, human, fruit fly C) E. coli bacterium, fruit fly, human D) Fruit fly, E. coli bacterium, human E) Fruit fly, human, E. coli bacterium

c

Restriction enzymes: A) act at the membrane to restrict the passage of certain molecules into the cell. B) are highly specialized ribonucleases that degrade mRNA soon after its synthesis. C) are sequence-specific DNA endonucleases. D) are very specific proteases that cleave peptides at only certain sequences. E) catalyze the addition of a certain amino acid to a specific tRNA.

c

The PCR reaction mixture does not include: A) all four deoxynucleoside triphosphates. B) DNA containing the sequence to be amplified. C) DNA ligase. D) heat-stable DNA polymerase. E) oligonucleotide primer(s).

c

Which of the following is not a commonly used tag for affinity purification of cloned proteins? A) Glutathione-S-transferase B) Maltose binding protein C) Nickel D) Protein A E) Chitin-binding domain

c

Which of the following techniques is not commonly used to analyze lipid composition? A) Selective extraction using apolar solvents B) Adsorption chromatography C) X-ray crystallography D) Hydrolysis using enzymes with specificity for certain linkages E) Mass spectroscopy

c

Which one of the following analytical techniques does not help illuminate a gene's cellular function? A) DNA microarray analysis B) Protein chip analysis C) Southern blotting D) Two-dimensional gel electrophoresis E) Two-hybrid analysis

c

Which type of DNA sequence is not found in the human genome? A) Long repetitive repeats B) Introns C) Retro-palindromes D) Simple sequence repeats E) Transposons

c

Which vitamin is derived from cholesterol? A) A B) B12 C) D D) E E) K

c

protein kinase A (PKA)

cAMP allosterically activates cAMP-dependent _________ __________ __

glycogen

carbohydrate storage in animal liver

starch

carbohydrate storage in plants

What is the biological role of signal transduction

cells receive signals from environment beyond the membrane signals cause changes in the cell's composition and function

Triacylglycerols are composed of: A) a glycerol backbone. B) three fatty acids. C) amide linkages between the fatty acids and the glycerol. D) A and B above. E) A, B, and C above.

d

Which of the following contains an ether-linked alkyl group? A) Cerebrosides B) Gangliosides C) Phosphatidyl serine D) Platelet-activating factor E) Sphingomyelin

d

Which of the following is not needed in 454 pyrosequencing of DNA? A) dNTPs B) Sulfurylase C) Luciferase D) ddNTPs E) Apyrase

d

Which of the following methods is not used in linkage analysis? A) Compare densely spaced polymorphisms. B) Collect DNA from a family affected by the disease of interest. C) Sequence selected parts of the genome. D) Introduce retroviruses at the mutated locus. E) Look for SNP variants.

d

Which of the following statements about membrane lipids is true? A) Glycerophospholipids are found only in the membranes of plant cells. B) Glycerophospholipids contain fatty acids linked to glycerol through amide bonds. C) Lecithin (phosphatidylcholine), which is used as an emulsifier in margarine and chocolate, is a sphingolipid. D) Some sphingolipids include oligosaccharides in their structure.

d

Which of the following statements about type II restriction enzymes is false? A) Many make staggered (off-center) cuts within their recognition sequences. B) Some cut DNA to generate blunt ends. C) They are part of a bacterial defense system in which foreign DNA is cleaved. D) They cleave and ligate DNA. E) They cleave DNA only at recognition sequences specific to a given restriction enzyme.

d

Sanger sequencing was performed on DNA from chloroplasts of a new plant species discovered in the rain forest of Puerto Rico. The X-ray film showed bands in the A, C, and T lanes, but the G lane was blank. What is the most likely explanation for this unexpected result?

ddG was not added to the reaction tube.

chemical gradient

difference in solute concentration

Self-inactivation of G-protein signaling

down-regulation of cAMP occurs by hydrolysis of GTP in a Gsα protein when epinephrin binds it replaces bound GDP with GTP hydrolysis inactivates GTP back to GDP GDP can't activate adenylyl cyclase and it returns to its original position

Common features found in a cloning plasmid used for protein expression include all except which of the following? A) Polylinker B) Origin of replication. C) Antibiotic resistance marker(s) D) Ribosome binding site E) Telomeric ends

e

Identify the molecule(s) derived from sterols. A) Arachidonic acid B) Gangliosides C) Phosphatidylglycerol D) Prostaglandins E) Cortisol

e

In the laboratory, recombinant plasmids are commonly introduced into bacterial cells by: A) electrophoresis—a gentle low-voltage gradient draws the DNA into the cell. B) infection with a bacteriophage that carries the plasmid. C) microinjection. D) mixing plasmids with an extract of broken cells. E) transformation—heat shock of the cells incubated with plasmid DNA in the presence of CaCl2.

e

The technique known as two hybrid analysis for detecting interacting gene products depend on: A) activation of DNA polymerase by the nearby binding of hybridizing protein complexes. B) direct binding of a Gal4p activation domain to a DNA sequence in the promoter region. C) having a promoter that responds directly to one of the two proteins whose interactions is being measured. D) hybridization of DNA segments corresponding to the two genes being examined. E) stimulation of transcription by interaction of two Gal4p domains via fused protein sequences.

e

Which of the following is not a glycerophospholipid? A) Phosphatidylcholine B) Phosphatidylethanolamine C) Phosphatidylserine D) Cardiolipin E) Ceramide

e

Which of the following molecules or substances contain, or are derived from, fatty acids? A) Beeswax B) Prostaglandins C) Sphingolipids D) Triacylglycerols E) All of the above contain or are derived from fatty acids.

e

Which of the following statements regarding plasmid-cloning vectors is correct? A) Circular plasmids do not require an origin of replication to be propagated in E. coli. B) Foreign DNA fragments up to 45,000 base pairs can be cloned in a typical plasmid. C) Plasmids do not need to contain genes that confer resistance to antibiotics. D) Plasmid vectors must carry promoters for inserted gene fragments. E) The copy number of plasmids may vary from a few to several hundred.

e

What kind of receptor is an insulin receptor

enzyme-linked

What kind of receptor is a GPCR

epinephrine receptor

chitin

exoskeleton of insects

Many membrane receptors consist of:

extracellular ligand-binding domains intracellular catalytic domains

proteoglycan

extracellular matrix of animal tissues

Epinephrine (def.)

fight or flight (stress) hormone made in adrenal glands above kidneys Binding to GPCRs in: Muscle or liver --> glycogen breakdown adipose --> lipid hydrolysis, still making glucose Heart --> increases HR Makes brain more alert

Draw the structure of either an adenine-thymine or a guanine-cytosine base pair as found in the Watson-Crick double-helical structure of DNA. Include all hydrogen bonds.

google image

Insulin (def.)

hormone for glucose uptake and metabolism produced by β-cells in pancreas released in response to glucose in blood, reaches target cells via blood stream

What kind of receptor is a nicotonic acetylcholine receptor

ligand-gated ion channel

What kind of receptor is a steroid receptor

nuclear receptor

Integrin receptors

other membrane receptors

Where are carbohydrate portion of the membranes usually found?

outsided

lectins

proteins that bind to specific oligosaccharides

Signal transduction modularity (def.)

proteins w/ multivalent affinities form diverse signaling complexes from interchangeable parts phosphorylation provides reversible interaction points signals get transduced via multiple proteins acting together

F- type ATPases

proton transporting complexes located in mitochondria and bacterial membranes. -Instead of using the free energy of ATP to pump protons against their gradient, these proteins operate in reverse to synthesize ATP

Signal transduction desensitation/adaptation (def.)

receptor activation triggers a feedback circuit that shuts off the receptor or removes it from the surface

Gated Ion Channels (def.)

regulate transport of ions across cell membranes respond to changes in membrane potential and ligand binding at specific sites

Cyclic Adenosine Monophosphate (cAMP) (def.)

secondary messenger that is important in many biological processes its a derivative of ATP and its used for intracellular signal transduction synthesized from ATP by adenylyl cyclase, which is activated by Gsα stimulation

Signal transduction specificity (def.)

signal molecules fit specific complementary binding receptors a receptor molecule will only produce translation for one particular signal molecule

Typical ligands for receptor proteins (5)

small ions organic molecules polysaccharides peptides proteins

peptidoglycan

structural component of bacterial cell wall

cellulose

structural component of plant cell walls

electrical gradient

the difference in charge across membrane

Membrane polarization of membranes is caused by:

the inside of a cell is usually (-) charged by around -50 to -70 mV membrane potential is mostly d/t Na+K+ ATPase (3Na-out / 2K-in) ion flow across the membrane depends on concentration gradient and overall electric potential

trehalose

transport/storage in insects

hyaluronate

viscosity, lubrication of extracellular secretions

which of the following methods is most like microarray technology?

western blotting

Signal transduction amplification (def.)

when enzymes activate enzymes, the number of affected molecules increases exponentially in an enzyme cascade. a single signal can incite dramatic physiological responses

Signal transduction integration (def.)

when two signals have opposite effects on a metabolic characteristic, the regulatory outcome results from integrated input from both receptors final response is product from both signals strength of one is usually greater than the other, the overruling signal prevails

G-Protein Coupled Receptors (GPCR) (def.)

α-helical integral membrane proteins that receive epinephrine

Describe the sequence of biochemical events between the release of epinephrine into the bloodstream and the activation of the enzyme glycogen phosphorylase. (5 steps)

1) Epinephrine binds to its membrane receptor. The receptor swaps GDP for GTP on a GTP-binding protein (Gsα); 2) With GTP, Gsα activates adenylate cyclase, which catalyzes production of cAMP 3) Rise in cAMP activates cAMP-dependent protein kinase A (PKA) 4) PKA activates enzyme phosphorylase kinase (PK) through phosphorylation 5) Active PK phosphorylates glycogen phosphorylase, activating it and stimulating glycogen breakdown. (See Fig. 12-7, p. 429.)

Signaling pathway thru membrane (6)

1. GPCR ligand binding 2. Receptor tyrosine kinase activates transcription factor 3. Receptor guanylyl cyclase forms 2nd messenger cGMP 4. Gated ion channel opens/closes in response 5. Adhesion receptor binds to extracellular matrix 6. Nuclear receptor hormone binding ---> gene expression

How does a steroid hormone interact with an intracellular receptor?

1. The steroid hormone testosterone passes through the plasma membrane. 2. Testosterone binds to a receptor protein in the cytoplasm, activating it. 3. Hormone receptor complex enters the nucleus and binds to specific genes. 4. The bound protein acts as a transcription factor, stimulating the transcription of the gene into mRNA. 5. The mRNA is translated into a specific protein.

Voltage-gated and ligand-gated ion channels in nerve signal (4 steps)

1. nerve signals propagate as electrical impulses 2. impulse propagation involves opening of gated Na+ channels 3. opening of voltage-gated Ca++ channels @ end of axon triggers neurotransmitter acetylcholine release 4. acetylcholine opens ligand-gated ion channel in receiving cell

What is the approximate length of a DNA molecule (in the B form) containing 10,000 base pairs?

3.4 Å × 10,000 = 34,000 Å = 3.4 μm.

How many angstroms in length are membranes usually?

30-100

60) The activation of receptor tyrosine kinases is always characterized by A) dimerization and phosphorylation. B) IP3 binding. C) a phosphorylation cascade. D) GTP hydrolysis. E) channel protein conformational change.

A

64) Amplification of a chemical signal occurs when A) a receptor in the plasma membrane activates several G-protein molecules while a signal molecule is bound to it. B) a cAMP molecule activates one protein kinase molecule before being converted to AMP. C) phosphorylase and phosphatase activities are balanced. D) receptor tyrosine kinases dimerize upon ligand binding. E) Both A and D occur.

A

67) Consider this pathway: epinephrine → G-protein-linked receptor → G protein → adenylyl cyclase → cAMP. Identify the second messenger. A) cAMP B) G protein C) GTP D) adenylyl cyclase E) G-protein-linked receptor

A

A bacterial F-Type ATPase was found to be synthesizing ATP. How is that possible? A. By moving H+ in the opposite direction, down a gradient to power the synthase activity B. By moving a counter ion, such as K+, in the opposite direction C. By the action of a chemical "uncoupling" agent D. By the action of a positive allosteric modulator E. It is not possible for an F-Type ATPase to move H+ down a gradient.

A

Epinephrine binding to its receptors stimulates an increase in blood glucose levels, whereas insulin has the opposite effect. What term applies to a situation in which both hormones are bound to their receptors on the same cells? ​A. Integration ​B. Inhibition ​C. Adaptation ​D. Specificity ​E. Competition

A

Facilitated diffusion through a biological membrane is: A) driven by a difference of solute concentration. B) driven by ATP. C) endergonic. D) generally irreversible. E) not specific with respect to the substrate

A

Lipids were extracted from plasma membranes. What method could be used to separate them by exploiting differences in volatility? A. Gas-liquid chromatography B. Adsorption column chromatography C. Thin layer chromatography D. Mass spectroscopy E. Ion-exchange chromatography

A

Peripheral membrane proteins: A) are generally noncovalently bound to membrane lipids. B) are usually denatured when released from membranes. C) can be released from membranes only by treatment with detergent(s). D) may have functional units on both sides of the membrane. E) penetrate deeply into the lipid bilayer.

A

Sphingosine is not a component of: A) cardiolipin. B) ceramide. C) cerebrosides. D) gangliosides. E) sphingomyelin.

A

Tay-Sachs disease is the result of a genetic defect in the metabolism of: A) gangliosides. B) phosphatidyl ethanolamine. C) sterols. D) triacylglycerols. E) vitamin D.

A

The specificity of the potassium channel for K+ over Na+ is mainly the result of the: A) differential interaction with the selectivity filter protein. B) hydrophobicity of the channel. C) phospholipid composition of the channel. D) presence of carbohydrates in the channel. E) presence of cholesterol in the channel.

A

The type of motion least common in biological membranes is: A) flip-flop diffusion of phospholipid from one monolayer to the other. B) lateral diffusion of individual lipid molecules within the plane of each monolayer. C) lateral diffusion of membrane proteins in the bilayer. D) lateral diffusion of protein molecules in the lipid bilayer E) random motion of the fatty acyl side chains in the interior of the phospholipid bilayer.

A

What is the connection between signaling through the following: adhesion receptors, voltage-gated ion channels, receptor tyrosine kinases, and microdomains (i.e., rafts)? A. All are based on a conformational change in membrane proteins. B. All of them are highly exergonic events. C. All of them require increased concentrations of a second messenger. D. All of them are stimulated through phosphorylation. E. All of them begin with a ligand specifically binding a receptor.

A

What is unique about steroid receptor signaling? A. The only one of the six signaling systems that has ligand receptors in the nucleus B. The only system used for hormone signaling C. The only one of the six signaling systems that stimulates a change in gene expression D. The only system that does not require phosphorylation E. The only system that does not use second messenger molecules

A

Which of the following best describes the cholesterol molecule? A) Amphipathic B) Nonpolar, charged C) Nonpolar, uncharged D) Polar, charged E) Polar, uncharged

A

Which of the following is true of sphingolipids? A) Cerebrosides and gangliosides are sphingolipids. B) Phosphatidylcholine is a typical sphingolipid. C) They always contain glycerol and fatty acids. D) They contain two esterified fatty acids. E) They may be charged, but are never amphipathic.

A

Which of the following statements about sterols is true? A) All sterols share a fused-ring structure with four rings. B) Sterols are found in the membranes of all living cells. C) Sterols are soluble in water, but less so in organic solvents such as chloroform. D) Stigmasterol is the principal sterol in fungi. E) The principal sterol of animal cells is ergosterol.

A

Which of the following statements concerning fatty acids is correct? A) One is the precursor of prostaglandins. B) Phosphatidic acid is a common one. C) They all contain one or more double bonds. D) They are a constituent of sterols. E) They are strongly hydrophilic.

A

Which of these is a general feature of the lipid bilayer in all biological membranes? A) Individual lipid molecules are free to diffuse laterally in the surface of the bilayer. B) Individual lipid molecules in one face (monolayer) of the bilayer readily diffuse (flip-flop) to the other monolayer. C) Polar, but uncharged, compounds readily diffuse across the bilayer. D) The bilayer is stabilized by covalent bonds between neighboring phospholipid molecules. E) The polar head groups face inward toward the inside of the bilayer.

A

Which of these statements about facilitated diffusion across a membrane is true? A) A specific membrane protein lowers the activation energy for movement of the solute through the membrane. B) It can increase the size of a transmembrane concentration gradient of the diffusing solute. C) It is impeded by the solubility of the transported solute in the nonpolar interior of the lipid bilayer. D) It is responsible for the transport of gases such as O2, N2, and CH4 across biological membranes. E) The rate is not saturable by the transported substrate

A

Which of these statements about the composition of biological membranes is false? A) In a given eukaryotic cell type (e.g., a hepatocyte), all intracellular membranes have essentially the same complement of lipids and proteins. B) The carbohydrate found in membranes is virtually all part of either glycolipids or glycoproteins. C) The plasma membranes of the cells of vertebrate animals contain more cholesterol than the mitochondrial membranes. D) The ratio of lipid to protein varies widely among cell types in a single organism. E) Triacylglycerols are not commonly found in membranes

A

Which of these statements is generally true of integral membrane proteins? A) A hydropathy plot reveals one or more regions with a high hydropathy index. B) The domains that protrude on the cytoplasmic face of the plasma membrane nearly always have covalently attached oligosaccharides. C) They are unusually susceptible to degradation by trypsin. D) They can be removed from the membrane with high salt or mild denaturing agents. E) They undergo constant rotational motion that moves a given domain from the outer face of a membrane to the inner face and then back to the outer.

A

2) In the yeast signal transduction pathway, after both types of mating cells have released the mating factors and the factors have bound to specific receptors on the correct cells, A) binding induces changes in the cells that lead to cell fusion. B) the cells then produce the a factor and the α factor. C) one cell nucleus binds the mating factors and produces a new nucleus in the opposite cell. D) the cell membranes fall apart, releasing the mating factors that lead to new yeast cells. E) a growth factor is secreted that stimulates mitosis in both cells.

A Topic: Concept 11.1 Skill: Comprehension

11) The signal transduction pathway in animal cells that use epinephrine A) activates the breakdown of glycogen in liver and skeletal muscle cells. B) is a classic example of synaptic signaling. C) operates independently of hormone receptors on target cells. D) A and B only E) A, B, and C

A Topic: Concept 11.1 Skill: Knowledge

5) Paracrine signaling A) involves secreting cells acting on nearby target cells by discharging a local regulator into the extracellular fluid. B) requires nerve cells to release a neurotransmitter into the synapse. C) occurs only in paracrine yeast cells. D) has been found in plants but not animals. E) involves mating factors attaching to target cells and causing production of new paracrine cells.

A Topic: Concept 11.1 Skill: Knowledge

14) Of the following, a receptor protein in a membrane that recognizes a chemical signal is most similar to A) the active site of an enzyme in the cytoplasm that binds to a specific substrate. B) RNA specifying the amino acids in a polypeptide. C) a particular metabolic pathway operating within a specific organelle. D) an enzyme with an optimum pH and temperature for activity. E) genes making up a chromosome.

A Topic: Concept 11.2 Skill: Comprehension

17) What would be true for the signaling system in an animal cell that lacks the ability to produce GTP? A) It would not be able to activate and inactivate the G protein on the cytoplasmic side of the plasma membrane. B) It could activate only the epinephrine system. C) It would be able to carry out reception and transduction, but would not be able to respond to a signal. D) Only A and C are true. E) A, B, and C are true.

A Topic: Concept 11.2 Skill: Comprehension

27) In general, a signal transmitted via phosphorylation of a series of proteins A) brings a conformational change to each protein. B) requires binding of a hormone to a cytosol receptor. C) cannot occur in yeasts because they lack protein phosphatases. D) requires phosphorylase activity. E) allows target cells to change their shape and therefore their activity.

A Topic: Concept 11.3 Skill: Comprehension

31) A plant deficient in calcium could experience several problems, including A) poor response to signals of stress, drought, or cold. B) decreased response to epinephrine. C) overactive cyclic AMP responses. D) B and C only E) A, B, and C

A Topic: Concept 11.3 Skill: Comprehension

32) An animal deficient in adenylyl cyclase A) would not respond properly to epinephrine. B) could not convert GTP to ATP. C) would lack plasma membrane bound receptors. D) A and B only E) A, B, and C

A Topic: Concept 11.3 Skill: Comprehension

41) Which of the following most likely would be an immediate result of growth factor binding to its receptor? A) protein kinase activity B) adenylyl cyclase activity C) GTPase activity D) protein phosphatase activity E) phosphorylase activity

A Topic: Concept 11.3 Skill: Comprehension

37) The toxin of Vibrio cholerae causes profuse diarrhea because it A) modifies a G protein involved in regulating salt and water secretion. B) decreases the cytosolic concentration of calcium ions, making the cells hypotonic to the intestinal cells. C) binds with adenylyl cyclase and triggers the formation of cAMP. D) signals inositol trisphosphate to become a second messenger for the release of calcium. E) modifies calmodulin and activates a cascade of protein kinases.

A Topic: Concept 11.3 Skill: Knowledge

56) The cleavage of glycogen by glycogen phosphorylase releases ________. A) glucose-1-phosphate B) cellulose C) galactose-1-phosphate D) fructose-1-phosphate E) nothing; glycogen phosphorylase cannot cleave glycogen

A Topic: Web/CD Activity: Cellular Responses

G protein

A 2nd class of GPCRs are coupled through a ___ ________ to a PM-attached phospholipase C (PLC)

is uncomptitive

A Lineweaver-Burk plot displays parallel lines for an enzyme in the absence and presence of increasing amounts of an inhibitor. The inhibitor in this experiment a. binds both the free enzyme and the ES complex. b. is competitive. c. alters the Km but not the vmax. d. is uncompetitive.

covalent modification

A kinase adds a phosphate group to a target enzyme, altering the catalytic efficiency of the enzyme. This is an example of a. covalent modification. b. proteolytic processing. c. binding of regulatory molecules. d. feedback inhibition.

cAMP

A large number of GPCRs mediate their effects via ________

What is a ligand-gated ion channel?

A ligand-gated ion channel is a type of membrane receptor containing a region that can act as a "gate" when the receptor changes shape. When a signaling molecule binds as a ligand to the receptor protein, the gate opens or closes, allowing or blocking the flow of specific ions, such as Na+ or Ca2+, through a channel in the receptor. Like the other receptors we have discussed, these proteins bind the ligand at a specific site on their extracellular side.

Receptor

A membrane-bound or soluble protein or protein complex, which causes a physiological effect after binding its natural ligand

the inhibitor is a reversible inhibitor

A mixture of enzyme and inhibitor is run through a size-exclusion chromatography column. The activity of the enzyme is assessed before and after the chromatography. The enzyme has more activity after the chromatography step. Which of the following is true? a. The enzyme was not eluted fully from the column. b. The enzyme was denatured during chromatography. c. The inhibitor is a reversible inhibitor. d. The inhibitor is an irreversible inhibitor.

enzyme can no longer hold the intermediate in the correct orientation for catalysis.

A mutation of Lys229 in aldolase leads to a loss of enzyme activity. This is most likely because the a. active site can no longer exclude water. b. active site can no longer include water. c. enzyme can no longer hold the intermediate in the correct orientation for catalysis. d. product will remain bound to the enzyme active site.

preferentially hydrolyze substrates containing phenylalanine

A mutation results in the change of Ser to Asp in the substrate binding pocket of chymotrypsin. Most likely, the mutant enzyme will a. no longer catalyze the hydrolysis of a peptide bond because Asp cannot facilitate the nucleophilic attack. b. no longer catalyze the hydrolysis of a peptide bond because Asp is unable to be deprotonated by His57. c. preferentially hydrolyze substrates containing phenylalanine. d. preferentially hydrolyze substrates containing lysine.

ANS: Beriberi disease is caused by reduced pyruvate dehydrogenase complex activity. Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex activity can be reduced if the cofactor thiamine pyrophosphate is lacking, leading to an apoenzyme.

A patient presents with symptoms associated with the disease beriberi. An analysis of pyruvate dehydrogenase complex activity shows significantly reduced levels from normal. Predict how a deficiency in a coenzyme may be the culprit. Specify the coenzyme involved

Lineweaver-Burk; Km/vmax

A plot of 1 / v0 versus 1/[S] is called a __________ plot. Data in this plot have a slope equal a. Lineweaver-Burk; Km/vmax b. Lineweaver-Burk; −1/Km c. Michaelis-Menten; Km/vmax d. Michaelis-Menten; vmax

ANS: CTP is an allosteric inhibitor of aspartate transcarbamoylase. Its presence would shift the curve to the right.

A plot of v0 versus substrate concentration for aspartate transcarbamoylase displays a sigmoidal curve. Explain how the plot would change in the presence of CTP.

right; T state; CTP

A plot of vo versus [S] for aspartyl transcarbamoylase displays three sigmoidal lines. If the line in the middle represents the enzyme activity in the absence of any allosteric effectors, then the line to the __________ represents the enzyme in the __________ when bound to __________. a. right; R state; CTP b. right; T state; CTP c. left; R state; GTP d. left; T state; GTP

How is broadcasting a radio signal related to signals emitted by an "a" yeast cell?

A radio station broadcasts its signal indiscriminately, but it can only be picked up by radios tuned to the right wavelength: Reception of the signal depends on the receiver. Similarly, the signals emitted by an "a" yeast cell are "heard" only by its prospective mates, "alpha" cells. In the case of epinephrine, the hormone encounters many types of cells as it circulates in the blood, but only certain target cells detect and react to the hormone molecule. A receptor protein on or in the target cell allows the cell to "hear" the signal and respond to it. The signaling molecule is complementary in shape to a specific site on the receptor and attaches there, like a key in a lock or a substrate in the catalytic site of an enzyme.

separating the receptor-hormone complex (RL) from free hormone

A radiolabeled ligand (L) - a hormone, for example- is added at several concentrations to a fixed amount of receptor (R), and the fraction of the hormone bound to receptor is determined by

stabilizes the transition state; orients the substrate appropriately for the reaction to occur

A reaction coordinate diagram comparing an uncatalyzed reaction with an enzyme-catalyzed reaction can directly illustrate that the enzyme __________, but will not directly illustrate that the enzyme __________. a. orients the substrates appropriately for the reaction to occur; provides an alternative path for product formation b. provides an alternative path for product formation; stabilizes the transition state c. stabilizes the transition state; orients the substrates appropriately for the reaction to occur d. stabilizes the transition state; provides an alternative path for product formation

What is a ligand?

A signaling molecule. The term ligand is used for a molecule that specifically binds to another molecule, often a larger one. Ligand binding generally causes a receptor protein to undergo a change in shape. For many receptors, this shape change directly activates the receptor, enabling it to interact with other cellular molecules. For other kinds of receptors, the immediate effect of a ligand binding is to cause the aggregation of two or more receptor molecules, which leads to further molecular events inside the cell. Most signal receptors are plasma membrane proteins. Their ligands are water-soluble and generally too large to pass free through the plasma membrane. Other signal receptors, however, are located inside the cell.

Compare the two reaction coordinate diagrams below and select the answer that correctly describes their relationship. In each case, the single intermediate is the ES complex. (see page 190 or picture from test bank) A) (a) describes a strict "lock and key" model, whereas (b) describes a transition-state complementarity model. B) The activation energy for the catalyzed reaction is #5 in (a) and is #7 in (b). C) The activation energy for the uncatalyzed reaction is given by #5 + #6 in (a) and by #7 + #4 in (b). D) The contribution of binding energy is given by #5 in (a) and by #7 in (b). E) The ES complex is given by #2 in (a) and #3 in (b).

A) (a) describes a strict "lock and key" model, whereas (b) describes a transition-state complementarity model

In the following diagram of the first step in the reaction catalyzed by the protease chymotrypsin, the process of general base catalysis is illustrated by the number ________, and the process of covalent catalysis is illustrated by the number _________. (see picture from test bank) A) 1; 2 B) 1; 3 C) 2; 3 D) 2; 3 E) 3; 2

A) 1; 2

Based on Chargaff's rules, which of the following are possible base compositions for double-stranded DNA? %A %G %C %T %U A) 5 45 45 5 0 B) 20 20 20 20 20 C) 35 15 35 15 0 D) all of the above E) none of the above

A) 5 45 45 5 0

Some effort has been made to extract DNA from fossilized dinosaur bones that have been buried for many millions of years in arid climates. In what form is this DNA most likely to be found? A) A B) B C) Z D) Tetraplex E) Completely denatured

A) A

Why are chitin and cellulose hydrophobic, and essentially insoluble in an aqueous carbons?

A) Because beta-glycosidic linkages are nonpolar and alpha linkages are polar.

From the abbreviated name of the compound Gal(beta1 --> 4)Glc, we know that: A) C-4 of glucose is joined to C-1 of galactose by a glycosidic bond. B) the compound is a D-enantiomer. C) the galactose residue is at the reducing end. D) the glucose is in its pyranose form. E) the glucose residue is the beta anomer.

A) C-4 of glucose is joined to C-1 of galactose by a glycosidic bond.

From the abbreviated name of the compound Gal(β1 → 4)Glc, we know that: A) C-4 of glucose is joined to C-1 of galactose by a glycosidic bond. B) the compound is a D-enantiomer. C) the galactose residue is at the reducing end. D) the glucose is in its pyranose form. E) the glucose residue is the β anomer.

A) C-4 of glucose is joined to C-1 of galactose by a glycosidic bond.

From the abbreviated name of the compound Gal(β1 → 4)Glc, we know that: A) C-4 of glucose is joined to C-1 of galactose by a glycosidic bond. B) the compound is a D-enantiomer. C) the galactose residue is at the reducing end. D) the glucose is in its pyranose form. E) the glucose residue is the β anomer.

A) C-4 of glucose is joined to C-1 of galactose by a glycosidic bond.

Lipids were extracted from plasma membranes. What method could be used to separate them by exploiting differences in volatility? A) Gas-liquid chromatography B) Adsorption column chromatography C) Thin layer chromatography D) Mass spectroscopy E) Ion-exchange chromatography

A) Gas-liquid chromatography

Which group of carbohydrates is unique in that its members are strong anions, containing a significant concentration of carboxylate and sulfate? A) Glycosaminoglycans B) Gangliosides C) Peptidoglycans D) Proteoglycans E) Selectins

A) Glycosaminoglycans

What term is given to carbohydrates linked at their anomeric carbon

A) Non-reducing sugars

Which of the following would not be expected for a regulatory enzyme in a metabolic pathway? A) Phosphorylation B) It is the first enzyme in a series of reactions C) It is an allosteric enzyme D) The catalytic site is on a different protein subunit than the inhibitor site E) A product from the end of a pathway inhibits the enzyme, which operates higher up in the pathway.

A) Phosphorylation

In the Watson-Crick model for the DNA double helix (B form) the A-T and G-C base pairs share which one of the following properties? A) The distance between the two glycosidic (base-sugar) bonds is the same in both base pairs, within a few tenths of an angstrom. B) The molecular weights of the two base pairs are identical. C) The number of hydrogen bonds formed between the two bases of the base pair is the same. D) The plane of neither base pair is perpendicular to the axis of the helix. E) The proton-binding groups in both base pairs are in their charged or ionized form.

A) The distance between the two glycosidic (base-sugar) bonds is the same in both base pairs, within a few tenths of an angstrom

The difference between a ribonucleotide and a deoxyribonucleotide is: A) a deoxyribonucleotide has an —H instead of an —OH at C-2. B) a deoxyribonucleotide has alpha configuration; ribonucleotide has the beta configuration at C-1. C) a ribonucleotide has an extra —OH at C-4. D) a ribonucleotide has more structural flexibility than deoxyribonucleotide. E) a ribonucleotide is a pyranose, deoxyribonucleotide is a furanose.

A) a deoxyribonucleotide has an —H instead of an —OH at C-2.

In the Watson-Crick structure of DNA, the: A) absence of 2'-hydroxyl groups allows bases to lie perpendicular to the helical axis. B) adenine content of one strand must equal the thymine content of the same strand. C) nucleotides are arranged in the A-form. D) purine content (fraction of bases that are purines) must be the same in both strands. E) two strands are parallel.

A) absence of 2'-hydroxyl groups allows bases to lie perpendicular to the helical axis.

One of the enzymes involved in glycolysis, aldolase, requires Zn2+ for catalysis. Under conditions of zinc deficiency, when the enzyme may lack zinc, it would be referred to as the: A) apoenzyme. B) coenzyme. C) holoenzyme. D) prosthetic group. E) substrate.

A) apoenzyme

In glycoproteins, the carbohydrate moiety is always attached through the amino acid residues: A) asparagine, serine, or threonine. B) aspartate or glutamate. C) glutamine or arginine. D) glycine, alanine, or aspartate. E) tryptophan, aspartate, or cysteine.

A) asparagine, serine, or threonine.

In glycoproteins, the carbohydrate moiety is always attached through the amino acid residues: A) asparagine, serine, or threonine. B) aspartate or glutamate. C) glutamine or arginine. D) glycine, alanine, or aspartate. E) tryptophan, aspartate, or cysteine.

A) asparagine, serine, or threonine.

In glycoproteins, the carbohydrate moiety is always attached through the amino acid residues: A) asparagine, serine, or threonine. B) aspartate or glutamate. C) glutamine or arginine. D) glycine, alanine, or aspartate. E) tryptophan, aspartate, or cysteine.

A) asparagine, serine, or threonine.

The phosphodiester bond that joins adjacent nucleotides in DNA: A) associates ionically with metal ions, polyamines, and proteins. B) is positively charged. C) is susceptible to alkaline hydrolysis. D) Links C-2 of one base to C-3 of the next. E) links C-3 of deoxyribose to N-1 of thymine or cytosine.

A) associates ionically with metal ions, polyamines, and proteins.

The specificity of signaling pathways includes all of the following except: A) flippase-catalyzed movement of phospholipids from the inner to the outer leaflet. B) migration of signal proteins into membrane rafts. C) phosphorylation of target proteins at Ser, Thr, or Tyr residues. D) the ability to be switched off instantly by hydrolysis of a single phosphate-ester bond. E) the assembly of large multiprotein complexes.

A) flippase-catalyzed movement of phospholipids from the inner to the outer leaflet.


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