board darby's Anatomy and Physiology
6. c. Makes up 80% of the body's bone mass Which one of the following statements is NOT true about cancellous bone? a. Arranged in crisscrossing branches or plates called trabeculae b. Provides structure for blood production d. Located in the ends of long bones
(6. C. Compact bone provides strength by the tightly packed units called osteons.) A. The trabeculae give the cancellous bone a spongy, Swiss cheese-like appearance.
31. Which blood protein account for 38% of plasma, functioning to transport lipids and antibodies for immunity? c. Globulin a. Albumin b. Fibrinogen d. Prothrombin
31. C. Globulin consists of three types—alpha, beta, and gamma—and function as an essential component of the immunity process. (A. Albumin accounts for 60% of blood plasma proteins and plays a role in fluid balance. B. Fibrinogen is the largest blood protein molecule and produced in the liver. D. Prothrombin is vital to the blood clotting mechanism.)
19. All the following are descriptive of neurotransmitters a. classified by their function or chemical structure. b. facilitate synaptic transmission across the synaptic cleft. c. are inactivated by enzymes to prevent prolonged reactions. EXCEPT d. allow ions to flow from one cell to another as they are joined together.
(19. D. When two cells are joined end to end, the synaptic transmission remains continuous from one cell to another. This is referred to as electrical synapses). A. Neurotransmitters are classified by their function or chemical structures that serve to facilitate or inhibit postsynaptic neurons.
45. c. Secrete insulin Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver? a. Detoxify substances b. Secrete bile d. Stores iron
(45. C. The pancreas secretes insulin to control carbohydrate and fat metabolism). A. Liver cells detoxify substances. B. About 1 pint of bile is secreted daily by the liver. D. The liver stores substances such as iron and vitamins.
1. Which passive transport process enables the transfer of molecules into cells by a carrier molecule? a. Channel mediated b. Facilitated diffusion c. Osmosis d. Simple diffusion
1. B. Facilitated diffusion occurs with carrier molecules through the membrane of the cell. (A. Channel mediated is diffusion of particles through a membrane by means of channel structures. C. Osmosis is diffusion of water molecules to balance water concentrations. D. Simple diffusion is movement of particles through channels down a concentration gradient (high to low concentration).
10. Which classification of joints is between the radius and carpal bones? (a. Cartilaginous b. Fibrous c. Syndesmoses) d. Synovial
10. D. Synovial joints are a more complicated joint that includes a joint capsule, synovial membrane, articular cartilage, joint cavity, meniscus, ligament, and bursa. There are further classifications of synovial joints namely, uniaxial, biaxial, and multi-axial. The joint between the radius and carpal bones is a biaxial synovial joint. (A. Cartilaginous joints are bones joined together by either hyaline cartilage or fibrous cartilage. An example is a joint between the vertebrae. B. Fibrous joints are bones that fit closely together. An example is the root of a tooth and the maxilla. C. Syndesmoses is an additional classification of fibrous joints made up of fibrous bands that connect articulating bones. An example is the union between the tibia and fibula at the distal ends.)
11. The muscle action group that serves to stabilize joints is referred to as a. agonist. b. antagonist. c. fixator. d. synergist.
11. C. Fixator muscles stabilize joints and can help maintain posture or balance. (A. Agonist muscles perform a specific motion and often referred to as the action of the muscle. B. Antagonist muscles oppose the agonist muscle by an opposite action such as relaxation versus contraction. D. Synergist muscles contract the same time as agonist muscles to supplement the action.)
12. Which type of muscle contraction is an example of concentric (isotonic) contraction? a. Biceps curl b. Setting an object down c. Sitting in a chair d. Walking down the stairs
12. A. The bicep curl is an example of the muscle shortening upon contraction and thus a concentric (isotonic) contraction. (B. Setting an object down is an example of the muscle lengthening and thus an eccentric (isotonic) contraction. Because of external weight, the muscle is forced to lengthen as object is placed. C. Sitting in a chair requires muscles to extend as gravity pulls the weight of the person into the chair. This is an example of eccentric (isotonic) contraction. D. Walking down stairs lengthens the quadriceps as the knee flexes. This is an example of eccentric (isotonic) contraction.)
13. Which muscle is found in the respiratory tract? a. Striated and voluntary b. Smooth c. Skeletal d. Striated and involuntary
13. B. The smooth muscle is part of the internal process and mostly found in hollow organs such as the intestines or blood vessels. Smooth muscle is nonstriated and involuntary. (A. Striated and voluntary muscle provide movement and maintain posture. C. Skeletal muscle is also considered striated and voluntary muscle. D. Cardiac muscle is considered striated and involuntary.)
14. Which muscle has an origin on the cheek bone and inserts on the corner of the mouth? a. Buccinator b. Frontalis c. Orbicularis oris d. Zygomaticus
14. D. The zygomaticus elevates the corner of the mouth for smiling. (A. The buccinators originates on the maxilla and mandible and inserts on the orbicularis oris. B. The frontalis originates on the cranial aponeurosis and inserts on skin above eyebrows. C. The orbicularis oris encircles the mouth. It contraction creates pursing and closing of lips.)
15. Which muscle group moves the phalanges for the dental hygienist? c. Flexor and extensor digitorum a. Adductor b. Flexor and extensor carpi d. Supinator
15. C. This group of muscles originates on the humerus, ulna, and radius and insert on the phalanges (fingers). (A. The adductor group (longus, brevis, and magnus) rotates the thigh. B. The flexor and extensor carpi originate on the humerus, ulna, and radius and insert on the tendon in wrist. This allows the flexion and extension and adduction and abduction of the hand at the wrist. D. The supinator originates on the humerus and ulna and inserts on the radius, facilitating the palm to turn proximal or anterior).
16. Which nervous system structure has the ability to undergo mitosis, thus making its cells also vulnerable to cancer? a. Axon b. Dendrite c. Neuroglia d. Neuron
16. C. Neuroglia serves as a support system for the neurons. Neuroglia cells maintain their ability to divide. Most benign and malignant nervous tissue originates from neuroglia cells. (A. The axon is a single long nerve fiber that conducts impulses away from the body. B. The dendrite is an extension of the neuron and conducts impulses to neurons nearby. D. Neurons carry out the function of the nervous system by generating impulses. Neurons cannot undergo mitosis and thus cannot be replaced).
17. Which of the following is a function of myelin? a. Increases the speed of nerve conduction (b. Transmit impulses away from the spinal cord or brain c. Transmit impulses to the spinal cord or brain d. Provides impulses toward the cell body)
17. A. Myelin is a fatty substance around axons that provides insulation. This then increases the speed of nerve conduction. (B. Efferent neurons transmit impulses away from the spinal cord or brain and a subdivision of both the central and peripheral nervous system. C. Afferent neurons transmit impulses to the spinal cord or brain and a subdivision of both the central and peripheral nervous system. D. Dendrites send impulses toward the cell body. One neuron may have many dendrites.)
18. The period of time that the neuron is "recovering" from depolarization is referred to as b. refractory period. a. absolute refractory period. c. reverse polarization. d. salutatory conduction.
18. B. The refractory period is a point when the cell membrane is recovering from the influx of positively charged ions. (A. The absolute refractory period is when the neuron cannot respond to a second stimulus while the membrane is permeable to sodium ions. C. The entry of sodium ions into the membrane resulting in reversing the polarity is called reverse polarization. D. Depolarization can occur only where there is no myelin or the nodes of Ranvier. This action of jumping from node to node is referred to as saltatory conduction.)
2. Which active transport process requires metabolic cell energy to move substances against a concentration gradient? a. Active transport pump b. Endocytosis c. Exocytosis d. Phagocytosis
2. A. The active transport pump moves substances from a low concentration to a high concentration. (B. Endocytosis is the taking in of substances by the cell membrane via a vesicle. C. Exocytosis is the secretion of cellular products. D. Phagocytosis is a form of endocytosis by engulfing of solid particles by the cell membrane.)
20. Spinal meningitis is an infection or inflammation of the connective tissue covering that includes all the following layers EXCEPT b. cauda equina a. arachnoid. . c. dura mater. d. pia mater.
20. B. Cauda equine is the end of the spinal nerve branching out into roots similar to a "horse tail." (A. Arachnoid is the thin middle layer of the meninges composed of collagen and elastic fiber. C. Dura mater is the outermost layer of the meninges which is a white fibrous connective tissue. D. Pia mater is the innermost layer of the meninges and tightly bound to the brain and spinal cord.)
21. The area of the cerebrum most responsible for personality and emotional expression is the b. occipital lobe. a. frontal lobe. c. parietal lobe. d. temporal lobe.
21. A. Other functions of the frontal lobe include intellectual functions, memory, and motor area. (B. The occipital lobe is responsible for vision and vision-related functions. C. The parietal lobe is responsible for the somatosensory area or general sensory information from the body. D. The temporal lobe is responsible for hearing, taste, smell, parts of speech, and memory.)
22. Which of the following would NOT be a response by the sympathetic nervous system? b. Constrict iris of eye a. Constrict blood vessels c. Dilate bronchial tubes d. Increase heart rate
22. B. The parasympathetic response is associated quiet and nonstressful circumstances and has a soothing effect on the body. Thus, the iris of the eye constricts as opposed to a "fight or flight" response of eye dilation. (A. In times of stress, the sympathetic response is to constrict blood vessels. C. In the sympathetic response of "fight or flight," the bronchial tubes dilate to increase breathing more quickly and deeply. D. In the sympathetic response of "fight of flight," the heart rate increases in response to a threat or stress.)
23. The auditory area that extends from the middle ear down to the nasopharynx is called the c. eustachian tube. a. auricle. b. basilar membrane. d. tympanic membrane.
23. C. The eustachian tube in part of the middle ear and is also referred to as the auditory tube. It is lined with mucosa and composed of bone, cartilage, and fibrous tissue. (A. The auricle is the part of the ear that is visible and surrounds the external acoustic meatus. B. The basilar membrane is part of the cochlea and located on the floor of the cochlear duct. D. The tympanic membrane is part of the eternal ear and separates the canal from the middle ea).
24. All of the following describe a steroid hormone a. a mobile receptor in nucleus. b. chemical structure is made up of lipids. c. response time is 1 hour to several days. EXCEPT, d. stored in secretory vesicles before release.
24. (D. Nonsteroid hormones are stored in secretory vesicles before release.) A. As a steroid passes into a target cell, it will then diffuse into the nucleus and bind to free-moving receptors. This hormone action is referred to as the mobile-receptor model. .
25. Which one of the following is a function of the anterior pituitary gland? a. Produces growth hormone (b. Secretes melatonin c. Stores and releases antidiuretic hormone d. Stores and releases oxytocin)
25. A. The growth hormone is produced by the anterior pituitary gland, effecting body growth by stimulating the liver to ultimately produce growth factors. (B. The pineal gland secretes melatonin, helping to regulate sleep cycles. C. The posterior pituitary gland releases antidiuretic hormone, which limits large amounts of urine and protecting from dehydration. D. The posterior pituitary gland releases oxytocin for uterine contraction during labor and milk ejection of lactating women.)
(Use Case A to answer question 26 to 29.) 26. Which of the following is one of the main actions of the thyroid gland? c. Increases metabolic rate a. Increases breakdown of glycogen b. Increases heart rate and blood pressure d. Increases sodium reabsorption and potassium secretion
26. C. The thyroid gland releases thyroxine and triiodothyronine to increase the metabolic rate, which is important for development and growth. (A. The pancreas releases glucagon to increase the breakdown of glycogen, thus increasing blood glucose levels. B. The adrenal medulla releases epinephrine to increase heart rate and blood pressure. D. The adrenal cortex releases mineralocorticoids to increase sodium reabsorption and potassium secretion.)
27. Which of the following is a symptom manifested from high levels of thyroid hormone? b. Increased heart rate a. Dry skin c. Fatigue d. Unexplained weight gain
27. B. An increase in thyroid hormone can cause a faster heart rate. A symptom of hypothyroidism is a slower heart rate. (A, C, and D are all symptoms manifested from low thyroid hormone. A client might also experience depression, dry skin, or swelling of the thyroid gland.)
28. Which trophic hormone does the anterior pituitary gland secrete that is essential for the thyroid gland to secrete its hormones? (a. ACTH b. FSH c. LH) d. TSH
28. D. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) causes the thyroid to secrete its hormones. (A. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) stimulates the adrenal cortex, influencing normal growth and development of the adrenal gland. B. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) in females stimulates the ovaries to mature. FSH in males stimulates the seminiferous tubules for spermatogenesis maintenance and production. C. Luteinizing hormone (LH) influences the corpus luteum of the ovary for formation and activity.)
29. Which is the function of the parathyroid hormone? b. Increases the release of calcium into the blood by influencing bone and kidneys a. Important for the promotion of breast development c. Inhibits the production of large amounts of urine d. Stimulates contraction of uterine muscles during labor
29. B. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) is the main hormone the body used to increase the release of calcium into the blood. (A. Prolactin (PRL) is produced by the anterior pituitary gland and is vital for breast development and milk secretion. C. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is produced by the posterior pituitary gland and influences the production of urine. D. Oxytocin (OT) is produced by the posterior pituitary gland and is important for milk ejection and uterine contraction.)
3. The dental hygienist created a client treatment plan by dividing the oral cavity at the midsagittal plane, or two dentition quadrants per client appointment (UR, upper right; UL, upper left; LR, lower right; LL, lower left). Which quadrants will be treated at each scheduled appointment? a. Appointment one: UR and LR; appointment two: UL and LL b. Appointment one: LR and LL; appointment two: UR and UL c. Appointment one: UR and LL; appointment two: UL and LR d. Appointment one: all anterior teeth; appointment two: all posterior teeth
3. A. The midsagittal plane divides the body into right and left sides at the exact midline. (B. Transverse plane divides the body in a horizontal plane or, in this instance, maxillary and mandibular arches. C. This answer divides the body in both a midsagittal and transverse plane. D. The frontal plane divides the body into anterior and posterior regions.)
30. A dental hygiene client states on his medical history that he is experiencing polyuria and polydipsia. Which of the following hormones could be at decreased levels for this client? a. ADH b. Gonadotropin c. Prolactin d. TSH
30. A. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) influences the reabsorption of water by the kidneys, thus resulting in less water in the urine. Decreased levels of ADH would cause an increase of water in the urine and thirst by the patient. (B. Gonadotropic hormones help regulate development, growth, and the function of ovaries and testes. C. Prolactin influences the development of glandular tissue in the female breast. A decrease of this hormone would be a problem for a woman who desires to breastfeed her baby. D. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) regulates the glandular cells in the thyroid to secrete thyroid hormone. A decrease in this hormone causes atrophy of the thyroid.)
32. Which chamber of the heart pumps oxygen depleted blood into the lungs? (a. Left atrium b. Left ventricle c. Right atrium) d. Right ventricle
32. D. The right ventricle receives deoxygenated blood from the right atrium and pumps it into the lungs for oxygenation. (A. The left atrium receives oxygenated blood from four pulmonary veins. B. The left ventricle receives oxygenated blood from the left atrium and then pumps the blood to the entire body. C. The right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from the superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, and coronary sinus.)
33. Which is the innermost layer of the heart and also lines the valves? a. Endocardium b. Epicardium c. Myocardium d. Pericardium
33. A. The endocardium is a smooth surface, allowing blood to easily flow over it. It is also continuous with the blood vessels that transport the blood to the heart. (B. The epicardium is a serous membrane and a thin layer of the outermost layer. C. The myocardium forms the majority of the heart wall and is composed of cardiac muscle. D. The pericardium is a double-layered sac that attaches the heart to surrounding structures.)
34. During a health history review, the client tells the RDH that she has stenosis of the aortic valve. This means that b. the left ventricle could have hypertrophy. a. deoxygenated blood is not reaching the lungs. c. the client has a diagnosis of mitral valve prolapse. d. the right atrium is not working effectively.
34. B. The aortic valve regulates the flow of blood into the aorta from the left ventricle. When the valve has stenosis, it increases the work load of the left ventricle and could cause hypertrophy. (A. The aortic valve only helps in the passage of oxygenated blood. Deoxygenated blood passes through the pulmonary semilunar valve. C. The mitral valve or bicuspid valve controls passage of blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle. D. The right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from the right atrium through the tricuspid valve.)
35. The four major factors that affect blood pressure include all the following a. blood volume. b. cardiac output. c. peripheral resistance.. e. viscosity. EXCEPT d. pulse points
35. D. Pulse points refer to the arteries that the pulse can be felt near the surface of the body.) A. Blood volume directly influences blood pressure as a decrease in volume lowers the pressure.
36. The acquired immunity response that results from a person contracting a disease and then recovering is called b. active natural immunity. a. active artificial immunity. c. passive artificial immunity. d. passive natural immunity.
36. B. Active natural immunity occurs when a person is exposed to an antigen, resulting in illness, and then recovers. Thus, memory cells are produced, and subsequent exposures may not result in an illness because a rapid immune response develops. (A. Active artificial immunity results from a vaccination. The weakened pathogen introduced into the body stimulates the immune response, resulting in antibodies for future exposures. C. Passive artificial immunity is the result of antibodies from another person being introduced to an individual. Antiserum is the preparation to introduce the antibodies. D. Passive natural immunity is when antibodies are passed from one person to another person through natural means. For example, antibodies may pass from a mother to her fetus through the placenta.)
Use Case B to answer questions 37 to 39. 37. During hyperventilation, a patient is breathing faster and deeper, eliminating more carbon dioxide than is produced. (This results in respiratory alkalosis, or a decrease in the pH of the circulating blood). (c. The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.).
37. C. Hyperventilation is caused from a patient breathing rapidly and deeply, resulting in elimination of too much carbon dioxide from the body. The consequence is alkalosis or an increase in the pH of circulating blood.
38. What other physiologic effect(s) can result from the decrease of carbon dioxide? a. Reduction of calcium levels in the bloodstream b. Vasoconstriction of blood vessels and veins c. Reduced cardiac output and coronary blood flow d. All of the above
38. D. All of the above (A. Reduction of calcium levels in the bloodstream (hypocalcemia) can lead to tetany. B. Vasoconstriction of the blood vessels and veins can lead to dizziness and impaired vision. C. Reduced cardiac output and coronary blood flow result from the vasoconstriction, which in turn may manifest as heart palpitations and possibly chest pain.)
39. What is the effect of the diaphragm relaxing during the breathing cycle? a. Air is let out of the lungs. b. The diaphragm contracts and drops. c. The volume of the thoracic cavity increases. d. Surfactants cause the alveoli to collapse.
39. A. When the diaphragm relaxes, the volume of the thoracic cavity decreases and expiration occurs. (B. When the diaphragm contracts and drops, it increases the volume of the thoracic cavity, and inspiration occurs. C. The volume of the thoracic cavity increases when the diaphragm contracts; thus, air is taken into the lungs, and inspiration occurs. D. Surfactants are a lipoprotein substance that helps prevent alveoli from collapsing.)
4. Which epithelial membrane covers body cavities that open to the exterior of the body and are adapted for absorption and secretion? b. Mucous a. Cutaneous c. Periosteum d. Synovial
4. B. Examples of the mucous membranes are the digestive tract, the urinary tract, reproductive tract, and respiratory tract. (A. The cutaneous membrane is the skin. C. The periosteum membrane is a connective tissue membrane that covers bone. D. The synovial membrane is a connective tissue membrane that lines joint cavities.)
40. A client presents for a dental hygiene appointment. On review of the medical history, the client reports that he frequently experiences dyspnea. This means that he is experiencing (a. frequent urination. b. muscle fatigue. c. peripheral edema.) d. shortness of breath.
40. D. Shortness of breath is referred to as dyspnea. Orthopnea is shortness of breath while in a reclined position. Both of these can be a symptom of heart failure. (A. The medical term for frequent urination is polyuria. B. Muscle fatigue is a symptom of heart failure resulting from reduced blood and oxygen supply to the skeletal muscles. C. Peripheral edema refers to the retention of fluids in the tissues and can be a symptom of heart failure).
41. What is the function of the blood cell called a basophil? c. Secretes heparin a. Phagocytosis b. Secretes antibodies d. Transportation of respiratory gases
41. C. Basophils secrete heparin, which is an anticoagulant and important for the inflammatory process. (A. Neutrophils and eosinophils are part of the cellular defense providing phagocytosis of pathogens. B. Lymphocytes are important for the body's immune response by secreting antibodies. D. Erythrocytes transport oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood.)
42. Which of the following is one of the openings found in the pharynx? b. Eustachian tube a. Epiglottis c. Glottis d. Paranasal sinus
42. B. The eustachian or auditory tubes open into the nasopharynx, which is an anatomical division of the pharynx. (A. The epiglottis is a cartilage of the larynx that is behind the tongue and hyoid bone. C. The glottis is part of the larynx and is made up of the vocal folds and the space between them. D. The paranasal sinuses open and drain into the nasal cavity.)
43. Aldosterone is a mineralocorticoid that functions to a. support sodium homeostasis of the blood. b. breakdown proteins into amino acids. c. give male characteristics. d. increase the release of calcium in the blood.
43. A. Aldosterone is the main mineralocorticoid in humans. It is secreted from the outer zone of the adrenal cortex. (B. Glucocorticoids are secreted from the middle zone of the adrenal cortex and have many functions such as the breakdown of proteins, maintaining blood pressure, and being part of the stress response. C. Gonadocorticoids are secreted from the inner zone of the adrenal cortex and provide enough androgen to influence the appearance of pubic and underarm hair in males and females. D. The parathyroid hormone acts to increase the release of calcium in the blood and helps to maintain calcium homeostasis.)
44. Which portion of the small intestine makes up the uppermost division? b. Duodenum a. Ascending colon c. Fundus d. Ileum
44. B. The duodenum attaches to the pyloric end of the stomach and is about 10 inches long. (A. The ascending colon is a division of the large intestine and joins the ileum at the junction of the cecum. C. The fundus is a division of the stomach and above the junction of the esophagus called the cardia. D. The ileum is about 12 feet long and makes up the final portion of the small intestine.)
46. Which organ(s) of the digestive system include the mechanical process of deglutition? b. Pharynx a. Colon c. Rectum d. Small intestine)
46. B. The pharynx, esophagus, teeth, and tongue all contribute to the swallowing of food referred to as deglutition. (A. The colon is part of the large intestine with mechanical processes called segmentation and peristalsis. C. The rectum's mechanical process of the digestive system is referred to as defecation. D. The small intestine's mechanical process of the digestive system is referred to as segmentation and peristalsis.)
47. The structures of a kidney nephron include the following: a. Bowman's capsule, loop of Henle, and renal corpuscle. (b. cortex, medulla, and calyx. c. juxtaglomerular apparatus, renal artery, and urinary bladder. d. urethra, ureter, and interlobular arteries.)
47. A. Bowman's capsule, loop of Henle, and renal corpuscle are all microscopic working components of nephrons that make up a large portion of the kidney. (B. The cortex, medulla, and calyx are structures of the kidney. The cortex is the outer region, and the medulla is the inner region. The calyx is a cuplike structure that collects urine to transport out of the kidney. C. The juxtaglomerular, renal artery, and urinary bladder are structures of the kidney. The juxtaglomerular functions to maintain blood homeostasis. The renal artery brings blood to each kidney. The urinary bladder functions as a reservoir for urine and expels it from the body. D. The urethra, ureters, and interlobular arteries are structures of the kidney. The urethra is a small tube leading from the bladder to the external urinary meatus. The ureters are tubes running from the kidneys to the bladder. The interlobular arteries help to carry blood to the functional units of the kidneys.)
48. The three main functions of the kidneys include all the following EXCEPT a. digestion. (b. filtration. c. tubular reabsorption. d. tubular secretion.)
48. A. Digestion is not a function of the kidneys. The kidneys are part of the urinary system and fluid balance. Some of the organs that make up the digestive system are the liver, stomach, gallbladder, and pancreas. (B. The function of filtration in the kidneys is to move water and protein-free solutes from the plasma in the glomerulus into the capsular space of Bowman's capsule. C. The function of tubular reabsorption is the movement of molecules out of the tubule and into peritubular blood. D. The function of tubular secretion is the movement of molecules of peritubular blood and into the tubule for excretion.)
49. Which hormone is secreted by the anterior pituitary gland and influences both the male and female reproductive systems? b. Follicle-stimulating hormone a. Adrenocorticotropic c. Prolactin d. Thyroid-stimulating hormone
49. B. Follicle-stimulating hormone stimulates the follicles of ovaries to mature in women and stimulates the seminiferous tubules in men to maintain or increase rate of sperm production. (A. Adrenocorticotropic hormone helps to maintain growth and development of the adrenal gland. This hormone is produced by the anterior pituitary gland. C. Prolactin is important for the development of breasts and the secretion of milk after pregnancy. This hormone is produced by the anterior pituitary gland. D. Thyroid-stimulating hormone influences the development of the thyroid gland. It also causes the thyroid gland to secrete its hormones. This hormone is produced by the anterior pituitary gland.)
5. Which of the following BEST describes the functions of the hypodermis, or subcutaneous layer of the skin? (a. Forms ridges that make up fingerprints and footprints b. Serves as an attachment for skeletal muscle fibers c. Serves as a protection against microorganisms and dehydration) d. Forms as a connection between the skin and underlying structures
5. D. The hypodermis is loose connective and adipose tissue and forms a connection between the skin and underlying structures. (A. The papillary layer is a component of the dermis. B. The reticular layer is a component of the dermis. C. The epidermis is the outer most layer of skin.)
Use Case C to answer questions 50 to 55. 50. Which of the medications taken by the client controls his hypertension? a. Glipizide b. Hydrochlorothiazide c. Metformin d. Sertraline (Zoloft)
50. B. Hydrochlorothiazide is a drug to manage hypertension and acts as a diuretic. (A. Glipizide is a noninsulin antidiabetic drug that enhances insulin secretion. C. Metformin is a noninsulin diabetic drug that reduces glucose production. D. Sertraline is a commonly used antidepressant and acts as a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor.)
51. Which of the following BEST describes this client's blood pressure? b. Blood pressure rate is considered high, and he should be encouraged to see a physician. a. Blood pressure rate is considered prehypertensive, and he should be encouraged to see a physician. c. Blood pressure rate is considered too high, and he should not receive dental treatment until seen by a physician. d. Blood pressure is within normal limits.
51. B. A client with a blood pressure of 150/95 mm Hg should be encouraged to see his physician, especially because the patient is already receiving blood pressure medications. (A. Prehypertensive blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg or greater but less than 140/90 mm Hg. C. A blood pressure of 180/110 mm Hg or greater should have elective treatment deferred and referred to physician as soon as possible. D. A blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg or less is considered within normal limits.)
52. Which statement is true regarding insulin secretion by pancreatic islets? (a. If blood glucose level is low, there is a decrease of glucagon secreted. b. If blood glucose level is low, there is an increase of insulin secreted. c. If blood glucose level is high, there is a decrease of insulin secreted.) d. If blood glucose level is high, there is a decrease of glucagon secreted.
52. D. When blood glucose level is high, the pancreatic islets decrease secretion of glucagon to help lower the glucose level. (A. This statement is false. If blood glucose level is low, there is an increase of glucagon secreted to increase glucose levels. B. This statement is false. If blood glucose level is low, there is a decrease of insulin secreted to increase glucose levels. C. This statement is false. If blood glucose level is high, there is an increase of insulin secreted to decrease glucose levels.)
53. During the initial exam, the client begins to exhibit unusual nervousness, complaining of blurry vision and a headache. On taking his vital signs, you note that his heart rate has increased to 100 beats/min. You use the glucometer, and his blood glucose is 68 mg/dL. Which statement best describes the situation? c. The client's blood glucose is too low; defer treatment and give carbohydrates a. The client's blood glucose is too high; defer elective treatment and refer to physician. b. The client's blood glucose is within normal limits; proceed with treatment plan. . d. The client's blood glucose is within normal limits, but his heart rate needs to be addressed.
53. C. A blood glucose level below 70 mg/dL is considered too low for elective dental treatment. Because the patient did not eat lunch, he is probably experiencing hypoglycemia. (A. A blood glucose level above 200 mg/dL is considered too high. In this instance, the elective treatment should be deferred and the client referred to a physician. B. Normal limits for blood glucose reading (Glucometer) are 70 to 130 mg/dL before a meal and less than 180 mg/dL 1 to 2 hours after beginning a meal. D. Although the client's heart rate has increased, which can be one symptom of hypoglycemia, a normal heart rate is between 60 and 100 beats/min. Heart rates that exceed normal limits should be referred to a physician.)
54. Which statement best describes oral manifestations of xerostomia? c. The floor of the mouth does not have a "pool" of saliva a. An operculum on tooth #17 b. Raised lesion with a rough surface d. White, soft, elevated plaque on the mucosa that can be wiped away
54. C. Xerostomia can be reported by clients who are taking medications for hypertension or depression. It is subjective in nature but can often be measured by the clinician observing the lack of a "pool" of saliva in the floor of the mouth. (A. An operculum is a tissue flap on a partially erupted tooth and usually manifests on mandibular third molars. B. Raised, rough lesions on the oral mucosal tissue usually represent an epithelial abnormality such as oral squamous papillomas. D. An elevated, soft white plaque that is easily wiped away, leaving an erythematous can be an oral manifestation of candidiasis.)
55. Rapid changes in chair position for this client should be avoided because a. antihypertensive medications can produce orthostatic hypotension. b. it might be disruptive to the patient, causing low blood sugar reactions. c. the client's blood pressure could be elevated. d. it may cause the patient to experience hypothyroid conditions.
55. A. Orthostatic hypotension, also referred to as postural hypotension, can become a medical emergency by a sudden drop in systolic blood pressure produced by an alteration in body position. Antihypertensive drugs can contribute to this situation. (B. Disruption to a patient does not cause low blood sugar reactions. Low blood sugar reactions are manifested by a blood glucose level below 70mg/dL and in this case probably caused by a lack of eating. C. Elevated blood pressure, along with headache, shortness of breath, tinnitus, and anxiety, can become a medical emergency referred to as hypertensive urgency or emergency. A rapid decrease in blood pressure (hypotension) can be caused by quick changes in postural position. D. The thyroid is not influenced by a change in chair position.)
7. Which statement describes the importance and function of osteoblasts? d. Located on the undersurface of periosteum and deposits bone a. Creates bone resorption, allowing the movement of calcium from bone to blood b. Widens the bone through internal "sculpting" c. Helps in the regulation of blood calcium by increasing levels
7. D. Osteoblasts deposit bone on the external surface of bone. (A, B, and C all describe the function of osteoclasts.)
8. Suzy, an RDH, has not maintained good ergonomics during her 20-year professional career as a dental hygienist and is experiencing paresthesia in her right-hand phalanges. This is most likely caused by a. constriction of nerves in the carpal tunnel. b. constriction of nerves at the acromion process. c. constriction of blood supply at the radial tuberosity. d. constriction of blood supply at the coronoid process of the ulna.
8. A. The median nerve passes through the carpal tunnel and if restricted causes tingling, weakness, and pain. (B. The acromion process is part of the scapula. C. The radial tuberosity is an eminence on the radial bone. D. The coronoid process of the ulna is a structure adding strength to the elbow.)
9. What do the ulna, radius, and humerus have in common? a. Articulate at the glenoid cavity b. Are part of the appendicular skeleton c. Are bony impressions that form joints d. Are distal to the tarsals
9. B. They are part of the appendicular skeleton. (A. The glenoid cavity is part of the scapula and forms the shoulder joint with the humerus. C. The ulna, radius, and humerus are all considered long bones of the appendicular skeleton. D. The ulna, radius, and humerus are proximal to the tarsals, which are located in the foot.)
B. Neurotransmitters are released from the synaptic knob into the synaptic cleft to be received by the postsynaptic neuron.
C. Enzymes inhibit the action of neurotransmitters. For example, cholinesterase is an enzyme that inhibits the neurotransmitter acetylcholine.)
B. Steroid hormones are made up of lipids and are not very soluble in blood plasma
C. Nonsteroid hormones respond within several seconds to a few minutes as they deliver their chemical message to fixed receptors in the target cell's plasma.
B. Cardiac output influences blood pressure when heart rate or stroke volume varies the cardiac output fluctuates, resulting in either decrease or increase of pressure.
C. Peripheral resistance causes obstruction to blood flow of the vessel walls. Increased resistance then causes increase of blood pressure. E. Viscosity is influenced by a change in blood cells or plasma proteins. The thicker the blood, the higher the blood pressure.
B. Red bone marrow is contained within the trabeculae.
D. Cancellous bone is mostly found in the rounded ends of long bones such as the femur.
