Bowen Study Questions

In education, the ADDIE model stands for Analysis, Design, Development, Implementation and? A. Examination B. Evaluation C. External input D. Elevation of awareness

Without evaluation, there is no way to determine the effectiveness of the training. The correct solution is B.

Which of the following system safety analysis techniques may lead to an estimation of the probability of a catastrophic event? A) MORT B) FTA C) PHA D) FMEA

Fault Tree Analysis

Who is expected to recognize current and predictable fall hazards and has the responsibility and authority to eliminate them? A. Competent Person B. On-site Person C. Qualified Person D. Affected Person

The Competent Person is the individual who is responsible for recognizing current and predictable hazards and has the authority to eliminate them or to stop work until the hazard is abated. The correct solution is A.

ABC Packaging, LLC just signed a contract to package three products: a detergent, a disinfectant, and a flammable mineral oil. The contract requires that ABC provide the customer with an EPA establishment ID number for one of the products. To which of the three products is the customer referring? A. The disinfectant because it is classified as a pesticide B. The mineral oil because its waste is classified as hazardous waste C. The detergent because it's restricted from stormwater outfalls D. All three products.

The EPA assigns establishment ID numbers to facilities that manufacture, pack, or repack pesticides or compounds containing pesticides under the FIFRA (The Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act). A disinfectant with a "kill claim" would fall under this requirement. The Establishment ID number must appear on the label of the product. The correct solution is A.

The level of airborne fibers allowed over a time-weighted average of 30 minutes is currently limited to 1 fiber per cubic centimeter. What is this limit called? A. STEL B. EL C. PEL D. REL

The Excursion Limit is the allowable level of airborne fibers over a 30-minute time-weighted average. The correct solution is B.

Joe, a supervisor with ACME Manufacturing, was in the guardhouse with the safety manager when the OSHA inspectors arrived. Joe told the safety manager that if he would hold the inspectors outside for a few minutes, he would go back to maintenance and adjust the tongue guards and tool rests on the grinders. The manager refused. Had the manager agreed to Joe's request, and the inspectors found out, what action could OSHA take? A. Nothing as the violations were corrected. B. Only civil penalties. C. OSHA could shut down the facility. D. OSHA could pursue criminal charges

The OSH Act of 1970 provides criminal sanctions for three types of conduct that impact worker safety: 1) Willfully violating a specific standard which resulted in the death of an employee; 2) Falsification of documents filed or required to be maintained under the OSH Act. 3) Giving advance notice of OSHA inspection activity (e.g., by calling inside a facility to give notice while holding inspectors outside, so that safety infractions can be remediated before discovery) The correct solution is D.

Which is the best FFR (filtering facepiece respirator) for use while working in an area where a potential oil mist exists? A. R-95 B. P-100 C. N-100 D. HE

The P-100 FFR filters out 99.97% of airborne particles and is strongly oil resistant.

The executive vice president of a public corporation has accepted a loan from the corporation. In accepting the loan, the executive vice president has violated: A. Nothing, if it is reported on the annual financials. B. SEC rules governing anti-trust. C. The Sarbanes Oxley Act. D. GAAP rules.

The Sarbanes-Oxley (SOX) act was enacted in 2002 in response to several high-profile corporate scandals involving fraud. Enforced by the Securities and Exchange Commission, (SEC), SOX sets forth strict accounting practices and mandates accuracy of financial statements. SOX specifically prohibits corporate officers from accepting loans from the company. The correct solution is C.

What does a Toxic Characteristics Leaching Procedure (TCLP) determine? A. Density or opacity of stack release particulates B. Water turbidity C. How a waste will behave in a landfill D. Whether drinking water is safe

The TCLP simulates the tendency for a waste to leach into a landfill. The test measures the toxicity of the material. The correct solution is C.

What is TEM Analysis? A. Chemical analysis designed to separate metals from waste streams. B. A fluorescing technique used to identify certain metals. C. A visual system using a TEM microscope. D. A psychological evaluation to gauge brain damage caused by ionizing radiation.

The Transmission Electron Microscope is used to view thin specimens through which electrons can pass, generating a projection image. For example, it is frequently used to quantify asbestos fibers contained in a material. The correct solution is C.

What should a permit-required confined space attendant fully understand?

The attendant never enters the confined space for any reason. While the attendant is trained to make atmospheric checks periodically, he or she should never enter the confined space for any reason and specifically should never perform any other task, no matter how minor.

A small company uses a post office box to receive mail. One employee drives their personal vehicle on a 6-mile trip to pick up the mail each day. Each day the employee drives their car, there is a risk that they will be in a motor vehicle accident. What is the most effective method for the small company to manage this risk? A. The company could move closer to the post office. B. The company could require employees to participate in a safe driving course. C. The company could provide a company-owned vehicle for this task. D. The company could start using their street address to receive the mail.

The company could start using their street address to receive the mail.

CSP safety consultant signed a confidentiality agreement with a client prior to conducting an annual safety audit. The agreement stated that any observations made during the audit were confidential information owned by the client, and the consultant agreed to share his observations, analysis, and recommendations only with the client. The consultant returned to the client's facility for an audit one year later, and he observed the same violations he had noted in his first report. The violations did not pose an imminent danger risk. Which of the following actions is consistent with the BCSP Code of Ethics? A. The consultant notified the local OSHA inspection office. B. The consultant mailed a copy of his report to the local newspaper editor. C. The consultant provided a copy of his report to the client's employees. D. The consultant reiterated his observations in his second report with added language reminding the client of their general duty to provide a workplace free of recognized hazards.

The consultant reiterated his observations in his second report with added language reminding the client of their general duty to provide a workplace free of recognized hazards.

AAA 3PL company stores diesel fuel in: Two 10,000-gallon underground storage tanks One 1000-gallon above ground tank with secondary containment and Fifty 5-gallon containers There is one transformer array that contains 135 gallons of insulating oil. The facility manager has stated that they do not need a Spill Prevention, Control, and Countermeasures (SPCC) plan. The EHS manager disagrees. Who is correct, and why? A. Facility Manager because the total storage capacity is less than 40,000 gallons. B. EHS Manager because of the underground storage tank capacity. C. EHS Manager because of the above-ground storage capacity. D. Facility Manager because of the above-ground and underground storage tank capacity.

The facility manager is correct in this situation. SPCC plans are required if: - The total underground storage capacity is 42,000 gallons - The total above-ground storage capacity is 1320 gallons and is in containers of 55-gallon capacity or greater. The underground storage capacity is less than the threshold of 40,000, and the above-ground capacity is less than the threshold because the 50 5-gallon tanks do not count toward the total. The correct solution is D.

The ADDIE training model is a process used by training developers to provide a flexible guideline for effective training. The five phases of ADDIE include Analysis, Design, Development, Implementation, and: A. Exit Interview B. Evaluation C. Enhancement D. Ethics

The final, and perhaps most important phase of ADDIE is evaluating the training program for effectiveness and whether the stated goal was achieved. The correct solution is B.

The first step in creating an emergency response plan is to: A. Identify critical roles B. Conduct a risk assessment C. Implement an emergency action plan D. Build a relationship with local emergency response organizations

The first step in creating an emergency response plan is identifying relevant risks, their potential frequency, and severity. The best method for this is a risk assessment based on the nature of the business and the local environment. The correct solution is B.

There are four conditions of Good Samaritan laws. Three conditions are: - The helper obtains the permission of an ill or injured victim when possible. - Care is provided in an appropriate manner. - Care is required due to the situation being an emergency. What is the fourth condition? A. Trained responders have not yet arrived. B. The helper gets a signed affidavit from the victim if possible. C. The care does not cause more damage. D. The caregiver is not negligent

The fourth condition of Good Samaritan laws is that trained responders have not yet arrived. The correct solution is A.

Antwan is planning to clean the lab floor with a caustic 10% sodium hydroxide solution. He doesn't have gloves or a respirator. The safety manager stops the activity stating that it is unsafe. What should Antwan do? A. Go to the safety manager to get permission to use the caustic soda. B. Substitute a less hazardous cleaner C. Find gloves and a respirator and continue using the caustic soda. D. Nothing

The hierarchy of controls is given below: -Eliminate the hazard -Substitute a less severe hazard -Use engineering controls -Use administrative controls -Use PPE The correct solution is B.

Under the CAA (Clean Air Act), the EPA has established six criteria for pollutants. They are Lead, Carbon Monoxide, Sulfur Dioxide, Nitrogen Oxides, Ozone and? A. Chromium B. Asbestos C. VOC D. PM

The sixth Criteria Pollutant is particulate (PM), which includes PM-10 and PM 2.5. The correct solution is D.

Joseph, a saw operator at a furniture factory, is required to wear an N-95 respirator. What is the meaning of the term "N-95"? A. A tight-fitting respirator that is rated to withstand 95 psi pressure. B. A negative pressure respirator with an APF (Assigned Protection Factor) of 95 C. A non-regulated supplied air respirator. D. A non-oil rated respirator that filters 95% of particulates.

The term "N-95" refers to a respirator that is rated to filter 95% of particulates in a non-oil atmosphere. The correct solution is D.

There are three minimum requirements for an emergency action plan. The first two are a means to alert emergency responders of fires and other emergencies and having emergency escape procedures and route assignments in place. What is the third? A. Management involvement B. Well-defined SOPs C. Procedures to account for all workers after an evacuation D. Local emergency phone numbers

The immediate requirements for an emergency action plan are to alert emergency response teams, evacuate or shelter, and account for all people on site. The correct solution is C.

What is the best way to deliver consistent information to all employees about standard operating procedures? A. Email messaging B. Employee handbook C. Internal social media D. Virtual team meetings

The key term is "consistent." Emails, internal social media, and virtual team meetings are good communication tools for current events. A well-designed employee handbook is itself an example of a consistent gathering of standard operating procedures. It can be used to communicate policies and procedures, a company's visions, mission, and goals. The correct solution is B.

What is De Quervain's syndrome? A. A mental condition brought on by extreme heat stress B. A condition that causes random nerve pain in the feet C. Inflammation of the tendon sheath on the thumb side of the wrist D. A speech impediment caused by alcohol abuse

The main symptoms are tenderness and pain, usually below the base of the thumb. De Quervain's syndrome can be triggered by repetitive grasping and twisting motions. The correct solution is C.

What is the minimum number of people required to perform a task that requires entry into a permit-required confined space? A. Three: the entrant, an attendant, and a maintenance technician to ensure that suppled air is stable. B. Two: the entrant and an attendant C. Three: Two entrants and an attendant D. Only the entrant, as long as they wear a respirator and carry a gas monitor.

The minimum number of people required for a confined space entry under a permit is two: the entrant and an attendant who has specific tasks to perform but doesn't enter the confined space for any reason. The correct solution is B.

Which term represents the potential energy in a local exhaust ventilation system? A. Net Force B. Velocity Pressure C. Hydraulic Pressure D. Static Pressure

The net force on an object is the sum of all individual forces applied to the object. Velocity pressure in a local exhaust ventilation system is the kinetic energy of the air in the system. Hydraulic pressure is the potential energy in a liquid system. Static pressure is the potential energy in a local exhaust ventilation system. The correct solution is D.

Acme Manufacturing has a facility in California near an active earthquake fault line. Reviewing the choices below, which one is the number one priority in managing the risk of an earthquake? A. The number one priority is to store emergency provisions in the event employees are trapped during an earthquake. B. The number one priority is to establish an onsite fire response and search and rescue team. C. The number one priority is to train employees on the best response during an earthquake. D. The number one priority is to ensure the factory is designed and built to withstand the forces from an earthquake.

The number one priority is to ensure the factory is designed and built to withstand the forces from an earthquake.

Dust or mist explosions can occur due to a phenomenon called: A. Detonation B. Deflagration C. Ignition D. Reaction

The primary differences between a conflagration and detonation are speed and that deflagration requires oxygen and detonation does not. Deflagration travels at less than the speed of sound and detonation travels faster than sound. Dust or mist explosions require all three components of the fire triangle (heat, oxygen, and fuel). Remove any of the three and the explosion cannot occur. The correct solution is B.

The most appropriate method for performing lockout/tagout on a chemical storage tank is to empty the tank and: A. Lock the dead-man switch in the open position. B. Isolate and lockout power to the pump. C. Perform "double-block and bleed" on all input lines. D. Activate and lock the fire prevention valve.

The proper method is to close and lock (or tag) two in-line valves and open and lock (or tag) a drain valve in the line between the two closed valves. This method is called "double block and bleed." The correct solution is C.

Amy, an HR manager, working for a company in a high-rise building, propped open the door leading into the exit stairwell. Her thought was that people would not have to touch the door on their way out, thus reducing the spread of disease. When the CEO became aware, she demanded that Amy close the door immediately. Why? A. The CEO is cheap and doesn't want to incur extra HVAC costs for the office complex. B. Propping the door open invites disease to spread from other floors. C. Propping the door open defeats the fire protection system. D. Propping the door open creates a privacy issue.

The reason for keeping stairwell exit doors closed is that stairwells in high-rise buildings are pressurized to keep smoke from migrating into the stairwell in case of a fire. The correct solution is C.

The relationship between exposure to a substance and the resulting change in health or body function is called. A. Permissible exposure limits B. Acute versus chronic reaction C. Dose-response relationship D. Toxicity

The relationship between exposure to a substance and the resulting change in health or body function is called the dose-response relationship. If plotted on a graph over time, it can be shown as a dose-response curve. The correct solution is C.

Under CERCLA, a company could be held liable for a hazardous material spill resulting from which of the following? A. Tornado B. Robbery attempt C. A vendor's leaking container D. An act of war

Under the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (Superfund Law), The government does not have to prove that a company was negligent or at fault in order to hold it liable for a spill. Exceptions include Acts of God, Acts of War, and Acts of third parties not doing business with the company (such as theft). The correct solution is C.

What is the position of the wrist called where the palm is down, and the fingers are curved slightly toward the wrist? A. Bad posture B. Flexion C. Extension D. Normal

An extended position is with the palm up. A flexed position is with the palm down and the fingers bent slightly toward the wrist. The correct solution is B.

When faced with a workplace violence situation, what would be the safest course of action? A. A good offense is the best defense B. Run, Hide, Fight C. Attempt to de-escalate the situation by separating the parties involved D. Grab the attacker and walk him or her out of the building

Each incident of workplace violence is unique. However, using violence to counter violence carries a high risk of liability as well as an increased risk of injury to the perpetrators and bystanders. The correct solution is C.

The three primary ergonomic risk factors that cause MSDs (musculoskeletal disorders) are awkward posture, high force or: A. Cold Weather B. Repetitive Frequency C. Sedentary Habits D. Quick activity after prolonged inactivity

The three primary ergonomic risk factors that cause MSDs (musculoskeletal disorders) are awkward posture, high force, or repetitive frequency. Combinations of postures, forces, and frequencies dramatically increase the chance of developing an MSD. The correct solution is B.

In reference to the environment, what is carbon trading? A. The act of moving fossil fuel resources from one area to another to "even out" carbon emissions. B. A CO2 reduction strategy that uses a "cap and trade" technique to reduce carbon emissions. C. The process by which renewable energy is measured. D. A method to recycle graphite battery wastes.

"Cap and Trade" is one method of reducing carbon emissions where a cap is set, and the capped amount is divided into units which are traded between companies. For example, a company with higher emissions can either reduce them or trade for carbon credits from a lower-emitting company. The correct solution is B.

Under the RCRA (Resource Conservation and Recovery Act),hazardous waste exhibits one of four characteristics:

- ignitability - corrosive - reactivity - toxicity

The appropriate level of illuminance for an are of low hazard with high activity is:

1 foot-candle

4 characteristics of sound training programs

1) accurate information 2) credible instructor 3) clarity 4) practical

What is the airflow through a 15 inch square duct with an air velocity of 1500 fpm? Q=AV A. 1,875 cfm B. 2,344 cfm C. 18,750 cfm D. 22,500 cfm

2,344 cfm

What is the airflow in a 10 inch diameter duct with an average velocity pressure of 0.85 inches of water? V = 4005√VP Q=AV A. 1660 cfm B. 1860 cfm C. 2010 cfm D. 2230 cfm

2010 cfm

Under the Incident Command System, "effective span of control" refers to the number of persons that a supervisor can effectively manage during an incident response. What is the maximum range of direct reports recommended for effective resource management?

3 to 7

What is the minimum recommended core body temperature for workers exposed to extreme environments for an extended period of time?

36°C (96.8 F)

All scaffolds must be able to support their own weight plus ____ times the intended load

4

An industrial hygienist conducted two breathing zone acetone samples during a single work shift on an employee. The first sample ran for 3 hours, and the lab reported a result of 25 ppm. The second sample ran for 5 hours, and the lab reported a result of 60 ppm. What is the time-weighted average acetone exposure for the employee? A. 25 ppm B. 42 ppm C. 47 ppm D. 60 ppm

47 ppm

An air pollution control device is receiving pollution at a concentration of 528 grams/cubic meter of air. The contaminant concentration leaving the control device is 430 milligrams/cubic meters of air. What is the efficiency of the control device? A. 18% B. 99% C. 81% D. 0.08%

99%

What is the flashpoint of an NFPA Class IIIA combustible liquid? The symbol "=>" should be read "greater than or equal to". A. < 73 F B. => 73 F and < 100 F C. => 100 F and < 140 F D. => 140 F and < 200 F

=> 140 F and < 200 F

What is a clause in a contract that specifies who pays the cost for judgments and/or legal defenses in the event of litigation called? A. Hazard relief B. Arbitration C. Indemnity D. Risk acceptance

A "Hold Harmless" or "Indemnity" clause is inserted into many contracts to clarify who pays judgment costs and/or legal fees in the case of a lawsuit. The correct solution is C.

Which is a key advantage of a basket hitch?

A basket hitch helps control the tendency for a hoisted load to twist

What is the definition of a cobot? A. A communications robot B. A collaborative robot C. A microscopic robot capable of entering the bloodstream D. A parasitic disease, causing symptoms similar to botulism.

A collaborative robot, sometimes called a cobot, is designed to work side-by-side with people while industrial robots are designed to work in place of people. Cobots are generally easier to program because they are capable of learning. They typically rely on sensors and software for worker safety while robots are isolated behind guards or cages. Most cobot applications are either co-existence, where the robot and employee work beside each other but do not share a workspace, or sequential collaboration where the robot and worker share workspace but do not work on the same part together. Two other types of cobot design are co-operation, where the worker and robot work on the same machine or part; and responsive collaboration, where the robot responds to the worker's motions. The correct solution is B.

According to OSHA, a competent person is knowledgeable about applicable standards and can identify workplace hazards relating to the specific operation. In addition, OSHA expects which of the following from a competent person? A. Has the budget funds to eliminate the hazard B. Has the authority to correct hazards immediately and effectively C. Is an officer of the company D. Can hire, fire, or effectively recommend a competent person

A competent person, according to OSHA, is capable of identifying workplace hazards relating to the specific operation, is knowledgeable about applicable standards, and has the authority to correct them immediately and effectively. The correct solution is B.

The four phases of disaster response are Mitigation, Preparedness, Response, and Recovery. Purchasing equipment and PPE for the fire brigade would be? A. Mitigation B. Preparedness C. Response D. Recovery

A critical factor in preparedness is that responders must be appropriately trained and equipped. The correct solution is B.

When Joe started his new job as a computer analyst, several days passed before he showed any proficiency. As time progressed, Joe's ability to perform the essential portions of the job increased exponentially. What type of learning curve is associated with this type of performance? A. Diminishing returns learning curve B. Increasing returns learning curve C. Exponential learning curve D. Slow learner learning curve

A diminishing returns learning curve increases quickly early then levels out to maximum proficiency at a slower pace. This type of learning curve is typically associated with manufacturing tasks such as operating a machine. An increasing returns learning curve is usually associated with more complex tasks where a relatively large amount of basic knowledge is initially required. The correct solution is B

An FRP (Facility Response Plan) is required when: A. A facility begins to store enough oil to require an SPCC plan. B. An oil company has been in business for six months. C. A facility has industrial discharge into a lake or reservoir. D. A facility could reasonably be expected to cause "substantial harm" to the environment if it discharges oil into or on navigable waters.

A facility that could cause "substantial harm" to the environment if it discharges oil into or on navigable waters is required to have an FRP. If it is deemed that the discharge could cause "significant and substantial harm," the FRP must be approved by the EPA regional administrator. The correct solution is D.

A factory annually emits 11 tons of a Hazardous Air Pollutant (HAP), 10 tons of a non-HAP VOC (Volatile Organic Compound), and 50 tons of particulate. What would the factory be considered under Title V of the Clean Air Act? A. A major source B. A minor Source C. A synthetic minor source D. A poor environmental steward

A facility that emits 10 tons of a single HAP, a combined total of 25 tons of HAPs, or a total of 100 tons of all pollutants is considered a major source. A synthetic minor source has the potential to emit enough pollutants to qualify as a major source but "caps" its operations in a manner to remain under the major source amounts. The correct solution is A.

What is the flashpoint of a Class1 flammable liquid? A. Less than 100°C B. Less than 212°F C. Less than 100°F D. 0°C or below

A flammable liquid is one that has a flashpoint below 100°F. Class 1 flammable liquids are further divided into three sub-classes The correct solution is C.

What is the primary purpose of a job hazard analysis? A. To identify the dangers of specific tasks to reduce the risk of injury to workers B. To investigate how a system deviates from the design intent and creates risk for personnel and equipment C. To provide input to project development decisions: a means of identifying and describing hazards at the earliest practicable stage of development or venture D. To determine PPE requirements for each work area

A job hazard analysis (JHA), also called a job safety analysis (JSA), is used to identify the dangers of specific tasks to reduce the risk of injury to workers. The purpose of a HAZOP is to investigate how a system deviates from the design intent and creates risk for personnel and equipment. A HAZID study is used to provide input to project development decisions. It is a means of identifying and describing hazards and threats at the earliest practicable stage of development or venture. A hazard assessment is used to determine PPE requirements for each work area. The correct solution is A.

A needs assessment is always the first step in the training development process. Which of the following would be part of a needs assessment? A. A determination as to whether training is the correct response to the organization's need. B. SWOT (Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats) analysis. C. Risk analysis. D. ROI.

A needs assessment should identify whether training is the correct response to the organization's needs. The correct solution is A.

An insurance inspector requires a sprinkler flow test to be performed. What is the goal of the flow test? A. Ensure that the water riser valves are working and open B. Ensure that the sprinklers will activate properly C. Ensure that the fire alarm will activate at the proper time D. Ensure that enough water pressure exists to extinguish a fire

A sprinkler flow test is performed using a test valve that is calibrated to simulate water flow from a single sprinkler. When the valve is opened, the fire alarm and any existing fire pumps should activate within 90 seconds. The correct solution is C.

To which machine guarding concept does the term "hand speed constant" refer? A. How quickly a machine operator can unclasp his hand B. A work unit roughly equivalent to how quickly an average person can grasp an object C. A standard time used to calculate a safe distance for light curtain placement D. Keyboard typing speed

A standard time used to calculate a safe distance for light curtain placement

To which machine guarding concept does the term "hand speed constant" refer?

A standard time used to calculate a safe distance for light curtain placement. In order to correctly calculate the safe distance of a light curtain between a machine hazard and operator, the stopping time of the machine must be multiplied by the hand speed constant which is equal to 63 inches per second.

Arnold is a trained and certified forklift driver. His job requires him to dismount from the forklift multiple times per hour. Safety manager Susan observed Arnold snapping his seatbelt behind the seat rather than using it properly. However, she does not confront him about it. Susan's action or lack of action can be defined as? A. A waiver of rules for the sake of convenience B. A reasonable decision by Arnold. C. A willful violation by the company D. Necessary for the forklift to crank.

A willful violation is where an employer either knowingly fails to comply with a legal requirement or acts with plain indifference to employee safety. Operator safety restraints are always required to be worn properly, so while Arnold would be in violation, it is the employer's direct responsibility to write policy and programs, train their employees and enforce proper safety behavior at work. The correct solution is C.

Jake, the shipping supervisor, badly needs fork truck drivers. Homer is working on a production line and volunteers, stating that he has experience. Homer does not have fork truck training and only wants off the production line. Jake pulls Homer from the line and assigns him to a fork truck. Homer almost immediately has an accident that severely damages another fork truck and injures the driver resulting in a lost-time injury. During a programmed inspection, OSHA notes the incident and investigates, citing a willful violation. Why? A. Homer "willfully" lied about his training. B. The injured driver should have been more careful around Homer. C. OSHA lost the case on appeal because it wasn't really a willful violation. D. The company knew or should have known that Homer was not qualified.

A willful violation occurs when the company knows or should know the rules and regulations and fails to provide policy, training, and enforcement. To be qualified to operate a fork truck, a driver must have been trained and evaluated on the same type of truck within the last three years. A certificate must have been awarded documenting the training. Had the company actively enforced these requirements, Jake would never have allowed Homer to operate a truck. The correct solution is D.

The Asbestos Hazard Emergency Response Act (ASHERA) was promulgated in 1986. What does it cover? A. Medical facilities B. Accredited colleges C. All VA facilities D. K-12 schools

ASHERA covers all public and private K-12 schools in the USA and on all U.S. military bases. It mandated that they be inspected for asbestos-containing building material (acbm) by accredited inspectors whose work provides basic information for an ASHERA accredited management planner to estimate current or potential hazard posed by the material and to develop a plan for managing it. The correct solution is D.

Apex 3PL fork truck driver Jose had been working in the same warehouse for 45 years. During his most recent work shift, Jose bumped an overhead steam pipe with the mast of his truck. While there was no damage to the pipe, the insulation was damaged, some of which fell to the floor. The safety manager observed the incident and when Jose returned with a broom and dustpan, the manager stopped Jose from sweeping up the mess. Why? A. The janitor was supposed to clean up the mess. B. The fallen material could contain asbestos. C. It was probably too hot to safely handle. D. The insulation material could damage Jose's hands if he tried to handle it.

According to OSHA construction standard 1926.1102, any thermal insulating material that was installed prior to 1980 is PACM (presumed asbestos-containing material). To disprove the presence of asbestos an accredited inspector can collect bulk samples for lab analysis. As a fork truck driver without training or PPE, Jose is not allowed to touch PACM. The correct solution is B.

Which material would be most appropriate for use as a shield against beta radiation exposure in a laboratory environment? A. Lead brick B. Masonry brick C. Clay-coated cardstock paper D. Acrylic glass

Acrylic glass

An accepted method for determining any hazards associated with a task is: A. General safety rules B. PPE hazard assessment C. Training on a work procedure D. A JSA created from a work procedure

Administrative documents such as safety rules, hazard assessments, and training all have their roles to play. However, the best method for understanding what hazards exist within a job or task is to conduct a thorough Job Safety Analysis that evaluates each step in the process, first without regard to administrative measures, then including administrative measures. The correct solution is D.

The first step in a risk assessment is to identify the hazards. What is the second step? A. Assess the financial risk B. Identify who is at risk and how C. Brainstorm for possible solutions D. Assign weighted values to the hazard

After identifying the risk, the next step is identifying who is at risk and how. Evaluating or assessing the risk would be step three, followed by reviewing the results of any risk mitigation and updating the assessment. The correct solution is B.

After hiking all day Jamie stopped to build a campfire. When it was time to light the fire, he pulled a wad of steel wool from his pack and spread it apart. Jamie then took a 9-volt battery from a pouch and touched both terminals to the steel wool, which appeared to ignite. How was this possible? A. Spontaneous combustion B. It was not possible, steel will not burn. C. It was only a matter of applying enough heat D. The expanded surface area of the steel allowed the oxidation process to accelerate.

Although Spontaneous combustion can occur with organic materials, it is an internal process where oxidation builds heat faster that it can shed heat until the temperature reaches the autoignition point. Typically, steel is not flammable, but in the case of steel wool, the surface area of the steel is expanded to the point that the natural oxidation process can be greatly accelerated by the heat generated when the battery was "shorted" by the steel. The steel wool will oxidize almost instantly and generate enough heat to start a campfire. The correct solution is D.

Three requirements of a Permit-Required Confined Space are that the space must have limited access and egress, be large enough to enter, and not be designed for human habitancy. Which is an additional requirement? A. Have correct signage. B. Remain locked at all times. C. Exhibit a hazard. D. Nothing else is required.

Although all confined spaces are required to be identified as such, whether "permit-required" or not, the fourth characteristic of a Permit-Required Confined Space is to contain a hazard. The hazard could be engulfment, toxic poisoning, lack of oxygen, etc. The correct solution is C.

The liability insurance inspector in XYZ factory was nearing the main server room that controlled all operating equipment in the plant. He noticed that the manually operated EPO switch was blocked by a pallet of finished product. Why is this a problem? A. Environmental Protection Operations cannot function properly unless the switch is operated. B. Emergency Power shut off for the IT room cannot be done C. The switch is a production machine E-stop and is not associated with the server room. D. This is an emergency light and must be visible.

Although there are some exceptions and exemptions, the NEC, National Electrical Code, NFPA 70, sets requirements for emergency shutdown of IT systems. An EPO (Emergency Power Off) switch should never be blocked from access. The correct solution is B.

Deterrence, denial, detection then delay are all controls used in an effective security program. Badging of all people entering a sensitive area accomplishes all these objectives except: A. Denial B. Detection C. Deterrence D. Delay

An effective personnel badging program can deter entry, deny entry, and detect failed attempts at entry. The correct solution is D.

Under what type of risk management does installing a video surveillance system qualify? A. Sharing B. Transferring C. Risk retention D. Loss prevention

An example of risk sharing would be a service agreement from a vendor. Risk transfer could be accomplished through a warranty or by purchasing insurance. An example of risk retention would be self-insurance. Cameras are typically installed for two reasons: physical security, and loss prevention. The correct solution is D.

Andragogy is a theory based on what type of assumption about the learner? A. The learner is dependent on the teacher. B. The learner only needs to know what it takes to pass the class, not how to apply it to their own lives. C. The learner's experience doesn't matter. D. The learner is self-directed and learns more when they have some control over their learning.

Andragogy is often referred to as the adult theory of learning. The learner has more control over their learning process, while the teacher functions more as a facilitator. The correct solution is D.

Which style of communication best describes the phrase: "I feel frustrated when you leave a mess for the next shift to clean up." A. Passive B. Assertive C. Passive - Aggressive D. Aggressive

Assertive communicators express their feelings, needs, and desires without being overbearing or blaming other people. The correct solution is B.

A small manufacturing facility employs 250 people. The management team includes the plant manager, the financial controller, the operations manager, the safety manager, and the human resources manager. What is the most important duty of the safety manager at the facility? A. Being a risk assessment resource to the management team B. Leading accident investigations C. Training employees on safe practices D. Conducting safety audits looking for violations

Being a risk assessment resource to the management team

A maintenance technician is required to reach out over a top guard rail to change a strobe light 30ft above ground level. He is on a platform with guardrails for passive fall protection. He is wearing a belt with a D-ring attached to the back, and a tether clipped to the D-ring. The other end of the tether is tied off with just enough length to allow him to reach out to the light. Should the worker be required to wear a full harness? A. Neither belt nor harness is required because he is not climbing over the guard rail. B. In this case, the belt would be acceptable. C. The worker must use a boom lift, not a platform D. Only a harness is acceptable.

Belts cannot be used for fall arrest but are acceptable for fall restraint. A fall restraint device is required to ensure that the worker cannot get his center of gravity over the top of the rail. In other words, if the belt and tether are correctly adjusted and are of the proper strength, and if the worker cannot get his center of gravity over the top of the guard rail, a belt and tether are adequate. However, a full harness would work as well. The correct solution is B.

When biometrics are used in security, the techniques are primarily divided into three groups: biological biometrics, morphological biometrics, and behavioral biometrics. Which of the following would be considered morphological biometrics? A. Retinal scanning B. DNA testing C. Speech patterns D. Blood test

Biological biometrics are captured at a genetic and molecular level. They include features like DNA or blood testing. Morphological biometrics involve physical traits such as eye, fingerprint, or facial recognition. Behavioral biometrics are based on how people walk, talk, etc. Retinal scanning measures the physical configuration of the eye. The correct solution is A.

What is the significant difference between ISO 45001 and OHSAS 18001? A. There is no significant difference. B. ISO 45001 is mandatory, while OHSAS 18001 is voluntary. C. ISO 45001 is designed to control hazards, while OHSAS 18001 is a more risk based approach. D. OHSAS 18001 is designed to control hazards, while ISO 45001 is a more risk based approach.

Both are international voluntary standards. Some organizations who use OHSAS 18001 delegate health and safety responsibilities to a safety manager, rather than integrating the system into its operations. The safety manager's primary responsibility is to identify and control hazards. ISO 45001 takes a more risk-based approach by requiring the incorporation of health and safety aspects into the overall management system of the organization and driving management to have a stronger leadership role with respect to the OH&S management system. The correct solution is D.

An effective risk management program includes risk identification, risk analysis, and risk response. One example of risk identification is: A. Building a retainer wall to prevent flooding. B. Estimating the likelihood and financial impact of a fire. C. Contacting families and insurance companies. D. Doing research on local weather patterns and geological formations.

Building a retainer wall would be considered risk avoidance, a response. Estimating the likelihood and financial impact of a fire falls under risk analysis. Contacting families and insurance companies would be a response to a disaster. Researching local weather patterns and geological formations would be considered risk identification. The correct solution is D.

A safety professional was preparing Thanksgiving dinner for a group of friends. An exhaust fan was installed above his stove to provide exhaust for the emissions from the stove. What type of hood was used to capture and remove these emissions? A. Slot hood B. Canopy hood C. Plain hood D. Enclosing hood

Canopy hood

MEK (methyl ethyl ketone) has a flashpoint of 26°F and boiling point of 75.3°F at sea level (29.92 inches of mercury). This places it in which NFPA flammable category? A. Category 1 B. Category 2 C. Category 3 D. Category 4

Category/Flashpoint/Boiling Point 1 < 73.4° F (23° C) ≤ 95° F (35° C) 2 < 73.4° F (23° C) > 95° F (35° C) 3 ≥ 73.4° F (23° C) and ≤ 140° F (60° C) 4 > 140° F (60° C) and ≤ 199.4° F (93° C) The rules change a bit if category 3 and 4 liquids are heated. According to OSHA 29CFR1910.106: 1910.106(a)(19)(iv)... When a Category 4 flammable liquid is heated for use to within 30 °F (16.7 °C) of its flashpoint, it shall be handled in accordance with the requirements for a Category 3 liquid with a flashpoint at or above 100 °F (37.8 °C). 1910.106(a)(19)(v)When liquid with a flashpoint greater than 199.4 °F (93 °C) is heated for use to within 30 °F (16.7 °C) of its flashpoint, it shall be handled in accordance with the requirements for a Category 4 flammable liquid. The correct solution is A.

According to the Board of Certified Safety Professionals' Code of Ethics, certificate holders must undertake assignments only when: A. A specific assignment is given by their direct manager. B. They are qualified by education or experience in the specific technical fields involved. C. He or she has the freedom to complete the assignment according to plan. D. The assignment does not cross lines into another discipline.

Certificate holders are required to undertake an assignment only when they are qualified by education or experience in the specific technical fields involved. The correct solution is B.

A small business maintains a computer server to facilitate email and data storage. The fan on the server fan generates noise measured at 86 dBA at a nearby worker desk. Which noise control solution should the business owner try first to lower the employee noise exposure? A. Issue hearing protection devices with an NRR greater than 5 to the worker B. Buy a radio for the worker so that the employee can listen to music over the noise of the server C. Build an enclosure around the server to contain the noise D. Change the orientation of the server to direct the noise in a different direction

Change the orientation of the server to direct the noise in a different direction

What is an occupational health risk working with formaldehyde? A. Low occupational exposure limit B. Chemical sensitization C. Pulmonary edema D. Permeation through latex gloves

Chemical sensitization

An ABC fire extinguisher is recommended for what types of fires? A. Ordinary combustibles, flammable liquids, and electrical fires. B. Combustible metals. C. Cooking fires involving oils, fats, or grease. D. Any type of fire.

Class A extinguishers are used for ordinary combustibles such as wood, paper, or cloth. Class B extinguishers are used for flammable liquids and gases. Class C extinguishers are used for electrical fires. Class D extinguishers are used for combustible metals. Class K extinguishers are used for cooking fires involving oils, fats, or grease found in kitchens. An ABC fire extinguisher can be used for fires with causes from Class A, Class B, and Class C. The correct solution is A

There are three domains of learning: Cognitive Objectives, Psychomotor Objectives, and what is the third? A. Affective Objectives B. Exam Objectives C. Feedback Objectives D. Evaluation Objectives

Cognitive objectives teach the skills and knowledge required to accomplish a task. Psychomotor objectives teach the actual physical motor or hands-on skills needed to accomplish a task. Affective objectives teach attitudes, feelings, beliefs, values, and/or emotions. The correct solution is A.

Which of the following is considered a risk factor for muscular skeletal disorders? A. Hot environments B. Cold environments C. Dry environments D. Wet environments

Cold environments

Given the choices below, what would be considered a training objective? A. Know the value of ethics in the occupational health community B. Be aware of the safety and health rules of the organization C. Compare and list the benefits with active and passive sampling methods D. Aim to develop comprehensive listening techniques

Compare and list the benefits with active and passive sampling methods

Salesman George H. had a new lawnmower in stock with a loose blade guard because a bolt holding the blade guard was stripped and would tighten but would become loose when the mower was running. George tightened the bolt and sold the mower at a discount to make a quick sale. However, he did not inform the buyer of the defect. When the new owner ran the mower, the blade guard loosened and fell off. The rotating blade struck the guard, which threw out some metal shards. Some of the flying shards struck the owner's spouse, causing a severe injury. If the owner sues the company, which concept would likely be the suit's focus? A. Negligence B. Breach of Warranty C. Fraud D. Strict Product Liability

Compensation in a breach of warranty case can often be limited to economic damages (for example, damage to property, medical bills, etc.) and usually excludes pain and suffering damages. Strict product liability would most likely be the main focus of a dangerous or defective product case. Strict product liability allows a plaintiff to recover the full range of damages typical to a tort case. A plaintiff must prove more elements to win a negligence or fraud case. The plaintiff's "burden of proof" is easier to meet in a strict product liability case. However, if the facts of the case fit a fraud theory, punitive damages may be awarded based on intentional deception. Punitive damages awards can end up being relatively high because they are typically set relative to a defendant's wealth. The correct solution is D.

An example of constructive discharge would be: A. Sally was terminated through a progressive discipline policy for non-performance of her assigned duties. B. Henry was terminated for not wearing the required PPE on a construction worksite. C. James resigned because he was not promoted. D. Shirley resigned because she was given a salary reduction and reduced benefits, more work, and unattainable deadlines. She was not given a reason.

Constructive discharge occurs when an employer treats an employee so badly that a "reasonable" person would resign. This can be considered wrongful termination and the employee may be eligible for unemployment benefits and may pursue a legal complaint. The correct solution is D.

According to the local weather report, the temperature was normal for early summer at 91 degrees F. Relative humidity was 89% and the sun was out. Jacob, a new hire, had the task of clearing a ditch that had become blocked with brush during spring rains. When the foreman arrived to check Jacob's progress, he was bent over as if he were vomiting and was sweating profusely. When questioned, he complained of a headache and dizziness and thought that his heart was racing. According to his symptoms, Jacob was likely experiencing: A. Inebriation B. Heat Stroke C. Heat Exhaustion D. Reynaud's Syndrome

Cool, moist skin, heavy sweating, headache, nausea or vomiting, dizziness, light headedness, weakness, thirst, irritability, and fast heartbeat are all symptoms of heat exhaustion. If not treated quickly, the condition can easily progress into heatstroke, which is life-threatening. During heat stroke, the skin becomes hot and dry, and sweating stops. The victim could lose consciousness. The correct solution is C.

What intellectual property law protects brands, logos, and slogans? A. Copyright law B. Trade secret law C. Trademark law D. Patent law

Copyrights protect "original works of authorship," such as written materials and music. A trademark is a word, symbol, logo, design, or phrase that covers a specific product to separate it from similar products. Patent law gives the holder exclusive rights to an invention for a specified period. The correct solution is C.

A safety professional hired an industrial hygienist to evaluate the exposure to hexavalent chromium by welders. The report from the industrial hygienist indicated the welders were exposed to an average of 0.5 mg/m3. The OSHA PEL is 0.005 mg/m3. Which type of respirator would be appropriate for the welders? A. Half-face air purifying respirator B. Full-face air purifying respirator C. Loose-fitting powered air purifying respirator D. Tight-fitting powered air purifying respirator

D. Tight-fitting powered air purifying respirator

Finklestein's test is used to diagnose: A. Blood lead concentrations B. Epicondylitis C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. DeQuervain's tenosynovitis

DeQuervain's tenosynovitis

A systematic risk management program includes risk identification, risk analysis and risk response. One example of risk analysis would be: A. Doing research on local weather patterns and geological formations B. Building a retainer wall to prevent flooding C. Estimating the likelihood and financial impact of a fire D. Contacting families and insurance companies

Doing research on local weather patterns and geological formations would be considered risk identification. Building a retainer wall would be considered risk avoidance, which is a response. Estimating likelihood and cost of a disaster falls under risk analysis. Contacting families or insurance companies would be a response to a disaster. The correct solution is C.

A lean manufacturing technique which focuses on prevention or detection of errors is called: A. Poka-Yoke B. Kaizen C. 5-S D. Design of experiments

Dr. Shigeo Shingo developed the concept of Poka-Yoke as a mistake-proofing idea. There are two basic types: prevention and detection. Control poka-yoke stops a process before an error can occur. An example would be a fixture that only allows a part to be inserted properly for processing. Detection poka-yoke provides communication or alarm when an error occurs and stops the process until a correction is implemented. Kaizen, a Japanese term, refers to continuous improvement. 5-S is a structured method for creating and improving housekeeping. Design of experiments is one technique for lean manufacturing implementation. The correct solution is A

Effective communication occurs when a message is: A. Written B. On social media C. Sent and received accurately D. Verbal

Effective communication occurs when a message is sent and received accurately. 69% of managers are uncomfortable with communicating with employees, and 57% of employees think they have not been given clear directions. The correct solution is C.

Which communication technique would be considered most effective? A. Chat rooms B. One on one discussions C. Email D. Meetings

Emails and chat rooms rely on text only; while a great deal of information can be dispersed, the lack of facial expression or body language makes it difficult to determine whether participants truly understand either the content or results. Meetings take advantage of body language but can be cumbersome and tend to get off track. Having a one-on-one discussion allows both participants to remain focused on the subject at hand and to be aware of nonverbal cues such as facial expressions and body language. The correct solution is B.

Work factors to be considered in the workplace are sorted into two categories. What are they? A. Sitting and standing B. Environmental conditions and physical stressors C. Stooping and twisting D. Temperature and humidity

Environmental conditions such as excessive noise, inadequate lighting, uncomfortable seating, or cramped areas can cause damage to hearing and sight and cause general health problems. Physical stressors such as improper lifting techniques or repetitive motions can cause damage to nerves, ligaments and tendons, and joints. The correct solution is B

Equipment and wiring that cannot release sufficient electrical or thermal energy conditions to cause ignition of a specific hazardous atmospheric mixture in its most easily ignited concentration would be considered: A. Intrinsically Safe B. Explosion Proof C. NFPA Class1 D. NFPA Class 2

Equipment and wiring that cannot release sufficient electrical or thermal energy to cause ignition of a specific hazardous atmospheric mixture in its most easily ignited concentration would be considered intrinsically safe. Explosion Proof is when equipment is enclosed in such a manner that if an explosion occurs, it will be contained. NFPA Class 1 and Class 2 define environments where flammable or combustible materials may be present. The correct solution is A.

Angela, an engineer for ABC office chair factory, is designing a new style of computer chair. One of her first tasks is to gather anthropometric measurements. Why is this important in chair design? A. Angela needs to know certain physical measurements of humans to design a chair that most people would find comfortable and functional. B. Angela is wasting her time and should be gathering ergonomic data. C. Angela wants to be sure that the chair lasts a long time. D. Angela can use the data to cut costs.

Ergonomics is the relationship between a product and its user. To create an ergonomically robust design, Angela uses anthropometrics, the study of physical measurement of the human body, to design the chair to best fit the people who would use it. The correct solution is A.

Estrella works on a production line in a chemical packaging plant. She recently recovered from a wrist injury sustained in an automobile accident. She strained the same wrist during work and went to a clinic for treatment stating that the injury was work-related. Should her employer deny workers' compensation coverage? A. Yes, because the original injury was not work-related. B. Yes, because Estrella is committing fraud. C. No, because the aggravation of an existing condition is covered. D. No, because they are morally responsible for her injury.

Estrella would qualify for workers' compensation coverage because the aggravation of an existing condition is covered under workers' compensation law. The correct solution is C.

An emergency response plan should include protective actions for life safety. Which of the following is an appropriate response in a workplace violence situation? A. Evacuation B. Sheltering C. Shelter-In-Place D. Lockdown

Evacuation would be appropriate for hazards within a building, such as an earthquake, fire, or a bomb threat. Sheltering would be best for protection against storms or tornadoes. The fire department could issue Shelter-In-Place for hazards such as chemical spills from nearby plants, railcars, or trucks. Lockdown to hide or create a barricade is the best response in active shooter cases or other violent situations. The correct solution is: D

Acme Manufacturing created and sold a tonic that was advertised to stimulate hair growth on the top of a bald man's head. The company includes a statement that they guarantee results or they will provide a full refund. The company is sued by a customer that used the hair tonic claiming that they used the tonic as directed and hair did not grow. The company refused to refund the customer's money. Which type of lawsuit is this? A. Negligence B. Strict liability C. Express warranty D. Implied warranty

Express warranty

Which of the following would be considered a trailing indicator? A. FMEA (Failure Mode and Effects Analysis) B. JSA (Job Safety Analysis) C. RCA (Root Cause Analysis) D. Risk Assessment Matrix

FMEA is the process of reviewing systems down to the component level to determine potential failures, their causes, and possible effects. JSA is used to assess workplace hazards. Risk Assessment Matrices are used to determine the severity and probability of an event. These tools are used to predict failures, hazards, and risks and are therefore leading indicators. RCA is an investigative tool effective in identifying the cause of an event after the fact. The correct solution is C.

Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA) is used to gather which type of information? A. Trailing indicators are used to identify problem causes after they happen. B. Leading indicators identify potential problems in a process or system before they occur. C. Disaster recovery plans. D. Statistical tool used to assess the likelihood of an event within a random sample or population.

Failure Mode and Effects Analysis is used to identify potential problems in a process or system before they occur. The correct solution is B.

Ed, an engineer with XYZ chemical company, has installed an above-ground tank farm containing three 10,000-gallon tanks of toluene, one 15,000-gallon tank containing styrene, and six 5,000-gallon tanks containing acetone. The tank farm is not covered. Ed also installed secondary containment capable of holding 15,000 gallons. EHS manager, Judy, audited the installation and would not certify the tank farm for use, citing an incorrect secondary containment. Is Ed's original design correct? A. Yes, because it was designed to contain 100% of the capacity of the largest tank within its boundary. B. No, because if the tank farm is not covered, the containment should be larger. C. Yes, because when the capacities of the tanks are averaged, there is actually extra capacity in the containment. D. No, because the containment must be able to hold the total contents of all the tanks.

For bulk storage of hazardous materials in an above-ground tank farm, secondary containment must be capable of holding 100% of the contents of the largest tank. If the tank farm is not covered, the containment must also be sized to hold the equivalent of a 25-year, 24-hour rain event. The correct solution is B.

What is the EPA AP-42? A. A set of rules to determine the type and extent of air pollution damage in a region. B. A compilation of air pollution emissions factors. C. A regulation in creating SPCC plans. D. Determination of emissions opacity over 42 industry sectors.

From the EPA website: "AP-42, Compilation of Air Pollutant Emissions Factors, has been published since 1972 as the primary compilation of EPA's emissions factor information. It contains emissions factors and process information for more than 200 air pollution source categories. A source category is a specific industry sector or group of similar emitting sources..." https://www.epa.gov/air-emissions-factors-and-quantification/ap-42-compilation-air-emissions-factors One primary use of the AP-42 is to aid the determination of emissions compliance for point and area sources under a SARA Title V air permit. The correct solution is B.

Two acceptable methods of estimating CO2 emissions from a stationary fuel burning source would be direct measurement and: A. Fuel input analysis B. Observation of opacity at the stack C. Fuel efficiency rating times the heat output in MMBtu D. Stated efficiency of the source from the data plate times fuel use

Fuel input analysis is an acceptable method of estimating Green House Gas emissions. CO2 can be estimated using the following equation: Emissions = Fuel x CC x 44/12 correct answer: A

BC Metal Coatings operates one eight-hour shift, five days per week. They use a solvent on their paint line, a Hazardous Air Pollutant, in their painting process. They use one ton per year of the solvent as a vehicle for their paint. All this solvent is emitted from their curing oven stacks. Total fugitive emissions from other operations on the same operating schedule emit another ton per year of the same solvent. ABC wants to install another identical line but their environmental manager tells them that they will become a major emission source under Title V of the Clean Air Act. Is the manager correct? A. Yes, combined emissions can emit 12.6 tons per year. B. No, fugitive emissions are not counted. C. No, with combined emissions at 3 tons per year, they will remain a minor source. D. No, the calculation must be completed for each line separately.

HAP emissions are regulated based on annual Potential To Emit (PTE). Part of that PTE is operational hours. The combined actual emissions for a 40-hr (2080 hrs/yr) operation is only three tons. However, the full potential to operate is for 8760 hours per year. Calculate 3 tons / 2080 hrs. X 8760hrs. = 12.6 tons per year (TPY) combined. The limit for a single HAP is ten tons per year. The correct solution is A.

What form of nonverbal communication is associated with haptics? A. Good posture and steady eye contact B. Gestures designed to emphasize important points C. Proximity or "personal space D. Touch

Haptics is the study of nonverbal communications associated with touching. Examples are handshakes, hugging, back-slapping, and elbow or fist-bumping. The correct solution is D.

How often is HAZCOM training required? A. Annually B. Every three years C. Initially and every time a worker changes jobs D. At the discretion of the safety manager

Hazard Communication training is required prior to starting a job and thereafter whenever the worker changes jobs and is exposed to different chemicals, or if new chemicals are used in the current job. The correct solution is C.

If the intensity of a radiation source at 1ft is 300 mR/hr. What would the intensity be at 6ft? A. 8.3 mR/hr B. 10 mR/hr C. 15 mR/hr D. 17.3 mR/hr

I_{2}=I_{1}\frac{\left(d_{1}\right)^{2}}{\left(d_{2}\right)^{2}} At 6ft: 1/(6) squared x 300 mR/hr -=1/36 x 300 = 8.3 mR/hr The correct solution is A.

There are three requirements before using a tight-fitting respirator. Two requirements are a medical evaluation by a LHCP and initial fit testing, either qualitative or quantitative. What is a third requirement? A. Real-time demonstration in a hazardous environment B. Cardio-pulmonary function test C. Initial and annual training D. Leak test

If the fit test is administered correctly, the subject will demonstrate that they can maintain a tight fit through different head and body movements, but a hazardous environment is not required. After reviewing the medical evaluation, the Licensed Health Care Professional might indicate cardio-pulmonary function testing, but it is not always required. The third requirement is initial and annual training. It is worth noting that when dealing with specific substances, such as asbestos or silica, medical monitoring could be required and could include CP function testing. The correct solution is C.

A contract law term for certain assurances that are presumed to be made in the sale of products or real property due to the circumstances of the sale would be called: A. Written guarantee B. Strict liability C. Implied warranty D. Serviceability

Implied warranty includes: - Fitness for a particular purpose: for example, if a customer requested paint for the exterior of a house but the salesperson sold him interior paint - Merchantability for products: for example, if a merchant sold vegetables that look good but had some defect - Workmanlike quality for services: for example, if a carpenter completed a renovation and the ceiling collapsed due to poor workmanship - Habitability for a home: For example, if an agent sold a residence that had a serious defect or couldn't be occupied due to zoning requirements The correct solution is C.

After being assigned to sweep the floor where dust has accumulated Ralph requested what he calls a dust mask, which is a filtering facepiece respirator. The safety supervisor noted that the dust concentration is well below regulatory level and refused to issue the respirator, stating that Ralph has not been fit tested. Was the safety supervisor correct? A. Yes, anyone wearing a tight-fitting respirator must be medically evaluated and fit tested prior to wearing one. B. Yes, Ralph should not have asked for the respirator due to budget constraints. C. No, fit testing is not required in this specific case. D. No, the safety supervisor should have performed a fit test and issued the respirator.

In a case where an employer issues for voluntary use, a filtering facepiece respirator (dust mask), there are two requirements: 1. Determine that such use will not itself create a hazard 2. Provide a copy of Appendix D of the OSHA standard to each voluntary user of a filtering facepiece. Medical evaluation and fit testing are not required. The correct solution is C.

The two basic types of FMEA (Failure Mode and Effects Analysis) are: A. Leading and trailing indicators B. Failure analysis and effects analysis C. Process and design D. Hazard and Risk

In a process FMEA, risks are process failures. In a design FMEA, risks are product or system-related failures The correct solution is C.

When would an architect specify a dry pipe system for a warehouse? A. When a normal wet system would lack volume capacity to service multiple sprinkler activations B. Only when water towers with standpipes are used C. When the local environment is such that a wet system could freeze D. Dry systems would not be specified because they are prohibited in warehouse locations.

In a standard wet pipe system, sprinkler supply pipes are filled with water under pressure so that when a sprinkler activates, water or other suppression media is discharged instantly. In a dry pipe fire suppression system, the supply pipes are filled with compressed air or nitrogen. These systems are used in areas where temperatures could drop low enough for wet pipes to freeze. The correct solution is C.

Gene with ABC chemical was preparing to enter a mixing tank under a confined space permit using a SAR (Supplied Air Respirator). The oxygen level in the tank was 20%. Chemical vapors in the tank measured 600ppm. IDLH for the chemical is 550ppm. Before Gene climbed into the tank, the safety manager aborted the operation, stating that Gene needed more equipment. Why? A. Aborting the operation was not necessary. The safety manager was wrong. B. Gene should have had a secondary "escape" system. C. SAR was unnecessary. The feed hose was in the way and caused a safety hazard. D. Gene was supposed to wear a tight-fitting, air-purifying respirator.

In an IDLH (Immediately Dangerous to Life and Health) atmosphere only SAR or SCBA with at least 30 minutes of air supply are allowed. The safety manager aborted the operation because Gene should also have had an auxiliary escape system such as a small SCBA unit in addition to the SAR. The correct solution is B.

George W. is a maintenance technician with ABC manufacturing. He was assigned a task to change overhead lamps that require working from a scissor lift. When the safety manager observed George on the lift at about 5ft. off the floor without a safety harness, he instructed George to get off the lift until he donned his fall protection. George argued that he was not required to wear a safety harness while on the scissor lift. Was the safety manager correct? A. Yes, fall protection is required in general industry whenever a worker is more than four feet above floor level. B. Yes, the "cage" on a scissor lift is not adequate fall protection. C. No, scissor lifts do not require fall protection in the form of harnesses, lanyards, etc. D. No, fall protection is only required if the worker is more than six feet from the ground or floor level.

In general industry, some form of fall protection is required for any open-sided platform or hole that is more than four feet above the working surface below. In construction, fall protection is required whenever work is done six feet or more from the working surface. Cages on all lifts, including scissor lifts, that come from the factory with safety rails meet regulatory requirements for fall protection. Oddly enough, scissor lifts are regulated as moving platforms, the same as scaffolding. Unlike "boom" lifts, there is no requirement for personal fall protection while on a scissor lift. However, most companies write policies that require personal fall protection on all lift devices. In the absence of such a company policy, George is correct. The correct solution is C.

What are the two types of carbon sequestration? A. Incineration and Dilution B. Geologic and Biologic C. Cap and Trade D. Filtering and Adsorption

In geologic carbon sequestration, carbon dioxide is collected and stored in underground formations, usually in liquid form. Biologic sequestration refers to storing of atmospheric carbon naturally, such as in plants and vegetation, or aquatic environments. The correct solution is B.

At a minimum, an emergency action plan must include: • Fire and emergency reporting procedures • Procedures for those who remain to operate critical operations prior to evacuation • Procedures to account for employees after evacuation • Procedures for emergency evacuation, including type of evacuation and exit routes • Procedures for employees performing rescue and medical duties And which of the following? A. Contact information for legal counsel and Worker's Comp insurance adjuster B. HAZWOPER training C. Names of those to contact for further information or explanation about the plan D. All emergency procedures in a safe location off-site

In order to be prepared for an emergency situation at any time, the names of those to contact for further information or explanation about the plan is needed. correct answer C.

XYZ company requires a five-year payback on all capital investments. A project has been submitted for a $150,000 dollar investment for new fork trucks. Annual profit increase based on less downtime and repairs is projected to be $33,000. Given an annual interest rate of 3% on the annual profit increase, will the project be approved? F = A { [(1+i)^n - 1] / i } A. No, 5-year pay-back is only $141,691.21 B. Yes, 5-year pay-back is $175,201.78 C. No, ROI is 3% D. Yes, ROI is 22%

In order to calculate future value, use the formula: F = A { [(1+i)^n - 1] / i } where: A = annual return i = annual interest rate n = number of years F = $33,000 { (1.03^5 - 1)/0.03 } = $175,201.78 The correct solution is B

Plant operator, Anthony, received a call from the guardhouse stating that a federal OSHA inspector was present and wanted to come into the plant. Anthony instructed the guard to deny entry to the inspector. Was this legal? A. No, OSHA has a legal right to enter a workplace at a reasonable time. B. Yes, OSHA does not have a legal right to enter a workplace without permission. C. It depends upon the nature of the visit. D. Yes, but only for recordkeeping inspections

In this case, the plant operator can legally deny federal OSHA entry to a workplace. However, OSHA can seek a court order to allow entry. While it is legal, denying access to OSHA is almost universally a really bad idea. The correct solution is B.

What is a contractual provision in which one party agrees to answer for any specified or unspecified liability or harm that the other party may incur? A. Transfer of risk B. Indemnification agreement C. Assumption of risk D. True risk

Indemnification agreement

Purchasing pollution insurance is an example of which risk management approach? A. Risk avoidance B. Risk reduction C. Risk sharing D. Risk retention

Insurance doesn't help to avoid or reduce risk. You can argue that insurance is a form of retention or acceptance; however, insurance is a form of risk sharing like a warranty. The correct solution is C.

What is the difference between insurance and a bond? A. There is no real difference. B. Insurance protects a specific person and project while bonds protect a person, business, or company. C. Bonds cost more. D. A bond protects a contractor who hires someone for a specific project while insurance protects people or businesses from a covered loss.

Insurance protects entities - people and businesses- from loss whenever a covered claim occurs. Bonds, specifically surety bonds, protect an individual who contracts specific work on a project by compensating the contractor or "obligee" whenever a claim occurs. The correction solution is D.

The safety manager at Bowen Foundry is concerned about hazardous exposure when working near the blast furnace. Which of the following is the best risk management strategy for reducing exposures during blast furnace operations? heat shield SWOT analysis JSA FMEA

JSA - Heat shielding PPE is the lowest form of controlling risk and should only be utilized after all other options have been implemented. - SWOT (Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats) analysis is a way to evaluate risks. It is geared more toward business strategy in general instead of specific tasks. It is not a control method. - FMEA (Failure Mode and Effects Analysis) is a structured approach for finding problems with a process or product. It is not a direct control method. - Job Safety Analysis (JSA) measures the inherent risk of each step in a work process and assigns risk levels to each step and ways to minimize the risk. It is a form of administrative control. This is the best choice since it is a control above the use of PPE in the hierarchy.

Jennifer is part of the HAZMAT team working to remediate a contaminated site. She has been instructed to enter a contaminated area to retrieve a batch of soil samples that were previously taken. She was instructed to wear safety glasses, safety boots with steel toes and shanks, coveralls, gloves, and a hard hat. What HAZWOPER PPE level would this constitute? A. Level A B. Level B C. Level C D. Level D

Jennifer's list of PPE constitutes level D protection, the least protective level, and the only one that does not require some type of respiratory protection. The correct solution is D.

The term "kinesics" is: A. A derogatory term referring to specific thought patterns B. The ability to move objects through the power of the mind C. The term used to interpret body motion communications D. A method for identifying certain air quality-related nervous disorders

Kinesics is the interpretation of communications by body movements, also known as body language. The correct solution is C.

A line worker is moving a load of bottled window cleaner from a pallet onto a storage rack. There are 120 boxes containing 6 bottles each. Each filled box weighs 25 pounds. Each box has cutouts designed for lifting the box. The pallet is sitting on a rotating spring-loaded lift table that maintains a steady height per layer of boxes at 30" from floor level. The operator must reach forward to grasp each box. The storage rack shelf is 42" from the floor. The task began at 1:00 pm and was completed at 3:00 pm. Use the NIOSH lifting equation to determine if the job should be re-designed. A. No, the lifting index = .86 B. Yes, the Lifting Index = 1.41 C. No the load is less than 51lbs. D. Yes, the lifting index = 1.64

LI, or the Lifting Index is the load weight divided by the RWL, or Recommended Weight Limit, and determines the risk level. LI of 1 equates to a very low risk to a wide range of physical types. As the LI increases, the risk increases, and fewer people are able to perform the task safely. Generally, if the LI is over 1.0, the task should be redesigned. HM = Horizontal Multiplier factor = 1 VM = Vertical Multiplier factor = 1 DM = Distance Multiplier factor = .93 FM = Frequency Multiplier factor = .71 AM = Asymmetric Multiplier factor = .88 CM = Coupling Multiplier factor = 1 LC = The lifting Constant = 51lbs LC is always 51lbs or 23kg. A good source for multiplier calculations and tables can be found online at https://www.cdc.gov/niosh/docs/94-110/pdfs/94-110.pdf In the NIOSH lifting equation, the Recommended Weight Limit (RWL) = LC x HM x VM x DM x AM x FM x CM = 51(lbs.) x 1 x 1 x .93 x .71 x .88 x 1 = 29lbs LI = 25/29 = 0.86 As the lifting index is <1. The job should not be re-designed. The correct solution is A.

Employee performance problems caused by ___________ are most likely to be amenable to training solutions. A. Poor supervision B. Environmental factors C. Lack of skills and knowledge D. Insufficient motivation to perform

Lack of skills and knowledge

What is the concept of learning through repetition called? A. Rote learning B. Meaningful learning C. Associative learning D. Active learning

Learning through multiple repetitions is called rote learning. Examples of other types of learning include: - Meaningful learning - The material is understood in context and can be applied by the learner. - Associative learning - The learning is based on a particular stimulus such as touching a hot surface, and - Active learning - Learners actively participate in the learning event. The correct solution is A.

Which is considered the least effective training method? A. Participating in role-play exercises B. Listening to lectures C. Observing demonstrations D. Interactive training

Lectures, usually performed in a classroom setting, can transfer a lot of information to many people in a limited amount of time. However, they are considered to be the least effective training method. The correct solution is B.

Which level of protection for hazardous materials does not require a respirator? A. Level A B. Level B C. Level C D. Level D

Level D

When preparing for a confined space entry into a storage tank, what is the best method of lockout for ensuring that no material is pumped into the tank during the entry? A. Post a guard at the tank input station B. Turn off and lock out power to the pump C. Double blind and bleed all input lines and, if applicable, all output lines D. Close and chain the nearest valve

Locking and chaining valves and pumps can be part of an effective strategy for extra protection. However, the best and only acceptable method to ensure that materials cannot enter a storage tank and engulf an entrant is to install blind flanges at two locations in any pipe or line where material could feed into the tank. Then install a bleed valve somewhere between the two flanges and lock the valve in the open position. The correct solution is C.

What is the condition where tendons on the inside of the elbow become injured or strained? A. Epicondylitis, or tennis elbow B. Raynaud's syndrome C. Medial epicondylitis, or golfer's elbow D. Trigger finger

Medial epicondylitis, or golfer's elbow, occurs when the tendons on the inside of the elbow become injured or strained. The correct solution is C.

During an active shooting, if you can't run or hide, what should you do next? A. Negotiate B. Fight C. Scream D. Call the police

Negotiating is not a correct response because the shooter is most likely trying to kill as many people as possible in the shortest amount of time and not interested in talking. The Department of Homeland Security's model for response to an active shooter situation is to run, hide, or, as a last resort, fight. When fighting, objects close at hand such as books, fire extinguishers, and staplers can distract the shooter. The goal is to take the shooter down. While an emergency call should be made as soon as it can be safely done, the safest action is to not make any noise (including screaming) - even turn cell phones off - until it is certain that the shooter is no longer in hearing range. The correct solution is B.

The safety manager at a metal machining plant where cutting oil is sprayed onto both equipment and feedstock observed an operator wearing an N-95 filtering facepiece respirator. The manager entered the supervisor's office and requested that the respirator be replaced. Why? A. The respirator was fine. The manager made a mistake. B. The operator would not need a respirator. C. The correct filtering facepiece respirator would be an R-95 or a P-95. D. The operator should be wearing a supplied air respirator (SAR).

Note that the "N" in "N-95" refers to non-oil atmospheres, and a potential oil-mist atmosphere could exist in this situation. If engineering controls cannot be implemented to eliminate the spraying of cutting oil onto the equipment or at least contain it, the operator could be required to wear a respirator. In this case, the correct respirator would be either an R-95, which is somewhat oil-resistant or a P-95, which is strongly oil resistant. The correct solution is C.

What is the title of a person who has the knowledge to design and supervise the installation of fall protection systems on a job site? A. Qualified Person B. Competent Person C. Authorized Person D. Rescuer

OSHA 1926.32(m) "Qualified means one who, by possession of a recognized degree, certificate, or professional standing, or who by extensive knowledge, training, and experience, has successfully demonstrated his ability to solve or resolve problems relating to the subject matter, the work, or the project." This person must have proof that they are able to do the job. The correct solution is A.

Hanna, an X-ray technician, has received a dose of X-radiation to her hands of 10 REMs over two months. Her manager panics and pulls Hanna from her current position stating that she has received a dose of ionizing radiation twice the annual limits. The Radiation Safety Officer disagrees and asks the manager to allow Hanna to continue her work. Who is correct? A. The Manager because the maximum allowable dose is 5 REMs/year. B. The RSO because the maximum allowable dose for hands is 18 ¾ REM/Qtr. C. X-rays are not regulated as ionizing radiation. D. As X-rays are not measured in REMs, neither person knows whether Hanna was over-exposed.

OSHA regulates ionizing radiation (such as X-ray radiation) that is not regulated by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission. The table below is from 29CFR 1910.1096(b)(1). The limit for hands and forearms is 18 ¾ REMs per calendar quarter. While it is conceivable that in the third month, Hanna could receive a dose large enough to exceed the quarterly limits, she has not exceeded them for the time being. Whole body: Head and trunk; active blood-forming organs; lens of eyes, or gonads 1 1/4 (Rems/calendar quarter) Hands and forearms; feet and ankles 18 3/4 (Rems/calendar quarter) Skin of whole body 7 1/2 (Rems/calendar quarter) The correct solution is B.

The most effective means to determine when a chemical cartridge respirator has reached the end of its useful service is:

Observing the end of life indicator on the respirator.

Supervisor Joe observed the maintenance tech working in a scissor lift about fifteen feet from floor level. He was pulling electrical wire through a conduit without a safety harness or lanyard. Joe asked the tech to lower the lift and get his fall harness and a fall arrest lanyard. The tech stated that fall protection was not required because the scissor lift had guard rails at 42" from the floor of the lift bucket, a mid-rail, and toe boards. Who was correct? A. Joe, because the tech was over 6' from the floor. B. The tech, because the lift bucket was compliant. C. The tech, but he should be wearing a tether. D. Joe, because pulling wire is dangerous.

Oddly enough, scissor lifts are regulated as moving platforms, and the tech was correct. However, most companies have developed policies that require fall arrest systems to be used on these devices because the temptation to lean over the rail to avoid re-positioning the lift can be tremendous. The correct solution is B.

What is the Generator Improvements Rule? A. Update to the RICE rule B. Allows for extended time for accumulation of hazardous waste C. DOT rule governing the use of underslung generators on semi-trailers D. A set of rules that better optimize disposal of hazardous waste

One example is that VSQG (Very Small Quantity Generator) facilities have the flexibility under the rule to ship small amounts of hazardous waste to facilities within the organization that are LGG status to manage the waste. It is important to note that as this portion of the rule is less stringent than the previous rule, states who manage their own RCRA program are not required to follow the rule. A map of states that have adopted the rule is available on the EPA website. The correct solution is D.

When people use pitch and speed of speaking, hesitation noises, gestures, and facial expression, they are engaging in a form of nonverbal communication called: A. Susurration B. Enhancement C. Paralanguage D. Haptics

Paralanguage is a form of nonverbal communication used with speech to convey emphasis or different meanings. For example, a sarcastic tone of voice when answering a question. It includes intonation, pitch and speed of speaking, hesitation noises, gestures, and facial expressions. The correct solution is C.

Anthony B., IT manager, received an email stating that his employer has had a complaint filed against them by the Better Business Bureau. The email instructed Anthony to click on the link below and to use the case ID#, also provided below, to sign in to see the details of the complaint. Anthony is certain that the email is not legitimate. This type of communication could be an example of? A. An incognito email from a law enforcement agency B. Spear phishing C. Hacking D. A message was sent to Anthony by mistake.

Phishing is a social engineering method used by hackers to steal information for their own gain. When the phishing attack is focused on a certain type of person or group, it is called spear phishing. If the spear phishing attempt is targeted toward top-level executives, it is called whaling. The correct solution is B.

In terms of cyber security, to what does the term "whaling" refer? A. A type of phishing designed to target top-level executives. B. Allowing an entire network to become compromised due to poor security policies. C. The use of extremely large networks behind a single firewall. D. A security breach caused by the CSO

Phishing is a type of cyberattack that uses social engineering techniques through disguised emails to trick the recipient into giving up information, downloading malware, or taking other desired actions. Spear phishing is when a particular individual is targeted. Whaling is when that individual is a top-level executive, such as the CEO. The correct solution is A.

There are three basic types of toxicity. Two types are Chemical and Physical. What is the third? A. Psychological B. Cytotoxicity C. Biological D. Placebo effect

Physical toxicity may include things not usually thought of under the heading of "toxic." Examples are concussion, sound, heat and cold, non-ionizing and ionizing radiation. Some examples of chemical toxicity would be lead, hydrofluoric acid, methyl alcohol, and poisons derived from plants. Biological toxicity includes bacteria and viruses that can cause disease in living organisms. The correct solution is C.

An old saying is "people do not plan to fail; they fail to plan." The ADDIE training model is used extensively for planning for ISD/SAT (Instructional System Design/Structured Approach to Training). ADDIE stands for Analyze, Design, Development, Implement, and: A. Express B. Enlighten C. Enhance D. Evaluate

Potentially the most important and usually the most ignored portion of any structured program is a method of measuring success. Training is no different. Feedback and evaluation are critical to determining how effective a program is and where to focus efforts to improve the program. The correct solution is D.

An example of an administrative control to reduce exposure to ergonomics related injury would be: A. Wearing thermal gloves in cold areas. B. Using a device to lift heavy objects. C. Repositioning a worktable to reduce extended or awkward reaching. D. Establishing a schedule to rotate workers out of jobs to reduce the duration of awkward positions or repetitive motions.

Providing gloves for cold areas is using PPE and is the least preferred method. Installing lifts or repositioning worktables are engineering controls, which would be the preferred method. Establishing policies and procedures such as changing work schedules to reduce exposure to ergonomic hazards is an administrative control. The correct solution is: D

Four effective methods of risk mitigation are: Avoidance, Acceptance, Reduction, and Transference. One example of risk transference would be: A. Purchasing a service contract on a large air compressor. B. Performing an FMEA C. Diversifying into multiple customers and/or processes. D. Raising the price to overcome the effects of failure.

Purchasing a service contract would transfer the risk to a third party. Performing an FMEA could result in risk reduction through lowering the probability of failure. Diversifying would reduce or control financial risk associated with customer dissatisfaction. Raising the price to overcome the effects of failure is risk acceptance. The correct solution is: A

What is a RAD in ionizing radiation? A. A measure of the dose of any ionizing radiation to body tissues in terms of the energy absorbed per unit of mass of the tissue B. A measure of the dose of any ionizing radiation to body tissue in terms of its estimated biological effect relative to a dose of 1 roentgen C. A measure of the exposure of ionizing radiation in the air, produced from X-rays and gamma rays D. The unit used to describe the rate of decay or activity of a radioactive material

RAD is the measure of the dose of any ionizing radiation to body tissues in terms of the energy absorbed per unit of mass of the tissue. REM is the measure of the dose of any ionizing radiation to body tissue in terms of its estimated biological effect relative to a dose of 1 roentgen. Roentgen is the measure of exposure to ionizing radiation in air produced from X-rays and gamma rays. Curie is the unit used to describe the rate of decay or activity of a radioactive material. The correct solution is A.

Company XYZ upgraded a packaging line to include an automatic strapping machine to strap boxes to a pallet. The intent was to increase production, but the result was just the opposite. The only way that the operators could achieve an acceptable quality level was to slow the line to pre-upgrade rates. The company decided to conduct a training needs assessment to determine how best to address the problem. The first thing that should be determined when conducting such a needs assessment is: A. A characterization of the audience - who is being trained. B. What trainees are required to know or do. C. Whether a gap analysis should be performed. D. Whether training is the correct response.

Reasons for the failure could include design and installation problems, resistance to a new process from the operators, incomplete documentation of the new process, or lack of knowledge or experience. The primary decision is to identify these issues and to determine whether training is the correct response. If it is, a clear definition of what the trainees should know or be able to do should be followed by a gap analysis in order to determine training needs. Characterizing the audience is crucial when creating training content. The correct solution is D.

An employee just completed his annual audiogram and was shown to have a Standard Threshold Shift. What should the next step be? A. Require the employee to wear ear muffs at work from now on B. Repeat the audiogram on the employee after a period of quiet. C. Record the hearing loss D. Transfer the employee in a quieter work area

Repeat the audiogram on the employee after a period of quiet.

Workplace ergonomic risk factors include repetitive motions, excessively forceful exertion, and static or dynamic awkward postures. A highly repetitive job would be one in which the cycle A. Repeats every 30 seconds or less B. Repeats every ten minutes if the load is heavy C. Repeats three times per hour if combined with awkward bending D. Varies based on the NIOSH lifting equation

Repetition and posture are considered in the NIOSH lifting equation when determining whether the weight of a load exceeds safe practices. Highly repetitive motions are those that repeat every 30 seconds or less. The correct solution is A.

Risk that remains after preventative measures have been taken is called: A. Acceptable risk B. Residual risk C. Managed risk D. Zero Risk

Risk that remains after preventative measures have been taken is called residual risk. Residual risk may or may not be acceptable and certainly should be analyzed. The correct solution is B.

A document that specifies how a business can continue to operate during times of crises would be identified as: A. SWOT (Strength, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats) B. BCP (Business Continuity Plan) C. FMEA (Failure Mode and Effects Analysis) D. AQL (Acceptable Quality Limit)

SWOT can be used to develop strategies in a particular business model. A BCP can help a company to be prepared in case of disaster or crisis. FMEA is a useful tool to determine potential failures in a process. AQL is an agreement between supplier and customer about the minimum acceptable quality allowed for a particular product- usually expressed in a percentage. The correct solution is B.

What does a SWOT analysis accomplish in business? A. Whether or not a business is viable B. Direct security threats C. Planning for future operations and goals D. Nothing; it is used solely in rescue operations

SWOT stands for Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats. A company's strengths and weaknesses are internal, while opportunities and threats are external influences. SWOT analysis can help a leader to shape current and future operations and develop strategic goals. The correct solution is C.

Which of the following would be an example of behavioral safety? A. Job hazard analysis B. Safety Committee C. Maintenance records D. Worksite inspections

Safety committees, along with reward and award programs, emphasize the concept that every employee is in the safety department. The correct solution is B.

Sam is a construction worker for a very large contracting company. He is working in a confined space at sea level where the atmospheric pressure is 1 atm. The oxygen concentration in the confined space is measured at 19.0%. Bart also works for the contracting company. Bart is preparing a construction site on a 14,000 foot mountain where a ski lift will be installed. The atmospheric pressure on the mountain is 450 mm Hg. Which worker has more available oxygen in their workplace? A. Sam B. Bart C. They have equal amounts of oxygen available. D. There is not enough information to answer the question.

Sam

What is the purpose of section 230 of the Communications Decency Act of 1996? A. To allow persons under 18 to view questionable content on the internet. B. Provide immunity from liability for providers of interactive computer services who publish information provided by third-party users. C. Criminalize internet "bullying." D. Protect underage internet viewers from social discrimination.

Section 230 of the Communications Decency Act (CDA) provides immunity from liability for information service providers for content posted on their service. It also provides immunity for service providers who remove content from their service that they deem offensive. The correct solution is B.

What does the term "insider trading" mean? A. Stock trades that are conducted only during normal trading hours and in person at the various exchanges. B. Trades of preferred stock that aren't available to the general public. C. Trades conducted based on non-public information that places the non-informed at a disadvantage. D. Any form of an illegal transaction.

Shares bought and sold based on knowledge known only to a few people inside the organization is illegal and is considered insider trading. The correct solution is C.

What is social engineering as it applies to information security? A. A method for controlling the thought process of a group of people B. The negative aspect of decision by committee, otherwise known as groupthink. C. The science of mob psychology D. The use of emotional triggers and other psychological tactics to obtain confidential information.

Social engineering techniques are used by hackers to obtain personal information. Scams such as phishing tend to lure unsuspecting users into exposing data, spreading malware infections, or giving access to restricted systems. The correct solution is D.

What is the term for producing an inferior quality product by the addition of another substance? A. Dumping B. Adulteration C. Mixing D. Thinning

Some examples of adulteration would be injecting water into meat for the sole purpose of increasing weight or using sub-standard parts in an automobile to reduce costs. The correct solution is B.

Four workplace communication styles are: Passive Passive/Aggressive Aggressive Assertive Someone who quietly makes it clear that their rights and needs are prevalent would align with which style? A. Passive B. Aggressive C. Passive/Aggressive D. Assertive

Sometimes referred to as "under the table aggression," people with a Passive/Aggressive communication style will mutter under their breath and use facial expressions that reflect how they are feeling. They also tend to use a lot of body language to communicate. The correct solution is C.

An employee at the Bowen Fulfillment Center has been instructed to transfer a load of type B widgets from a pallet into a storage rack. 120 widgets are individually boxed. Each widget weighs 41 pounds. Each box has cutouts designed for lifting the box. The widgets are directly in front of the employee. The pallet is sitting on a rotating springloaded lift table that maintains a steady height per layer of widgets at 30" from floor level. The storage rack shelf is 42" from the floor. The task began at 7:00 am and was completed at 9:00 am. Should the job be redesigned? RWL = LC x HM x VM x DM x AM x FM x CM HM = 10/H VM = 1 - (0.0075|v-30|) DM = 0.82+ 1.8/D AM = 1 - 0.0032A LI = L/RWL A. No, the lifting index = .61 B. Yes, the lifting index = 1.03 C. No, the load is less than 51lbs D. Yes, the lifting index = 1.64

Start with the NIOSH lifting equation to determine the recommended weight limit: HM = 10/H = 1 VM = 1 - 0.0075|V-30| = 1 - 0.0075(42-30) = 0.91 DM = 0.82 + 1.8/D where D = change in distance DM = 0.82+1.8/12 = 0.97 FM = 0.88 from the table (1 lift per minute for 2 hours) CM = 1 RWL = 51 x 0.91 x 0.97 x 0.88 = 40 lbs Determine the lifting index: LI = 41/40 = 1.03 Since the lifting index is >1, the job should be redesigned. The correct solution is B.

J.K. Jones has been asked to justify a project to replace 100 fluorescent light fixtures with LED lights. The new lights will cost $450 each. Labor and supplies for replacing the lights is $35,000. The power consumption of the existing fixtures is 120 watts each. The new LED lights will consume 60 watts each. The lights are powered on an average of 10 hours/day and 248 days per year. Power cost averages $10 per Kilowatt-Hour. What is the Return on Investment (ROI) over a 2-year period? A. 172% B. 1.48 C. 17.2 D. 116%

Step 1: Calculate the current cost extended over the two years. 100 X (120x10x248)/1000 = 29,760 KWH X $10 - $297,600 X 2 = $595,200 Step 2: Calculate the projected new cost extended over the two years. 100 X (60x10x248)/1000 = 14,880KWH X $10 = $148,800 X 2 = $297,600 + $45,000 + $35,000 = $377,600 Step 3: Calculate the ROI The financial value is the cost savings = $595,200 - $377,600 = $217,600. In project management, the formula for ROI is: ROI = [(Financial Value - Project Cost) / Project Cost] x 100 The ROI = $217,600 - $80,000 = ($137,600/$80,000) X 100) = 172% The correct solution is A.

Four liability theories can render a defendant liable for injuries they may have caused. These are intent, recklessness, negligence, and ________________. A. Criminal behavior B. Ignorance C. Strict liability D. Poor management

Strict liability covers certain situations where someone can be held liable for the harm they cause, no matter their mental state. The first three theories involve the mental state of the defendant: • Intent - they acted with the intent to cause harm. • Recklessness - they knew (or should have known) that their action was likely to cause harm. • Negligence - they acted or failed to act in violation of a duty to someone else, thus causing harm to that person. The correct solution is C.

What is the meaning of "summary judgment?" A. A judge's decision is based on a summary of the case instead of a full trial. B. A court decision made on a motion that there is no reason for a trial. C. The plaintiff filed a motion to return a decision in favor of the plaintiff. D. Another term for the period of time allowed for attorneys to "summarize" their argument in before a court decision.

Summary judgement is a court decision based on a motion that there is no reason for a trial. The correct solution is B

Three different approaches to ethics are the virtue approach (personal integrity), the consequentialist approach (try to do more good than harm), and the deontological approach (adherence to ethical principles). The terms "accountability" and "consistency" would be examples of which approach? A. The virtue approach B. The consequentialist approach C. The deontological approach D. They are not ethical terms

The terms "accountability" and "consistency" are duty-based and, therefore, deontological terms. The correct solution is C.

The Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act (EPCRA) requires that any company that manufactures, processes, or uses reportable quantities of a substance with an SD sheet required by OSHA HAZCOM standard 29CFR 1910.1200, must report the substance to State and local officials. Submission of a Tier I report is required under Section 311 of the EPCRA. Submission of a Tier II report is required under Section 312 of the EPCRA. Tier I reports contain general information about hazardous chemicals, and Tier II reports contain specific information about hazardous chemicals. All fifty US states require Tier II reports. The threshold for reporting is 10,000 pounds except for extremely hazardous substances (EHS). The reporting quantity for an EHS is either the TPQ (Threshold Planning Quantity) or 500 pounds, whichever is less. H&B Simpson company has 200 lead-acid batteries for use as backup power in case of an outage. The batteries contain sulfuric acid which is an EHS with a reportable quantity of 500 pounds. Each battery weighs 50 pounds. Should H&B Simpson file a Tier II report? A. Yes, because the combined weight of the batteries is 10,000 pounds. B. No because of the total 10,000-pound weight, the lead content has to be under the threshold. C. Not enough information exists to make a determination D. Lead is excluded from Tier II

The total weight of the lead-acid batteries is 10,000-pounds. Lead is not considered an EHS so 10,000 pounds would be the reporting threshold. As the batteries contain other substances, there would not be enough lead to meet the reporting requirement. More research is required to determine if the batteries in total contain 500 pounds or more of sulfuric acid, which is an EHS. Note that when submitting a Tier II report on batteries, the submission must be in the same format as the submitted SDS. In other words, if the SDS is for a complete battery, a Tier II submission must be the complete battery as a mixture. The correct solution is C.

When training adult workers successful transfer of learning occurs when:

The worker understands how the training materials can apply to their job. Adults expect to gain information that is immediately applicable to their life experiences. Adult workers learn information that has a practical application to their job very quickly.

What class of fire extinguisher is required to extinguish burning magnesium? A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Class D

There are five classes of fire extinguishers: Class A for wood and textiles (think A for "ash") Class B for flammable liquids (think B for "boiling") Class C for energized electrical equipment (think C for "current") Class D for combustible metals Class K for animal fat and oil in cooking equipment (think K for "kitchen") The correct solution is D.

Which would be an example of an intentional tort? A. Selling illegal drugs B. Using illegal drugs C. Property trespass D. Speeding on a public road

There are three major types of tort lawsuits: Intentional Torts, Negligence, and Strict Liability. Property trespass would be an intentional tort. The correct solution is C.

The supply chain manager asked a material handler whose certification had expired the day before to operate a fork truck. The manager was a trained and licensed driver and stated that he would personally supervise the operation. The safety manager refused to allow it. Why? A. The safety manager was wrong. One day doesn't matter. B. The material handler must attend full training before being allowed to operate a fork truck. C. The supply chain manager could have evaluated the operator while he was performing the task. D. There is a thirty-day grace period for recertification.

There is a great deal of confusion about what constitutes certification. A trained and certified fork truck driver must be, at a minimum, re-evaluated every three years. If the certification expired, re-evaluation is necessary before the driver can be allowed to operate a fork truck. The supply chain manager, as a trained and certified operator, could evaluate the material handler while he was performing the task. It is important to note that many companies do require full training- including an exam and evaluation. It is also important to note that the evaluation must be done while the driver is performing his normal tasks. The correct solution is C.

What is the criterion for fibers to be considered "respirable" particulate matter? A. 3.5 µm (micrometers) or smaller in diameter B. In concentrations of 10mg/m3 C. PM-10 or smaller D. Asbestos

To be considered respirable, fibers (such as asbestos) must be 3.5 µm or less in diameter, small enough to enter the lower lung. The correct solution is A.

How often must certificants report their continuing education activities to the BCSP to maintain a BCSP certification? A. Annually B. As they occur C. Every 3 years D. Every 5 years

To maintain a professional certification through the BSCP, the certificate holder must earn recertification points and report them every 5 years. The required number of points varies based on the type of certification. For example, ASP and CSP certificants must earn 25 recertification points. The correct solution is D.

In environmental management, what is the "Innocent Landowner Defense?" A. The landowner can be held harmless for contamination only if he posts a cash bond. B. In certain circumstances, the landowner is held harmless even if he caused the contamination. C. There is a narrow window where a buyer can avoid liability if he performs "due diligence." D. The buyer is never protected, only the current landowner.

To qualify for the innocent landowner defense, a buyer must be able to prove that site contamination occurred before purchase, that the environmental due diligence process was completed before purchase, and that due care was exercised in instances when contamination was later discovered. The correct solution is C.

When an insurance company subrogates a claim, it: A. Exercises a legal right to pursue a third party that actually caused a loss. B. Agrees that the claimant is being fraudulent. C. Automatically goes to trial. D. Requests arbitration from a federal negotiator.

When doubt arises about who is liable for a claim, most insurance companies have a legal right to subrogate the claim against a third party who actually caused the loss. It is very common, for example, for an employee to file with his or her personal medical insurance for expenses following an illness or injury. Then, when evidence arises that points to the claim being work-related, a worker's compensation claim will be filed. At that point, the medical insurance company will subrogate the claim to the worker's compensation insurance company. The correct solution is A.

Joey, a batch maker for XYZ Chemical Company, has been fit tested using a full-face filtering facepiece respirator. The fit test was a qualitative test. He wants to enter a room that contains a concentration of 1200ppm styrene vapors. The exposure limit for styrene is 100ppm over an 8-hour TWA. The safety manager tells Joey that he cannot go into the room, even with the respirator. Joey states that he can safely enter the room. Who is correct? A. Joey is correct. The APF (Assigned Protection Factor) for a tight-fitting respirator is 50, so Joey would only be exposed to 60ppm. B. The safety manager is correct. The APF for the respirator is 10, meaning that Joey would breathe 120ppm styrene. C. The safety manager is correct because 1200ppm styrene creates an IDLH (Immediately Dangerous to Life and Health) atmosphere. D. Joey is correct because he would only be in the room for a few minutes.

When fit tested using a qualitative test, the APF is 10, meaning that Joey would be over-exposed in a 1200ppm concentration of styrene. In addition, the IDLH for styrene is 700. Filtering facepiece respirators cannot be used in an IDLH atmosphere. The correct solution is C.

Janie from Bowen Remediation is required to wear a respirator while working near a waste tank. Her half-face negative pressure respirator was fit tested using quantitative testing. When the seal on the respirator deteriorated to the point where it failed a negative pressure test, Janie pulled a full-face respirator from the shelf and put it on. Although Janie stated that she had been recently fit tested, the supervisor instructed her to take the respirator off and remain away from the waste tank. Was the supervisor correct? A. No. If Janie had a current fit test, she should have been allowed to work in the area. B. Yes. Janie must undergo a new medical evaluation. C. No. The full-face respirator has a greater APF (assigned protection factor). D. Yes. A quantitative fit test is valid only for the respirator that Janie was fit-tested on.

While a full-face negative pressure respirator does have a greater APF, that only applies to qualitative fit testing. In a quantitative fit test, the protection factor is assigned based on the specific respirator that she was wearing during the fit test. The correct solution is D.

The five steps in emergency preparedness are Prevention, Mitigation, Preparedness, Response, and Recovery. The installation of a new fire alarm system is best described by which step? A. Mitigation B. Preparedness C. Response D. Recovery

While some alarm systems are designed to notify people of an impending event, most fire alarm systems are activated by the presence of smoke, heat, or flames. Therefore, fire alarms function to generate a response, i.e., evacuation. The correct solution is C.

Lawyers in product liability lawsuits often compare the actions of their client to: A. a reasonable person. B. a careless person. C. an irrational person. D. a perfect person.

a reasonable person.

Hypothermia

condition caused when the body loses more heat than it can produce

Strict Liability

liability concept requires proof that a product was defective, the defect existed at the time the product left the defendant's hand, and the product caused injury or harm. Warranty, either implied or express, deals with function, fitness, or characteristic of a product and not whether it caused injury or harm. While negligence does address the three characteristics listed above, it also adds a behavioral component requirement in that bad behavior must have caused the product to be defective. Strict liability focuses "strictly" on the product and, as the claimant is not required to prove that negligent behavior caused the product to be defective, is generally much easier to prove.

Workers compensation insurance provides:

no-fault insurance to workers injured on the job

The type of air sampling performed when an employee wears a sample device that draw air across a filter media for sampling collection, which is sent to a laboratory is:

personal sample