BU EMS Exam 2

Which of the following patients has decision-making capacity and can legally refuse emergency medical treatment? A man who is staggering and states that he had three beers B. A conscious and alert woman with severe abdominal pain C. A diabetic woman who has slurred speech and is not aware of the date D. A confused young male who says he is the president

B. A conscious and alert woman with severe abdominal pain

Foods, medications, and insects are common causes of ________. A. septic shock B. anaphylactic shock C. psychogenic shock D. neurogenic shock

B. anaphylactic shock

You suspect that a pregnant 16-year-old girl has a broken leg after she was hit by a car. You explain that you plan to splint her leg, and she agrees to treatment. Which type of consent is her agreement considered? A. Implied B. Minor's C. Expressed D. Informed

C. Expressed

When you shine a light into one pupil, the normal reaction of the other pupil should be to: A. become larger. B. not react. C. become smaller. D. dilate.

C. become smaller.

In infants and children, a capillary refill time (CRT) that is greater than ______ second(s) is a sign of poor peripheral perfusion. A. 2 B. 3 C. 1 D. 4

A. 2

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate device to use when immobilizing a patient with a suspected spinal injury? A. Long backboard B. Wheeled stretcher C. Portable stretcher D. Scoop stretcher

A. Long backboard

A 25-year-old unrestrained female struck the steering wheel with her chest when her car hit a tree while traveling at a high rate of speed. She has signs and symptoms of shock, which you suspect are the result of intrathoracic bleeding. Which of the following interventions will provide this patient with the greatest chance for survival? A. Rapid transport to a trauma center B. High-flow oxygen administration C. Full immobilization of her spine D. Intravenous fluid administration

A. Rapid transport to a trauma center

To avoid injury when pushing a patient or other object, you should: A. avoid pushing the patient with your elbows fully extended. B. kneel if you are pushing an object that is above waist level. C. push from the area of your body between the knees and hips. D. push the patient from an overhead position if possible.

A. avoid pushing the patient with your elbows fully extended.

A 25 year-old male has been involved in an MVC. His airway and breathing are stable. You find a laceration with bright red, forceful bleeding on his right forearm. You should: A. immediately apply direct pressure to the patient's arm. B. continue your assessment. C. apply a tourniquet to the patient's arm. D. elevate the injured arm.

A. immediately apply direct pressure to the patient's arm.

Calming and reassuring an anxious patient can be facilitated by: A. maintaining eye contact with the patient whenever possible. B. positioning yourself at a level that is higher than the patient. C. using medical terminology to ensure the patient understands. D. withholding unpleasant information until arrival at the hospital.

A. maintaining eye contact with the patient whenever possible

The systematic head-to-toe assessment should be performed on: A. patients with a significant MOI and unresponsive medical patients. B. stable patients who are able to tell you exactly what happened. C. responsive medical patients and patients without a significant MOI. D. all patients with traumatic injuries who will require EMS transport.

A. patients with a significant MOI and unresponsive medical patients.

A 19-year-old male was stung multiple times by fire ants. He is experiencing obvious signs and symptoms of anaphylactic shock. You administer high-flow oxygen and give him epinephrine via intramuscular injection. Upon reassessment, you determine that his condition has not improved. You should: A. repeat the epinephrine injection with the appropriate medical control. B. provide only supportive care en route to the hospital. C. request a paramedic unit that is stationed approximately 15 miles away. D. consider that he may actually be experiencing an acute asthma attack.

A. repeat the epinephrine injection with the appropriate medical control.

After assessing a patient's blood glucose level, you accidentally stick yourself with the contaminated lancet. You should: A. report the incident to your supervisor after the call. B. get immunized against hepatitis as soon as possible. C. discontinue patient care and seek medical attention. D. immerse your wound in an alcohol-based solution.

A. report the incident to your supervisor after the call.

You arrive at the scene of a domestic violence situation. As you approach the doorway of the apartment, you hear screaming and the statement "He has a gun!" Your MOST appropriate action should be to: A. seek a safe place and request law enforcement assistance. B. continue into the apartment and apprehend the gunman. C. continue into the apartment using extreme caution. D. get in your ambulance and leave the scene immediately.

A. seek a safe place and request law enforcement assistance.

As you and your partner are carrying a stable patient down a flight of stairs in a stair chair, you feel a sudden, sharp pain in your lower back. You should: A. stop the move and request additional lifting assistance. B. guide your partner while moving the chair backwards. C. reposition your hands and continue to move the patient. D. stop the move and have the patient walk down the stairs.

A. stop the move and request additional lifting assistance.

While evaluating a patient with chest pain, your partner tells you that the patient's blood pressure is 140/94 mm Hg. The lower number represents the pressure from the: A. ventricles relaxing. B. atria contracting. C. atria relaxing. D. ventricles contracting.

A. ventricles relaxing.

During your monthly internal quality improvement (QI) meeting, you review several patient care reports (PCRs) with the staff of your EMS system. You identify the patient's name, age, and sex, and then discuss the treatment that was provided by the EMTs in the field. By taking this approach to the QI process, you: A. acted appropriately but must have each EMT sign a waiver stating that he or she will not discuss the cases with others. B. are in violation of HIPAA because you did not remove identifying information from the PCR beforehand. C. violated the patient's privacy because you should have discussed the information only with the EMTs involved. D. adequately safeguarded the patient's PHI because the cases were discussed internally.

B. are in violation of HIPAA because you did not remove identifying information from the PCR beforehand.

You are dispatched to a residence for a 40-year-old female who fainted. Upon your arrival, the patient is conscious and alert, and states that she is fine. Her husband tells you that she fainted after receiving news that her sister was killed in a car crash. You offer oxygen to the patient, but she refuses to accept it. At this point, your primary concern should be to: A. advise her that she needs to go to the hospital. B. determine if she was injured when she fainted. C. obtain baseline vital signs and a medical history. D. provide emotional support regarding her sister.

B. determine if she was injured when she fainted.

A 40-year-old male presents with pain to the right upper quadrant of his abdomen. He is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. During your assessment, you note that his skin and sclera are jaundiced. You should suspect: A. renal insufficiency. B. liver dysfunction. C. gallbladder disease. D. acute pancreatitis.

B. liver dysfunction.

Hypovolemic shock caused by severe burns is the result of a loss of: A. platelets. B. plasma. C. red blood cells. D. whole blood.

B. plasma.

You respond to the residence of a 62-year-old male who is unresponsive. Your primary assessment reveals that he is apneic and pulseless. You should: A. immediately insert an OPA and begin assisted ventilation B. start CPR and attach the AED as soon as possible. C. ask the family if the patient has a terminal disease. D. notify dispatch and request a paramedic ambulance.

B. start CPR and attach the AED as soon as possible.

Which of the following statements regarding HIV is correct? A. HIV is far more contagious than hepatitis B. B. HIV is transmitted exclusively via blood. C. There is no vaccine against HIV infection. D. HIV is easily transmittable in the EMS field.

C. There is no vaccine against HIV infection.

If it is not possible to adequately clean your ambulance at the hospital following a call, you should: A. wait until the end of your shift and then disinfect the entire patient compartment. B. quickly wipe down all high-contact surfaces with an antibacterial solution. C. clean the ambulance at your station in a designated area that is well ventilated. D. thoroughly wash the back of the ambulance at a local car wash or similar facility.

C. clean the ambulance at your station in a designated area that is well ventilated.

When you inspect a patient's pupils with a penlight, the pupils should normally react to the light by: A. dilating. B. enlarging. C. constricting. D. fluttering.

C. constricting.

It is essential that you ____________ your equipment to prevent the spread of disease. A. incinerate B. properly store C. decontaminate D. throw out

C. decontaminate

It is especially important for EMS personnel to develop nonadversarial relationships with their coworkers because they: A. may have to bunk in the same room. B. must work together every third day. C. depend on one another for their safety. D. are highly prone to stress and burnout.

C. depend on one another for their safety.

A patient with profuse sweating is referred to as being: A. flushed. B. edematous. C. diaphoretic. D. plethoric.

C. diaphoretic.

As you assess the head of a patient with a suspected spinal injury, your partner should: A. assess the rest of the body for bleeding. B. prepare the immobilization equipment. C. maintain stabilization of the head. D. look in the ears for gross bleeding.

C. maintain stabilization of the head.

You could be sued for ___________ if your radio report to the hospital describes the patient in a manner that injures his or her reputation. A. libel B. assault C. slander D. negligence

C. slander

To facilitate a safe and coordinated move, the team leader should: A. never become involved in the move, only direct the move. B. speak softly but clearly to avoid startling the patient. C. use preparatory commands to initiate any moves. D. be positioned at the feet so the team can hear

C. use preparatory commands to initiate any moves.

Gloves, a mask, eye protection, and a face shield should be used: A. whenever you touch nonintact skin. B. while handling needles or other sharps. C. while performing airway suctioning. D. during routine cleaning of the ambulance.

C. while performing airway suctioning.

Which of the following statements is NOT appropriate to document in the narrative section of a PCR? A. "After oxygen was administered, the patient's breathing improved." B. "The patient admits to smoking marijuana earlier in the day." C. "Significant damage was noted to the front end of the vehicle." D. "General impression revealed that the patient was intoxicated."

D. "General impression revealed that the patient was intoxicated."

Which of the following factors would MOST likely cause a patient's pulse rate to be slower than normal? A. Anxiety or severe stress B. Internal bleeding from trauma C. Lack of a regular exercise routine D. Beta-blocker medications

D. Beta-blocker medications

Which of the following injuries would MOST likely cause obstructive shock? A. Simple pneumothorax B. Liver laceration C. Spinal cord injury D. Cardiac tamponade

D. Cardiac tamponade

What are the three components of the "perfusion triangle"? A. Arteries, veins, capillaries B. Heart, brain, lungs C. Plasma, red blood cells, platelets D. Heart, blood vessels, blood

D. Heart, blood vessels, blood

Which of the following steps is NOT proper procedure when performing an emergency move? A. Pulling the patient on a blanket or similar object B. Using a long-axis body drag during the move C. Pulling the patient's clothing in the shoulder area D. Lifting the patient by the belt to move him or her

D. Lifting the patient by the belt to move him or her

Which of the following situations or conditions warrants immediate transport? A. Responsiveness and ability to follow commands B. Mild pain in the lower abdomen C. Decreased ability to move an extremity D. Severe chest pain and cool, pale skin

D. Severe chest pain and cool, pale skin

Which of the following abnormal breath sounds indicates obstruction of the upper airway? A. Crackles B. Rhonchi C. Rales D. Stridor

D. Stridor

Which of the following statements regarding the mechanism of injury (MOI) is correct? A. A significant MOI always results in patient death or permanent disability. B. A nonsignificant MOI rules out the possibility of serious trauma. C. The exact location of a patient's injuries can be determined by the MOI. D. The MOI may allow you to predict the severity of a patient's injuries.

D. The MOI may allow you to predict the severity of a patient's injuries.

You receive a call to a daycare center for an unresponsive 8-month-old infant. Upon arrival, you perform an assessment and determine that the infant is not breathing. Your next action should be to: A. open the airway and give two rescue breaths. B. assess capillary refill. C. immediately transport the child to the hospital. D. assess for a brachial pulse for 5 to 10 seconds.

D. assess for a brachial pulse for 5 to 10 seconds.

The official transfer of patient care does not occur until the EMT: A. informs dispatch of the patient's arrival at the emergency department. B. notifies the admitting clerk of the patient's arrival at the hospital. C. gives a radio report to the receiving medical facility. D. gives an oral report to the emergency room physician or nurse.

D. gives an oral report to the emergency room physician or nurse.

To protect a restrained patient and prevent him from using leverage to break free, the EMT should secure __________. A. both arms above the head B. only the patient's torso C. both arms at the patient's sides D. one arm above the head

D. one arm above the head

You are caring for a 56-year-old male patient complaining of abdominal pain. Your service has recently switched to an electronic PCR system (ePCR). When completing the ePCR, it is important to be aware that: A. the ePCR does not contain the same level of information as the written version and your verbal report should be expanded. B. the ePCR is relatively unsecured and should not contain patient-specific information. C. a written patient care record will need to be completed on arrival at the hospital. D. the ePCR allows patient information to be transmitted directly to the receiving hospital's computers.

D. the ePCR allows patient information to be transmitted directly to the receiving hospital's computers.

Which of the following questions would you ask a patient to ascertain the "M" in the SAMPLE history? A. "How much Tylenol do you take each day?" B. "How long have you had your chest pain?" C. "When was the last time you ate a meal?" D. "Have you ever had any major surgeries?"

M= medications A. "How much Tylenol do you take each day?"

You suspect your patient is in shock. You note the patient's skin is pale. This is likely due to ___________. A. peripheral vasoconstriction B. hypothermia C. peripheral vasodilation D. an increased heart rate

Peripheral vasoconstriction

Critical signs of compensated shock include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Rapid, shallow breathing B. restlessness or anxiety C. cool and clammy skin D. absent peripheral pulses

absent peripheral pulses

When auscultating the blood pressure in a patient's upper extremity, you should place the head of the stethoscope over the _________ artery.

brachial

What maneuver should be used to open the airway of an unresponsive patient with suspected trauma?

modified jaw thrust maneuver

In responsive patients who are older than 1 year of age, you should palpate the pulse at the ________ artery.

radial

Shock due to severe infection is called ________.

septic shock