C838 - Pre Assessment

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44. Which design principle of secure cloud computing ensures that users can utilize data and applications from around the globe? Scalability Portability Broad network access On-demand self-service

Broad network access

39. Which technology allows an organization to control access to sensitive documents stored in the cloud? Digital rights management (DRM) Database activity monitoring (DAM) Identity and access management (IAM) Distributed resource scheduling (DRS)

Digital rights management (DRM)

83. Which open web application security project (OWASP) Top 9 Coding Flaws leads to security issues? Denial-of-service Client-side injection Cross-site scripting Direct object reference

Direct object reference

43. Which design principle of secure cloud computing ensures that the business can resume essential operations in the event of an availability-affecting incident? Access control Resource pooling Disaster recovery Session management

Disaster recovery

74. Which approach is considered a black-box security testing method? Source code review Binary code inspection Static application security testing Dynamic application security testing

Dynamic application security testing

16. Which jurisdictional data protection controls the ways that financial institutions deal with the private information of individuals? Sarbanes-Oxley act (SOX) Gramm-Leach-Bliley act (GLBA) Stored communications act (SCA) Health insurance portability and accountability act (HIPAA)

Gramm-Leach-Bliley act (GLBA)

61. Which element is a cloud virtualization risk? Licensing Jurisdiction Guest isolation Electronic discovery

Guest isolation

113. Which international standard guide provides procedures for incident investigation principles and processes? ISO/IEC 27034-1:2011 ISO/IEC 27037:2012 ISO/IEC 27001:2013 ISO/IEC 27043:2015

ISO/IEC 27043:2015

47. Which standard addresses practices related to acquisition of forensic artifacts and can be directly applied to a cloud environment? ISO/IEC 27001 ISO/IEC 27050-1 NIST SP 500-291 NIST SP 800-145

ISO/IEC 27050-1

24. A security analyst is investigating an incident of access to a resource from an unauthorized location. Which data source should the security analyst use to investigate the incident? Vulnerability assessment report Packet capture file Windows health report Linux dmesg logs

Packet capture file

54. What is a component of device hardening? Patching Unit testing Versioning Configuring VPN access

Patching

124. Which item is required in a cloud contract? Strategy for the SDLC Specifications for unit testing Penalties for failure to meet SLA Diagrams for data flow structures

Penalties for failure to meet SLA

116. Which penalty is imposed for privacy violations under the general data protection regulation (GDPR)? Penalty up to 10 million Euros Penalty up to 20 million Euros Penalty up to 2% of gross income Penalty up to 5% of gross income

Penalty up to 20 million Euros

81. Which security threat occurs when a developer leaves an unauthorized access interface within an application after release? Easter egg Deprecated API Persistent backdoor Development operations

Persistent backdoor

91. Which risk is associated with malicious and accidental dangers to a cloud infrastructure? External attacks Personnel threats Natural disasters Regulatory noncompliance

Personnel threats

93. Which risk is controlled by implementing a private cloud? Eavesdropping Physical security Unauthorized access Denial-of-service (DoS)

Physical security

15. Which jurisdictional data protection includes dealing with the international transfer of data? Privacy regulation Financial modernization Sarbanes-Oxley act (SOX) Secure choice authorization (SCA)

Privacy regulation

36. Which cloud deployment model is operated for a single organization? Private Public Hybrid Consortium

Private

37. Which cloud model provides data location assurance? Hybrid Public Private Community

Private

38. Which cloud model allows the consumer to have sole responsibility for management and governance? Hybrid Public Private Community

Private

88. Which type of cloud deployment model is considered equivalent to a traditional IT architecture? Public Hybrid Private Community

Private

70. Which description characterizes<b> </b>the application programming interface (API) format known as representational state transfer (REST)? Tolerates errors at a high level Supports only extensible markup language (XML) Delivers a slower performance with complex scalability Provides a framework for developing scalable web applications

Provides a framework for developing scalable web applications

10. Which encryption technique connects the instance to the encryption instance that handles all crypto operations? Proxy Database Server-side Externally managed

Proxy

82. Which process prevents the environment from being over-controlled by security measures to the point where application performance is impacted? Private cloud Community cloud Quality of service (QoS) Trusted cloud initiative (TCI)

Quality of service (QoS)

123. Which requirement is included when exceptions, restrictions, and potential risks are highlighted in a cloud services contract? Load balancer algorithm Stockholder expectations Regulatory and compliance Virtual machine and operating system

Regulatory and compliance

115. Which action is required for breaches of data under the general data protection regulation (GDPR) within 72 hours of becoming aware of the event? Notifying the affected persons Reporting to the supervisory authority Suspending the processing operations Informing consumer credit reporting services

Reporting to the supervisory authority

45. Which design principle of secure cloud computing involves deploying cloud service provider resources to maximize availability in the event of a failure? Elasticity Resiliency Clustering Scalability

Resiliency

50. Which logical design decision can be attributed to required regulation? Retention formats Retention periods Database reads/second Database writes/second

Retention periods

33. Which option should an organization choose if there is a need to avoid software ownership? Software as a service (SaaS) Platform as a service (PaaS) Containers as a service (CaaS) Infrastructure as a service (IaaS)

Software as a service (SaaS)

51. Which service model influences the logical design by using additional measures in the application to enhance security? Public cloud Hybrid cloud Platform as a service (PaaS) Software as a service (SaaS)

Software as a service (SaaS)

72. Which security testing approach is used to review source code and binaries without executing the application? Fuzz testing Regression testing Static application security testing Dynamic application security testing

Static application security testing

65. Which detection and analysis technique is performed to capture a point-in-time picture of the entire stack at the time of an incident? Review data access logs Examine configuration data Collect metadata during alert Create a snapshot using API calls

Create a snapshot using API calls

80. Which method should the cloud consumer use to secure the management plane of the cloud service provider? Credential management Network access control list Agent-based security tooling Disablement of management plane

Credential management

71. Which issue occurs when a web browser is sent data without proper validation? Cross-site scripting (XXS) Cross-site request forgery (CSRF) Insecure direct object access (IDOA) Lightweight directory access protocol (LDAP) injection

Cross-site scripting (XXS)

20. Who retains final ownership for granting data access and permissions in a shared responsibility model? Analyst Manager Customer Developer

Customer

12. Which element is protected by an encryption system? Data Public key Ciphertext Management engine

Data

77. Which problem is known as a common supply chain risk? Data breaches Domain spoofing Source code design Runtime application self-protection

Data breaches

28. Which cloud computing tool may help detect data migrations to cloud services? Cloud data transfer Data loss prevention Cloud security gateways Uniform resource locator (URL) filtering

Data loss prevention

96. Which control helps mitigate the risk of sensitive information leaving the cloud environment? Data loss prevention (DLP) Disaster recovery plan (DRP) Web application firewall (WAF) Identity and access management (IAM)

Data loss prevention (DLP)

25. Which message type is generated from software systems to troubleshoot and identify problems with running application codes? Error Debug Warning Informational

Debug

99. Which cloud security control eliminates the risk of a virtualization guest escape from another tenant? Dedicated hosting File integrity monitor Hardware hypervisor Immutable virtual machines

Dedicated hosting

75. Which primary security control should be used by all cloud accounts, including individual users, in order to defend against the widest range of attacks? Perimeter security Logging and monitoring Redundant infrastructure Multi-factor authentication

Multi-factor authentication

95. Which countermeasure helps mitigate the risk of stolen credentials for cloud-based platforms? Host lockdown Data sanitization Key management Multifactor authentication

Multifactor authentication

5. Which cloud data storage architecture allows sensitive data to be replaced with unique identification symbols that retain all the essential information about the data without compromising its security? Obfuscation Tokenization Anonymization Randomization

Tokenization

68. A cloud customer is setting up communication paths with the cloud service provider that will be used in the event of an incident. Which action facilitates this type of communication? Using existing open standards Incorporating checks on API calls Identifying key risk indicators (KRIs) Performing a vulnerability assessment

Using existing open standards

35. Under which method would cloud clients find it impossible to recover or access their own data if their cloud provider goes bankrupt? Multicloud Multitenant Vendor lock-in Vendor lock-out

Vendor lock-out

55. Which technology typically provides security isolation in infrastructure as a service (IaaS) cloud computing? Virtual machines Operating systems Application instance System image repository

Virtual machines

6. Which methodology could cloud data storage utilize to encrypt all data associated in an infrastructure as a service (IaaS) deployment model? Sandbox encryption Client-side encryption Polymorphic encryption Whole-instance encryption

Whole-instance encryption

111. Which process involves the use of electronic data as evidence in a civil or criminal legal case? Due diligence Cloud governance Auditing in the cloud eDiscovery investigations

eDiscovery investigations

27. Which term describes the action of confirming identity access to an information system? Access Concept Coordination Authentication

Authentication

84. Which identity management process targets access to enterprise resources by ensuring that the identity of an entity is verified? Federation Provisioning Authentication Policy management

Authentication

22. Which data retention method is stored with a minimal amount of metadata storage with the content? File system Redundant array Block-based Object-based

Block-based

78. Which phase of the software development life cycle includes determining the business and security requirements for the application to occur? Testing Defining Designing Developing

Defining

4. Which phase of the cloud data life cycle is associated with crypto-shredding? Use Store Share Destroy

Destroy

21. Which data retention solution should be applied to a file in order to reduce the data footprint by deleting fixed content and duplicate data? Saving Backup Caching Archiving

Archiving

85. Which technology improves the ability of the transport layer security (TLS) to ensure privacy when communicating between applications? Volume encryption Whole-disk encryption Virtual private networks (VPNs) Advanced application-specific integrated circuits (ASICs)

Advanced application-specific integrated circuits (ASICs)

101. Which data retention policy controls how long health insurance portability and accountability act (HIPAA) data can be archived? Enforcement Maintenance Data classification Applicable regulation

Applicable regulation

69. Which security control does the software as a service (SaaS) model require as a shared responsibility of all parties involved? Data Platform Application Infrastructure

Application

11. Which type of control should be used to implement custom controls that safeguard data? Application level Management plane Options for access Public and internal sharing

Application level

30. Which cloud computing technology unlocks business value through digital and physical access to maps? Multitenancy Cloud application On-demand self-service Application programming interface

Application programming interface

58. Which action enhances cloud security application deployment through standards such as ISO/IEC 27034 for the development, acquisition, and configuration of software systems? Applying the steps of a cloud software development lifecycle Providing developer access to supporting components and services Outsourcing the infrastructure and integration platform management Verifying the application has an appropriate level of confidentiality and integrity

Applying the steps of a cloud software development lifecycle

79. Which phase of the software development life cycle includes writing application code? Defining Designing Developing Implementing

Developing

49. Which legislation must a trusted cloud service adhere to when utilizing the data of EU citizens? SOX APPI GDPR EMTALA

GDPR

23. What is a key capability of security information and event management? Secure remote access Intrusion prevention capabilities Automatic remediation of issues Centralized collection of log data

Centralized collection of log data

118. Which artifact may be required as a data source for a compliance audit in a cloud environment? Customer SLAs Change management details Quarterly revenue projections Annual actual-to-budgeted expense reports

Change management details

29. Which cloud computing tool is used to discover internal use of cloud services using various mechanisms such as network monitoring? Data loss prevention (DLP) Web application firewall (WAF) Content delivery network (CDN) Cloud access security broker (CASB)

Cloud access security broker (CASB)

106. Where should the location be for the final data backup repository in the event that the disaster recovery plan is enacted for the CSP of disaster recovery (DR) service? Tape drive Local storage Cloud platform Company headquarters

Cloud platform

76. Which cloud infrastructure is shared by several organizations and supports a specific population that has shared concerns (e.g., mission, security requirements, policy, compliance considerations)? Hybrid Public Private Community

Community

87. Which cloud infrastructure is shared by several organizations with common concerns, such as mission, policy, or compliance considerations? Hybrid cloud Public cloud Private cloud Community cloud

Community cloud

67. A CSP provides services in European Union (EU) countries that are subject to the network information security (NIS) directive. The CSP experiences an incident that significantly affects the continuity of the essential services being provided. Who is the CSP required to notify under the NIS directive? Competent authorities Data protection regulator Provider's services suppliers Personal Information Protection Commission

Competent authorities

90. Which attack vector is associated with cloud infrastructure? Compromised API credentials Data storage locations in multiple jurisdictions Seizure and examination of a physical disk Licensing fees tied to the deployment of software based on a per-CPU licensing model

Compromised API credentials

108. Which aspect of business continuity planning considers the alternatives to be used when there is a complete loss of the provider? Ensuring resiliency Managing plane controls Considering portability options Managing cloud provider outages

Considering portability options

109. What is a key method associated with a risk-based approach to business continuity planning? Using existing network technology Leveraging software-defined networking Applying internal authentication and credential passing Considering the degree of continuity required for assets

Considering the degree of continuity required for assets

19. Which security strategy is associated with data rights management solutions? Static policy control Continuous auditing Unrestricted replication Limited documents type support

Continuous auditing

32. What is a key capability of infrastructure as a service (IaaS)? Multiple hosting environments Hosted application management Converged network and IT capacity pool Leased application and software licensing

Converged network and IT capacity pool

1. Which phase of the cloud data lifecycle allows both read and process functions to be performed? Share Store Create Archive

Create

14. A company has recently defined classification levels for its data. During which phase of the cloud data life cycle should this definition occur? Use Share Create Archive

Create

60. Which regulation requires a CSP to comply with copyright law for hosted content? SOX SCA GLBA DMCA

DMCA

100. Which cloud security control is a countermeasure for man-in-the-middle attacks? Reviewing log data Backing up data offsite Using block data storage Encrypting data in transit

Encrypting data in transit

110. Which testing method must be performed to demonstrate the effectiveness of a business continuity plan and procedures? SAST DAST Failover Penetration

Failover

26. Which technology is used to manage identity access management by building trust relationships between organizations? Federation Single sign-on Biometric authentication Multifactor authentication

Federation

9. Which technique scrambles the content of data using a mathematical algorithm while keeping the structural arrangement of the data? Tokenization Dynamic masking Proxy-based encryption Format-preserving encryption

Format-preserving encryption

107. An architect needs to constrain problems to a level that can be controlled when the problem exceeds the capabilities of disaster recovery (DR) controls. Which aspect of the plan will provide this guarantee? Ensuring data backups Managing plane controls Handling provider outages Evaluating portability alternatives

Handling provider outages

86. Which multi-factor authentication (MFA) option uses a physical universal serial bus (USB) device to generate one-time passwords? Biometrics Hard tokens Out-of-band passwords Transaction authentication numbers

Hard tokens

53. Which result is achieved by removing all nonessential services and software of devices for secure configuration of hardware? Patching Lockdown Hardening Maintenance

Hardening

46. Which item should be part of the legal framework analysis if a company wishes to store prescription drug records in a SaaS solution? U.S. Patriot Act Sarbanes-Oxley Act Federal Information Security Modernization Act Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

17. Which jurisdictional data protection safeguards protected health information (PHI)? Directive 95/46/EC Safe harbor regime Personal Data Protection Act of 2000 Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)

52. Which environmental consideration should be addressed when planning the design of a data center? Heating and ventilation Utility power availability Expansion possibilities and growth Telecommunications connections

Heating and ventilation

31. What is a key component of the infrastructure as a service (IaaS) cloud service model? High reliability and resilience Allows choice and reduces lock-in Ease of use and limited administration Supports multiple languages and frameworks

High reliability and resilience

105. Which disaster recovery (DR) site results in the quickest recovery in the event of a disaster? Hot Cold Passive Reserve

Hot

112. Which standard addresses the privacy aspects of cloud computing for consumers? ISO 19011:2011 ISO 27001:2013 ISO 27018:2014 ISO 27017:2015

ISO 27018:2014

66. A CSP operating in Australia experiences a security breach that results in disclosure of personal information that is likely to result in serious harm. Who is the CSP legally required to notify? Cloud Security Alliance Information commissioner Australian privacy foundation Asian-Pacific privacy control board

Information commissioner

34. Which cloud model offers access to a pool of fundamental IT resources such as computing, networking, or storage? Data Platform Application Infrastructure

Infrastructure

64. The security administrator for a global cloud services provider (CSP) is required to globally standardize the approaches for using forensics methodologies in the organization. Which standard should be applied? Sarbanes-Oxley act (SOX) Cloud controls matrix (CCM) International electrotechnical commission (IEC) 27037 International organization for standardization (ISO) 27050-1

International organization for standardization (ISO) 27050-1

40. Which security technology can provide secure network communications from on-site enterprise systems to a cloud platform? Web application firewall (WAF) Data loss prevention (DLP) Domain name system security extensions (DNSSEC) Internet protocol security (IPSec) virtual private network (VPN)

Internet protocol security (IPSec) virtual private network (VPN)

92. Which cloud-specific risk must be considered when moving infrastructure operations to the cloud? Denial of service Natural disasters Regulatory violations Lack of physical access

Lack of physical access

104. Which assumption about a CSP should be avoided when considering risks in a disaster recovery (DR) plan? Provider's history Continuity planning Level of resiliency Costs will remain the same

Level of resiliency

97. Which countermeasure mitigates the risk of a rogue cloud administrator? Data encryption Platform orchestration Logging and monitoring Multifactor authentication

Logging and monitoring

62. Which risk is related to interception of data in transit? Virtualization Traffic blocking Man-in-the-middle Software vulnerabilities

Man-in-the-middle

56. Which technology allows an administrator to remotely manage a fleet of servers? Bastion host Management plane VPN concentrator KVM switch

Management plane

57. What part of the logical infrastructure design is used to configure cloud resources, such as launching virtual machines or configuring virtual networks? Management plane Database management Identity access management Management orchestration software

Management plane

103. Which disaster recovery plan metric indicates how long critical functions can be unavailable before the organization is irretrievably affected? Recovery time objective (RTO) Mean time to switchover (MTS) Recovery point objective (RPO) Maximum allowable downtime (MAD)

Maximum allowable downtime (MAD)

94. Which countermeasure enhances redundancy for physical facilities hosting cloud equipment during the threat of a power outage? Tier 2 network access providers Multiple and independent power circuits to all racks Radio frequency interference (RFI) blocking devices Automated license plate readers (ALPR) at entry points

Multiple and independent power circuits to all racks

121. Which risk during the eDiscovery process would limit the usefulness of the requested data from the cloud by third parties? Direct access Authentication Native production Discovery by design

Native production

8. Which platform as a service (PaaS) storage architecture should be used if an organization wants to store presentations, documents, and audio files? Block Object Distributed Relational database

Object

102. Which technology should be included in the disaster recovery plan to prevent data loss? Locked racks System patches Offsite backups Video surveillance

Offsite backups

114. Which group is legally bound by the general data protection regulation (GDPR)? Only corporations headquartered in the EU Only corporations that processes the data of EU citizens Only corporations that have operations in more than one EU nation Only corporations located in countries that have adopted the GDPR standard

Only corporations that processes the data of EU citizens

119. A business is concerned about the usage of its third-party provided, leased cloud resources. Which audit process should be used to investigate this concern? Review traffic logs for the leased cloud resources. Monitor the uptime availability of the leased cloud resource. Review the SLA for stated uptime availability requirements for the leased cloud resource. Monitor the number of available gigabytes of storage allocated to each cloud-based application.

Review traffic logs for the leased cloud resources.

63. Which method is being used when a company evaluates the acceptable loss exposure associated with a cloud solution for a given set of objectives and resources? Risk appetite Risk management Business impact analysis Business continuity planning

Risk appetite

48. Which regulation in the United States defines the requirements for a CSP to implement and report on internal accounting controls? SOX GDPR HIPAA FERPA

SOX

122. Which type of control is important in order to achieve compliance for risk management? Security Privacy Validation Technical

Security

42. Which document addresses CSP issues such as guaranteed uptime, liability, penalties, and dispute mediation process? Service level agreement (SLA) Service organization control 3 (SOC 3) General data protection regulation (GDPR) Common criteria assurance framework (CC)

Service level agreement (SLA)

59. Which type of agreement aims to negotiate policies with various parties in accordance with the agreed-upon targets? User license (ULA) Service-level (SLA) Privacy-level (PLA) Operation-level (OLA)

Service-level (SLA)

3. Which phase of the cloud data life cycle uses content delivery networks? Share Create Destroy Archive

Share

2. Which phase of the cloud data security lifecycle typically occurs simultaneously with creation? Use Share Store Destroy

Store

7. There is a threat to a banking cloud platform service. The developer needs to provide inclusion in a relational database that is seamless and readily searchable by search engine algorithms. Which platform as a service (PaaS) data type should be used? Structured Unstructured Long-term storage Short-term storage

Structured

120. Which item would be a risk for an enterprise considering contracting with a cloud service provider? 99.99% up time guarantees No SLA exclusion penalties Very expensive SLA provider penalties Suspension of service if payment is delinquent

Suspension of service if payment is delinquent

89. Which security method should be included in a defense-in-depth, when examined from the perspective of a content security policy (CSP)? Training programs Technological controls Strong access controls Contractual enforcement of policies

Technological controls

13. A cloud administrator recommends using tokenization as an alternative to protecting data without encryption. The administrator needs to make an authorized application request to access the data. Which step should occur immediately before this action is taken? The application collects a token. The application stores the token. The tokenization server generates the token. The tokenization server returns the token to the application.

The application stores the token.

117. Why is eDiscovery difficult in the cloud? The process is time consuming. The cloud service provider may lack sufficient resources. The client may lack the credentials to access the required data. The customer is responsible for their data on a multitenant system.

The client may lack the credentials to access the required data.

125. Which factor exemplifies adequate cloud contract governance? The bandwidth that is contractually provided The emphasis of privacy controls in the contract The frequency with which contracts are renewed The flexibility of data types in accordance with a contract

The frequency with which contracts are renewed

98. Which consideration should be taken into account when reviewing a cloud service provider's risk of potential outage time? The type of database The provider's support services The unique history of the provider The amount of cloud service offerings

The unique history of the provider

41. How do immutable workloads effect security overhead? They reduce the management of the hosts. They create patches for a running workload. They restrict the amount of instances in a cluster. They automatically perform vulnerability scanning as they launch.

They reduce the management of the hosts.

18. How is the compliance of the cloud service provider's legal and regulatory requirements verified when securing personally identifiable information (PII) data in the cloud? E-discovery process Contractual agreements Researching data retention laws Third-party audits and attestations

Third-party audits and attestations

73. Which issue can be detected with static application security testing (SAST)? Malware Threading Authentication Performance

Threading


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