CCNA Data Center

How many private networks are available with an RFC 1918 Class B reserved IP range? A. 1 B. 16 C. 256 D. 16,386

B. RFC 1918 specifies that only 1 network is reserved in the Class A range (10.0.0.0/8), 16 with Class B (172.16.0.0/28), and 256 with Class C (192.168.0.0/24).

Which command will you use to find how many extended VLANs are on your Nexus switch? (Choose two.) A. show running-config B. show startup-config C. show vlan summary D. show vlan extended E. show vlan

C, E. The command show vlan will provide you all your VLANs; you'd just have to count all the VLANs configured from 1006 to 409You can more easily type the command show vlan summary to get your information.

What destination addresses will be used by HostA to send data to the HTTPS server as shown in the following network? (Choose two.) Fa0/0 RouterA HostA Fa0/1 HTTPS server A. The IP address of the switch B. The MAC address of the remote switch C. The IP address of the HTTPS server D. The MAC address of the HTTPS server E. The IP address of RouterA's Fa0/0 interface F. The MAC address of RouterA's Fa0/0 interface

C, F. The switches are not used as either a default gateway or other destination. Switches have nothing to do with routing. It is very important to remember that the destination MAC address will always be the router's interface. The destination address of a frame, from HostA, will be the MAC address of the Fa0/0 interface of RouterA. The destination address of a packet will be the IP address of the network interface card (NIC) of the HTTPS server. The destination port number in the segment header will have a value of 443 (HTTPS).

Which of the following is an IEEE standard for frame tagging? A. ISL B. 802.3Z C. 802.1q D. 802.3U

C. 802.1Q was created to allow trunked links between disparate switches.

What is the subnetwork number of a host with an IP address of 172.16.66.0/21? A. 172.16.36.0 B. 172.16.48.0 C. 172.16.64.0 D. 172.16.0.0

C. A /21 is 255.255.248.0, which means we have a block size of 8 in the third octet, so we just count by 8 until we reach 6The subnet in this question is 64.0. The next subnet is 72.0, so the broadcast address of the 64 subnet is 71.255.

Using the illustration from the previous question, what would be the IP address of S0 if you were using the first subnet? The network ID is 192.168.10.0/28 and you need to use the last available IP address in the range. Again, the zero subnet should not be considered valid for this question. A. 192.168.10.24 B. 192.168.10.62 C. 192.168.10.30 D. 192.168.10.127

C. A /28 is a 255.255.255.240 mask. The first subnet is 16 (remember that the question stated not to use subnet zero) and the next subnet is 32, so our broadcast address is 31. This makes our host range 17-30. 30 is the last valid host.

You need to configure a server that is on the subnet 192.168.19.24/2The router has the first available host address. Which of the following should you assign to the server? A. 192.168.19.0 255.255.255.0 B. 192.168.19.33 255.255.255.240 C. 192.168.19.26 255.255.255.248 D. 192.168.19.31 255.255.255.248 E. 192.168.19.34 255.255.255.240

C. A /29 is 255.255.255.248, which is a block size of 8 in the fourth octet. The subnets are 0, 8, 16, 24, 32, 40, etc. 192.168.19.24 is the 24 subnet, and since 32 is the next subnet, the broadcast address for the 24 subnet is 3192.168.19.26 is the only correct answer.

Which of the following is true regarding access lists applied to an interface? A. You can place as many access lists as you want on any interface until you run out of memory. B. You can apply only one access list on any interface. C. One access list may be configured, per direction, for each layer 3 protocol configured on an interface. D. You can apply two access lists to any interface.

C. A Cisco router has rules regarding the placement of access lists on a router interface. You can place one access list per direction for each layer 3 protocol configured on an interface.

Which layer of the OSI model is associated with Token Ring Media Access Control, FDDI and Ethernet? A. 4 B. 3 C. 2 D. 1

C. All LAN protocols, and WAN protocols, work at the Data Link layer (layer 2).

These two switches are not sharing VLAN information. From the following output, what is the reason these switches are not sharing VTP messages? SwitchA#sh vtp status VTP Version : 2 Configuration Revision : 0 Maximum VLANs supported locally : 64 Number of existing VLANs : 7 VTP Operating Mode : Server VTP Domain Name : Lammle VTP Pruning Mode : Disabled SwitchB#sh vtp status VTP Version : 2 Configuration Revision : 1 Maximum VLANs supported locally : 64 Number of existing VLANs : 7 VTP Operating Mode : Server VTP Domain Name : GlobalNet VTP Pruning Mode : Disabled A. One of the switches needs to be set to VTP version 1. B. Both switches are set to VTP server and one must be set to client. C. The VTP domain names are not configured correctly. D. VTP pruning is disabled.

C. Although one of the switches can be set to client, that would not stop them from sharing VLAN information through VTP. However, they will not share VLAN information through VTP if the domain names are not set the same.

What is true regarding a benefit of migrating to IPv6? A. Multicasts from IPv4 were replaced with broadcasts in IPv6. B. DHCP with IPSec in IPv6 is now mandatory. C. IPv6 eliminates the requirement for NAT. D. IPv6 eliminates the need for VLANs.

C. Broadcasts have been eliminated, and the need for NAT and DHCP is not needed in IPv6.

How do you find the network address from a listed IP address? A. Ping the local host. B. Use Traceroute on the local IP address. C. Turn all host bits off. D. Turn all host bits on.

C. By finding the host bits of an IP address and turning them all off, you'll find your network address; by turning them all on, you'll find your broadcast address.

Which statement describes a spanning-tree network that has converged? A. All switch and bridge ports are in the forwarding state. B. All switch and bridge ports are assigned as either root or designated ports. C. All switch and bridge ports are in either the forwarding or blocking state. D. All switch and bridge ports are either blocking or looping.

C. Convergence occurs when all ports on bridges and switches have transitioned to either the forwarding or blocking state. No data is forwarded until convergence is complete. Before data can be forwarded again, all devices must be updated.

You want to implement a mechanism that automates the IP configuration, including IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS information. Which protocol will you use to accomplish this? A. SMTP B. SNMP C. DHCP D. ARP

C. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is used to provide IP information to hosts on your network. DHCP can provide a lot of information, but the most common is IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS information.

When configuring the Nexus device that has a 10-gigabit Ethernet interface located in the first port of slot 3, how would you reference it? A. 10G 3/1 B. Gigabit 3/1 C. Ethernet 3/1 D. GBE 3/1

C. Ethernet interfaces are always referenced as "Ethernet" on a Nexus device regardless of the speed at which they are operating.

You configure a router interface with the IP address 192.168.10.62 255.255.255.192 and receive the following error: Bad mask /26 for address 192.168.10.62 Why did you receive this error? A. You typed this mask on a WAN link and that is not allowed. B. This is not a valid host and subnet mask combination. C. ip subnet-zero is not enabled on the router. D. The router does not support IP.

C. First, you cannot answer this question if you can't subnet. The 192.168.10.62 with a mask of 255.255.255.192 is a block size of 64 in the fourth octet. The host 192.168.10.62 is in the zero subnet, and the error occurred because ip subnet-zero is not enabled on the router.

The following illustration shows a data structure header. What protocol is this header from? 16-bit source port 16-bit destination port 32-bit sequence number 32-bit acknowledgment number reserved flags 16-bit window size 4-bit header length 16-bit TCP checksum 16-bit Urgent pointer options data A. IP B. ICMP C. TCP D. UDP E. ARP F. RARP

C. First, you should know easily that only TCP and UDP work at the Transport layer, so now you have a 50/50 shot. However, since the header has sequencing, acknowledgment, and window numbers, the answer can only be TCP.

What is the purpose of flow control? A. To ensure that data is retransmitted if an acknowledgment is not received B. To reassemble segments in the correct order at the destination device C. To provide a means for the receiver to govern the amount of data sent by the sender D. To regulate the size of each segment

C. Flow control allows the receiving device to control the transmitter so the receiving device's buffer does not overflow.

Which of the following is true regarding the purpose of flow control? A. To ensure that data is retransmitted if an acknowledgment is not received B. To reassemble segments in the correct order at the destination device C. To provide a means for the receiver to govern the amount of data sent by the sender D. To regulate the size of each segment

C. Flow control allows the receiving device to control the transmitter so the receiving device's buffer does not overflow. See Chapter 2 for more information.

What addresses change at each hop a packet takes? A. IP addresses B. Port numbers C. Layer 2 addresses D. Segments

C. Frames are discarded as they reach a router, so MAC addresses change at every hop— no exception! The packet is removed from the frame, and the packet is packet-switched.

Your router receives a packet with a destination IP address not found in the routing table. What will the IP do with this packet? A. Broadcast it out all interfaces. B. Flood it out all interfaces except the one it was received on. C. Discard the packet and send an ICMP error message back out the interface it was received on. D. Discard the packet and send an ICMP error message back out the interface it was destined for.

C. Frames are discarded as they reach a router. The packet is removed from the frame, and the packet is packet-switched.

What is the decimal value of the hexadecimal number 0x718? A. 2907 B. 718 C. 1816 D. 3511

C. Hexadecimal values 0x718 in binary is 11100011000. The 0x just means the following characters are in hexadecimal, not binary. In decimal that would be 1318 because the valid bits on are 8, 16, 256, 512, and 1024, which adds up to 1318.

What kind of topology do you have if you combine a bus with a star topology? A. Extended star B. Extended bus C. Hybrid D. Extended ring

C. Hybrid topology means just that—a combination of two or more types of physical or logical network topologies working together within the same network.

What is the addressing format of IPv6? A. 48-bit colon-delimited hexadecimal B. 48-bit dotted-decimal C. 128-bit colon-delimited hexadecimal D. 64-bit dotted-decimal E. 128-bit dotted-decimal

C. IPv6 uses 128 bits, and it is displayed in colon-delimited hexadecimal in eight, 16-bit fields.

What must happen if a DHCP IP conflict occurs? A. Proxy ARP will fix the issue. B. The client uses a gratuitous ARP to fix the issue. C. The administrator must fix the conflict by hand at the DHCP server. D. DHCP ignores the conflict.

C. If a DHCP conflict is detected, either by the server sending a ping and getting a response or by a host using a gratuitous ARP (arp'ing for its own IP address and seeing if a host responds), then the server will hold that address and not use it again until it is fixed by an administrator.

If a switch has three computers connected to it, with no VLANs present, how many broadcast and collision domains is the switch creating? A. Three broadcast and one collision B. Three broadcast and three collision C. One broadcast and three collision D. One broadcast and one collision

C. If a switch has three computers connected to it, with no VLANs present, one broadcast and three collision domains are created.

You have two switches connected together with two crossover cables for redundancy, and STP is disabled. Which of the following will happen between the switches? A. The routing tables on the switches will not update. B. The MAC forward/filter table will not update on the switch. C. Broadcast storms will occur on the switched network. D. The switches will automatically load-balance between the two links.

C. If spanning tree is disabled on a switch and you have redundant links to another switch, broadcast storms will occur, among other possible problems.

An administrator attempts a traceroute but receives destination unreachable message. Which protocol is responsible for that message? A. RARP B. RUDP C. ICMP D. SNMP

C. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) is used by IP to send error messages through the internetwork.

What VTP mode allows you to change VLAN information on the switch? A. Client B. STP C. Server D. 802.1q

C. Only in server and transparent mode can you change VLAN information on a switch.

How many private networks are available with an RFC 1918 Class C reserved IP range? A. 1 B. 16 C. 256 D. 16,386

C. RFC 1918 specifies that only 1 network is reserved in the Class A range (10.0.0.0/8), 16 with Class B (172.16.0.0/28), and 256 with Class C (192.168.0.0/24).

Which option is an example of a distance-vector routing protocol? A. OSPF B. ARP C. RIP D. IS-IS

C. RIP and RIPv2 are examples of distance-vector routing protocols.

Which of the following is true regarding RIPv2? A. It has a lower administrative distance than RIPv1. B. It converges faster than RIPv1. C. It has the same timers as RIPv1. D. It is harder to configure than RIPv1.

C. RIPv2 is pretty much just like RIPvIt has the same administrative distance and timers and is configured similarly.

Which class of IP address provides a maximum of only 254 host addresses per network ID? A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Class D E. Class E

A Class C network address has only 8 bits for defining hosts: 28 - 2 = 254.

When designing a network and deciding which type of network topology to use, which item(s) should be considered? (Choose all that apply.) A. Cost B. Ease of installation C. Ease of maintenance D. Fault-tolerance requirements

A, B, C, D. Each topology has its own set of pros and cons regarding implementation, so in addition to asking the right questions, cost, ease of installation, maintenance, and fault tolerance are all important factors to be considered.

What are the reasons for creating OSPF in a hierarchical design? (Choose three.) A. To decrease routing overhead B. To speed up convergence C. To confine network instability to single areas of the network D. To make configuring OSPF easier What is the administrative distance of OSPF? A. 90 B. 100 C. 110 D. 120

A, B, C. OSPF is created in a hierarchical design, not a flat design like RIP. This decreases routing overhead, speeds up convergence, and confines network instability to a single area of the network.

Which are reasons to migrate from IPv4 to IPv6? (Choose three.) A. IPv6 eliminates the requirement for NAT. B. IPv6 includes enough IP addresses to allocate more than four billion IP addresses to every person on earth. C. IPv6 eliminates the need for VLANs. D. Hosts can be assigned an IP address without DHCP. E. Hosts can be assigned an IP address without DNS.

A, B, D. With IPv6, we no longer need NAT or DHCP, and we no longer use broadcasts. There are plenty of addresses.

RSTP is a great protocol if you are not using Port Channel. Which of the following is true regarding RSTP? (Choose three.) A. RSTP speeds the recalculation of the spanning tree when the Layer 2 network topology changes. B. RSTP is an IEEE standard that redefines STP port roles, states, and BPDUs. C. RSTP is extremely proactive and very quick, and therefore it absolutely needs the 802.1 delay timers. D. RSTP (802.1w) supersedes 802.1 while remaining proprietary. E. All of the 802.1d terminology and most parameters have been changed. F. 802.1w is capable of reverting to 802.1 to interoperate with traditional switches on a per-port basis.

A, B, F. RSTP helps with convergence issues that plague traditional STP. Rapid PVST+ is based on the 802.1w standard in the same way that PVST+ is based on 802.1. See Chapter 12 for more information.

Which of the following is true regarding RSTP? (Choose 3.) A. RSTP speeds the recalculation of the spanning tree when the layer 2 network topology changes. B. RSTP is an IEEE standard that redefines STP port roles, states, and BPDUs. C. RSTP is extremely proactive and very quick, and therefore it absolutely needs the 802.1 delay timers. D. RSTP (802.1w) supersedes 802.1d while remaining proprietary. E. All of the 802.1d terminology and most parameters have been changed. F. 802.1w is capable of reverting to 802.1 to interoperate with traditional switches on a per-port basis.

A, B, F. RSTP helps with convergence issues that plague traditional STP. Rapid PVST+ is based on the 802.1w standard in the same way that PVST+ is based on 802.1d. The operation of Rapid PVST+ is simply a separate instance of 802.1w for each VLAN.

Which of the following describe the DHCP Discover message? (Choose two.) A. It uses FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF as a layer 2 broadcast. B. It uses UDP as the Transport layer protocol. C. It uses TCP as the Transport layer protocol. D. It does not use a layer 2 destination address.

A, B. A client that sends out a DHCP Discover message in order to receive an IP address sends out a broadcast at both layer 2 and layer The layer 2 broadcast is all Fs in hex, or FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF. The layer 3 broadcast is 255.255.255.255, which means any networks and all hosts. DHCP is connectionless, which means it uses User Datagram Protocol (UDP) at the Transport layer, also called the Host-to-Host layer.

What are the two default user roles in Cisco Nexus Operating System? (Choose two.) A. Admin B. Network-Operator C. Operator D. Storage Operator E. Root F. System Manager

A, B. Network-Admin (sometimes just called Admin) and Network-Operator are the two most commonly used roles. nexus(config)# user John role ? network-admin System configured role network-operator System configured role priv-0 Privilege role priv-1 Privilege role priv-10 Privilege role priv-11 Privilege role priv-12 Privilege role priv-13 Privilege role priv-14 Privilege role priv-15 Privilege role priv-2 Privilege role priv-3 Privilege role priv-4 Privilege role priv-5 Privilege role priv-6 Privilege role priv-7 Privilege role priv-8 Privilege role priv-9 Privilege role vdc-admin System configured role vdc-operator System configured role

On a Nexus 5010, what type of connector could you use to connect to an Ethernet network? (Choose two.) A. SFP B. TwinAx C. GBIC D. GBIC type 2

A, B. Small form-factor pluggable (SPF) modules give you flexibility in selecting what type of cable that you want to use. TwinAx is a copper cable with SFPs embedded in the end and is cost effective. See Chapter 7 for more information.

On a Nexus 5010, what could you use to connect to an Ethernet network? (Choose all that apply.) A. SFP+ B. TwinAx C. GBIC D. GBIC type 2

A, B. Small form-factor pluggable modules give you flexibility in selecting what type of cable that you want to use. TwinAx is a copper cable with SFPs embedded in the end and is cost effective.

Which layers of the OSI model are combined in the Internet Protocol suite Network Access layer? (Choose two.) A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

A, B. The OSI Data Link (layer 2) and the OSI Physical layer (layer 1) are combined into the Network Access layer of the Internet Protocol suite.

The Internet Protocol (IP) stack has four layers compared to seven for the OSI model. Which layers of the OSI model are combined in the Internet Protocol suite Network Access layer? (Choose two.) A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

A, B. The OSI Data Link layer (layer 2) and the OSI Physical layer (layer 1) are combined into the Network Access layer of the Internet Protocol suite. See Chapter 4 for more information.

Which of the following are types of flow control? (Choose all that apply.) A. Buffering B. Cut-through C. Windowing D. Congestion avoidance E. VLANs

A, C, D. The common types of flow control are buffering, windowing, and congestion avoidance.

Which of the following are layers in the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.) A. Application B. Session C. Transport D. Internet E. Data Link F. Physical

A, C, D. This seems like a hard question at first because it doesn't make sense. The listed answers are from the OSI model and the question asked about the TCP/IP protocol stack (DoD model). However, let's just look for what is wrong. First, the Session layer is not in the TCP/IP model; neither are the Data Link and Physical layers. This leaves us with the Transport layer (Host-to-Host in the DoD model), Internet layer (Network layer in the OSI), and Application layer (Application/Process in the DoD).

Which of the following describe the main router functions? (Choose four.) A. Packet switching B. Collision prevention C. Packet filtering D. Broadcast domain enlargement E. Internetwork communication F. Broadcast forwarding G. Path selection

A, C, E, G. Routers provide packet switching, packet filtering, internetwork communication, and path selection. Although routers do create or terminate collision domains, this is not the main purpose of a router, so option B is not a correct answer to this question.

What are the types of ACLs available with IOS? (Choose 3.) A. Standard B. Basic C. Extended D. Numbered E. Named

A, C, E. IOS-based routers allow standard numbered, extended numbered, and namedbased ACLs.

Which of the following services use UDP? (Choose three.) A. DHCP B. SMTP C. SNMP D. FTP E. HTTP F. TFTP

A, C, F. DHCP, SNMP, and TFTP use UDP. SMTP, FTP, and HTTP use TCP.

Which of the following describe the instance ID that is used to run a routing protocol on a router? (Choose two.) A. It is locally significant. B. It is globally significant. C. It is needed to identify a unique instance of a routing protocol database. D. It is an optional parameter required only if multiple routing processes are running on the router.

A, C. Each routing protocol on Nexus can have many processes running, so it is mandatory that when you configure a routing protocol, you configure the instance ID.

To be able to route a packet, which of the following does your router need to know? (Choose two.) A. The location of neighbor routers B. The hardware address of the remote router C. How to maintain and verify routing information D. The application being used and VLAN information

A, C. To be able to route packets, a router must know, at a minimum, the destination address, the location of neighboring routers through which it can reach remote networks, possible routes to all remote networks, the best route to each remote network, and how to maintain and verify routing information

To be able to route a packet, which at a minimum does your router need to know? (Choose two.) A. The destination address B. The source address C. The possible routes to each network D. The port number in the segment header

A, C. To be able to route packets, a router must know, at a minimum, the destination address, the location of neighboring routers through which it can reach remote networks, possible routes to all remote networks, the best route to each remote network, and how to maintain and verify routing information.

New VLANs have just been configured on a Nexus switch; however, a directly connected switch is not receiving the VLAN via a summary update. What two reasons could cause this problem? A. The VTP passwords are set incorrectly. B. The VTP feature has not been enabled. C. The VTP domain names do not match. D. VTP is not supported on Nexus switches.

A, C. To troubleshoot VTP, you first need to verify that the domain names match and that they are case sensitive as well. You should also check that the server has a higher revision number than the client or the client won't update the database. Also, if the passwords are set and do not match, the client will reject the update. Type show vtp status and check the MD5 checksum and make sure the values are the same, or type show vtp password to verify the match.

New VLANs have just been configured on a Nexus switch; however, a directly connected switch is not receiving the VLAN via a summary update. What reasons could cause this problem? (Choose two.) A. The VTP passwords are set incorrectly. B. The VTP feature has not been enabled. C. The VTP domain names do not match. D. VTP is not supported on Nexus switches.

A, C. To troubleshoot VTP, you first need to verify that the domain names match, and that they are case sensitive as well. You should also check that the server has a higher revision number than the client or the client won't update the database. Also, if the passwords are set and do not match, the client will reject the update. See Chapter 11 for more information.

What are three modular layer 2 processes in Cisco's Nexus Operating System? (Choose three.) A. UDLD B. PIM C. HSRP D. STP E. Cisco Discovery Protocol F. OSPF

A, D, E. Spanning Tree Protocol (STP), UniDirectional Link Detection (UDLD), and Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) are layer 2 technologies.

Which three are address ranges specified in RFC 1918? (Choose three.) A. 10.0.0.0/8 B. 10.0.0.0/16 C. 172.16.0.0/24 D. 172.16.0.0/20 E. 192.168.0.0/16 F. 192.168.0.0/24

A, D, F. RFC 1918 specifies that only one network is reserved in the Class A range (10.0.0.0/8), 16 with Class B (172.16.0.0/20), and 256 with Class C (192.168.0.0/24).

Which fields are contained within an IEEE Ethernet frame? (Choose two.) A. Source and destination MAC address B. Source and destination network address C. Source and destination MAC address and source and destination network address D. FCS field

A, D. An Ethernet frame has source and destination MAC addresses, an Ether-Type field to identify the Network layer protocol, the data, and the FCS field that holds the answer to the CRC.

Which options describe services that are provided by UDP? (Choose two.) A. Session multiplexing B. Connection-oriented C. Segmentation D. Reliable packet delivery E. Best effort packet delivery

A, D. Both TCP and UDP provide session multiplexing, but only TCP is connection oriented, so UDP is considered best effort packet delivery.

Which of the following are unique characteristics of half-duplex Ethernet when compared to full-duplex Ethernet? (Choose two.) A. Half-duplex Ethernet operates in a shared collision domain. B. Half-duplex Ethernet operates in a private collision domain. C. Half-duplex Ethernet has higher effective throughput. D. Half-duplex Ethernet has lower effective throughput. E. Half-duplex Ethernet operates in a private broadcast domain.

A, D. Half-duplex Ethernet works in a shared medium or collision domain. Half duplex provides a lower effective throughput than full duplex.

What ACL would you use on a Cisco Nexus switch to deny unencrypted web traffic from any source to destination host 10.10.1.110? (Choose two.) A. ip access-list 101, deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110 eq 80 B. ip access-list 101, deny ip any host 10.10.1.110 eq 80 C. permit tcp any any D. permit ip any any

A, D. In solving this business requirement, we first need to create a deny statement from any source to destination host 10.10.1.110 using HTTP with destination port 80. The second line is permit all other traffic.

Which commands would you use to configure an ACL on a Cisco Nexus switch to deny unencrypted web traffic from any source to destination host 10.10.1.110? (Choose two.) A. ip access-list 101, deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110 eq 80 B. ip access-list 101, deny ip any host 10.10.1.110 eq 80 C. permit tcp any any D. permit ip any any

A, D. In solving this business requirement, you first need to create a deny statement from any source to destination host 10.10.1.110 using HTTP with destination port 80. The second line permits all other traffic. See Chapter 13 for more information.

Which of the following would you use to find out which VLANs your switch is the root bridge for? (Choose 2.) A. show spanning-tree B. show root all C. spanning-tree port root VLAN D. spanning-tree summary

A, D. It is important that you can find your root bridge, and the show spanning-tree command will help you do this. To quickly find out which VLANs your switch is the root bridge for, use the show spanning-tree summary command.

If you use either Telnet or FTP, which is the highest layer you are using to transmit data? A. Application B. Presentation C. Session D. Transport

A. Both FTP and Telnet use TCP at the Transport layer; however, they both are Application layer protocols, so the Application layer is the best answer for this question.

When a new trunk link is configured on an IOS-based switch, which VLANs are allowed over the link? A. By default, all VLANs are allowed on the trunk. B. No VLANs are allowed; you must configure each VLAN by hand. C. Only configured VLANs are allowed on the link. D. Only extended VLANs are allowed by default.

A. By default, all VLANs are allowed on the trunk link and you must remove by hand each VLAN that you don't want traversing the trunked link.

You want to create an access list that denies the subnet of the following host: 172.16.198.94/Which of the following would you start your list with? A. deny ip 172.16.192.0 0.0.31.255 any B. deny ip 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 any C. deny ip 172.16.172.0 0.0.31.255 any D. deny ip 172.16.188.0 0.0.15.255 any

A. First, you must know that a /19 is 255.255.224.0, which is a block size of 32 in the third octet. Counting by 32, this makes our subnet 192 in the third octet, and the wildcard for the third octet would be 31 since the wildcard is always one less than the block size.

At which layer of the OSI model would you assume the problem is if you type show interface serial 1 and receive the following message? Ethernet3/3 is down (Link not connected) A. Physical layer B. Data Link layer C. Network layer D. None; it is a router problem

A. If you see that an Ethernet interface and Link not connected, then you have a Physical layer problem.

Which network topology is most closely associated with classical CSMA/CD? A. Bus B. Token passing bus C. Star D. Extended start E. Ring

A. In Chapter 3, we'll cover Ethernet and the standards, but you need to know that the original Ethernet used a classical CSMA/CD as its physical and logical topology.

What ACL would you configure on the Nexus switch to deny FTP traffic from any source to destination host 10.10.1.110? A. (config)#ip access-list 101 (config-acl)#deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110 eq ftp (config-acl)#permit ip any any B. (config)#access-list 101 (config-acl)#deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110 eq ftp (config-acl)#permit ip any any C. (config)#ip access-list 101 deny any host 10.10.1.110 eq 21 (config)#permit ip any any D. (config)#ip access-list 101 (config-acl)#deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110 eq ftp

A. In solving this business requirement, we first need to create a deny statement from any source to destination host 10.10.1.110 equal to FTP or port 2The second line is permit all other traffic. Option B is wrong because it doesn't start with the IP command.

Link-local addresses in IPv6 start with what prefix? A. FE80 B. FE90 C. 2000 D. 2E3F

A. Link-local addresses are the APIPA of the IPv6 world and start with FE80.

What is wrong with port-channel 1 on nexus7k? nexus7k# sh int port-channel 1 port-channel1 is up admin state is up, Hardware: Port-Channel, address: 0026.9823.7c41 (bia f866.f23e.0ff1) MTU 1500 bytes, BW 8000000 Kbit, DLY 10 usec reliability 255/255, txload 1/255, rxload 1/255 Encapsulation ARPA, medium is broadcast full-duplex, 1000 Mb/s Input flow-control is off, output flow-control is off Auto-mdix is turned off Switchport monitor is off EtherType is 0x8100 Members in this channel: Eth3/41, Eth3/42, Eth3/43, Eth3/44, Eth3/45, Eth3/46, Eth3/47, Eth3/48 A. Port-channel 1 is operating normally. B. LACP is not enabled on port-channel 1. C. Port-channel 1 requires at least two members for load-balancing purposes before it comes active. D. Rapid-PVST is not running on port-channel 1.

A. Notice the port-channel 1 is up, admin state is up. This is a working port-channel.

What allows a service to periodically save its state? A. PSS B. OSPF C. VSS D. UP

A. Persistent Storage Service (PSS) allows services to periodically save their state by making a checkpoint.

What will happen if an RFC 1918 assigned address is configured on a public interface that connects to an ISP? A. Addresses in a private range will be not routed on the Internet backbone. B. Only the ISP router will have the capability to access the public network. C. The NAT process will be used to translate this address in a valid IP address. D. Several automated methods will be necessary on the private network. E. A conflict of IP addresses happens, because other public routers can use the same range.

A. Private addresses from RFC 1918 cannot be placed on an interface going to the public Internet. You must configure NAT to translate. See Chapter 5 for more information.

What will happen if a private IP address is assigned to a public interface connected to an ISP? A. Addresses in a private range will be not be routed on the Internet backbone. B. Only the ISP router will have the capability to access the public network. C. The NAT process will be used to translate this address in a valid IP address. D. Several automated methods will be necessary on the private network. E. A conflict of IP addresses happens, because other public routers can use the same range.

A. Private addresses from RFC 1918 cannot be placed on an interface going to the public Internet. You must use NAT.

How many private networks are available with an RFC 1918 Class A reserved IP range? A. 1 B. 16 C. 256 D. 16,386

A. RFC 1918 specifies that only 1 network is reserved in the Class A range (10.0.0.0/8), 16 with Class B (172.16.0.0/28), and 256 with Class C (192.168.0.0/24).

What metric does RIPv2 use to find the best path to a remote network? A. Hop count B. MTU C. Cumulative interface delay D. Load E. Path bandwidth value

A. RIPv1 and RIPv2 use only the lowest hop count to determine the best path to a remote network.

Which of the following is not a benefit of reference models such as the OSI model? A. It allows changes on one layer to affect operations on all other layers as well. B. It divides the network communication process into smaller and simpler components, thus aiding component development, design, and troubleshooting. C. It allows multiple-vendor development through standardization of network components. D. It allows various types of network hardware and software to communicate.

A. Reference models prevent rather than allow changes on one layer to affect operations on other layers as well, so the model doesn't hamper development.

What is the administrative distance of EIGRP? A. 90 B. 100 C. 110 D. 120

A. The administrative distance (AD) is a very important parameter in a routing protocol. The lower the AD, the more trusted the route. If you have IGRP and OSPF running, by default IGRP routes would be placed in the routing table because IGRP has a lower AD of 100. OSPF has an AD of 1RIPv1 and RIPv2 both have an AD of 120, and EIGRP is the lowest, at 90.

Which of the following is an example of a hybrid network? A. Ethernet switch B. Ring topology C. Bus topology D. Star topology

A. The best answer to this question is an Ethernet switch, which uses a star physical topology with a logical bus technology.

Which part of a MAC address is called the organizationally unique identifier (OUI)? A. The first 24 bits, or 3 bytes B. The first 12 bits, or 3 bytes C. The first 24 bits, or 6 bytes D. The first 32 bits, or 3 bytes

A. The first 24 bits, or 3 bytes, of a MAC address is called the organizationally unique identifier (OUI).

Which of the following access lists will allow only HTTP traffic into network 196.15.7.0? A. permit tcp any 196.15.7.0 0.0.0.255 eq www B. deny tcp any 196.15.7.0 eq www C. permit 196.15.7.0 0.0.0.255 eq www D. permit ip any 196.15.7.0 0.0.0.255 E. permit www 196.15.7.0 0.0.0.255

A. The first thing to check is the protocol. If you are filtering by upper-layer protocol, then you must be using either UDP or TCP; this eliminates the fourth option. The second, third, and last options have the wrong syntax.

Which layer of the OSI model is associated with the reliable transmission of datagrams? A. Transport B. Network C. Data Link D. Physical

A. The only reliable protocol in the IP stack is TCP, which is found at the Transport layer, layer 4.

What is the minimum required command to enter global configuration mode on a Cisco Nexus switch? A. nexus# con B. nexus# configure C. nexus# configure global D. nexus# configure terminal

A. There are two commands that start with co, configure and copy: switch# co? configure Enter configuration mode copy Copy from one file to another switch# con Enter configuration commands, one per line. End with CNTL/Z. nexus(config)# So the shortest command you can type is con.

A network administrator needs two different VLANs to use different default routes to the Internet. What is the least disruptive way to do this? A. VRF B. VDC C. Unicast balancing D. Nothing, this is default behavior.

A. Virtual Routing and Forwarding and virtual device contexts could both accomplish this task, but VRF would be less disruptive.

Which of the following is an example of when a point-to-multipoint network is called for? A. When a centralized office needs to communicate with many branch offices B. When a full mesh of WAN links is in place C. When multiple offices are daisy chained to one another in a line D. When there are only two nodes in the network to be connected

A. When a central office, such as a headquarters, needs to communicate directly with its branch offices, but the branches do not require direct communication with one another, the point-to-multipoint model is applicable. The other scenarios tend to indicate the use of a point-to-point link between sites.

What are three modular layer 3 processes in Cisco's Nexus Operating System? (Choose three.) A. UDLD B. PIM C. HSRP D. STP E. Cisco Discovery Protocol F. OSPF

B, C, F. Protocol Independent Multicast (PIM), Hot Standby Routing Protocol (HSRP), and Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) are layer 3 technologies.

What are two purposes for segmentation with a bridge? A. To add more broadcast domains B. To create more collision domains C. To add more bandwidth for users D. To allow more broadcasts for users

B, C. Bridges and switches break up collision domains, which Cisco calls microsegmentation. This will add more bandwidth for users.

Which statements are true regarding ICMP packets? (Choose two.) A. ICMP guarantees datagram delivery. B. ICMP can provide hosts with information about network problems. C. ICMP is encapsulated within IP datagrams. D. ICMP is encapsulated within UDP datagrams.

B, C. ICMP is used for diagnostics and destination unreachable messages. ICMP is encapsulated within IP datagrams, and because it is used for diagnostics, it will provide hosts with information about network problems.

Which of the following describe private addresses? (choose 2) A. RFC 4_Private B. RFC 1918 C. RFC 4193 D. RFC IPv6/IPv4 Private Ranges E. RFC 2191

B, C. RFC 1918 describes the private addresses used in IPv6 and RFC 4193 describes the Unique Local Addresses (ULA's) used in IPv6, which is equivalent to private address. Neither RFC 1918 or 4193 addresses are routable on the Internet.

Which is true regarding RFC 1918? (Choose two.) A. RFC 1918 addresses are globally routable on the Internet. B. RFC 1918 addresses are not globally routable on the Internet. C. RFC 1918 was created to delay the transition to IPv6. D. RFC 1918 reserves 2 networks in Class A, 16 networks in Class B, and 256 in Class C.

B, C. RFC 1918 specifies that 1 network in Class A, 16 networks in Class B, and 256 in Class C are reserved and cannot be routed on the global Internet.

Which two advanced spanning-tree protocols does the NX-OS support? A. CSTP B. RSTP C. MSTP D. STP

B, C. The NX-OS allows you to configure only the RSTP and MSTP protocols. See Chapter 12 for more information.

Which of the following are true regarding the distance-vector and link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.) A. Link state sends its complete routing table out to all active interfaces at periodic time intervals. B. Distance vector sends its complete routing table out to all active interfaces at periodic time intervals. C. Link state sends updates containing the state of its own links to all routers in the internetwork. D. Distance vector sends updates containing the state of its own links to all routers in the internetwork.

B, C. The distance-vector routing protocol sends its complete routing table out all active interfaces at periodic time intervals. Link-state routing protocols send updates containing the state of its own links to all routers in the internetwork.

Which of the following services use TCP? (Choose three.) A. DHCP B. SMTP C. SNMP D. FTP E. HTTP F. TFTP

B, D, E. SMTP, FTP, and HTTP use TCP.

What is the correct format of an access control list on a Cisco Nexus switch to deny hosts on the 172.16.1.0/21 network from accessing HTTP proxy servers listening on port 8080? (Choose two.) A. IP access-list 101, deny ip 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 8080 B. IP access-list 101, deny tcp 172.16.1.0 0.0.7.255 any eq 8080 C. permit tcp any any D. permit ip any any

B, D. In solving this business requirement, we first need to create a deny statement to any destination using HTTP with destination port 8080. The source is network 172.16.1.0/2The second line is permit all other traffic. See Hands-on Lab 13.1 for more detailed information regarding the answer to this question.

Which two layers of the OSI model relate to the transmission of bits over the wire and packet forwarding based on destination IP address? (Choose two.) A. 4 B. 3 C. 2 D. 1

B, D. Layer 3, the Network layer, uses routers and IP addresses to do packet forwarding, and layer 1, the Physical layer, provides transmission of bits over a wire.

LAN switching uses a physical and logical topology. Which physical topologies are typically used in today's Ethernet switched networks? (Choose two.) A. Bus B. Star C. Mesh D. Extended star

B, D. Physical star and physical extended star are the most popular physical LAN networks today. See Chapter 1 for more information.

What two network topologies are the most popular in switching? (Choose two.) A. Bus B. Star C. Mesh D. Extended star

B, D. Physical star and physical extended-star are the most popular physical LAN networks today.

Which of the following commands will display the current IP addressing and the layer 1 and 2 status of an interface? (Choose two.) A. show version B. show interfaces C. show controllers D. show ip interface E. show running-config

B, D. The commands show interfaces and show ip interface will show you the layer 1 and 2 status and the IP addresses of your router's interfaces.

Which statements describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23? (Choose two.) A. The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0. B. The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0. C. The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0. D. The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0. E. The network is not subnetted.

B, D. The mask 255.255.254.0 (/23) used with a Class A address means that there are 15 subnet bits and 9 host bits. The block size in the third octet is 2 (256 - 254). So this makes the subnets in the interesting octet 0, 2, 4, 6, etc., all the way to 25The host 10.16.3.65 is in the 2.0 subnet. The next subnet is 4.0, so the broadcast address for the 2.0 subnet is 3.25The valid host addresses are 2.1 through 3.254.

Which of the following are valid ways to refer only to host 172.16.30.55 in an IP access list? (Choose two.) A. 172.16.30.55 0.0.0.255 B. 172.16.30.55 0.0.0.0 C. any 172.16.30.55 D. host 172.16.30.55 E. 0.0.0.0 172.16.30.55 F. ip any 172.16.30.55

B, D. The wildcard 0.0.0.0 tells the router to match all four octets. This wildcard format alone can be replaced with the host command.

To configure the VLAN Trunking Protocol to communicate VLAN information between two switches, what requirements must be met? (Choose two.) A. Each end of the trunk link must be set to the IEEE 802.1e encapsulation. B. The VTP management domain name of both switches must be set the same. C. All ports on both the switches must be set as access ports. D. One of the two switches must be configured as a VTP server. E. A rollover cable is required to connect the two switches together. F. A router must be used to forward VTP traffic between VLANs.

B, D. You must have the same VTP domain name on all switches in order to share VLAN information between the switches. At least one of the switches must be a VTP server; the other switches should be set to VTP client mode.

What is the dotted hexadecimal representation of the IP address 172.13.99.225? A. E2.1D.E1.66 B. AC.0D.63.E1 C. AB.63.99.D5 D. BC.0C.C3.1F

B. To answer this, we must first put the IP address into binary. 172.13.99.225 is 1010 1100.00001101.01100011.11100001. This now needs to be made into nibbles of four bits each: 1010 1100.0000 1101.0110 0011.1110 0001. Each nibble can then represent a hexadecimal number from 0 to 15 (F). 1010 is A, 1100 is C, 0000 is 0, 1101 is D, 0110 is 6, 0011 is 3, 1110 is E, and 0001 is 1.

What command at interface level bundles your interfaces together into a single LAN channel? A. interface port-channel B. channel-group C. switchport D. switchport mode trunk

B. To bundle your interfaces together, use the channel-group number command at interface level. From global configuration mode, you need to create the bundle interface with the interface port-channel command.

What type of RJ45 UTP cable is used between switches? A. Straight-through B. Crossover cable C. Crossover with a CSU/DSU D. Crossover with a router in between the two switches

B. To connect two switches together, you would use an RJ45 UTP crossover cable.

A switch has been configured for three different VLANs: VLAN2, VLAN3, and VLANNo router has been added to provide communication between the VLANs. What is the command to enable SVI routing on a Nexus switch? A. feature svi B. feature interface-vlan C. ip routing D. interface vlan vlan_number

B. To enable inter-VLAN routing on a Nexus switch you need to start the feature interface-vlan, which allows the creation of SVIs.

Which protocol reduces administrative overhead in a switched network by allowing the configuration of a new VLAN to be distributed to all the switches in a domain? A. STP B. VTP C. DHCP D. ISL

B. Virtual Trunk Protocol (VTP) is used to pass a VLAN database to any or all switches in the switched network. The three VTP modes are server, client, and transparent.

You want to configure your Nexus 7010 so that logically the switch is running three separate NX-OS instances. What is the best way to accomplish this? A. VRF B. VDC C. Storage-operator role D. VSANs and VLANs

B. Virtual device contexts (VDCs) can logically separate a switch into two administrative domains. In this case, one VDC would be assigned all of the Ethernet ports and the other VDC would be assigned all of the storage ports. See Chapter 7 for more information.

A network administrator wants to have two different administrators on a Nexus 7010, one managing the storage ports and one managing the Ethernet ports. What is the best way to accomplish this? A. VRF B. VDC C. Storage-Operator role D. VSANs and VLANs

B. Virtual device contexts can logically separate a switch into two administrative domains. In this case, one VDC would be assigned all of the Ethernet ports and the other VDC would be assigned all of the storage ports.

A network administrator wants to have two different administrators on a Nexus 7010, one managing the storage ports and one managing the Ethernet ports. What is the best way to accomplish this? A. VRF B. VDC C. Storage-Operator role D. VSANs and VLANs

B. Virtual device contexts can logically separate a switch into two administrative domains. In this case, one VDC would be assigned all of the Ethernet ports and the other VDC would be assigned all of the storage ports.

Two connected routers are configured only with RIP routing. What will be the result when a router receives a routing update that contains a higher-cost path to a network already in its routing table? A. The updated information will be added to the existing routing table. B. The update will be ignored and no further action will occur. C. The updated information will replace the existing routing table entry. D. The existing routing table entry will be deleted from the routing table and all routers will exchange routing updates to reach convergence.

B. When a routing update is received by a router, the router first checks the administrative distance (AD) and always chooses the route with the lowest AD. However, if two routes are received and they both have the same AD and differing metrics, then the router will choose the one route with the lowest metrics or, in RIP's case, hop count.

Which of the following is an example of a NX-OS IP access list? A. access-list 110, permit ip host 1.1.1.1 any B. ip access-list 1, deny ip 172.16.10.1 0.0.0.0 any C. access-list 1 permit 172.16.10.1 255.255.0.0 D. ip access-list extended, permit ip host 1.1.1.1

B. You can name your ACLs with a number, no problem, so that isn't the problem with any of the options. First, remember that Nexus allows only extended named lists, and the command to name the list starts with ip. Then you need to add the protocol and then at a minimum the source and destination addresses. Only option B provides the minimum correct commands and syntax needed to create an ACL on NX-OS.

Which IP address can be assigned to an Internet interface? A. 10.180.48.224 B. 9.255.255.10 C. 192.168.20.223 D. 172.16.200.18

B. You cannot assign an address from RFC 1918 to an interface of a router connecting to the global Internet.

You have the following binary number:10110111. What are the decimal and hexadecimal equivalents? A. 69/0x2102 B. 0x183/B7 C. 173/A6 D. 83/0xC5

B. You must be able to take a binary number and convert it into both decimal and hexadecimal. To convert to decimal, just add up the 1s using their values. The values that are turned on with the binary number of 10110111 are 128 + 32 + 16 + 4 + 2 + 1 = 183. To get the hexadecimal equivalent, you need to break the eight binary digits into nibbles (4 bits), 1011 and 0111. By adding up these values, you get 11 and 7. In hexadecimal, 11 is B, so the answer is 0xB7.

You need to subnet a network that has 5 subnets, each with at least 16 hosts. Which classful subnet mask would you use? A. 255.255.255.192 B. 255.255.255.224 C. 255.255.255.240 D. 255.255.255.248

B. You need 5 subnets, each with at least 16 hosts. The mask 255.255.255.240 provides 16 subnets with 14 hosts—this will not work. The mask 255.255.255.224 provides 8 subnets, each with 30 hosts. This is the best answer.

Which definitions are used to describe data at Layers 1, 2, and 4 of the OSI model? (Choose three.) A. Best-effort packet delivery B. Packets C. Frames D. Bits E. Segments

C, D, E. Layer 4 (Transport) data is referred to as Segments, layer 2 is Frames, and layer 1 is bits.

Which of the following are true regarding OSPF areas? (Choose three.) A. You must have separate loopback interfaces configured in each area. B. The numbers you can assign an area go up to 65,535. C. The backbone area is also called area 0. D. If your design is hierarchical, then you don't need multiple areas. E. All areas must connect to area 0. F. If you have only one area, it must be called area 1.

C, D, E. Loopback interfaces are created on a router, and the highest IP address on a loopback (logical) interface becomes the RID of the router but has nothing to do with areas and is optional, so option A is wrong. The numbers you can create an area with are from 0 to 4,294,967,295—option B is wrong. The backbone area is called area 0, so option C is correct. All areas must connect to area 0, so option E is correct. If you have only one area, it must be called area 0, so option F is incorrect. This leaves option D, which must be correct; it doesn't make much sense, but it is the best answer.

Which of the following protocols support VLSM, summarization, and discontiguous networking? (Choose three.) A. RIPv1 B. IGRP C. EIGRP D. OSPF E. RIPv2

C, D, E. RIPv1 and IGRP are true distance-vector routing protocols and can't do much, really—except build and maintain routing tables and use a lot of bandwidth! RIPv2, EIGRP, and OSPF build and maintain routing tables, but they also provide classless routing, which allows for VLSM, summarization, and discontiguous networking.

Which of the following are TCP/IP protocols used at the Application layer of the OSI model? (Choose three.) A. IP B. TCP C. Telnet D. FTP E. TFTP

C, D, E. Telnet, File Transfer Protocol (FTP), and Trivial FTP (TFTP) are all Application layer protocols. IP is a Network layer protocol. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is a Transport layer protocol.

What protocols will the IP use when you ping a local address from your host? (Choose two.) A. TCP B. IP C. ARP D. ICMP

C, D. IP will encapsulate an ICMP packet with an ICMP echo request, echo reply pair, but first will use ARP to resolve the IP destination address to a hardware address.

Which layer 1 devices can be used to enlarge the area covered by a single LAN segment? (Choose two.) A. Switch B. NIC C. Hub D. Repeater E. RJ45 transceiver

C, D. Not that you really want to enlarge a single collision domain, but a hub (multiport repeater) will provide this for you.

Which layers of the OSI model are combined in the Internet Protocol suite Application layer? (Choose two.) A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 E. 7

C, D. The real answer is 5, 6, and 7, but we only get to choose two on this question and Cisco's answer in their curriculum is the Session layer and the Presentation layer. This is the best answer.

Which VTP mode disallows the creation of local VLANs? (Choose two.) A. Transparent B. Native C. Client D. Off E. Server

C, D. You can create local VLANs in both VTP server mode and transparent mode. Clients can receive a VLAN database only from a server.

Which two of the following are private IP addresses? A. 12.0.0.1 B. 168.172.19.39 C. 172.20.14.36 D. 172.33.194.30 E. 192.168.24.43

C, E. Class A private address range is 10.0.0.0 through 10.255.255.25Class B private address range is 172.16.0.0 through 172.31.255.255, and Class C private address range is 192.168.0.0 through 192.168.255.255.

Which command displays the Trunking Native Mode VLAN on port Ethernet 1/18? A. show running-config switchport e1/18 B. show interface e1/18 native C. show interface e1/18 switchport D. show running-config e1/18 switchport E. show interface e1/18

C. The switchport option is added to the end of the show interface command to display all of the layer 2 details about a port. nexus(config)# show int e1/1 switchport Name: Ethernet1/1 Switchport: Enabled Switchport Monitor: Not enabled Operational Mode: trunk Access Mode VLAN: 1 (default) Trunking Native Mode VLAN: 1 (default) Trunking VLANs Enabled: 1,10

What is the specific term for the unwanted signal interference from adjacent pairs in the cable? A. EMI B. RFI C. Crosstalk D. Attenuation

C. The term for the unwanted signal interference from adjacent pairs in the cable is crosstalk.

Which of the following statements is false with respect to full duplex? A. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode. B. A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node. C. There are few collisions in full-duplex mode. D. The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in fullduplex mode.

C. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.

What is the subnetwork address for a host with the IP address 200.10.5.68/28? A. 200.10.5.56 B. 200.10.5.32 C. 200.10.5.64 D. 200.10.5.0

C. This is a pretty simple question. A /28 is 255.255.255.240, which means that our block size is 16 in the fourth octet. 0, 16, 32, 48, 64, 80, etc. The host is in the 64 subnet.

Which command would you use to apply an access list to a router interface? A. ip access-list 101 out B. access-list ip 101 in C. ip access-group 101 in D. access-group ip 101 in

C. To apply an access list inbound named 101, the proper command is ip access-group 101 in.

Devices on a directly connected switch are not able to communicate on VLANs 800 through 810 connected to your interface e3/28, but all other VLANs are fine. Which of the following reasons might explain the problem? A. Spanning tree is not enabled. B. The VTP feature is not enabled on the directly connected switch. C. The VLAN range is not allowed on your interface e3/28. D. The interface is not trunking.

C. To find this problem on your local switch, you'd have to verify with the command show interface trunk or show interface e3/28 switchport in order to see the VLANs allowed across the trunk link.

Which is required on your network if you are implementing RFC 1918 and want to connect to the global Internet? A. Security B. DHCP C. NAT D. Broadcasts E. Multicasts

C. To implement RFC 1918 on your private network, you need to implement Network Address Translation (NAT) on the border router.

To test the IP stack on your local host, which IP address would you ping? A. 127.0.0.0 B. 1.0.0.127 C. 127.0.0.1 D. 127.0.0.255 E. 255.255.255.255

C. To test the local stack on your host, ping the loopback interface of 127.0.0.1.

You have created a named access list called Blocksales. Which of the following is a valid command for applying this to packets trying to enter interface e1/0 of your router? A. (config)#ip access-group 110 in B. (config-if)#ip access-group NX-OS in C. (config-if)#ip access-group Blocksales in D. (config-if)#Blocksales ip access-list in

C. Using a named access list just replaces the number used when applying the list to the router's interface. ip access-group Blocksales in is correct.

Which switching technology reduces the size of a broadcast domain? A. ISL B. 802.1q C. VLANs D. STP

C. Virtual LANs break up broadcast domains in layer 2 switched internetworks.

When an HTTP document must be retrieved from a location other than the local machine, what layer of the OSI model must be accessed first? A. Presentation B. Transport C. Application D. Network

C. When an HTTP document must be retrieved from a location other than the local machine, the Application layer must be accessed first.

Your router has the following IP address on Ethernet0: 172.16.2.1/2Which of the following can be valid host IDs on the LAN interface attached to the router? (Choose two.) A. 172.16.0.5 B. 172.16.1.100 C. 172.16.1.198 D. 172.16.2.255 E. 172.16.3.0 F. 172.16.3.255

D, E. The router's IP address on the E0 interface is 172.16.2.1/23, which is 255.255.254.0. This makes the third octet a block size of The router's interface is in the 2.0 subnet, and the broadcast address is 3.255 because the next subnet is 4.0. The valid host range is 2.1 through 3.25The router is using the first valid host address in the range.

What is the maximum number of IP addresses that can be assigned to hosts on a local subnet that uses the 255.255.255.224 subnet mask? A. 14 B. 15 C. 16 D. 30 E. 31 F. 62

D. A /27 (255.255.255.224) is 3 bits on and 5 bits off. This provides 8 subnets, each with 30 hosts. Does it matter if this mask is used with a Class A, B, or C network address? Not at all. The number of host bits would never change.

What is the maximum number of IP addresses that can be assigned to hosts on a local subnet that uses a /27 subnet mask? A. 14 B. 15 C. 16 D. 30 E. 31 F. 62

D. A /27 (255.255.255.224) is 3 bits on and 5 bits off. This provides 8 subnets, each with 30 hosts. Does it matter if this mask is used with a Class A, B, or C network address? Not at all. The number of host bits would never change. See Chapter 6 for more information.

If a host on a network has the address 172.16.45.14/30, what is the subnetwork this host belongs to? A. 172.16.45.0 B. 172.16.45.4 C. 172.16.45.8 D. 172.16.45.12 E. 172.16.45.16

D. A /30, regardless of the class of address, has a 252 in the fourth octet. This means we have a block size of 4 and our subnets are 0, 4, 8, 12, 16, etc. Address 14 is obviously in the 12 subnet.

D. A /27 (255.255.255.224) is 3 bits on and 5 bits off. This provides 8 subnets, each with 30 hosts. Does it matter if this mask is used with a Class A, B, or C network address? Not at all. The number of host bits would never change.

D. A 240 mask is 4 subnet bits and provides 16 subnets, each with 14 hosts. We need more subnets, so let's add subnet bits. One more subnet bit would be a 248 mask. This provides 5 subnet bits (32 subnets) with 3 host bits (6 hosts per subnet). This is the best answer.

Which statement is correct with regard to a MAC address? A. A MAC, or logical, address is a 48-bit (6-byte) address written in a hexadecimal format. B. A MAC, or hardware, address is a 64-bit (6-byte) address written in a hexadecimal format. C. A MAC, or hardware, address is a 48-bit (6-byte) address written in a binary format. D. A MAC, or hardware, address is a 48-bit (6-byte) address written in a hexadecimal format.

D. A MAC, or hardware, address is a 48-bit (6-byte) address written in a hexadecimal format.

Which mask should you use on point-to-point WAN links in order to reduce the waste of IP addresses? A. /27 B. /28 C. /29 D. /30 E. /31

D. A point-to-point link uses only two hosts. A /30, or 255.255.255.252, mask provides two hosts per subnet.

A receiving host has failed to receive all of the segments that it should acknowledge. What can the host do to improve the reliability of this communication session? A. Send a different source port number. B. Restart the virtual circuit. C. Decrease the sequence number. D. Decrease the window size.

D. A receiving host can control the transmitter by using flow control (TCP uses windowing by default). By decreasing the window size, the receiving host can slow down the transmitting host so the receiving host does not overflow its buffers.

What is a difference between a LAN and a WAN? A. WANs need a special type of router port. B. WANs cover larger geographical areas. C. WANs can utilize either private or public data transport. D. All of the above.

D. A typical WAN connects two or more remote LANs together using someone else's network (your ISP's) and a router. Local host and router see these networks as remote networks and not as local networks or local resources.

How long is an IPv6 address? A. 32 bits B. 128 bytes C. 64 bits D. 128 bits

D. An IPv6 address is 128 bits long, whereas an IPv4 address is only 32 bits long. See Chapter 5 for more information.

Anycast is referred to as what? A. One-to-all B. One-to-many C. One-to-some D. One-to-nearest

D. An anycast address identifies a single unicast address on multiple interfaces, on multiple hosts. Hosts actually use the same unicast address for load-sharing possibilities. Anycast is referred to as "one-to-nearest."

You want to improve network performance by increasing the bandwidth available to hosts and limit the size of the broadcast domains. Which of the following options will achieve this goal? A. Managed hubs B. Bridges C. Switches D. Switches configured with VLANs

D. By creating and implementing VLANs in your switched network, you can break up broadcast domains at layer For hosts on different VLANs to communicate, you must have a router or layer 3 switch.

How do you find the broadcast address from a listed IP address? A. Ping the local host. B. Use Traceroute on the local IP address. C. Turn all host bits off. D. Turn all host bits on.

D. By finding the host bits of an IP address and turning them all off, you'll find your network address; by turning them all on, you'll find your broadcast address.

Which of the following would be considered an advanced distance-vector routing protocol? A. RIP B. ARP C. OSPF D. EIGRP

D. Cisco considers EIGRP an advance distance-vector routing protocol because it has more distance-vector qualities than link state.

Which of the following protocols uses both TCP and UDP? A. FTP B. SMTP C. Telnet D. DNS

D. DNS uses TCP for zone exchanges between servers and UDP when a client is trying to resolve a hostname to an IP address.

Which field in an Ethernet II frame performs the same function as the DSAP field in an 802.3 Ethernet frame? A. Start of Frame B. Frame Check Sequence C. Subnetwork Access Protocol D. Ether-Type

D. Explanation: The Ether-Type field found in an Ethernet_II frame defines the Network layer protocol, which is the same function as the SAP fields in an 802.3 Ethernet SNAP frame.

If you wanted to deny FTP access from network 200.200.10.0 to network 200.199.11.0 but allow everything else, which of the following command strings is valid? A. deny 200.200.10.0 to network 200.199.11.0 eq ftp permit ip any 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 B. deny ftp 200.200.10.0 200.199.11.0 any any C. deny tcp 200.200.10.0 0.0.0.255 200.199.11.0 0.0.0.255 eq ftp D. deny tcp 200.200.10.0 0.0.0.255 200.199.11.0 0.0.0.255 eq ftp permit ip any any

D. Extended IP access lists filter based on source and destination IP address, protocol number, and port number. The last option is correct because of the second line that specifies permit ip any any. The third option does not have this, so it would deny access but not allow everything else.

You want to implement a network medium that is not susceptible to EMI. Which type of cabling should you use? A. Thicknet coax B. Thinnet coax C. Category 5 UTP cable D. Fiber-optic cable

D. Fiber-optic cable provides a more secure, long-distance cable that is not susceptible to EMI interference at high speeds.

Which of the following is a concern when using peer-to-peer networks? A. Where to place the server B. Whose computer is least busy and can act as the server C. The security associated with such a network D. Having enough peers to support creating such a network

C. Security is easy to relax in a peer-to-peer environment. Because of the trouble it takes to standardize authentication, a piecemeal approach involving users' personal preferences develops. There are no dedicated servers in a peer-to-peer network, and such a network can be created with as few as two computers.

What is the binary value of the decimal number 1263? A. 11011101101 B. 10111101111 C. 10011101111 D. 10011101011 E. 11010001111

C. Starting with our leftmost bit, which has a 1024 value, we then have bits valued at 128, 62, 32, 8, 4, 2, 1, which makes the binary number 1011101111.

If your routing table has a static, a RIP and an EIGRP route to the same network, which route will be used to route packets by default? A. Any available route. B. RIP route. C. Static route. D. EIGRP route. E. They will all load-balance.

C. Static routes have an administrative distance of 1 by default. Unless you change this, a static route will always be used over any other dynamically-learned route. EIGRP has an administrative distance of 90, RIP is 120.

Which statement correctly describes an SVI? A. An SVI is a layer 2 interface and uses a dynamic MAC address. B. An SVI cannot have an IP address assigned to it. C. An SVI provides layer 3 routing between VLANs. D. Each switch port requires an SVI assignment.

C. Switched virtual interfaces are created by the administrator for each VLAN to provide IVR.

If you wanted to deny all Telnet connections to only network 192.168.10.0, which command could you use? A. deny tcp 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.0 eq telnet B. deny tcp 192.168.10.0 0.255.255.255 eq telnet C. deny tcp any 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255 eq 23 D. deny 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 23

C. Telnet uses TCP, so the protocol TCP is valid. Now you just need to look for the source and destination address. Only the third option has the correct sequence of parameters. Option B may work, but the question specifically states "only" to network 192.168.10.0, and the wildcard in option B makes it too broad.

What is the only type of ACL you can create with NX-OS? A. Standard numbered B. Basic named C. Extended named D. Standard named E. Extended numbered

C. The NX-OS allows you to create only extended named ACLs.

What is the purpose of Spanning Tree Protocol in a switched LAN? A. To provide a mechanism for network monitoring in switched environments B. To prevent routing loops in networks with redundant paths C. To prevent switching loops in networks with redundant switched paths D. To manage the VLAN database across multiple switches E. To create collision domains

C. The Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) was designed to stop layer 2 loops. All Cisco switches have the STP on by default.

What is the administrative distance of OSPF? A. 90 B. 100 C. 110 D. 120

C. The administrative distance (AD) is a very important parameter in a routing protocol. The lower the AD, the more trusted the route. If you have IGRP and OSPF running, by default IGRP routes would be placed in the routing table because IGRP has a lower AD of 100. OSPF has an AD of 1RIPv1 and RIPv2 both have an AD of 120, and EIGRP is the lowest, at 90.

If you wanted to delete the configuration stored in NVRAM, what would you type? A. erase startup B. erase nvram C. write erase boot D. erase running

C. The command write erase boot deletes the configuration stored in NVRAM and sets the system back to factory default. See Chapter 8 for more information.

On a new Cisco Nexus switch, you receive an error message when you attempt to create an SVI. What is the first command you must use to create the SVI? A. interface vlan (vlanid) B. vlan (vlanid) C. feature interface-vlan D. interface routed

C. The feature command turns on a feature and enables the commands for that feature. The command will not be visible until enabled.

On a new Cisco Nexus switch, you receive an error message when you attempt to create a switch virtual interface (SVI). What is the first command you must use to create the SVI? A. interface vlan (vlanid) B. vlan (vlanid) C. feature interface-vlan D. interface routed

C. The feature command turns on a service and enables the commands for that feature. Command will not be visible until enabled. See Chapter 8 for more information.

The DoD model (also called the TCP/IP stack) has four layers. Which layer of the DoD model is equivalent to the Network layer of the OSI model? A. Application B. Host-to-Host C. Internet D. Network Access

C. The four layers of the DoD model are Application/Process, Host-to-Host, Internet, and Network Access. The Internet layer is equivalent to the Network layer of the OSI model.

What command would create a switched virtual interface for VLAN 30? A. interface SVI 30 B. interface SVI 1.30 C. interface VLAN 30 D. feature SVI 30

C. The interface VLAN 30 creates a switched virtual interface only if the feature has been previously enabled.

The maximum hop count for RIP, before considering a route invalid, is which of the following? A. Unlimited B. 0 C. 15 D. 16 E. 31 F. 32

C. The maximum hop count a route update packet can traverse before considering the route invalid is 15, for both RIPv1 and RIPv2.

Why is the DSAP field in an 802.3 frame important? A. The DSAP field is only used in Ethernet II frames. B. The DSAP field specifies the TCP or UDP port that is associated with the transport protocol. C. The DSAP field indicates the Network layer protocol so multiple routed protocols can be used. D. The DSAP field is only used by the DoD for classified networks.

C. The old Source and Destination Service Access Point fields in a SNAP frame defined the Network Layer protocol that the packet uses. See Chapter 3 for more information.

In an IEEE 802.3 Ethernet frame, what is the significance of the DSAP field? A. The DSAP field is used only in Ethernet II frames. B. The DSAP field specifies the TCP or UDP port that is associated with the transport protocol. C. The DSAP field indicates the Network layer protocol. D. The DSAP field is only used by the DoD for classified networks.

C. The old Source and Destination Service Access Point fields in a SNAP frame defined the Network layer protocol that the packet uses.

You need to create an access list that will prevent hosts in the network range of 192.168.160.0 to 192.168.191.25Which of the following lists will you use? A. deny ip 192.168.160.0 255.255.224.0 any B. deny ip 192.168.160.0 0.0.191.255 any C. deny ip 192.168.160.0 0.0.31.255 any D. deny tcp 192.168.0.0 0.0.31.255 any

C. The range of 192.168.160.0 to 192.168.191.255 is a block size of 3The network address is 192.168.160.0 and the mask would be 255.255.224.0, which for an access list must be a wildcard format of 0.0.31.25The 31 is used for a block size of 3The wildcard is always one less than the block size.

What is the address range of a Class B network address in binary? A. 01xxxxxx B. 0xxxxxxx C. 10xxxxxx D. 110xxxxx

C. The range of a Class B network address is 128-19This makes our binary range 10xxxxxx.

Which router command allows you to view the entire contents of all access lists? A. show interface B. show ip interface C. show access-lists D. show all access-lists

C. The show access-lists command will allow you to view the entire contents of all access lists, but it will not show you the interfaces to which the access lists are applied.

Which command should you use to configure a Cisco Nexus switch port for layer 2 operation? A. nexus(config)#interface vlan 10 nexus{config-if)#switchport B. nexus(config-if)#layer-2 C. nexus{config-if)#switchport D. nexus(config-if)#routed

C. The switchport command enables the configuration of layer 2 properties like VLAN, trunking, and access mode. nexus(config-if)# switchport ? <CR> access Set access mode characteristics of the interface autostate Include or exclude this port from vlan link up calculation block Block specified outbound traffic for all VLANs description Enter description of maximum 80 characters host Set port host mode Enter the port mode monitor Monitor session related traffic monitor Configures an interface as span-destination priority CoS Priority parameter trunk Configure trunking parameters on an interface voice Set voice mode characterestics of the interface

You want to create a standard access list that denies the subnet of the following host: 172.16.50.172/Which of the following would you start your list with? A. deny ip 172.16.48.0 255.255.240.0 any B. deny ip 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 any C. deny ip 172.16.64.0 0.0.31.255 any D. deny ip 172.16.48.0 0.0.15.255 any

D. First, you must know that a /20 is 255.255.240.0, which is a block size of 16 in the third octet. Counting by 16s, this makes our subnet 48 in the third octet, and the wildcard for the third octet would be 15 since the wildcard is always one less than the block size.

If your host has a packet destined for a remote network, what local address will your host look for? A. The IP address of the closest server B. The IP address of the default gateway C. The IP address of the closest server D. The MAC address of the default gateway

D. Frames are discarded as they reach a router, so MAC addresses change at every hop— no exception! The packet is removed from the frame, and the packet is packet-switched.

When deploying 10Base2 Ethernet, which is the maximum cable length? A. 100 feet B. 150 meters C. 100 meters D. 185 meters E. 185 feet

D. I always say the 2 in the 10Base2 name means "almost 200 meters" because the specification runs only to 185 meters, although way back in the mid 1980s there were many networks that went further distances. I'm giving away my age here, which also shows you how old this specification is.

When two hosts are trying to communicate across a network, how does the host originating the communication determine the hardware address of the host that it wants to communicate to? A. RARP request B. Show Network Address request C. Proxy ARP request D. ARP request E. Show Hardware Address request

D. IP uses the ARP protocol to find the destination hardware address of the host on the local LAN. If the destination is a remote host, IP will ARP for the default gateway hardware address.

If a hub has three computers connected to it, how many broadcast and collision domains is the hub creating? A. Three broadcast and one collision B. Three broadcast and three collision C. One broadcast and three collision D. One broadcast and one collision

D. If a hub has three computers connected to it, one broadcast and one collision domain are created.

In which circumstance are multiple copies of the same unicast frame likely to be transmitted in a switched LAN? A. During high-traffic periods B. After broken links are reestablished C. When upper-layer protocols require high reliability D. In an improperly implemented redundant topology

D. If the Spanning Tree Protocol is not running on your switches and you connect them together with redundant links, you will have broadcast storms and multiple frame copies.

You configure the following access list: ip access-list 110 deny tcp 10.1.1.128 0.0.0.63 any eq smtp deny tcp any any eq 23 int ethernet 3/1 ip access-group 110 out What will the result of this access list be? A. E-mail and Telnet will be allowed out E3/1. B. E-mail and Telnet will be allowed in E3/1. C. Everything but e-mail and Telnet will be allowed out E3/1. D. No IP traffic will be allowed out E3/1.

D. If you add an access list to an interface and you do not have at least one permit statement, then you will effectively shut down the interface because of the implicit deny any any at the end of every list.

If you want to effectively disable STP on a port connected to a server, which command would you use? A. disable spanning-tree B. spanning-tree off C. spanning-tree port type network D. spanning-tree port type edge E. spanning-tree enable portfast

D. If you have a server or other devices connected into your switch that you're totally sure won't create a switching loop if STP is disabled, you can use something called port type edge on these ports. Using it means the port won't spend the usual time to come up while STP is converging.

Which of the following is the most fault tolerant in a very large enterprise network? A. Bus topology B. LAN switch C. Ring topology D. Star topology

D. In a star topology, if a cable fails, it brings down only particular machine or network segment it's connected to and makes it easier to troubleshoot.

What advantage does the client/server architecture have over peer-to-peer? A. Easier maintenance B. Greater organization C. Tighter security D. All of the above

D. In client/server networks, requests for resources go to a main server that responds by handling security and directing the client to the resource it wants instead of the request going directly to the machine with the desired resource (as in peer-to-peer).

Which type of topology has the greatest number of physical connections? A. Point-to-multipoint B. Star C. Point-to-point D. Mesh

D. In the mesh topology, there is a path from every machine to every other one in the network. A mesh topology is used mainly because of the robust fault tolerance it offers—if one connection goes on the blink, computers and other network devices can simply switch to one of the many redundant connections that are up and running.

A network administrator needs to configure a router with a distance-vector protocol that allows classless routing. Which of the following satisfies those requirements? A. IGRP B. OSPF C. RIPv1 D. EIGRP E. IS-IS

D. In this question, I'm calling EIGRP just plain old distance vector. EIGRP is an advanced distance-vector routing protocol, sometimes called a hybrid routing protocol because it uses the characteristics of both distance-vector and link-state routing protocols.

What do the L1 and L2 physical ports provide on a Nexus 5000 series switch? A. Database synchronization B. Heartbeat C. Layer 1 and layer 2 connectivity D. Nothing

D. L1 and L2 are not implemented on the Nexus 5010, but they are used on the Fabric Interconnects. See Chapter 7 for more information.

On the Nexus 5010, what does the L1 and L2 provide? A. Database synchronization B. Heartbeat C. Layer 1 and layer 2 connectivity D. Nothing

D. L1 and L2 are not implemented on the Nexus 5010.

Which of the following is an example of a LAN? A. Ten buildings interconnected by Ethernet connections over fiber-optic cabling B. Ten routers interconnected by frame-relay circuits C. Two routers interconnected with a T1 circuit D. A computer connected to another computer so they can share resources

D. LANs generally have a geographic scope of a single building or smaller. They can range from simple (two hosts) to complex (with thousands of hosts).

What command would set the admin password to cisco? A. enable secret cisco B. enable cisco C. secret cisco D. username admin password cisco

D. NX-OS uses locally created usernames and passwords by default; there is no user mode and privileged mode as in the IOS.

A network administrator tries to configure RIP on a NX-OS device and gets a command not found error. What is the most likely reason for this? A. License is not installed. B. Only EIGRP is supported. C. RIP can only be configured from the GUI. D. The RIP feature is not enabled.

D. Not all features are enabled by default. The RIP feature needs to be enabled before any command will work.

Which of the following physical topologies has the most connections and is the least popular for LANs? A. Bus B. Star C. Ring D. Mesh

D. Only a mesh physical topology has point-to-point connections to every device, so it has more connections, and is not a popular LAN technology.

You have a network with multiple devices and need to have a smaller broadcast domain while working with a tight budget. Which of the following is the best solution? A. Use static IP addresses. B. Add more hubs. C. Implement more switches. D. Install a router.

D. Routers break up broadcast domains and are used to connect different networks together.

Which layer of the OSI model offers three different modes of communication: simplex, half duplex, and full duplex? A. Presentation B. Transport C. Application D. Session

D. The Session layer of the OSI model offers three different modes of communication: simplex, half duplex, and full duplex.

What is the function of the Tab key on the Cisco Nexus Operating System commandline interface? A. Redisplays the current command line B. Deletes all characters from the cursor to the end of the command line C. Clears the terminal screen D. Completes a partially entered command if enough characters are present E. Moves the cursor one word to the right

D. The Tab key enables auto-completion on Nexus and other Cisco devices.

You have a network with a subnet of 172.16.17.0/2Which is the valid host address? A. 172.16.17.1 255.255.255.252 B. 172.16.0.1 255.255.240.0 C. 172.16.20.1 255.255.254.0 D. 172.16.16.1 255.255.255.240 E. 172.16.18.255 255.255.252.0 F. 172.16.0.1 255.255.255.0

E. A Class B network ID with a /22 mask is 255.255.252.0, with a block size of 4 in the third octet. The network address in the question is in subnet 172.16.16.0 with a broadcast address of 172.16.19.25Only option E has the correct subnet mask listed, and 172.16.18.255 is a valid host.

Which configuration command must be in effect to allow the use of 8 subnets if the Class C subnet mask is 255.255.255.224? A. Router(config)#ip classless B. Router(config)#ip version 6 C. Router(config)#no ip classful D. Router(config)#ip unnumbered E. Router(config)#ip subnet-zero F. Router(config)#ip all-nets

E. A Class C subnet mask of 255.255.255.224 is 3 bits on and 5 bits off (11100000) and provides eight subnets, each with 30 hosts. However, if the command ip subnet-zero is not used, then only six subnets would be available for use.

Which of the following is true regarding VTP? A. All switches are VTP servers by default. B. All switches are VTP transparent by default. C. VTP is on by default with a domain name of Cisco on all Cisco switches. D. All switches are VTP clients by default. E. The domain name must be the same on all switches.

E. All Cisco switches are not VTP servers by default. I have Nexus switches that default to transparent. You must set the VTP domain name on all switches to be the same domain name or they will not share the VTP database.

How often does EIGRP send route updates? A. Every 15 seconds B. Every 30 seconds C. Every 60 seconds D. Every 90 seconds E. Only when a change occurs

E. EIGRP sends incremental updates, not periodic like RIP, meaning that updates are only sent when a change occurs.

Which of the following would be true if HostA is trying to communicate to HostB and the interface F0/0 of RouterC goes down, as shown in the following graphic? (Choose two.) RouterA RouterB RouterC HostA HostB A. RouterC will use an ICMP to inform HostA that HostB cannot be reached. B. RouterC will use ICMP to inform RouterB that HostB cannot be reached. C. RouterC will use ICMP to inform HostA, RouterA, and RouterB that HostB cannot be reached. D. RouterC will send a destination unreachable message type. E. RouterC will send a router selection message type. F. RouterC will send a source quench message type.

A, D. RouterC will use ICMP to inform HostA that HostB cannot be reached. It will perform this by sending a destination unreachable ICMP message type.

Why does the data communication industry use the layered OSI reference model? (Choose two.) A. It divides the network communication process into smaller and simpler components, thus aiding component development and design and troubleshooting. B. It enables equipment from different vendors to use the same electronic components, thus saving research and development funds. C. It supports the evolution of multiple competing standards and thus provides business opportunities for equipment manufacturers. D. It encourages industry standardization by defining what functions occur at each layer of the model. E. It provides a framework by which changes in functionality in one layer require changes in other layers.

A, D. The main advantage of a layered model is that it can allow application developers to change aspects of a program in just one layer of the layer model's specifications. Advantages of using the OSI layered model include, but are not limited to, the following: It divides the network communication process into smaller and simpler components, thus aiding component development and design and troubleshooting; it allows multiplevendor development through standardization of network components; it encourages industry standardization by defining what functions occur at each layer of the model; it allows various types of network hardware and software to communicate; and it prevents changes in one layer from affecting other layers, so it does not hamper development.

Which two commands would you use to erase the Cisco Nexus Operation System configuration and return the switch to factory defaults'? (Choose two.) A. nexus# write erase boot B. nexus# erase configuration C. nexus# erase running-configuration D. nexus# erase startup-configuration E. nexus# reboot F. nexus# reload G. nexus# shutdown

A, F. The two-step process to reset a device is to erase the configuration and the reboot the device. To accomplish this, we do the following: switch# write erase boot Warning: This command will erase the startup-configuration. Do you wish to proceed anyway? (y/n) [n] y switch# reload WARNING: This command will reboot the system Do you want to continue? (y/n) [n] y

If an Ethernet port on a router were assigned an IP address of 172.16.112.1/25, what would be the valid subnet address of this host? A. 172.16.112.0 B. 172.16.0.0 C. 172.16.96.0 D. 172.16.255.0 E. 172.16.128.0

A. A /25 mask is 255.255.255.12Used with a Class B network, the third and fourth octets are used for subnetting with a total of 9 subnet bits, 8 bits in the third octet and 1 bit in the fourth octet. Since there is only 1 bit in the fourth octet, the bit is either off or on—which is a value of 0 or 12The host in the question is in the 0 subnet, which has a broadcast address of 127 since 112.128 is the next subnet.

Using the following illustration, what would be the IP address of E0 if you were using the eighth subnet? The network ID is 192.168.10.0/28 and you need to use the last available IP address in the range. The zero subnet should not be considered valid for this question. Router S0 E0 A. 192.168.10.142 B. 192.168.10.66 C. 192.168.100.254 D. 192.168.10.143 E. 192.168.10.126

A. A /28 is a 255.255.255.240 mask. Let's count to the ninth subnet (we need to find the broadcast address of the eighth subnet, so we need to count to the ninth subnet). Starting at 16 (remember, the question stated that we will not use subnet zero, so we start at 16, not 0), 16, 32, 48, 64, 80, 96, 112, 128, 14The eighth subnet is 128 and the next subnet is 144, so our broadcast address of the 128 subnet is 14This makes the host range 129-14142 is the last valid host.

You have an interface on a router with the IP address of 192.168.192.10/2What is the broadcast address the hosts will use on this LAN? A. 192.168.192.15 B. 192.168.192.31 C. 192.168.192.63 D. 192.168.192.127 E. 192.168.192.255

A. A /29 (255.255.255.248) has a block size of 8 in the fourth octet. This means the subnets are 0, 8, 16, 24, etc. 10 is in the 8 subnet. The next subnet is 16, so 15 is the broadcast address.

You have an interface on a router with the IP address of 192.168.192.10/2Including the router interface, how many hosts can have IP addresses on the LAN attached to the router interface? A. 6 B. 8 C. 30 D. 62 E. 126

A. A /29 (255.255.255.248), regardless of the class of address, has only 3 host bits. Six hosts is the maximum number of hosts on this LAN, including the router interface.

In the operation of CSMA/CD, which host(s) have priority after the expiration of the backoff algorithm? A. All hosts have equal priority. B. The two hosts that caused the collision will have equal priority. C. The host that sent the jam signal after the collision has priority. D. The host with the highest MAC address has priority.

A. After the expiration of the backoff algorithm, all hosts have equal priority.

Which statement correctly describes an SVI? A. An SVI provides layer 3 routing between VLANs. B. An SVI is a layer 2 interface and uses a dynamic MAC address. C. An SVI cannot have an IP address assigned to it. D. Each switchport requires an SVI assignment.

A. An SVI is a layer 3 interface that represents a VLAN and can have an IP address and other layer 3 properties. The SVI interface is created with the interface vlan command.

Which statement correctly describes an SVI? A. An SVI provides layer 3 routing between VLANs. B. An SVI is a layer 2 interface and uses a static MAC address. C. An SVI cannot have an IPv6 address assigned to it. D. Each switch port requires an SVI assignment.

A. An SVI is a layer 3 interface that represents a VLAN and can have an IP address and other layer 3 properties. The SVI is created with the interface VLAN command.

What type of topology gives you a direct connection between two routers so that there is one communication path? A. Point-to-point B. Star C. Bus D. Straight

A. As its name implies, in a point-to-point topology you have a direct connection between two routers, giving you one communication path. The routers in a point-topoint topology can either be linked by a serial cable, making it a physical network, or be far away and only connected by a circuit within a Frame Relay network, making it a logical network.

According to the following diagram, which of the following describes the router port configuration and the switch port configuration as shown in the topology? (Choose three.) Router connecting all VLANs together allowing for inter-VLAN communication, using only one router interface (router on a stick). A. The router WAN port is configured as a trunk port. B. The router port connected to the switch is configured using subinterfaces. C. The router port connected to the switch is configured at 10Mbps. D. The switch port connected to the hub is configured as full duplex. E. The switch port connected to the router is configured as a trunking port. F. The switch ports connected to the hosts are configured as access ports.

B, E, F. A router connected to a switch that provides inter-VLAN communication is configured using subinterfaces. The switch port connected to the router must be using either ISL or 802.1Q trunking protocol, and the hosts are all connected as access ports, which is the default on all switch ports.

Which statement are true regarding classless routing protocols? (Choose two.) A. The use of discontiguous networks is not allowed. B. The use of Variable Length Subnet Masks is permitted. C. RIPv1 is a classless routing protocol. D. IGRP supports classless routing within the same autonomous system. E. RIPv2 supports classless routing.

B, E. Classful routing means that all hosts in the internetwork use the same mask and that only default masks are in use. Classless routing means that you can use Variable Length Subnet Masks (VLSMs) and can also support discontiguous networking.

How does a host on an Ethernet LAN know when to transmit after a collision has occurred? (Choose two.) A. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data simultaneously. B. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting. C. You can improve the CSMA/CD network by adding more hubs. D. After a collision, the station that detected the collision has first priority to resend the lost data. E. After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data. F. After a collision, all stations involved run an identical backoff algorithm and then synchronize with each other prior to transmitting data.

B, E. Once transmitting stations on an Ethernet segment hear a collision, they send an extended jam signal to ensure that all stations recognize the collision. After the jamming is complete, each sender waits a predetermined amount of time, plus a random time. After both timers expire, they are free to transmit, but they must make sure the media is clear before transmitting and that they all have equal priority.

Which network topology is a combination of two or more types of physical or two or more types of logical topologies? A. Point-to-multipoint B. Hybrid C. Bus D. Star

B. A hybrid topology is a combination of two or more types of physical or logical network topologies working together within the same network.

What is a logical grouping of network users and resources called? A. WAN B. LAN C. MPLS D. Host

B. A logical grouping of hosts is called a LAN, and they are typically grouped by connecting them to a switch.

Which of the following is not a cause of LAN congestion? A. Too many hosts in a broadcast domain B. Adding switches for connectivity to the network C. Broadcast storms D. Low bandwidth

B. Adding switches for connectivity to the network would reduce LAN congestion rather than cause LAN congestion.

What protocol is used to find the hardware address of a local device? A. RARP B. ARP C. IP D. ICMP E. BootP

B. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is used to find the hardware address from a known IP address.

Which layer 4 protocol is used for a Telnet connection? A. IP B. TCP C. TCP/IP D. UDP E. ICMP

B. Although Telnet does use TCP and IP (TCP/IP), the question specifically asks about layer 4, and IP works at layer Telnet uses TCP at layer 4.

Each field in an IPv6 address is how many bits long? A. 4 B. 16 C. 32 D. 128

B. Each field in an IPv6 address is 16 bits long. An IPv6 address is a total of 128 bits. See Chapter 5 for more information.

Which of the following contention mechanisms is used by Ethernet? A. Token passing B. CSMA/CD C. CSMA/CA D. Host polling

B. Ethernet networking uses Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD), a protocol that helps devices share the bandwidth evenly without having two devices transmit at the same time on the network medium. Download from

FDDI and Token Ring used which LAN physical topology? A. Bus B. Ring C. Star D. Mesh

B. FDDI and Token Ring are no longer used, but they used a physical ring topology.

You want to create a standard access list that denies the subnet of the following host: 172.16.144.17/2Which of the following would you start your list with? A. deny ip 172.16.48.0 255.255.240.0 any B. deny ip 172.16.144.0 0.0.7.255 any C. deny ip 172.16.64.0 0.0.31.255 any D. deny ip 172.16.136.0 0.0.15.255 any

B. First, you must know that a /21 is 255.255.248.0, which is a block size of 8 in the third octet. Counting by eight, this makes our subnet 144 in the third octet, and the wildcard for the third octet would be 7 since the wildcard is always one less than the block size.

In a physical star topology, what happens when a workstation loses its physical connection to another device? A. The ring is broken, so no devices can communicate. B. Only that workstation loses its ability to communicate. C. That workstation and the device it's connected to lose communication with the rest of the network. D. No devices can communicate because there are now two un-terminated network segments.

B. In a star topology, each workstation connects to a hub, switch, or similar central device, but not to other workstations. The benefit is that when connectivity to the central device is lost, the rest of the network lives on.

What is the Cisco Nexus Operating System command to define a port as a layer 3 port? A. port routed B. no switchport C. switchport D. port switching

B. The switchport command is used to switch between a port being used for layer 2 and layer 3. core(config-if)# ip add 1.1.1.1 255.255.255.0 ^ % Invalid command at '^' marker. core(config-if)# no switchport core(config-if)# ip add 1.1.1.1 255.255.255.0 core(config-if)#

Given the following output, what is the most likely reason this interface is not receiving packets? Nexus# sh ip int vlan 11 IP Interface Status for VRF "default"(1) Vlan11, Interface status: protocol-down/link-down/admin-down, iod: 153, IP address: 10.20.20.3, IP subnet: 10.20.20.0/24 IP broadcast address: 255.255.255.255 IP multicast groups locally joined: 224.0.0.9 IP MTU: 1500 bytes (using link MTU) IP primary address route-preference: 0, tag: 0 IP proxy ARP : disabled IP Local Proxy ARP : disabled IP multicast routing: disabled IP icmp redirects: enabled IP directed-broadcast: disabled IP icmp unreachables (except port): disabled IP icmp port-unreachable: enabled IP unicast reverse path forwarding: none IP load sharing: none IP interface statistics last reset: never IP interface software stats: (sent/received/forwarded/originated/consumed) Unicast packets : 0/0/0/0/0 Unicast bytes : 0/0/0/0/0 Multicast packets : 0/0/0/0/0 Multicast bytes : 0/0/0/0/0 Broadcast packets : 0/0/0/0/0 Broadcast bytes : 0/0/0/0/0 Labeled packets : 0/0/0/0/0 Labeled bytes : 0/0/0/0/0 A. A default access control list is used. B. The interface is administratively shut down. C. The interface is in layer 3 mode. D. This interface is fine; there is not traffic.

B. On the third line, the admin-down indicates that the interface is shut down. The command no shutdown would enable the interface.

There are three possible routes for a router to reach a destination network. The first route is from OSPF with a metric of 78The second route is from RIPv2 with a metric of The third is from EIGRP with a composite metric check of 20514560. Which route will be installed by the router in its routing table? A. RIPv2 B. EIGRP C. OSPF D. All three

B. Only the EIGRP routes will be placed in the routing table because EIGRP has the lowest administrative distance (AD), and AD is always used before metrics.

A network administrator views the output from the show ip route command. A network that is advertised by both RIP and EIGRP appears in the routing table flagged as an EIGRP route. Why is the RIP route to this network not used in the routing table? A. EIGRP has a faster update timer. B. EIGRP has a lower administrative distance. C. RIP has a higher metric value for that route. D. The EIGRP route has fewer hops. E. The RIP path has a routing loop.

B. RIP has an administrative distance (AD) of 120, while EIGRP has an administrative distance of 90, so the router will discard any route with an AD higher than 90 to that same network.

RIP sends it complete routing table out in periodic time intervals. What is the interval? A. 15 seconds B. 30 seconds C. 60 seconds D. 90 seconds

B. RIP uses periodic timers, which means it sends updates on predetermined times, which is 30 seconds by default.

Routers operate at layer ___. LAN switches operate at layer ___. Ethernet hubs operate at layer ___. Word processing operates at layer ___. A. 3, 3, 1, 7 B. 3, 2, 1, none C. 3, 2, 1, 7 D. 2, 3, 1, 7 E. 3, 3, 2, none

B. Routers operate at layer 3. LAN switches operate at layer 2. Ethernet hubs operate at layer 1. Word processing applications communicate to the Application layer interface but do not operate at layer 7, so the answer would be none.

Which of the following devices do not operate at all levels of the OSI model? A. Network management stations (NMSs) B. Routers C. Web and application servers D. Network hosts

B. Routers operate no higher than layer 3 of the OSI model.

You type switch#sh r and receive a % ambiguous command error. Why did you receive this message? A. The command requires additional options or parameters. B. There is more than one show command that starts with the letter r. C. There is no show command that starts with r. D. The command is being executed from the wrong router mode.

B. The % ambiguous command error means that there is more than one possible show command that starts with r. Use a question mark to find the correct command.

Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for combining bits into bytes and bytes into frames? A. Presentation B. Data Link C. Application D. Transport

B. The Data Link layer of the OSI model is responsible for combining bits into bytes and bytes into frames.

Which option would you use to exit the Cisco Nexus Operating System interface configuration mode and return to the exec prompt? A. nexus(config-if)#Ctrl-C nexus# B. nexus(config-if)#Ctrl-Z nexus# C. nexus(config-if)#Ctrl-E nexus# D. nexus(config-if)#exit nexus#

B. The END command or Ctrl-Z will exit any configuration mode and place you back into user-exec mode.

Which of the following is a layer 2 protocol used to maintain a loop-free network? A. VTP B. STP C. RIP D. CDP

B. The Spanning Tree Protocol is used to stop switching loops in a layer 2 switched network with redundant paths.

What is true of the console port? A. It is in the default VRF. B. It is a serial connection. C. It is in the management VRF. D. It has its own VDC.

B. The console port on an NX-OS device is almost identical to one on a Cisco IOS device. It is a serial port, which is typically used for initial configuration.

What layer in the TCP/IP stack is equivalent to the Transport layer of the OSI model? A. Application B. Host-to-Host C. Internet D. Network Access

B. The four layers of the TCP/IP stack (also called the DoD model) are Application/ Process, Host-to-Host, Internet, and Network Access. The Host-to-Host layer is equivalent to the Transport layer of the OSI model.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of the star topology? A. When a port on the central concentrating device fails, the attached end device loses connectivity to the rest of the network. B. When the central concentrating device experiences a complete failure, all attached devices lose connectivity to the rest of the network. C. In a star topology, a more expensive type of host must be used when compared to the host used when implementing a physical bus. D. It is more difficult to add stations and troubleshoot than with other topologies.

B. The only disadvantage mentioned is the fact that there is a single point of failure in the network. However, this topology makes troubleshooting easier; if the entire network fails, you know where to look first. The central device also ensures that the loss of a single port and the addition of a new device to an available port do not disrupt the network for other stations attached to such a device.

You want to define a port as a layer 3 port on a Nexus OS. What is the command? A. port routed B. no switchport C. switchport D. port switching

B. The switchport command is used to switch between a port being used for layer 2 and layer 3. See Chapter 8 for more information.

Which statement describes the function of the OSI Transport layer? A. It provides the connectivity and path selection between two host systems that may be located on geographically separated networks. B. It defines how data is formatted for transmission and how access to the physical media is controlled. C. It establishes, manages, and terminates sessions between two communicating hosts. D. It segments data from the system of the sending host and reassembles the data into a data stream on the system of the receiving host.

D. The Transport layer is responsible for segmenting data and then reassembling the data on the receiving host.

Segmentation of a data stream happens at which layer of the OSI model? A. Physical B. Data Link C. Network D. Transport

D. The Transport layer receives large data streams from the upper layers and breaks them up into smaller pieces called segments.

An administrator issues the command ping 127.0.0.1 from the command-line prompt on a PC. If a reply is received, what does this confirm? A. Local network address B. APIPA address C. Broadcast address D. Loopback

D. The class A address 127.0.0.0 is reserved for diagnostics. Typically people use 127.0.0.1 to test their local IP stack, but the address can be used by applications as well to communicate within the system.

Which command will delete the contents of NVRAM on a device? A. delete NVRAM B. delete startup-config C. erase NVRAM D. erase start

D. The erase startup-config command erases the contents of NVRAM and will put you in setup mode if the router is restarted.

Which version of Cisco Nexus operating system became a common operating system for Cisco Nexus switches and Cisco MDS storage switches? A. 2.6 B. 3.2 C. 3.8 D. 4.1 E. 5.04 F. 6.1

D. The last version of the MDS SAN-OS was version 3.As of version 4.1, both MDS and Nexus devices run NX-OS.

A route update packet is considered invalid with the RIP protocol at what hop count? A. Unlimited B. 0 C. 15 D. 16 E. 31 F. 32

D. The maximum hop count a route update packet can traverse before considering the route invalid is 15, so 16 hops is invalid for both RIPv1 and RIPv2. See Chapter 10 for more information.

Which command displays the trunking native mode VLAN on part Ethernet 3/28? A. show running-config switchport e3/28 B. show running-config e3/28switchport C. show interface e3/28 D. show interface e3/28 switchport E. show interface e3/28 native

D. The show interface interface switchport command shows the native VLAN for that interface, but so does the show interface trunk command. You need to know both commands!

You connect a host to a switch port, but the new host cannot log into the server that is plugged into the same switch. What could the problem be? (Choose the most likely answer.) A. The router is not configured for the new host. B. The VTP configuration on the switch is not updated for the new host. C. The host has an invalid MAC address. D. The switch port the host is connected to is not configured with the correct VLAN membership.

D. This question is a little vague, but the best answer is that the VLAN membership for the port is not configured.

What type of RJ45 UTP cable do you use to connect a PC's COM port to a router or switch console port? A. Straight-through B. Crossover cable C. Crossover with a CSU/DSU D. Rolled

D. To connect to a router or switch console port, you would use an RJ45 UTP rolled cable.

What protocol does a DHCP client use to verify that there is not a duplicate address assignment? A. Acknowledge receipt of a TCP segment. B. Ping to its own address to see if a response is detected. C. Broadcast a Proxy ARP. D. Broadcast a gratuitous ARP. E. Telnet to its own IP address.

D. To stop possible address conflicts, a DHCP client will use gratuitous ARP (broadcast an ARP request for its own IP address) to see if another host responds.

UDLD is used with Nexus at the Data Link layer. What does UDLD stand for? A. Unified Direct Link Distribution B. Unified Data Link Distribution C. Unified Direct Link Deployment D. UniDirectional Link Detection

D. UniDirectional Link Detection (UDLD) is a Data Link layer protocol used to monitor the physical configuration of the cables and detect when communication is occurring in only one direction. See Chapter 7 for more information.

What does UDLD stand for? A. Unified Direct Link Distribution B. Unified Data Link Distribution C. Unified Direct Link Deployment D. UniDirectional Link Detection

D. UniDirectional Link Detection (UDLD) is a Data Link layer protocol used to monitor the physical configuration of the cables and detect when communication is occurring in only one-direction links.

What is not true of a unified port? A. It can support Ethernet SFPs. B. It can support Fibre Channel SFPs. C. A port can be configured as Ethernet or Fibre Channel. D. A port can be configured as Ethernet and Fibre Channel.

D. Unified ports can support either Fibre Channel or Ethernet, but not both at the same time.

Which of the following is true regarding VLANs? A. You must have at least two VLANs defined in every Cisco switched network. B. All VLANs are configured at the fastest switch and, by default, propagate this information to all other switches. C. You should not have more than 10 switches in the same VTP domain. D. VTP is used to send VLAN information to switches in a configured VTP domain.

D. VLAN Trunk Protocol (VTP) is used to propagate and synchronize VLAN information across a trunked link.

What command will permit SMTP mail to only host 1.1.1.1? A. permit smtp host 1.1.1.1 B. permit ip smtp host 1.1.1.1 C. permit tcp any host 1.1.1.1 eq smtp D. permit tcp any host 1.1.1.1 eq smtp

D. When trying to find the best answer to an access list question, always check the access list number and then the protocol. When you filter to the port of an upper-layer protocol, you must use either tcp or udp in the ACL protocol field. If it says ip in the protocol field, you cannot filter on the port number of an upper-layer protocol. SMTP uses TCP.

You type the following command into the router and receive the following output: switch#show ethernet 1/1 ^ % Invalid input detected at '^' marker. Why was this error message displayed? A. You need to be in config mode. B. You cannot have a space between ethernet and 1/1. C. You need to be in interface mode. D. Part of the command is missing.

D. You can view the interface statistics from user mode, but the command is show interface Ethernet 1/1.

These two switches are not sharing VLAN information. From the following output, what is the reason these switches are not sharing VTP messages? SwitchA#sh vtp status VTP Version : 2 Configuration Revision : 0 Maximum VLANs supported locally : 64 Number of existing VLANs : 7 VTP Operating Mode : Server VTP Domain Name : Lammle VTP Pruning Mode : Disabled MD5 Digest : 0x2C 0x00 0xCD 0xAE 0x1E 0x08 0xF4 0xE4 SwitchB#sh vtp status VTP Version : 2 Configuration Revision : 1 Maximum VLANs supported locally : 64 Number of existing VLANs : 7 VTP Operating Mode : Server VTP Domain Name : Lammle VTP Pruning Mode : Disabled MD5 Digest : 0x2C 0x00 0xCD 0xAE 0x1E 0xCD 0x99 0x54 A. One of the switches needs to be set to VTP version 1. B. Both switches are set to VTP server and one must be set to client. C. The VTP domain names are not configured correctly. D. VTP pruning is disabled. E. The VTP passwords do not match.

E. It is not easy to see the problem at first look. However, check out the MD5 digest. The MD5 digest does not match between switches, which means the VTP passwords do not match!

Which of the following is an example of a static default route on a Nexus device? A. ip route 0.0.0.0/32 10.99.99.2 B. ip route 0.0.0.0/0 Null0 C. ip route 0.0.0.0/32 Null0 D. ip route 0.0.0.0/32 mgmt0 10.99.99.2 E. ip route 0.0.0.0/0 10.99.99.2

E. One of my favorite features of NX-OS is not having to type in subnet masks, and creating a default route is no exception. There is nothing new with static or default routing with NX-OS except we can use the slash notation for the mask (/). Only answer E has the correct syntax.

Where does Cisco Nexus Operating System store the running configuration file? A. NVRAM B. Bootflash C. Volatile D. Flash E. RAM

E. The running configuration (active configuration file) is store, in RAM. In the event of a power failure or reload, any changes made to the running configuration that have not been saved to the startup configuration are lost.

The network address of 172.16.0.0/19 provides how many subnets and hosts? A. 7 subnets, 30 hosts each B. 7 subnets, 2,046 hosts each C. 7 subnets, 8,190 hosts each D. 8 subnets, 30 hosts each E. 8 subnets, 2,046 hosts each F. 8 subnets, 8,190 hosts each

F. A CIDR address of /19 is 255.255.224.0. This is a Class B address, so that is only 3 subnet bits, but it provides 13 host bits, or 8 subnets, each with 8,190 hosts.