CCNA (DUMPS 1)
What are two functions of a server on a network? (Choose two.) A. handles requests from multiple workstations at the same time B. achieves redundancy by exclusively using virtual server clustering C. housed solely in a data center that is dedicated to a single client achieves redundancy by exclusively using virtual server clustering D. runs the same operating system in order to communicate with other servers E. runs applications that send and retrieve data for workstations that make requests
A. handles requests from multiple workstations at the same time E. runs applications that send and retrieve data for workstations that make requests
A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two.) A. input errors B. frame C. giants D. CRC E. runts
A. input errors D. CRC Whenever the physical transmission has problems, the receiving device might receive a frame whose bits have changed values. These frames do not pass the error detection logic as implemented in the FCS field in the Ethernet trailer. The receiving device discards the frame and counts it as some kind of input error. Cisco switches list this error as a CRC error. Cyclic redundancy check (CRC) is a term related to how the FCS math detects an error. The input errors includes runts, giants, no buffer, CRC, frame, overrun, and ignored counts. The output below show the interface counters with the show interface s0/0/0 command:
Which 802.11 frame type is association response? A. management B. protected frame C. action D. control
A. management
What is the binary pattern of unique ipv6 unique local address? A. 00000000 B. 11111100 C. 11111111 D. 11111101
B. 11111100 A IPv6 Unique Local Address is an IPv6 address in the block FC00::/7, which means that IPv6 Unique Local addresses begin with 7 bits with exact binary pattern as 1111 110 -> Answer B is correct. Note: IPv6 Unique Local Address is the approximate IPv6 counterpart of the IPv4 private address. It is not routable on the global Internet.
Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet? A. 172.9.0.0/16 B. 172.28.0.0/16 C. 192.0.0.0/8 D. 209.165.201.0/24
B. 172.28.0.0/16 This question asks about the private ranges of IPv4 addresses. The private ranges of each class of IPv4 are listed below: Class A private IP address ranges from 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255 Class B private IP address ranges from 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255 Class C private IP address ranges from 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255 Only the network 172.28.0.0/16 belongs to the private IP address (of class B).
Which technique can you use to route IPv6 traffic over an IPv4 infrastructure? A. NAT B. 6 to 4 tunneling C. L2TPv3 D. dual-stack
B. 6 to 4 tunneling
What are two similarities between UTP Cat 5e and Cat 6a cabling? (Choose two.) A. Both support speeds up to 10 Gigabit. B. Both support speeds of at least 1 Gigabit. C. Both support runs of up to 55 meters. D. Both support runs of up to 100 meters. E. Both operate at a frequency of 500 MHz.
B. Both support speeds of at least 1 Gigabit. D. Both support runs of up to 100 meters.
Which two goals reasons to implement private IPv4 addressing on your network? (Choose two.) A. Comply with PCI regulations B. Conserve IPv4 address C. Reduce the size of the forwarding table on network routers D. Reduce the risk of a network security breach E. Comply with local law
B. Conserve IPv4 address D. Reduce the risk of a network security breach
Which protocol uses the SSL? A. SSH B. HTTPS C. HTTP D. Telnet
B. HTTPS
How do TCP and UDP fit into a query-responsible model? A. TCP avoids using sequencing and UDP avoids using acknowledgments B. TCP establishes a connection prior to sending data, and UDP sends immediately C. TCP encourages out-of-order packet delivery, and UDP prevents re-ordering D. TCP uses error detection for packets, and UDP uses error recovery.
B. TCP establishes a connection prior to sending data, and UDP sends immediately
What is the maximum bandwidth of a T1 point-to-point connection? A. 1.544 Mbps B. 2.048 Mbps C. 34.368 Mbps D. 43.7 Mbps
A. 1.544 Mbps
What is a similarity between 1000BASE-LX and 1000BASE-T standards? A. Both use the same data-link header and trailer formats. B. Both cable types support RJ-45 connectors. C. Both support up to 550 meters between nodes. D. Both cable types support LR connectors.
A. Both use the same data-link header and trailer formats.
An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4GHz channels and lower usage on the 5GHz channels. What must be configured to allow clients to preferentially use 5GHz access points? A. Client Band Select B. Re-Anchor Roamed Clients C. OEAP Spilt Tunnel D. 11ac MU-MIMO
A. Client Band Select
What is the collapsed layer in collapsed core architectures? A. Core and distribution B. access and WAN C. distribution and access D. core and WAN
A. Core and distribution
Which two statements about the purpose of the OSI model are accurate? (Choose two.) A. Defines the network functions that occur at each layer B. Facilitates an understanding of how information travels throughout a network C. Changes in one layer do not impact other layer D. Ensures reliable data delivery through its layered approach
A. Defines the network functions that occur at each layer B. Facilitates an understanding of how information travels throughout a network
Which action is taken by switch port enabled for PoE power classification override? A. If a monitored port exceeds the maximum administrative value for power, the port is shutdown and err-disabled. B. When a powered device begins drawing power from a PoE switch port, a syslog message is generated. C. As power usage on a PoE switch port is checked, data flow to the connected device is temporarily paused. D. If a switch determines that a device is using less than the minimum configured power, it assumes the device has failed and disconnects it.
A. If a monitored port exceeds the maximum administrative value for power, the port is shutdown and err-disabled. PoE monitoring and policing compares the power consumption on ports with the administrative maximum value (either a configured maximum value or the port's default value). If the power consumption on a monitored port exceeds the administrative maximum value, the following actions occur: - A syslog message is issued. - The monitored port is shut down and error-disabled. - The allocated power is freed.
What is the role of disaggregation in controller-based networking? A. It divides the control-plane and data-plane functions. B. It streamlines traffic handling by assigning individual devices to perform either Layer 2 or Layer 3 functions C. It summarizes the routes between the core and distribution layers of the network topology D. It enables a network topology to quickly adjust from a ring network to a star network
A. It divides the control-plane and data-plane functions.
What is a benefit of using a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller? A. It eliminates the need to configure each access point individually. B. Central AP management requires more complex configurations. C. Unique SSIDs cannot use the same authentication method. D. It supports autonomous and lightweight APs
A. It eliminates the need to configure each access point individually
What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose two.) A. They are routed the same as public IP addresses. B. They are less costly than public IP addresses. C. They can be assigned to devices without Internet connections. D. They eliminate the necessity for NAT policies. E. They eliminate duplicate IP conflicts.
B. They are less costly than public IP addresses. C. They can be assigned to devices without Internet connections.
What are network endpoints? A. support inter-VLAN connectivity B. a threat to the network if they are compromised C. act as routers to connect a user to the service provider network D. enforce policies for campus-wide traffic going to the Internet
B. a threat to the network if they are compromised
What provides centralized control of authentication and roaming in an enterprise network? A. a lightweight access point B. a wireless LAN controller C. a firewall D. a LAN switch
B. a wireless LAN controller
What is a requirement for nonoverlapping Wi-Fi channels? A. different security settings B. discontinuous frequency ranges C. unique SSIDs D. different transmission speeds
B. discontinuous frequency ranges
What is the destination MAC address of a broadcast frame? A. 00:00:0c:07:ac:01 B. ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff C. 43:2e:08:00:00:0c D. 00:00:0c:43:2e:08 E. 00:00:0c:ff:ff:ff
B. ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff
An implementer is preparing hardware for virtualization to create virtual machines on a host. What is needed to provide communication between hardware and virtual machines? A. router B. hypervisor C. switch D. straight cable
B. hypervisor
An office has 8 floors with approximately 30-40 users per floor. One subnet must be used. Which command must be configured on the router Switched Virtual Interface to use address space efficiently? A. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0 B. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.254.0 C. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.128 D. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.224
B. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.254.0
Which 802.11 frame type is indicated by a probe response after a client sends a probe request? A. data B. management C. control D. action
B. management
Which two characteristics describe the access layer in a three-tier network architecture? (Choose two.) A. serves as the network aggregation point B. physical connection point for a LAN printer C. designed to meet continuous redundant uptime requirements D. layer at which a wireless access point connects to the wired network E. provides a boundary between Layer 2 and Layer 3 communications
B. physical connection point for a LAN printer D. layer at which a wireless access point connects to the wired network The Access Layer is the one closer to the users. In fact, at this layer, we find the users themselves and the access-layer switches. The main purpose of this layer is to physically connect users to the network. In other words, there is just a cable between end-user PCs, printers, and wireless access points and access-layer switches.
Which two statements are true about the command ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.4? (Choose two.) A. It establishes a static route to the 172.16.3.0 network. B. It establishes a static route to the 192.168.2.0 network. C. It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination to the 172.16.3.0 network. D. It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination out the interface with the address 192.168.2.4. E. It uses the default administrative distance. F. It is a route that would be used last if other routes to the same destination exist.
A. It establishes a static route to the 172.16.3.0 network. E. It uses the default administrative distance.
What is the function of a controller in controller-based networking? A. It serves as the centralized management point of an SDN architecture B. It is a pair of core routers that maintain all routing decisions for a campus C. It centralizes the data plane for the network D. It is the card on a core router that maintains all routing decisions for a campus.
A. It serves as the centralized management point of an SDN architecture
Which two functions are performed by the core layer in a three-tier architecture? (Choose two.) A. Provide uninterrupted forwarding service B. Inspect packets for malicious activity C. Ensure timely data transfer between layers D. Provide direct connectivity for end user devices E. Police traffic that is sent to the edge of the network
A. Provide uninterrupted forwarding service C. Ensure timely data transfer between layers
How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints? A. TCP uses the three-way handshake, and UDP does not guarantee message delivery. B. TCP uses synchronization packets, and UDP uses acknowledgment packets. C. UDP provides reliable message transfer, and TCP is a connectionless protocol. D. UDP uses SYN, SYN ACK, and FIN bits in the frame header while TCP uses SYN, SYN ACK, and ACK bits.
A. TCP uses the three-way handshake, and UDP does not guarantee message delivery
What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? (Choose two.) A. The distribution layer runs Layer 2 and Layer 3 technologies B. The network core is designed to maintain continuous connectivity when devices fail C. The access layer manages routing between devices in different domains D. The core layer maintains wired connections for each host E. The core and distribution layers perform the same functions
A. The distribution layer runs Layer 2 and Layer 3 technologies B. The network core is designed to maintain continuous connectivity when devices fail
What is a recommended approach to avoid co-channel congestion while installing access points that use the 2.4 GHz frequency? A. different nonoverlapping channels B. one overlapping channel C. one nonoverlapping channel D. different overlapping channels
A. different nonoverlapping channels
A wireless administrator has configured a WLAN; however, the clients need access to a less congested 5-GHz network for their voice quality. Which action must be taken to meet the requirement? A. enable Band Select B. enable DTIM C. enable RX-SOP D. enable AAA override
A. enable Band Select
Which function is performed by the collapsed core layer in a two-tier architecture? A. enforcing routing policies B. marking interesting traffic for data policies C. applying security policies D. attaching users to the edge of the network
A. enforcing routing policies
Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and cannot route on the Internet? A. link-local B. unique local C. multicast D. global unicast
B. unique local A IPv6 Unique Local Address is an IPv6 address in the block FC00::/7. It is the approximate IPv6 counterpart of the IPv4 private address. It is not routable on the global Internet. Note: In the past, Site-local addresses (FEC0::/10) are equivalent to private IP addresses in IPv4 but now they are deprecated. Link-local addresses only used for communications within the local subnet. It is usually created dynamically using a link-local prefix of FE80::/10 and a 64-bit interface identifier (based on 48-bit MAC address).
How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they guarantee packet delivery? A. TCP uses retransmissions, acknowledgment, and parity checks, and UDP uses cyclic redundancy checks only B. TCP uses two-dimensional parity checks, checksums, and cyclic redundancy checks, and UDP uses retransmissions only C. TCP uses checksum, acknowledgements, and retransmissions, and UDP uses checksums only D. TCP uses checksum, parity checks, and retransmissions, and UDP uses acknowledgements only
C. TCP uses checksum, acknowledgements, and retransmissions, and UDP uses checksums only
Which two WAN architecture options help a business scalability and reliability for the network? (Choose two.) A. asynchronous routing B. single-homed branches C. dual-homed branches D. static routing E. dynamic routing
C. dual-homed branches E. dynamic routing
Which action must be taken to assign a global unicast IPv6 address on an interface that is derived from the MAC address of that interface? A. explicitly assign a link-local address B. disable the EUI-64 bit process C. enable SLAAC on an interface D. configure a stateful DHCPv6 server on the network
C. enable SLAAC on an interface
What is a characteristic of a SOHO network? A. includes at least three tiers of devices to provide load balancing and redundancy B. connects each switch to every other switch in the network C. enables multiple users to share a single broadband connection D. provides high throughput access for 1000 or more users
C. enables multiple users to share a single broadband connection
A network engineer must configure the router R1 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface to connect to the router R2 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface. For the configuration to be applied, the engineer must compress the address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0500:000a:400F:583B. Which command must be issued on the interface? A. ipv6 address 2001::db8:0000::500:a:400F:583B B. ipv6 address 2001:db8:0::500:a:4F:583B C. ipv6 address 2001:db8::500:a:400F:583B D. ipv6 address 2001:0db8::5:a:4F:583B
C. ipv6 address 2001:db8::500:a:400F:583B
Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a specified IPv6 prefix and MAC address of an interface? A. ipv6 address dhcp B. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::/64 eui-64 C. ipv6 address autoconfig D. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::2/64 link-local
C. ipv6 address autoconfig The ipv6 address autoconfig command causes the device to perform IPv6 stateless address auto-configuration to discover prefixes on the link and then to add the EUI-64 based addresses to the interface. Addresses are configured depending on the prefixes received in Router Advertisement (RA) messages. The device will listen for RA messages which are transmitted periodically from the router (DHCP Server).
A device detects two stations transmitting frames at the same time. This condition occurs after the first 64 bytes of the frame is received. Which interface counter increments? A. runt B. collision C. late collision D. CRC
C. late collision
A network engineer is installing an IPv6-only capable device. The client has requested that the device IP address be reachable only from the internal network. Which type of IPv6 address must the engineer assign? A. IPv4-compatible IPv6 address B. unique local address C. link-local address D. aggregatable global address
C. link-local address
What are two functions of a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two.) A. acts as a central point for association and authentication servers B. selects the best route between networks on a WAN C. moves packets within a VLAN D. moves packets between different VLANs E. makes forwarding decisions based on the MAC address of a packet
C. moves packets within a VLAN E. makes forwarding decisions based on the MAC address of a packet
Which component of an Ethernet frame is used to notify a host that traffic is coming? A. start of frame delimiter B. Type field C. preamble D. Data field
C. preamble
When a switch receives a frame for a known destination MAC address, how is the frame handled? A. flooded to all ports except the one from which it originated B. forwarded to the first available port C. sent to the port identified for the known MAC address D. broadcast to all ports
C. sent to the port identified for the known MAC address
What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing? A. composed of up to 65,536 available addresses B. issued by IANA in conjunction with an autonomous system number C. used without tracking or registration D. traverse the Internet when an outbound ACL is applied
C. used without tracking or registration
What is a characteristic of spine-and-leaf architecture? A. Each link between leaf switches allows for higher bandwidth. B. It provides greater predictability on STP blocked ports. C. It provides variable latency. D. Each device is separated by the same number of hops.
D. Each device is separated by the same number of hops.
Which IPv6 address block forwards packets to a multicast address rather than a unicast address? A. 2000::/3 B. FC00::/7 C. FE80::/10 D. FF00::/12
D. FF00::/12
Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address? A. 2000::/3 B. FC00::/7 C. FE80::/10 D. FF00::/8
D. FF00::/8 FF00::/8 is used for IPv6 multicast and this is the IPv6 type of address the question wants to ask. FE80::/10 range is used for link-local addresses. Link-local addresses only used for communications within the local subnetwork (automatic address configuration, neighbor discovery, router discovery, and by many routing protocols). It is only valid on the current subnet. It is usually created dynamically using a link-local prefix of FE80::/10 and a 64-bit interface identifier (based on 48-bit MAC address).
When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two.) A. 2000::/3 B. 2002::5 C. FC00::/7 D. FF02::1 E. FF02::2
D. FF02::1 E. FF02::2 When an interface is configured with IPv6 address, it automatically joins the all nodes (FF02::1) and solicited-node (FF02::1:FFxx:xxxx) multicast groups. The all- node group is used to communicate with all interfaces on the local link, and the solicited-nodes multicast group is required for link-layer address resolution. Routers also join a third multicast group, the all-routers group (FF02::2)
What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP? A. TCP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol. B. TCP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol. C. TCP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol. D. TCP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol.
D. TCP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol.
Why is UDP more suitable than TCP for applications that require low latency such as VoIP? A. UDP reliably guarantees delivery of all packets: TCP drops packets under heavy load B. UDP uses sequencing data for packets to arrive in order TCP offers the capability to receive packets in random order C. TCP uses congestion control for efficient packet delivery: UDP uses flow control mechanisms for the delivery of packets D. TCP sends an acknowledgement for every packet received: UDP operates without acknowledgments
D. TCP sends an acknowledgement for every packet received: UDP operates without acknowledgments
How does CAPWAP communicate between an access point in local mode and a WLC? A. The access point must not be connected to the wired network, as it would create a loop B. The access point must be connected to the same switch as the WLC C. The access point must directly connect to the WLC using a copper cable D. The access point has the ability to link to any switch in the network, assuming connectivity to the WLC
D. The access point has the ability to link to any switch in the network, assuming connectivity to the WLC
Which set of 2 4 GHz nonoverlapping wireless channels is standard in the United States? A. channels 1, 6, 11, and 14 B. channels 2, 7, 9, and 11 C. channels 2, 7, and 11 D. channels 1, 6, and 11
D. channels 1, 6, and 11
Which network action occurs within the data plane? A. reply to an incoming ICMP echo request B. make a configuration change from an incoming NETCONF RPC C. run routing protocols (OSPF, EIGRP, RIP, BGP) D. compare the destination IP address to the IP routing table
D. compare the destination IP address to the IP routing table
What is a network appliance that checks the state of a packet to determine whether the packet is legitimate? A. Layer 2 switch B. LAN controller C. load balancer D. firewall
D. firewall
Which networking function occurs on the data plane? A. processing inbound SSH management traffic B. sending and receiving OSPF Hello packets C. facilitates spanning-tree elections D. forwarding remote client/server traffic
D. forwarding remote client/server traffic
Which function forwards frames to ports that have a matching destination MAC address? A. frame flooding B. frame filtering C. frame pushing D. frame switching
D. frame switching
Which type of IPv6 address is publicly routable in the same way as IPv4 public addresses? A. multicast B. unique local C. link-local D. global unicast
D. global unicast
An engineer must configure a /30 subnet between two routes. Which usable IP address and subnet mask combination meets this criteria? A. interface e0/0 description to XX-AXXX:XXXXX ip address 10.2.1.3 255.255.255.252 B. interface e0/0 description to XX-AXXX:XXXXX ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.248 C. interface e0/0 description to XX-AXXX:XXXXX ip address 172.16.1.4 255.255.255.248 D. interface e0/0 description to XX-AXXX:XXXXX ip address 209.165.201.2 225.255.255.252
D. interface e0/0 description to XX-AXXX:XXXXX ip address 209.165.201.2 225.255.255.252
A network engineer must implement an IPv6 configuration on the vlan 2000 interface to create a routable locally-unique unicast address that is blocked from being advertised to the internet. Which configuration must the engineer apply? A. interface vlan 2000 ipv6 address ff00:0000:aaaa::1234:2343/64 B. interface vlan 2000 ipv6 address fd00::1234:2343/64 C. interface vlan 2000 ipv6 address fe80:0000:aaaa::1234:2343/64 D. interface vlan 2000 ipv6 address fc00:0000:aaaa::a15d:1234:2343:8aca/64
D. interface vlan 2000 ipv6 address fc00:0000:aaaa::a15d:1234:2343:8aca/64
You are configuring your edge routers interface with a public IP address for Internet connectivity. The router needs to obtain the IP address from the service provider dynamically. Which command is needed on interface FastEthernet 0/0 to accomplish this? A. ip default-gateway B. ip route C. ip default-network D. ip address dhcp E. ip address dynamic
D. ip address dhcp
A network administrator is setting up a new IPv6 network using the 64-bit address 2001:0EB8:00C1:2200:0001:0000:0000:0331/64. To simplify the configuration, the administrator has decided to compress the address. Which IP address must the administrator configure? A. ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:22:1::331/64 B. ipv6 address 21:EB8:C1:2200:1::331/64 C. ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:2200:1:0000:331/64 D. ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:2200:1::331/64
D. ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:2200:1::331/64
What is an appropriate use for private IPv4 addressing? A. to allow hosts inside to communicate in both directions with hosts outside the organization B. on internal hosts that stream data solely to external resources C. on the public-facing interface of a firewall D. on hosts that communicate only with other internal hosts
D. on hosts that communicate only with other internal hosts
What is a function performed by a web server? A. send and retrieve email from client devices B. securely store files for FTP access C. authenticate and authorize a user's identity D. provide an application that is transmitted over HTTP
D. provide an application that is transmitted over HTTP
What is a characteristic of cloud-based network topology? A. onsite network services are provided with physical Layer 2 and Layer 3 components B. wireless connections provide the sole access method to services C. physical workstations are configured to share resources D. services are provided by a public, private, or hybrid deployment
D. services are provided by a public, private, or hybrid deployment
A manager asks a network engineer to advise which cloud service models are used so employees do not have to waste their time installing, managing, and updating software that is only used occasionally. Which cloud service model does the engineer recommend? A. infrastructure-as-a-service B. platform-as-a-service C. business process as service to support different types of service D. software-as-a-service
D. software-as-a-service
What is the primary function of a Layer 3 device? A. to transmit wireless traffic between hosts B. to analyze traffic and drop unauthorized traffic from the Internet C. to forward traffic within the same broadcast domain D. to pass traffic between different networks
D. to pass traffic between different networks
Why was the RFC 1918 address space defined? A. conserve public IPv4 addressing B. support the NAT protocol C. preserve public IPv6 address space D. reduce instances of overlapping IP addresses
A. conserve public IPv4 addressing
Which three statements about MAC addresses are correct? (Choose three.) A. To communicate with other devices on a network, a network device must have a unique MAC address B. The MAC address is also referred to as the IP address C. The MAC address of a device must be configured in the Cisco IOS CLI by a user with administrative privileges D. A MAC address contains two main components, the first of which identifies the manufacturer of the hardware and the second of which uniquely identifies the hardware E. An example of a MAC address is 0A:26:B8:D6:65:90 F. A MAC address contains two main components, the first of which identifies the network on which the host resides and the second of which uniquely identifies the host on the network
A. To communicate with other devices on a network, a network device must have a unique MAC address D. A MAC address contains two main components, the first of which identifies the manufacturer of the hardware and the second of which uniquely identifies the hardware E. An example of a MAC address is 0A:26:B8:D6:65:90
What are two benefits that the UDP protocol provide for application traffic? (Choose two.) A. UDP traffic has lower overhead than TCP traffic B. UDP provides a built-in recovery mechanism to retransmit lost packets C. The CTL field in the UDP packet header enables a three-way handshake to establish the connection D. UDP maintains the connection state to provide more stable connections than TCP E. The application can use checksums to verify the integrity of application data
A. UDP traffic has lower overhead than TCP traffic E. The application can use checksums to verify the integrity of application data
Which function does the range of private IPv4 addresses perform? A. allows multiple companies to each use the same addresses without conflicts B. provides a direct connection for hosts from outside of the enterprise network C. ensures that NAT is not required to reach the Internet with private range addressing D. enables secure communications to the Internet for all external hosts
A. allows multiple companies to each use the same addresses without conflicts
Which WAN access technology is preferred for a small office / home office architecture? A. broadband cable access B. frame-relay packet switching C. dedicated point-to-point leased line D. Integrated Services Digital Network switching
A. broadband cable access Service providers provide Internet access using broadband services such as DSL, cable, and satellite access. Broadband connections are typically used to connect small offices and telecommuting employees to a corporate site over the Internet. Data traveling between corporate sites over the public WAN infrastructure should be protected using VPNs.
Which type of organization should use a collapsed-core architecture? A. small and needs to reduce networking costs B. large and must minimize downtime when hardware fails C. large and requires a flexible, scalable network design D. currently small but is expected to grow dramatically in the near future
A. small and needs to reduce networking costs It is ideal for small companies: The collapsed core model is a reduced version of the three-tier model. The deduction was made to create a network for small and medium-sized campuses. Therefore, smaller institutions can get the advantage of using a collapsed core network while still gaining the same benefits they would if they were using a three-tier model. Small organizations often cannot afford the hardware and human resources to run the network can benefit greatly with less oversight necessary. And reduces cost: In a traditional three-tier campus network, the core layer is typically a complex and expensive piece of hardware. This layer is eliminated with collapsed core architecture, reducing both cost and complexity
Which two options are the best reasons to use an IPV4 private IP space? (Choose two.) A. to enable intra-enterprise communication B. to implement NAT C. to connect applications D. to conserve global address space E. to manage routing overhead
A. to enable intra-enterprise communication D. to conserve global address space
For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? (Choose two) A. to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2 B. to allow communication with devices on a different network C. to differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet D. to establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit first E. to allow communication between different devices on the same network F. to allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown
A. to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2 E. to allow communication between different devices on the same network
What are the two functions of SSIDs? (Choose two.) A. uses the maximum of 32 alphanumeric characters B. controls the speed of the Wi-Fi network C. used exclusively with controller-based Wi-Fi networks D. supports a single access point E. broadcasts by default
A. uses the maximum of 32 alphanumeric characters E. broadcasts by default The SSID is a unique identifier that wireless networking devices use to establish and maintain wireless connectivity. The SSID can consist of up to 32 alphanumeric, case-sensitive, characters. Wireless clients connect using the SSID for secure communications. The SSID is a unique token that identifies an 802.11 wireless network. It is used by wireless devices to identify a network and to establish and maintain wireless connectivity. An SSID must be configured and assigned to a wireless client device interface before the device can associate with an access point.
How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they provide reliability for delivery of packets? A. TCP does not guarantee delivery or error checking to ensure that there is no corruption of data, UDP provides message acknowledgement and retransmits data if lost. B. TCP provides flow control to avoid overwhelming a receiver by sending too many packets at once, UDP sends packets to the receiver in a continuous stream without checking. C. TCP is a connectionless protocol that does not provide reliable delivery of data; UDP is a connection-oriented protocol that uses sequencing to provide reliable delivery. D. TCP uses windowing to deliver packets reliably; UDP provides reliable message transfer between hosts by establishing a three-way handshake
B. TCP provides flow control to avoid overwhelming a receiver by sending too many packets at once, UDP sends packets to the receiver in a continuous stream without checking.
What is the difference in data transmission delivery and reliability between TCP and UDP? A. TCP transmits data at a higher rate and ensures packet delivery. UDP retransmits lost data to ensure applications receive the data on the remote end. B. TCP requires the connection to be established before transmitting data. UDP transmits data at a higher rate without ensuring packet delivery. C. UDP sets up a connection between both devices before transmitting data. TCP uses the three-way handshake to transmit data with a reliable connection. D. UDP is used for multicast and broadcast communication. TCP is used for unicast communication and transmits data at a higher rate with error checking.
B. TCP requires the connection to be established before transmitting data. UDP transmits data at a higher rate without ensuring packet delivery. UDP speeds up transmissions by enabling the transfer of data before an agreement is provided by the receiving party. As a result, UDP is beneficial in time- sensitive communications, including voice over IP (VoIP), domain name system (DNS) lookup, and video or audio playback.
What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two.) A. A BNC connector is used for fiber connections B. The glass core component is encased in a cladding C. The data can pass through the cladding D. Light is transmitted through the core of the fiber E. Fiber connects to physical interfaces using RJ-45 connections
B. The glass core component is encased in a cladding D. Light is transmitted through the core of the fiber
What is a role of access points in an enterprise network? A. integrate with SNMP in preventing DDoS attacks B. serve as a first line of defense in an enterprise network C. connect wireless devices to a wired network D. support secure user logins to devices on the network
C. connect wireless devices to a wired network
What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two.) A. when Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection is used B. when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex C. when the sending device waits 15 seconds before sending the frame again D. when a collision occurs after the 32nd byte of a frame has been transmitted E. when the cable length limits are exceeded
B. when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex E. when the cable length limits are exceeded A late collision is defined as any collision that occurs after the first 512 bits (or 64th byte) of the frame have been transmitted. The usual possible causes are full- duplex/half-duplex mismatch, exceeded Ethernet cable length limits, or defective hardware such as incorrect cabling, non-compliant number of hubs in the network, or a bad NIC. Late collisions should never occur in a properly designed Ethernet network. They usually occur when Ethernet cables are too long or when there are too many repeaters in the network.
Using direct sequence spread spectrum, which three 2.4-GHz channels are used to limit collisions? A. 5, 6, 7 B. 1, 2, 3 C. 1, 6, 11 D. 1, 5, 10
C. 1, 6, 11
A corporate office uses four floors in a building. ✑ Floor 1 has 24 users. ✑ Floor 2 has 29 users. ✑ Floor 3 has 28 users. ✑ Floor 4 has 22 users. Which subnet summarizes and gives the most efficient distribution of IP addresses for the router configuration? A. 192.168.0.0/24 as summary and 192.168.0.0/28 for each floor B. 192.168.0.0/23 as summary and 192.168.0.0/25 for each floor C. 192.168.0.0/25 as summary and 192.168.0.0/27 for each floor D. 192.168.0.0/26 as summary and 192.168.0.0/29 for each floor
C. 192.168.0.0/25 as summary and 192.168.0.0/27 for each floor
In which way does a spine-and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required? A. A spine switch and a leaf switch can be added with redundant connections between them. B. A spine switch can be added with at least 40 GB uplinks. C. A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch. D. A leaf switch can be added with a single connection to a core spine switch.
C. A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch. Spine-leaf architecture is typically deployed as two layers: spines (such as an aggregation layer), and leaves (such as an access layer). Spineleaf topologies provide high-bandwidth, low-latency, nonblocking server-to-server connectivity. Leaf (aggregation) switches are what provide devices access to the fabric (the network of spine and leaf switches) and are typically deployed at the top of the rack. Generally, devices connect to the leaf switches. Devices can include servers, Layer 4-7 services (firewalls and load balancers), and WAN or Internet routers. Leaf switches do not connect to other leaf switches. In spine-and-leaf architecture, every leaf should connect to every spine in a full mesh. Spine (aggregation) switches are used to connect to all leaf switches and are typically deployed at the end or middle of the row. Spine switches do not connect to other spine switches.
Which two network actions occur within the data plane? (Choose two.) A. Run routing protocols. B. Make a configuration change from an incoming NETCONF RPC. C. Add or remove an 802.1Q trunking header. D. Match the destination MAC address to the MAC address table. E. Reply to an incoming ICMP echo request.
C. Add or remove an 802.1Q trunking header. D. Match the destination MAC address to the MAC address table.
Several new coverage cells are required to improve the Wi-Fi network of an organization. Which two standard designs are recommended? (Choose two.) A. 5GHz provides increased network capacity with up to 23 nonoverlapping channels. B. 5GHz channel selection requires an autonomous access point. C. Cells that overlap one another are configured to use nonoverlapping channels. D. Adjacent cells with overlapping channels use a repeater access point. E. For maximum throughput, the WLC is configured to dynamically set adjacent access points to the channel.
C. Cells that overlap one another are configured to use nonoverlapping channels. E. For maximum throughput, the WLC is configured to dynamically set adjacent access points to the channel.
What occurs to frames during the process of frame flooding? A. Frames are sent to all ports, including those that are assigned to other VLANs. B. Frames are sent to every port on the switch that has a matching entry in MAC address table. C. Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN except from the originating port. D. Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN.
C. Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN except from the originating port.
How does a Cisco Unified Wireless Network respond to Wi-Fi channel overlap? A. It allows the administrator to assign the channels on a per-device or per-interface basis. B. It segregates devices from different manufactures onto different channels. C. It analyzes client load and background noise and dynamically assigns a channel. D. It alternates automatically between 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz on adjacent access points.
C. It analyzes client load and background noise and dynamically assigns a channel.
What are two characteristics of an SSID? (Choose two.) A. It uniquely identifies a client in a WLAN. B. It is at most 32 characters long C. It uniquely identifies an access point in a WLAN D. It provides secured access to a WLAN. E. It can be hidden or broadcast in a WLAN.
C. It uniquely identifies an access point in a WLAN D. It provides secured access to a WLAN.
Under which condition is TCP preferred over UDP? A. UDP is used when low latency is optimal, and TCP is used when latency is tolerable. B. TCP is used when dropped data is more acceptable, and UDP is used when data is accepted out-of-order. C. TCP is used when data reliability is critical, and UDP is used when missing packets are acceptable. D. UDP is used when data is highly interactive, and TCP is used when data is time-sensitive.
C. TCP is used when data reliability is critical, and UDP is used when missing packets are acceptable.
What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC address is received? A. The Layer 2 switch forwards the packet and adds the destination MAC address to its MAC address table. B. The Layer 2 switch sends a copy of a packet to CPU for destination MAC address learning. C. The Layer 2 switch floods packets to all ports except the receiving port in the given VLAN. D. The Layer 2 switch drops the received frame.
C. The Layer 2 switch floods packets to all ports except the receiving port in the given VLAN. If the destination MAC address is not in the CAM table (unknown destination MAC address), the switch sends the frame out all other ports that are in the same VLAN as the received frame. This is called flooding. It does not flood the frame out the same port on which the frame was received.
What identifies the functionality of virtual machines? A. The hypervisor communicates on Layer 3 without the need for additional resources. B. Each hypervisor supports a single virtual machine and a single software switch. C. The hypervisor virtualizes physical components including CPU, memory, and storage. D. Virtualized servers run efficiently when physically connected to a switch that is separate from the hypervisor
C. The hypervisor virtualizes physical components including CPU, memory, and storage
What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is generated? A. The interface ID is configured as a random 64-bit value B. The characters FE80 are inserted at the beginning of the MAC address of the interface C. The seventh bit of the original MAC address of the interface is inverted D. The MAC address of the interface is used as the interface ID without modification
C. The seventh bit of the original MAC address of the interface is inverted
In which situation is private IPv4 addressing appropriate for a new subnet on the network of an organization? A. The network has multiple endpoint listeners, and it is desired to limit the number of broadcasts. B. The ISP requires the new subnet to be advertised to the Internet for web services. C. There is limited unique address space, and traffic on the new subnet will stay local within the organization. D. Traffic on the subnet must traverse a site-to-site VPN to an outside organization.
C. There is limited unique address space, and traffic on the new subnet will stay local within the organization.
What is the same for both copper and fiber interfaces when using SFP modules? A. They support an inline optical attenuator to enhance signal strength B. They accommodate single-mode and multi-mode in a single module C. They provide minimal interruption to services by being hot-swappable D. They offer reliable bandwidth up to 100 Mbps in half duplex mode
C. They provide minimal interruption to services by being hot-swappable
What is a function of an endpoint on a network? A. provides wireless services to users in a building B. connects server and client device to a network C. allows users to record data and transmit to a file server D. forwards traffic between VLANs on a network
C. allows users to record data and transmit to a file server
Which type of IPv6 address is similar to a unicast address but is assigned to multiple devices on the same network at the same time? A. global unicast address B. link-local address C. anycast address D. multicast address
C. anycast address
