CDC B4N051 VOL 1

What directive discusses how reportable disease lists must be updated?

AFI 48-105.

What should you do if there are visitors present when you go to start an IV?

Ask them to step out of the room until the IV is in place.

(004) One of the most common and serious complications a female may develop from gonorrhea is a. pelvic inflammatory disease. b. irregular menstral cycles. c. vaginal discharge. d. Chlamydia.

a. pelvic inflammatory disease.

(021) A proctoscopy is an inspection of the a. rectum. b. sigmoid colon. c. ascending colon. d. transverse colon.

a. rectum.

(023) When asking the patient if he or she wears glasses, contact lenses or if he or she has ever had eye problems prior to conducting an Optec 2300 Vision Tester exam, the patient's responses will determine a. sequence of test performance. b. the patient's eligibility for care. c. if glasses are provided free of charge. d. how soon an appointment should be made.

a. sequence of test performance.

(004) A health care provider notifies Public Health of a suspected communicable disease by a. using the telephone or locally derived form. b. completing an Air Force (AF) Form 422, Physical Profile. c. paging a Public Health representative to report to the clinic. d. faxing a Standard Form (SF) 600, Chronological Record of Patient Care.

a. using the telephone or locally derived form

What action should you take if there are foreign material in a wound you are cleaning?

Flush out all the foreign material possible, but do not attempt to dig out any embedded particles.

How long must an examinee blow into the PFT machine before a tracing can be considered acceptable?

For at least five seconds, or until an obvious plateau in the volume-time curve has occurred.

What is the purpose of a glucose meter?

For diabetics to quickly obtain blood glucose levels.

When would a volumetric pump be used?

For intra-arterial infusions or deep central venous lines (cut-downs), for patients who have multiple IV lines and whose condition is such that they could roll onto or otherwise obstruct the line.

What does the term "asepsis" mean?

Freedom from infection (absence of all microorganisms), but only as applied to inanimate objectives.

Where do normal flora originate?

From exposure to various sources within our environment. They are usually found in a specific body area; they are considered normal flora for that area alone.

What causes infiltrations?

When the needle becomes dislodged or penetrates the vein wall and the IV solution flows into the tissues instead of through the vein.

Why should you avoid using pins, clips, or staples to secure sterile packages?

Such objects make holes in the wrapper that allow microorganisms to enter and they may cause the package to be too tightly wrapped.

Why are contaminated articles bagged before they are taken out of the isolation unit?

To prevent contamination of the general environment and other people.

Why are hyperalimentation solutions administered through central veins?

To prevent damage and irritation to the small vessels.

Why were standard precautions developed?

To prevent nosocomial infection.

For what reasons are gloves worn?

To provide a protective barrier and prevent gross contamination of the hands when touching blood, body fluids, secretions, excretions, mucous membranes, and non intact skin; to reduce the likelihood that microorganisms present on the hands will be transmitted to patients during invasive or other patient care procedures that involve touching a patient's mucous membranes and non intact skin; and to reduce the likelihood that hands contaminated with microorganisms from a patient or fomites can transmit these organisms to another patient.

What are the three types of anesthetic agents?

Topical, local infiltration, and digital blocks.

Usually, what are the qualifications of an infection control officer?

Usually a registered nurse with training and background in epidemiology, microbiology, statistics, and research methods.

(020) The normal fasting blood glucose level in milligrams/deciliter (mg/dl) is a. 40 to 100 mg/dl. b. 70 to 115 mg/dl. c. 90 to 150 mg/dl. d. 120 to 200 mg/d.

b. 70 to 115 mg/dl.

(017) To avoid infections, you should change a patient's hyperalimentation solution bag and tubing daily and not allow the container to hang longer than a. 4 hours. b. 8 hours. c. 16 hours. d. 24 hours.

b. 8 hours.

(026) When can the minor surgery procedure begin? a. When the provider says its time. b. After the consent form is signed. c. Once a set of vital signs are repeated. d. Only after housekeeping has cleaned the room.

b. After the consent form is signed.

(031) When performing an initial assessment on a patient and the patient responds by spontaneously opening his or her eyes or answers clearly, how would you assess the patient's mental status? a. Able. b. Alert. c. Ambulatory. d. Asymptomatic.

b. Alert

(005) Which substance is used to inhibit the growth and development of microorganisms on living tissue? a. Disinfectant. b. Antiseptic. c. Detergent. d. Antitoxin.

b. Antiseptic.

(027) After you have applied a topical anesthetic to a wound that requires treatment, what should you do next? a. Apply a sterile dressing. b. Assess sensory awareness. c. Begin suturing the wound. d. Soak the wound in cold water.

b. Assess sensory awareness.

(007) What is the temperature range of the sterilization cycle in a peracetic acid sterilizer? a. Between 112 and 121 degrees F. b. Between 122 and 131 degrees F. c. Between 215 and 230 degrees F. d. Between 270 and 285 degrees F.

b. Between 122 and 131 degrees F

(003) What should you do if the clothes you are wearing at work become contaminated? a. Change into clean clothes before leaving work and throw the clothes in the trash. b. Change into clean clothes, bag the dirty clothes and launder them in hot soapy water. c. Wipe off the affected area before leaving work and launder clothes in hot soapy water. d. Wipe off the affected area, change into clean clothes and throw dirty clothes in the trash.

b. Change into clean clothes, bag the dirty clothes and launder them in hot soapy water

(007) Which item may not be placed in a hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilizer? a. Plastic trays. b. Count sheets. c. Metal instruments. d. Nonmetal instruments.

b. Count sheets

(007) How often do you clean and inspect steam sterilizers? a. Daily. b. Daily and weekly. c. Daily and monthly. d. Weekly and monthly.

b. Daily and weekly.

(012) What symptoms may occur with blood pH alkalosis? a. Weak and malaise. b. Dizzy and agitated. c. Emotional and tired. d. Short of breath and confused.

b. Dizzy and agitated

(034) When preparing to unload a patient from an ambulance, what should you do first? a. Turn the oxygen off in the ambulance. b. Ensure all straps are secured on the patient. c. Make a list of supplies that need to be restocked. d. Place an emergency medical technician on either side of the stretcher as it is rolled out.

b. Ensure all straps are secured on the patient.

(027) When cleaning a two inch laceration on a healthy active duty male's right forearm, you notice some foreign material in the wound, what would be the next step? a. Begin suturing. b. Flush the wound. c. Dig out the debris with an allis clamp. d. Soak the wound in an antibiotic solution.

b. Flush the wound.

(012) Which ailment is not treated by vitamin K? a. Ulcerative colitis. b. Heparin overdose. c. Malabsorption syndromes. d. Prolonged use of salicylates.

b. Heparin overdose

(007) Which is not a commonly used disinfecting agent? a. Formaldehydes. b. Hydrochloric acid. c. Phenolics. d. Alcohol.

b. Hydrochloric acid.

(015) Which fluid imbalance is characterized by dry mucous membranes, weak and rapid pulse, orthostatic hypotension, and a low central venous pressure? a. Hypervolemia b. Hypovolemia c. Hyperkalemia d. Hypokelemia

b. Hypovolemia

(012) What substance does the body need in order to absorb vitamin B12? a. Gastric acid. b. Intrinsic factor. c. Hydrogen ions. d. Red blood cells.

b. Intrinsic factor.

(029) When transmitting information about a patient over the radio, what information should not be broadcast? a. Age. b. Name. c. Chief complaint. d. Medications and allergies.

b. Name.

(009) What two actions are included in the physiological need of rest? a. Rest and activity. b. Pain free and rest. c. Activity and pain free. d. Pain free and exercise.

b. Pain free and rest.

(036) Which acronym is used by emergency medical technicians (EMT) in the field to describe a possible fracture? a. Range of motion (ROM). b. Painful, swollen deformity (PSD). c. Purified protein derivative (PPD). d. Alert verbal painful unresponsive (AVPU).

b. Painful, swollen deformity (PSD).

(011) What controllable factor did Florence Nightingale link with health and the environment? a. Fitness. b. Pure water. c. Work site safety. d. Psychological wellness.

b. Pure water

(037) In what anatomical location is the pacemaker lead inserted when using a temporary external pulse generator system? a. Left atrium. b. Right atrium. c. Left ventricle. d. Right ventricle.

b. Right atrium.

(024) Where does the electrical stimulation of the heart muscle initiate? a. Spinal cord. b. Sinoatrial node. c. Atrioventricular node. d. Frontal lobe of the brain.

b. Sinoatrial node.

(019) Which urine test is done to determine the hydration level of the patient? a. Hematest. b. Specific gravity. c. Sugar and acetone. d. Clean catch mid stream.

b. Specific gravity

(012) Which of the following vitamins is not fat-soluble? a. Vitamin A. b. Vitamin C. c. Vitamin E. d. Vitamin K.

b. Vitamin C.

(012) When an excessive amount of fats are metabolized, it can be noted by a. excessive thirst and nocturia. b. acetone in the breath and urine. c. constant hunger despite calorie intake. d. severe vomiting resulting in weight loss.

b. acetone in the breath and urine.

(012) Electrolytes that release hydrogen ions in water are called a. salts. b. acids. c. catalyzed. d. synthesized.

b. acids.

(006) An acceptable alternative to an anteroom for an isolation unit is a. a storage cart. b. an isolation cart. c. the supply room. d. the nurse's station.

b. an isolation cart.

(013) Children who receive routine childhood immunizations are protected by a. artificially acquired passive immunity. b. artificially acquired active immunity. c. naturally acquired passive immunity. d. naturally acquired active immunity.

b. artificially acquired active immunity.

(012) Vitamin D interacts with all of the following except a. digitalis. b. calcium. c. mineral oil. d. thiazide diuretics.

b. calcium.

(012) Vitamin C can be found naturally in all of the following foods except a. citrus. b. cheese. c. broccoli. d. tomatoes.

b. cheese

(021) In the subjective information section of the paperwork, it is important to identify the patient's a. temperature. b. complaint of a headache. c. history of cardiac arrhythmias. d. physical deformity of the left leg.

b. complaint of a headache.

(012) Large doses of vitamin C cause all of the following except a. heartburn. b. constipation. c. kidney stones. d. abdominal cramps.

b. constipation.

(035) If you are treating a severely injured patient with a life-threatening problem, it may be appropriate to skip the a. initial patient assessment. b. detailed physical exam. c. initial physical exam. d. vital signs.

b. detailed physical exam

(013) The two main categories of leukocytes are a. agranulocytes and basophils. b. granulocytes and agranulocytes. c. neurtophils and granulocytes. d. monophils and lymphocytes.

b. granulocytes and agranulocytes.

(012) When administering potassium intravenously, you should a. give in a bolus. b. administer directly through a saline lock. c. mix the potassium thoroughly before administration. d. add the potassium to an IV solution bag that is already infusing.

c. mix the potassium thoroughly before administration

(012) A sign of vitamin A deficiency include a. myopia. b. presbyopia. c. night blindness. d. macular degeneration.

c. night blindness

(012) Clinical signs of B12 deficiency are first noted by a. aplastic anemia. b. hemolytic anemia. c. pernicious anemia. d. sickle cell anemia.

c. pernicious anemia.

(012) Complex carbohydrates are called a. bisaccharides. b. disaccharides. c. polysaccharides. d. monosaccharides.

c. polysaccharides

(012) A good source of protein is a. fruits. b. rice. c. poultry. d. vitamins.

c. poultry

(016) Deficiency in respirations such as slow or irregular shallow respirations can lead to an excessive accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood which results in a condition called a. metabolic acidosis. b. metabolic alkalosis. c. respiratory acidosis. d. respiratory alkalosis.

c. respiratory acidosis.

(013) Full maturation of a wound is evident when a. new capillaries form. b. the scar is deep red in color. c. the scaring is white and glossy. d. a scab completely covers the wound.

c. the scaring is white and glossy.

(013) The primary central gland of the lymphatic system is the a. parathyroid glands. b. pituitary gland. c. thymus gland. d. thyroid gland.

c. thymus gland

(034) If an individual walks in to a medical treatment facility (MTF) and asks for assistance bringing in a family member, you should ask a. if the patient can walk to determine if you need to call for help. b. how old the patient is to determine if you should call another clinic. c. what is wrong with the patient to determine the appropriate transfer device. d. if the patient is authorized care at your facility.

c. what is wrong with the patient to determine the appropriate transfer device

(013) The life span of lymphocytes is a. 12 hours. b. 2 weeks. c. years. d. days.

c. years.

(012) Oral iron supplements should not be taken with a. coffee, cranberry juice or water. b. orange or grapefruit juice. c. soda, water, or milk. d. tea, milk or coffee

d. tea, milk or coffee

(012) Signs of sodium chloride deficiency can be seen a. during a blood transfusion. b. as a result of not using table salt. c. when a individual is unable to sink in water. d. through an excessive amount of fluid loss.

d. through an excessive amount of fluid loss.

What is our normal body temperature?

98.6F

What are the three types of transmission-based precautions?

Airborne, droplet, and contact precautions.

What is the body's best natural barrier to infection?

Intact and unbroken skin.

Explain the difference between granulocytes and agranulocytes.

Granulocytes are leukocytes that have granular cytoplasm; agranulocytes are leukocytes that lack cytoplasmic granules.

Why should you not attempt to catch up if the infusion is behind schedule?

Such an action could cause a circulatory overload.

Describe the function of a hemostat and rake retractors.

Hemostat—used for clamping or occluding. Rake retractors—used for exposing or retracting.

What three health risk factors cannot be changed?

Heredity, gender, and age

What must you do to the predicted FEV1 and FVC values for non-caucasian examinees and why?

Multiply them by 0.85; to adjust for the lower (15 percent difference) predicted normals.

Where in the heart is the Purkinje fiber network most elaborate?

The left ventricle.

What are the signs of vitamin C deficiency?

Muscle weakness, cramping, lethargy, sore and bleeding gums in mouth, degenerative changes in bone and connective tissue.

Which leukocytes are the most active phagocytes?

Neutrophils and monocytes.

When conducting a patient interview, how is the "Objective" data determined?

"O"—Objective data is based on health care member's observations, physical examination and diagnostic tests.

What are the seven regions of major lymph node locations and their respective functions?

(1) Cervical, associated with the lymphatic vessel drains the skin of the scalp, face and the tissue of the nasal cavity and pharynx. (2) Axillary, drains lymph into the upper limbs, wall of the thorax, the mammary glands, and the upper wall of the abdomen. (3) Inguinal, receive lymph from the lower limbs, the external genitalia, and the lower abdominal wall. (4) Pelvic cavity, receive lymph from the lymphatic vessels of the pelvic viscera. (5) Abdominal cavity, primarily receive lymph from the abdominal viscera. (6) Thoracic cavity, receive lymph from the thoracic viscera and from the internal wall of the thorax. (7) Supratrochlear (peripheral), in children are often enlarged as a result of infections from cuts and scrapes of the hands.

What are the four disease processes mentioned in the text that can cause a fluid volume excess?

(1) Congestive heart failure. (2) Renal failure. (3) Cirrhosis. (4) Cushing's syndrome.

List the five stages of syphilis.

(1) Primary (2) Secondary (3) Latent (4) Late (5) Congenital.

What are the three types of wound closure treatments, and give a brief description of each?

(1) Primary, little tissue loss or damage, wound edges are approximated and leaving only a slight chance for infection. (2) Secondary, a wound that has tissue loss such as a pressure ulcer or severe laceration edges of the wound are not approximated and the wound is left completely open to close from the inside to the out with granulation tissue and then scar tissue. (3) Tertiary-intention healing, delayed closure because there is a delay in the suturing of a wound; wounds are sutured after the granulation tissue has begun to form.

What are common reasons for ordering a bland diet?

(1) Ulcers. (2) Some intestinal disorders. (3) Gallbladder disorders. (4) Postoperative abdominal surgery.

What is the max dosage of folic acid individuals are advised to take?

0.4 mg

What complications are associated with the IV therapy itself?

Alterations of the infusion rate, infiltration, phlebitis, infection, and embolism.

What ages are included in the adolescent stage?

12 to 20 years

What is the normal plasma pH?

7.34 to 7.45

During late childhood, how many words are children capable of understanding?

50,000.

What prevents the mixing of primary and secondary infusions when a piggyback setup is used?

A back-check valve on the primary tubing.

What is a catalyst?

A catalyst is a particular molecule that can change the rate of a reaction without itself being consumed.

What procedure should be performed if a PAP test is positive?

A cervical biopsy.

What is an electrolyte?

A chemical substance (ion), capable of carrying an electrical charge when it is in water.

A neurologic check is performed at regular intervals on patients who may have what condition(s)?

A head injury or neurological problem such as a seizure or complains of a neurological symptoms such as weakness, numbness or tingling in a particular area of the body.

What basic equipment is needed to initiate an IV?

A solution container, an administration set, and a needle.

Briefly describe the AIDS disease and the virus known to cause it.

Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is a group of symptoms that usually result from an infection caused by the retrovirus HIV.

If a solution has a high "pH," is it referred to as "acidic" or "alkaline"?

Alkaline

Where should you insert the needle in relation to the vein you are trying to penetrate?

About ½ inch below the planned entry site into the vein.

When and why are adhesive skin closures used?

Adhesive skin closures are used to approximate wound edges in areas with minimal tension on the wound (e.g., small wounds), to support wounds in which deeper structures are sutured, following suture removal to support wound edges, in tissues with poor circulation, to secure skin grafts, and in areas where cosmetic appearance is important.

Why is a clean-shaven face important to continued worldwide duty?

Air Force personnel must be able to wear protective equipment for prolonged intervals. The individual who cannot be assured of a tight gas mask fit, or whose skin will become irritated that he cannot function at full efficiency.

What causes embolisms?

Air bubbles or foreign particles (clots) in the vein.

Lymphocytes.

Agranulocytes

Extended life span from weeks to years.

Agranulocytes.

Monocytes.

Agranulocytes.

Hypersensitivity reaction is also known as what type of reaction?

Allergic reaction

What are the building blocks of proteins?

Amino Acids.

Stimulates the immune response without severe symptoms of the disease.

Artificially acquired active immunity

Immunity for a short time without stimulating the individual's immune response.

Artificially acquired passive immunity.

Received injection of gamma globulins containing antibodies.

Artificially acquired passive immunity.

What is a regional infection?

An infection that has spread to the lymph nodes.

What are the basic components of an administration set?

An insertion spike, drip chamber, plastic tubing, clamp, vent port, medication port, secondary port, and needle adapter.

What type of exercise involves taking in less oxygen than the body needs?

Anaerobic.

Define an artifact.

Any artificial product or features that appear on an ECG tracing.

Define arrhythmia.

Any variation from the normal electrical rate and/or sequence of cardiac activity.

How much can the prodromal period vary for different diseases?

Anywhere from a few hours to a few days.

What term is used to describe the pulling together of tissue before suturing?

Approximating.

What does a pulse oximeter measure?

Arterial hemoglobin oxygen saturation.

Exposure to a killed or weakened vaccine.

Artificially acquired active immunity

As a minimum, how often should biological testing be conducted on a peracetic acid sterilizer?

At least weekly

When cleaning equipment, what things should you do to prevent self-contamination?

Avoid splashing, wear gloves, eye protection, and adhere to locally required protection.

What is the average rate of reproduction for bacterial cells?

Bacterial cells divide every 30 to 120 minutes.

What should you do with disposable equipment when it becomes contaminated?

Bag, label, and dispose of it according to local policy.

What are three important things you should keep in mind when conversing with a patient in regard to personal concerns?

Be a good listener and demonstrate a genuine concern, do not offer advice or solutions on matters that only the provider should address, refer the patient's concerns to the nurse or provider in a timely manner.

What is the normal rate for a KVO IV?

Between 10 and 50 cc/hour, with the amount infused at less than 500 cc.

When performing venipuncture, how is the needle inserted?

Bevel up, at a 45 degree angle into the vein.

What are some of the side effects of iron supplements?

Black stools, constipation or diarrhea, and nausea and vomiting.

What is vitamin K necessary for?

Blood clotting

What is alkalosis?

Blood pH in the range of 7.5 to 7.8 is called alkalosis, making one feel agitated and dizzy.

What is consensual reflex?

Both eyes' neurological functions are working together and can be seen when both pupils react and become smaller when light stimulates either eye (one eye at a time).

For what purpose is ionizing radiation primarily used?

Bulk sterilization of commercial products.

How does a physician notify Public Health of a reportable disease?

By phone or locally derived form.

What should you always do before opening a sterilizer door?

Check the chamber pressure

What triggers the body's need for more calcium intake, and what elements are needed to aid in its absorption to fulfill the need?

Calcium absorption is based on the body's need for the mineral. Vitamin C needs the help of vitamin D and proteins to promote the calcium absorption.

Which electrolyte in excessive amounts can cause fractures?

Calcium.

How do carriers differ from individuals who actually develop an infectious disease?

Carriers are asymptomatic.

List the components of the chain of infection.

Causative agent, reservoir, portal of exit, mode of transfer, portal of entry, and susceptible host.

What is another term used for medical asepsis?

Clean technique.

What general tasks are included in the sterilization process?

Cleaning, disinfecting, wrapping, and sterilizing.

What type of relationship develops when a host is exposed repeatedly to a pathogen, but is never successful in eliminating it?

Commensalism.

Where is the concentration of potassium found?

Concentrated inside cells.

What are the symptoms associated with a sodium deficit?

Confusion, weakness, restlessness, hyperthermia (elevated body temperature), tachycardia, muscle twitching, and abdominal cramping. In severe cases, convulsions and coma can be the complications.

What information should be included on the label?

Contents of the package; preparer's initials; designation for the receiving unit; a sterilization control number that usually consists of the sterilizer number, load number, and Julian date of sterilization. Depending on the local policy on shelf life, the label may also include an expiration date.

What are the indications of a circulatory overload?

Cyanosis, dyspnea, coughing, blood-tinged sputum, edema, distended neck veins, weight gain, decreased urinary output, weak rapid pulse, and rapid shallow respirations.

What are the substances that release ions in the water called?

Electrolytes.

List three sources of protein.

Dairy products, meat, fish, poultry, eggs, cereals, some vegetables, and nuts

Explain debridement.

Debridement is the actual removal of foreign particles and mutilated or dead tissue from the wound and surrounding area. It is necessary to prevent contamination and promote wound healing. Debridement is usually accomplished by the physician or under the direct supervision of the physician. The procedure itself is sterile. The wound is draped, and sterile gloves and sterile techniques are used. Following debridement, the wound is irrigated again to remove any small particles and inspected by the physician in preparation for closure.

What is the primary function of washer-sterilizers?

Decontaminate/terminally sterilize used patient care items.

What are the three distinguishable waves of an ECG called?

Deflection waves.

On what areas of the body would you refrain from using an anesthetic with Epinephrine?

Digits (fingers and toes), the nose, ear or penis and most flaps of skin.

When applying ECG limb leads on the fleshy portion of an extremity, where should the electrodes not lie?

Directly on a bone.

What is the difference between disinfectants and antiseptics?

Disinfectants are designed to destroy pathogenic organisms and usually are used on inanimate objects. Antiseptics are designed to inhibit the growth of microorganisms on living tissue, but do not necessarily kill them.

What procedure is designed to destroy pathogens, but usually does not affect spores?

Disinfecting.

What precaution should you take when applying tape to a dressing?

Do not wrap the tape completely around the arm.

List at least four responsibilities of the medical technician when in pre- and post-procedures.

Don a gown if it is required; position the patient and prepare the patient's body area affected by the procedure by cleaning and irrigating as required; set up required sterile fields. Make sure you also get the patient's vital signs. Assist the provider during the procedure and in dressing the wound after surgery, if required, and dispose of all sharps into the designated biohazard container. Repeat the patient's vital signs, and then assist the patient in sitting up and getting down from exam/procedure table. Be available to assist the patient in getting dressed as necessary, and then escort the patient to the waiting room if required. Ensure the patient has wound care instructions, and make any follow-up appointment as necessary. Once this is completed, clean and restock the procedure room so it will be ready for the next procedure.

What should you do before you begin actual contact procedures with the patient?

Don gloves.

What should you inform the patient about before performing tympanometry?

Explain the procedure and what the patient can expect to see and hear. Also realize some of the sounds may be loud or startling, so they should do their best to remain relaxed. Advise the patient to sit quietly, avoid speaking or swallowing during the test as it can change the pressure of the middle ear and invalidate the results. Since this can be a challenge with young children, ask the parent to assist you in keeping the child quiet and still while the test is being run.

What is the minimum number of times ROM exercises should be performed?

Each exercise should be performed a minimum of 3-5 times, either actively or passively; usually twice per day, or more if tolerated.

What is an endoscopic examination?

Endoscopic examination is the inspection of a body cavity or hollow organ by means of a lighted instrument.

What does it mean to phagocyte?

Engulf.

What are ametropias?

Errors in the eye's ability to focus light on the retina when the eye is at rest.

What are the two most useful purposes of a PFT?

Evaluating losses in respiratory function and following the course of certain respiratory diseases.

What is the most common lipid?

Fats.

What is the body's attempt to fight an infection by self-inducing a hyperthermic response?

Fever.

List three examples of semicritical items.

Fiber-optic endoscopes, endotracheal tubes, and cystoscopes.

For what purpose is low-level disinfection useful?

General cleaning.

What should infectious patients wear when they are being transported through the hospital?

Gown, mask, and gloves.

Basophils

Granulocytes

Eosinophils.

Granulocytes

Neutrophils.

Granulocytes

Short life span of 12 hours.

Granulocytes

At what blood alcohol level is a person usually considered to be intoxicated?

Greater than 100 mg/dL.

What are two ways to test upper extremity strength?

Have the patient squeeze your fingers (index and middle fingers) with both hands (ensure you have your fingers crossed or it may hurt!), push his or her feet against your hands and have them hold his or her arms straight in front and push down on your hands and then resist as you push down on his or her outstretched forearms.

What type of community health program is designed to assess health status and provide services that assist in maintaining a healthy lifestyle?

Health and wellness programs

When using the appropriate nomogram to determine predicted values, what two factors must be known?

Height and age.

What are the functions of water?

Helps with the transportation of chemicals within the body. Blood plasma is made up of 90%-95% water, enabling vital substances to be transported throughout the body. Substances carried by the blood are sugars, salts, vitamins, and, of course, oxygen. Don't forget the blood also transports the waste products of carbon dioxide, and urea out to the lungs and kidneys, respectively. It is also a major component of body fluids where most biochemical reactions occur, helps to regulate body temperature.

What special test is used to detect occult blood in the urine?

Hematest.

What condition should be treated with blood volume expanders?

Hemorrhagic shock and other forms of shock characterized by an excessive plasma loss.

How do you start the first suture?

Hold the instrument in your dominant hand, perpendicular to and above the point you want to pass the needle through. Pass the suture material through the epidermal and dermal layers of the skin.

Under what conditions can a roommate be placed with an isolation patient?

If both patients have the same disorder and are the same gender. A patient with an infectious disease may sometimes be placed with a patient without an infectious disease if they are both cooperative, understand the infectious process, and have been taught how to use the isolation techniques.

What virus is responsible for most warts?

Human papillomavirus or (HPV).

What controls the functions to regulate the body temperature?

Hypothalamus.

What term is used to define a fluid volume deficit?

Hypovolemia

Where are medications usually added to the IV container?

In the pharmacy or nursing unit.

What factors determine whether you should immobilize an IV?

If it is in a precarious position, near a joint, or if the patient is fairly active.

Before administering the PFT, what information must you find out from the patient that may have an effect on the test?

If the patient has smoked or administered a bronchodilator within the past hour, eaten a meal within the past two hours, or is acutely ill or has experienced an upper or lower respiratory tract infection during the past three weeks.

What are the stages of an infectious disease?

Incubation, prodromal, illness, and convalescence.

Describe indirect contact

Indirect contact is touching contaminated objects such as forks, spoons, coffee cups, and medical equipment.

During what stage of life does the development of stable sleep patterns occur?

Infant.

Capillaries are formed.

Inflammation

Epithelial cells migrate to form a scab.

Inflammation

Limits the spread of infection.

Inflammation

Neutralizes and destroys harmful agents.

Inflammation

Define hepatitis.

Inflammation of the liver that can be caused by bacteria, viruses, protozoa, helminths, chemicals, or drugs.

What is meningitis, and what is the most serious type?

Inflammation of the meninges covering of the brain and/or spinal cord; bacterial meningitis.

Explain the progression of the electrical impulse through the heart.

Initiating in the SA node, the electrical impulse passes through the AV node down the Bundle of His to the left and right bundle branches, and then through the Purkinje fibers which terminate in the ventricular walls.

How do you "prime" the administration set?

Insert the spike into the appropriate opening and allow a small amount of solution to flow through the tubing to eliminate air bubbles.

What type of needle is most commonly used when the possibility of extravasation is possible?

Inside-the-needle catheters.

What are two possible treatments for postural/orthostatic hypotension?

Intravenous therapy, or blood transfusion therapy.

What is the body deprived of without vitamin C?

Iron

Briefly describe ultrasonic cleaning.

It cleans by passing ultrasonic waves through a fluid. This produces submicroscopic bubbles, which collapse and pull dirt from objects by suction.

When performing a skin puncture, why is the first drop of blood wiped away?

It contains epithelial cells that may interfere with test results.

What are NPSG used for?

It reliably identifies the individual and matches the service or treatment to that individual.

What are the signs of post traumatic stress disorder?

Recurrent and intrusive recollections of the injury, dreams of the event; feeling of being wounded again, psychological distress when the memory of the accident/incident is triggered.

For sterilization purposes, what type of patient use items are classified as semicritical?

Items that come into contact with intact mucous membranes, but do not penetrate body surfaces.

What are the technician's duties when a tissue sample is taken and must be processed by pathology?

Label specimen, log it into AHLTA and or log into a hardcopy book, and transport the specimen to pathology.

What kind of light rays does a constricted pupil allow to enter the eye?

Light rays going relatively straight to the eye.

What factors determine the cleaning method to be used for equipment?

Local policy, type of object to be cleaned, and amount and type of organic material on the object.

Which need is satisfied when people are able to establish and maintain meaningful relationships?

Love and belonging

What is the third level of needs on Maslow's Hierarchy?

Love and belonging.

Which type of lipoprotein has characteristics of having relatively high concentrations of cholesterol?

Low-density lipoprotein (LDL).

State the purposes of ROM exercises.

Maintain or increase muscle strength and endurance, as well as to maintain cardiorespiratory status in a patient who is immobilized.

Final stage of healing.

Maturation

Healing stage lasts up to two years.

Maturation

Scar has a whit and glossy appearance.

Maturation

Why should patients without a confirmed Vitamin B12 deficiency avoid taking large doses of it?

May mask symptoms of folic acid deficiency or cause complications in patients with cardiac or gout conditions

What are the four methods used to monitor and control the sterilization process of a hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilizer?

Message screen, status indicator lights, paper printout, beeps

What type of acid-base imbalance occurs in the metabolism of food or fluids and is usually associated with insulin deficiency?

Metabolic acidosis.

Excessive gastric suctioning that removes too much hydrochloric acid can result in what type of acid-base imbalance?

Metabolic alkalosis

During what stage of life do people often look back at the goals they have accomplished so far?

Middle adult

Minerals are usually extracted from what source?

Minerals are usually extracted from the soil by plants, and we in turn obtain them from the plant food sources or from the animal source that have eaten the plants.

What are the four main categories of drugs often abused?

Narcotics, sedatives, central nervous system stimulants, and hallucinogens.

What are the general categories of suture material?

Natural or synthetic and absorbable or nonabsorbable.

Directly exposed to whooping cough.

Naturally acquired active immunity.

Symptoms of the disease stimulate the individual immune response.

Naturally acquired active immunity.

Received antibodies through placental barrier.

Naturally acquired passive immunity.

Short-term immunity for an infant without stimulating the immune response.

Naturally acquired passive immunity.

List all equipment needed to perform venipuncture.

Needle (20 gauge or larger), syringe (size depends on amount of blood needed), antiseptic, 2x2 gauze sponges, vacutainer and vacutainer needle (if using vacutainer system), test tubes with proper color for tests ordered by the physician, tourniquet, and nonsterile gloves.

What should you do with an isolation patient's food tray?

No special precautions are needed; hospital dishwashers are capable of decontaminating dishes.

How high should the IV container be positioned?

Normally between 24 and 36 inches above the patient.

Describe droplet transmission.

Occurs when infectious agents are transmitted through the air short distances (less than 3 feet) by a person coughing, sneezing, or talking.

How should items be loaded in a steam sterilizer?

On their sides.

In what stage do helminthes normally enter the human host?

One of the larval stages.

According to Maslow's "Hierarchy of Needs" theory, in what category would the ability to breath without problems be located?

Physiological.

What kind of information and assistance does the CDC provide military hospitals?

Outlines how infection control programs should be developed and operated, assists in solving infection problems, analyzes infection survey data, and investigates the outbreak of serious infections and diseases. The CDC also researches and publishes guidelines on a variety of infection control topics.

What is a primary concern when administering potassium intravenously, and how can it be prevented?

Pain at the injection site or phlebitis may occur; potassium should always be run at a slow rate, mixing potassium in an IV solution it must be mixed thoroughly by inverting and agitating the bag before the solution is hung for administration.

What type of pathogen uses parts of the host's tissues as nutrients?

Parasitic, or infectious agents that act parasitic.

What are four methods to treat warts?

Paring down verrucae, cryotherapy, curettage, and topical chemotherapy.

Patients treated for what specific disease are advised not to take B6 supplements?

Parkinson's

What are three types of disinfection?

Pasteurization, exposure to chemical germicides, and ultraviolet irradiation.

What type of disinfection is done by placing small items in boiling water for a specified period of time?

Pasteurization.

What is your responsibility in the pseudofolliculitis barbae clinic?

Patient education; convince them that their previous shaving program is a failure, and that you can help them.

List several examples of specific clinics or treatments that may use care extender protocols.

Patient follow up appointments in wound care, suture removal, wart treatment, throat culture and pseudofolliculitis barbae (PFB) clinics.

What type of patients should receive parenteral hyperalimentation?

Patients who have a gastrointestinal disorder.

What is the most common/serious complication of gonorrheal infections in women?

Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID).

What are some disadvantages of the peracetic acid sterilizer?

Peracetic acid must penetrate or directly contact all surfaces of items being sterilized, in order for peracetic acid to effectively sterilize, all items must be thoroughly clean and free of grease and oil, cannot be used for long-term storage, this process is designed for "just-in-time" sterilization, you cannot sterilize items that cannot be submersed in liquid, you must avoid contact with the skin because peracetic acid is corrosive and may cause skin irritation.

What does the symbol "pH" refer to?

Percentage of hydrogen ions (atoms) present in a solution

In what phase of the PFB program is medical assistance no longer needed?

Phase III.

What are the three basic methods of sterilization?

Physical sterilization, chemical sterilization, and ionizing radiation.

Describe how to reduce the risk of spreading infectious agents by the "airborne" route.

Place patient in a private room that has monitored negative air pressure; the door is kept closed and wear protective respiratory equipment (such as a mask).

What lipids are found in blood plasma?

Plasma lipids include triglycerides, phospholipids, and cholesterol.

What are the eight signs and symptoms of fluid volume deficit?

Poor skin turgor, concentrated urine which will result in a high specific gravity, oliguria, dry mucous membranes, weak and rapid pulse, orthostatic hypotension, a low central venous pressure (below four cm of H20), confusion, and restlessness.

What electrolyte deficit and excess can cause dysrhythmias leading to cardiac or respiratory arrest?

Potassium.

What are the three steps to proper shaving technique taught to the PFB patient?

Preparation of the face, the shave, and the finish.

What type of instrument should you use to label a sterile package?

Preprinted indicator tape, or use an indelible-ink, felt-tipped marker to write the information on the "external chemical indicator" tape.

What are the key components that the UP is built on?

Preprocedure verification, site marking, and preprocedure time out.

Which type of sterilization includes gravity displacement sterilizers, prevacuum sterilizers, and washer-sterilizers?

Pressurized steam sterilization.

What is the purpose of isolation precautions?

Prevent the spread of microorganisms among staff, patients, and visitors.

What is pseudofolliculitis barbae?

Pseudofolliculitis barbae (shaving bumps) is an inflammatory condition of facial skin that develops around ingrown hair fragments resulting when curved hair is closely cut.

What enables the amoebae to propel itself and ingest food particles?

Pseudopods.

According to Florence Nightingale's theory, what are the controllable environmental factors medics should be concerned about?

Pure or fresh air; pure water; efficient drainage; cleanliness; light (especially direct sunlight).

When should you put on and take off a mask?

Put it on before you enter the room and take it off before you leave.

Define self-actualization.

Reaching one's full potential

Collagen is formed.

Reconstruction

Granulation tissue is formed.

Reconstruction

Healing process takes from four days up to three weeks.

Reconstruction

What are three reasons non medical individuals contaminate themselves when attempting to deal with isolation?

Refusal to believe that they can be contaminated, so they ignore the precautions; lack of understanding what they are supposed to do and they become contaminated without knowing it; individuals who are illiterate or don't read English and become infected due to their inability to understand the caution signs posted on isolation room doors.

An increase in carbonic acid in the body fluids associated with difficulty breathing can result in what type of acid-base balance?

Respiratory acidosis.

What type of acid-base imbalance is associated with a patient hyperventilating?

Respiratory alkalosis

What are the normal exit portals for infectious agents?

Respiratory tract, gastrointestinal tract, skin and mucus membranes.

What type of organism causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever?

Rickettsiae.

Regarding vision, what is the difference between rods and cones?

Rods do not provide images as sharp as cones.

Define routine and terminal cleaning.

Routine cleaning is general cleaning that's done every day and usually is performed the same as in other areas of the hospital; terminal cleaning is directed primarily toward objects the patient has actually had contact with.

What kind of format is used to document an interview with a patient?

SOAPP.

What does the EPA classify chemical disinfectant solutions as?

Sporicides, general disinfectants, hospital disinfectants, sanitizers.

Shelter is a consideration that falls into which need category?

Safety and security

If you find calculi when straining urine, what should you do?

Save it and send it to the laboratory for analysis.

What can happen if staples or sutures are left in place too long?

Scarring and infection.

What need relates to how others feel about you?

Self-esteem

What are some of the general patient skills 4N0s perform?

Set-up minor surgery, set-up/maintain sterile field, perform height and weight, record temperature, assess pain scale, perform and label venipuncture, assess APGAR score, obtain body measurements, perform immunizations, collect and label emesis, urine, stool samples, assess respiratory rate, and perform intake and output measurements.

What are some of the feelings patients may share in response to illness or injury?

Shock and disorientation, fear and anxiety, depression, guilt, post traumatic stress disorder

What are the signs and symptoms associated with a sodium excess?

Signs and symptoms similar to dehydration including: thirst, dry sticky mucus membranes, oliguria (scanty urine output), hyperthermia, dry tongue, and lethargy. If untreated, may lead to coma.

What physical characteristics of bacteria are used to determine their classification?

Size, shape, and attachments.

Intoxication dramatically affects the central nervous system. What signs make this evident?

Slurred speech, lack of coordination, impaired sensory capability (especially vision), and behavioral changes.

How do sodium and chloride maintain homeostasis of the body?

Sodium chloride helps to maintain the electrolyte balance and regulate the ph level through the concentration of extracellular fluids in the body's cells.

List three useful functions of fungi.

Some are edible, others are involved in fermentation of breads and alcoholic beverages, and still others are used to produce antibiotics.

What test is used to determine the hydration level of the patient?

Specific gravity.

What are the three basic bacterial shapes?

Spherical, rod-shaped, and spiral shaped.

What are the two recommended tiers of isolation precautions developed by the Centers for Disease Control?

Standard precautions and transmission-based precautions.

Why should you avoid adding extra supplies or equipment to a sterile pack?

Sterile packs are designed for one-time use. Adding materials is a waste of time and space.

What is another term use for surgical asepsis?

Sterile technique.

What is the difference between the gravity displacement sterilizer and the prevacuum steam sterilizer?

Sterilization cycle.

What is the method of choice for chemical disinfection?

Sterilization.

What are antibodies?

Substances created in the body to attack specific foreign substances called antigens.

Which lymphocyte is responsible for producing the biochemical cytokine, and what is the cytokine used for?

T lymphocytes (T-cells) produce cytokine, which is a protein necessary for proper cell reproduction and division and is directly liked to the immune responses.

A washer sterilizer cycle should only be used for what type of sterilization?

Terminal.

Who ensures civilian agencies are notified of reportable diseases?

The Public Health (PH) Office.

What is the smallest known microorganism?

The Virus.

Explain how to prepare a patient for a sigmoidoscopy.

The bowel must be empty, so the patient is given a cathartic, enema, or both the night before the procedure.

What unique quality does the cell wall of the protozoa possess and what does it allow the cell to do?

The cell wall is flexible and allows the cell to form a variety of shapes.

What additional precautions should be taken with cleaning equipment if the patient's condition requires a private room?

The cleaning equipment should be disinfected with an approved solution before going on to another room. If cleaning cloths and mop heads are grossly contaminated, bag and label them appropriately before sending them to be laundered.

What information should be documented after the IV is initiated?

The date and time, location of site, type and size of needle, type of solution, rate of infusion, and any special equipment (EID) or tubing that was used.

Define visual acuity.

The eye's ability to distinguish an object's shape and details.

Why do patients undergoing a colonoscopy normally require a sedative?

The fiberoptic scope is inserted into the large intestine and most patients would not be able to tolerate the discomfort without sedation.

What condition may complicate phlebitis?

The formation of a clot along the vein.

What area of the retina is responsible for the best vision?

The fovea centralis.

What role does the lymphatic system play in the body's disease defense system?

The lymphatic system contains special nodes and glands which produce large leukocytes, called lymphocytes, which engulf and destroy invading pathogens. Also, the lymphatic system transports pathogens to regional lymph nodes where they are trapped and destroyed, before they can enter the bloodstream.

What three veins are preferred for IV sites in the hand and arm?

The metacarpal, cephalic, and basilic veins.

How do mucous membranes defend against infection?

The moist surfaces of the membranes in the nose, throat, respiratory and genitourinary trap microorganisms. This is enhanced in some areas, as in the nose and trachea, by hair or cilia growing out of the membranes that help filter and trap foreign matter. Also, the mucous membranes are highly vascular enabling white blood cells to be rapidly supplied to the area of pathogen invasion. They may also harbor normal flora that combat pathogens.

Explain the environmental control program.

The monitoring and/or eliminating of various environmental hazards. Specifically, contaminants that can have an adverse effect on air, food, or water are concerns that are addressed in an environmental control program.

Where should you start an IV if it will be in place for a long time?

The most distal vein possible to preserve other sites for future use.

Why is a private room the most effective type of isolation unit?

The patient is physically separated from other people and personnel are more likely to remember to wash their hands before going on to other patients.

To whom must the medical provider recommend the patient be permitted to grow facial hair up to ¼-inch long?

The patient's commander.

What factors determine the type of intravenous solution used?

The patient's condition, fluid and electrolyte balance, and purpose for the IV.

What are the two standard identifiers associated with the NPSG?

The patient's full name and date of birth.

What is the most common position for a patient having a pelvic exam?

The position most commonly used is the lithotomy position.

By measuring the various waves, complexes, interval, and electrical voltage, what can a trained person determine from an ECG?

The rate, rhythm, and axis of the heart, along with any evidence of myocardial hypertrophy or infarction.

What are the primary factors affecting visual acuity?

The region of the retina stimulated, illumination, spectral quality of light, contrast, pupil size, time of exposure, patient's age, condition of the ocular media, presence of ametropias, and individual variations.

What is tonicity?

The relative concentration of dissolved substances in a solution as compared to the solution concentration within the red blood cells (RBC).

Define "biopsies."

The removal and examination, usually microscopic, of tissue or fluid from the living body to establish a precise diagnosis.

What initiates electrical impulses in the heart?

The sinoatrial (SA) node.

How is suture size determined?

The smaller the number; the larger the suture's diameter.

What are the disadvantages of formaldehydes?

The solution is irritating to the skin, eyes, and mucous membranes; gloves and face protection must be worn when using it. Instruments must be thoroughly rinsed in sterile water after disinfection, and items that may absorb the solution should not be disinfected in formaldehyde. The fumes are highly toxic and prolonged inhalation must be avoided. In fact, the fumes are so toxic that formaldehyde is not suitable for housekeeping use.

What information should be included on the medication label placed on the side of the bottle/bag?

The start time, stop time, and hourly intervals.

What factors should you consider when selecting an IV injection site?

The type of solution, rate of infusion, age and condition of the patient, condition of the veins, duration of the therapy, and type of equipment used.

What is the most common type of knife used during minor surgeries?

The type with detachable blades.

Which organ is considered the primary central gland of the lymphatic system?

Thymus

Explain autoimmunity.

The virus "borrows" proteins from the body's cells during replication and incorporates them into the virus cell and gives the body cell some of the viral proteins. When the immune system identifies the virus to destroy it, it also recognizes the virus proteins in the body's cell and miss identifies the body cell as a viral cell that should be destroyed.

Define anatomical dead space.

The volume of the conducting respiratory passageways (area in and around the nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, and bronchial tree) which fills with inspired air, but never contributes to gas exchange in the alveoli.

What characteristics should wrapping material for sterile packs have?

The wrapper must be constructed so that it allows the sterilizing agent to enter and leave, but does not allow microorganisms or dust particles to enter. It must be durable enough to withstand conditions in the sterilizer and in storage, and it must provide physical protection for delicate items. The wrapper must also be flexible enough to adapt to the shape of the object and allow the package to be opened without contaminating the contents. Finally, the wrapper must be cost-effective.

Why do medical staff members violate isolation principles?

They are in a hurry and try to take shortcuts; they don't understand how to follow the precautions; the think the precautions don't apply to them.

How is the solution that is used for terminal cleaning selected?

They are selected by the local infection control committee according to EPA standards.

What are two ways that a causative agent may cause disease?

They destroy surrounding tissue or produce toxins (poisons).

Why is it sometimes difficult to initiate an IV on elderly patients?

They have fragile veins that collapse when punctured with a needle.

How do masks protect the wearer?

They prevent inhalation of large droplets and small droplet nuclei. They might also prevent personnel from touching their mucous membranes and contaminating themselves.

What are disadvantages of steam sterilizers?

They produce great amounts of heat and cannot be used for delicate items made of plastics and rubber.

Explain the function of local poison control centers.

They provide the health care personnel with up-to-date information and treatment guidelines for all types of drug abuse situations.

How do tears defend against infection?

They wash away dirt, debris, and microorganisms that could cause infection.

How would you make a neurological assessment of a patient's mental orientation?

This is generally completed by asking the patient to state his or her full name; the month, day or year; name the current President or a relevant question the patient should be able to answer. Keep the patient's age in mind when doing this. A 3 year old probably won't be able to tell you who the president is, but can probably point to or name an appropriate toy or parent.

How tight should you make the tourniquet?

Tight enough to obstruct the venous flow, but not the arterial flow.

Stool samples are obtained for what reasons?

To check for occult blood, parasites, fat, and other abnormalities.

Describe the primary purpose of having housekeeping duties?

To control the spread of infection.

What is the purpose of a physical examination?

To determine the patient's state of health and detect any physical or mental deficiencies that may impact job performance. It is also a good opportunity to educate patients on ways to improve health behaviors and live healthier lifestyles to maintain a physically fit force, capable of performing at the highest possible level.

What is the purpose of a tourniquet when performing venipuncture?

To distend the veins and allow you to visualize and palpate the vein.

What type of pulmonary disorder is frequently discovered through sputum collection?

Tuberculosis.

How many types of processing trays are there for the parectic acid sterilizer?

Two Types

How long is pressure maintained over a venipuncture site?

Two to three minutes.

When monitoring the sterilization cycle, what are some problems to look for?

Unsaturated (superheated) steam, wet (over-saturated) steam, incomplete air removal from the chamber, automatic timer failure and other mechanical failures.

Which wrapping method is used for most packages?

Use the diagonal method or straight method to double wrap the package to create multiple layers.

What does the QRS complex result from?

Ventricular depolarization.

List the six basic tasks you must accomplish before performing a procedure?

Verify the provider order, gather all of your equipment, identify the patient, explain the procedure to the patient, use proper body substance isolation (BSI) precautions with personal protective equipment (PPE), and always provide privacy.

What is the most common type of meningitis?

Viral meningitis.

When are variable pressure volumetric pumps used?

When patients require critical volume or critical medication.

When is it important to use masks, goggles, or face shields?

When splattering or splashing of blood or body fluids is possible.

Which of the four respiratory capacities represents the total amount of exchangeable air?

Vital capacity (VC).

What vitamins are necessary for RBC production?

Vitamin B12 and folic acid are the B-complex vitamins necessary the production of RBCs

Which vitamins cannot be stored by the body and must be ingested daily?

Vitamins B and C.

What are the two major components of nutrients?

Vitamins and minerals

What special precaution must you take when using ultraviolet irradiation?

Wear protective garments such as gowns, gloves, and protective glasses when using this process to prevent injury.

When does a steam sterilizer begin timing the actual sterilization cycle?

When all the air is removed and the heat reaches a preset point.

When should you report a pulse oximetry reading immediately?

When the reading is below 97 or the patient appears to be in any respiratory or circulatory distress.

If droplet precautions are in effect, when should you wear a mask?

When working within 3 feet of the patient.

Which cells is the first line of defense to fight diseases?

White blood cells

What are the three basic types of intravenous needles?

Wing-tipped needle, over-the-needle catheters, and inside-the-needle catheters.

What type of needle is commonly used to initiate an IV in the scalp of a pediatric patient?

Wing-tipped needle.

When unloading the sterilizer, you must first check to make sure the chemical strips have changed to what color?

Yellow

(034) What are your responsibilities as an emergency medical technician (EMT) at the scene of a hazmat incident? a. Caring for the injured and monitor and rehabilitating the hazmat team members. b. Determining wind flow and type of chemical involved. c. Putting out the fire and gaining access to the patient. d. Stabilizing the incident as fast as possible.

a. Caring for the injured and monitor and rehabilitating the hazmat team members

(007) What is the first step in preparing objects for sterilization? a. Cleaning. b. Disinfection. c. Pasteurization. d. Decontamination.

a. Cleaning.

(028) In the Air Force, how often should you check emergency equipment and supplies in the crash ambulance? a. Daily. b. Weekly. c. Bimonthly. d. Monthly.

a. Daily.

At what stage of life does physical deterioration start?

Young adult, after age 30.

(035) In minutes, what is the recommended interval for reassessment of an unstable patient? a. 5. b. 10. c. 15. d. 20.

a. 5

(028) When performing a crash cart check, what should you do after ensuring the defibrillator or cardiac monitor operate? a. Annotate date and time on a rhythm strip. b. Remove paddles and release joules. c. Make a list of expired medications. d. Remove the battery and recharge.

a. Annotate date and time on a rhythm strip

(034) Which device is commonly used for patient transfers in wartime and disaster situations? a. Army field litter. b. Long backboard. c. Scoop stretcher. d. Stoke's basket.

a. Army field litter

(024) What term is used to describe any variance in the normal electrical rate or sequence of cardiac activities discovered on electrocardiogram tracings? a. Arrythmia. b. Cardiac arrest. c. Depolarization. d. Atrial excitation.

a. Arrythmia

(011) Which of the following is most likely to be a part of a work site wellness program? a. Blood pressure screenings. b. Assessing current fitness status. c. Establishing guidelines for disposal of contaminants. d. Providing services designed to maintain a healthy lifestyle.

a. Blood pressure screenings.

(002) Which infectious agent includes two structural categories known as yeasts and molds? a. Fungi. b. Virus. c. Bacteria. d. Chlamydiae.

a. Fungi

(014) Which signs or symptoms of nervous system impairment would you look for in an intoxicated patient? a. Impaired vision, uncoordinated movement, behavioral changes. b. Uncoordinated movement, loud voice, sweet smelling breath. c. Muscle tremors, behavior changes, rapid pulse rate. d. Loud voice, difficulty breathing, muscle tremors.

a. Impaired vision, uncoordinated movement, behavioral changes

(012) Which route is injectable iron administered? a. Intra muscular. b. Intra venous. c. Transdermal. d. Z-track.

a. Intra muscular.

(009) What substance is necessary for hemoglobin synthesis? a. Iron. b. Soy. c. Niacin. d. Calcium.

a. Iron.

(025) For orthostatic vital sign measurements, what is the correct sequence to take the blood pressure and pulse; and what is the correct time interval between readings? a. Lying, sitting, standing; 3 minutes. b. Lying, sitting, standing; 5 minutes. c. Standing, sitting, lying; 3 minutes. d. Standing, sitting, lying; 5 minutes.

a. Lying, sitting, standing; 3 minutes.

(013) What cells do lymph nodes contain in large number to fight invading microorganisms? a. Lymphocytes and macrophages. b. Polyleukocytes and monocytes. c. Monocytes and phagocytes. d. Neutrophils and leukocytes.

a. Lymphocytes and macrophages.

(010) Which is a characteristic of late adulthood? a. Muscle atrophy. b. Caring for elderly parents. c. Increased cellular oxygen content. d. Calcium loss in females is first noticed.

a. Muscle atrophy

(036) Which classifications of fracture are considered more serious because greater blood loss or contamination is possible? a. Open. b. Closed. c. Internal fixation. d. External fixation.

a. Open

(008) What are the standard identifiers associated with the National Patient Safety Guidelines? a. Patient's full name and date of birth. b. Patient's full name and Social Security Number. c. Patient's Social Security Number and date of birth. d. Patient's last name, age, and Social Security Number.

a. Patient's full name and date of birth

(025) What is another term for orthostatic hypotension? a. Postural hypotension. b. Positional hypotension. c. Situational hypotension. d. Environmental hypotension.

a. Postural hypotension

(013) Which of the following is an accurate definition of leukocytes? a. Protect against disease at the cellular level. b. The body's only defense against infection. c. Proliferate hemoglobin and carry oxygen to the body. d. Carry amino acids to the kidneys for deamination and excretion.

a. Protect against disease at the cellular level.

(020) What should be done prior to operating a glucose meter? a. Read the operating instructions. b. Confirm the order with a co-worker. c. Choose a site to obtain a blood sample. d. Ask all family members to leave the room.

a. Read the operating instructions.

(023) How many test slides are included in the standard test category of the Optec 2300 Vision Tester (OVT)? a. Seven. b. Five. c. Four. d. Three.

a. Seven.

(018) If a patient exhibits a mild allergic response to an intravenous (IV) solution, what should you do? a. Slow the infusion. b. Discontinue the IV immediately. c. Replace the tubing and the container. d. Send the solution to the laboratory for analysis.

a. Slow the infusion.

(002) Which classification of organisms is responsible for the disease malaria? a. Sporozoa. b. Chlamydia. c. Rickettsiae. d. Mycoplasma.

a. Sporozoa.

(001) What organization is responsible for establishing the hospital accreditation evaluation criteria? a. The Joint Commission. b. Infection Control Committee. c. American College of Surgeons. d. Center for Disease control and Prevention.

a. The Joint Commission.

(033) While gathering a history of illness, when you ask a medical patient if the pain is constant or intermittent, what are you trying to determine? a. Time. b. Quality. c. Severity. d. Radiation.

a. Time.

(032) A rapid trauma assessment is performed on a patient with a. a significant mechanism of injury, and focuses on the area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are. b. an insignificant mechanism of injury, and focuses on the area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are. c. a significant mechanism of injury, and focuses on other areas of the body not already attended to. d. an insignificant mechanism of injury, and focuses on other areas of the body not already attended to.

a. a significant mechanism of injury, and focuses on the area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are.

(017) The basic purpose of infusion therapy is to a. administer fluids into the circulatory system. b. increase overall muscular strength. c. decrease susceptibility to infection. d. control blood loss.

a. administer fluids into the circulatory system

(024) Any artificial products or features which appear on an electrocardiogram tracing are called a. artifacts. b. disturbances. c. random waves. d. deflection waves.

a. artifacts.

(003) The mucous membrane filters and traps foreign bodies through a. cilia. b. sneezing. c. handwashing. d. the lymphatic system.

a. cilia

(025) When checking the eyes during a neurological exam, the pupils should a. constrict quickly and simultaneously. b. dilate quickly and simultaneously. c. constrict quickly and separately. d. dilate quickly and separately.

a. constrict quickly and simultaneously.

(012) Caution must be taken when administering potassium to individuals with all of the following except a. diabetes. b. gastric ulcers. c. cardiac disease. d. renal impairment.

a. diabetes.

(037) When setting up a cardiac monitor, the legal document you should pay particular attention to and fix if it is not correct is the a. electrocardiogram tracing date and time. b. code blue record of events. c. ambulance run sheet. d. doctor's note.

a. electrocardiogram tracing date and time.

(013) The body's first step in the healing process is a. inflammation. b. collecting. c. infection. d. bruising.

a. inflammation.

(030) When there is an apparent vehicle fire, how many feet should the ambulance be parked from the affected vehicle? a. 50. b. 100. c. 150. d. 200.

b. 100

(019) How much fecal material should you collect to send to the laboratory for a stool specimen? a. 1 tablespoon. b. 2 tablespoons. c. 3 tablespoons. d. All of the defecated stool.

b. 2 tablespoons.

(020) After obtaining a blood sample, instruct the patient to maintain pressure over the venipuncture site for a. 1 to 2 minutes. b. 2 to 3 minutes. c. 3 to 4 minutes. d. 4 to 5 minutes.

b. 2 to 3 minutes.

(021) When educating the patient with pseudofolliculitis barbae (PFB) on proper shaving methods, you should instruct the patient to avoid all of the following except shaving a. in the opposite direction of hair growth. b. in the direction of hair growth. c. with facial skin stretched. d. with slow strokes.

b. in the direction of hair growth.

(012) Calcium can be found in all of the following sources except a. kale. b. pork. c. salmon. d. turnip greens.

b. pork

(013) Nathan has broken out with the chickenpox for the first time. His body's response is called a a. secondary immune response. b. primary immune response. c. partial immune response. d. single immune response.

b. primary immune response

(012) Amino acids are the small molecular building blocks of a. lipids. b. proteins. c. glucose. d. carbohydrates.

b. proteins

(012) Pregnant women who overdose on B6 may have caused newborns to be born with a. anemia. b. seizures. c. strabismus. d. disfigurement.

b. seizures

(031) If the patient is not alert and his or her breathing is slower than eight breaths per minute, provide a. high concentration oxygen with a positive pressure aviators mask. b. ventilations with a bag-valve-mask (BVM) and high-flow oxygen. c. high concentration oxygen with a nonrebreather mask. d. low concentration oxygen with nasal cannula.

b. ventilations with a bag-valve-mask (BVM) and high-flow oxygen.

(029) In the Air Force, you can use lights and sirens on an ambulance call only a. when the senior medical technician on board approves it. b. when local protocol authorizes it. c. during the response phase. d. during the transport phase.

b. when local protocol authorizes it.

(001) As a minimum, how frequently should area-specific general operating instructions (OI) be reviewed? a. Quarterly. b. Annually. c. Every two years. d. As needed.

c. Every two years.

(012) Half-normal saline solution is represented by a. 0.2%. b. 0.40%. c. 0.45%. d. 0.50%.

c. 0.45%.

(018) In cubic centimeters (cc), what is the slowest possible flow rate per hour you may set for an intravenous (IV) solution? a. 1 to 5 cc. b. 5 to 10 cc. c. 10 to 50 cc. d. 50 to 100 cc.

c. 10 to 50 cc

(018) When selecting an intravenous (IV) solution, what size IV bags in cubic centimeters (cc) would you possibly be able to select from? a. 100 to 200 cc. b. 500 to 750 cc. c. 100 to 2,000 cc. d. 500 to 2,000 cc.

c. 100 to 2,000 cc.

(010) A toddler is expected to weigh four times the birth weight at age a. 12 months. b. 18 months. c. 24 months. d. 30 months.

c. 24 months.

(018) Normally, how high above patients should you hang an intravenous (IV) solution bag? a. 6 to 12 inches. b. 18 to 24 inches. c. 24 to 36 inches. d. 36 to 48 inches.

c. 24 to 36 inches.

(012) What percentage of the body's weight are minerals responsible for? a. 16. b. 8. c. 4. d. 2.

c. 4.

(022) The eye can generally see wavelengths between a. 200 and 800 nanometers (nm). b. 300 and 650 nm. c. 400 and 750 nm. d. 500 and 850 nm.

c. 400 and 750 nm

(023) When performing a pulmonary function test on a patient, according to Air Force standards, abnormal functions are present if the predicted forced expiratory volume at 1 second ( FEV1) or forced vital capacity (FVC) percentage is less than? a. 65. b. 75. c. 80. d. 90.

c. 80.

(025) Notify the nurse or physician immediately if the patient's oxygen saturation (SaO2) falls below a. 88 percent. b. 90 percent. c. 97 percent. d. 100 percent.

c. 97 percent.

6. (003) Which transmission-based precaution must have monitored, negative air pressure? a. Droplet. b. Contact. c. Airborne. d. Respiratory.

c. Airborne.

(005) Which medical term means the absence of infection? a. Antimicrobial. b. Antiseptic. c. Asepsis. d. Sepsis.

c. Asepsis

(007) How often should biological testing be conducted and documented for hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilizers? a. Every load. b. Every 30 loads. c. At least once per day. d. At least once a week.

c. At least once per day.

(018) In a piggyback setup, what prevents the mixing of primary and secondary infusions? a. Vent port. b. In-line filter. c. Back-check valve. d. Self-sealing rubber cover.

c. Back-check valve

(002) Which infectious agents are primitive one-celled, plant-like organisms that reproduce rapidly? a. Helminths. b. Viruses. c. Bacteria. d. Fungi.

c. Bacteria.

(004) What is the most serious type of meningitis? a. Viral. b. Serum. c. Bacterial. d. Pneumococcal.

c. Bacterial.

(035) While examining a patient that fell from a ladder, you notice a bruise behind the ear, what injury should you suspect? a. Hematoma. b. Cushing reflex. c. Basal skull fracture. d. Parietal skull fracture.

c. Basal skull fracture.

(029) Which emergency response refers to an emergency, responding with lights and sirens on? a. Code 1; cold. b. Code 2; cold. c. Code 3; hot. d. Code 4; hot.

c. Code 3; hot.

(022) How do you measure the visual field? a. Identify loss of vision. b. Identify slopes in peripheral margins. c. Determine degrees away from fixation. d. Determine the area that is 30 degrees from the visual axis.

c. Determine degrees away from fixation.

(006) What procedures are followed when transporting an infectious patient to the radiology department? a. You must don a gown, mask, and gloves prior to transporting the patient. b. Notify all hospital personnel so they can take necessary precautions. c. Give the patient a gown, mask, and gloves to wear before transport. d. Hospital policy does not permit transport of infectious patients.

c. Give the patient a gown, mask, and gloves to wear before transport.

(015) What electrolyte deficit or excess can cause dysrythmias, leading to cardiac or respiratory arrest? a. Hypercalcemia. b. Hypocalcemia. c. Hyperkalemia. d. Hypernatremia.

c. Hyperkalemia.

(003) Which stage of infection is the period of time between the invasion of the infectious agent into the body and the onset of symptoms of the particular disease? a. Illness. b. Virulence. c. Incubation. d. Convalescence.

c. Incubation.

(013) During which stage of healing are immature fiber cells and capillaries formed? a. Bruising. b. Maturation. c. Inflammation. d. Reconstruction.

c. Inflammation

(024) Where is the Purkinje fiber network the most elaborate? a. Left atrium. b. Right atrium. c. Left ventricle. d. Right ventricle.

c. Left ventricle.

(002) Which of the following most accurately describes an organism that causes infection and disease? a. Antigen. b. Antibody. c. Pathogen. d. Micro-organism.

c. Pathogen.

(008) What are the foundations of safe and effective healthcare? a. Risk assessment and control. b. Risk management and patient safety. c. Proactive risk identification, assessment, and control. d. Competent patient-centered care and a culture of safety.

c. Proactive risk identification, assessment, and control.

(017) What is the best way for a medical technician to ensure the sterility of an intravenous (IV) solution? a. Use only the bag the nurse has spiked and ready to hang. b. Look for cloudiness or floating particles. c. Remove protective devices yourself. d. Culture the fluid prior to use.

c. Remove protective devices yourself

(012) When larger molecules are constructed from smaller molecules, this is known as a. attraction. b. catabolism. c. anabolism. d. cataclysm.

c. anabolism.

(006) When using a mask in an isolation unit, put the mask on a. after entering the unit, and take it off before leaving. b. after entering the unit, and take it off after leaving. c. before entering, and take it off before leaving. d. before entering, and take it off after leaving.

c. before entering, and take it off before leaving.

(012) Potassium helps to maintain a. facial muscle tone. b. clarity of eye sight. c. heartbeat regulation. d. alertness in the cerebellum.

c. heartbeat regulation.

(007) How long is an item immersed in the sterilant during the sterilization cycle of a peracetic acid sterilizer? a. Three minutes. b. Five minutes. c. 10 minutes. d. 12 minutes.

d. 12 minutes.

(022) At what ages is visual acuity at its best? a. 20 to 30. b. 10 to 25. c. 5 to 15 . d. 15 to 20.

d. 15 to 20

(007) Diagnostic tests should be run on a peracetic acid sterilizer every a. load. b. other load. c. 12 hours. d. 24 hours.

d. 24 hours.

(023) During pulmonary function testing, the minimum number of practice attempts and acceptable tracings an examinee must perform are a. 1; 1. b. 1; 2. c. 2; 2. d. 2; 3.

d. 2; 3.

(023) How many inches from the test plate must the examinee be sitting for the pseudoisochromatic plate set (PIP) test? a. 13. b. 15. c. 24. d. 30.

d. 30

(028) How much vacuum must suction units provide when the tube is clamped? a. 100 mm Hg. b. 150 mm Hg. c. 200 mm Hg. d. 300 mm Hg.

d. 300 mm Hg.

(009) Which vitamins are necessary for the production of red blood cells? a. Vitamins A. b. Vitamins K. c. Ascorbic acid. d. B-complex vitamins.

d. B-complex vitamins.

5. (003) Which of the following is not a type of transmission-based precaution? a. Airborne. b. Droplet. c. Contact. d. Enteric.

d. Enteric.

(018) To reduce the possibility of infection and vessel damage on patients scheduled for long-term therapy, how often should you change a patient's intravenous (IV) site? a. Every 24 hours. b. Every 24 to 48 hours. c. Every 24 to 72 hours. d. Every 48 to 72 hours.

d. Every 48 to 72 hours

(037) While working in the emergency room, a patient comes in and states that he or she has splashed a chemical in his or her eye, what should you determine first? a. The patient's visual acuity. b. If the patient is experiencing any pain. c. Whether the patient is authorized care in the facility. d. If the patient is wearing contact lenses and which type.

d. If the patient is wearing contact lenses and which type

(037) While working in the emergency room, a patient comes in and states that he has splashed a chemical in his eye, what should you determine first? a. The patient's visual acuity. b. If the patient is experiencing any pain. c. Whether the patient is authorized care in the facility. d. If the patient is wearing contact lenses and which type.

d. If the patient is wearing contact lenses and which type.

(020) During a skin puncture, why is the first drop of blood wiped away? a. To allow the blood to clot. b. To prevent spillage of blood. c. It contains phagocytes, which may interfere with test results. d. It contains epithelial cells, which may interfere with test results.

d. It contains epithelial cells, which may interfere with test results.

(012) What organ is primarily responsible for controlling lipid metabolism? a. Stomach. b. Heart. c. Brain. d. Liver.

d. Liver

(010) What reflex is displayed when an infant reacts to sudden noise or movement by extending and retracting the arms and legs? a. Babinski. b. Grasping. c. Rooting. d. Moro.

d. Moro.

(009) Which basic human need category is rest included in? a. Safety. b. Security. c. Self-esteem. d. Physiological.

d. Physiological.

(019) What steps should you take if you identify a small object while straining urine? a. Call the nurse to come see the patient. b. Call the doctor to come see the patient. c. Place it in a gauze pad and take it to the lab. d. Place it in a sterile urine cup and notify the nurse.

d. Place it in a sterile urine cup and notify the nurse

(013) The fibrous structural protein collagen is found in all connective tissue during which stage of healing? a. Bruising. b. Maturation. c. Inflammation. d. Reconstruction.

d. Reconstruction

(030) The action of assessing the scene of an accident to provide valuable information to the emergency medical technician (EMT) is called a. expanded primary survey. b. secondary survey. c. trauma history. d. scene sizeup.

d. scene sizeup.

(014) For many patients who suffer from severe injuries or medical conditions, their first psychological reaction is a. guilt. b. acceptance. c. fear and anxiety. d. shock and disorientation.

d. shock and disorientation.

(003) Which of the following best states the purpose of the standard precautions recommended by the Centers for Disease Control (CDC)? a. Prevent the risk of transmission of blood borne pathogens. b. Reduce the spread of infectious agents by interfering with the organism's known method of transmission. c. Prevent the spread of infectious agents by interfering with the organism's known method of reproduction. d. Reduce the risk of transmission of micro-organisms from both recognized and unrecognized sources of infection in hospitals.

d. Reduce the risk of transmission of micro-organisms from both recognized and unrecognized sources of infection in hospitals.

(009) Nursing actions that facilitate self-actualization is pertinent during which aspect of the nursing care? a. Illness. b. Wellness. c. Diagnosis. d. Rehabilitation.

d. Rehabilitation.

(016) Which acid-base imbalance is caused by hyperventilating? a. Metabolic acidosis. b. Metabolic alkalosis. c. Respiratory acidosis. d. Respiratory alkalosis.

d. Respiratory alkalosis.

(006) What type of isolation are patients highly susceptible to infection placed in? a. Airborne. b. Droplet. c. Contact. d. Reverse.

d. Reverse

(021) What position would you normally place a patient in for a sigmoidoscopy? a. Fowler. b. Supine. c. Prone. d. Sims.

d. Sims.

(013) When a child scrapes his or her hands and infection results, which lymph nodes will become enlarged? a. Cervical. b. Thoracic. c. Auxillary. d. Supratrochlear.

d. Supratrochlear.

(005) Which medical term refers to practices designed to eliminate all micro-organisms? a. Medical sepsis. b. Medical asepsis. c. Surgical sepsis. d. Surgical asepsis.

d. Surgical asepsis.

(002) What condition must be present for a virus to multiply? a. Water and soil. b. Cool and dry. c. Warm and moist. d. Susceptible tissue.

d. Susceptible tissue

(009) Plasma lipids include what three substances? a. Vitamins, minerals, and herbs. b. Water, sucrose, and polyunsaturated fats. c. Nitrogen, carbon dioxide and glucosaccaride. d. Triglycerides, phospholipids, and cholesterol.

d. Triglycerides, phospholipids, and cholesterol.

(024) If you are performing an electrocardiogram on someone who is rated, a copy of that electrocardiogram must be sent to the a. major command (MAJCOM). b. local medical examination board (MEB). c. command level Electrocardiographic Library. d. US Air Force Central Electrocardiographic Library.

d. US Air Force Central Electrocardiographic Library.

(007) What is the shelf life for sterilized equipment using the event-related method? a. 30 days. b. 45 days. c. 6 months. d. When package integrity is compromised.

d. When package integrity is compromised

(032) As a general rule, apply a cervical collar if there is any blow above the a. nose. b. hips. c. neck. d. clavicles.

d. clavicles

(012) Cellular metabolism is controlled by a specific kind of a. muscle. b. protein. c. glucose. d. enzyme.

d. enzyme.

(012) Vitamin B6 concentration in food sources is lost through a. dehydration. b. packaging. c. cooking. d. freezing.

d. freezing.

(026) When cutting through thick muscular skin of the back, a provider would most likely use a a. retractor. b. allis clamp. c. iris scissors. d. mayo scissors.

d. mayo scissors

(035) If you see clear fluid running out of the ears, you should a. immediately place the patient in an upright position. b. collect a sample for testing at the hospital. c. pack the ears and nose with sterile gauze. d. not block the fluid from draining.

d. not block the fluid from draining.

(013) Neutrophils are also known as a. polypeptides. b. polysaccharides. c. multigranulocytes. d. polymorphonuclear leukocytes.

d. polymorphonuclear leukocytes.

(012) A primary sign of a vitamin E overdose is readily seen through the disease process of a. rickets. b. night blindness. c. pernicious anemia. d. prolonged clotting times.

d. prolonged clotting times.

(033) When you ask a medical patient what may have triggered his or her pain, you are questioning about a. onset. b. quality. c. radiation. d. provocation.

d. provocation.

(021) In the objective information section of the paperwork, it is important to identify the patient's a. statement that he or she feels dizzy. b. plan to resolve a health issue. c. complaint of headache. d. pulse rate.

d. pulse rate

(009) The very low-density lipoproteins transport a. glucose from the small intestine to the liver to be stored as glycogen. b. amino acids to the liver to dispose of most of the cholesterol through bile. c. lipids from the liver to the stomach where they are joined with amino acids. d. triglycerides that are synthesized in the liver from carbohydrates to adipose cells.

d. triglycerides that are synthesized in the liver from carbohydrates to adipose cells.