Ch. 15 Female Genitourinary Problems
8. Which of the following is a sexually transmitted infection? A. Candida vaginitis B. Trichomonal vaginitis C. Atrophic vaginitis D. Lactobacilli vaginitis
B
90. Which blood tumor marker is highly specific to epithelial ovarian cancer? A. PSA B. CA 125 C. CA 15-3 D. CA 19-9
B
92. Stein-Leventhal syndrome, one of the leading causes of female infertility, is more commonly known as A. pelvic inflammatory disease B. polycystic ovary disease C. multiple sex partners D. ectopic pregnancy syndrome
B
Emotional support is best given to the client with a sexually transmitted infection by A. offering many alternatives. B. authentic active listening. C. assuring the client that everything will be okay. D. emphasizing the duration of the disease.
B
1. A sexually active woman should be aware that genital herpes simplex virus A. may be transmitted to a partner or newborn even in the absence of lesions because of viral shedding B. is suppressed during menstruation physical or emotional stress, immunosuppression, sexual intercourse, and pregnancy. C. recurrences usually last the same length of time as the initial outbreak D. requires the use of condoms only during outbreaks.
A
14. Leiomyomas are found A. within the uterine wall B. on the vaginal wall. C. withing the cervix D. on the fallopian tube.
A
15. When a woman complains of dyspareunia in the lower back during orgasm, you should consider A. endometriosis B. cystitis C. vaginitis D. causes related to pelvic inflammatory disease.
A
16. A 27 year old female presents to your office for a Mirena (levonorgestrel intrauterine system) insertion. She reports that her menses started 3 days ago and is normal. How soon after insertion will she be able to safely rely on it for contraception? A. Immediately B. After 48 hours C. in 1 week D. in 1 month
A
20. Which type of incontinence has an associated symptom of recurrent cystitis? A. Stress B. Urge C. Overflow D. Functional
A
22. Which of the following is an indication for a colposcopy? A. A Pap smear showing dysplasia B. Recurrent STIs C. HIV infection D. History of leiomyomas
A
23. Which of the following statement do you use when instructing women about their fertile period (when they are most likely to become pregnant)? A. Ovulation occurs on the 14th day , plus or minus 2 days, before the next menses. B. Sperm are viable for 24 hours C. The ovum is viable for 6 hours D. The overies always release one ovum per month.
A
25. Sydney, age 21, is taking an oral contraceptive (OC). She complains of acne. How should you adjust the estrogen in the OC? A. Increase the estrogen content. B. Decrease the estrogen content. C. Delete the estrogen content. D. No adjustment should be made to the estrogen content.
A
27. The best method to diagnose uterine polyps is a A. hysteroscopy B. dilation and curettage C. colposcopy D. laparoscopy
A
30. Sandra says that her previous doctor never discussed why he took her off hormone replacement therapy (HRT). You share with her some of the results of the Women's Health Initiative (WHI). Which statement is true regarding the study? A. Estrogen plus progestin increased the risk of a cardiac event in apparently healthy women B. Persons on HRT are at a higher risk of colorectal cancer C. Postmenopausal hormones do not actually prevent fracture of the hip. D. Estrogen alone is associated with a greater risk of breast cancer than a combination of estrogen plus progestin.
A
35. Unilateral galactorrhea may be present with A. an intraductal papilloma B. a woman who is lactating C. a ruptured breast implant D. pregnancy.
A
36. Which of the following drugs may have their effects enhanced when used in combination with an oral contraceptive? A. Beta Blockers B. Oral anticoagulants C. Antacids D. Anti-convulsants
A
38. During a pelvic examination, you ask Mrs. Krane to Valsalva (strain). While doing this a pouching is seen on the anterior wall of the vagina. This is indicative of A. a cystocele B. a rectocele C. an enterocele D. a uterine prolapse
A
39. Samantha has a diagnosis of a chlamydia vaginal infection. You believe that it is questionable whether she will fill the prescription that you write or take it for 7 days as ordered. What would you do? A. Give azithromycin (Zithromax) 1g po now B. Emphasize the importance of the drug and tell her the consequences of not taking it. C. Send out the public health nurse to follow up on whether she takes the drug for 7 days. D. Assume that Samantha is an adult and will follow your instructions.
A
47. The most common reason for surgery for macromastia is A. back and shoulder pain B. breast cancer. C. fibrocystic breast disease D. inability to breastfeed.
A
5. In a premenopausal woman, the biggest heart attack risk factor is A. cigarette smoking B. family history C. sedentary lifestyle D. obesity
A
51. The most common type of invasive breast carcinoma is A. infiltrating ductal carcinoma B. medullary carcinoma C. lobular carcinoma D. infiltrating papillary carcinoma
A
52. Jennifer, age 42, presents for her well-woman examination and you notice "dimpling" on her left breast. Your initial reaction is that it may possible be A. breast cancer B. fibrocystic breast disease C. Paget's disease D. striae from recent dieting.
A
59. Mrs. Peterson would like to be fitted for a diaphragm. She has been on numerous hormones in the past and does not like the side effects. It is important to remember that when properly fitting a patient for a diaphragm, it should A. allow a fingertip between it and pubic arch B. be small enough to allow for vaginal expansion C. lie snugly over the pubic arch and under the cervix D. provide firm tension against the vaginal walls
A
61. A treatment used to improve the chance of prebnancy in an infertile woman who has minimal or mild endometriosis is A. laparoscopic resection or ablation of the lesions B. dilation and curettage C. the use of gonadotropin-releasing hormone analogues D. the use of birth control pills for 3 months and then abruptly stopping.
A
69. Of the symptoms listed below, the most commonly expressed symptom of women with premenstrual syndrome is A. fatigue B. depression C. breast tenderness D. swelling of the extremities.
A
7. If a woman is using the basal body temperature (BBT) method of birth control and does not want to become pregnant, when would you tell her to avoid unprotected intercourse? A. From the beginning of the nestrual cycle until the BBT has been elevated for 3 days B. Whenever the BBT is elevated C. Whenever the BBT is lowered D. From the end of the menstrual cycle until the BBT has been low for 5 days.
A
73. Lori, age 38, states that she has not had a pelvic examination in 5 years because she does not like having the digital rectal examination. How do you respond? A. "Let's schedule an examination now because women no longer need a rectal exam with routine pelvic examination." B. "OK, we'll do a pelvic and I'll just put 'refused' on the chart to cover any liability." C. "We really need to do one because the rectal examination has been shown to pick up many abnormalities such as rectal polyps." D. ""Ill try to be quick with the rectal examination and get it over with."
A
77. What is the most common virus to be transmitted in utero? A. Cytomegalovirus B. Rubella C. Varicella D. Toxoplasmosis
A
82. Brianne, age 24, complains of urgency, frequency, and dysuria. Your dipstick test shows no hematuria, and her urine culture shows no growth. What is your next action? A. You suspect a sexually transmitted infection, so you obtain a culture of the urethra, do a potassium hydroxide wet prep and obtain another urine culture. B. You suspect urethra irritation, so you tell her to take showers, not bubble baths, and wear white, dry underwear and loose-fitting clothing. C. You suspect a urinary tract infection not visible yet on culture, so you start her on Bactrim DS. D. You suspect that the vulva is irritated. You tell her to take a relaxing shower and dry the area well and come back in 1 week if there is no improvement.
A
84. When premenstrual syndrome symptoms do not respond to dietary and nonmedical therapies, which of the following drugs might you try? A. Antidepressants B. Antihistamines C. Corticosteroids D. Anticholinergics
A
88. Jane is 7 weeks pregnant and experiencing morning sickness. The most common cause for this condition is? A. production of human chorionic gonadotropin B. suppression of estrogen. C. supporession of linea alba D. suppression of progesterone.
A
93. Toxic shock syndrome (TTS) may be caused by which of the following? A. Tampon contamination with Staphylococcus aureus B. a short vaginal canal C. The use of superabsorbent tampons D. a urinary tract infection involving the bladder and kidneys.
A
94. Mrs. Green called the office to make an appointment for her annual Pap smear. She needs to be given the following instruction prior to her appointment. A. "Insert nothing in the vagina for 24 hours before the examination." B. "Douching enhances visualization of the cervix and should be done before the appointment." C. "An infection or menstrual period is no reason to cancel the appointment." D. "The procedure is completely painless."
A
99. Marsha, age 42, is having dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB) and cannot take oral contraceptives due to a history of a blood clot (emboli). Managment includes which medication? A. Medroxyprogesterone B. Ethinyl estradiol C. Conjugated estrogen D. Piroxicam
A
10. Jennier, age 27, is complaining of lower abdominal pain. After doing some laboratory studies, you find leukocytosis, an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate. and an elevated C-reactive protein level. Which is the most appropriate diagnosis? A. Ovarian cyst B. Pelvic inflammatory disease C. Tubal pregnancy D. Diverticulitis
B
101. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding is usually associated with A. pregnancy B. anovulation C. genital tumor D. inflammation
B
13. A dancer from and adult club down the street comes in for a renewal of her birth control pill prescription. She says that everything is fine. On examination you find grayish-white vaginal discharge, greenish cervical discharge and cervical motion tenderness. Which of the following differential diagnosis is most unlikely. A. Gonorrhea B. Interstitial cystitis C. Bacterial vaginosis D. Chlmydia
B
17. Mary, age 50, desires hormone replacement therapy (HRT) for her hot flashes, which she can't stand. You've discussed the pros and cons and given her some alternative suggestions. Her mother had a history of osteoporosis. You ahve decided to initiate therapy for 1 year. She asks you if she also needs to take calcium or vitamin D for prevention of osteoporosis. How do you respond? A. "Research has shown that HRT alone is sufficient to protect against osteoporosis." B. "Yes, calcium intake should be increased to 1200 mg/day along with 600 mg of vitamin D to decrease bone turnover and incrase intestinal absorption." C. "If you decide to take calcium and vitamin D, you can stop the HRT." D. "If you are getting sufficient exercise, you don't need to take calcium and vitamin D."
B
19. Which type of breast cancer involves infiltration of the nipple epithelium and has an initial symptoms of itching or burning of the nipple? A. Ductal cancer B. Paget's disease C. Mammary duct ectasia D. Fibroadenoma
B
24. Jennifer, a 25 year olf female patient, complains of dysuria. In taking a thorogh history to formulate a diagnosis, it is most important to ask, A. "Do you have painful intercourse?" B. "Do you have an associated vaginal discharge or irritation?" C. "Do you also have a problem with defecation?" D. "Do you have stress incontinence?"
B
26. Marcia, age 59, presents with depression. According to the diagnostic criteria for a major depressive disorder, which of the following criterion needs to be met? A. The depression must have a specific cause, like alcohol, drugs, medication side effects, or physical illness. B. The symptoms must be severe enough to upset the client's daily routine or to impact his or her work or interfere with relationships. C. The depression may be a normal reaction to the death of a loved one. D. There must be some type of sleep disturbance.
B
28. Darcy is to undergo a cone-needle biopsy for a suspicious breast mass. This procedure includes A. a 21 or 22 gauge needle that is used to aspirate cells from the lesion for analysis B. removal of a large core of tissue from the lesion for histological evaluation utilizing a large-gauge cutting needle. C. removal of a wedge of tissue for examination D. removal of the entire lesion.
B
3. A 17 year old female patient requests to start Depo-Provera injections as her method of birth control. She discloses that she has had four sexual partners in the past year. Her last menstrual period was 12 days ago and she had unprotected intercourse 3 days ago. The appropriate management for this patient would be to A. administer the injection today B. advise her to use another method for now and return with her next menses. C. give the injection after a negative pregnancy test D. give the injection and tell her to use a barrier method for 7 days.
B
42. Mrs. Henderson inquires about why she needs progesterone in addition to her estrogen for hormone replacement. Women who have an intact uterus need to add progesterone to their prescribed estrogen because progestin A. assists in relieving the typical hot flashes of menopause B. reduces the incidence of endometrial hyperplasia and cancer C. decreases the risk of osteoporosis D. controls mood swings
B
43. A 21 year old woman comes to your office and reports a history of genital warts. In reference to the HPV vaccination (Gardasil or Cervarix), she should be educated that A. she is not in the correct age group and is not a candidate for the vaccination B. she should receive the HPV vaccination C. she already has been exposed to HPV; therefore, she is not a candidate for the vaccine D. there is a vaccine coming out shortly specifically for those who have been exposed. She should wait.
B
46. Which of the following drugs may have their effects diminished when used in combination with an oral contraceptive? A. Corticosteroids B. Oral anticoagulants C. Antibiotics D. Anticonvulsants
B
48. You've just finished a Pap smear on Sadie, age 39. During the wet mount, you see cells with bacteria adherent to the cell wall giving it a stippled, granular appearance. What do you suspect? A. Candidiasis B. Bacterial vaginosis C. Trichomoniasis D. Cervicitis
B
49. The majority of breast carcinomas are found in which anatomical site in the breast? A. Around the areola B. In the upper outer quadrant C. In the lower half of the breast D. Toward the Sternum
B
56. Judy has severe pain monthly with her fibrocystic breast disease. Which medication do you suggest she try A. Miconized estradiol (Estrace) B. Danazol (Danocrine) C. Paroxetine (Paxil) D. Vanlafaxine (Effexor)
B
63. Joy has been breastfeeding and has developed puerperal mastitis. You tell her, A. "Using cool compresses to the affected breast before pumping will increase mild expression." B. "Continue breastfeeding the baby to avoid mild stasis." C. "Continue doing your normal activities during the acute phase to keep things flowing." D. Do not massage the breasts."
B
65. Which form of estrogen is secreted in the greatest amount by the ovaries during the reproductive years and considered most potent? A. Estone (E1) B. Estradiol (E2) C. Estriol (E3) D. The potency and secretion of all of the above are in equal amounts.
B
67. When a woman has extreme spasticity, which position should she assume for a Pap smear? A. "OB" stirrups position B. Knee-chest position while prone C. V-shaped position without stirrups D. Side-lying position
B
70. The Mobiluncus species is responsible for which sexually transmitted infection? A. Condylomata acuminata B. Bacterial vaginosis C. Human papillovavirus D. Lymphogranuloma venereum
B
74. Lactobacilli in the vagina A. decreases glycogen metabolism B. maintains an acid pH range. C. increases the development of white blood cells D. maintains an alkaline pH range
B
Sarah, age 29, complains of premenstrual syndrome. She states she was told that changing her diet might help in managing some of the symptoms. What changes in her diet do you recommend? A. increase her intake of protein. B. Increase her intake of complex carbohydrates. C. Increase her intake of salt and salty foods D. Decrease her intake of fatty foods.
B
11. Human papillomavirus may lead to A. pelvic inflammatory disease B. molluscum contagiosum C. cervical dysplasia D. genital herpes
C
29. Which of the following lifestyle factors is associated with an increased risk for breast cancer A. Being underweight B. Having one to two drinks of alcohol per day C. Smoking D. Eating a low-fat diet
C
32. Women who take oral contraceptives are less likely to experience A. human papillomavirus infection. B. migraine headache C. iron-deficiency anemia D. herpes simplex virus.
C
33. The average age of menopause in the United states is A. 45 years B. 48 years C. 50 years D. 53 years.
C
34. A 26 year old female comes into your office to discuss birth control options. Her history includes migraine headaches with aura while on combination oral contraceptives in the past. She does not want to become pregnant. Which of the following birth control options would be the best choice for her? A. Combined hormonal contraceptive pills B. Ortho Evra Patch C. Mirena IUD D. Vaginal NuvaRing
C
37. Which of the following drugs may diminish the effectiveness of oral contraceptives? A. Beta Blockers B. Oral anticoagulants C. Antibiotics D. Oral hypogycemics
C
4. The simplest and safest method of suppressing lactation after it has started is to A. wear a snug brassiere. B. use ice packs C. gradually wean the baby to a bottl eor a cup over a 3-week period. D. begin oral hormones or long-acting hormonal injections.
C
45. Beth is breastfeeding her 3 month old infant with no supplementation. She says she has head that she cannot get pregnant during this time. What do you tell her? A. "it's highly likely that you may become pregnant, so you should use another method of birth control." B. "Yes, you're safe for as long as you breastfeed." C. "For the first 6 months, if you breastfeed and have very little supplementation, your chances are less than 2% that you'll get pregnant." D. "You're more as risk for getting pregnant now because of your fluctuating hormone levels."
C
100. Characteristics of polycystic ovary syndrome include A. irsutism, thinness, hypoinsulinemia B. menopausal onset, vitiligo, hyperinsulemia C. alopecia, thinness, abdominal cramping D. premenarchial onset, obestiy, hyperinsulinemia.
D
50 Ursula, age 19, is going to begin taking birth control pills. She asks you if she is safe" immediately. How do you respond? A. "Yes, you should not get pregnant once you start taking the pill. However, it doesn't protect you from STIs." B. "For the first month, you need to be on backup birth-control method. However, the pill doesn't protect you from STIs." C. "A second birth control method needs to be used during intercourse for the first 7 days while taking the pill. However, the pill doesn't protect you from STIs." D. "Until you have your second period (cycle) with the pill, you are not considered safe."
C
54. Which of the following drugs given to nursing mothers may cause a reduction in the mild supply? A. Antihistamines B. Antithyroid medications C. Oral contraceptives D. Laxatives
C
55. Jenna has been diagnosed with a generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). You know that she may experience which of the following? A. She may be worried or anxious about having a panic attack B. She may be worried about being separated or about being away from home or close relatives C. She may have been excessively anxious and worried on most days for more than 6 months D. She may have multiple physical complaints or believe she has a physical illness.
C
58. Marsha, age 40, has been given a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. She asks you whether she should continue taking her birth control pills. You tell her. A. to check with her rheumatologist. B. To stop C. To continue D. The dose will have to be altered.
C
6. First-line treatment for polycystic ovary syndrome is A. a bilateral oophorectomy. B. oral testosterone therapy C. a combination of diet modification, weight loss, and stress management. D. a laparoscopy with a bilateral wedge resection.
C
64. Minnie, age 52, states that she is going to have a TRAM procedure after her breast surgery. However, she was in shock from the diagnosis when the surgeon explained the procedure. She asks you to explain it. How do you respond? A. "It's when a breast implant is inserted under the pectoris muscle." B. "It's an autogenous procedure that uses skin from the latissimus dorsi muscle to fashion a breast." C. "It's an autogenous procedure that uses skin from the rectus abdominis muscle to fashion a breast." D. "It's a breast implant that is done after the mastectomy scar heals."
C
68. On physical exam, Judy has pubic hair that spreads over her mons pubis with a slight lateral spread. In addition her breast development shows breast enlargement with secondary mound formation by the developing areola. Which Tanner best describes Judy's development A. Stage II B. Stage III C. Stage IV D. Stage V
C
71. An occurence of genital herpes is A. Cured with acyclovir (Zovirax) B. best managed with trichloroacetic acid 80% to 90% applied directly to the lesion C. expected to be completely resolved with 21 days (for the primary lesion) D. not a factor in continuing with intercourse.
C
78. Susan has been diagnosed with fibrocystic breast disease. Which of the following may exacerbate the condition? A. Daily dose of aspirin B. Spicy foods C. Chocolate D. Wearing tight bras
C
83. Judi has seizure disorder and wants to get pregnant. What is the drug of choice for her during pregnancy? A. Valproate (Depakene) B. Trimethadione (Tridione) C. Phenoarbital (Luminal) D. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
C
89. Candidiasis is more common in A. teenage girls B. women on low-fat diets C. women with diabetes. D. women with frequent uringary tract infections.
C
Lynne, age 43, comes to your office in tears, stating that last night she had unprotected sex and forgot to take her birth control pill. She wants to know about the "morning-after pill." You tell her, A. If your period does not start at the scheduled time, come back to see me" B. I'll go ahead and order the estrogen-only postcoital contraception pill." C. "I'll go ahead and order the Yuzpe regimen." D. "I'll refer you to a gynecologist."
C
12. Gerri, a 33 year old female patient, complains of external vaginal irritation after adding new fabric softener to her laundry. You have diagnosed her with reactive vaginitis. The treatment of choice for this condition includes. A. metronidazole (Flagyl) 500 mg twice a day for 7 days B. conjugated vaginal estrogen cream externally every day for 1 week C. re-washing undergarments without fabric softener and applying petrolium jelly to the affected area. D. re-washing undergarments wihout fabric softener and applyin corticosteroids to the affected area.
D
18. Julia, age 60, asks you about taking alendronate (Fosamax). What do you tell her about using this medication? A. "If you decide to take it, stick with a lower dose of 5mg because the side effects are much worse with a 10mg dose." B. "Fosamax works better in younger women, so you should start this now rather than wait until you're 70." C. "You should take a daily dose because the weekly dose is not as effective." D. "In addition to its efficacy in the treatment of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women it is also useful for the prevention of osteoporosis."
D
21. The most common type of vaginal infection is A. candidiasis B. trichomoniasis C. gonorrhea D. bacterial vaginosis
D
31. Mrs. Williams would like to schedule an appointment to bring her 18 year old daughter in to see you for her first gynecological exam and Pap smear. The most appropriate reply would include A. " I would be happy to see your daughter and complete her gynecological exam and Pap smear." B. "Your daughter does not need a gynecoogical exam and Pap at this time." C. "Your daughter only needs a gynecological exam and Pap smear when she becomes sexually active." D. "I would be happy to see your daughter and complete her gynecological exam; however, she does not need a Pap smear until the age of 21."
D
40. Infertility is best defined as the A. inability to conceive with multiple sex partners B. inability to conceive for 9 months of unprotected intercourse when both partners are younger than 30 years of age. C. state of voluntary childlessness. D. inability to conceive after 1 full year of unprotected intercourse
D
41. Reiter's syndrome is a complication of A. bacterial vaginosis B. syphilis C. chlamydia D. gnorrhea
D
44. Joanne wants to use some form of birth control, but because she is getting maried next year, she wants to be able to stop the birth control method after the wedding and have her fertility restored almost immediately. Which method do you recommend for her? A. Birth control pills B. Vaginal rig C. Depot-medroxyprogesterone acetate (DMPA) injections D. Lea's Shield
D
53. What is the most common cause of mastitis in breastfeeding women? A. Escherichia coli B. Streptococcus C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis D. Staphylococcus aureus
D
60. Herpes simplex virus can be potentially acquired through maternal transmission. This is least likely to occur. A. before labor B. during delivery C. post-natally D. during the neonatal period
D
66. Janice, age 26, who has genital herpes, asks if her partner has to use a condom during sexual intercourse even if she does not have a visible lesion. How do you respond? A. "Yes, we're not sure if it'ss till transmitted when the lesions are not visible, so it's better to be on the safe side." B. "No, you're not 'contagious' when the lesions are not visible." C. "No, use of a spermicidal agent is all that is required." D. "Yes, shedding of the herpes simplex virus from mucocutaneous surfaces in the absence of visible lesions is a primary mode of transmission."
D
75. Dana is a 23 year old patient diagnosed with dyspareunia. Which of the following is NOT a cause for this condidion? A. Vulvovaginitis B. An incompletely stretched hymen C. Vaginismus D. Multiple pregnancies
D
76. There are many causes of ammenorhea. In ballet dancers or marathon runners, which anatomical structure is the probable cause? A. Outflow tract B. Ovary C. Anterior pituitary D. Hypothalamus
D
79. How long can the vaginal contraceptive ring (Nuvaring) be out of the vagina before an additional form of contraception is necessary? A. 30 minutes B. 1 hour C. 2 hours D. 3 hours.
D
80. Which of the following ovarian tumors or cysts has the potential for malignancy? A. Follicle cysts B. Brenner's tumor C. Fibroma D. Secondary ovarian tumors
D
81. The Joneses are thinking about going for infertility counseling because they have been married for 5 years and have been unable to conceive. They ask you whether the man or the woman is usually the cause of he infertility. What do you tell them about eh etiology of infertility? A. "In most cases, infertility is related to a female factor." B. "In most cases, infertility is related to a male factors." C. "In the majority of cases, the etiology cannot be identified." D. "Male and female infertility rates are almost the same in the majority of cases."
D
85. A vaginal pH of 4.2 is an expected finding in A. a healthy prepubertal age girl. B. A woman with trichomoniasis vaginalis C. a postmenopausal woman with atrophic vaginitis D. A healthy woman of reproductive age.
D
86. Julia is nursing her 8 week old baby and states that he is very irritable and sleeps poorly. What medication or substance do you ask her if she is taking or using? A. Cimetidine (Tagamet) B. Ergotamine (Ergostat) C. Nicotine D. Caffeine
D
87. Which of the following conditions is a contraindication to using the copper intrauterine device (IUD)? A. History of ectopic pregnancy B. Nulliparity C. Treated cervical dysplasia D. Heart disease
D
9. In a patient diagnosed with cervical gonnococccal infection, you would also suspect a co-infection with A. candidiasis B. syphilis C. trichomoniasis D. chlamydia
D
91. Emergency contraception refers to A. an induced abortion in an emergency room (ER.) B. quickly starting on birth control pills in anticipation of sexual intercourse. C. having a medroxyprogesterone (Depo-provera) injection in the ER every 12 weeks D. taking emergency contraceptive pills (ECPs)
D
95. Procidentia is a A. cystocele B. rectocele C. vaginal fistula D. third-degree uterine prolapse
D
96. Endometrial cancer, hirsutism, acne, breast cancer, increased risk of diabetes, infertility , menstrual bleeding problems, and an increased risk of cardiovascular disease are clinical consequences of A. mastalgia B. menorrhagia C. endometriosis D. persistent anovulation
D
97. Menses at irregular intervals with excessive flow and duration is defined as A. oligomenorrhea B. polymenorrhea C. menorhagia D. metrorrhagia
D
98. The most likely cause of ammenorrhea is A. an anatomical deviation B. a genetic factor C. an endocrine abnormality D. pregnancy.
D