Ch 35: Assessment of Immune Function
5. A nurse has administered a child's scheduled vaccination for rubella. This vaccination will cause the child to develop which of the following? A) Natural immunity B) Active acquired immunity C) Cellular immunity D) Mild hypersensitivity
B Feedback: Active acquired immunity usually develops as a result of vaccination or contracting a disease. Natural immunity is present at birth and provides a nonspecific response to any foreign invader. Immunizations do not activate the process of cellular immunity. Hypersensitivity is not an expected outcome of immunization.
2. During a mumps outbreak at a local school, a patient, who is a school teacher, is exposed. She has previously been immunized for mumps. What type of immunity does she possess? A) Acquired immunity B) Natural immunity C) Phagocytic immunity D) Humoral immunity
A Feedback: Acquired immunity usually develops as a result of prior exposure to an antigen, often through immunization. When the body is attacked by bacteria, viruses, or other pathogens, it has three means of defense. The first line of defense, the phagocytic immune response, involves the WBCs that have the ability to ingest foreign particles. A second protective response is the humoral immune response, which begins when the B lymphocytes transform themselves into plasma cells that manufacture antibodies. The natural immune response system is rapid, nonspecific immunity present at birth.
4. An infection control nurse is presenting an inservice reviewing the immune response. The nurse describes the clumping effect that occurs when an antibody acts like a cross-link between two antigens. What process is the nurse explaining? A) Agglutination B) Cellular immune response C) Humoral response D) Phagocytic immune response
A Feedback: Agglutination refers to the clumping effect occurring when an antibody acts as a cross-link between two antigens. This takes place within the context of the humoral immune response, but is not synonymous with it. Cellular immune response, the immune system's third line of defense, involves the attack of pathogens by T-cells. The phagocytic immune response, or immune response, is the system's first line of defense, involving white blood cells that have the ability to ingest foreign particles.
23. A nurse is explaining the process by which the body removes cells from circulation after they have performed their physiologic function. The nurse is describing what process? A) The cellular immune response B) Apoptosis C) Phagocytosis D) Opsonization
B Feedback: Apoptosis, or programmed cell death, is the body's way of destroying worn out cells such as blood or skin cells or cells that need to be renewed. Opsonization is the coating of antigen-antibody molecules with a sticky substance to facilitate phagocytosis. The body does not use phagocytosis or the cellular immune response to remove cells from circulation.
24. A patient is responding to a microbial invasion and the patient's differentiated lymphocytes have begun to function in either a humoral or a cellular capacity. During what stage of the immune response does this occur? A) The recognition stage B) The effector stage C) The response stage D) The proliferation stage
C Feedback: In the response stage, the differentiated lymphocytes function in either a humoral or a cellular capacity. In the effector stage, either the antibody of the humoral response or the cytotoxic (killer) T cell of the cellular response reaches and connects with the antigen on the surface of the foreign invader. In the recognition stage, the recognition of antigens as foreign, or non-self, by the immune system is the initiating event in any immune response. During the proliferation stage the circulating lymphocytes containing the antigenic message return to the nearest lymph node.
34. The nurse is completing a focused assessment addressing a patient's immune function. What should the nurse prioritize in the physical assessment? A) Percussion of the patient's abdomen B) Palpation of the patient's liver C) Auscultation of the patient's apical heart rate D) Palpation of the patient's lymph nodes
D Feedback: During the assessment of immune function, the anterior and posterior cervical, supraclavicular, axillary, and inguinal lymph nodes are palpated for enlargement. If palpable nodes are detected, their location, size, consistency, and reports of tenderness on palpation are noted. Because of the central role of lymph nodes in the immune system, they are prioritized over the heart, liver, and abdomen, even though these would be assessed.
13. A patient's injury has initiated an immune response that involves inflammation. What are the first cells to arrive at a site of inflammation? A) Eosinophils B) Red blood cells C) Lymphocytes D) Neutrophils
D Feedback: Neutrophils are the first cells to arrive at the site where inflammation occurs. Eosinophils increase in number during allergic reactions and stress responses, but are not always present during inflammation. RBCs do not migrate during an immune response. Lymphocytes become active but do not migrate to the site of inflammation.
A client with an autoimmune disorder asks, "Why is autoimmune disease more prevalent in the women in my family?" Which response will the nurse make to this client? "There is not enough evidence to prove this." "It's because you take better care of your family than yourself." "Women have more stress than men and it weakens immunity." "It's believed to be caused by the differences in the sex hormones."
"It's believed to be caused by the differences in the sex hormones."
6. A patient with a history of dermatitis takes corticosteroids on a regular basis. The nurse should assess the patient for which of the following complications of therapy? A) Immunosuppression B) Agranulocytosis C) Anemia D) Thrombocytopenia
A Feedback: Corticosteroids such as prednisone can cause immunosuppression. Corticosteroids do not typically cause agranulocytosis, anemia, or low platelet counts.
3. A gardener sustained a deep laceration while working and requires sutures. The patient is asked about the date of her last tetanus shot, which is over 10 years ago. Based on this information, the patient will receive a tetanus immunization. The tetanus injection will allow for the release of what? A) Antibodies B) Antigens C) Cytokines D) Phagocytes
A Feedback: Immunizations activate the humoral immune response, culminating in antibody production. Antigens are the substances that induce the production of antibodies. Immunizations do not prompt cytokine or phagocyte production.
39. A patient has undergone treatment for septic shock and received high doses of numerous antibiotics during the course of treatment. When planning the patient's subsequent care, the nurse should be aware of what potential effect on the patient's immune function? A) Bone marrow suppression B) Uncontrolled apoptosis C) Thymus atrophy D) Lymphoma
A Feedback: Large doses of antibiotics can precipitate bone marrow suppression, affecting immune function. Antibiotics are not noted to cause apoptosis, thymus atrophy, or lymphoma.
Which of the following is accurate regarding acquired immunity? Select all that apply. An immunologic response acquired during life but not present at birth Usually develops as a result of exposure to an antigen through immunization Can develop by contracting a disease A nonspecific immunity present at birth Also know as innate immunity
An immunologic response acquired during life but not present at birth Usually develops as a result of exposure to an antigen through immunization Can develop by contracting a disease
15. The nurse should recognize a patient's risk for impaired immune function if the patient has undergone surgical removal of which of the following? A) Thyroid gland B) Spleen C) Kidney D) Pancreas
B Feedback: A history of surgical removal of the spleen, lymph nodes, or thymus may place the patient at risk for impaired immune function. Removal of the thyroid, kidney, or pancreas would not directly lead to impairment of the immune system.
36. A patient was recently exposed to infectious microorganisms and many T lymphocytes are now differentiating into killer T cells. This process characterizes what stage of the immune response? A) Effector B) Proliferation C) Response D) Recognition
B Feedback: In the proliferation stage, T lymphocytes differentiate into cytotoxic (or killer) T cells, whereas B lymphocytes produce and release antibodies. This does not occur in the response, recognition, or effector stages.
33. The nurse is assessing a client's risk for impaired immune function. What assessment finding should the nurse identify as a risk factor for decreased immunity? A) The patient takes a beta blocker for the treatment of hypertension. B) The patient is under significant psychosocial stress. C) The patient had a pulmonary embolism 18 months ago. D) The patient has a family history of breast cancer.
B Feedback: Stress is a psychoneuroimmunologic factor that is known to depress the immune response. Use of beta blockers, a family history of cancer, and a prior PE are significant assessment findings, but none represents an immediate threat to immune function.
9. A man was scratched by an old tool and developed a virulent staphylococcus infection. In the course of the man's immune response, circulating lymphocytes containing the antigenic message returned to the nearest lymph node. During what stage of the immune response did this occur? A) Recognition stage B) Proliferation stage C) Response stage D) Effector stage
B Feedback: The recognition stage of antigens as foreign by the immune system is the initiating event in any immune response. The body must first recognize invaders as foreign before it can react to them. In the proliferation stage, the circulating lymphocyte containing the antigenic message returns to the nearest lymph node. Once in the node, the sensitized lymphocyte stimulates some of the resident dormant T and B lymphocytes to enlarge, divide, and proliferate. In the response stage, the differentiated lymphocytes function either in a humoral or a cellular capacity. In the effector stage, either the antibody of the humoral response or the cytotoxic (killer) T cell of the cellular response reaches and connects with the antigen on the surface of the foreign invader.
10. A patient with cystic fibrosis has received a double lung transplant and is now experiencing signs of rejection. What is the immune response that predominates in this situation? A) Humoral B) Nonspecific C) Cellular D) Mitigated
C Feedback: Most immune responses to antigens involve both humoral and cellular responses, although only one predominates. During transplantation rejection, the cellular response predominates over the humoral response. Neither a mitigated nor nonspecific cell response is noted in this situation.
14. A nurse is planning a patient's care and is relating it to normal immune response. During what stage of the immune response should the nurse know that antibodies or cytotoxic T cells combine and destroy the invading microbes? A) Recognition stage B) Proliferation stage C) Response stage D) Effector stage
D Feedback: In the effector stage, either the antibody of the humoral response or the cytotoxic (killer) T cell of the cellular response reaches and couples with the antigen on the surface of the foreign invader. The coupling initiates a series of events that in most instances results in total destruction of the invading microbes or the complete neutralization of the toxin. This does not take place during the three preceding stages.
A client is diagnosed with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). After recovering from the initial shock of the diagnosis, the client expresses a desire to learn as much as possible about HIV and acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). When teaching the client about the immune system, the nurse states that humoral immunity is provided by which type of white blood cell? Neutrophil Basophil Monocyte Lymphocyte
Lymphocyte The lymphocyte provides humoral immunity — recognition of a foreign antigen and formation of memory cells against the antigen. Humoral immunity is mediated by B and T lymphocytes and can be acquired actively or passively. The neutrophil is crucial to phagocytosis. The basophil plays an important role in the release of inflammatory mediators. The monocyte functions in phagocytosis and monokine production.
An adult client has had mumps when the client was a child. The client had a titer prior to entering nursing school and shows immunity. What type of immunity does this reflect? Artificially acquired active immunity Naturally acquired active immunity Passive immunity Natural passive immunity
Naturally acquired active immunity Naturally acquired active immunity occurs as a direct result of infection by a specific microorganism. An example is the immunity to measles that develops after the initial infection. Not all invading microorganisms produce a response that gives lifelong immunity. Artificially acquired immunity is obtained by receiving a killed or weakened microorganism or toxoid. Passive immunity is acquired when ready-made antibodies are given to a susceptible person.
1. A woman has been diagnosed with breast cancer and is being treated aggressively with a chemotherapeutic regimen. As a result of this regimen, she has an inability to fight infection due to the fact that her bone marrow is unable to produce a sufficient amount of what? A) Lymphocytes B) Cytoblasts C) Antibodies D) Capillaries
A Feedback: The white blood cells involved in immunity (including lymphocytes) are produced in the bone marrow. Cytoblasts are the protoplasm of the cell outside the nucleus. Antibodies are produced by lymphocytes, but not in the bone marrow. Capillaries are small blood vessels
20. A patient requires ongoing treatment and infection-control precautions because of an inherited deficit in immune function. The nurse should recognize that this patient most likely has what type of immune disorder? A) A primary immune deficiency B) A gammopathy C) An autoimmune disorder D) A rheumatic disorder
C Feedback: Primary immune deficiency results from improper development of immune cells or tissues. These disorders are usually congenital or inherited. Autoimmune disorders are less likely to have a genetic component, though some have a genetic component. Overproduction of immunoglobulins is the hallmark of gammopathies. Rheumatic disorders do not normally involve impaired immune function. 21. A neonate exhibited some preliminary signs of infection, but the infant's condition resolved spontaneously prior to discharge home from the hospital. This infant's recovery was most likely due to what type of immunity? A) Cytokine immunity B) Specific immunity C) Active acquired immunity D) Nonspecific immunity Ans: D Feedback: Natural immunity, or nonspecific immunity, is present at birth. Active acquired or specific immunity develops after birth. Cytokines are proteins that mediate the immune response; they are not a type of immunity.
16. A nurse is admitting a patient who exhibits signs and symptoms of a nutritional deficit. Inadequate intake of what nutrient increases a patient's susceptibility to infection? A) Vitamin B12 B) Unsaturated fats C) Proteins D) Complex carbohydrates
C Feedback: Depletion of protein reserves results in atrophy of lymphoid tissues, depression of antibody response, reduction in the number of circulating T cells, and impaired phagocytic function. As a result, the patient has an increased susceptibility to infection. Low intake of fat and vitamin B12 affects health, but is not noted to directly create a risk for infection. Low intake of complex carbohydrates is not noted to constitute a direct risk factor for infection.
7. A nurse is planning the assessment of a patient who is exhibiting signs and symptoms of an autoimmune disorder. The nurse should be aware that the incidence and prevalence of autoimmune diseases is known to be higher among what group? A) Young adults B) Native Americans C) Women D) Hispanics
C Feedback: Many autoimmune diseases have a higher incidence in females than in males, a phenomenon believed to be correlated with sex hormones.
25. A nurse is reviewing the immune system before planning an immunocompromised patient's care. How should the nurse characterize the humoral immune response? A) Specialized cells recognize and ingest cells that are recognized as foreign. B) T lymphocytes are assisted by cytokines to fight infection. C) Lymphocytesare stimulated to become cells that attack microbes directly. D) Antibodies are made by B lymphocytes in response to a specific antigen.
D Feedback: The humoral response is characterized by the production of antibodies by B lymphocytes in response to a specific antigen. Phagocytosis and direct attack on microbes occur in the context of the cellular immune response.
Which type of immunity becomes active as a result of infection by a specific microorganism? Naturally acquired active immunity Artificially acquired active immunity Naturally acquired passive immunity Artificially acquired passive immunity
Naturally acquired active immunity
A child is brought to the clinic with a rash and is subsequently diagnosed with measles. The parent reports also having had measles as a young child. What type of immunity to measles develops after the initial infection? Naturally acquired active immunity Artificially acquired active immunity Naturally acquired passive immunity Artificially acquired passive immunity
Naturally acquired active immunity Immunity to measles that develops after the INITIAL infection is an example of naturally acquired active immunity. Artificially acquired active immunity results from the administration of a killed or weakened microorganism or toxoid (attenuated toxin), whereas passive immunity develops when ready-made antibodies are given to a susceptible client.
A 20-year-old client cut a hand while replacing a window. While reviewing the complete blood count (CBC) with differential, the nurse would expect which cell type to be elevated first in an attempt to prevent infection in the client's hand? Eosinophils Neutrophils B cells Monocytes
Neutrophils
A laboring mother asks the nurse if the baby will have immunity to some illnesses when born. What type of immunity does the nurse understand that the newborn will have? Naturally acquired active immunity Artificially acquired active immunity Passive immunity transferred by the mother There is no immunity passed down from mother to child.
Passive immunity transferred by the mother Passive immunity develops when ready-made antibodies are given to a susceptible person. The antibodies provide immediate but short-lived protection from the invading antigen. Newborns receive passive immunity to some diseases for which their mothers have manufactured antibodies. Naturally acquired active immunity occurs as a direct result of infection by a specific micro organism. An example is the immunity to measles that develops after the initial infection. Not all invading microorganisms produce a response that gives lifelong immunity. Artificially acquired immunity is obtained by receiving a killed or weakened microorganism or toxoid.
The nurse is taking the health history of a newly admitted client. Which condition would place the client at risk for impaired immune function? Previous organ transplantation Surgical removal of the appendix Negative history for radiation therapy Surgical history of a partial gastrectomy
Previous organ transplantation Organ transplantation requires immunosuppressive drugs, which cause impaired immune function.
32. A patient is vigilant in her efforts to "take good care of herself" but is frustrated by her recent history of upper respiratory infections and influenza. What aspect of the patient's lifestyle may have a negative effect on immune response? A) The patient works out at the gym twice daily. B) The patient does not eat red meats. C) The patient takes over-the-counter dietary supplements. D) The patient sleeps approximately 6 hours each night.
A Feedback: Rigorous exercise or competitive exercise—usually considered a positive lifestyle factor—can be a physiologic stressor and cause negative effects on immune response. The patient's habits around diet and sleep do not present obvious threats to immune function.
18. A patient is admitted with cellulitis and experiences a consequent increase in white blood cell count. The nurse is aware that during the immune response, pathogens are engulfed by white blood cells that ingest foreign particles. What is this process known as? A) Apoptosis B) Phagocytosis C) Antibody response D) Cellular immune response
B Feedback: During the first mechanism of defense, white blood cells, which have the ability to ingest foreign particles, move to the point of attack, where they engulf and destroy the invading agents. This is known as phagocytosis. The action described is not apoptosis (programmed cell death) or an antibody response. Phagocytosis occurs in the context of the cellular immune response, but it does not constitute the entire cellular response.
19. A nurse is reviewing a patient's medication administration record in an effort to identify drugs that may contribute to the patient's recent immunosuppression. What drug is most likely to have this effect? A) An antibiotic B) A nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) C) An antineoplastic D) An antiretroviral
C Feedback: Chemotherapy affects bone marrow function, destroying cells that contribute to an effective immune response and resulting in immunosuppression. Antibiotics in large doses cause bone marrow suppression, but antineoplastic drugs have the most pronounced immunosuppressive effect. NSAIDs and antiretrovirals do not normally have this effect.
11. A patient is being treated for bacterial pneumonia. In the first stages of illness, the patient's dyspnea was accompanied by a high fever. Currently, the patient claims to be feeling better and is afebrile. The patient is most likely in which stage of the immune response? A) Recognition stage B) Proliferation stage C) Response stage D) Effector stage
D. It took effect! Feedback: The immune response culminates with the effector stage, during which offending microorganisms are killed by the various actions of the immune system. The patient's improvement in health status is likely the result of this final stage in the immune response.
A 25-year-old client receives a knife wound to the leg in a hunting accident. Which type of immunity was compromised? Specific immunity Passive immunity Adaptive immunity Natural immunity
Natural immunity Natural immunity, which is nonspecific, provides a broad spectrum of defense against and resistance to infection. It is considered the first line of host defense following antigen exposure, because it protects the host without remembering prior contact with an infectious agent.
During which stage of the immune response does the circulating lymphocytes containing the antigenic message return to the nearest lymph node? Recognition Proliferation Response Effector
Proliferation During the proliferation phase, the circulating lymphocytes containing the antigenic message return to the nearest lymph node. Once in the node, the sensitized lymphocytes stimulate some of the resident dormant T and B lymphocytes to enlarge, divide, and proliferate. In the recognition stage, the immune system distinguishes an invader as foreign, or non-self. In the response stage, the changed lymphocytes function either in a humoral or cellular fashion. In the effector stage, either the antibody of the humoral response or the cytotoxic T cell of the cellular response reaches and couples with the antigen on the surface of the foreign invader.
