Ch 39 Brunner
The nurse is preparing the client with a right neck mass for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). Which question should the nurse ask? Select all that apply.
"Are you wearing any jewelry?" "Have you removed your hearing aid?" "Do you have a pacemaker?" Explanation: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is a noninvasive imaging technique that uses magnetic fields, radio waves, and computers to demonstrate abnormalities of soft tissue. Individuals with any metal implants, clips, or pacemakers are not candidates for MRI. Individuals do not need to be NPO and can take usual medications.
A client with a sports injury undergoes a diagnostic arthroscopy of the left knee. What comment by the client following the procedure will the nurse address first?
"My toes are numb." Explanation: Numbness would indicate neurological compromise of the extremity and requires immediate intervention to prevent permanent damage. An aching knee is expected after the procedure. Cold or swollen feet are not priority assessments.
What instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching for the client following an arthroscopy?
"The pain should be well-controlled with Tylenol." Explanation: Mild analgesics are sufficient for pain control. The leg should be elevated with ice applied. The client should be taught the signs and symptoms of infection (such as heat) and neurovascular compromise (such as numbness and tingling) and instructed to contact the physician if they occur.
The nurse is preparing the client for computed tomography. Which information should be given by the nurse?
"You must remain very still during the procedure." Explanation: In computed tomography, a series of detailed x-rays are taken. The client must lie very still during the procedure. A contrast agent, not a radioisotope, may or may not be injected. Arthrocentesis involves the removal of fluid from a joint. A small bit of tissue is removed with a biopsy.
Which term refers to moving away from midline?
Abduction Explanation: Abduction is moving away from the midline. Adduction is moving toward the midline. Inversion is turning inward. Eversion is turning outward.
Which statement describes paresthesia?
Abnormal sensations Explanation: Abnormal sensations, such as burning, tingling, and numbness, are referred to as paresthesias. The absence of muscle tone suggesting nerve damage is referred to as paralysis. A fasciculation is the involuntary twitch of muscle fibers. A muscle that holds no tone is referred to as flaccid.
The nurse is planning care for a client with a musculoskeletal injury. Which nursing diagnosis would be the highest priority?
Acute Pain Explanation: The highest priority at this time is Acute Pain and nursing interventions related to decreasing pain. If the client is in pain, instruction to improve health maintenance or surgical recovery is less effective. A "Risk for" diagnosis is a potential problem not an actual problem at this time.
Which body movement involves moving toward the midline?
Adduction Explanation: Adduction is moving toward the midline. Pronation is turning inward. Abduction is moving away from the midline. Eversion is turning outward.
The nurse is providing care to a client following a knee arthroscopy. What would the nurse expect to include in the client's plan of care?
Administering the prescribed analgesic. Explanation: After an arthroscopy, the client's entire leg is elevated without flexing the knee. A cold pack is placed over the bulky dressing covering the site where the arthroscope was inserted. A prescribed analgesic is administered as necessary. The client is allowed to resume his or her usual diet as tolerated.
The primary functions of cartilage are to reduce friction between articular surfaces, absorb shocks, and reduce stress on joint surfaces. Where in the human body is cartilage found?
All options are correct. Explanation: Types of cartilage include costal cartilage, which connects the ribs and sternum; semilunar cartilage, which is one of the cartilages of the knee joint; fibrous cartilage, found between the vertebrae (intervertebral disks); and elastic cartilage, found in the larynx, epiglottis, and outer ear.
A client is experiencing muscle weakness in the upper extremities. The client raises an arm above the head but then loses the ability to maintain the position. Muscular dystrophy is suspected. Which diagnostic test would evaluate muscle weakness or deterioration?
An electromyography Explanation: An electromyography tests the electrical potential of muscles and nerves leading to the muscles. It is done to evaluate muscle weakness or deterioration. A serum calcium test evaluates the calcium in the blood. An arthroscopy assesses changes in the joint. An MRI identifies abnormalities in the targeted area.
Which of the following factors would the nurse need to keep in mind about the focus of the initial history when assessing a new client with a musculoskeletal problem?
Any chronic disorder or recent injury Explanation: The focus of the initial history depends on the nature of the musculoskeletal problem, whether the client has a chronic disorder or a recent injury. If the disorder is long-standing, the nurse obtains a thorough medical, drug, and allergy history. If the client is injured, the nurse finds out when and how the trauma occurred. The client's age, lifestyle, or duration and location of discomfort or pain, although important, have little influence on the focus of the initial history and assessment of the client.
A client has undergone arthroscopy. After the procedure, the site where the arthroscope was inserted is covered with a bulky dressing. The client's entire leg is also elevated without flexing the knee. What is the appropriate nursing intervention required in caring for a client who has undergone arthroscopy?
Apply a cold pack at the insertion site. Explanation: After covering the arthroscope insertion site with a bulky dressing and elevating the client's entire leg, the nurse needs to apply a cold pack at the site to minimize any chances of swelling.
During a general musculoskeletal assessment, what would help the nurse determine the client's muscle strength?
Applying force to the client's extremity as the client pushes against that force. Explanation: To correctly test the client's muscle strength, the nurse should apply force to the client's extremity while the client pushes against that force. Palpating the muscles and joints helps identify swelling, degree of firmness, local warm areas, and any involuntary movements. Examining the client for symmetry, size, and contour of extremities will not help determine the client's muscle strength. It is not advisable to ask the client to lift weights with an affected limb during a musculoskeletal assessment.
Which of the following diagnostic studies are done to relieve joint pain due to effusion?
Arthrocentesis Explanation: Arthrocentesis (joint aspiration) is carried out to obtain synovial fluid for purpose of examination or to relieve pain due to effusion. EMG provides information about the electrical potential of the muscles and the nerves leading to them. A bone scan is performed to detect metastatic and primary bone tumors, osteomyelitis, certain fractures, and aseptic necrosis. A biopsy may be performed to determine the structure and composition of bone marrow, bone, muscle, or synovium to help diagnose specific diseases.
A client is scheduled to have an x-ray examination of the shoulder in which the synovial fluid will be aspirated and sent to the laboratory for analysis. This will be followed by administration of a contrast medium and x-rays. What procedure will the nurse prepare the client for?
Arthrogram Explanation: An arthrogram is a radiographic examination of a joint, usually the knee or shoulder. The health care provider first injects a local anesthetic and then inserts a needle into the joint space. Fluoroscopy may be used to verify correct placement of the needle. The synovial fluid in the joint is aspirated and sent to the laboratory for analysis. A contrast medium is then injected, and x-ray films are taken. Arthroscopy is the internal inspection of a joint using an instrument called an arthroscope. Arthrocentesis is the aspiration of synovial fluid. The client receives local anesthesia just before this procedure. The health care provider inserts a large needle into the joint and removes the fluid. This can be done during an arthrogram or arthroscopy. Bone densitometry estimates bone density using radiography or advanced radiographic techniques.
Which is useful in identifying acute or chronic tears of the joint capsule or supporting ligaments of the knee, shoulder, ankle, hip, or wrist?
Arthrography Explanation: Arthrography is useful in identifying acute or chronic tears of the joint capsule or supporting ligaments of the knee, shoulder, ankle, hip, or waist. Meniscography is a distractor for this question. Bone densitometry is used to estimate bone mineral density. An EMG provides information about the electrical potential of the muscles and nerves leading to them.
A patient is scheduled for a procedure that will allow the physician to visualize the knee joint in order to diagnose the patient's pain. What procedure will the nurse prepare the patient for?
Arthroscopy Explanation: Arthroscopy is a procedure that allows direct visualization of a joint through the use of a fiberoptic endoscope. Thus, it is a useful adjunct to diagnosing joint disorders.
The nurse is performing a neurological assessment. What will this assessment include?
Ask the client to plantar flex the toes. Explanation: A neurological assessment evaluates sensation and motion. Assessing plantar flexion of the toes would be included in a neurological assessment. Capillary refill, palpation of pulses, and inspecting for edema would be included in a vascular assessment.
Which hormone inhibits bone reabsorption and increases calcium deposit in the bone?
Calcitonin Explanation: Calcitonin, secreted by the thyroid gland in response to elevated blood calcium concentration, inhibits bone reabsorption and increases the deposit of calcium in the bone. The other answers do not apply.
Which of the following is an example of a gliding joint?
Carpal bones in the wrist Explanation: Gliding joints allow for limited movement in all directions and are represented by the joints of the carpal bones in the wrist. Hinge joints permit bending in one direction only and include the knee and elbow. The hip is a ball-and-socket joint. The joint at the base of the thumb is a saddle joint.
What is the term for a rhythmic contraction of a muscle?
Clonus Explanation: Clonus is a rhythmic contraction of the muscle. Atrophy is a shrinkage-like decrease in the size of a muscle. Hypertrophy is an increase in the size of a muscle. Crepitus is a grating or crackling sound or sensation that may occur with movement of ends of a broken bone or irregular joint surface.
The nurse is caring for a pregnant patient with pregnancy-induced hypertension. When assessing the reflexes in the ankle, the nurse observes rhythmic contractions of the muscle when dorsiflexing the foot. What would the nurse document this finding as?
Clonus Explanation: The nurse may elicit muscle clonus (rhythmic contractions of a muscle) in the ankle or wrist by sudden, forceful, sustained dorsiflexion of the foot or extension of the wrist.
The nurse is evaluating a client's peripheral neurovascular status. Which would the nurse report to the health care provider as a circulatory indicator of peripheral neurovascular dysfunction?
Cool skin Explanation: Indicators of peripheral neurovascular dysfunction related to circulation include pale, cyanotic, or mottled skin with a cool temperature. The capillary refill is more than 3 seconds. Weakness and paralysis are related to motion. Paresthesia is related to sensation.
Which of the following is the priority nursing diagnosis for the client preparing for a bone marrow biopsy?
Deficient knowledge: procedure Explanation: The client needs adequate information before experiencing the procedure. Information about its purpose, the actual steps of the procedure, and the client's role during and after the procedure is essential. Appropriate nursing diagnoses following the procedure would include risk for infection, acute pain, and risk for ineffective peripheral tissue perfusion.
The nurse is performing a neurovascular assessment of a client's injured extremity. Which would the nurse report?
Dusky or mottled skin color Explanation: Normally, skin color would be similar to the color in other body areas. Pale or dusky skin color indicates an abnormality that needs to be reported. Presence of pulses, capillary refill of 3 seconds, and warm skin are normal findings.
A client is diagnosed with a fracture of a diarthrosis joint. What is an example of this type of joint?
Elbow Explanation: A diarthrosis joint, like the elbow, is freely movable. The skull is an example of an immovable joint. The vertebral joints and symphysis pubis are amphiarthrosis joints that have limited motion.
Which diagnostic test would the nurse expect to be ordered for a client with lower extremity muscle weakness?
Electromyograph (EMG) Explanation: The EMG provides information about the electrical potential of the muscles and the nerves leading to them. The test is performed to evaluate muscle weakness, pain, and disability. An arthrocentesis, bone scan, and biopsy does not measure muscle weakness.
A patient has had a stroke and is unable to move the right upper and lower extremity. During assessment the nurse picks up the arm and it is limp and without tone. How would the nurse document this finding?
Flaccidity Explanation: A muscle that is limp and without tone is described as flaccid; a muscle with greater-than-normal tone is described as spastic. Conditions characterized by lower motor neuron destruction (e.g., muscular dystrophy), denervated muscle becomes atonic (soft and flabby) and atrophies.
Which of the following is an example of a hinge joint?
Hinge joints permit bending in one direction only and include the knee and elbow. The hip is a ball-and-socket joint. The joint at the base of the thumb is a saddle joint. Gliding joints allow for limited movement in all directions and are represented by the joints of the carpal bones in the wrist.
The nurse is assessing the muscle tone of a client with cerebral palsy. Which description does the nurse determine to be an expected assessment of this client's muscle tone?
Hypertonic Explanation: In clients with conditions characterized by upper motor neuron destruction, as in cerebral palsy, the muscles are often hypertonic. However, in conditions with lower motor neuron destruction, the muscles become atonic, atrophied, and/or flaccid.
Which of the following is a fibrous sheath that surrounds the articulating bones?
Joint capsule Explanation: A tough, fibrous sheath called the joint capsule surrounds the articulating bones. Synovium secretes the lubricating and shock-absorbing synovial fluid into the joint capsule. Ligaments bind the articulating bones together. A bursa is a sac filled with synovial fluid that cushions the movements of tendons, ligaments, and bones at a point of friction.
Which of the following is the most common site of joint effusion?
Knee Explanation: The most common site for joint effusion is the knee. If inflammation or fluid is suspected in a joint, consultation with a provider is indicated. The elbow, hip, and shoulder are not the most common site of joint effusion.
The nurse is performing an assessment on an older adult patient and observes the patient has an increased forward curvature of the thoracic spine. What does the nurse understand this common finding is known as?
Kyphosis Explanation: Common deformities of the spine include kyphosis, which is an increased forward curvature of the thoracic spine that causes a bowing or rounding of the back, leading to a hunchback or slouching posture. The second deformity of the spine is referred to as lordosis, or swayback, an exaggerated curvature of the lumbar spine. A third deformity is scoliosis, which is a lateral curving deviation of the spine (Fig. 40-4). Osteoporosis is abnormal excessive bone loss.
Which term refers to mature compact bone structures that form concentric rings of bone matrix?
Lamellae Explanation: Lamellae are mineralized bone matrices. Endosteum refers to the marrow cavity lining of hollow bone. Trabecula refers to latticelike bone structure. Cancellous bone refers to spongy, latticelike bone structure.
The client presents with an exaggeration of the lumbar spine curve. How does the nurse interpret this finding?
Lordosis Explanation: Lordosis is an exaggeration of the lumbar spine curve.
The nurse is working on an orthopedic floor caring for a client injured in a football game. The nurse is reviewing the client's chart noting that the client has previously had an injured tendon. The nurse anticipates an injury between the periosteum of the bone and which of the following?
Muscle Explanation: Tendons attach muscles to the periosteum of bone. Joints are a junction between two or more bones. Ligaments connect two freely movable bones. Cartilage is a dense connective tissue used to reduce friction between two structures.
A client is scheduled to undergo an electromyography. When performed, what will this test evaluate?
Muscle weakness Explanation: Electromyography tests the electric potential of the muscles and nerves leading to the muscles. It is done to evaluate muscle weakness or deterioration, pain, disability, and to differentiate muscle and nerve problems. A bone biopsy is done to identify bone composition. Bone densitometry is done to evaluate bone density. A bone scan would be appropriate to detect metastatic bone lesions.
A nurse knows that a person with a 3-week-old femur fracture is at the stage where angiogenesis is occurring. What are the characteristics of this stage?
New capillaries producing a bridge between the fractured bones. Explanation: Angiogenesis and cartilage formation begin when fibroblasts from the periosteum produce a bridge between the fractured bones. This is known as a callus.
After a person experiences a closure of the epiphyses, which statement is true?
No further increase in bone length occurs. Explanation: After closure of the epiphyses, no further increase in bone length can occur. The other options are inappropriate and not related to closure of the epiphyses.
An osteocalcin (bone GLA protein) level has been ordered. How will the nurse prepare for this order?
Obtain a blood specimen. Explanation: An osteocalcin level is determined from a blood sample. It is used to assess the rate of bone turnover.
A nurse is caring for a client with an undiagnosed bone disease. When instructing on the normal process to maintain bone tissue, which process transforms osteoblasts into mature bone cells?
Ossification and calcification Explanation: Ossification and calcifications the body's process to transform osteoblasts into mature bone cells called osteocytes. Osteocytes are involved in maintaining bone tissue. Resorption and remodeling are involved in bone destruction. Epiphyses and diaphyses are bone tissues that provide strength and support to the human skeleton.
An instructor is describing the process of bone development. Which of the following would the instructor describe as being responsible for the process of ossification?
Osteoblasts Explanation: Osteoblasts secrete bone matrix (mostly collagen), in which inorganic minerals, such as calcium salts, are deposited. This process of ossification and calcification transforms the blast cells into mature bone cells, called osteocytes, which are involved in maintaining bone tissue. Cortical bone is dense hard bone found in the long shafts; cancellous bone is spongy bone found in the irregular rounded edges of bone.
A group of students are reviewing information about bones in preparation for a quiz. Which of the following indicates that the students have understood the material?
Osteoclasts are involved in the destruction and remodeling of bone. Explanation: Osteoclasts are the cells involved in the destruction, resorption, and remodeling of bone. Red bone marrow is responsible for manufacturing red blood cells. Long bones contain yellow bone marrow; the sternum, ileum, vertebrae, and ribs contain red bone marrow. Osteoblasts are transformed into osteocytes, mature bone cells.
The nurse is performing an assessment for a patient who may have peripheral neurovascular dysfunction. What signs does the patient present with that indicate circulation is impaired? (Select all that apply.)
Pale, cyanotic, or mottled color Cool temperature of the extremity More than 3-second capillary refill Explanation: Indicators of peripheral neurovascular dysfunction include pale, cyanotic, or mottled skin color; cool temperature of the extremities; and a capillary refill of more than 3 seconds.
Which nerve is being assessed when the nurses asks the client to dorsiflex the ankle and extend the toes?
Peroneal Explanation: The motor function of the peroneal nerve is assessed by asking the client to dorsiflex the ankle and to extend the toes, while pricking the skin between the great toe and center toe assesses sensory function. The radial nerve is assessed by asking the client to stretch out the thumb, then the wrist, and then the fingers at the metacarpal joints. The median nerve is assessed by asking the client to touch the thumb to the little finger. Asking the client to spread all fingers allows the nurse to assess motor function affected by ulnar innervation.
Red bone marrow produces which of the following? Select all that apply.
Platelets White blood cells (WBCs) Red blood cells (RBCs) Explanation: The red bone marrow located within the bone cavities produces RBC, WBCs, and platelets through the process of hematopoiesis. The red bone marrow does not produce estrogen or corticosteroids.
A nurse performs a neurovascular assessment on a client 2 weeks after a wrist cast had been removed. The nurse documents in the client's chart that there is normal sensation in the ulnar nerve. What finger assessment test will the nurse perform on this client?
Prick the distal fat pad on the small finger. Explanation: See Table 40-2 in the text. The ulnar nerve runs near the ulnar bone and enters the palm of the hand. It branches to the fifth finger (small finger) and the ulnar side of the fourth finger.
The nurse is caring for a client who experienced a crushing injury of the lower extremities. Which of the following symptoms is essential to be reported to the physician?
Pulselessness Explanation: Neurovascular checks (circulation, sensation, motion) are essential with a crushing injury. The absence of a pulse is a critical assessment finding to report to the physician. The other options are symptoms that need regular assessment.
After a fracture, during which stage or phase of bone healing is devitalized tissue removed and new bone reorganized into its former structural arrangement?
Remodeling Explanation: Remodeling is the final stage of fracture repair. During inflammation, macrophages invade and debride the fracture area. Revascularization occurs within about 5 days after a fracture. Callus forms during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site.
A client has just undergone arthrography. What is the most important instruction for the nurse to include in the teaching plan?
Report joint crackling or clicking noises occurring after the second day. Explanation: After undergoing arthrography, the client must be informed that he or she may hear crackling or clicking noises in the joints for up to 2 days, but if noises occur beyond this time, they should be reported. These noises may indicate the presence of a complication, and therefore should not be ignored or treated by the client. Massage is not indicated. The client need not be asked to avoid sunlight or dairy products.
Which of the following is an appropriate priority nursing diagnosis for the client following an arthrocentesis?
Risk for infection Explanation: The priority nursing diagnosis following an arthrocentesis is risk for infection. The client may experience acute pain. The client needs adequate information before experiencing the procedure. Activity intolerance would not be an expected nursing diagnosis.
What is the term for a lateral curving of the spine?
Scoliosis Explanation: Scoliosis is a lateral curving of the spine. Lordosis is an increase in the lumbar curvature of the spine. Diaphysis is the shaft of a long bone. Epiphysis is the end of a long bone.
A client has a fracture that is being treated with open rigid compression plate fixation devices. What teaching will the nurse reinforce to the client about how the progress of bone healing will be monitored?
Serial x-rays will be taken. Explanation: Serial x-rays are used to monitor the progress of bone healing. The plate need not be disturbed. An arthroscopy is used to visualize joints. While the bone will heal without interference, monitoring of bone healing is needed to ensure further adjustments are not necessary.
A client undergoes an invasive joint examination of the knee. What will the nurse closely monitor the client for?
Serous drainage Explanation: When the client undergoes an invasive knee joint examination, the nurse should inspect the knee area for swelling, bleeding, and serous drainage. An invasive joint examination does not cause lack of sleep or appetite, depression, or shock. The client may be in shock due to the injury itself.
Which laboratory study indicates the rate of bone turnover?
Serum osteocalcin Explanation: Serum osteocalcin (bone GLA protein) indicates the rate of bone turnover. Urine calcium concentration increases with bone destruction. Serum calcium concentration is altered in clients with osteomalacia and parathyroid dysfunction. Serum phosphorous concentration is inversely related to calcium concentration and is diminished in osteomalacia associated with malabsorption syndrome.
A group of students are studying for an examination on joints. The students demonstrate understanding of the material when they identify which of the following as an example of a synarthrodial joint?
Skull at the temporal and occipital bones Explanation: A synarthrodial joint is immovable and can be found at the suture line of the skull between the temporal and occipital bones. Amphiarthrodial joints are slightly moveable and are found between the vertebrae. The finger and hip joints are examples of diarthrodial joints that are freely moveable.
The nurse is assessing the client for scoliosis. What will the nurse have the client do to perform the assessment?
Stand behind the client and ask the client to bend forward at the waist. Explanation: Scoliosis is characterized by a lateral curvature of the spine. The nurse stands behind the client and asks the client to bend forward at the waist for the nurse to examine the spine curvature. The nurse cannot see the spine by standing beside the client or in front of the client. The spinal curve cannot be seen by watching the client walk.
Skull sutures are an example of which type of joint?
Synarthrosis Explanation: Skull sutures are considered synarthrosis joints and are immovable. Amphiarthrosis joints allow limited movement, such as a vertebral joint. Diarthrosis joints are freely movable joints such as the hip and shoulder. Aponeuroses are broad, flat sheets of connective tissue.
The nurse working in the orthopedic surgeon's office is asked to schedule a shoulder arthrography. The nurse determines that the surgeon suspects which finding?
Tear in the joint capsule Explanation: Arthrography is useful in identifying acute or chronic tears of the joint capsule or supporting ligaments of the knee, shoulder, ankle, hip, or waist. X-rays are used to diagnose bone fractures. Bone densitometry is used to estimate bone mineral density. An electromyogram (EMG) provides information about the electrical potential of the muscles and nerves leading to them.
A client is seen in the emergency room for a knee injury that happened during a basketball game. Diagnostic tests reveal torn cords of fibrous connective tissue that connect muscles to bones. What type of tear has this client sustained?
Tendon Explanation: Tendons are broad, flat sheets of connective tissue that attach muscles to bones, soft tissue, and other muscles. Ligaments bind bones together. A bursa is a synovial-filled sac, and fascia surround muscle cells.
A client experiences a musculoskeletal injury that involves the structure that connects a muscle to the bone. The nurse understands that this injury involves which structure?
Tendon Explanation: Tendons are cordlike structures that attach muscles to the periosteum of the bone. Ligaments consisting of fibrous tissue connect two adjacent, freely movable bones. Cartilage is a firm dense type of connective tissue that reduces friction between articular surfaces, absorbs shock, and reduces the stress on joint surfaces. A joint is the junction between 2 or more bones.
The emergency room nurse is reporting the location of a fracture to the client's primary care physician. When stating the location of the fracture on the long shaft of the femur, the nurse would be most correct to state which terminology locating the fractured site?
The fracture is on the diaphysis. Explanation: A fracture that is on the diaphysis is understood to be chiefly found in the long shafts of the arms and legs. The epiphyses are rounded, irregular ends of the bones. Saying a fracture is ventrally located does not assist in providing adequate details of the location of the fracture. A tuberosity is a projection from the bone or a protuberance.
The nurse assesses soft subcutaneous nodules along the line of the tendons in a patient's hand and wrist. What does this finding indicate to the nurse?
The patient has rheumatoid arthritis. Explanation: The subcutaneous nodules of rheumatoid arthritis are soft and occur within and along tendons that provide extensor function to the joints. Osteoarthritic nodules are hard and painless and represent bony overgrowth that has resulted from destruction of the cartilaginous surface of bone within the joint capsule. Lupus and neurofibromatosis are not associated with the production of nodules.
A client visits the health care provider for a routine checkup. The history reveals that the client was diagnosed with a spinal curvature. Which region of the spine should the nurse assess for complications?
Thoracic Explanation: The nurse should assess the thoracic region of the spine because a progressive curvature of more than 65 degrees in this region may lead to cardiopulmonary failure as well as less serious signs and symptoms, such as fatigue, back pain, decreased height, and cosmetic deformity. Although a curvature may affect any part of the spine, life-threatening complications aren't associated with curvature of the cervical, lumbar, or sacral regions.
The nurse is teaching a client about a vitamin that supports calcium's absorption. What vitamin is the nurse teaching the client about?
Vitamin D Explanation: To support the absorption of calcium from the gastrointestinal tract and increase the amount of calcium in the blood, there needs to be sufficient active vitamin D. Vitamin A is for eye health. Vitamin B12 is for anemia prevention. Vitamin C is used for skin and immune health.
A nurse provides nutritional health teaching to an adult client who had two fractures in 1 year. Besides recommending supplemental calcium, the nurse suggests a high-calcium diet. What would the nurse recommend that the client increase intake of?
Yogurt and cheese. Explanation: Yogurt and cheese are excellent sources of calcium. The other choices are low-calcium foods.
While reading a client's chart, the nurse notices that the client is documented to have paresthesia. The nurse plans care for a client with
abnormal sensations. Explanation: Abnormal sensations, such as burning, tingling, and numbness, are referred to as paresthesias. The absence of muscle tone suggesting nerve damage is referred to as paralysis. A fasciculation is the involuntary twitch of muscle fibers. A muscle that holds no tone is referred to as flaccid.
The nurse is performing a musculoskeletal assessment of a client in a nursing home who had a stroke 2 years ago and who has right-sided hemiplegia. The nurse notes that the girth of the client's right calf is 2 inches less in diameter than the left calf. The nurse attributes the decreased girth to
atrophy of right calf muscle. Explanation: Girth of an extremity may increase as a result of exercise, edema, or bleeding into the muscle. However, a client with right-sided hemiplegia is unable to use the right lower extremity. This client may experience atrophy of the muscles from lack of use, which results in a subsequent decrease in the girth of the calf muscle.
The nurse working in the emergency department receives a call from the x-ray department communicating that the client the nurse is caring for has a fracture in the shaft of the tibia. The nurse tells the physician that the client's fracture is in the
diaphysis. Explanation: The diaphysis is primarily cortical bone. An epiphysis is an end of a long bone. Lordosis refers to an increase in lumbar curvature of spine. Scoliosis refers to lateral curving of the spine.
There are thousands of components of the musculoskeletal system that facilitate mobility and independent function. The function of skeletal muscle is promoting:
movement of skeletal bones. Explanation: The skeletal muscles promote movement of the bones of the skeleton.
The nurse is conducting a medication reconciliation with a client admitted with a fracture. What medication predisposes a client for a risk for fractures?
prednisone Explanation: Prednisone, a corticosteroid, causes increased bone resorption and decreased bone formation, resulting in increased risk for fractures. Furosemide, digoxin, and metoprolol do not interfere with bone resorption or predispose clients to fractures.