Tingnan ang lahat ng mga set ng pag-aaral

Chap 18,19,20,21

Pataasin ang iyong marka sa homework at exams ngayon gamit ang Quizwiz!

NGU is a syndrome among males with chlamydial infections of the urethra.

True

Neisseria meningitidis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae are fastidious, gram-negative cocci that produce oxidase.

True

Propionibacterium acnes is normal flora of sebaceous glands of the skin.

True

Proteus species often cause urinary tract infections. True False

True

Pseudomonas aeruginosa is resistant to many antimicrobics. True False

True

The Enterobacteriaceae do not produce oxidase compared to the pseudomonads that do produce oxidase. True False

True

The IMViC series of biochemical tests are used to identify the Enterobacteriaceae. True False

True

The fermentation by-products of Clostridium perfringens can destroy muscle structure in myonecrosis.

True

The highest numbers of cases of Rocky Mountain spotted fever occur along the eastern seaboard.

True

The pathogen that causes Legionnaires pneumonia also causes a milder infection called Pontiac fever. True False

True

The spirochete of relapsing fever changes cell surface antigens many times in order to avoid destruction by the immune response.

True

Which of the following are other names for yaws? A. Bouba B. Frambesia tropica C. Patek D. All of the choices are correct. E. None of the choices are correct.

D. All of the choices are correct.

Production of a neurotoxin that binds to target sites on spinal cord neurons responsible for inhibiting skeletal muscle contraction is a characteristic of: A. Clostridium botulinum. B. Clostridium perfringens. C. Clostridium difficile. D. Clostridium tetani. E. All of the choices are correct.

D. Clostridium tetani.

Which bacteria could be responsible for hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)? A. Eterotoxigeic strains of E. coli B. Salmonella C. Shigella dysenteriae D. E. coli 0157:H7 E. Eteroinvasive E. coli

D. E. coli 0157:H7

Which of the following is an agent of the sexually transmitted disease chancroid? A. Haemophilus aegyptius B. Haemophilus influenzae C. Haemophilus parainfluenzae D. Haemophilus ducreyi E. Haemophilus aphrophilus

D. Haemophilus ducreyi

The vaccine for immunity to Haemophilus influenzae serotype b is A. DtaP. B. Pneumovax. C. MMR. D. Hib. E. None of the choices are correct.

D. Hib.

Which chemical produced by S. aureus is also known as "spreading factor"? A. Coagulase B. Penicillinase C. Hemolysin D. Hyaluronidase E. Toxic shock syndrome toxin

D. Hyaluronidase

Which is incorrect about Staphylococcus aureus food intoxication? A. Food becomes contaminated by a human carrier. B. Common associated foods include custards, ham, cream pastries, processed meats. C. After contamination, food must be left unrefrigerated for a few hours. D. Ingestion of the pathogen allows it to multiply and damage the GI tract lining. E. Symptoms come on quickly, and include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea.

D. Ingestion of the pathogen allows it to multiply and damage the GI tract lining.

Pasteurization of milk helps to prevent A. tularemia. B. pertussis. C. Legionellosis. D. brucellosis. E. shigellosis

D. brucellosis.

The toxin of Staphylococcus aureus strains that causes blisters and desquamation of skin in scalded skin syndrome is: A. enterotoxin. B. hemolysin. C. toxic shock syndrome toxin. D. exfoliative toxin. E. erythrogenic toxin.

D. exfoliative toxin.

Streptococcal pharyngitis involves all the following, except: A. a purulent exudate over the tonsils. B. can lead to scarlet fever if it is an erythrogenic toxin-producing strain. C. can lead to serious sequelae. D. is usually caused by the viridans streptococci. E. causes redness, difficulty in swallowing, and fever.

D. is usually caused by the viridans streptococci.

All of the following are correct about primary atypical pneumonia except A. it is mainly caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae. B. it can also be caused by adenoviruses. C. it is transmitted by aerosol droplets. D. it has symptoms similar to pneumococcal pneumonia. E. community resistance is high.

D. it has symptoms similar to pneumococcal pneumonia.

Which of the following pertains to diphtheria? A. it results in meningitis. B. symptoms include vomiting and diarrhea. C. it can be transmitted from mother's birth canal to neonate. D. it is prevented by the DTaP immunization. E. All of the choices are correct.

D. it is prevented by the DTaP immunization.

For which of the following diseases does the "feather test" provide evidence of early infection? A. tuberculosis B. botulism C. tetanus D. leprosy E. anthrax

D. leprosy

Treponema, Borrelia, and Leptospira are all A. obligate parasites requiring host cells. B. curved rods. C. transmitted by arthropod vectors. D. spirochetes. E. bacteria without cell walls.

D. spirochetes.

Swimming pool granuloma is caused by: A. Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC). B. Mycobacterium kansasii. C. Mycobacterium scrofulaceum. D. Mycobacterium fortuitum complex. E. Mycobacterium marinum.

E. Mycobacterium marinum.

All of the following pertain to Enterococcus faecalis, except: A. normal flora of the human large intestine. B. increasingly resistant to many antimicrobics. C. cause nosocomial wound infections, urinary tract infections, and septicemias. D. can cause endocarditis. E. belong to Lancefield Group B streptococci.

E. belong to Lancefield Group B streptococci.

Botulism is often referred to as lockjaw.

False

Chlamydias and rickettsias are unusual bacteria because they do not have cell walls.

False

Humans are the reservoir for Borrelia hermsii.

False

Legionellosis is a zoonosis. True False

False

Listeria monocytogenes does not grow in refrigerated foods.

False

Lyme disease is only seen in people living in Lyme, Connecticut.

False

Most strains of Streptococcus pyogenes produce penicillinase

False

People who have received the BCG immunization will generally have a negative tuberculin skin test.

False

Pneumovax is a vaccine for prevention of disease caused by strains of Neisseria meningitidis.

False

Pseudomonas is an enteric gram negative rod. True False

False

Streptokinase causes the symptoms of scarlet fever.

False

This opportunist is the most frequent cause of life-threatening pneumonia in AIDS patients:

Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci

The microbial pathogen associated with the development of acne is:

Propionibacterium acnes.

Botulin, the toxin of botulism is: A. not as virulent as tetanospasmin. B. detected and diagnosed by analyzing a patient's blood. C. the cause of rigid paralysis. D. only produced under anaerobic conditions. E. produced when spores germinate in the intestines of adults after ingesting contaminated food.

. only produced under anaerobic conditions.

Antimicrobials effective against a wide variety of microbial types are termed:

: broad-spectrum drugs.

What is the causative agent of Farmer's Lung and Bagossis? A. Actinomyces israelii B. Nocardia C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis D. Bacillus anthracis E. Clostridium perfringens

A. Actinomyces israelii

Although Burkholderia cepacia could be very useful in bioremediation programs, it is not feasible to use it. Why? A. Because it can cause opportunistic infections in the respiratory tract. B. Because it cannot be cultured in the lab to necessary numbers. C. Because it is too expensive at this time to grow it. D. It encourages the overgrowth of fungus in the environment, which is not desirable. E. It produces a foul odor making it a poor choice for most situations.

A. Because it can cause opportunistic infections in the respiratory tract.

Production of a neurotoxin that prevents acetylcholine release from motor neurons at neuromuscular junctions is a characteristic of: A. Clostridium botulinum. B. Clostridium perfringens. C. Clostridium difficile. D. Clostridium tetani. E. All of the choices are correct.

A. Clostridium botulinum.

Which is mismatched? A. H antigen - fimbriae B. K antigen - capsule C. O antigen - cell wall, somatic D. All of the choices are correct. E. None of the choices are correct.

A. H antigen - fimbriae

A cause of epiglottitis in children and young adults is A. Haemophilus influenzae. B. Haemophilus ducreyi. C. Haemophilus aegyptius. D. Haemophilus parainfluenzae. E. Haemophilus aphrophilus.

A. Haemophilus influenzae.

Which disease involves transmission by aerosolized water from whirlpool spas, air conditioners, cooling towers, and supermarket vegetable misters? A. Legionellosis B. Pertussis C. Brucellosis D. Plague E. Traveler's diarrhea

A. Legionellosis

Which of the following is not transmitted via an arthropod vector? A. Leptospirosis B. Lyme disease C. Rocky Mountain spotted fever D. Epidemic typhus

A. Leptospirosis

The white-footed mouse, deer, and deer ticks are important to maintaining the enzootic transmission cycle, associated with A. Lyme disease. B. leptospirosis. C. chlamydiosis. D. Rocky Mountain spotted fever. E. tertiary syphilis.

A. Lyme disease.

Which pathogen has drug resistant strains called MRSA? A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Staphylococcus epidermidis C. Staphylococcus saprophytic-us D. Streptococcus pyogenes E. Streptococcus agalactiae

A. Staphylococcus aureus

The pathogenesis of rickettsial infections often involves infection of A. endothelial lining of blood vessels. B. gastrointestinal lining. C. dermis of the skin. D. stomach mucosa. E. urinary tract.

A. endothelial lining of blood vessels.

All of the following are associated with bubonic plague, except A. it is transmitted by human feces. B. it is caused by Yersinia pestis. C. the patient often has enlarged inguinal lymph nodes. D. the patient has fever, headache, nausea, weakness. E. it can progress to a septicemia.

A. it is transmitted by human feces.

Control of rodent populations is important for preventing A. tick-borne relapsing fever. B. ornithosis. C. epidemic typhus. D. Q fever. E. All of the choices are correct.

A. tick-borne relapsing fever.

Rabbits and rodents are the reservoirs of the causative agent of A. tularemia. B. pertussis. C. Legionellosis. D. brucellosis. E. shigellosis.

A. tularemia.

The most immediate and important treatment needed to prevent death in Cholera victims is A. water and electrolyte replacement. B. antimicrobics. C. antitoxin. D. surgery. E. None of the choices are correct.

A. water and electrolyte replacement.

Which is incorrect about Leptospirosis? A. It can be avoided by not swimming in livestock watering ponds. B. A vaccine is not available. C. Its principle targets are the kidneys, liver, brain, and eyes. D. It is a zoonosis. E. Weil's syndrome occurs during the second phase of the disease.

B. A vaccine is not available.

Production of enterotoxin is a characteristic of: A. Clostridium botulinum. B. Clostridium perfringens C. Clostridium difficile. D. Clostridium tetani. E. All of the choices are correct.

B. Clostridium perfringens.

Which of the following antibiotics specifically disrupt protein synthesis of streptococci? A. Beta-lactams B. Macrolides C. Cephalosporins D. Ansamycin E. Aminoglycosides

B. Macrolides

The enzyme that coagulates plasma is: A. catalase. B. coagulase. C. hyaluronidase. D. staphylokinase. E. Dnase.

B. coagulase.

Salmonella are A. coliforms. B. motile. C. gram positive rods. D. lactose fermenters. E. All of the choices are correct.

B. motile.

The causative agent of Lyme disease is A. Ixodes scapularis. B. Borrelia hermsii. C. Borrelia burgdorferi. D. Ixodes pacificus. E. Leptospira interrogans.

C. Borrelia burgdorferi.

Although this bacteria is typically found in soil and water, burn wound patients are susceptible to ___infection. A. Yersinia pestis B. Bordetella pertussis C. Pseudomonas D. E. coli 0157:H7

C. Pseudomonas

All of the following are coliforms that cause opportunistic and nosocomial infections, except: A. Enterobacter. B. Citrobacter. C. Shigella. D. Klebsiella. E. Serratia

C. Shigella.

Which organism is associated with commonly causing urinary tract infections in sexually active young adult and adolescent females? A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Staphylococcus epidermidis C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus D. Streptococcus pyogenes E. Streptococcus agalactiae

C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus

Which chemical, produced by S. aureus, digests blood clots? A. Coagulase B. Penicillinase C. Staphylokinase D. Hyaluronidase E. Toxic shock syndrome toxin

C. Staphylokinase

Permanent cardiovascular and neurological damage is seen in which stage of syphilis? A. Primary B. Secondary C. Tertiary D. Latent E. All of the choices are correct.

C. Tertiary

All of the following are correct about Streptococcus pyogenes, except: A. humans are the only significant reservoir. B. some of the streptococcal toxins act as superantigens. C. most strains do not have a capsule. D. it can cause impetigo and erysipelas. E. infection is generally through direct contact.

C. most strains do not have a capsule.

The M protein of Streptococcus pyogenes: A. is the basis for the organism belonging to Lancefield group A. B. gives rise to a zone of b hemolysis on blood agar. C. protects against phagocytosis and enhances adherence. D. is also called streptokinase. E. protects against lysozyme damage.

C. protects against phagocytosis and enhances adherence.

Infections caused by Staphylococcus aureus include all of the following, except: A. folliculitis. B. furuncles and carbuncles. C. sore throat. D. osteomyelitis. E. pneumonia.

C. sore throat.

The use of an organism's biochemical processes to create a product is referred to as:

biotechnology

Formation of a pseudomembrane in the back of the throat is seen in cases of

diphtheria.

Which of the following is not a genotypic method of identification?

direct antigen testing

Surfactants work by:

disrupting membrane integrity

Which type of white blood cell is particularly attracted to sites of parasitic worm infections?

eosinophils

A technique that separates a readable pattern of DNA fragments is

gel electrophoresis.

Local edema, swollen lymph nodes, fever, soreness, and abscesses are indications of:

inflammation.

Edward Jenner's work involved:

inoculation of dried pus from smallpox pustules into a person to stimulate immunity.

All of the following are characteristics of IgM except ID DOES: has 10 antigen binding sites. contains a central J chain. is the first class synthesized by a plasma cell. can serve as a B-cell receptor.

is a dimer.

The enzyme required to attach the sticky ends of DNA and used when splicing DNA fragments into other DNA is:

ligase.

Specific immunity provides long-lasting protection through the production of ____.

memory cells

When the centers of tubercles break down into _____ lesions, they gradually heal by calcification that replaces normal lung tissue.

necrotic caseous

When buds remain attached, fungi form a chain of yeast cells called Question 50 options:

pseudohyphae.

Understanding about the defenses of the eye, you would predict that a person __________ would have a higher rate of eye infections.

who has a problem producing tears

Botox injections contain botulin toxin.

True

In severe cases of Rocky Mountain spotted fever, the enlarged lesions of the rash can become necrotic and predispose the patient to gangrene of toes and fingertips.

True

It is theorized that rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis could be the result of antibodies to Group A streptococci that cross-react with patient tissues.

True

Plague is a quarantinable disease. True False

True

Tetanus can be prevented with the DTaP childhood immunization and boosters of the tetanus toxoid.

True

The vector involved in African sleeping sickness is the Question 43 options:

Tsetse fly

A paroxysmal cough is associated with Legionnaires' disease. True False

False

An individual with asymptomatic N. gonorrhoeae may not spread the disease

False

Shigellosis may not be acquired through oral-fecal routes and direct contact. True False

False

Debridement of diseased tissue is important in the care of patients with gas gangrene.

True

Dental caries is the most common human disease.

True

Treponea pallidum subspecies pallidum A. All of the choices are correct. B. has humans as the reservoir. C. can cross the placenta. D. is the cause of syphilis. E. is transmitted by direct sexual contact.

A. All of the choices are correct.

Impetigo involves itching papules that break and form a very contagious yellow crust.

True

Which is not a characteristic of spirochetes? A. All are pathogenic B. Gram negative C. Helical shape D. Always motile E. Endoflagella enclosed in periplasmic space

A. All are pathogenic

Which is incorrect about Mycoplasma pneumoniae? A. It has birds as a reservoir. B. It is a common cause of primary atypical pneumonia. C. Initially causes fever, malaise, sore throat, headache. D. After 2 to 3 weeks, it develops into an unproductive cough and earache. E. Is a bacterial cell without a cell wall.

A. It has birds as a reservoir.

Which is incorrect about Lyme disease? A. It is a new disease that started in Lyme, Connecticut. B. Its reservoirs are mice and deer. C. It is transmitted by ticks. D. It is nonfatal. E. It can slowly progress and mimic rheumatoid conditions.

A. It is a new disease that started in Lyme, Connecticut.

The common soil mycobacteria that frequently cause systemic infection and death in AIDS patients is: A. Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC). B. Mycobacterium kansasii. C. Mycobacterium scrofulaceum. D. Mycobacterium fortuitum complex. E. Mycobacterium marinum.

A. Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC).

Which is mismatched? A. Rickettsia rickettsii - epidemic typhus B. Coxiella burnetii - Q fever C. Bartonella quintana - trench fever D. Bartonella henselae - cat scratch disease E. Rickettsia typhi - endemic (murine) typhus

A. Rickettsia rickettsii - epidemic typhus

A common food intoxication is caused by enterotoxin-producing strains of: A. Staphylococcus aureus. B. Staphylococcus epidermidis. C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus. D. Streptococcus pyogenes. E. Streptococcus agalactiae.

A. Staphylococcus aureus.

The majority of otitis media in children is mainly due to infection with: A. Streptococcus pneumoniae. B. Streptococcus pyogenes. C. Branhamella (Moraxella) catarrhalis. D. Streptococcus agalactiae. E. Staphylococcus saprophyticus.

A. Streptococcus pneumoniae.

Which is incorrect regarding Q fever? A. Transmitted by lice B. Pathogen produces resistant spores C. Humans infected from unpasteurized milk and airborne spread D. Causes fever, muscle aches, rash, and sometimes pneumonia E. Is a zoonosis

A. Transmitted by lice

In patients with diabetes or liver disease, ingestion of raw oysters contaminated with this organism can lead to death: A. Vibrio vulnificus B. Vibrio parahaemolyticus C. Vibrio cholerae D. Campylobacter jejuni E. Helicobacter pylori

A. Vibrio vulnificus

All of the following pertain to gonorrhea, except: A. a chancre-type lesion develops at the portal of entry. B. it is a reportable infectious disease. C. pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) and infertility are complications. D. females can have asymptomatic infection. E. symptoms include painful urination and discharge.

A. a chancre-type lesion develops at the portal of entry.

Which is not correct about Mycobacterium species? A. all species are human pathogens B. cell walls have waxy lipids C. acid fast D. usually have a slow growth rate E. long, slender rods

A. all species are human pathogens

Yaws, Pinta, and Bejel are all diseases that A. are slow, progressive skin diseases that can spread to deep tissues. B. are sexually transmitted. C. are caused by arthropod vectors. D. are caused by Vibrio species. E. are respiratory tract infections.

A. are slow, progressive skin diseases that can spread to deep tissues.

Tuberculoid leprosy: A. causes asymmetrical, shallow skin lesions with loss of pain sensation. B. is the most disfiguring. C. pathogen grows extensively in cooler body areas such as nose, ears, testes. D. complications include secondary infections, kidney, or respiratory failure. E. includes all of these choices.

A. causes asymmetrical, shallow skin lesions with loss of pain sensation.

Rebecca Lancefield differentiated streptococci on the basis of differences in their: A. cell wall carbohydrates in a serological test. B. patterns of hemolysis on blood agar. C. ability to produce catalase. D. gram stain appearance. E. All of the choices are correct.

A. cell wall carbohydrates in a serological test.

Formation of a pseudomembrane in the back of the throat is seen in: A. diphtheria. B. listeriosis. C. tuberculosis. D. erysipeloid. E. botulism.

A. diphtheria.

Up to 70% of travel-associated gastrointestinal diseases are caused by A. enterotoxigenic strains of E. coli. B. Salmonella. C. Shigella dysenteriae D. E. coli 0157:H7. E. enteroinvasive E. coli.

A. enterotoxigenic strains of E. coli.

The Group A streptococcal infection that has symptoms of fever, edema of skin near portal of entry, and an elevated red, hot vesicular lesion is: A. erysipelas. B. impetigo C. necrotizing fasciitis. D. scarlet fever. E. None of the choices are correct.

A. erysipelas.

Which is not a characteristic of Helicobacter pylori? A. gram negative B. produces enteroxin that causes diarrhea C. curved rods D. lives in the stomach E. produces urease that buffers stomach acidity

A. gram negative

The tertiary stage of syphilis A. is when gummas develop in tissues. B. is when the patient is highly infectious to others. C. occurs within 10 days of the primary stage. D. has no symptoms E. is when a chancre develops.

A. is when gummas develop in tissues.

Which of the following is not true about diphtheria? A. it is a zoonosis B. humans can be healthy carriers C. it is prevented with the DTaP vaccine D. it is an upper respiratory infection E. it can be transmitted via contaminated milk

A. it is a zoonosis

All of the following pertain to Clostridium difficile infection, except: A. it is due to ingestion of contaminated, improperly stored, cooked meats and gravies. B. it is a colitis that is a superinfection. C. it often has an endogenous source. D. it may be on the rise due to increased use of gastric acid inhibitors. E. it is major cause of diarrhea in hospitals

A. it is due to ingestion of contaminated, improperly stored, cooked meats and gravies.

Typhoid fever has the following characteristics, except A. it is spread by ingestion of food contaminated with animal feces. B. it is transmitted by ingesting fecal contaminated food and water. C. it can cause chronic carriers to have pathogens in their gallbladder. D. it can infect the small intestine with fever, diarrhea, and abdominal pain. E. it can become a septicemia, spread to lymph nodes and spleen, and cause liver abscesses.

A. it is spread by ingestion of food contaminated with animal feces.

All of the following are characteristics of Campylobacter jejuni except A. it is transmitted through ingestion of contaminated chicken, meat, milk, and water. B. it causes fever and a watery to bloody diarrhea. C. it infects the stomach. D. it produces an enterotoxin called CJT that stimulates diarrhea. E. it has gram negative curved rods with darting motility.

A. it is transmitted through ingestion of contaminated chicken, meat, milk, and water.

E. coli 0157:H7 characteristics include all the following, except: A. it only causes occupational illness in people who work with animals. B. it is transmitted by ingestion of contaminated, undercooked food, especially hamburger. C. it causes a bloody diarrhea. D. it is reservoir is cattle intestines. E. some cases go on to hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) with possible kidney failure.

A. it only causes occupational illness in people who work with animals.

All species of Staphylococcus: A. lack spores. B. are motile. C. are motile. D. produce coagulase. E. All of the choices are correct.

A. lack spores.

Ureaplasma urealyticum is implicated in which of the following? A. nongonococcal urethritis B. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever C. periodontal disease D. Q fever E. endemic typhus

A. nongonococcal urethritis

Gingivitis is A. primarily caused by anaerobic oral flora. B. erosion of tooth enamel causing a lesion. C. caused by Streptococcus mutans. D. also called NUG. E. None of the choices are correct.

A. primarily caused by anaerobic oral flora.

This type of anthrax is called "wool-sorter's disease": A. pulmonary. B. gastrointestinal. C. cutaneous. D. All of the choices are correct. E. None of the choices are correct.

A. pulmonary.

Nationwide, over 100,000 patients a year die from septic shock. This is due to A. the presence of lipopolysaccharide in the outer membrane. B. lipoteichoic acid in the cell wall. C. a cytotoxin similar to the diphtheria toxin. D. coagulase. E. a neurotoxin similar to botulin.

A. the presence of lipopolysaccharide in the outer membrane.

In both botulism and tetanus, respiratory muscles cannot facilitate breathing and, if untreated, respiratory collapse leads to death.

True

This organism can infect deeper wound sites and produce exotoxins, enzymes, and gas that cause tissue and muscle necrosis: A. Clostridium botulinum B. Clostridium perfringens C. Clostridium difficile D. Clostridium tetani E. All of the choices are correct.

B. Clostridium perfringens

A pregnant woman is told she has a positive CAMP test and should be treated with a course of antibiotics and globulin. This test is indicative of A. Group A streptococci. B. Group B streptococci. C. S. saprophyticus. D. S. epidermidis. E. S. aureus.

B. Group B streptococci.

Which fastidious genus requires hemin (X factor) and NAD (X factor) in its growth medium? A. Legionella B. Haemophilus C. Brucella D. Shigella E. All of the choices are correct.

B. Haemophilus

Which of the following is normal oral and nasopharyngeal flora but is involved in infective endocarditis in adults who have underlying congenital or rheumatic heart disease? A. Haemophilus influenzae B. Haemophilus aphrophilus C. Haemophilus aegyptius D. Haemophilus ducreyi E. All of the choices are correct.

B. Haemophilus aphrophilus

Causes a non-communicable pulmonary infection that resembles tuberculosis: A. Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) B. Mycobacterium kansasii C. Mycobacterium scrofulaceum D. Mycobacterium fortuitum complex E. Mycobacterium marinum.

B. Mycobacterium kansasii

During which stage of syphilis does fever, lymphadenopathy, and a red to brown rash occur? A. Primary B. Secondary C. Tertiary D. Latent E. All of the choices are correct

B. Secondary

Sue brought her daughter Amy to the pediatrician complaining of a sore throat. The physician examines Amy and observes that her throat is bright red and there are white pus-filled nodules on her tonsils. Which of the following conclusions should be made? A. She has a strep throat and should begin antibiotics. B. She should have a rapid strep test performed before a diagnosis is made. C. She should go home and rest because most sore throats are viral in origin. D. She should go home and come back in two days for a strep test since it may take that long to show up. E. She has a staphylococcal sore throat and should begin antibiotics immediately.

B. She should have a rapid strep test performed before a diagnosis is made.

Which of the following is not correct concerning the plague? A. Mice, voles, and other rodents are primary long-term reservoirs. B. Strains of the plague bacillus are less virulent today as they were in the Middle Ages. C. It is transmitted by flea vectors. D. Less than 10 cases per year occur in the US. E. The etiological agent is Yersinia pestis.

B. Strains of the plague bacillus are less virulent today as they were in the Middle Ages.

Which of the following is not correct concerning Legionnaires disease? A. L. pneumophila lives in close associations with free-living amoebas. B. The disease is communicable from person to person. C. Symptoms include cough, diarrhea, and abdominal pain. D. It is more common in males over 50 years of age. E. Cases have been traced to the fallout from the Mount Saint Helen's volcano.

B. The disease is communicable from person to person.

An organism found in coastal waters that causes a food infection and gastroenteritis due to a variety of contaminated raw and undercooked seafood is A. Chlamydia trachomatis. B. Vibrio parahaemolyticus. C. Vibrio cholerae. D. Campylobacter jejuni. E. Helicobacter pylori.

B. Vibrio parahaemolyticus.

Characteristics of Bacillus anthracis include all the following, except: A. capsule and exotoxins are virulence factors. B. anaerobic. C. reservoir includes infected grazing animals and contaminated soil. D. gram positive bacillus. E. spore former

B. anaerobic.

Symptoms of Toxic Shock Syndrome include all the following, except: A. fever and muscle pain. B. appearance of flesh being "eaten" down to the muscle. C. nausea, vomiting, diarrhea. D. sunburn-like rash. E. kidney and liver failure.

B. appearance of flesh being "eaten" down to the muscle.

Meningococcemia is: A. common during gonorrhea. B. associated with vascular hemorrhage and petechiae. C. frequently seen in elderly. D. caused by a gram positive diplococcus. E. All of the choices are correct.

B. associated with vascular hemorrhage and petechiae.

Pertussis has the following characteristics, except: A. pathogen has virulence factors to destroy the action of respiratory cilia. B. catarrhal stage has persistent, hacking coughs with "whoops". C. early stage resembles a cold with nasal discharge and sneezing. D. DTaP immunization will prevent it. E. transmission is by respiratory droplets.

B. catarrhal stage has persistent, hacking coughs with "whoops".

Whooping cough is transmitted via respiratory droplets. The___stage lasts 1-2 weeks, while the second stage________is when a person has severe coughing. A. primary, secondary B. catarrhal, paroxysmal C. incubation, convalescent D. Low T-cell, High macrophage

B. catarrhal, paroxysmal

Mycobacterium tuberculosis: A. produces several virulence factor enzymes and an exotoxin. B. has a cord factor that can prevent destruction by lysosomes and macrophages. C. is a spore former. D. has a capsule. E. lives in the soil.

B. has a cord factor that can prevent destruction by lysosomes and macrophages.

Which of the following is not caused by Haemophilus influenzae? A. bacterial meningitis B. influenza (flu) C. otitis media D. bronchitis E. epiglottitis

B. influenza (flu)

Ornithosis A. is caused by Chlamydia pneumoniae. B. is a zoonosis of certain types of birds. C. is a mild, upper respiratory tract illness. D. has humans as a reservoir for the pathogen. E. All of the choices are correct.

B. is a zoonosis of certain types of birds.

All of the following are associated with subacute endocarditis, except: A. it occurs in patients that have prior heart damage. B. it is caused by immune system autoantibodies that attack heart and valve tissue. C. oral bacteria get introduced by dental procedures to the blood. D. bacteria colonize previously damaged heart tissue resulting in vegetation. E. signs and symptoms include fever, heart murmur, and possible emboli.

B. it is caused by immune system autoantibodies that attack heart and valve tissue.

Treponema vincentii, Bacteroides forsythus, and fusobacteria synergistically are involved in which infection? A. gingivitis B. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG) C. ornithosis D. yaws

B. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG)

All of the following pertain to infant botulism, except: A. symptoms include "floppy baby" appearance. B. neurotoxin is not involved in the disease process. C. ingested spores can germinate in the immature intestines of the neonate. D. symptoms include flaccid paralysis and respiratory complications. E. it is the most common type of botulism in the United States.

B. neurotoxin is not involved in the disease process.

All of the following pertain to Listeria monocytogenes, except: A. gram positive B. sporeformer C. contaminant of dairy products, meats, poultry D. causes foodborne listeriosis E. bacterial cells multiply within the cytoplasm of a host cell

B. sporeformer

The RPR, VDRL, MHA-TP, FTA-ABS, and TPI tests are used to diagnose A. chlamydiosis. B. syphilis. C. lyme disease. D. Rocky Mountain spotted fever. E. Q fever.

B. syphilis.

All of the following are correct about Staphylococcus aureus, except: A. it is the coagulase-positive species. B. the body's most powerful defense against it lies in the T-cell response. C. carriers may be treated with antibiotics to clear them of the bacteria. D. most strains are resistant to penicillin and ampicillin. E. it causes furuncles, carbuncles, and abscesses.

B. the body's most powerful defense against it lies in the T-cell response.

Which of the following is not true about leprosy? A. it is caused by Hansen's bacillus in honor of its discoverer B. the leprosy bacillus is highly virulent C. armadillos harbor a genetically identical M. leprae D. early signs appear as small, spotty lesions colored differently than the surrounding skin E. the number of new cases in the U.S. each year is about 100 to 200

B. the leprosy bacillus is highly virulent

There are many infectious agents that would make excellent biological weapons. Which one of the following would be the best choice for such a weapon? Consider dissemination of the weapon, death rate, etc. when you answer this question.

Bacillus anthracis

Which of the following diseases could be prevented with proper sewage disposal and water purification? A. Vibrio parahaemolyticus gastroenteritis B. Vibrio vulnificus gastroenteritis C. Cholera D. Lyme disease E. Leptospirosis

C. Cholera

According to CDC data, who is more likely to acquire a rickettsial disease? A. Tom who traveled to Arizona for the summer B. Sally who went to the beach at Big Sur, CA C. Mike who visited his aunt in Sub-Saharan Africa D. Phil who stayed home and mowed his lawn E. Harry who works in a pet store and hates fleas and ticks

C. Mike who visited his aunt in Sub-Saharan Africa

If left untreated, an infection with ___ can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease and infertility. A. Streptococcus pneumoniae B. N. meningitidis C. N. gonorrhoeae D. Streptotoccus pyogenes E. Staphylococcus aureus

C. N. gonorrhoeae

The gram-negative bacillus associated with abscesses from dog and cat bites or scratches is A. Salmonella typhimurium. B. Yersinia enterocolitica. C. Pasteurella multocida. D. Brucella suis. E. Francisella tularensis.

C. Pasteurella multocida.

Which of the following distinguishes syphilis from yaws? A. Syphilis is caused by a spirochete. B. Syphilis has a primary, secondary, and tertiary stages. C. Syphilis is sexually transmitted. D. Syphilis is treated with antibiotics. E. Syphilis is a slow and progressive disease.

C. Syphilis is sexually transmitted.

"Rice water stools" are associated with disease caused by this organism: A. Vibrio vulnificus B. Vibrio parahaemolyticus C. Vibrio cholerae D. Campylobacter jejuni E. Helicobacter pylori

C. Vibrio cholerae

Streptococcus pneumoniae is: A. called the meningococcus. B. in the viridans group. C. a gram positive diplococcus with a capsule. D. a pathogen with endotoxin. E. All of the choices are correct.

C. a gram positive diplococcus with a capsule.

Erysipeloid is transmitted by: A. inhalation of spores from hides and wool of animals. B. ingestion of improperly cooked hot dogs. C. an abrasion on skin coming in contact with infected swine or other animals. D. contaminated soil entering deep puncture wounds. E. respiratory secretions.

C. an abrasion on skin coming in contact with infected swine or other animals.

The most common site where carriers of Staphylococcus aureus carry this pathogen is: A. all over the skin. B. under the fingernails. C. anterior nares (nostrils). D. mouth. E. intestines.

C. anterior nares (nostrils).

Actinomyces israelii: A. can be transmitted by respiratory droplets. B. can cause pneumonia with symptoms similar to tuberculosis. C. are filamentous rods that grow in clusters called sulfur granules in infected tissue. D. lives in the soil. E. causes most cases in the immunocompromised.

C. are filamentous rods that grow in clusters called sulfur granules in infected tissue.

Necrotizing fasciitis is: A. also called impetigo. B. possibly caused by antibodies to Group A streptococci that cross-react with body tissues. C. associated with strains of Streptococcus pyogenes producing destructive enzymes and toxins. D. typically a sequelae of streptococcal pharyngitis. E. not treatable with antimicrobic drugs.

C. associated with strains of Streptococcus pyogenes producing destructive enzymes and toxins.

Generally, what must healthy adults consume in order to contract botulism? A. spores of C. botulinum B. vegetative cells of C. botulinum C. botulin toxin on contaminated food D. botulin toxoid on contaminated food E. botulin antitoxin on contaminated food

C. botulin toxin on contaminated food

The foodborne disease that involves neurotoxin is: A. gastrointestinal anthrax. B. Bacillus cereus intoxication. C. botulism. D. Clostridium perfringens gastroenteritis. E. All of the choices are correct.

C. botulism.

Staphylococci can be differentiated from streptococci by the: A. Gram stain. B. coagulase test. C. catalase test. D. fermentation of mannitol. E. None of the choices are correct.

C. catalase test.

Leprosy is a disease: A. of lung tissue. B. that has been eradicated around the world. C. caused by a pathogen that cannot be cultured in the lab. D. can be diagnosed by the Mantoux test. E. caused by a sporeforming, gram-positive bacillus.

C. caused by a pathogen that cannot be cultured in the lab.

Which form of anthrax involves a black eschar on the skin? A. pulmonary B. gastrointestinal C. cutaneous D. All of the choices are correct. E. None of the choices are correct.

C. cutaneous

Pseudomonas aeruginosa causes all the following, except A. severe nosocomial infection in burn patients. B. skin rashes from contaminated hot tubs and bath sponges. C. diarrheal illness. D. external ear infection. E. serious infection in lung tissue of cystic fibrosis patients.

C. diarrheal illness.

The major virulence factor of Corynebacterium diphtheriae that causes serious systemic effects is: A. capsule. B. metachromatic granules. C. exotoxin. D. endospores. E. endotoxin.

C. exotoxin.

Rocky Mountain spotted fever A. is seen in highest numbers along the west coast. B. is transmitted by Ixodes ticks. C. has symptoms that include fever, headache, and rash. D. never has severe complications. E. All of the choices are correct.

C. has symptoms that include fever, headache, and rash.

The secondary stage of syphilis A. is when the patient is no longer infectious to others. B. occurs within 10 days of the primary stage. C. is a time when the pathogen enters and multiplies in the blood. D. has no symptoms. E. is when gummas develop in tissues.

C. is a time when the pathogen enters and multiplies in the blood.

Which is incorrect about shigellosis? A. outbreaks have occurred in day care centers B. it is watery diarrhea with bloody, mucoid stools, and abdominal cramps C. it frequently involves septicemia D. human carriers cause fecal transmission E. it is also called bacillary dysentery

C. it frequently involves septicemia

Which is not a characteristic of Nocardia? A. it can be transmitted by respiratory droplets. B. it can cause pneumonia with symptoms similar to tuberculosis. C. they are filamentous rods that grow in clusters called sulfur granules in infected tissue. D. it lives in the soil. E. it causes most cases in the immunocompromised.

C. they are filamentous rods that grow in clusters called sulfur granules in infected tissue.

The buildup of mucus and blockage of airways in pertussis is due to A. endotoxin B. lipopolysaccharide. C. toxins that destroy the ciliated cells of the respiratory tract. D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa. E. the presence of a capsule.

C. toxins that destroy the ciliated cells of the respiratory tract.

Infected animals shed Leptospira interrogans in their A. feces. B. blood. C. urine. D. respiratory secretions. E. saliva

C. urine.

Which organism is a common cause of meningitis in AIDS patients and can be found in bird droppings?

Cryptococcus neoformans

Which color pigment is produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa? A. Lemon yellow B. Red-orange C. Golden D. Blue-green E. Pale orange

D. Blue-green

Lyme disease is caused by __transmitted by ticks. A. Proteus vulgaris B. Rickettsia typhi C. Rickettsia rickettsii D. Borrelia burghdorferi

D. Borrelia burghdorferi

Erythema migrans, a bull's-eye rash, at the portal of entry is associated with A. syphilis. B. Rocky Mountain spotted fever. C. relapsing fever. D. Lyme disease. E. leptospirosis.

D. Lyme disease.

A client has a serious case of lung infection. A cerebrospinal fluid sample was taken. The lab tech said they isolated a bacterium that did not have any peptidoglycan. You hypothesize that the identity of this microbe could possibly be __. A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis B. Borrelia burgdorfer C. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Mycoplasma pnmoniae

D. Mycoplasma pnmoniae

The instillation of antibiotics in newborn's eyes will prevent ophthalmia neonatorum in newborns. This disease is caused by: A. Neisseria meningitidis. B. Staphylococcus aureus. C. Streptococcus pyogenes. D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae. E. Branhamella (Moraxella) catarrhalis.

D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

Local Staphylococcus aureus infections often involve formation of an abscess.

True

Which of the following species was once considered so benign that microbiologists used it to trace movements of air currents in hospitals and over cities? A. Morganella B. Providenci C. Citrobacter D. Serratia E. Legionella

D. Serratia

Scarlet fever is caused by strains of: A. Staphylococcus aureus. B. Staphylococcus epidermidis. C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus. D. Streptococcus pyogenes. E. Streptococcus agalactiae.

D. Streptococcus pyogenes.

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of Actinomyces israelii? A. Important for compost production B. Found in soil C. Rods with colonies displaying hyphael growth D. Strict aerobe E. Non-endospore former

D. Strict aerobe

What is incorrect about pertussis? A. A virulence factor of B. pertussis is toxins that destroy cilia cells is produced. B. The source of infection is direct contact with inhaled droplets. C. The paroxysmal stage is characterized by persistent coughing. D. The number of cases is steadily decreasing since 1976. E. It can cause severe, life-threatening complications in babies.

D. The number of cases is steadily decreasing since 1976.

Hutchinson's teeth are A. a symptom of untreated Lyme disease. B. a symptom of untreated periodontal disease. C. a symptom of ANUG. D. a symptom of congenital syphilis. E. a symptom of congenital Chlamydia trachomatis.

D. a symptom of congenital syphilis.

People at greatest risk for pneumococcal infections include all the following, except: A. elderly. B. those with underlying lung disease and viral infections. C. patients without a spleen. D. adolescents and young adults. E. young infants.

D. adolescents and young adults.

Which is not correct about Bacillus cereus? A. present in soil B. produce enterotoxins C. causes foodborne intoxication D. causes a zoonosis E. associated with cooked rice, potato, and meat dishes that are stored at room temperature

D. causes a zoonosis

Botulism will always be a threat for people who: A. are meat eaters. B. are vegetarians. C. have a weakened immune system. D. consume home-preserved foods. E. eat often in restaurants.

D. consume home-preserved foods.

The chancre of syphilis A. occurs due to small hemorrhaging of capillaries. B. is very painful. C. occurs during the tertiary stage. D. develops into a lesion with firm margins and an ulcerated central crater. E. All of the choices are correct.

D. develops into a lesion with firm margins and an ulcerated central crater.

The following are characteristics of Chlamydias except: A. gram negative B. obligate parasites that need host cells for growth C. elementary bodies are the infectious form D. elementary bodies lack enzyme systems for making ATP E. reticulate bodies differentiate into elementary bodies

D. elementary bodies lack enzyme systems for making ATP

The virulence of Vibrio cholerae is due to its A. capsule. B. neurotoxin. C. invasive enzymes. D. enterotoxin

D. enterotoxin

Characteristics of all the members of the family Enterobacteriaceae include A. ferment lactose. B. are normal flora of human intestines. C. produce enterotoxins. D. ferment glucose. E. All of the choices are correct.

D. ferment glucose.

Shigella species have the following characteristics, except: A. not motile B. release endotoxin C. belong to Enterobacteriaceae D. infect the small intestine E. produce enterotoxin

D. infect the small intestine

Yersinia pestis A. was virulent in the Middle Ages but is no longer virulent. B. has humans as an endemic reservoir. C. does not respond to antimicrobic drugs. D. is usually transmitted by a flea vector. E. All of the choices are correct.

D. is usually transmitted by a flea vector

All of the following can positively influence the structure of tooth enamel except A. fluoride. B. lysozyme in saliva. C. antibodies in saliva. D. refined sugar. E. genetics

D. refined sugar.

What is the usual cause of pseudomembranous colitis? A. improperly home-preserved foods containing botulin toxin B. eating unpasteurized dairy containing Listeria monocytogenes C. handling infected animals contaminated with E. rhusiopathiae D. therapy with broad-spectrum antibiotics leading to superinfection by C. difficile E. living in close contact with someone infected with C. perfringens

D. therapy with broad-spectrum antibiotics leading to superinfection by C. difficile

Long-term sequelae of Group A streptococcal infections include all the following, except: A. risk decreased with prompt treatment of skin infections and pharyngitis. B. development of rheumatic fever. C. appearance of sequelae within a few weeks after an initial infection. D. transmission of sequelae via respiratory secretions from a patient with streptococcal sore throat. E. development of acute glomerulonephritis.

D. transmission of sequelae via respiratory secretions from a patient with streptococcal sore throat.

Mild, uncomplicated cases of pseudomembranous colitis may be treated by: A. debridement. B. wound cleansing. C. vancomycin for several weeks. D. withdrawal of antibiotics and replacement of lost fluids and electrolytes. E. All of the choices are correct.

D. withdrawal of antibiotics and replacement of lost fluids and electrolytes.

Which is the most common type of virulence gene transferred between fecal bacteria? A. toxin production B. capsules C. fimbriae D. hemolysins E. All of the above

E. All of the above

Which of the following may be recommended for treating gangrene? A. debridement of the wound B. hyperbaric chamber C. amputation of affected limb D. rigorous cleansing of deep wounds E. All of the choices are correct

E. All of the choices are correct

A diagnosis of tuberculosis involves: A. chest X-ray. B. acid fast stain of sputum. C. sputum culture. D. tuberculin skin test. E. All of the choices are correct.