Chapter 14

A 17-year-old female dislocated her patella while playing soccer. Her knee is flexed and she complains of severe pain. You should: Select one: a. keep her knee flexed and secure it with padded board splints. b. gently straighten her knee and apply a padded board splint. c. flex her knee slightly more and assess for distal circulation. d. make one attempt to return the patella to its normal position.

keep her knee flexed and secure it with padded board splints.

In the adult, bradycardia is defined as a pulse rate less than _______ beats/min, and tachycardia is defined as a heart rate greater than _______ beats/min. Select one: a. 40, 120 b. 30, 130 c. 50, 110 d. 60, 100

60, 100

Which of the following oxygen flowmeters is NOT affected by gravity and can be used in any position when attached to an oxygen cylinder? Select one: a. Vertical-position flowmeter b. Ball-and-float flowmeter c. Pressure-compensated flowmeter d. Bourdon-gauge flowmeter

Bourdon-gauge flowmeter

A patient's glucose (sugar) level in his blood begins to drop. Which of the following organs would be affected first? Select one: a. Brain b. Muscles c. Spleen d. Heart

Brain

The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli is _______ mm Hg, while the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli is _______ mm Hg. Select one: a. 70, 28 b. 90, 50 c. 88, 30 d. 104, 40

104, 40

During a 30-minute transport of a stable patient, you should reassess him or her at least ________ times. Select one: a. 6 b. 3 c. 2 d. 4

2

If a baby is born at 7:52, the second Apgar score should be calculated at: Select one: a. 7:57. b. 7:53. c. 8:00. d. 7:59.

7:57.

A behavioral crisis interferes with which of the following? Select one: a. Activities of daily living b. Behavior that is acceptable to the community c. Dressing, eating, or bathing d. All of these answers are correct.

All of these answers are correct.

Which of the following factors would MOST likely cause a patient's pulse rate to be slower than normal? Select one: a. Lack of a regular exercise routine b. Anxiety or severe stress c. Internal bleeding from trauma d. Beta-blocker medications

Beta-blocker medications

A reaction to death or dying where the patient asserts "Not me!" is recognized as what stage of grieving? Select one: a. Anger b. Depression c. Bargaining d. Denial

Denial

Which of the following actions would cause the patient to take a breath? Select one: a. Chest cavity decreases in size b. Pressure in the chest increases c. Intercostal muscles relax d. Diaphragm contracts

Diaphragm contracts

When palpating for a pulse on top of the foot, the EMT is assessing blood flow in what vessel? Select one: a. Dorsalis pedis artery b. Femoral vein c. Coronary artery d. Posterior tibial vein

Dorsalis pedis artery

In which of the following body systems are the thyroid glands, adrenal glands, pituitary glands, and gonads located? Select one: a. Endocrine b. Respiratory c. Hormonal d. Nervous

Endocrine

Which of the following duties or responsibilities does NOT fall within the realm of the medical branch of the incident command system? Select one: a. Transport b. Triage c. Extrication d. Treatment

Extrication

Which of the following would cause an increase in the amount of exhaled carbon dioxide? Select one: a. Excessive ventilation b. Cardiopulmonary arrest c. Increased cardiac output d. Anaerobic metabolism

Increased cardiac output

A patient has suffered a burn to the skin. Based on the function of the skin, which of the following conditions is he more susceptible to? Select one: a. Fluid overload b. Infection c. Heart problems d. Endocrine disorders

Infection

Which of the following is an appropriate outcome of a project undertaken by the Quality Improvement Committee? Select one: a. A program by which raises are based on past performance and attitude b. Monthly continuing education programs in which seldom-used skills are practiced c. Termination of three EMTs who are chronically late to work d. Community drives to raise money for a new EMS station

Monthly continuing education programs in which seldom-used skills are practiced

Which of the following statements regarding autism is correct? Select one: a. Most cases of autism are diagnosed by 3 years of age. b. The majority of patients with autism do not speak at all. c. Autism affects females four times greater than males. d. Impairment of motor activity is a classic sign of autism.

Most cases of autism are diagnosed by 3 years of age.

Which of the following drugs is commonly referred to as "roofies"? Select one: a. Rohypnol b. MDMA c. GHB d. Ketamine

Rohypnol

Which of the following statements regarding the rule of nines is correct? Select one: a. A child's head is equal to 14% of his or her total BSA. b. The anterior arm in the adult is equal to 9% of the total BSA. c. The posterior of a child's leg is equal to 13.5% of the BSA. d. The anterior trunk of an adult is equal to 18% of the BSA.

The anterior trunk of an adult is equal to 18% of the BSA.

Upon arriving at the scene of a possible hazardous materials (HazMat) incident involving several patients, you should: Select one: a. rope off the entire perimeter. b. carefully assess the situation. c. retrieve all critical patients. d. divert traffic away from the scene.

carefully assess the situation.

Clouding of the lenses of the eyes is called: Select one: a. conjunctivitis. b. glaucoma. c. retinitis. d. cataracts.

cataracts.

The _____________ connect(s) each ovary with the uterus. Select one: a. abdomen b. egg c. cervix d. fallopian tubes

fallopian tubes

Contraction or tensing of the abdominal muscles in an effort to ease pain is called: Select one: a. referring. b. flexing. c. guarding. d. withdrawing.

guarding.

The leading cause of death in the geriatric patient is: Select one: a. heart disease. b. arthritis. c. hypertension. d. altered mental status.

heart disease.

Early bruising following abdominal trauma often manifests as: Select one: a. gross distention. b. localized pain. c. red areas of skin. d. dark-purple marks.

red areas of skin.

A patient complains of pain to the upper jaw. The EMT would locate this pain to what bone? Select one: a. Mandible b. Mastoid c. Zygoma d. Maxilla

Maxilla

As you arrive on scene, an Emergency Medical Responder informs you that the patient has agonal respirations. By this description, you would expect the patient's breathing to be: Select one: a. Deep and fast. b. Irregular and shallow. c. Deep and gasping. d. Rapid and shallow.

Deep and gasping.

Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would MOST likely result in deformity? Select one: a. Hairline fracture b. Displaced fracture c. Moderate sprain d. Severe strain

Displaced fracture

Which of the following lines would divide the body into right and left halves? Select one: a. Midline b. Anterior axillary line c. Midaxillary line d. Midclavicular line

Midline

As defined by The National EMS Scope of Practice Model, the four levels of EMS practitioners include: Select one: a. Emergency department physicians. b. First responders. c. Paramedics. d. Emergency medical dispatchers.

Paramedics.

Organisms that cause diseases are called: Select one: a. Toxins. b. Antigens. c. Antibodies. d. Pathogens.

Pathogens.

The function of the respiratory system is to: Select one: a. Provide nutrients to the cells. b. Transport oxygen throughout the body. c. Release oxygen from the body. d. Provide the body with oxygen.

Provide the body with oxygen.

Which of the following observations indicate that the EMTs and Emergency Medical Responders are correctly using the stair chair? Select one: a. The wheels of the stair chair touch each and every step. b. The patient is carried down the stairs feet first. c. The stair chair is slid down the stairs while tilted forward. d. The stair chair is carried down the stairs with the chair tilted forward.

The patient is carried down the stairs feet first.

The EMT would perform an urgent move when: Select one: a. The scene contains an immediate threat to the patient and EMT. b. The patient is suffering from an immediate threat to life. c. The patient is stable but suffering from pain. d. The patient exhibits no problems with the airway, breathing, or circulation.

The patient is suffering from an immediate threat to life.

You are dispatched to the county jail for an inmate who is "sick." When you arrive, you find the patient, a 33-year-old male, unresponsive. His airway is patent and his respirations are rapid and shallow. Your initial action should be to: Select one: a. provide assisted ventilation. b. apply a pulse oximeter. c. request a paramedic unit. d. assess his blood pressure.

provide assisted ventilation.

To minimize the risk of litigation, the EMT should: Select one: a. always transport patients to the hospital of their choice. b. utilize at least four personnel when moving a patient. c. provide competent care that meets current standards. d. use universal precautions with every patient encounter.

provide competent care that meets current standards.

The two basic categories of diagnosis that a physician will use for behavioral crises or psychiatric emergencies are ____________. Select one: a. organic brain syndrome and altered mental status b. functional and nonfunctional c. physical and psychological d. All of these answers are correct.

physical and psychological

Epinephrine stimulates the ________ response, increasing blood pressure and relieving bronchospasm. Select one: a. parasympathetic b. sympathetic c. respiratory d. cardiac

sympathetic

When assessing a patient with a closed soft-tissue injury, it is MOST important to: Select one: a. remain alert for more severe underlying injuries. b. manipulate the injury site for signs of a fracture. c. recognize that the integrity of the skin is broken. d. assess circulation distal to the site of the injury

remain alert for more severe underlying injuries.

Jugular venous distention suggests a problem with blood returning to the heart if the patient is: Select one: a. in a recumbent position. b. in a supine position. c. in a prone position. d. sitting up at a 45° angle.

sitting up at a 45° angle.

Which of the following is a late sign of hypoxia? Select one: a. Cyanosis b. Anxiety c. Restlessness d. Tachycardia

Cyanosis

Which of the following is a genetic disorder that predisposes the patient to repeated lung infections? Select one: a. Severe acute respiratory syndrome b. Multiple sclerosis c. Cystic fibrosis d. Celiac sprue

Cystic fibrosis

A patient has taken a medication that increases the activity of his sympathetic nervous system. Which of the following signs and symptoms would the EMT expect to find? Select one: a. Decreased heart rate b. Low blood pressure c. Dilated pupils d. Dry and flushed skin

Dilated pupils

Which of the following medications blocks the release of histamines? Select one: a. Albuterol (Ventolin) b. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) c. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) d. Epinephrine (Adrenalin)

Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

A patient has severe swelling of the leaf-shaped flap that helps to prevent food from entering lower respiratory system. Knowing that the suffix "itis" refers to inflammation, which of the following conditions would the patient be suffering from? Select one: a. Tracheitis b. Bronchitis c. Epiglottitis d. Pharyngitis

Epiglottitis

Which of the following typically represents a problem that occurs when someone calls 911 with a cell phone? Select one: a. Background noise and interference b. Determining the type of emergency c. Establishing the location of the caller d. Verifying the type of emergency response needed

Establishing the location of the caller

For your safety and that of your crew, you should: Select one: a. Evaluate every scene for dangers before entering. b. Assure the availability of a paramedic for all medical calls. c. Search each and every patient for weapons. d. Request police assistance on all calls

Evaluate every scene for dangers before entering.

For your safety and that of your crew, you should: Select one: a. Evaluate every scene for dangers before entering. b. Assure the availability of a paramedic for all medical calls. c. Search each and every patient for weapons. d. Request police assistance on all calls.

Evaluate every scene for dangers before entering.

Which immunization should the EMT receive annually? Select one: a. Influenza vaccine b. Hepatitis-B vaccine c. Purified protein derivative (PPD) d. Measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine

Influenza vaccine

A 14-year-old boy has fallen through a plate glass window and is bleeding heavily from a laceration to his arm. His panicked mother has called 911 for help. Since the 911 operators are also Emergency Medical Dispatchers, which of the following will they be able to provide? Select one: a. Instructions on how to control bleeding b. Simultaneous notification of the hospital c. What insurance will reimburse EMS for the call d. The names of the EMTs who are responding

Instructions on how to control bleeding

The EMT recognizes that an advantage of using the wheeled stretcher is: Select one: a. It can be adjusted to different positions. b. It can be safely moved by one EMT. c. It rolls smoothly over rough terrain. d. It cannot become unbalanced.

It can be adjusted to different positions.

A patient is complaining of extreme dizziness and headache. Which of the following conditions would most likely be responsible for this complaint? Select one: a. Occlusion of the carotid arteries b. Clot in the abdominal aorta c. Occlusion of the popliteal vein d. Rupture of the radial vein

Occlusion of the carotid arteries

After you apply and use the automated external defibrillator, a patient's pulse returns and he is breathing adequately. The paramedic asks you to place the patient in a lateral recumbent position. How would you position this patient? Select one: a. Supine with head turned left b. On his left side c. On his back d. On his stomach

On his left side

If a patient with chest pain takes a daily aspirin, your service's medical director wants the EMT to contact an Emergency Department physician first before administering additional aspirin. The act of contacting the Emergency Department physician for permission to administer additional aspirin is an example of: Select one: a. Quality improvement. b. Off-line medical direction. c. On-line medical direction. d. Indirect medical control.

On-line medical direction.

When performing a rapid exam on a supine patient, what part of the body is typically assessed last? Select one: a. Anterior chest b. Extremities c. Abdomen d. Posterior

Posterior

Changes in your lifestyle that may help you manage stress include: Select one: a. Self-medication with over-the-counter medicines. b. Concentrating on your job as an EMT 24 hours a day. c. Eating a high protein and fatty diet. d. Practicing relaxation techniques such as meditation.

Practicing relaxation techniques such as meditation.

The term used when individual units or different organizations make independent, and often inefficient, decisions regarding an incident is called: Select one: a. undermining. b. logistical chaos. c. single command. d. freelancing.

freelancing.

All of the following terms refer to a body part that is cold but not frozen, EXCEPT: Select one: a. immersion foot. b. frostnip. c. trench foot. d. frostbite.

frostbite.

A patient with pelvic inflammatory disease will typically complain of _________. Select one: a. nausea and vomiting associated with intercourse b. bleeding associated with stress c. aches and fever associated with urination d. abdominal pain associated with menstruation

abdominal pain associated with menstruation

Capnography is used to: Select one: a. determine how much carbon dioxide is being exhaled. b. trend a patient's blood pressure and assess for shock. c. assess how much oxygen is reaching the body's tissues. d. assess how much oxygen is bound to the hemoglobin.

determine how much carbon dioxide is being exhaled.

The process of exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide between the alveoli and the blood of the capillaries is called: Select one: a. cellular metabolism. b. alveolar ventilation. c. external respiration. d. pulmonary ventilation.

external respiration.

If a patient develops difficulty breathing after your primary assessment, you should immediately: Select one: a. reevaluate his or her airway status. b. auscultate his or her breath sounds. c. begin assisting his or her breathing. d. determine his or her respiratory rate.

reevaluate his or her airway status.

Some women experience ___________ during ovulation. Select one: a. hypotension b. slight cramping c. severe bleeding d. severe abdominal pain

slight cramping

Central chemoreceptors located in the medulla provide feedback to increase the rate and depth of breathing when they sense: Select one: a. decreased levels of oxygen in the blood and an increase in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. b. slight decreases in carbon dioxide and an increase in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. c. increased levels of oxygen in the blood and a decrease in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. d. slight increases in carbon dioxide or a decrease in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid

slight increases in carbon dioxide or a decrease in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid

When being tailgated by another vehicle while responding to an emergency call, you should: Select one: a. stop the ambulance and confront the driver. b. increase your speed to create more distance. c. slam on the brakes to frighten the tailgater. d. slow down and allow the driver to pass you.

slow down and allow the driver to pass you.

The spinal cord is encased in and protected by the: Select one: a. intervertebral disc. b. spinal canal. c. vertebral arch. d. vertebral body.

spinal canal.

Solid abdominal organs include the: Select one: a. urinary bladder, colon, and ureters. b. stomach and small intestine. c. gallbladder and large intestine. d. spleen, kidneys, and pancreas

spleen, kidneys, and pancreas

When a patient's respirations are shallow: Select one: a. chest rise will be easily noticeable. b. tidal volume is markedly reduced. c. carbon dioxide elimination is increased. d. oxygenation occurs more efficiently.

tidal volume is markedly reduced.

A person who routinely misuses a substance and requires increasing amounts to achieve the same effect is experiencing: Select one: a. dependence. b. addiction. c. withdrawal. d. tolerance.

tolerance.

You and two other EMTs are preparing to move a patient down several flights of stairs using a stair chair. After assigning one rescuer to hold the chair at the head and another to hold the chair at the foot facing the patient, you would: Select one: a. Direct movement by standing behind the EMT at the head. b. Assist the EMT at the patient's feet. c. Assist the EMT at the patient's head. d. "Spot" by standing behind the EMT at the feet.

"Spot" by standing behind the EMT at the feet.

On scene, you have an obese patient who cannot ambulate and must be carried down several flights of stairs. Looking at the patient, you realize that moving the patient exceeds your physical capabilities; however, your partner is very strong. Which of the following statements made by yourself indicates the best means to safely lift and move the patient as well as minimize your opportunity of suffering an injury? Select one: a. "We will have to call for assistance to get him from his house." b. "To be safe, let's move him quickly and at one time down the stairs." c. "When we move him, let's go slowly down the stairs." d. "As long as I lean backward when moving him, I should be okay."

"We will have to call for assistance to get him from his house."

Which of the following questions is used to determine a patient's chief complaint? Select one: a. "When did the chest pain begin?" b. "Are you having trouble breathing?" c. "Do you have a history of diabetes?" d. "What seems to be the matter?"

"What seems to be the matter?"

A disposable oxygen humidifier should be considered for ambulance services that often transport patients for ___ hour(s) or more. Select one: a. 3 b. 4 c. 1 d. 2

1

The effects of epinephrine are typically observed within _________ following administration. Select one: a. 1 hour b. 30 minutes c. 1 minute d. 30 seconds

1 minute

From a mental health standpoint, an abnormal or disturbing pattern of behavior is a matter of concern if it lasts for at least: Select one: a. 3 weeks. b. 1 week. c. 1 month. d. 2 weeks.

1 month.

An oxygen cylinder should be taken out of service and refilled when the pressure inside it is less than: Select one: a. 500 psi. Partially b. 1,500 psi. c. 200 psi. d. 1,000 psi.

500 psi. Partially

A portable oxygen cylinder should have a minimum capacity of ____ of oxygen. Select one: a. 1,000 L b. 250 L c. 500 L d. 750 L

500 L

For an adult, the normal resting pulse should be between: Select one: a. 50 and 60 beats/min. b. 70 and 110 beats/min. c. 50 and 70 beats/min. d. 60 and 100 beats/min.

60 and 100 beats/min.

The normal blood glucose level is between: Select one: a. 80 and 120 mg/dL. b. 160 and 200 mg/dL. c. 30 and 150 mg/dL. d. 60 and 80 mg/dL.

80 and 120 mg/dL.

Hypothermia occurs when the core body temperature falls below: Select one: a. 90°F (32°C). b. 98°F (37°C). c. 95°F (35°C). d. 88°F (31°C).

95°F (35°C).

Which of the following is NOT a common sign or symptom associated with malfunction of an implanted cardiac pacemaker? Select one: a. A rapid heart rate b. Generalized weakness c. Syncope or dizziness d. Heart rate less than 60 beats/min

A rapid heart rate

After a particularly disturbing call the previous day, your partner is unusually angry and having a difficult time concentrating on his work. What type of stress reaction would you be suspicious of? Select one: a. Post-traumatic stress reaction b. Cumulative stress reaction c. Acute stress reaction d. Physical stress reaction

Acute stress reaction

A patient has suffered a stroke and injury to his brainstem. Which of the following signs and symptoms might the EMT expect to see as a result of this condition? Select one: a. Muscle spasms b. Confusion c. Blindness d. Abnormal respirations

Abnormal respirations

Which of the following sets of vital signs would the EMT MOST likely encounter in a patient with acute cocaine overdose? Select one: a. BP, 190/90 mm Hg; pulse, 40 beats/min b. BP, 180/100 mm Hg; pulse, 50 beats/min c. BP, 60/40 mm Hg; pulse, 140 beats/min d. BP, 200/100 mm Hg; pulse, 150 beats/min

BP, 200/100 mm Hg; pulse, 150 beats/min

Which of the following structures is contained within the mediastinum? Select one: a. Bronchioles b. Larynx c. Esophagus d. Lungs

Esophagus

The spinal column is composed of what sections as described from superior to inferior? Select one: a. Cervical, lumbar, thoracic, sacral, and coccyx b. Thoracic, lumbar, cervical, coccyx, and sacral c. Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccyx d. Coccyx, lumbar, thoracic, cervical, and sacral

Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccyx

The left side of a patient's heart is in severe failure, causing blood to back up behind it. Which of the following signs and symptoms would you most likely see in this patient? Select one: a. Bone pain in the legs b. Decreased respirations c. Crackles in the lungs d. Swelling in the feet

Crackles in the lungs

The terms occipital, parietal, and frontal refer to which part of the body? Select one: a. Spine b. Cranium c. Chest d. Pelvis

Cranium

After providing care to a patient in a hospital bed, you are preparing to move her from the bed to the stretcher. There is no mechanism that suggests a head, neck, or spinal injury. Which of the following methods would be most appropriate in this situation? Select one: a. Direct lift b. Draw sheet method c. Extremity lift d. Direct carry method

Draw sheet method

The MOST important treatment for a patient with severe abdominal pain and signs of shock is: Select one: a. transporting the patient without delay. b. positioning the patient on his or her side. c. giving oral fluids to maintain perfusion. d. administering high-flow oxygen.

transporting the patient without delay.

__________ rays easily penetrate through the human body and require lead or several inches of concrete to prevent penetration. Select one: a. Alpha b. Beta c. Gamma d. Neutron

Gamma

A 71-year-old female slipped on a rug and fell. She is conscious and alert and complains of severe pelvic pain. Her respirations are 22 breaths/min with adequate depth and her heart rate is 120 beats/min. Which of the following is NOT indicated for this patient? Select one: a. Gentle palpation of the pelvis b. Application of a cervical collar c. Treating her for possible shock d. Rapid head-to-toe exam

Gentle palpation of the pelvis

A patient with HIV is complaining of chest pain. In this situation, what personal protective equipment is most appropriate? Select one: a. Gloves, gown, and goggles b. Gloves c. Gloves and gown d. Gloves, gown, goggles, and mask

Gloves

Which of the following statements regarding sickle cell disease is correct? Select one: a. Because of their abnormal shape, red blood cells in patients with sickle cell disease are less apt to lodge in a blood vessel. b. In sickle cell disease, the red blood cells are abnormally shaped and are less able to carry oxygen. c. The red blood cells of patients with sickle cell disease are round and contain hemoglobin. d. Sickle cell disease is an inherited blood disorder that causes the blood to clot too quickly.

In sickle cell disease, the red blood cells are abnormally shaped and are less able to carry oxygen.

Following radiation therapy for the treatment of cancer, a patient has a low white blood cell count. Which of the following conditions related to this type of cell is the patient at risk for? Select one: a. Bleeding b. Infection c. Hypoxia d. Low blood pressure

Infection

When assessing a sick three-week-old baby, which one of the following findings should most concern the EMT? Select one: a. Fontanelle level with the skull b. Soft spot to the top of the head c. Mucus occluding both nares d. Rectal temperature of 99.6F

Mucus occluding both nares

Which of the following planes would show the liver, stomach, and spleen? Select one: a. Abdominal plane b. Transverse plane c. Saggital plane d. Mid-line plane

Transverse plane

Which of the following statements regarding glucose is correct? Select one: a. The brain requires insulin to allow glucose to enter the cells. b. The brain requires glucose as much as it requires oxygen. c. Blood glucose levels decrease in the absence of insulin. d. Most cells will function normally without glucose.

The brain requires glucose as much as it requires oxygen.

The vessel that carries oxygen-depleted blood to the right atrium is the: Select one: a. Internal jugular. b. Vena cava. c. Posterior tibial. d. Aorta.

Vena cava.

When questioning the parent of a child who ingested a poisonous substance, which of the following questions would be of LEAST pertinence initially? Select one: a. Do you know what substance was ingested? b. Why did your child ingest the poison? c. Have you noticed any signs or symptoms? d. What time did the ingestion occur?

Why did your child ingest the poison?

The EMT would recognize and categorize a 13-year-old female as a(n): Select one: a. adolescent. b. school age child. c. young adult. d. pubescent.

adolescent.

A patient is sitting in a chair, leaning forward on his outstretched arms. His head and chin are thrust forward. This position indicates that he: Select one: a. has a decreased level of consciousness. b. has abdominal muscle spasms. c. is experiencing difficulty breathing. d. is experiencing severe back pain.

is experiencing difficulty breathing.

When assessing the skin of an unresponsive patient, you note that it has a bluish tint to it. This finding is called: Select one: a. flushing. b. pallor. c. mottling. d. cyanosis.

cyanosis.

After administering 0.3 mg of epinephrine via auto-injector to a 22-year-old woman with an allergic reaction, you note improvement in her breathing and dissipation of her hives. However, she is still anxious and tachycardic. You should: Select one: a. monitor her closely but recall that anxiety and tachycardia are side effects of epinephrine. b. consider administering 0.15 mg of epinephrine to completely resolve her allergic reaction. c. contact medical control and obtain authorization to administer another 0.3 mg of epinephrine. d. transport her rapidly, as it is obvious that she is having a severe reaction to the epinephrine.

monitor her closely but recall that anxiety and tachycardia are side effects of epinephrine.

The development of an incident action plan is the responsibility of the: Select one: a. finance section. b. logistics section. c. planning section. d. operations section

planning section.

Heroin is an example of a(n): Select one: a. hypnotic. b. sympathomimetic. c. cholinergic. d. opioid.

opioid.

You are responding to a 911 call for an eight-year-old that has "noisy" breathing and a cough. As you respond, which one of the following pieces of advice would you give your partner, a new EMT? Select one: a. "We will need to be careful. Children of this age group tend to throw tantrums, and we could get hurt if we are not careful." b. "The scene probably will be chaotic, so let's just get the patient out to the ambulance and assess him there." c. "Although most children of this age are trusting of authority, let's approach slowly and make the scene work for us." d. "Most children in this age group have a short attention span, so we need to assess him as quickly as possible."

"Although most children of this age are trusting of authority, let's approach slowly and make the scene work for us."

An EMT correctly describes an infectious disease when he states: Select one: a. "An infectious disease is a disease that can be spread from one person to another." b. "An infectious disease is a disease for which no immunization or treatment exists." c. "An infectious disease is any of a number of diseases that are deadly once contracted." d. "An infectious disease is any of a number of diseases that is caused and spread by a virus."

"An infectious disease is a disease that can be spread from one person to another."

The mother of a nine-month-old baby informs you that her child has yet to make any sounds that resemble words or speech. She asks you if this is normal. What would be the best response to her question? Select one: a. "Babies typically begin making words at six months. I would check with your pediatrician for additional information." b. "It usually takes 10 to 12 months for babies to begin talking. Give it time. This is normal." c. "To be honest, all babies develop at their own pace. I am sure that he is fine." d. "Let's take him to the hospital emergency department to find out what is wrong."

"Babies typically begin making words at six months. I would check with your pediatrician for additional information."

Which of the following statements made by the EMT accurately describes the concept of body mechanics? Select one: a. "Body mechanics describes a program of back exercises that decreases the chance of incurring a back injury when moving a patient." b. "Body mechanics refers to a program of exercises to increase strength and prevent injuries when lifting or moving patients." c. "Body mechanics refers to using your body in the safest and most efficient way when moving objects or patients." d. "Body mechanics describes maintaining a proper weight and posture so that on-the-job injuries are minimized."

"Body mechanics refers to using your body in the safest and most efficient way when moving objects or patients."

A young new mother has called 911 because her baby will not stop crying. On scene, you find a six-month-old baby who alternates between crying and rest. Which one of the following quotes would be most appropriate given the patient's presentation? Select one: a. "Is there a possibility of child abuse?" b. "Does this cry seem different to you?" c. "Has the baby had all his immunizations?" d. "It is normal for babies to cry. He seems okay."

"Does this cry seem different to you?"

Which of the following medical history questions would be of LEAST pertinence in an acute situation? Select one: a. "Are there medications that you cannot take?" b. "Does the pain stay in your chest?" c. "Does your mother have diabetes?" d. "Has this ever happened to you before?"

"Does your mother have diabetes?"

A mother has called 911 for medical assistance. She states that her three-month-old has a temperature of 99.7F, taken rectally. The baby is awake and active and goes through periods of crying when you hold him for the purpose of assessment. Which one of the following quotes would be appropriate to say to the mother of this child? Select one: a. "He has a slight fever. Have you given him any Tylenol?" b. "Fever is always a concern. Has he ever had a febrile seizure?" c. "Please help me get his clothes off so he can cool down." d. "For his age a temperature of 99.7oF is with the normal range."

"For his age a temperature of 99.7oF is with the normal range."

Which of the following questions is of LEAST pertinence when determining whether a mother will deliver her baby within the next few minutes? Select one: a. "When are you due?" b. "Do you feel the need to push?" c. "Is this your first baby?" d. "Have you had a sonogram?"

"Have you had a sonogram?"

Which of the following questions would you ask a patient to ascertain the "M" in the SAMPLE history? Select one: a. "How long have you had your chest pain?" b. "When was the last time you ate a meal?" c. "Have you ever had any major surgeries?" d. "How much Tylenol do you take each day?"

"How much Tylenol do you take each day?"

A seven-year -old who fell and has deformity to his left wrist is uncooperative as you attempt to assess him. Which one of the following statements would be appropriate given the patient's age and behavior? Select one: a. "This will not hurt you at all. Please let me see your wrist." b. "I know that you are scared, but I need to see your hand." c. "The doctor is going to get upset with me if you do not let me see what is wrong." d. "Here's the deal. You let me see your wrist, and I will get you ice cream at the hospital."

"I know that you are scared, but I need to see your hand."

A coworker is suffering from post-traumatic stress. Which of the following statements would be most appropriate and beneficial to the coworker in this situation? Select one: a. "How about trying one drink at bedtime to promote restful sleep?" b. "Maybe you can get the medical director to write a prescription for some medication." c. "It would be best to take a few weeks off from work." d. "I think that it would be best if you saw a mental health professional."

"I think that it would be best if you saw a mental health professional."

Which of the following patient responses would establish the "E" in the SAMPLE history? Select one: a. "The chest pain started about 45 minutes ago." b. "I was mowing the lawn when the pain began." c. "I am not having any difficulty breathing." d. "I was in the hospital a week ago."

"I was mowing the lawn when the pain began."

A prospective student is interested in becoming an EMT, but is unsure how it will affect his family. He states that his wife is very worried about the danger associated with EMS and has never had to deal with him being gone for 24 hours at a time. You would respond: Select one: a. "I would just tell her that everything is okay and try not to talk about work when you are home." b. "The long hours actually make things easier since there is less time to argue." c. "I have found that the family becomes used to it and things are okay after about one year." d. "It may help to bring your wife here so she can see what we do and the safety precautions we take."

"It may help to bring your wife here so she can see what we do and the safety precautions we take."

Which of the following statements would you expect from a patient who has accepted the fact that he is terminally ill? Select one: a. "It is just not fair." b. "I cannot go on like this any longer." c. "It's ok, I am not afraid." d. "I have no energy to even think anymore."

"It's ok, I am not afraid."

Which of the following instructions would you give to a new EMT when preparing to use a squat lift to raise a patient secured to the stretcher? Select one: a. "Make sure to place your weaker leg slightly back." b. "Support yourself with your stronger leg and push up with your weaker one." c. "Make sure that you push yourself up with your stronger leg." d. "Do not use the power grip when performing the squat lift."

"Make sure that you push yourself up with your stronger leg."

After transferring the care of a 77-year-old female to the ED nurse, the patient informs her that she has a history of heart problems and is having chest pain. On scene and throughout transport, the patient denied any complaint, despite your repeated inquiry. This has greatly upset your partner and he states that he is upset with the patient for making him look foolish in front of the emergency department staff. Based on your knowledge of patients in her age group, which explanation would you give your partner? Select one: a. "It is very common for patients in this age group not to tell you everything because most have some form of early dementia." b. "In the older population, most do not trust young people with personal information, such as their medical history." c. "This happens very frequently with people in this age group, so just accept it and don't get upset." d. "Many times persons in this age group will not be forthcoming with all that is going on because they are scared of losing their independence."

"Many times persons in this age group will not be forthcoming with all that is going on because they are scared of losing their independence."

Which of the following statements indicates that the EMT has a good understanding of her role and responsibility related to being an EMT? Select one: a. "On a scene of an emergency, you must make sure to get to the patient no matter what." b. "The patient's needs come before anyone else's needs." c. "My safety comes first and then the patient's safety." d. "The public's safety comes before the safety of me or my partner"

"My safety comes first and then the patient's safety."

You have provided basic care to a patient with a decrease level of consciousness secondary to a drug overdose. What instruction, given to Emergency Medical Responders, would be most appropriate regarding positioning the patient on the stretcher? Select one: a. "He will need to be positioned flat on his back when on the stretcher." b. "When you move him to the stretcher, put him on his left side." c. "When you put him on the stretcher, elevate his head and chest." d. "Put him supine on the stretcher with his feet elevated."

"When you move him to the stretcher, put him on his left side."

The adult epinephrine auto-injector delivers ______ mg of epinephrine, and the infant-child auto-injector delivers ______ mg. Select one: a. 0.01; 0.1 b. 0.1; 0.01 c. 0.3; 0.15 d. 0.03; 0.3

0.3; 0.15

Trench collapses usually involve large areas of falling dirt that weigh approximately _______ per cubic foot. Select one: a. 150 lb b. 50 lb c. 200 lb d. 100 lb

100 lb

While the ages can vary, women typically experience menstruation from approximately _________ to ____________ years of age. Select one: a. 10; 40 b. 11; 50 c. 20; 60 d. 10; 70

11; 50

A 29-year-old male with a head injury opens his eyes when you speak to him, is confused as to the time and date, and is able to move all of his extremities on command. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is: Select one: a. 14. b. 10. c. 12. d. 13.

13.

Typically, medivac helicopters fly at speeds between: Select one: a. 100 and 120 mph. b. 130 and 150 mph. c. 120 and 140 mph. d. 150 and 200 mph.

130 and 150 mph.

A mother who is pregnant with her first baby is typically in the first stage of labor for approximately: Select one: a. 16 hours. b. 8 hours. c. 4 hours. d. 10 hours.

16 hours.

When you assess capillary refill time in an infant, normal color to the tested area should return within: Select one: a. 3 seconds. b. 2 seconds. c. 1 second. d. 4 seconds.

2 seconds.

The incubation period for Ebola can be up to: Select one: a. 1 week. b. 72 hours. c. 6 months. d. 21 days.

21 days.

A person is said to be obese when he or she is ________ over his or her ideal weight. Select one: a. 40% or more b. 30% or more c. 20% or more d. 10% or more

30% or more

Portable and mounted suction units must be powerful enough to generate a vacuum of at least ____ mm Hg when the tubing is clamped. Select one: a. 100 b. 400 c. 300 d. 200

300

ormal respiratory rates should not exceed _______ breaths per minute in toddlers and _______ breaths per minute in infants. Select one: a. 40, 60 b. 30, 40 c. 18, 28 d. 20, 30

40, 60

At a flow rate of 6 L/min, a nasal cannula can deliver an approximate oxygen concentration of up to: Select one: a. 44%. b. 24%. c. 52%. d. 35%

44%.

In preparing for a disaster, EMS systems should have enough supplies for at least a ______ period of self-sufficiency. Select one: a. 96-hour b. 24-hour c. 72-hour d. 48-hour

72-hour

The JumpSTART triage system is intended to be used for children younger than _____ years or who appear to weigh less than _____. Select one: a. 5; 50 lb b. 6; 70 lb c. 7; 90 lb d. 8; 100 lb

8; 100 lb

With a good mask-to-face seal and an oxygen flow rate of 15 L/min, the nonrebreathing mask is capable of delivering up to ______% inspired oxygen. Select one: a. 100 b. 70 c. 80 d. 90

90

You are triaging four patients who were involved in a head-on motor vehicle crash. Which of the following patients should be assigned the highest (red) triage category? Select one: a. A 29-year-old male with bilaterally closed femur deformities b. A 36-year-old female with back pain and numb extremities c. A 49-year-old female with diabetes and difficulty breathing d. A 50-year-old male with an open head injury and no pulse

A 49-year-old female with diabetes and difficulty breathing

In which of the following situations is a pertinent negative identified? Select one: a. A 50-year-old woman states that nothing makes her chest pain better or worse. b. A 56-year-old woman states that her chest hurts when she takes a deep breath. c. A 59-year-old man complains of crushing chest pain but denies shortness of breath. d. A 53-year-old man with dizziness also tells you that he has vomited three times.

A 59-year-old man complains of crushing chest pain but denies shortness of breath.

Which of the following patients has decision-making capacity and can legally refuse emergency medical treatment? Select one: a. A diabetic woman who has slurred speech and is not aware of the date b. A man who is staggering and states that he had three beers c. A confused young male who says he is the president d. A conscious and alert woman with severe abdominal pain

A conscious and alert woman with severe abdominal pain

Shortly after you load your patient, a 50-year-old man with abdominal pain, into the ambulance, he tells you that he changed his mind and does not want to go to the hospital. The patient is conscious and alert and has no signs of mental incapacitation. You are suspicious that the man has a significant underlying condition and feel strongly that he should go to the hospital. Which of the following statements regarding this situation is correct? Select one: a. Any patient who refuses EMS treatment must legally sign a patient refusal form. b. A mentally competent adult can withdraw his or her consent to treat at any time. c. Because of your suspicions, the best approach is to transport him to the hospital. d. Once the patient is in the ambulance, he cannot legally refuse EMS treatment.

A mentally competent adult can withdraw his or her consent to treat at any time.

Which of the following is probably NOT a multiple-casualty incident? Select one: a. A motor vehicle crash with two critically injured patients and two ambulances b. A rollover crash of a school bus with eight children who have injuries of varying severity c. A loss of power to a hospital or nursing home with ventilator-dependent patients d. An apartment fire with one patient and the possibility of others trapped in the building

A motor vehicle crash with two critically injured patients and two ambulances

Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts abandonment? Select one: a. An AEMT transfers patient care to a paramedic. b. A physician assumes patient care from an EMT. c. An EMT gives a verbal report to an emergency room nurse. d. A paramedic transfers patient care to an EMT.

A paramedic transfers patient care to an EMT.

Which of the following is an example of a psychiatric emergency? Select one: a. A person violently attacking family members b. A person who is depressed and no longer caring for himself c. A person going on a week-long "bender" after losing a job d. A person who is experiencing a panic attack

A person violently attacking family members

A patient informs you that he injured a tendon in his knee three years ago and has had a difficult time walking since. You would recognize this injury as involving: Select one: a. A structure that connects muscles to the knee. b. A structure that connects the muscles surrounding the knee. c. A structure that attaches a ligament to the knee. d. A structure that holds and secures the bones of the knee.

A structure that connects muscles to the knee.

In preparing the schedule, you have been instructed to pair EMTs in the best way to decrease the chance of injury when lifting and moving patients. Given this directive, who would make the best partner for a tall and very strong EMT? Select one: a. A short and very strong EMT b. A tall and very strong EMT c. A short and weaker EMT d. A tall and weaker EMT

A tall and very strong EMT

A patient tells you that he has a left ventricular assist device (LVAD). Which of the following conditions should you suspect that he has experienced? Select one: a. Acute myocardial infarction b. Uncontrolled hypertension c. Obstructive lung disease d. Thoracic aortic aneurysm

Acute myocardial infarction

Which of the following statements regarding the one-person bag-valve mask technique is correct? Select one: a. The bag-valve mask delivers more tidal volume and a higher oxygen concentration than the mouth-to-mask technique. b. Bag-valve mask ventilations should be delivered every 2 seconds when the device is being operated by one person. c. The C-clamp method of holding the mask to the face is not effective when ventilating a patient with a bag-valve mask. d. Adequate tidal volume is often difficult to achieve when one EMT is operating the bag-valve mask.

Adequate tidal volume is often difficult to achieve when one EMT is operating the bag-valve mask.

A 37-year-old male is having a severe allergic reaction to penicillin. He does not have an epinephrine auto-injector and your protocols do not allow you to carry epinephrine on the ambulance. How should you proceed with the treatment of this patient? Select one: a. Quickly determine if there are any bystanders who may carry epinephrine. b. Ask the patient if he has any diphenhydramine tablets that you can administer. c. Administer oxygen, transport at once, and request a paramedic intercept. d. Remain at the scene with the patient and request a paramedic ambulance.

Administer oxygen, transport at once, and request a paramedic intercept.

An Emergency Medical Responder (EMR) approaches you and states that he is interested in becoming an EMT. Specifically, he asks what he will be able to do as an EMT that he cannot presently do as an EMR. You would respond by saying: Select one: a. Administer some medications. b. Use an automated external defibrillator. c. Obtain vital signs. d. Perform emergency childbirth.

Administer some medications.

An EMT with your service states that he wants to become a paramedic because he wants to be able to provide advanced care. Under the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration's National Scope of Practice Model, which of the following will he be able to provide as a paramedic that he cannot provide as an EMT? Select one: a. Interfacility transports b. Emergency childbirth c. Advanced patient assessment d. Automated blood pressure monitoring

Advanced patient assessment

Anaphylaxis caused by stinging insects is typically an allergic reaction to ____________ rather than the bite or sting itself. Select one: a. injected poison b. irritating toxin c. deadly venom d. All of these answers are correct.

All of these answers are correct.

Causes of vaginal bleeding include which of the following? Select one: a. Ectopic pregnancy b. Vaginal trauma c. Spontaneous abortion d. All of these answers are correct.

All of these answers are correct.

During gynecologic emergencies, in addition to the standard SAMPLE questions, the EMT should attempt to determine which of the following? Select one: a. The amount of time since of the patent's last menstrual cycle b. The possibility that the patient may be pregnant c. If the patient is sexually active d. All of these answers are correct.

All of these answers are correct.

In cases of sexual assault, it is important to ensure that you do which of the following? Select one: a. Immediately write down your observations of the scene before assessing the patient. b. Call for a female EMT or ALS care provider. c. Discuss with law enforcement any suspicions that you may have about the perpetrator. d. All of these answers are correct.

All of these answers are correct.

When a foreign substance invades the body, the body will __________. Select one: a. protect itself b. go on alert c. attempt to inactivate the foreign substance d. All of these answers are correct.

All of these answers are correct.

A 23-year-old male experienced severe head trauma after his motorcycle collided with an oncoming truck. He is unconscious, has rapid and shallow breathing, and has copious bloody secretions in his mouth. How should you manage his airway? Select one: a. Alternate 15 seconds of oral suctioning with 2 minutes of assisted ventilation. b. Suction his oropharynx with a rigid catheter until all secretions are removed. c. Insert a nasopharyngeal airway and provide suction and assisted ventilations. d. Provide continuous ventilations with a bag-valve mask to minimize hypoxia.

Alternate 15 seconds of oral suctioning with 2 minutes of assisted ventilation.

A 23-year-old male experienced severe head trauma after his motorcycle collided with an oncoming truck. He is unconscious, has rapid and shallow breathing, and has copious bloody secretions in his mouth. How should you manage his airway? Select one: a. Suction his oropharynx with a rigid catheter until all secretions are removed. b. Provide continuous ventilations with a bag-valve mask to minimize hypoxia. c. Insert a nasopharyngeal airway and provide suction and assisted ventilations. d. Alternate 15 seconds of oral suctioning with 2 minutes of assisted ventilation.

Alternate 15 seconds of oral suctioning with 2 minutes of assisted ventilation.

In what area of the lungs does respiration occur? Select one: a. Bronchi b. Alveoli c. Capillaries d. Trachea

Alveoli

Which of the following is considered an organic brain syndrome? Select one: a. Schizophrenia b. Depression c. Alzheimer dementia d. Anxiety conditions

Alzheimer dementia

You are transporting a 58-year-old female who has terminal breast cancer. While in the ambulance, she becomes tearful and repeatedly asks "Why me?" As a knowledgeable EMT, you would recognize that she is in what stage of grieving? Select one: a. Denial b. Depression c. Anger d. Bargaining

Anger

When a psychiatric emergency arises, a patient is most likely to exhibit which of the following behaviors? Select one: a. Any behaviors unacceptable to the patient, family, or community b. Disruptions to activities of daily living c. Visual or auditory hallucinations d. Any behaviors that are a violent threat to the patient, EMTs, or others

Any behaviors that are a violent threat to the patient, EMTs, or others

A patient is bleeding severely from a severed femoral artery high in the groin region. Which of the following would MOST likely control the bleeding? Select one: a. Apply a topical hemostatic agent with direct pressure b. Position the patient with his injured side down c. Apply a pelvic binder device to stabilize the pelvis d. Apply chemical ice packs to the wound and transport

Apply a topical hemostatic agent with direct pressure

During your visual inspection of a 25-year-old woman in labor, you see the baby's head crowning at the vaginal opening. What should you do? Select one: a. Tell the mother not to push and transport her immediately. b. Apply gentle pressure to the baby's head as it delivers. c. Maintain firm pressure to the head until it completely delivers. d. Place your fingers in the vagina to assess for a nuchal cord.

Apply gentle pressure to the baby's head as it delivers.

Care for a victim of an immunologic emergency who is severely hypotensive should include which of the following? Select one: a. Initiate basic life support measures, including the use of an automated external defibrillator, if necessary. b. Apply high-flow oxygen therapy, place the patient in a shock position, and help maintain the patient's body temperature. c. Position the patient's airway and initiate positive-pressure ventilations. d. Routine spinal immobilization due to the potential for traumatic injury

Apply high-flow oxygen therapy, place the patient in a shock position, and help maintain the patient's body temperature.

Under what circumstances is a left ventricular assist device used? Select one: a. As a bridge to heart transplantation while a donor heart is being located b. To reduce ventricular pumping force in patients with aortic aneurysms c. To permanently replace the function of one or both of the ventricles d. To ensure that the ventricles contract at an adequate and consistent rate

As a bridge to heart transplantation while a donor heart is being located

You are assessing a 45-year-old female who is severely depressed. She states that it seems as though her entire world is crashing down around her. She further states that she has had frequent thoughts of suicide, but is not sure if she can actually go through with it. How should you manage this situation? Select one: a. Encourage the patient to remain quiet during transport. b. Have law enforcement place her in protective custody. c. Ask the patient if she has developed a suicidal plan. d. Leave the scene and have a neighbor check in on her.

Ask the patient if she has developed a suicidal plan.

While auscultating an elderly woman's breath sounds, you hear low-pitched "rattling" sounds at the bases of both of her lungs. This finding is MOST consistent with which of the following conditions? Select one: a. Widespread atelectasis b. Acute asthma attack c. Early pulmonary edema d. Aspiration pneumonia

Aspiration pneumonia

According to the START triage system, what should you do if a patient is found to have a respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min? Select one: a. Assess his or her neurologic status. b. Administer high-flow oxygen. c. Triage the patient as delayed. d. Assess for bilateral radial pulses.

Assess for bilateral radial pulses.

Which of the following situations requires you to notify the appropriate authorities? Select one: a. Attempted suicide b. Accidental knife wound c. Drug overdose d. Cardiac arrest

Attempted suicide

Which of the following is the MOST effective method of assessing the quality of air movement in the lungs? Select one: a. Applying a pulse oximeter and monitoring the SpO2 b. Looking for the presence of accessory muscle use c. Auscultating breath sounds with a stethoscope d. Evaluating the patient's chest for cyanosis

Auscultating breath sounds with a stethoscope

You have been dispatched for a 61-year-old female in cardiac arrest. Emergency Medical Responders (EMRs) are on scene. Since in your community all EMS practitioners are trained according to the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration's National Scope of Practice Model, which of the following care do you expect the EMRs to be providing? Select one: a. Reading an electrocardiogram (EKG) b. Intravenous (IV) therapy c. Automated external defibrillation d. Medication administration

Automated external defibrillation

Which of the following is a good guideline for physical examination of any patient? Select one: a. Examine extremities first. b. Complete the physical exam first, then check the ABCs. c. Avoid touching without permission. d. Always work toe-to-head.

Avoid touching without permission.

Which of the following MOST accurately describes septic shock? Select one: a. Viral infection of the blood vessels, vascular damage, and vasoconstriction b. Widespread vasoconstriction and plasma loss due to a severe viral infection c. Bacterial damage to the vessel wall, leaking blood vessels, and vasodilation d. Bacterial infection of the nervous system with widespread vasodilation

Bacterial damage to the vessel wall, leaking blood vessels, and vasodilation

When lifting the stretcher with a patient secured to it, the EMT must avoid which of the following? Select one: a. Lifting with the thigh muscles b. Maintaining a straight back c. Contracting the abdominal muscles d. Bending at the waist

Bending at the waist

Which of the following conditions is the diabetic patient at an increased risk of developing? Select one: a. Depression b. Blindness c. Hepatitis B d. Alcoholism

Blindness

Which of the following assessments would be the MOST useful in determining the possible cause of a patient's altered mental status? Select one: a. Blood pressure b. Capillary refill time c. Respiratory rate d. Blood glucose level

Blood glucose level

Which of the following statements regarding the blood pressure is correct? Select one: a. Blood pressure is usually not measured in children younger than 3 years of age. b. Blood pressure falls early in patients with hypoperfusion. c. Blood pressure is the most reliable indicator of perfusion. d. The systolic pressure represents ventricular relaxation.

Blood pressure is usually not measured in children younger than 3 years of age.

A 5-year-old child has had severe vomiting and diarrhea for 4 days. Which of the following assessment findings would be the MOST indicative of decompensated shock? Select one: a. Blood pressure of 70/40 mm Hg b. Respiratory rate of 30 breaths/min c. Capillary refill time of 4 seconds d. Pulse rate greater than 120/min

Blood pressure of 70/40 mm Hg

Which of the following sets of vital signs depicts Cushing triad? Select one: a. Blood pressure, 190/110 mm Hg; pulse, 55 beats/min; respirations, 30 breaths/min b. Blood pressure, 200/100 mm Hg; pulse, 140 beats/min; respirations, 28 breaths/min c. Blood pressure, 80/40 mm Hg; pulse, 30 beats/min; respirations, 32 breaths/min d. Blood pressure, 90/50 mm Hg; pulse, 120 beats/min; respirations, 10 breaths/min

Blood pressure, 190/110 mm Hg; pulse, 55 beats/min; respirations, 30 breaths/min

Involuntary or smooth muscles would be found on which of the following structures? Select one: a. Blood vessels and intestines b. Central nervous system c. Heart and blood vessels d. Muscles of the arms and legs

Blood vessels and intestines

Which of the following is characteristic of peptic ulcer disease (PUD)? Select one: a. Burning or pain in the stomach that subsides immediately after eating b. Symptom relief after taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs c. The passage of bright red blood in the stool or coughing up blood d. Sharp pain that is typically located in both lower abdominal quadrants

Burning or pain in the stomach that subsides immediately after eating

How do poisons typically act to harm the body? Select one: a. By changing the normal metabolism of cells or by destroying them b. By causing a slowing of nearly all bodily functions c. By interfering with normal neurologic function d. By causing burns and damage to either external or internal organs

By changing the normal metabolism of cells or by destroying them

The nervous system is subdivided into the: Select one: a. Brain and vertebral column. b. Central and peripheral systems. c. Skull and vertebral column. d. Involuntary and voluntary muscular systems.

Central and peripheral systems.

Assessment of an elderly male shows him to be confused. His family states that this is normal for him because he has a disease of his brain that has affected his ability to remember things. Based on this information, what area of the brain would this disease be located? Select one: a. Pons b. Cerebellum c. Cerebrum d. Brainstem

Cerebrum

According to the "E" in the DOPE mnemonic, which of the following actions should you perform to troubleshoot inadequate ventilation in a patient with a tracheostomy tube? Select one: a. Look for blood or other secretions in the tube. b. Check the mechanical ventilator for malfunction. c. Attempt to pass a suction catheter into the tube. d. Listen to breath sounds to assess for a pneumothorax.

Check the mechanical ventilator for malfunction.

Which of the following conditions would MOST likely lead to pelvic inflammatory disease if left untreated? Select one: a. Genital herpes b. Chlamydia c. Ovarian cysts d. Ectopic pregnancy

Chlamydia

Which of the following statements regarding interaction with the caregiver of a child or adult with special health care needs is correct? Select one: a. In most cases, it is more appropriate for the EMT to contact medical control prior to speaking with the patient's primary caregiver. b. In general, the EMT should only speak with a certified home health care provider because he or she is the expert on the patient's illness. c. Communication with the patient's caregiver or family members is important because they are the most familiar with the patient's condition. d. Before performing an assessment of the patient's ABCs, the EMT should ask the caregiver about the patient's medical condition.

Communication with the patient's caregiver or family members is important because they are the most familiar with the patient's condition.

Which of the following statements regarding compartment syndrome is correct? Select one: a. Most cases of compartment syndrome occur following a severe fracture of the pelvis. b. In most cases, compartment syndrome develops within a few minutes after an injury. c. Compartment syndrome occurs because of increased pressure within the bone cavity. d. Compartment syndrome typically develops within 6 to 12 hours after an injury.

Compartment syndrome typically develops within 6 to 12 hours after an injury.

Which of the following nerves allow sensory and motor impulses to be sent from one nerve directly to another? Select one: a. Somatic b. Connecting c. Peripheral d. Autonomic

Connecting

Which of the following findings is LEAST suggestive of child abuse? Select one: a. An unexplained delay in seeking medical care after the injury b. Evidence of alcohol consumption or drug use at the scene c. Consistency in the method of injury reported by the caregiver d. Burns to the hands or feet that involve a glove distribution

Consistency in the method of injury reported by the caregiver

Which of the following statements regarding sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is correct? Select one: a. Death as a result of SIDS can occur at any time of the day or night. b. The cause of death following SIDS can be established by autopsy. c. SIDS is most commonly the result of an overwhelming infection. d. Certain cases of SIDS are predictable and therefore preventable.

Death as a result of SIDS can occur at any time of the day or night.

The alveoli of a patient's lungs are filled with fluid and pus secondary to pneumonia. Which of the following is the patient at risk for? Select one: a. Collapse of the trachea and bronchi b. Decreased movement of air into the lungs c. Decreased movement of the diaphragm d. Decreased absorption of oxygen into the body

Decreased absorption of oxygen into the body

You have been called to transport a patient who is suffering from an illness that has caused the involuntary muscles in his body to become decreased in their ability to move. Which of the following conditions would you expect? Select one: a. Difficulty in maintaining an upright posture b. Difficulty in walking and grasping objects with his hands c. Decreased movement of wastes through the large intestine d. Decreased heart rate and increased blood pressure

Decreased movement of wastes through the large intestine

Which of the following signs is commonly observed in patients with right-sided heart failure? Select one: a. Pulmonary edema b. Flat jugular veins c. Labored breathing d. Dependent edema

Dependent edema

Which of the following MOST accurately defines negligence? Select one: a. Deviation from the standard of care that may result in further injury b. Providing care that is consistent with care provided by other EMTs c. Transferring patient care to a provider with a lower level of training d. Transport of a mentally incompetent patient against his or her will

Deviation from the standard of care that may result in further injury

Why might EMTs encounter a larger proportion of violent patients than the population at large? Select one: a. It is a common misperception; EMTs do NOT encounter a larger proportion of violent patients than the population at large. b. EMTs respond to patients who, by definition, are having an emergency. c. EMTs have to restrain patients. d. EMTs respond with law enforcement.

EMTs respond to patients who, by definition, are having an emergency.

You are assessing a patient who informs you her body abnormally forms blood clots, even when they are not needed to stop bleeding. Which of the following conditions would you expect the patient to have? Select one: a. High white blood cell counts b. Elevated number of platelets c. Low red blood cell numbers d. Decreased clotting factors

Elevated number of platelets

Which of the following statements regarding electrical burns is correct? Select one: a. The exit wound caused by electrical burns is smaller than the entrance wound. b. Respiratory or cardiac arrest following an electrical burn is very uncommon. c. The size of the entry and exit wounds is a reliable indicator of internal damage. d. Entrance wounds are small relative to the amount of internal tissue damage.

Entrance wounds are small relative to the amount of internal tissue damage.

A patient has been shot with a rifle. The bullet entered his chest just above the left nipple and exited his body just left of the lumbar spine. Which of the following would be appropriate to document on the prehospital care report? Select one: a. Entry wound to the abdomen b. Entry wound to anterior thorax c. Exit wound to the posterior torso d. Exit wound to the posterior thorax

Entry wound to anterior thorax

Which of the following head injuries would cause the patient's condition to deteriorate MOST rapidly? Select one: a. Cerebral concussion b. Cerebral contusion c. Subdural hematoma d. Epidural hematom

Epidural hematom

You have been asked to sit on your service's Quality Improvement Committee. As a knowledgeable EMT, you recognize that you will be involved in projects that serve to: Select one: a. Examine ways in which the delivery of emergency care can be improved. b. Recruit and educate EMTs into the profession of the Emergency Medical Services. c. Identify and punish EMTs that routinely do not provide proper care. d. Lobby insurance companies for increased reimbursement.

Examine ways in which the delivery of emergency care can be improved.

You have worked with the same partner for several years and know him well. Over the past three months, the two of you have had four horrific pediatric calls with death as the outcome of each. Which of the following observations would make you the most suspicious that your partner is experiencing a possible stress reaction? Select one: a. Excessive and uncharacteristic irritability b. Interest in going back to school to study Accounting c. Request to be scheduled for night shifts d. Statement that he desires to work part-time

Excessive and uncharacteristic irritability

When the diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax, which of the following occurs? Select one: a. Inspiration b. Inhalation c. Exhalation d. Release

Exhalation

You are approaching an overturned tanker truck to assess the driver, who appears to be unresponsive. As you get closer to the vehicle, you note the smell of noxious fumes and find that you are in the midst of a vapor cloud. What should you do? Select one: a. Remain where you are and perform a visual assessment of the patient. b. Realize that you are in the danger zone and prevent others from entering. c. Exit the area immediately and gather information for the HazMat team. d. Cover your face with your shirt and quickly extricate the injured driver.

Exit the area immediately and gather information for the HazMat team.

Based on current guidelines, in which of the following situations should supplemental oxygen be administered? Select one: a. Signs of myocardial infarction and an oxygen saturation of 97% b. Any elderly patient whose oxygen saturation is less than 95% c. Any diabetic patient whose oxygen saturation is less than 98% d. Exposure to carbon monoxide and an oxygen saturation of 95%

Exposure to carbon monoxide and an oxygen saturation of 95%

You suspect that a pregnant 16-year-old girl has a broken leg after she was hit by a car. You explain that you plan to splint her leg, and she agrees to treatment. Which type of consent is her agreement considered? Select one: a. Expressed b. Implied c. Minor's d. Informed

Expressed

What is the most common misconception surrounding mental illness? Select one: a. All persons with mental disorders are physically violent and dangerous. b. Feeling "bad" or "depressed" means that you must be "sick." c. Many mental illnesses stem from drug or alcohol abuse. d. Everyone has some form of mental illness.

Feeling "bad" or "depressed" means that you must be "sick."

A paramedic tells you that a patient with a probable spinal injury still retains his plantar reflexes. As a knowledgeable EMT, you would understand that the patient has reflex activity in what part of the body? Select one: a. Feet b. Fingers c. Hands d. Arms

Feet

The major artery of the thigh is called the ________ artery. Select one: a. Carotid b. Radial c. Brachial d. Femoral

Femoral

A patient has fractured bones in his left leg. Which of the following could be broken? Select one: a. Orbit, lumbar, or shin b. Radius, ulna, humerus, or carpals c. Femur, tibia, or fibula d. Acetabulum, calcaneous, or carpals

Femur, tibia, or fibula

You have been called for a 2-week-old male whose mother feels as though he is "sick." When assessing the patient and obtaining a history from the mother, which of the following information would be most concerning? Select one: a. Mother's statement that the baby has lost weight since birth b. Fontanelles that are lower than the level of the skull c. Statement by the father that the baby feed every 2 to 3 hours d. Observation that the baby seems to breathe only through his nose

Fontanelles that are lower than the level of the skull

Which of the following findings indicates that your patient has a patent airway? Select one: a. Audible breathing b. Inspiratory stridor c. Forceful coughing d. Unresponsiveness

Forceful coughing

A patient informs you that he was recently diagnosed with the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV), but has yet to develop AIDS. Which of the following is true? Select one: a. Gloves will be enough protection unless body fluids are present. b. Until the patient develops AIDS, he is not infectious. c. The Hepatitis-B and C vaccines provide the EMT some protection from transmission. d. Family members should not use his hand towels or utensils.

Gloves will be enough protection unless body fluids are present.

Which of the following infections, when left untreated, may lead to infection of the blood and brain? Select one: a. Gonorrhea b. Chlamydia c. Pelvic inflammatory disease d. Bacterial vaginosis

Gonorrhea

You are assessing a four-year-old with a fever and cough. The child is very calm and receptive to your presence. Which one of the following actions would be most appropriate? Select one: a. Ask the mother to leave until the assessment is complete. b. Take the child to the ambulance for assessment. c. Have the mother remain with him for the assessment. d. Refrain from touching the patient until in the ambulance.

Have the mother remain with him for the assessment.

When assessing a neonate, which of the following would deserve closer investigation? Select one: a. Intermittent crying b. Temperature of 99.6F c. Heart rate of 92 beats per minute d. Respirations of 40 per minute

Heart rate of 92 beats per minute

You are treating a patient with active tuberculosis. Which of the following will afford you the best protection from acquiring the disease? Select one: a. Purified protein derivative (PPD) injection b. Gloves, gown, and goggles c. High-efficiency particulate aspirator mask d. Surgical mask with a face shield

High-efficiency particulate aspirator mask

A large patient has been placed on the stretcher, and you and your partner are preparing to raise the cot using the power lift. Which of the following observations of your partner would cause you to delay the lift to correct him when using this technique? Select one: a. His feet are positioned together. b. His hands are approximately 10" apart. c. Both feet are flat on the ground. d. Both feet are turned slightly outward.

His feet are positioned together.

You receive a call for a domestic dispute. When you arrive at the scene, you find a young male standing on the front porch of his house. You notice that an adjacent window is broken. The patient has a large body, is clenching his fists, and is yelling obscenities at you. Which of the following findings is LEAST predictive of this patient's potential for violence? Select one: a. His shouting of obscenities b. His clenched fists c. His large body size d. The broken window

His large body size

What part of the patient assessment process focuses on obtaining additional information about the patient's chief complaint and any medical problems he or she may have? Select one: a. General impression b. Secondary assessment c. History taking d. Primary assessment

History taking

The bones of the upper extremities include: Select one: a. Radius, ulna, and tarsals. b. Humerus and radius. c. Phalanges and tibia. d. Humerus and calcaneous.

Humerus and radius.

Which of the following organs would MOST likely bleed profusely if injured? Select one: a. Stomach b. Liver c. Gallbladder d. Appendix

Liver

Which of the following statements regarding the use of the warning lights and siren on the ambulance is correct? Select one: a. It is generally acceptable to increase your speed if lights and siren are in use. b. If it is necessary to use the siren, you should tell the patient beforehand. c. Warning lights and siren should be avoided, even if the patient is unstable. d. If the patient is stable, you may use the warning lights without the siren.

If it is necessary to use the siren, you should tell the patient beforehand.

In which of the following situations should the EMT splint an injured limb in the position of deformity? Select one: a. If a traction splint will be used to immobilize the injured extremity b. If resistance is encountered or the patient experiences severe pain c. If transport time to the hospital is greater than 20 to 30 minutes d. When distal circulation and neurological functions are absent

If resistance is encountered or the patient experiences severe pain

Which of the following statements regarding oxygenation and ventilation is correct? Select one: a. Oxygenation is the movement of air into and out of the lungs, whereas ventilation is the exchange of gases. b. In mines or confined places, where oxygen levels are low, ventilation may continue despite adequate oxygenation. c. Oxygenation without adequate ventilation can occur in climbers who quickly ascend to an altitude of lower atmospheric pressure. d. In carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning, ventilation is impaired because CO binds to oxygen very quickly.

In mines or confined places, where oxygen levels are low, ventilation may continue despite adequate oxygenation.

Another EMT informs you that a patient has been stabbed once with a knife in the left midaxillary region. Where is this injury located? Select one: a. Right armpit area b. Left lateral chest c. Left chest d. Left side of the abdomen

Left lateral chest

Your coworkers would like to purchase a scoop (orthopedic) stretcher with some grant money. Before the purchase can be authorized, you have been asked to inform the purchasing committee of how this piece of equipment will benefit the service as well as patient care. Which of the following would be a benefit of the scoop stretcher? Select one: a. It is more comfortable than a wheeled stretcher. b. It does not requiring expensive straps to secure the patient. c. It is indicated for patients with a possible spinal injury. d. It can be used in confined areas.

It can be used in confined areas.

Which of the following statements regarding stridor is correct? Select one: a. It suggests the presence of fluid in the lungs. b. It is a whistling sound heard in the lower airway. c. It is caused by incorrect airway positioning. d. It is a high-pitched, crowing upper airway sound.

It is a high-pitched, crowing upper airway sound.

When carrying equipment in the right hand, the EMT should: Select one: a. Keep his or her back straight and locked. b. Lean to the left side for compensation. c. Bend backward for counter balance. d. Tilt his body to the right side.

Keep his or her back straight and locked.

The structure containing the "voice box" is the: Select one: a. Larynx. b. Sternum. c. Pharynx. d. Trachea.

Larynx.

Which of the following is an early sign of pit viper envenomation? Select one: a. Syncope and bleeding at distal sites b. Local swelling and ecchymosis c. General weakness and diaphoresis d. Signs and symptoms of hypoperfusion

Local swelling and ecchymosis

Which of the following must be assessed in every respiratory patient? Select one: a. Lung sounds b. Blood glucose levels c. Distal pulse, motor, sensation d. Orthostatic vital signs

Lung sounds

A patient is experiencing the backup of blood and accumulation of fluid in the lung tissue. Failure of which of the heart's valves would most likely be responsible for this condition? Select one: a. Right valve b. Tricuspid valve c. Mitral valve d. Pulmonary valve

Mitral valve

Which of the following best represents the correct sequence for the passage of air into the lungs? Select one: a. Mouth, pharynx, trachea, bronchi, alveoli b. Larynx, esophagus, trachea, bronchi, alveoli c. Epiglottis, trachea, cricoid, bronchi, alveoli d. Nose, bronchi, larynx, trachea, pharynx

Mouth, pharynx, trachea, bronchi, alveoli

An ambulance with two EMTs arrives in front of a house for an unknown medical call in a good section of town. On scene, bystanders report that the patient is a female who was beaten by her husband in the driveway and then taken into the house. They also report that she looked unconscious and was bleeding from the head. Which of the following actions would be most appropriate? Select one: a. Enter the home to protect the patient while waiting for the police to arrive. b. Enter the home and quickly move the patient to the ambulance. c. Remove the husband from the house, then provide emergency care to the wife. d. Move the ambulance from the scene and wait until the police arrive.

Move the ambulance from the scene and wait until the police arrive.

Which of the following organs or tissues can survive the longest without oxygen? Select one: a. Kidneys b. Liver c. Muscle d. Heart

Muscle

What body system protects internal organs and provides for movement? Select one: a. Nervous b. Exocrine c. Endocrine d. Musculoskeletal

Musculoskeletal

In which of the following situations would the EMT be the LEAST likely to immobilize a patient's spine? Select one: a. No distracting injuries or evidence of intoxication b. Unresponsive, but moving all extremities equally c. No spinal pain, but tingling in the extremities d. Pain to the c-spine, but no numbness or tingling.

No distracting injuries or evidence of intoxication

A patient has fallen in his upstairs bathroom and is on the floor when you arrive. Assessment reveals no life threats to the airway, breathing, or circulation; however, he does have deformity and bruising to his right hip. He complains of excruciating pain to the same area. In this situation, the EMT would recognize the need for what category of move? Select one: a. Urgent b. Non-urgent c. Aggressive d. Emergency

Non-urgent

As an EMT, which of the following must you have to provide routine and emergency medical care? Select one: a. Knowledgeable partner b. Prior medical experience c. Acceptable driving record d. Service Medical Director

Service Medical Director

Which of the following MOST accurately describes paradoxical movement of the chest wall? Select one: a. Multiple rib fractures that cause a marked deformity of the chest wall b. Only one section of the chest rises on inspiration, while another area falls c. A marked decrease in chest wall movement due to abdominal breathing d. One side of the chest wall moves opposite the direction of the other

Only one section of the chest rises on inspiration, while another area falls

You are the first to arrive on the scene of a motor vehicle collision. Your scene size-up reveals a tanker truck on its side with an unresponsive driver in the cab. Multiple bystanders are around the cab waving for you to come over and help the driver. Your immediate action would be to: Select one: a. Assess and extricate the patient. b. Order the bystanders away from the truck. c. Make certain the tanker is not leaking. d. Determine what material the truck is carrying.

Order the bystanders away from the truck.

A patient has a total occlusion of the left femoral artery. In regards to this condition, which of the following might the EMT expect to find? Select one: a. Decreased radial pulse b. Swelling in the legs c. Difficulty moving the left arm d. Pale skin to the left foot

Pale skin to the left foot

A patient with hypoglycemia will often present with which of the following signs/symptoms? Select one: a. Warm, red, and dry skin b. Hypertension c. Deep, rapid respirations d. Pale, cool, and clammy skin

Pale, cool, and clammy skin

Which patient would benefit most by calling an enhanced 911 system? Select one: a. Patient requiring advanced medical care b. Patient with chest pain c. Patient with sudden onset of confusion d. Patient who cannot reach his phone

Patient with sudden onset of confusion

Once a scene is declared free of hazards, the EMT must recognize and focus on the needs of the: Select one: a. Patient. b. Bystanders. c. Rescuers. d. Family.

Patient.

Which of the following statements regarding patients with intellectual disabilities is correct? Select one: a. Speaking with the patient's family is the least effective way to determine how much the patient understands. b. Patients with intellectual disabilities are susceptible to the same disease processes as other patients. c. An intellectual disability differs from mental retardation in that it is the result of a congenital abnormality. d. Most patients with intellectual disabilities have normal cognitive function, but abnormal physical features.

Patients with intellectual disabilities are susceptible to the same disease processes as other patients.

Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would pose the greatest threat to a patient's life? Select one: a. An amputated extremity b. Pelvic fracture with hypotension c. Bilateral femur fractures d. Nondisplaced long bone fractures

Pelvic fracture with hypotension

Patient complaints of pain during intercourse, lower abdominal discomfort, and nausea may be indicative of which of the following? Select one: a. Pelvic inflammatory disease b. Chlamydia c. Gonorrhea d. Bacterial vaginosis

Pelvic inflammatory disease

The fluid that carries blood cells and nutrients is referred to as: Select one: a. Total body water. b. Plasma. c. Platelet fluid. d. Hemoglobin.

Plasma.

Which of the following positions would be most appropriate for an alert and oriented patient complaining of shortness of breath? Select one: a. Supine with feet elevated b. Prone c. Position of comfort d. Side lying

Position of comfort

Which of the following terms applies to a state of delusion in which the patient is out of touch with reality? Select one: a. Agitated delirium b. Schizophrenia c. Suicidal d. Psychosis

Psychosis

A 66-year-old woman experienced a sudden onset of difficulty breathing. She has a history of type 2 diabetes and deep vein thrombosis (DVT). On the basis of her medical history, which of the following should the EMT suspect? Select one: a. Pulmonary embolism b. Diabetic ketoacidosis c. Severe hypoglycemia d. Congestive heart failure

Pulmonary embolism

The EMT has a correct understanding of the circulatory system when he identifies the primary function of the heart as: Select one: a. Pumping blood throughout the body. b. Transferring oxygen to the cells. c. Oxygenating blood in the lungs. d. Maintaining the volume of blood.

Pumping blood throughout the body.

The driver of a small car did not see a stop sign and struck a tanker truck carrying gasoline. The car is lodged under the tanker, from which gasoline is leaking from a ruptured valve. The car engine is smoking and the threat of fire and explosion great. Assessment reveals the patient to be unresponsive with a patent airway, but breathing with difficulty at 8 times a minute. In caring for this patient, your immediate action would be to: Select one: a. Rapidly extricate the patient and provide care away from the wreckage. b. Obtain vital signs and then extricate the patient from the car. c. Open the airway and suction prior to moving the patient. d. Start positive pressure ventilation and place a vest immobilization device for extrication.

Rapidly extricate the patient and provide care away from the wreckage.

The left atrium: Select one: a. Pumps blood to the body. b. Pumps blood to the lungs. c. Receives blood from the pulmonary veins. d. Receives blood from the veins of the body.

Receives blood from the pulmonary veins.

As a patient provides you with a past medical history, which of the following would you recognize as directly related to the endocrine system? Select one: a. Heart failure b. Removal of the gall bladder c. Failure of the kidneys d. Removal of the thyroid

Removal of the thyroid

Which portion of the heart is in failure when it can no longer effectively pump blood into the lungs? Select one: a. Right ventricle b. Pulmonary vein c. Left ventricle d. Left atrium

Right ventricle

The segment of the spinal column that forms the posterior pelvis is the: Select one: a. Sacral vertebrae. b. Cervical vertebrae. c. Lumbar segment. d. Thoracic spine.

Sacral vertebrae.

You have received a grant to promote healthy living habits among the 20- to 40-year-old age group. With your knowledge of the most common cause of death within this age group, which one of the following topics should be the focus of your program? Select one: a. Safe driving b. Cancer screening c. Safe sex practices d. Health heart living

Safe driving

Which of the following signs of respiratory distress is seen MOST commonly in pediatric patients? Select one: a. Accessory muscle use b. Pursed-lip breathing c. Rapid respirations d. Seesaw breathing

Seesaw breathing

Which of the following conditions would MOST likely be encountered in a patient with cerebral palsy? Select one: a. Type 2 diabetes b. Brain tumors c. Seizure disorder d. Paralysis

Seizure disorder

Which of the following nerves carry information from the body to the brain via the spinal cord? Select one: a. Central b. Sensory c. Motor d. Somatic

Sensory

It has been some time since you were involved in the care of a pediatric patient. You decide to review the assessment and treatment basics that the medical director for your service requires. Which of the following resources would you first consult to review this information? Select one: a. Emergency Department nurse b. Service protocols c. Internet web sites d. Emergency Medical Responders

Service protocols

Which of the following conditions would be LEAST likely to result in hypoxia? Select one: a. Severe anxiety b. Narcotic overdose c. Pleural effusion d. Pulmonary edema

Severe anxiety

Which of the following situations or conditions warrants immediate transport? Select one: a. Mild pain in the lower abdomen b. Decreased ability to move an extremity c. Responsiveness and ability to follow commands d. Severe chest pain and cool, pale skin

Severe chest pain and cool, pale skin

A female patient has suffered a stroke to the right side of her brain and has paralysis to the contralateral portion of the body. Which of the following is true? Select one: a. She cannot move her left arm and leg. b. She cannot move her arms or legs. c. Her left and right legs are paralyzed. d. She is paralyzed on the right side of her body.

She cannot move her left arm and leg.

Treatment with continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) would MOST likely be contraindicated in which of the following situations? Select one: a. Pulmonary edema, history of hypertension, and anxiety b. Shortness of breath and a blood pressure of 76/56 mm Hg c. Conscious and alert patient with an oxygen saturation of 85% Incorrect d. Difficulty breathing, two-word dyspnea, and tachycardia

Shortness of breath and a blood pressure of 76/56 mm Hg

Assuming that no obvious signs of intra-abdominal injury are present, which of the following injuries would MOST likely cause an injury to the liver or spleen to be overlooked? Select one: a. Pelvic fracture b. Femur fracture c. Lumbar spine fracture d. Shoulder fracture

Shoulder fracture

Which of your senses can be safely used to identify a HazMat incident? Select one: a. Sight and sound b. Sound and smell c. Sight and touch d. Smell and sight

Sight and sound

In the healthy heart, the electrical impulses that cause contraction of the cardiac muscle are initiated in the: Select one: a. Left atrium. b. Ventricles. c. Sinoatrial node. d. Bundle branches.

Sinoatrial node.

Which of the following organs can tolerate inadequate perfusion for 2 to 3 hours? Select one: a. Skeletal muscle b. Heart c. Kidneys d. Brain

Skeletal muscle

Which of the following statements regarding blast injuries is correct? Select one: a. Solid organs such as the middle ear, lungs, and gastrointestinal tract are the most susceptible to pressure changes. b. Tertiary blast injuries are penetrating or nonpenetrating injuries that result from flying debris, such as ordnance projectiles. c. The gastrointestinal tract is the organ system most sensitive to blast injuries and is the leading cause of death following an explosion. d. Solid organs are relatively protected from shock wave injury but may be injured during the secondary or tertiary blast phase.

Solid organs are relatively protected from shock wave injury but may be injured during the secondary or tertiary blast phase.

Which of the following organs assists in the filtration of blood, serves as a blood reservoir, and produces antibodies? Select one: a. Spleen b. Pancreas c. Liver d. Kidney

Spleen

A 59-year-old male with a history of emphysema complains of an acute worsening of his dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain following a forceful cough. Your assessment reveals that he has a barrel-shaped chest, unilaterally diminished breath sounds, and tachycardia. What is the MOST likely cause of this patient's condition? Select one: a. Acute pulmonary embolism b. Spontaneous pneumothorax c. Rupture of the diaphragm d. Exacerbation of his COPD

Spontaneous pneumothorax

Before contacting medical direction for authorization to assist a shortness of breath patient with his or her metered dose inhaler, protocols state that the EMT must first attempt to provide relief by administering oxygen. You recognize that the administration of oxygen is best described as: Select one: a. Direct permission. b. Quality improvement. c. On-line medical direction. d. Standing order.

Standing order.

Which of the following descriptions best describes the anatomical position? Select one: a. Upright and facing backward with the arms raised and legs straight b. Supine position with arms at the side and palms facing downward c. Prone position with arms upward and palms facing upward d. Standing with the arms down at the side and palms facing forward

Standing with the arms down at the side and palms facing forward

Which of the following abnormal breath sounds indicates obstruction of the upper airway? Select one: a. Rhonchi b. Crackles c. Rales d. Stridor

Stridor

Which of the following sounds indicates swelling of the upper airway? Select one: a. Wheezing b. Rhonchi c. Stridor d. Rales

Stridor

Which of the following statements regarding anaphylactic shock is correct? Select one: a. Anaphylactic shock is caused by immune system failure due to a toxic exposure. b. Subsequent exposure after sensitization often produces a more severe reaction. c. Sensitized people will experience less severe reactions upon subsequent exposure. d. Anaphylactic shock occurs immediately after a person is sensitized to an allergen.

Subsequent exposure after sensitization often produces a more severe reaction.

When reviewing a prehospital care report, you note that a crew transported a patient in the Trendelenburg position. How was this patient positioned? Select one: a. Lateral recumbent with head turned left b. Prone with legs flexed c. Supine with legs elevated d. Supine with his head elevated

Supine with legs elevated

An 89-year-old female patient has fallen in her living room and is complaining of left hip pain. As you approach, you note that she is on her back and her left leg is turned inward. When relaying this information to the receiving hospital, which of the following statements would you make regarding her position? Select one: a. Lateral recumbent with dorsal rotation of the left leg b. Supine with left rotation of the right leg c. Supine with medial rotation of the left lower extremity d. Supine with lateral rotation of the left lower extremity

Supine with medial rotation of the left lower extremity

Which of the following would the EMT likely NOT perform on a responsive patient with a headache and no apparent life-threatening conditions? Select one: a. Focused secondary assessment b. Systematic head-to-toe examination c. Noninvasive blood pressure monitoring d. Assessment of oxygen saturation

Systematic head-to-toe examination

The pressure exerted on the walls of the arteries when the left ventricle contracts is called: Select one: a. Systolic pressure. b. Residual pressure. c. Diastolic pressure. d. Arterial pressure.

Systolic pressure.

The MOST prominent symptom of decompression sickness is: Select one: a. tightness in the chest. b. abdominal or joint pain. c. dizziness and nausea. d. difficulty with vision.

abdominal or joint pain.

During an altercation in a bar, two patrons got into a fist fight. The first patient, a 44-year-old female, was struck in the mouth and refuses EMS care. The second patient, a 39-year-old female, has a small laceration to her left knuckle and also refuses EMS care. Which of the following statements regarding this scenario is correct? Select one: a. You should contact the police and have the patients arrested. b. The 39-year-old female is at high risk for an infection. c. The patient struck in the mouth should be immobilized. d. The 44-year-old female is at high risk for an infection.

The 39-year-old female is at high risk for an infection.

Which of the following statements regarding the Salmonella bacterium is correct? Select one: a. The Salmonella bacterium produces toxins that cause food poisoning. b. Symptoms of salmonellosis appear within 12 hours. c. The Salmonella bacterium itself causes food poisoning. d. Refrigeration of food will prevent salmonellosis.

The Salmonella bacterium itself causes food poisoning.

Which of the following statements regarding a basilar skull fracture is correct? Select one: a. They are typically the result of local, low-energy trauma to the head. b. Bloody CSF commonly leaks from the nose. c. The absence of raccoon eyes or Battle sign does not rule it out. d. In most cases, mastoid bruising occurs.

The absence of raccoon eyes or Battle sign does not rule it out.

A patient must be removed immediately from a structure that is on the verge of collapse following an explosion. He is lying on the ground and dressed in shorts and a T-shirt. You are by yourself and have no other supplies or materials. What type of move would be most appropriate in this situation? Select one: a. The extremity lift b. The blanket drag c. The shirt drag d. The armpit-forearm drag

The armpit-forearm drag

Which of the following MOST accurately describes hyperthermia? Select one: a. The core body temperature exceeds 99.5°F (37°C). b. Heat evaporates a significant amount of body water. c. The body is exposed to more heat than it can lose. d. The body eliminates more heat than it can generate.

The body is exposed to more heat than it can lose.

The pediatric airway differs from adult airways in that: Select one: a. All respiratory structures are proportionally smaller and more easily obstructed. b. The epiglottis is smaller and located behind the esophagus. c. The trachea is highly rigid and less flexible to movement. d. The child's tongue takes up proportionately more space in the mouth.

The child's tongue takes up proportionately more space in the mouth.

You are asked to present a continuing education session on body mechanics and posture. In your presentation, you would advise the participants that proper posture is achieved when: Select one: a. The ears, shoulders, and feet are vertically aligned when sitting. b. The ears, shoulders, and hips are vertically aligned when standing. c. The body weight is evenly distributed over the thoracic spine when sitting. d. The abdomen and buttocks pushed slightly posterior when standing.

The ears, shoulders, and hips are vertically aligned when standing.

Which of the following would MOST likely provide clues regarding the source of a patient's allergic reaction? Select one: a. The time of year in which the exposure occurred b. The patient's family history c. The patient's general physical appearance d. The environment in which the patient is found

The environment in which the patient is found

When assessing a five-month-old baby girl, you note that she cries when her mother holds her, but is quiet and at peace when her father takes her. Assessment reveals no outward problems. Based on your knowledge of psychosocial development, which one of the following possibilities is a likely explanation? Select one: a. The father is most likely the baby's primary caregiver. b. Female babies tend to bond closer to their father. c. The baby was most likely breast fed by the mother. d. There is a problem in the normal development of the baby.

The father is most likely the baby's primary caregiver.

Which of the following body systems or components is the LEAST critical for supplying and maintaining adequate blood flow to the body? Select one: a. An intact system of blood vessels b. An effectively pumping heart c. Adequate blood in the vasculature d. The filtering of blood cells in the spleen

The filtering of blood cells in the spleen

Which of the following anatomical statements is true? Select one: a. The hip is distal to the knee. b. The hand is proximal to the elbow. c. The knee is proximal to the ankle. d. The shoulder is distal to the hand.

The knee is proximal to the ankle.

You work in a community that has an "enhanced" 911 system. Which of the following is true? Select one: a. The Fire Department responds simultaneously with EMS. b. The EMS system uses both EMTs and paramedics. c. The location of the 911 call is displayed to the call taker. d. The total response time for EMS rarely exceeds 9 minutes.

The location of the 911 call is displayed to the call taker.

You have been asked to speak to a local EMT class. The topic of your presentation revolves around caring for the patient who is older than 60. When presenting your material, which one of the following points would you emphasize? Select one: a. All persons over the age of 60 have chronic health problems. b. The majority of persons in this age group enjoy independent living. c. Most persons over the age of 70 are in assisted living facilities and/or nursing homes. d. Most persons over the age of 60 reside with the grown children.

The majority of persons in this age group enjoy independent living.

While assessing a patient with abdominal pain, he informs you that he is a chronic carrier of Hepatitis-B. He is not jaundiced (yellow color to the skin) nor does he have a fever. As an EMT, you realize: Select one: a. A mask must be placed over the patient's mouth. b. The patient's blood and body fluids are infectious. c. The Hepatitis-B vaccine will not protect you if exposed. d. The patient had the disease but is presently in remission.

The patient's blood and body fluids are infectious.

Which of the following observations or statements represents the "E" in the GEMS diamond? Select one: a. The patient's residence is cold due to a malfunctioning heater. b. The patient's medications have not been filled in 2 months. c. A patient is assisted with his or her activities of daily living. d. Elderly patients present atypically and deserve your respect.

The patient's residence is cold due to a malfunctioning heater.

On the scene of a minor motor vehicle collision, you are attending to a female patient complaining of head and neck pain. A crowd has gathered to watch the action. Which of the following will the observing public most likely remember regarding the incident? Select one: a. The position of the emergency vehicles b. The color of the ambulances c. The wrinkled uniforms worn by the EMTs d. The number of emergency vehicles

The wrinkled uniforms worn by the EMTs

Which of the following statements regarding motor nerves is correct? Select one: a. They carry information from the CNS to the muscles. b. They are part of the CNS and control reflexes. c. They transmit information from the body to the brain via the spinal cord. d. They perform special functions such as sight, smell, and hearing.

They carry information from the CNS to the muscles.

Which of the following signs/symptoms are indicative of respiratory involvement of an allergic reaction? Select one: a. Flushed, itching, or burning skin b. A sense of impending doom c. Tightness in the chest or throat d. All of these answers are correct.

Tightness in the chest or throat

Which of the following best illustrates the primary purpose of the modern-day EMS system? Select one: a. To decrease the incidence of death and/or disability related to injury and illness b. To ensure that all members of society have equal access to hospitals c. To provide healthcare services to medically underserved areas d. To provide a means of transport to and from the hospital

To decrease the incidence of death and/or disability related to injury and illness

In which of the following structures of the respiratory system would an occlusion cause the total cessation of air flow into and out of the lungs? Select one: a. Trachea b. Nasopharynx c. Esophagus d. Right bronchi

Trachea

Victims of inhaled poisoning will require which of the following? Select one: a. Transport to an emergency department for evaluation b. An oropharyngeal or nasopharyngeal device to maintain an airway c. Ventilation with a bag-valve mask d. Suctioning to clear the airway

Transport to an emergency department for evaluation

Which of the following would be the MOST practical method of communicating with a hearing-impaired patient until his or her hearing aids can be located? Select one: a. Using a piece of paper and writing utensil to ask questions b. Contacting dispatch and requesting a sign language interpreter c. Attempting to use body language to determine the problem d. Using a high-pitched voice while speaking directly into the ear

Using a piece of paper and writing utensil to ask questions

From what internal female organ is the fetus expelled during delivery? Select one: a. Uterus b. Vagina c. Cervix d. Perineum

Uterus

A female patient suffers from a muscular disease and cannot walk, thus requiring a wheelchair. Based on the fact that she cannot ambulate, you would recognize that the muscles affected are of which type? Select one: a. Cardiac b. Voluntary c. Involuntary d. Smooth

Voluntary

Which of the following is the single best technique that the EMT can use to prevent the spread of infection? Select one: a. Wearing gloves b. Washing hands c. Disinfecting equipment d. Getting immunizations

Washing hands

You are attending to a 32-year-old male patient. The patient's wife tells you that he returned from Afghanistan last year. While he initially seemed fine, lately he has become withdrawn and distanced himself from his family and friends. He does not talk about it, but she knows that he has been having terrible nightmares that wake him up. The most appropriate question to ask regarding his experience in Afghanistan is: Select one: a. Have you ever been diagnosed with PTSD? b. Were you in combat? c. Can you tell me about your experience? d. Were you shot at or under fire?

Were you shot at or under fire?

Which of the following questions would be LEAST pertinent during the initial questioning of a patient who ingested a substance? Select one: a. How long ago was the substance taken? b. How much of the substance was taken? c. Why was the substance ingested? d. What type of substance was taken?

Why was the substance ingested?

Which of the following statements regarding positive-pressure ventilation is correct? Select one: a. With positive-pressure ventilation, more volume is required to have the same effects as normal breathing. b. Unlike negative-pressure ventilation, positive-pressure ventilation does not affect the esophageal opening pressure. c. To prevent hypotension, the EMT should increase the rate and force of positive-pressure ventilation. d. Positive-pressure ventilation allows blood to naturally be pulled back to the heart from the body.

With positive-pressure ventilation, more volume is required to have the same effects as normal breathing.

Spina bifida is defined as: Select one: a. congenital inflammation of the spinal cord, usually in the neck. b. chronic pressure on the brain caused by excess cerebrospinal fluid. c. a birth defect caused by incomplete closure of the spinal column. d. a birth defect in which the child is born without spinal vertebrae.

a birth defect caused by incomplete closure of the spinal column.

During the natural process of aging, the number of functional cilia in the respiratory system decreases, resulting in: Select one: a. baseline respiratory distress. b. a decreased ability to cough. c. air-trapping within the alveoli. d. an increased risk of COPD.

a decreased ability to cough.

The MOST reliable sign of a head injury is: Select one: a. decreased sensation in the extremities. b. an abnormally low blood pressure. c. a pulse that is rapid and thready. d. a decreased level of consciousness.

a decreased level of consciousness.

A ventilation/perfusion (V/Q ratio) mismatch occurs when: Select one: a. a disruption in blood flow inhibits the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the lungs, even though the alveoli are filled with fresh oxygen. b. a traumatic injury or medical condition impairs the body's ability to effectively bring oxygen into the lungs and remove carbon dioxide from the body. c. ventilation is compromised, resulting in the accumulation of carbon dioxide in the bloodstream, alveoli, and the tissues and cells of the body. d. ventilation is inadequate due to a traumatic injury or medical condition, which results in an impairment in pulmonary gas exchange.

a disruption in blood flow inhibits the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the lungs, even though the alveoli are filled with fresh oxygen.

A 75-year-old male with type 1 diabetes presents with chest pain and a general feeling of weakness. He tells you that he took his insulin today and ate a regular meal approximately 2 hours ago. You should treat this patient as though he is experiencing: Select one: a. hyperglycemia. b. an acute stroke. c. hypoglycemia. d. a heart attack.

a heart attack.

The mesentery is: Select one: a. a layer of thick skeletal muscles that protects the abdominal organs. b. a complex network of blood vessels that supply blood to the liver. c. the point of attachment between the small and large intestines. d. a membranous fold that attaches the intestines to the walls of the body.

a membranous fold that attaches the intestines to the walls of the body.

The EMT should expect that a patient who was exposed to cyanide will have: Select one: a. skin that is cherry red and hot. b. an abnormally slow respiratory rate. c. an abnormally slow pulse rate. d. a normal pulse oximetry reading.

a normal pulse oximetry reading.

When assessing and treating a 15-year-old female for abdominal pain, the EMT must remember that: Select one: a. the patient probably will be scared and most likely to answer questions when her mother or father is present. b. the need to ask about sexual activity is not necessary since children in this age group cannot get pregnant. c. if the patient has experienced menstruation, the EMT should leave the assessment to the emergency physician at the hospital. d. a parent's or guardian's consent should be obtained prior to assessment and treatment

a parent's or guardian's consent should be obtained prior to assessment and treatment

At the site of the injury, signs and symptoms of an animal or insect bite or sting may include pain, localized heat, and a wheal, which appears as __________. Select one: a. an uncomfortable depression in the skin b. a series of small, raised pustules c. a large area of red, blotchy skin d. a raised, well-defined area of the skin

a raised, well-defined area of the skin

Continual reassessment of the scene at a suspected terrorist or weapon of mass destruction incident is MOST important because: Select one: a. terrorists are often at the scene after an attack. b. bystanders may destroy the evidence. c. weather conditions may change quickly. d. a secondary explosive device may detonate.

a secondary explosive device may detonate.

A reflex arc occurs when: Select one: a. the motor nerves function automatically without receiving a message from the CNS. b. the brain interprets sensory information that it receives from peripheral and cranial nerves and sends a signal to the muscles. c. a sensory nerve detects an irritating stimulus and bypasses the brain by sending a direct message to the motor nerve. d. a sensory nerve sends a message to the brain but the motor nerve fails to send the appropriate response to the body.

a sensory nerve detects an irritating stimulus and bypasses the brain by sending a direct message to the motor nerve.

An 84-year-old male fell a week ago and has been bedridden since then. Today, he presents with an altered mental status. His skin is pale and cold and his respirations are rapid and shallow. The EMT should suspect: Select one: a. acute hyperglycemia. b. a systemic infection. c. a subdural hematoma. d. hypovolemic shock.

a systemic infection.

Down syndrome is a genetic defect that occurs as the result of: Select one: a. a triplication of chromosome 21. b. a separation of chromosome 21. c. an extra pair of chromosomes. d. a sperm that contains 24 chromosomes.

a triplication of chromosome 21.

Blood stasis, changes in the vessel wall, and certain medications affect the: Select one: a. white blood cells' ability to fight infection. b. ability of red blood cells to carry oxygen. c. ability of the blood to effectively clot. d. systolic blood pressure exclusively.

ability of the blood to effectively clot.

Clinical signs of compensated shock include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: a. restlessness or anxiety. b. cool and clammy skin. c. rapid, shallow breathing. d. absent peripheral pulses

absent peripheral pulses

An infant with severe dehydration would be expected to present with: Select one: a. absent urine output. b. excessive tearing. c. moist oral mucosa. d. bulging fontanelles.

absent urine output.

The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) that circulates in between each meningeal layer: Select one: a. acts as a shock absorber for the brain and spinal cord. b. regenerates brain cells after they have been damaged. c. delivers oxygen directly to the CNS. d. produces leukocytes that protect the brain from infection.

acts as a shock absorber for the brain and spinal cord.

A 60-year-old female presents with a tearing sensation in her lower back. Her skin is sweaty and she is tachycardic. The EMT should suspect: Select one: a. strangulated hernia. b. aortic aneurysm. c. acute pancreatitis. d. kidney stones.

acute pancreatitis.

Gas exchange in the lungs is facilitated by: Select one: a. surfactant-destroying organisms. b. water or blood within the alveoli. c. adequate amounts of surfactant. d. pulmonary capillary constriction.

adequate amounts of surfactant.

A 26-year-old female presents with heavy vaginal bleeding. She is conscious, but restless. Her blood pressure is 84/54 mm Hg, her pulse is 120 beats/min and weak, and her respirations are 22 breaths/min with adequate depth. She tells you that she inserted a tampon about 2 hours ago. You should: Select one: a. administer high-flow oxygen, place a sterile pad over her vagina, keep her warm, elevate her lower extremities, and transport without delay. b. administer high-flow oxygen, perform a detailed assessment of her vaginal area for signs of trauma, place her on her side, and transport. c. administer high-flow oxygen, ask her to remove the tampon, perform a detailed secondary assessment, and transport promptly. d. assist her ventilations with a bag-valve mask, place one sterile dressing into her vagina, perform a rapid secondary assessment, and transport.

administer high-flow oxygen, place a sterile pad over her vagina, keep her warm, elevate her lower extremities, and transport without delay.

A 17-year-old male was shot in the right anterior chest during an altercation. As your partner is applying oxygen, you perform a rapid assessment and find an open chest wound with a small amount of blood bubbling from it. You should: Select one: a. direct your partner to assist the patient's ventilations with a BVM. b. apply an occlusive dressing to the wound and continue your assessment. c. place a sterile dressing over the wound and apply direct pressure. d. control the bleeding from the wound and prepare to transport at once.

apply an occlusive dressing to the wound and continue your assessment.

A 19-year-old female was stung multiple times on the legs by fire ants. She states that she is allergic to fire ants, but does not carry her own epinephrine. The patient is conscious and alert and complains of pain to the area of the bites. Her blood pressure is 122/70 mm Hg, her pulse is 100 beats/min and strong, and her respirations are 18 breaths/min and unlabored. You should: Select one: a. administer oxygen and transport her to the hospital. b. position her legs well above the level of her heart. c. request a paramedic unit to administer epinephrine. d. advise her to see her physician as soon as possible.

administer oxygen and transport her to the hospital.

A 66-year-old female with a history of hypertension and diabetes presents with substernal chest pressure of 2 hours' duration. Her blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, her pulse is 100 beats/min and irregular, her respirations are 22 breaths/min, and her oxygen saturation is 92%. The patient does not have prescribed nitroglycerin, but her husband does. You should: Select one: a. give her high-flow oxygen, attach the AED, and transport at once. b. obtain a SAMPLE history and contact medical control for advice. c. administer oxygen, give her 324 mg of aspirin, and assess her further. d. give her one nitroglycerin and reassess her systolic blood pressure

administer oxygen, give her 324 mg of aspirin, and assess her further.

You are dispatched to a residence for a child with respiratory distress. The patient, an 18-month-old female, is tachypneic, has sternal retractions, and is clinging to her mother. Her skin is pink and dry, and her heart rate is 120 beats/min. The MOST appropriate treatment for this child includes: Select one: a. separating the child from her mother and providing ventilatory assistance. b. administering blow-by oxygen and transporting the child with her mother. c. requesting a paramedic ambulance to insert an advanced airway device. d. allowing the child to remain with her mother and applying a nasal cannula..

administering blow-by oxygen and transporting the child with her mother.

A specific legal document that directs relatives and caregivers regarding the medical treatment that may be given to patients who cannot speak for themselves is called a(n): Select one: a. advance directive. b. statute of care. c. physician directive. d. power of attorney.

advance directive.

When immobilizing a seated patient with a short backboard or vest-style immobilization device, you should apply a cervical collar: Select one: a. before manually stabilizing the patient's head. b. after moving the patient to a long backboard. c. after the torso has been adequately secured. d. after assessing distal neurovascular functions.

after assessing distal neurovascular functions.

When functioning at the scene of a motor vehicle crash in which a patient will require complex extrication, you should enter the vehicle and provide care to the patient: Select one: a. only after you believe the vehicle has been stabilized. b. only if the patient has experienced a major injury. c. after rescue personnel have cut the battery cables. d. after receiving approval from the incident commander.

after receiving approval from the incident commander.

When a child is struck by a car, the area of greatest injury depends MOSTLY on the: Select one: a. age of the child and the size of the car that struck him or her. b. speed at which the car was traveling when impact occurred. c. size of the child and the height of the bumper upon impact. d. height of the child and the speed at which the car was traveling.

age of the child and the size of the car that struck him or her.

Crackles (rales) are caused by _________. Select one: a. air passing through fluid b. mucus in the larger airways c. narrowing of the upper airways d. severe bronchoconstriction

air passing through fluid

According to the Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act (EMTALA): Select one: a. a health care facility has the right to refuse assessment and treatment to a patient, but only if his or her condition is not deemed critical. b. all health care facilities are legally obligated to provide assessment and care only if the patient is critically ill or injured. c. all health care facilities must provide a medical assessment and required treatment, regardless of the patient's ability to pay. d. a patient maintains the legal right to recant his or her consent to emergency treatment, even after signing in to the emergency department.

all health care facilities must provide a medical assessment and required treatment, regardless of the patient's ability to pay.

Palliating factors regarding a patient's pain involve those that: Select one: a. change the pain. b. initiate the pain. c. worsen the pain. d. alleviate the pain.

alleviate the pain.

Your protocols state that during the first few minutes of working on a cardiac arrest patient, you should provide passive ventilation. This means that you will: Select one: a. ventilate with a bag-valve mask that is not attached to oxygen. b. allow recoil of the chest between compressions to draw air into the lungs. c. time your positive-pressure ventilations to occur during chest recoil. d. deliver positive-pressure ventilation at rate of only 5 or 6 breaths/min.

allow recoil of the chest between compressions to draw air into the lungs.

The purpose of the pediatric assessment triangle (PAT) is to: Select one: a. determine if the child's vital signs are within the age-appropriate limits. b. gather critical data by performing a rapid hands-on assessment of the child. c. allow you to rapidly and visually form a general impression of the child. d. facilitate a rapid head-to-toe assessment of the child by visualization only.

allow you to rapidly and visually form a general impression of the child.

Common causes of depression in the elderly include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: a. an acute onset of dementia. b. chronic medical conditions. c. prescription medication use. d. alcohol abuse and dependence.

an acute onset of dementia.

A history of pelvic inflammatory disease or tubal ligations increases a woman's risk for: Select one: a. an ectopic pregnancy. b. preeclampsia. c. placenta previa. d. gestational diabetes.

an ectopic pregnancy.

As an EMT, the performance of your duties will be compared to that of: Select one: a. the medical director. b. a paramedic supervisor. c. the general public. d. another EMT.

another EMT.

Points of distribution (PODs) are strategically placed facilities where: Select one: a. antidotes, antibiotics, and vaccines are distributed. b. chemical weapons are manufactured and distributed. c. chemical and biologic weapons are stockpiled. d. weapons of mass destruction are distributed.

antidotes, antibiotics, and vaccines are distributed.

When using the pulse oximeter as part of your assessment of a patient, it is important to remember that: Select one: a. as long as the patient's oxygen saturation is greater than 95%, oxygen is usually not necessary, even if the patient is experiencing respiratory distress. b. pulse oximetry is especially useful in patients who have cold extremities because vasoconstriction forces blood to the capillary beds. c. any situation that causes vasoconstriction or loss of red blood cells, such as anemia or bleeding, may result in an inaccurate or misleading value. d. carbon monoxide has no effect on pulse oximetry readings because the pulse oximeter presumes that oxygen is saturating the hemoglobin.

any situation that causes vasoconstriction or loss of red blood cells, such as anemia or bleeding, may result in an inaccurate or misleading value.

You respond to a residence for a patient with a severe leg injury following an accident with a chainsaw. When you arrive, you find the patient, a 44-year-old male, lying supine in the backyard. He has a partial amputation of his right lower leg that is actively bleeding. The patient is conscious and breathing adequately; however, he is restless and his skin is diaphoretic. You should: Select one: a. administer 100% supplemental oxygen. b. immediately evaluate his airway. c. assess the rate and quality of his pulse. d. apply direct pressure to the wound.

apply direct pressure to the wound.

During your assessment of a 29-year-old female with significant deformity to her left elbow, you are unable to palpate a radial pulse. Your transport time to the hospital is approximately 40 minutes. You should: Select one: a. carefully straighten the injured arm and secure it with padded board splints. b. make two or three attempts to restore distal circulation by manipulating the elbow. c. splint the elbow in the position of deformity and transport immediately. d. apply gentle manual traction in line with the limb and reassess for a pulse.

apply gentle manual traction in line with the limb and reassess for a pulse.

Most cases of external bleeding from an extremity can be controlled by: Select one: a. elevating the injured extremity. b. packing the wound with gauze. c. compressing a pressure point. d. applying local direct pressure.

applying local direct pressure.

A short backboard or vest-style immobilization device is indicated for patients who: Select one: a. are in a sitting position and are clinically stable. b. require prompt extrication from an automobile. c. are found supine and have stable vital signs. d. are sitting in their car and are clinically unstable.

are in a sitting position and are clinically stable.

With regard to musculoskeletal injuries, the zone of injury is defined as the: Select one: a. part of the body that sustained secondary injury. b. area of obvious deformity over the site of impact. c. exact part of the bone or joint that was disrupted. d. area of soft-tissue damage surrounding the injury.

area of soft-tissue damage surrounding the injury.

Poor peripheral circulation will cause the skin to appear: Select one: a. pink. b. flushed. c. cyanotic. d. ashen.

ashen.

You are attempting to gain access to a patient who was injured when his truck struck another vehicle from behind. The patient is conscious and alert, but is screaming in pain. You try to open the door, but it is locked. You should: Select one: a. request the rescue team to extricate him. b. break the window and unlock the door. c. use a pry bar to attempt to open the door. d. ask the patient if he can unlock the door.

ask the patient if he can unlock the door.

After your partner assumes manual in-line stabilization of the patient's head, you should: Select one: a. apply an appropriately sized rigid cervical collar. b. thoroughly palpate the patient's head for deformities. c. assess distal neurovascular status in the extremities. d. use four people to log roll the patient onto a backboard.

assess distal neurovascular status in the extremities.

A 30-year-old male was rescued after being lost in the woods for approximately 18 hours. The outside temperature is 30°F (-1°C). He is immediately placed in the warmed ambulance, where you perform a primary assessment. He is unresponsive, pale, and apneic. You should: Select one: a. apply chemical heat packs to his groin and axillae. b. open his airway and give two rescue breaths. c. assess for a carotid pulse for up to 60 seconds. d. apply an AED and assess his cardiac rhythm.

assess for a carotid pulse for up to 60 seconds.

A 49-year-old male presents with an acute onset of crushing chest pain and diaphoresis. You should: Select one: a. obtain vital signs and a SAMPLE history. b. administer up to three doses of nitroglycerin. c. assess the adequacy of his respirations. d. administer up to 324 mg of baby aspirin.

assess the adequacy of his respirations.

You and your partner respond to a park where several people were reportedly struck by lightning. When you arrive, you find three patients. The first patient is lying supine on the ground; he is unresponsive and does not appear to be breathing. The second patient is ambulatory, appears confused, and is holding his arm against his chest. The third patient is sitting on the ground holding the sides of his head. After calling for backup, you should: Select one: a. recognize that the patients who are conscious are at high risk for developing cardiac arrest and quickly assess them for potentially life-threatening injuries. b. assess the unresponsive patient's pulse, begin CPR starting with chest compressions if he is pulseless, and attach the AED as soon as possible. c. immediately begin CPR on the unresponsive patient, but cease resuscitation efforts if there is no response after 5 minutes of treatment. d. focus your initial treatment efforts on the patients who are conscious because the unresponsive patient is likely in irreversible cardiac arrest.

assess the unresponsive patient's pulse, begin CPR starting with chest compressions if he is pulseless, and attach the AED as soon as possible.

A patient regains consciousness en route from his office to the emergency department. The patient tells you that he feels fine and does not want to go to the hospital. Under these circumstances, you should: Select one: a. document the patient's request but continue to transport him. b. assess whether the patient's mental condition is impaired. c. have the patient sign a refusal form and return him to his office. d. request that the police place the patient under protective custody.

assess whether the patient's mental condition is impaired.

While triaging patients at the scene of a building collapse, you encounter a young child who is conscious, alert, and breathing; has bilateral radial pulses; and has a severely angulated leg, which is not bleeding. According to the JumpSTART triage system, you should: Select one: a. evacuate him to a designated area and assign him a minimal (green) category. b. quickly bind his legs together to stabilize the fracture, and continue triaging. c. apply high-flow oxygen, obtain baseline vital signs, and continue triaging. d. assign him a delayed (yellow) category and continue triaging the other patients.

assign him a delayed (yellow) category and continue triaging the other patients.

After eating at a local restaurant, a 20-year-old male complains of blurred vision, difficulty speaking, and difficulty breathing. He is conscious; however, his respirations are profoundly labored and producing minimal tidal volume. You should: Select one: a. position him supine and elevate his legs. b. request a paramedic to administer atropine. c. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. d. assist his ventilations with high-flow oxygen.

assist his ventilations with high-flow oxygen.

You and your paramedic partner are caring for a patient who ingested codeine, acetaminophen (Tylenol), and hydrocodone (Vicodin). The patient is unresponsive, his breathing is slow and shallow, and his pulse is slow and weak. Treatment for this patient should include: Select one: a. oxygen via a nasal cannula and atropine sulfate. b. high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. c. assisted ventilation and naloxone (Narcan). d. assisted ventilation and flumazenil (Romazicon).

assisted ventilation and naloxone (Narcan).

A general impression of the patient is formed by an EMT: Select one: a. speaking privately with the patient. b. speaking with family members or bystanders first. c. at a distance when the patient is first seen. d. when the patient is in the ambulance.

at a distance when the patient is first seen.

Unless he or she is critically ill or injured, you should generally begin your assessment of a toddler: Select one: a. at the feet. b. in the ambulance. c. en route to the hospital. d. at the head.

at the feet.

Multiple people in a small town began experiencing abdominal cramps, excessive salivation and urination, and muscle twitching shortly after a small crop duster plane made several passes over the community. As you are assessing the patients, you further determine that most of them are bradycardic and have miosis. In addition to high-flow oxygen, the MOST appropriate treatment for these patients includes: Select one: a. activated charcoal and glucose. b. atropine and pralidoxime chloride. c. epinephrine and hyperbaric oxygen. d. amyl nitrate and naloxone.

atropine and pralidoxime chloride.

Because of the complexity of the older patient and the vagueness of his or her complaint, you should: Select one: a. limit your physical examination to the area of pain or injury. b. perform a rapid assessment on all geriatric patients you treat. c. rely exclusively on family members for the medical history. d. attempt to differentiate between chronic and acute problems.

attempt to differentiate between chronic and acute problems.

When palpating the carotid pulse of a responsive patient, you should: Select one: a. avoid gentle pressure so that weak pulses can be detected. b. avoid compressing both carotid arteries simultaneously. c. firmly compress the artery because the pulse is often weak. d. ensure that his or her head is in a hyperextended position.

avoid compressing both carotid arteries simultaneously.

You are assessing a 440-lb man who complains of shortness of breath and lower back pain. The patient is conscious and alert, his blood pressure is 148/98 mm Hg, and his heart rate is 120 beats/min. Your MOST immediate action should be to: Select one: a. ask a member of your team to locate the best route to move him to the ambulance. b. perform a secondary assessment, focusing on his respiratory system and back. c. notify the receiving facility and advise them of the patient's weight and status. d. avoid placing him in a supine position if possible and administer oxygen.

avoid placing him in a supine position if possible and administer oxygen.

An adult patient who is NOT experiencing difficulty breathing will: Select one: a. exhibit an indentation above the clavicles and in between the ribs. b. assume a position that will facilitate effective and easy breathing. c. have a respiratory rate that is between 20 and 24 breaths/min. d. be able to speak in complete sentences without unusual pauses.

be able to speak in complete sentences without unusual pauses.

As you enter the residence of a patient who has possibly overdosed, you should: Select one: a. quickly gain access to the patient. b. observe the scene for drug bottles. c. look for drug paraphernalia. d. be alert for personal hazards.

be alert for personal hazards.

Regardless of where portable and mounted oxygen cylinders are stored in the ambulance, they must: Select one: a. be easily identifiable by their bright green color. b. undergo hydrostatic testing on a weekly basis. c. be capable of delivering oxygen at 1 to 15 L/min. d. hold a minimum capacity of 1,500 L of oxygen.

be capable of delivering oxygen at 1 to 15 L/min.

In anticipation of receiving a fertilized ovum, the lining of the uterine wall: Select one: a. diverts blood flow to the vagina. b. sheds and is expelled externally. c. becomes engorged with blood. d. thins and begins to separate.

becomes engorged with blood.

You and your partner arrive at the scene of a middle-aged man who collapsed about 5 minutes ago. He is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. Bystanders are present, but have not provided any care. You should: Select one: a. have your partner perform CPR while you question the bystanders. b. begin high-quality CPR and apply the AED as soon as possible. c. perform two-rescuer CPR for 5 minutes and request ALS backup. d. immediately apply the AED pads and analyze his cardiac rhythm.

begin high-quality CPR and apply the AED as soon as possible.

Following proper decontamination, a 30-year-old male is brought to you. He is semiconscious and has rapid, shallow respirations. A quick visual assessment reveals no obvious bleeding. You should: Select one: a. ask a firefighter what the patient was exposed to. b. perform a rapid assessment to locate critical injuries. c. begin some form of positive-pressure ventilation. d. administer high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.

begin some form of positive-pressure ventilation.

When you and your partner arrive at the residence of a man in cardiac arrest, you immediately recognize the patient as the drunk driver who killed your brother several years earlier. A backup ambulance is en route to the scene. You should: Select one: a. begin two-rescuer CPR and apply the AED as soon as possible. b. obtain permission from medical control to not attempt resuscitation. c. advise your partner that you cannot provide care to this patient. d. wait for the backup ambulance while your partner performs CPR.

begin two-rescuer CPR and apply the AED as soon as possible.

You and your partner are caring for a critically injured patient. Your partner is controlling severe bleeding from the patient's lower extremities as you attempt ventilations with a bag-valve mask. After repositioning the mask several times, you are unable to effectively ventilate the patient. You should: Select one: a. begin ventilations using the mouth-to-mask technique. b. hyperextend the patient's head and reattempt ventilations. c. suction the patient's airway for 30 seconds and reattempt ventilations. d. continue attempted ventilations and transport immediately.

begin ventilations using the mouth-to-mask technique.

By the 20th week of pregnancy, the uterus is typically at or above the level of the mother's: Select one: a. xiphoid process. b. belly button. c. superior diaphragm. d. pubic bone.

belly button.

When worn properly, a seatbelt should lie: Select one: a. across the abdominal wall at the level of the diaphragm and below the hip joints. b. above the anterior posterior iliac spines of the pelvis and below the hip joints. c. across the abdominal wall at the level of the umbilicus and against the hip joints. d. below the anterior superior iliac spines of the pelvis and against the hip joints

below the anterior superior iliac spines of the pelvis and against the hip joints

Activated charcoal is given to patients who have ingested certain substances because it: Select one: a. binds to the substance and prevents absorption. b. decreases absorption of poisons into the lungs. c. is a direct antidote for many toxic substances. d. induces vomiting and empties the stomach.

binds to the substance and prevents absorption.

An epidural hematoma is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: a. bleeding between the skull and dura mater. b. an injury caused by a damaged cerebral artery. c. venous lacerations that occur within the brain. d. bleeding between the dura mater and brain.

bleeding between the skull and dura mater.

Intrapulmonary shunting occurs when: Select one: a. blood coming from the right side of the heart bypasses nonfunctional alveoli and returns to the left side of the heart in an unoxygenated state. b. the presence of pulmonary surfactant causes a decrease in alveolar surface tension, thus impairing the exchange of gases in the lungs. c. any impairment in circulatory function causes a reduced ability for oxygen and carbon dioxide to diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane. d. a decrease in respiratory rate and depth causes carbon dioxide accumulation in the alveoli and an overall decrease in blood oxygen levels.

blood coming from the right side of the heart bypasses nonfunctional alveoli and returns to the left side of the heart in an unoxygenated state.

Pale skin in a child indicates that the: Select one: a. oxygen content in the blood is decreased. b. blood vessels near the skin are constricted. c. child is in severe decompensated shock. d. child's core body temperature is elevated.

blood vessels near the skin are constricted.

Cerebral palsy is characterized by poorly controlled ________ movement. Select one: a. extremity b. body c. eye d. neck

body

The musculoskeletal system refers to the: Select one: a. bones and voluntary muscles of the body. b. connective tissue that supports the skeleton. c. nervous system's control over the muscles. d. involuntary muscles of the nervous system.

bones and voluntary muscles of the body.

When auscultating the blood pressure in a patient's upper extremity, you should place the head of the stethoscope over the _________ artery. Select one: a. apical b. brachial c. femoral d. radial

brachial

The _________ is the best-protected part of the CNS and controls the functions of the cardiac and respiratory systems. Select one: a. brain stem b. cerebral cortex c. spinal cord d. cerebellum

brain stem

A fracture is MOST accurately defined as a(n): Select one: a. disruption in the midshaft of a bone. b. break in the continuity of the bone. c. total loss of function in a bone. d. abnormality in the structure of a bone.

break in the continuity of the bone.

His parents tell you that their son has had a chest infection for the past two days and when they took him to their family doctor, they were told it was likely due to the respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). They have kept him well hydrated, but the infection seems to have gotten worse. On auscultation, you hear decreased air entry bilaterally with fine expiratory wheezes and the occasional coarse wet crackle. Based on this information, your patient is most likely suffering from: Select one: a. bronchiolitis. b. croup. c. pertussis. d. epiglottitis

bronchiolitis.

When performing the secondary assessment on a trauma patient, you note the presence of Battle sign. This is defined as: Select one: a. unequal pupils. b. fluid drainage from the nose. c. bruising behind the ear. d. swelling to the orbital area.

bruising behind the ear.

Everyone exhibits some signs and symptoms of mental illness at some point in life ____________. Select one: a. and needs medication administered to control them b. but that does not mean a person is mentally ill c. and should be physically restrained for their own safety and the safety of the EMT d. because mental illness affects everyone

but that does not mean a person is mentally ill

You arrive at an accident scene to find an alternative-fuel vehicle leaking an unknown substance. You should immediately _________. Select one: a. apply retardant to the leaking fuel b. disconnect the car battery c. search the vehicle for occupants d. call for additional resources and keep bystanders away from the vehicle

call for additional resources and keep bystanders away from the vehicle

A 40-year-old male intentionally cut his wrist out of anger after losing his job. Law enforcement has secured the scene prior to your arrival. As you enter the residence and visualize the patient, you can see that he has a towel around his wrist and a moderate amount of blood has soaked through it. You should: Select one: a. tell the patient that you want to help. b. approach the patient with caution. c. quickly tend to the bleeding wound. d. calmly identify yourself to the patient.

calmly identify yourself to the patient.

Common signs and symptoms of heat exhaustion include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: a. headache. b. nausea. c. hot, dry skin. d. tachycardia.

hot, dry skin.

In contrast to Lyme disease, Rocky Mountain spotted fever: Select one: a. can cause paralysis and cardiorespiratory collapse. b. causes painful joint swelling after a few days or weeks. c. may be confused with rheumatoid arthritis. d. presents with flu-like symptoms and a bull's-eye rash.

can cause paralysis and cardiorespiratory collapse.

The most common threat to the well being of a female patient in the 40- to 60-year-old age group is: Select one: a. cancer. b. drug overdose. c. accidental death. d. menopause.

cancer.

The primary waste product of aerobic metabolism is: Select one: a. adenosine triphosphate. b. lactic acid. c. carbon dioxide. d. pyruvic acid.

carbon dioxide.

A 56-year-old male is found semiconscious by his wife. Your assessment reveals that his respirations are rapid and shallow, his pulse is rapid and irregular, and his blood pressure is low. The patient's wife states that he complained of left arm pain and nausea the day before, but would not allow her to call 9-1-1. The MOST likely cause of this patient's present condition is: Select one: a. cardiogenic hypoperfusion. b. acute myocardial infarction. c. severe septic hypoperfusion. d. a ruptured aortic aneurysm.

cardiogenic hypoperfusion.

When caring for a patient with a possible fracture of the scapula, the EMT should: Select one: a. recognize that scapular fractures are life threatening. b. assume that minimal force was applied to the back. c. carefully assess the patient for breathing problems. d. apply rigid board splints across the chest and back.

carefully assess the patient for breathing problems.

A temporary loss or alteration of part or all of the brain's abilities to function without physical damage to the brain MOST accurately describes a(n): Select one: a. cerebral concussion. b. intracerebral hematoma. c. intracranial hemorrhage. d. cerebral contusion.

cerebral concussion.

The _________ contain(s) about 75% of the brain's total volume. Select one: a. meninges b. brain stem c. cerebrum d. cerebellum

cerebrum

Your assessment of an unresponsive patient reveals that her breathing is inadequate. Your MOST immediate action should be to: Select one: a. ventilate her with a bag-valve mask. b. move her to the ambulance stretcher. c. administer high-flow oxygen. d. check her airway for obstructions

check her airway for obstructions

If a technical rescue team is required at the scene, but is not present when you arrive, you should: Select one: a. don personal protective equipment and begin the rescue process. b. check with the incident commander to ensure that the team is en route. c. remain with your ambulance until the rescue team arrives at the scene. d. have fire personnel initiate the rescue process if they are at the scene.

check with the incident commander to ensure that the team is en route.

The EMT should assess for hypoglycemia in small children with a severe illness or injury because: Select one: a. a child's cells do not uptake glucose as rapidly as adults' do. b. children cannot store excess glucose as effectively as adults. c. children overproduce insulin during severe illness or injury. d. illness or injury causes the pancreas to produce less insulin.

children cannot store excess glucose as effectively as adults.

A surgical procedure that creates an opening between the intestine and the surface of the body that allows for elimination of waste products is called a(n): Select one: a. gastrostomy. b. intestinal shunt. c. gastric stoma. d. colostomy

colostomy

The use of special tools to remove an entrapped patient from a vehicle is known as _________. Select one: a. incident management b. simple access c. vehicle stabilization d. complex access

complex access

Rapid deceleration of the head, such as when it impacts the windshield, causes: Select one: a. compression injuries or bruising to the anterior portion of the brain and stretching or tearing to the posterior portion of the brain. b. compression injuries and contusions to the anterior, posterior, and lateral aspects of the brain. c. primary impact to the posterior aspect of the brain, resulting in compression injuries, bruising, or torn blood vessels. d. stretching or tearing of the anterior aspect of the brain and compression injuries or bruising to the posterior aspect of the brain.

compression injuries or bruising to the anterior portion of the brain and stretching or tearing to the posterior portion of the brain.

When a warm hand is immersed in water that is 70°F (21°C), heat is transferred from the hand to the water through a process called: Select one: a. convection. b. evaporation. c. radiation. d. conduction.

conduction.

When you inspect a patient's pupils with a penlight, the pupils should normally react to the light by: Select one: a. enlarging. b. dilating. c. constricting. d. fluttering.

constricting.

While transporting a woman with diabetes, you inadvertently give her oral glucose even though her blood glucose level was high. You reassess the patient and note that her condition did not change; she remained stable. You should: Select one: a. document the error and report it to your supervisor. b. exclude this intervention from the PCR because it did not harm the patient. c. contact medical control and notify them of the error. d. notify law enforcement so they can file an incident report.

contact medical control and notify them of the error.

The purpose of a jump kit is to: Select one: a. carry advanced life support equipment approved by the EMS medical director. b. facilitate defibrillation within 5 to 10 minutes after making patient contact. c. manage a critically injured patient until he or she is loaded into the ambulance. d. contain anything that you might need during the first 5 minutes of patient care.

contain anything that you might need during the first 5 minutes of patient care.

A 49-year-old male presents with confusion, sweating, and visual hallucinations. The patient's wife tells you that he is a heavy drinker and she thinks he had a seizure shortly before your arrival. This patient is MOST likely experiencing: Select one: a. delirium tremens. b. acute hypovolemia. c. alcohol intoxication. d. acute schizophrenia.

delirium tremens.

While transporting a stable patient with chest pain to the hospital, you come across a major motor vehicle crash involving several critically injured patients. You should: Select one: a. ask a bystander to remain with your patient as you treat the crash victims. b. remain at the scene until law enforcement and another ambulance arrive. c. continue transporting your patient and notify the dispatcher of the crash. d. stop and triage the patients while your partner remains in the ambulance.

continue transporting your patient and notify the dispatcher of the crash.

You are attending to a 23-year-old female patient who is 16 weeks pregnant with her second child. The patient has apparently fallen and sustained an injury to her upper right arm. When you ask about the incident history, the patient is reluctant to explain what happened and becomes very quiet. Based on this information, you should: Select one: a. contact police and remain at the scene until they arrive and escort you to the hospital. b. continue your care in a private area, document any details regarding the scene and the incident, and reassure her as you provide care. c. immediately remove the patient from the environment and transport. d. ask more detailed questions and press the issue until you have a more detailed understanding of the incident.

continue your care in a private area, document any details regarding the scene and the incident, and reassure her as you provide care.

A 54-year-old male accidentally shot himself in the leg while cleaning his gun. Your assessment reveals a small entrance wound to the medial aspect of his right leg. The exit wound is on the opposite side of the leg and is actively bleeding. The patient complains of numbness and tingling in his right foot. You should: Select one: a. manually stabilize the leg above and below the site of injury. b. control the bleeding and cover the wound with a sterile dressing. c. assess distal pulses as well as sensory and motor functions. d. gently manipulate the injured leg until the numbness dissipates.

control the bleeding and cover the wound with a sterile dressing.

A 2-year-old female has experienced a seizure. When you arrive at the scene, the child is conscious, crying, and clinging to her mother. Her skin is hot and moist. The mother tells you that the seizure lasted approximately 5 minutes. She further tells you that her daughter has no history of seizures, but has had a recent ear infection. You should: Select one: a. cool the child with tepid water and transport to the hospital. b. allow the mother to drive her daughter to the hospital. c. suspect that the child has meningitis and transport at once. d. place the child in cold water to attempt to reduce her fever.

cool the child with tepid water and transport to the hospital.

Classic signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia include: Select one: a. warm, dry skin; irritability; bradycardia; and rapid respirations. b. warm, dry skin; hunger; abdominal pain; and deep, slow respirations. c. cold, clammy skin; bradycardia; hunger; and deep, rapid respirations. d. cool, clammy skin; weakness; tachycardia; and rapid respirations.

cool, clammy skin; weakness; tachycardia; and rapid respirations.

To select the proper size oropharyngeal airway, you should measure from the: Select one: a. angle of the jaw to the center of the mouth. b. corner of the mouth to the earlobe. c. corner of the mouth to the superior ear. d. center of the mouth to the posterior ear.

corner of the mouth to the earlobe.

When palpating a patient's pulse, you note that it is grossly irregular. You should: Select one: a. count the number of pulsations in 30 seconds and multiply by two. b. count the pulse rate for a full minute to obtain an accurate reading. c. count the pulse rate for at least 30 seconds to ensure accuracy. d. count the number of pulsations in 15 seconds and multiply by four

count the pulse rate for a full minute to obtain an accurate reading.

A viral infection that may cause obstruction of the upper airway in a child is called: Select one: a. bronchitis. b. epiglottitis. c. asthma. d. croup.

croup.

A patient's short-term memory is MOST likely intact if he or she correctly answers questions regarding: Select one: a. time and place. b. person and place. c. event and person. d. date and event.

date and event.

Drowning is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: a. death beyond 24 hours after submersion in water. b. temporary survival after submersion in water. c. death from suffocation after submersion in water. d. water in the lungs following submersion in water.

death from suffocation after submersion in water.

Cyanosis of the skin is caused by: Select one: a. decreased blood oxygen. b. increased blood oxygen. c. venous vasoconstriction. d. peripheral vasodilation.

decreased blood oxygen.

The frontal and parietal bones of the skull are especially susceptible to: Select one: a. linear skull fractures. b. nondisplaced skull fractures. c. basilar skull fractures. d. depressed skull fractures.

depressed skull fractures.

You are dispatched to a residence for a 40-year-old female who fainted. Upon your arrival, the patient is conscious and alert, and states that she is fine. Her husband tells you that she fainted after receiving news that her sister was killed in a car crash. You offer oxygen to the patient, but she refuses to accept it. At this point, your primary concern should be to: Select one: a. advise her that she needs to go to the hospital. b. determine if she was injured when she fainted. c. provide emotional support regarding her sister. d. obtain baseline vital signs and a medical history.

determine if she was injured when she fainted.

A patient with an altered mental status; high blood glucose levels; and deep, rapid breathing may have a condition known as __________. Select one: a. hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic coma b. hyperglycemic crisis c. diabetic ketoacidosis d. hypoglycemic crisis

diabetic ketoacidosis

Signs of excited delirium include: Select one: a. slurred speech, bradycardia, and a high fever. b. subdued behavior, crying, and suicidal thoughts. c. diaphoresis, tachycardia, and hallucinations. d. pallor, hypotension, and constricted pupils.

diaphoresis, tachycardia, and hallucinations.

A patient with profuse sweating is referred to as being: Select one: a. flushed. b. diaphoretic. c. edematous. d. plethoric.

diaphoretic.

Inhalation occurs when the: Select one: a. diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract and cause a decrease in intrathoracic pressure. b. diaphragm and intercostal muscles ascend and cause an increase in intrathoracic pressure. c. diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax and cause an increase in intrathoracic pressure. d. diaphragm ascends and the intercostal muscles contract, causing a decrease in intrathoracic pressure.

diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract and cause a decrease in intrathoracic pressure.

A 19-year-old female has just been extricated from her severely damaged car. She is on a long backboard and has been moved to a place of safety. As your partner maintains manual stabilization of her head, you perform a rapid assessment. The patient is unresponsive, has slow and shallow respirations, and has bilaterally closed femur deformities. You should: Select one: a. direct your partner to begin ventilatory assistance. b. obtain baseline vital signs and transport at once. c. stabilize her legs with long board splints. d. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.

direct your partner to begin ventilatory assistance.

A 13-year-old child is on a home ventilator. The parents called because the mechanical ventilator is malfunctioning and the child has increasing respiratory distress. You should: Select one: a. disconnect the ventilator and apply a tracheostomy collar. b. attempt to troubleshoot the mechanical ventilator problem. c. reset the ventilator by unplugging it for 30 to 60 seconds. d. place a call to the home health agency treating this patient.

disconnect the ventilator and apply a tracheostomy collar.

The means by which a terrorist will spread a particular agent is called: Select one: a. incubation. b. weaponization. c. dissemination. d. aerosolization.

dissemination.

A supracondylar or intercondylar fracture is also known as a fracture of the: Select one: a. proximal radius. b. olecranon process. c. radial head. d. distal humerus.

distal humerus.

Accumulation of blood in the abdominal cavity will MOST likely cause: Select one: a. nausea or vomiting. b. distention. c. referred pain. d. diffuse bruising.

distention.

The Centennial Park bombing during the 1996 Summer Olympics is an example of: Select one: a. an ecoterrorist attack. b. apocalyptic violence. c. domestic terrorism. d. state-sponsored terrorism.

domestic terrorism.

Infection should be considered a possible cause of an airway obstruction in an infant or child, especially if he or she presents with: Select one: a. drooling or congestion. b. acute respiratory distress. c. skin that is cool and dry. d. extreme restlessness.

drooling or congestion.

Prior to attaching the AED to a cardiac arrest patient, the EMT should: Select one: a. dry the chest if it is wet. b. contact medical control. c. perform CPR for 30 seconds. d. assess for a pulse for 20 seconds

dry the chest if it is wet

The tough, fibrous outer meningeal layer is called the: Select one: a. arachnoid mater. b. dura mater. c. pia mater. d. gray mater.

dura mater.

The rescue team is in the process of extricating a 40-year-old male from his truck. The patient's wife, who was uninjured in the crash, is calmly observing the extrication and asks you if her husband will be all right. You should: Select one: a. ensure that she is in a safe area, away from the scene. b. allow her to talk to her husband during the extrication. c. ask her follow-up questions about the details of the crash. d. allow her to observe the extrication and keep her calm.

ensure that she is in a safe area, away from the scene.

Upon arriving at a potentially unsafe scene, you should: Select one: a. move the patient to safety. b. request another ambulance. c. remove all bystanders. d. ensure that you are safe.

ensure that you are safe.

When immobilizing a patient on a long backboard, you should: Select one: a. secure the torso and then center the patient on the board. b. follow the commands of the person at the patient's torso. c. ensure that you secure the torso before securing the head. d. have the patient exhale before fastening the torso straps.

ensure that you secure the torso before securing the head.

You and your partner arrive at the scene of a fire at a large office complex. Witnesses tell you that they heard a loud explosion shortly before the building caught fire. You should: Select one: a. take standard precautions and begin searching for critically injured patients. b. ensure that your ambulance is parked upwind and uphill from the building. c. carefully document the witnesses' statements and report them immediately. d. tell the witnesses that you suspect that the explosion was the work of a terrorist.

ensure that your ambulance is parked upwind and uphill from the building.

Proper procedure for administering oral glucose to a patient includes all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: a. ensuring the absence of a gag reflex. b. requesting permission from medical control. c. checking the medication's expiration date. d. assessing the patient's mental status.

ensuring the absence of a gag reflex.

Burns in children are commonly caused by all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: a. entrapment in a structural fire. b. exposure to caustic chemicals. c. scalding water in a bathtub. d. hot items on a stovetop.

entrapment in a structural fire.

The leaf-shaped structure located superior to the larynx is called the: Select one: a. vallecula. b. epiglottis. c. thyroid cartilage. d. cricoid ring.

epiglottis.

A 30-year-old male presents with acute shortness of breath, widespread hives, and facial swelling. He denies any past medical history and takes no medications. During your assessment, you hear wheezing over all the lung fields. His blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg and his heart rate is 110 beats/min. In addition to giving him high-flow oxygen, the MOST important treatment for this patient is: Select one: a. albuterol. b. epinephrine. c. a beta-antagonist. d. an antihistamine.

epinephrine.

The hormone responsible for the actions of the sympathetic nervous system is: Select one: a. epinephrine. b. insulin. c. thyroxine. d. aldosterone.

epinephrine.

The two main types of cells contained in blood are called _________. Select one: a. transport and clotting b. hemoglobin A and S c. platelets and plasma d. erythrocytes and leukocytes

erythrocytes and leukocytes

The body's natural cooling mechanism, in which sweat is converted to a gas, is called: Select one: a. conduction. b. radiation. c. evaporation. d. convection.

evaporation.

It is common for young females who experience their first menstrual period to: Select one: a. become so emotionally distraught that they contemplate suicide. b. experience abdominal cramping, which may be misinterpreted. c. lose up to 500 mL of blood within the first 24 hours. d. have a false positive home pregnancy test result.

experience abdominal cramping, which may be misinterpreted.

Despite your attempts to coach a conscious young female's respirations, she continues to hyperventilate with a marked reduction in tidal volume. You should: Select one: a. insert a nasopharyngeal airway and give oxygen. b. ventilate her at the rate at which she is breathing. c. restrain her and provide ventilatory assistance. d. explain to her that you will assist her ventilations

explain to her that you will assist her ventilations

To date, the preferred weapons of mass destruction for terrorists have been: Select one: a. biologic weapons. b. nuclear weapons. c. chemical weapons. d. explosive weapons.

explosive weapons.

Anaphylaxis is MOST accurately defined as a(n): Select one: a. allergic reaction that causes bronchodilation and vasoconstriction. b. moderate allergic reaction that primarily affects the vasculature. c. extreme allergic reaction that may affect multiple body systems. d. severe allergic reaction that typically resolves without treatment.

extreme allergic reaction that may affect multiple body systems.

Neurogenic shock occurs when: Select one: a. failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation. b. the spinal cord is severed and causes massive hemorrhaging. c. there is too much blood to fill a smaller vascular container. d. massive vasoconstriction occurs distal to a spinal cord injury

failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation.

It would be MOST appropriate to perform a focused secondary assessment on a patient who: Select one: a. fainted and fell to the ground from a standing position. b. was restrained during a high-speed motor vehicle crash. c. has blood draining from the ears following a head injury. d. struck his or her head and is experiencing nausea or vomiting.

fainted and fell to the ground from a standing position.

A blood pressure cuff that is too small for a patient's arm will give a: Select one: a. falsely high systolic and diastolic reading. b. falsely low systolic and diastolic reading. c. falsely low systolic but high diastolic reading. d. falsely high systolic but low diastolic reading.

falsely high systolic and diastolic reading.

Risk factors for AMI that cannot be controlled include: Select one: a. hyperglycemia. b. excess stress. c. lack of exercise. d. family history.

family history.

Following delivery of a full-term baby, you have properly cared for the baby and have clamped and cut the umbilical cord. During transport, you note that the mother is experiencing moderate vaginal bleeding. You should: Select one: a. carefully insert a sterile trauma dressing into her vagina. b. place her legs together and position her on her left side. c. firmly massage the uterine fundus with a circular motion. d. elevate her legs 6 to 8 inches and cover her with a blanket.

firmly massage the uterine fundus with a circular motion.

Most cases of anthrax begin with: Select one: a. pulmonary edema. b. signs of shock. c. respiratory distress. d. flulike symptoms.

flulike symptoms.

A patient with high blood pressure would be expected to have skin that is: Select one: a. cyanotic and dry. b. flushed and red. c. mottled and cool. d. pale and moist.

flushed and red.

Placards and labels on a storage container are intended to: Select one: a. give a general idea of the hazard inside that particular container. b. advise responders of the appropriate neutralizing measures. c. provide specific information about the chemical being carried. d. broadly classify chemicals as being explosive or nonexplosive.

give a general idea of the hazard inside that particular container.

Delivering a patient to the hospital involves all of the following activities, EXCEPT: Select one: a. completing a detailed written report. b. restocking any disposable items you used. c. giving a verbal report to the clerk. d. informing the dispatcher of your arrival.

giving a verbal report to the clerk.

You are standing by at the scene of a hostage situation when the incident commander advises you that one of his personnel has been shot. The patient is lying supine in an open area and is not moving. As the SWAT team escorts you to the patient, you should: Select one: a. perform a rapid assessment and move him to a place of safety. b. limit your primary assessment to airway and breathing only. c. grab him by the clothes and immediately move him to safety. d. treat only critical injuries before moving him to a safe place.

grab him by the clothes and immediately move him to safety.

If hydroplaning of the ambulance occurs, the driver should: Select one: a. gradually slow down without jamming on the brakes. b. slowly pump the brakes until he or she regains vehicle control. c. quickly jerk the steering wheel. d. slowly move the steering wheel back and forth.

gradually slow down without jamming on the brakes.

A supervisor who has more than seven people reporting to him or her: Select one: a. is more beneficial to the overall effort than a supervisor with fewer personnel because his or her team can accomplish more tasks. b. should regularly report to the incident commander (IC) to inform him or her of the functions that his or her team is performing. c. should assign a specific task to each person reporting to him or her and regularly follow up to ensure that the tasks were carried out. d. has exceeded an effective span of control and should divide tasks and delegate the supervision of some tasks to another person.

has exceeded an effective span of control and should divide tasks and delegate the supervision of some tasks to another person.

When caring for a female child who has possibly been sexually abused, you should: Select one: a. encourage the child to urinate and take a shower. b. carefully examine the genitalia for signs of injury. c. immediately report your suspicions to the parents. d. have a female EMT remain with her if possible.

have a female EMT remain with her if possible.

Signs and symptoms of a hypertensive emergency would MOST likely be delayed in patients who: Select one: a. regularly take illegal drugs. b. have had a stroke in the past. c. are older than 40 years of age. d. have chronic hypertension.

have chronic hypertension.

To minimize distractions and confusion when assessing an older patient, you should: Select one: a. have only one EMT speak to the patient at a time. b. elevate your voice and speak directly to the patient. c. dismiss the family members from the room or area. d. perform a physical exam and then talk to the patient.

have only one EMT speak to the patient at a time.

Which of the following actions indicates that the EMT is using proper body mechanics when transferring a patient from a bed to the wheeled stretcher? Select one: a. The EMT keeps his arms extended and the patient away from his body during the transfer. b. The EMT primarily uses the muscles of his back to move the patient. c. The EMT transfers the patient to the stretcher at one time, not in stages. d. The EMT aligns his shoulder, hips, and feet when moving the patient.

he EMT aligns his shoulder, hips, and feet when moving the patient.

During your assessment of a 19-year-old male, you are told that he is being treated with factor VIII. This indicates that: Select one: a. his blood clots too quickly. b. he has hemophilia A. c. he has thrombophilia. d. he has a thrombosis.

he has hemophilia A.

Gastrointestinal bleeding should be suspected if a patient presents with: Select one: a. hematuria. b. hemoptysis. c. hematemesis. d. dyspnea.

hematemesis.

In a patient with a head injury, hypertension, bradycardia, and Biot respirations indicate: Select one: a. decreased cerebral blood flow. b. an underlying skull fracture. c. herniation of the brain stem. d. internal bleeding in the chest.

herniation of the brain stem.

Urticaria is the medical term for: Select one: a. burning. b. swelling. c. hives. d. a wheal.

hives.

Peritonitis usually occurs when: Select one: a. hollow abdominal organs are damaged and spill their contents into the peritoneal cavity. b. the vessels that supply the abdominal organs become inflamed. c. solid abdominal organs bleed secondary to penetrating trauma. d. bacteria or viruses invade the walls of the gastrointestinal tract.

hollow abdominal organs are damaged and spill their contents into the peritoneal cavity.

Common causes of seizures in children include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: a. infection. b. hyperglycemia. c. poisonings or ingestion. d. electrolyte imbalances

hyperglycemia.

You are assessing a 70-year-old female who complains of intense thirst, frequent urination, and dizziness. She has a history of type 2 diabetes, heart disease, rheumatoid arthritis, and gout. Her blood glucose reads "high." She is conscious, but confused. Her blood pressure is 92/52 mm Hg, her pulse rate is 130 beats/min and weak, and her respirations are 22 breaths/min and shallow. This patient's clinical presentation is MOST consistent with: Select one: a. diabetic ketoacidosis. b. acute renal failure with associated hyperglycemia. c. hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome. d. hyperglycemia with moderate dehydration.

hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome.

The MOST significant complication associated with oropharyngeal suctioning is: Select one: a. oral abrasions from vigorous suctioning. b. clogging of the catheter with thick secretions. c. hypoxia due to prolonged suction attempts. d. vomiting from stimulating the anterior airwa

hypoxia due to prolonged suction attempts.

If you cannot palpate a pulse in an unresponsive patient whose collapse was not witnessed, you should: Select one: a. immediately begin CPR. b. apply an AED at once. c. palpate at another pulse site. d. assess for adequate breathing.

immediately begin CPR.

Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you can see three patients, one who is entrapped in his car and two who have been ejected from their vehicle. You should: Select one: a. begin triage to determine injury severity. b. call medical control for further direction. c. request law enforcement for traffic control. d. immediately request additional resources.

immediately request additional resources.

After the AED has delivered a shock, the EMT should: Select one: a. re-analyze the cardiac rhythm. b. assess for a carotid pulse. c. immediately resume CPR. d. transport the patient at once.

immediately resume CPR.

A 33-year-old restrained driver of a motor vehicle crash is awake and alert, complaining only of neck pain and left leg pain. The vehicle is stable and no hazards are present. When removing this patient from his vehicle, you should: Select one: a. apply a full leg splint prior to extrication. b. use the rapid extrication technique. c. maintain slight traction to his neck area. d. immobilize him with a vest-style device.

immobilize him with a vest-style device.

A 45-year-old male was working on his roof when he fell approximately 12 feet, landing on his feet. He is conscious and alert and complains of an ache in his lower back. He is breathing adequately and has stable vital signs. You should: Select one: a. immobilize his spine and perform a focused secondary exam. b. obtain a Glasgow Coma Score value and give him oxygen. c. allow him to refuse transport if his vital signs remain stable. d. perform a rapid head-to-toe exam and immobilize his spine.

immobilize his spine and perform a focused secondary exam.

In the eyes of the courts, an incomplete or untidy patient care form indicates: Select one: a. the EMT was too busy providing patient care to fill out the form. b. inadequate patient care was administered. c. thorough documentation was not required. d. potential falsification of the patient care form.

inadequate patient care was administered.

Without adequate oxygen, the body's cells: Select one: a. incompletely convert glucose into energy, and lactic acid accumulates in the blood. b. begin to metabolize fat, resulting in the production and accumulation of ketoacids. c. rely solely on glucose, which is completely converted into adenosine triphosphate. d. cease metabolism altogether, resulting in carbon dioxide accumulation in the blood.

incompletely convert glucose into energy, and lactic acid accumulates in the blood.

Most poisonings occur via the __________ route. Select one: a. ingestion b. inhalation c. injection d. absorption

ingestion

Of the four avenues of poisoning, generally ___________ is the most worrisome in terms of treatment to the EMS provider. Select one: a. absorption b. inhalation c. ingestion d. injection

injection

You are assisting an asthma patient with his prescribed metered-dose inhaler. After the patient takes a deep breath and depresses the inhaler, you should: Select one: a. immediately reapply the oxygen mask and reassess his condition. b. advise him to exhale forcefully to ensure medication absorption. c. instruct him to hold his breath for as long as he comfortably can. d. allow him to breathe room air and assess his oxygen saturation

instruct him to hold his breath for as long as he comfortably can.

The amniotic fluid serves to: Select one: a. remove viruses from the fetus. b. transfer oxygen to the fetus. c. assist in fetal development. d. insulate and protect the fetus.

insulate and protect the fetus.

You are treating a 40-year-old male with a documented blood sugar reading of 480 mg/dL. The patient is semiconscious and breathing shallowly, and is receiving assisted ventilation from your partner. You should recognize that definitive treatment for this patient includes: Select one: a. glucagon. b. dextrose. c. insulin. d. oxygen.

insulin.

When caring for a known alcoholic patient with severe trauma to the chest and abdomen, you should be concerned that: Select one: a. internal bleeding may be profuse because prolonged alcohol use may impair the blood's ability to clot. b. long bone fractures are likely because chronic alcohol consumption weakens the structure of the bones. c. signs and symptoms of shock may be masked by the stimulant effects produced by alcohol. d. delirium tremens (DTs) are commonly induced by physical trauma and can lead to life-threatening seizures.

internal bleeding may be profuse because prolonged alcohol use may impair the blood's ability to clot.

During your assessment of a patient who experienced blunt trauma to the abdomen, you notice bruising around the umbilicus. This is a sign of: Select one: a. a severe liver laceration. b. rupture of a hollow organ. c. intra-abdominal bleeding. d. a ruptured spleen.

intra-abdominal bleeding.

Bleeding within the brain tissue itself is called a(n): Select one: a. intracerebral hematoma. b. subarachnoid hemorrhage. c. epidural hematoma. d. subdural hematoma.

intracerebral hematoma.

Upon arriving at the scene of a patient with difficulty breathing, you determine that the scene is safe. You enter the residence and find the patient sitting in a chair in respiratory distress. Your first action should be to: Select one: a. assess the patient's airway status. b. obtain a set of baseline vital signs. c. ask the patient what's wrong. d. introduce yourself to the patient.

introduce yourself to the patient.

A 37-year-old female with a history of diabetes presents with excessive urination and weakness of 2 days' duration. Her blood glucose level reads 320 mg/dL. If this patient's condition is not promptly treated, she will MOST likely develop: Select one: a. acidosis and dehydration. b. hypoxia and overhydration. c. severe insulin shock. d. irreversible renal failure.

irreversible renal failure.

In contrast to inhalation, exhalation: Select one: a. is a passive process caused by increased intrathoracic pressure. b. requires muscular effort to effectively expel air from the lungs. c. occurs when the diaphragm lowers and expels air from the lungs. d. is an active process caused by decreased intrathoracic pressure

is a passive process caused by increased intrathoracic pressure.

In contrast to type 1 diabetes, type 2 diabetes: Select one: a. is caused by a complete lack of insulin in the body. b. is caused by resistance to insulin at the cellular level. c. occurs when antibodies attack insulin-producing cells. d. is commonly diagnosed in children and young adults.

is caused by resistance to insulin at the cellular level.

Chronic renal failure is a condition that: Select one: a. can be reversed with prompt treatment. b. occurs from conditions such as dehydration. c. is often caused by hypertension or diabetes. d. causes dehydration from excessive urination.

is often caused by hypertension or diabetes.

An abdominal aortic aneurysm: Select one: a. can sometimes be palpated as a mass in the groin area. b. is usually not repairable, even if discovered early. c. causes dull pain that often radiates to the shoulders. d. is often the result of hypertension and atherosclerosis.

is often the result of hypertension and atherosclerosis.

In contrast to the parietal peritoneum, the visceral peritoneum: Select one: a. is supplied by nerves of the autonomic nervous system, which are less able to localize pain or sensation. b. is supplied by the same nerves from the spinal cord that supply the skin of the abdomen. c. lines the walls of the abdominal cavity and is stimulated when the solid abdominal organs contract. d. is less likely to become inflamed or infected because it lines the abdominal organs themselves.

is supplied by nerves of the autonomic nervous system, which are less able to localize pain or sensation.

A nuchal cord is defined as an umbilical cord that: Select one: a. is wrapped around the baby's neck. b. is lacerated due to a traumatic delivery. c. has separated from the placenta. d. has abnormally developed blood vessels.

is wrapped around the baby's neck.

Aggressive ambulance driving may have a negative effect on other motorists because: Select one: a. they often freeze when they see the lights in the rearview mirror. b. they may become enraged and attempt to run you off the road. c. they move to the right or drive as close to the curb as possible. d. it may not allow for their reaction time to respond to your vehicle.

it may not allow for their reaction time to respond to your vehicle.

As you and your partner report for duty, you check your ambulance and begin talking about the possibility of a terrorist attack. The MOST effective and appropriate way to determine the likelihood of this happening is to: Select one: a. check with local businesses to see if they have received any terrorist threats. b. ascertain the current situation overseas with regard to the number of casualties. c. ask your immediate supervisor if he or she has been watching the local news. d. know the current threat level issued by the Department of Homeland Security.

know the current threat level issued by the Department of Homeland Security.

The stooped posture of some older people, which gives them a humpback appearance, is called: Select one: a. miosis. b. arthritis. c. kyphosis. d. scoliosis.

kyphosis.

The __________ and _________ are folds of tissue that surround the urethral and vaginal openings. Select one: a. perineum; anus b. vagina; cervix c. labia majora; labia minora d. fallopian tubes; uterus

labia majora; labia minora

Injury to a hollow abdominal organ would MOST likely result in: Select one: a. profound shock due to severe internal bleeding. b. leakage of contents into the abdominal cavity. c. impairment in the blood's clotting abilities. d. pain secondary to blood in the peritoneum

leakage of contents into the abdominal cavity.

The physical examination of a sexual assault victim should be: Select one: a. performed in the presence of at least two police officers. b. as detailed as possible so all injuries can be documented. c. deferred until the patient can be evaluated by a physician. d. limited to a brief survey for life-threatening injuries.

limited to a brief survey for life-threatening injuries.

All of the following body structures are lined with mucous membranes, EXCEPT for the: Select one: a. lips. b. mouth. c. nose. d. anus.

lips.

A 40-year-old male presents with pain to the right upper quadrant of his abdomen. He is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. During your assessment, you note that his skin and sclera are jaundiced. You should suspect: Select one: a. liver dysfunction. b. renal insufficiency. c. acute pancreatitis. d. gallbladder disease.

liver dysfunction.

An overdose of acetaminophen, the active ingredient in Tylenol, will MOST likely cause: Select one: a. liver failure. b. gastric ulcers. c. kidney failure. d. CNS depression

liver failure.

Bruising to the right upper quadrant of the abdomen following blunt trauma is MOST suggestive of injury to the: Select one: a. kidney. b. liver. c. stomach. d. spleen.

liver.

You receive a call to a residence for a sick patient. Upon your arrival, you find the patient, a 53-year-old diabetic male, lying down on his front porch. His wife tells you that he had been mowing the lawn in the heat for the past 3 hours. The patient is confused and has hot, moist skin. His pulse is weak and thready, and his blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg. You should: Select one: a. administer one tube of oral glucose and reassess his mental status. b. load him into the ambulance and begin rapid cooling interventions. c. place him in a sitting position and have him drink 1 L of water. d. perform a head-to-toe assessment and look for signs of trauma.

load him into the ambulance and begin rapid cooling interventions.

The goal of the systematic head-to-toe exam that is performed during the secondary assessment is to: Select one: a. detect and treat all non-life-threatening injuries. b. locate injuries not found in the primary assessment. c. definitively rule out significant internal injuries. d. assess only the parts of the body that are injured.

locate injuries not found in the primary assessment.

A strangulated hernia is one that: Select one: a. can be pushed back into the body cavity to which it belongs. b. loses its blood supply due to compression by local tissues. c. spontaneously reduces without any surgical intervention. d. is reducible if surgical intervention occurs within 2 hours.

loses its blood supply due to compression by local tissues.

The hypoxic drive is influenced by: Select one: a. high blood oxygen levels. b. low blood oxygen levels. c. low blood carbon dioxide levels. d. high blood carbon dioxide levels.

low blood oxygen levels.

Complications associated with using a manually triggered ventilation device include: Select one: a. inadequate ventilation and hypercarbia. b. reduced tidal volume delivery and hypoxia. c. inadequate oxygenation and tracheal injury. d. lung tissue injury and gastric distention.

lung tissue injury and gastric distention.

The main function of the endocrine system is to _________. Select one: a. regulate glucose and calcium b. produce glandular secretions c. regulate blood flow d. maintain homeostasis

maintain homeostasis

As you assess the head of a patient with a suspected spinal injury, your partner should: Select one: a. maintain stabilization of the head. b. prepare the immobilization equipment. c. assess the rest of the body for bleeding. d. look in the ears for gross bleeding.

maintain stabilization of the head.

In contrast to bleeding caused by external trauma to the vagina, bleeding caused by conditions such as polyps or cancer: Select one: a. may be relatively painless. b. is typically not as severe. c. can be controlled in the field. d. often presents with acute pain.

may be relatively painless.

Talking about an elderly patient in front of him or her to other members of the family: Select one: a. is usually beneficial because the patient's cognitive skills are typically impaired. b. often causes the patient to become paranoid and untrusting of your help. c. will anger the patient and result in his or her refusal to accept care or transport. d. may cause the patient to think that he or she has no say in making decisions.

may cause the patient to think that he or she has no say in making decisions.

The diastolic blood pressure represents the: Select one: a. difference in pressure between ventricular contraction and relaxation. b. minimum amount of pressure that is always present in the arteries. c. average pressure against the arterial walls during a cardiac cycle. d. increased arterial pressure that occurs during ventricular contraction.

minimum amount of pressure that is always present in the arteries.

As the single EMT managing an apneic patient's airway, the preferred initial method of providing ventilations is the: Select one: a. manually triggered ventilation device. b. mouth-to-mouth technique. c. mouth-to-mask technique with a one-way valve. d. one-person bag-valve mask

mouth-to-mask technique with a one-way valve.

The FIRST step in the START triage system is to: Select one: a. move all walking patients to a designated area. b. get a quick head count of all the patients involved. c. focus on the patients who are unconscious. d. scan the area for patients with severe bleeding.

move all walking patients to a designated area.

As a triage supervisor, you: Select one: a. are responsible for providing initial treatment to all patients. b. should communicate with area hospitals regarding their capabilities. c. must not begin treatment until all patients have been triaged. d. must prepare patients for transport before they leave the triage area.

must not begin treatment until all patients have been triaged.

Angina pectoris occurs when: Select one: a. one or more coronary arteries suddenly spasm. b. myocardial oxygen supply exceeds the demand. c. myocardial oxygen demand exceeds supply. d. a coronary artery is totally occluded by plaque.

myocardial oxygen demand exceeds supply.

When caring for a 65-year-old male with respiratory distress, you place him in a comfortable position but do not apply oxygen. The patient's condition continues to deteriorate and he develops cardiac arrest and dies at the hospital. This scenario is an example of: Select one: a. assault. b. battery. c. abandonment. d. negligence.

negligence.

The first month of life after birth is referred to as the: Select one: a. neonatal period. b. toddler period. c. start of infancy. d. premature phase.

neonatal period.

The venom of a black widow spider is toxic to the: Select one: a. respiratory system. b. renal system. c. nervous system. d. cardiovascular system.

nervous system.

Unlike a multiple-casualty incident, a natural disaster: Select one: a. exists when there are more than 100 critically injured patients. b. is typically short-lived and does not require as much manpower. c. usually does not require the incident command system process. d. often requires personnel to remain on scene for several days.

often requires personnel to remain on scene for several days.

When preparing a pregnant patient for delivery, you should position her: Select one: a. on a firm surface with her hips elevated 2 to 4 inches. b. in a sitting position with her hips elevated 12 inches. c. in a supine position with her legs spread. d. on her left side with the right leg elevated.

on a firm surface with her hips elevated 2 to 4 inches.

When preparing to obtain a 12-lead ECG, the "LL" and "RL" electrodes should be placed: Select one: a. anywhere on the arms. b. on the lower abdomen. c. on the thighs or ankles. d. on either side of the chest.

on the thighs or ankles.

A man finds his 59-year-old wife unconscious on the couch. He states that she takes medications for type 2 diabetes. He further tells you that his wife has been ill recently and has not eaten for the past 24 hours. Your assessment reveals that the patient is unresponsive. You should: Select one: a. administer oral glucose between her cheek and gum. b. open and maintain her airway and assess breathing. c. administer 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. d. assess for the presence of a medical identification tag.

open and maintain her airway and assess breathing.

A 40-year-old male crashed his motorcycle into a tree. He is semiconscious, has snoring respirations, and has a laceration to the forearm with minimal bleeding. You should: Select one: a. apply a pressure dressing to the patient's arm. b. open his airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver. c. apply a cervical collar and suction his airway. d. tilt the patient's head back and lift up on his chin

open his airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver.

Hypotension, hypoventilation, and pinpoint pupils would be expected following an overdose of: Select one: a. amphetamine sulfate (Benzedrine). b. crack cocaine. c. ecstasy. d. oxycodone (Percocet).

oxycodone (Percocet).

In order for efficient pulmonary gas exchange to occur: Select one: a. the pulmonary capillaries must be completely constricted and the alveoli must be collapsed. b. oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane. c. there must be low quantities of pulmonary surfactant to allow for full alveolar expansion. d. the percentage of inhaled carbon dioxide must exceed the percentage of inhaled oxygen

oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane.

While triaging patients at the scene of a motor-vehicle crash, you encounter a 5-year-old child who is unresponsive and apneic. After positioning his airway, you should: Select one: a. palpate for a carotid pulse. b. deliver 5 rescue breaths. c. categorize him as immediate. d. categorize him as deceased.

palpate for a carotid pulse.

Upon arrival at a trench rescue operation, you should _________. Select one: a. assist with the rescue operation b. park as close to the incident as possible c. park at least 500 feet from the incident d. determine if rescuers are operating safely

park at least 500 feet from the incident

The type and severity of wounds sustained from incendiary and explosive devices primarily depend on the: Select one: a. pressure that is generated from the explosion itself. b. patient's distance from the epicenter of the explosion. c. size of the structure that was involved in the explosion. d. type of material used to manufacture the device.

patient's distance from the epicenter of the explosion.

With regard to the assessment of a patient's cardiovascular status, capillary refill time is MOST reliable in: Select one: a. patients who were exposed to cold temperatures. b. patients who are older than 70 years of age. c. patients who are significantly hypotensive. d. patients who are younger than 6 years of age.

patients who are younger than 6 years of age.

The systematic head-to-toe assessment should be performed on: Select one: a. all patients with traumatic injuries who will require EMS transport. b. responsive medical patients and patients without a significant MOI. c. stable patients who are able to tell you exactly what happened. d. patients with a significant MOI and unresponsive medical patients.

patients with a significant MOI and unresponsive medical patients.

The EMT should use an AED on a child between 1 month and 8 years of age if: Select one: a. he or she is not breathing and has a weakly palpable pulse. b. his or her condition is rapidly progressing to cardiac arrest. c. pediatric pads and an energy-reducing device are available. d. special pads are used and the child has profound tachycardia.

pediatric pads and an energy-reducing device are available.

Once entrance and access to the patient have been provided, you should: Select one: a. begin treating his or her injuries. b. administer high-flow oxygen. c. perform a primary assessment. d. allow extrication to commence.

perform a primary assessment.

When a person is exposed to a cold environment: Select one: a. sweat is produced and is warmed when the vessels constrict. b. blood vessels dilate and divert blood to the core of the body. c. the skin becomes flushed secondary to peripheral vasodilation. d. peripheral vessels constrict and divert blood away from the skin.

peripheral vessels constrict and divert blood away from the skin.

The diaphragm is innervated by the _________ nerve, which allows it to contract. Select one: a. hypoglossal b. vagus c. vestibulocochlear d. phrenic

phrenic

Poor maintenance of home, poor personal care, and dietary neglect are all possible indicators of ____________ elder abuse. Select one: a. psychological b. financial c. physical d. emotional

physical

Normal skin color, temperature, and condition should be: Select one: a. flushed, cool, and dry. b. pale, cool, and moist. c. pink, warm, and dry. d. pink, warm, and moist.

pink, warm, and dry.

When caring for a female patient who has been sexually assaulted, you should: Select one: a. place any bloodstained clothing or other articles in separate paper bags. b. ask the patient for a concise, detailed report of what happened to her. c. allow law enforcement to take her statement before you begin treatment. d. advise her that she will not be allowed to shower or change her clothes.

place any bloodstained clothing or other articles in separate paper bags.

When immobilizing a patient with a kyphotic spine to a long backboard, the EMT would MOST likely have to: Select one: a. place blankets behind the patient's head. b. force the head into a neutral alignment. c. secure the patient's head before the torso. d. use a scoop stretcher instead of a log roll.

place blankets behind the patient's head.

A 26-year-old female who is 34 weeks pregnant is experiencing a seizure. Her husband tells you that her blood pressure has been high and that she had been complaining of a headache for the past few days. You should: Select one: a. insert an oral airway and ventilate her with a bag-valve mask. b. place her on her side, administer high-flow oxygen, and transport. c. elevate her legs to improve brain perfusion and keep her warm. d. administer oral glucose for presumed hypoglycemia and transport.

place her on her side, administer high-flow oxygen, and transport.

Your 22-year-old patient is in active labor. Upon visual inspection, you note that the infant's leg is protruding from the vagina. Appropriate management of this situation includes: Select one: a. placing the mother supine with her head down and pelvis elevated. b. placing the mother in a recumbent position and rapidly transporting. c. carefully attempting to push the infant's leg off of the umbilical cord. d. gently pulling on the infant's leg in an attempt to facilitate delivery.

placing the mother supine with her head down and pelvis elevated.

Sedentary behavior while healing from a hip fracture would MOST likely predispose the older patient to: Select one: a. osteoporosis. b. pneumonia. c. heart failure. d. ischemic stroke.

pneumonia.

Excessive eating caused by cellular "hunger" is called: Select one: a. dyspepsia. b. polydipsia. c. dysphasia. d. polyphagia

polyphagia

Crepitus and false motion are: Select one: a. positive indicators of a fracture. b. most common with dislocations. c. only seen with open fractures. d. indicators of a severe sprain.

positive indicators of a fracture.

Common interventions used to stimulate spontaneous respirations in the newborn include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: a. thorough drying with a towel. b. some form of tactile stimulation. c. positive-pressure ventilations. d. suctioning of the upper airway.

positive-pressure ventilations.

The EMT must assume that any unwitnessed water-related incident is accompanied by: Select one: a. cold-water immersion. b. alcohol intoxication. c. an air embolism. d. possible spinal injury.

possible spinal injury.

A pregnant trauma patient may lose a significant amount of blood before showing signs of shock because: Select one: a. blood is shunted to the uterus and fetus during major trauma. b. pregnant patients can dramatically increase their heart rate. c. pregnancy causes vasodilation and a lower blood pressure. d. pregnant patients have an overall increase in blood volume.

pregnant patients have an overall increase in blood volume.

A 50-year-old male presents with altered mental status. His wife tells you that he had a "small stroke" three years ago but has otherwise been in good health. The patient is responsive but unable to follow commands. After administering oxygen if needed, you should: Select one: a. repeat the primary assessment. b. prepare for immediate transport. c. inquire about his family history. d. perform a head-to-toe assessment.

prepare for immediate transport.

The function of the National Incident Management System (NIMS) is to: Select one: a. facilitate a standard method of incident command for natural disasters. b. prepare for the potential of a nuclear attack against the United States. c. educate city and county governments regarding foreign terrorist attacks. d. prepare for, prevent, respond to, and recover from domestic incidents.

prepare for, prevent, respond to, and recover from domestic incidents.

Upon arrival at a search-and-rescue incident, the EMS crew should _________. Select one: a. split up and request a search grid b. begin searching for the patient c. prepare the equipment to carry to the patient d. provide the incident commander with the crew's names and certification level(s)

prepare the equipment to carry to the patient

The purpose of a ventricular peritoneum shunt is to: Select one: a. monitor pressure within the skull in patients with a head injury. b. remove fluid from the abdomen of patients with right-sided heart failure. c. prevent excess cerebrospinal fluid from accumulating in the brain. d. divert excess cerebrospinal fluid to the ventricles of the brain.

prevent excess cerebrospinal fluid from accumulating in the brain.

You are treating a man who was assaulted and has a closed head injury. The patient, who has slurred speech, becomes verbally abusive and tells you to leave him alone. You should: Select one: a. ask a police officer to transport the patient to the hospital. b. have the police arrest the patient so that you can legally begin treatment. c. proceed with treatment and utilize law enforcement for assistance if necessary. d. allow the patient to refuse treatment because the injury was not his fault.

proceed with treatment and utilize law enforcement for assistance if necessary.

You are transporting a 28-year-old man with a frostbitten foot. The patient's vital signs are stable and he denies any other injuries or symptoms. The weather is treacherous and your transport time to the hospital is approximately 45 minutes. During transport, you should: Select one: a. rewarm his foot in 102°F to 104°F (38.9°C to 40°C) water. b. administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. c. protect the affected part from further injury. d. cover his foot with chemical heat compresses.

protect the affected part from further injury.

When removing a critically injured patient from his or her vehicle, you should: Select one: a. move him or her in one fast, continuous step. b. protect the cervical spine during the entire process. c. remove him or her using a short backboard. d. release c-spine control to facilitate rapid removal.

protect the cervical spine during the entire process.

Law enforcement personnel request your assistance to assess a 31-year-old female who was sexually assaulted. When you arrive at the scene, you find the patient sitting on a curb outside her apartment. She is conscious, alert, and crying. When you ask her what happened, she tells you that she does not want to be treated or transported to the hospital. She further tells you that all she wants to do is clean up. You should: Select one: a. ask her if there is anyone you can contact, such as a friend or relative. b. perform a limited hands-on assessment to detect life-threatening injuries. c. advise her that she cannot clean herself up because this will destroy evidence. d. provide emotional support and visually assess her for obvious trauma.

provide emotional support and visually assess her for obvious trauma.

A "hip" fracture is actually a fracture of the: Select one: a. pubic symphysis. b. pelvic girdle. c. proximal femur. d. femoral shaft.

proximal femur.

Three days after delivering her baby, a 30-year-old woman complains of a sudden onset of difficulty breathing. Her level of consciousness is decreased and she is tachycardic. The EMT should suspect: Select one: a. acute pulmonary edema. b. pulmonary embolism. c. spontaneous pneumothorax. d. intrauterine bleeding.

pulmonary embolism.

When an allergic reaction proceeds to life-threatening anaphylaxis, it will usually do so __________. Select one: a. slowly, over several hours. b. quickly, within 30 minutes. c. quickly, within 30 seconds. d. slowly, over more than 30 minutes.

quickly, within 30 minutes.

In responsive patients who are older than 1 year of age, you should palpate the pulse at the ________ artery. Select one: a. femoral b. carotid c. brachial d. radial

radial

Pain that moves from its point of origin to another body location is said to be: Select one: a. radiating. b. referred. c. provoking. d. palliating.

radiating.

When palpating a patient's pulse, you note that there is a short interval between pulsations. This indicates that the pulse is: Select one: a. slow. b. irregular. c. rapid. d. thready.

rapid.

Proper technique for suctioning the oropharynx of an adult patient includes: Select one: a. removing large, solid objects with a tonsil-tip suction catheter. b. suctioning for up to 1 minute if the patient is well oxygenated. c. suctioning while withdrawing the catheter from the oropharynx. d. continuously suctioning patients with copious oral secretions

suctioning while withdrawing the catheter from the oropharynx.

You are transporting a 33-year-old male who was involved in a major motor vehicle crash. You have addressed all immediate and potentially life-threatening conditions and have stabilized his condition with the appropriate treatment. With an estimated time of arrival at the hospital of 20 minutes, you should: Select one: a. repeat your secondary assessment. b. take his vital signs in 15 minutes. c. arrange for an ALS rendezvous. d. reassess his condition in 5 minutes.

reassess his condition in 5 minutes.

You are ventilating a 40-year-old uninjured man who is apneic but has a pulse. When your partner reassesses his blood pressure, she notes that it has decreased significantly from previous readings. You should: Select one: a. increase the rate at which you are ventilating and reassess his blood pressure. b. reduce the rate or volume of the ventilations you are delivering. c. increase the volume of your ventilations and reassess his blood pressure. d. perform a head-to-toe assessment to look for signs of bleeding.

reduce the rate or volume of the ventilations you are delivering.

A pulse with a consistent pattern is considered to be: Select one: a. regular. b. irregular. c. weak. d. strong.

regular.

You are en route to an emergency call when you approach a slow-moving vehicle on a two-way road. You can see oncoming traffic in the other lane. The driver has his windows up and does not realize that you are behind him. You should: Select one: a. remain at a safe distance until it is safe to pass. b. quickly pass the vehicle on the left side. c. pass the driver on the right-hand shoulder. d. use your public address system to alert the driver.

remain at a safe distance until it is safe to pass.

At a scene with downed electrical lines, the EMT should _________. Select one: a. enter the danger (hot) zone for patient removal only b. relocate the danger (hot) zone away from the patient c. remain outside the danger (hot) zone d. stabilize the patient in the danger (hot) zone

remain outside the danger (hot) zone

While staged at the scene of a structure fire, the EMT should _________. Select one: a. assess firefighters for signs of fatigue b. remain with the ambulance c. locate the safety officer d. stay with the incident commander

remain with the ambulance

Extrication is defined as: Select one: a. immobilizing a patient before moving him or her. b. using heavy equipment to access a patient. c. removal from a dangerous situation or position. d. dismantling an automobile to remove a victim.

removal from a dangerous situation or position.

You are ventilating an apneic woman with a bag-valve mask. She has dentures, which are tight fitting. Adequate chest rise is present with each ventilation, and the patient's oxygen saturation reads 96%. When you reassess the patency of her airway, you note that her dentures are now loose, although your ventilations are still producing adequate chest rise. You should: Select one: a. remove her dentures at once and increase the rate and volume of your ventilations. b. attempt to replace her dentures so that they fit tightly and resume ventilations. c. remove her dentures, resume ventilations, and assess for adequate chest rise. d. leave her dentures in place, but carefully monitor her for an airway obstruction

remove her dentures, resume ventilations, and assess for adequate chest rise.

While providing CPAP to a patient in severe respiratory distress, you note that his heart rate has increased by 20 beats/min. He is conscious, but is no longer following verbal commands. You should: Select one: a. remove the CPAP device and apply oxygen by nonrebreathing mask. b. remove the CPAP device and ventilate him with a bag-valve mask. c. increase the amount of pressure that the CPAP device is delivering. d. decrease the amount of pressure that the CPAP device is delivering.

remove the CPAP device and ventilate him with a bag-valve mask.

A patient in cardiac arrest is wearing an external defibrillator vest, which is interfering with effective chest compressions. The EMT should: Select one: a. perform ventilations only and allow the vest device to defibrillate. b. remove the battery from the monitor and leave the vest in place. c. leave the battery attached to the monitor and remove the vest. d. remove the battery from the monitor and then remove the vest.

remove the battery from the monitor and then remove the vest.

The kidneys help to regulate blood pressure by: Select one: a. eliminating toxic waste products from the body. b. accommodating a large amount of blood volume. c. removing sodium and water from the body. d. retaining key electrolytes, such as potassium.

removing sodium and water from the body.

Blood levels of medications may rise in the elderly, sometimes to toxic levels. This is MOST likely due to: Select one: a. splenic dysfunction. b. renal insufficiency. c. pancreatic failure. d. intentional overdose.

renal insufficiency.

A 19-year-old male was stung multiple times by fire ants. He is experiencing obvious signs and symptoms of anaphylactic shock. You administer high-flow oxygen and give him epinephrine via intramuscular injection. Upon reassessment, you determine that his condition has not improved. You should: Select one: a. consider that he may actually be experiencing an acute asthma attack. b. repeat the epinephrine injection after consulting with medical control. c. transport him immediately and provide supportive care while en route. d. request a paramedic unit that is stationed approximately 15 miles away

repeat the epinephrine injection after consulting with medical control.

When interviewing a patient, you can show him or her that you understand the situation by: Select one: a. using medical terminology whenever possible. b. repeating statements back to him or her. c. maintaining constant eye contact with him or her. d. interrupting him or her as needed for clarification.

repeating statements back to him or her.

An unconscious patient found in a prone position must be placed in a supine position in case he or she: Select one: a. has increased tidal volume. b. regains consciousness. c. begins to vomit. d. requires CPR.

requires CPR

Prior to applying a nonrebreathing mask to a patient, you must ensure that the: Select one: a. flow rate is set at 6 L/min. b. patient has reduced tidal volume. c. one-way valve is sealed. d. reservoir bag is fully inflated

reservoir bag is fully inflated

Most AEDs are set up to adjust the voltage based on the impedance, which is the: Select one: a. direction that the electrical flow takes in the body. b. actual amount of energy that the AED will deliver. c. distance between the two AED pads on the chest. d. resistance of the body to the flow of electricity.

resistance of the body to the flow of electricity

You and your partner are both male and are attending to a 28-year-old female patient complaining of diffuse abdominal pain. The patient is 34 weeks pregnant with her first child. The patient refuses to allow you to examine her, and her husband informs you that their culture does not allow males to examine or care for pregnant women. You should: Select one: a. respect the patient's wishes, ensure that the appropriate documentation is completed, and transport the patient. b. insist that the patient requires proper care and that requires an adequate physical assessment and that you cannot be responsible for the outcome. c. inform the patient that by calling for an ambulance, she is agreeing to the care provided and continue with your assessment and management. d. call for the police to ensure that patient assessment is carried out.

respect the patient's wishes, ensure that the appropriate documentation is completed, and transport the patient.

"PASTE" is an alternate assessment tool for ___________. Select one: a. cardiac patients b. seizure patients c. stroke patients d. respiratory patients

respiratory patients

Unlike viral agents, bacterial agents: Select one: a. are far less infectious. b. respond to antibiotics. c. are usually not treatable. d. do not replicate in the body.

respond to antibiotics.

A patient who does not respond to your questions, but moves or cries out when his or her trapezius muscle is pinched, is said to be: Select one: a. completely unresponsive. b. conscious and alert. c. responsive to verbal stimuli. d. responsive to painful stimuli.

responsive to painful stimuli.

A 38-year-old male with a history of schizophrenia is reported by neighbors to be screaming and throwing things in his house. You are familiar with the patient and have cared for him in the past for unrelated problems. Law enforcement officers escort you into the residence when you arrive. The patient tells you that he sees vampires and is attempting to ward them off by screaming and throwing things at them. He has several large lacerations to his forearms that are actively bleeding. The MOST appropriate way to manage this situation is to: Select one: a. restrain the patient with appropriate force in order to treat his injuries. b. request that the police officers arrest him and take him to the hospital. c. approach the patient and calm him by placing your hand on his shoulder. d. try to gain the patient's trust by telling him that you see the vampires too.

restrain the patient with appropriate force in order to treat his injuries.

Deoxygenated blood from the body returns to the: Select one: a. right atrium. b. left ventricle. c. right ventricle. d. left atrium

right atrium

Common complications associated with central venous catheters include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: a. rupture of a central vein. b. clotting of the line. c. bleeding around the line. d. a local infection.

rupture of a central vein.

The recommended treatment for absorbed or contact poisons includes _________. Select one: a. transporting the patient to the emergency department with the poisonous substance in place b. neutralizing the poisonous substance with a chemical c. safely removing or diluting the poisonous substance d. collecting and transporting the poisonous substance to the emergency department for identification

safely removing or diluting the poisonous substance

All of the following are vesicant agents, EXCEPT: Select one: a. phosgene oxime. b. sarin. c. sulfur mustard. d. lewisite.

sarin.

The stinger from a honeybee should be: Select one: a. squeezed with tweezers and removed. b. left in place and covered. c. irrigated with copious amounts of water. d. scraped away from the skin.

scraped away from the skin.

Functions of the liver include: Select one: a. secretion of bile and filtration of toxic substances. b. production of hormones that regulate blood sugar levels. c. release of amylase, which breaks down starches into sugar. d. absorption of nutrients and toxins.

secretion of bile and filtration of toxic substances.

Because a tracheostomy tube bypasses the nose and mouth: Select one: a. the risk of a local infection is significantly high. b. severe swelling of the trachea and bronchi can occur. c. bleeding or air leakage may occur around the tube. d. secretions can build up in and around the tube.

secretions can build up in and around the tube.

In an apparent suicide attempt, a 19-year-old female ingested a full bottle of amitriptyline (Elavil). At present, she is conscious and alert and states that she swallowed the pills approximately 30 minutes earlier. Her blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg, her pulse is 140 beats/min and irregular, and her respirations are 22 breaths/min with adequate depth. When transporting this patient, you should be MOST alert for: Select one: a. an increase in her blood pressure. b. acute respiratory depression. c. seizures and cardiac arrhythmias. d. a sudden outburst of violence.

seizures and cardiac arrhythmias.

Clinical signs of labored breathing include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: a. gasping attempts to breathe. b. shallow chest movement. c. supraclavicular retractions. d. use of accessory muscles.

shallow chest movement.

The presence of tachycardia following a significant abdominal injury: Select one: a. is always accompanied by hypotension. b. indicates a state of decompensated shock. c. should be assumed to be a sign of shock. d. is most commonly caused by severe pain.

should be assumed to be a sign of shock.

An attack on an abortion clinic would MOST likely be carried out by a(n): Select one: a. doomsday cult. b. violent religious group. c. extremist political group. d. single-issue group.

single-issue group.

The electrical impulse generated by the heart originates in the: Select one: a. coronary sinus. b. bundle of His. c. sinoatrial node. d. atrioventricular node.

sinoatrial node

A 22-year-old female was ejected from her car after striking a tree head-on. As you approach her, you note obvious closed deformities to both of her femurs. She is not moving and does not appear to be conscious. You should: Select one: a. administer oxygen and perform a rapid assessment. b. apply manual stabilization to both of her femurs. c. assess for a carotid pulse and assist her ventilations. d. stabilize her head and perform a primary assessment.

stabilize her head and perform a primary assessment.

When caring for a patient experiencing excited delirium, the EMT should remember that: Select one: a. excited delirium is worsened by nervous system depressant drugs. b. lights and siren are effective in redirecting the patient's behavior. c. sudden death can occur if the patient's violence is not controlled. d. most patients will have low blood pressure and hyperglycemia.

sudden death can occur if the patient's violence is not controlled.

During your secondary assessment of a 30-year-old male who fell 25 feet, you note crepitus when palpating his pelvis. Your partner advises you that the patient's blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg and his heart rate is 120 beats/min and weak. After completing your assessment, you should: Select one: a. stabilize the pelvis with a pelvic binder and protect the spine. b. log roll the patient onto a long backboard and transport at once. c. perform a focused physical exam with emphasis on the pelvis. d. defer spinal immobilization and transport to a trauma center.

stabilize the pelvis with a pelvic binder and protect the spine.

While eating dinner, your partner suddenly grabs his throat and has a panicked look on his face. He has a weak cough, faint inspiratory stridor, and cyanosis around the lips. You should: Select one: a. deliver up to five back blows and reassess him. b. encourage him to cough as forcefully as he can. c. place him in a supine position and open his airway. d. stand behind him and administer abdominal thrusts.

stand behind him and administer abdominal thrusts.

You respond to the residence of a 62-year-old male who is unresponsive. Your primary assessment reveals that he is apneic and pulseless. You should: Select one: a. perform CPR and transport the patient immediately. b. notify dispatch and request a paramedic ambulance. c. ask the family if the patient has a terminal disease. d. start CPR and attach the AED as soon as possible.

start CPR and attach the AED as soon as possible.

When determining the frequency of contractions, you should time the contractions from the: Select one: a. end of one to the start of the next. b. start of one to the end of the next. c. start of one to the start of the next. d. end of one to the end of the next.

start of one to the start of the next.

You are attending to a 27-year-old patient with a history of depression. The patient's family tells you that she has been openly talking about harming herself and suicide, and they got scared when she tried to overdose on some medications. The patient did not take the pills and is alert and oriented. Despite all of your best efforts to convince her, the patient refuses to go to hospital for treatment. Based on this information, you should: Select one: a. call for the police to attend the scene and, once they arrive, release responsibility for patient transport to them b. ensure that the patient is competent and completes the required documentation, and leave her in the care of her family. c. stay with the patient while you arrange for other transport options as a potentially life-threatening emergency exists. d. restrain the patient and transport her to the hospital as she represents a threat to her safety.

stay with the patient while you arrange for other transport options as a potentially life-threatening emergency exists.

A crackling sound produced by air bubbles under the skin is called: Select one: a. subcutaneous emphysema. b. crepitus c. rhonchi. d. Korotkoff sounds.

subcutaneous emphysema.

When assessing a patient's abdomen, you will evaluate for all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: a. rigidity and obvious bleeding. b. gross bleeding and tenderness. c. subcutaneous emphysema. d. open wounds or eviscerations.

subcutaneous emphysema.

After performing a head tilt-chin lift maneuver to open the airway of an unresponsive patient who has a pulse, you should: Select one: a. place him or her in the recovery position. b. assess respiratory rate, depth, and regularity. c. suction as needed and insert an airway adjunct. d. provide positive-pressure ventilatory assistance.

suction as needed and insert an airway adjunct

You respond to a local lake where a diver complains of difficulty breathing that occurred immediately after rapidly ascending from a depth of approximately 30 feet. On assessment, you note that he has cyanosis around his lips and has pink froth coming from his nose and mouth. You should: Select one: a. suction his mouth and nose, apply high-flow oxygen, monitor the patient's breath sounds for a pneumothorax, and contact medical control regarding transport to a recompression facility. b. suction his mouth and nose, keep him supine and elevate his legs to prevent air bubbles from entering his brain, administer high-flow oxygen, and transport to a hyperbaric chamber. c. position him supine with his head elevated 30°, suction his mouth and nose, hyperventilate him with a bag-valve mask, and contact medical control for further guidance. d. place him in a semi-sitting position, suction his mouth and nose, apply a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device, and transport to the closest emergency department.

suction his mouth and nose, apply high-flow oxygen, monitor the patient's breath sounds for a pneumothorax, and contact medical control regarding transport to a recompression facility.

Signs and symptoms of meningitis in the infant or child include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: a. a stiff or painful neck. b. altered mental status. c. sunken fontanelles. d. headache and fever.

sunken fontanelles.

Burns associated with lightning strikes are typically: Select one: a. third-degree. b. superficial. c. full-thickness. d. partial-thickness.

superficial.

A 31-year-old male was bitten on the leg by an unidentified snake. The patient is conscious and alert and in no apparent distress. Your assessment of his leg reveals two small puncture marks with minimal pain and swelling. In addition to administering oxygen and providing reassurance, further care for this patient should include: Select one: a. applying ice to the wound and transporting quickly. b. transporting only with close, continuous monitoring. c. supine positioning, splinting the leg, and transporting. d. elevating the lower extremities and giving antivenin.

supine positioning, splinting the leg, and transporting.

When you use the palpation method to obtain a blood pressure, the measurement you obtain is the: Select one: a. diastolic blood pressure. b. pulse pressure. c. cardiac output pressure. d. systolic blood pressure.

systolic blood pressure.

The pressure exerted against the walls of the artery when the left ventricle contracts is called the: Select one: a. pulse pressure. b. blood pressure. c. diastolic pressure. d. systolic pressure.

systolic pressure.

The EMT should suspect left-sided heart failure in the geriatric patient who presents with: Select one: a. swelling of the lower extremities and weakness. b. fever and a cough that produces green sputum. c. jugular venous distention and peripheral edema. d. tachypnea and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

tachypnea and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

The EMT should ensure that vaginal bleeding is _________. Select one: a. not caused by traumatic injury b. taken seriously and the patient is transported for gynecologic evaluation c. controlled directly by the patient d. severe enough to warrant transport

taken seriously and the patient is transported for gynecologic evaluation

Symptomatic hypoglycemia will MOST likely develop if a patient: Select one: a. takes too much of his or her prescribed insulin. b. eats a regular meal followed by mild exertion. c. markedly overeats and misses an insulin dose. d. misses one or two prescribed insulin injections.

takes too much of his or her prescribed insulin.

When assessing an 8-year-old child, you should: Select one: a. rely solely on the parent for information. b. refrain from taking a blood pressure. c. talk to the child, not just the caregiver. d. use a toe-to-head assessment approach.

talk to the child, not just the caregiver.

When caring for a patient who is visually impaired, it is important to: Select one: a. tell him or her what is happening, identify noises, and describe the situation and surroundings. b. allow a service dog to remain with the patient at all times, even if the patient is critically ill. c. leave items such as canes and walkers at the residence if the patient will be carried on a gurney. d. stand to the side of the patient when speaking if his or her peripheral vision is impaired.

tell him or her what is happening, identify noises, and describe the situation and surroundings.

Skeletal muscle is attached to the bone by tough, ropelike, fibrous structures called: Select one: a. tendons. b. fascia. c. ligaments. d. cartilage.

tendons.

Returning the emergency unit to service is part of the _________. Select one: a. support phase b. hazard-control phase c. transfer phase d. termination phase

termination phase

At present, the likelihood of a nuclear attack against the United States is very low because: Select one: a. terrorist nations do not have the ability to deliver a nuclear weapon via missile or bomb. b. all nuclear devices or weapons that different countries are in possession of are currently accounted for. c. other than the United States, no other countries are currently in possession of nuclear weapons. d. the United States has an effective early warning system to detect an incoming nuclear missile.

terrorist nations do not have the ability to deliver a nuclear weapon via missile or bomb.

The presence of meconium in the amniotic fluid indicates: Select one: a. that the baby's airway may be obstructed. b. that full newborn resuscitation will be needed. c. an expected finding in full-term infants. d. that the fetus is at least 4 weeks premature.

that the baby's airway may be obstructed.

In contrast to younger patients, older patients are more prone to a decrease in blood pressure (BP) upon standing because: Select one: a. the aging process results in an overall increase in blood volume. b. their red blood cells are destroyed at a faster than normal rate. c. any change in position causes blood to be shunted to the brain. d. the body is less able to adapt the BP to rapid postural changes.

the body is less able to adapt the BP to rapid postural changes.

As time progresses following a significant injury: Select one: a. the patient's injuries will most likely be irreparable. b. the body's ability to compensate for shock decreases. c. most patients will die secondary to internal bleeding. d. the patient's blood pressure elevates significantly.

the body's ability to compensate for shock decreases.

Structures of the lower airway include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: a. alveoli. b. the epiglottis. c. the trachea. d. bronchioles.

the epiglottis.

When the parasympathetic nervous system is activated: Select one: a. hormones are released that prepare the body for stress. b. heart rate and blood pressure increase. c. the heart rate decreases and the blood vessels dilate. d. blood is shunted away from the digestive organs.

the heart rate decreases and the blood vessels dilate.

A dissecting aortic aneurysm occurs when: Select one: a. the inner layers of the aorta become separated. b. all layers of the aorta suddenly contract. c. a weakened area develops in the aortic wall. d. the aorta ruptures, resulting in profound bleeding.

the inner layers of the aorta become separated.

A patient with atherosclerotic heart disease experiences chest pain during exertion because: Select one: a. tissues of the myocardium undergo necrosis secondary to a prolonged absence of oxygen. b. the coronary arteries suddenly spasm and cause a marked reduction in myocardial blood flow. c. the ragged edge of a tear in the coronary artery lumen causes local blood clotting and arterial narrowing. d. the lumen of the coronary artery is narrowed and cannot accommodate increased blood flow.

the lumen of the coronary artery is narrowed and cannot accommodate increased blood flow.

An open fracture is MOST accurately defined as a fracture in which: Select one: a. bone ends protrude through the skin. b. a large laceration overlies the fracture. c. the overlying skin is no longer intact. d. a bullet shatters the underlying bone.

the overlying skin is no longer intact.

You should gently palpate a patient's pelvis only if: Select one: a. the possibility of a pelvic fracture has been ruled out. b. you note gross deformity to the pelvic area. c. the MOI suggests significant trauma to the pelvis. d. the patient does not complain of pelvic pain.

the patient does not complain of pelvic pain.

In general, musculoskeletal injuries should be splinted before moving the patient unless: Select one: a. transport time is less than 15 minutes. b. deformity and swelling are present. c. the patient is in severe pain. d. the patient is clinically unstable

the patient is clinically unstable

A 77-year-old female presents with an acute onset of altered mental status. Her son is present and advises that she has a history of hypertension, atrial fibrillation, type 2 diabetes, and glaucoma. He further advises that she takes numerous medications and that she is normally alert. When you assess this patient, it is important to note that: Select one: a. the patient is experiencing delirious behavior, which suggests a new health problem. b. her mental status is likely the result of hypoglycemia and you should give her sugar. c. because of her age and medical history, you should suspect Alzheimer disease. d. dementia typically presents as an acute onset of deterioration of cognitive function.

the patient is experiencing delirious behavior, which suggests a new health problem.

The "Golden Hour" begins when an injury occurs and ends when: Select one: a. you depart the scene for the hospital. b. you arrive at the emergency department. c. the patient is admitted to the ICU. d. the patient receives definitive care.

the patient receives definitive care.

After primary triage, the triage supervisor should communicate all of the following information to the medical branch officer, EXCEPT: Select one: a. the total number of patients that have been triaged. b. recommendations for movement to the treatment area. c. the recommended transport destination for each patient. d. the number of patients in each triage category.

the recommended transport destination for each patient.

The main advantage of the Venturi mask is: Select one: a. the ability to adjust the percentage of inspired oxygen when caring for a critically ill or injured patient. b. the ability to adjust the amount of oxygen administered to the patient by increasing the flow rate on the regulator. c. the use of its fine adjustment capabilities in the long-term management of physiologically stable patients. d. that it does not contain an oxygen reservoir, so the same percentage of oxygen can consistently be administered.

the use of its fine adjustment capabilities in the long-term management of physiologically stable patients.

Most of the serious injuries associated with scuba diving are caused by: Select one: a. cold water temperature. b. too rapid of a descent. c. too rapid of an ascent. d. alcohol consumption.

too rapid of an ascent.

When assessing a 62-year-old female with crushing chest pain, you note that her pulse is rapid and irregular. You should administer supplemental oxygen if needed and then: Select one: a. transport at once and consider requesting a paramedic unit. b. apply the AED and analyze her cardiac rhythm. c. conclude that the irregular pulse is normal based on her age. d. document your findings and perform a detailed assessment.

transport at once and consider requesting a paramedic unit.

A 70-year-old male complains of shortness of breath. During your assessment, you note that he has bilateral hearing aids. When you ask him questions related to his chief complaint, he does not answer you. You can hear a whistling sound coming from his hearing aids. You should: Select one: a. remove both of his hearing aids and use pencil and paper to communicate. b. try repositioning the hearing aid or remove it and turn down the volume. c. remove his hearing aids, turn up the volume, and replace them in his ears. d. recognize that the batteries in his hearing aids are probably depleted.

try repositioning the hearing aid or remove it and turn down the volume.

The parietal peritoneum lines the: Select one: a. surface of the abdominal organs. b. retroperitoneal space. c. lungs and chest cavity. d. walls of the abdominal cavity.

walls of the abdominal cavity.

You are attending to a 54-year-old female patient in a homeless shelter. The patient tells you that she had the flu a couple of weeks ago, and she has not gotten over it. She has been tired and keeps waking up at night, sweating. She has been coughing up green sputum occasionally and has been experiencing episodes of chest pain that get worse when she breathes. Based on this information, your patient is most likely suffering from: Select one: a. pneumonia. b. influenza Type A. c. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). d. tuberculosis

tuberculosis

Upon arriving at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash at night, you find that the safest place to park your ambulance is in a direction that is facing oncoming traffic. You should: Select one: a. turn your headlights off. b. quickly access the patient. c. turn all warning lights off. d. place a flare near the crash.

turn your headlights off.

A properly sized blood pressure cuff should cover: Select one: a. the entire upper arm between the armpit and the crease at the elbow. b. one third the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow. c. one half the length between the armpit and the crease at the elbow. d. two thirds the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow.

two thirds the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow.

The goal of invaders such as bacteria and viruses is to __________. Select one: a. kill their human host b. cause an immune response c. spread disease and destruction d. use a human body as a home

use a human body as a home

If the victim of a toxicologic emergency vomits, an EMT should _________. Select one: a. not approach the vomitus. b. safely dispose of the vomitus as soon as possible and decontaminate the vehicle as necessary. c. use appropriate personal protective equipment and examine the vomitus for pill fragments or other clues for patient care. d. have the patient enclose the vomitus in a container and take it to the emergency department.

use appropriate personal protective equipment and examine the vomitus for pill fragments or other clues for patient care.

You receive a call to a residence where a man found his wife unresponsive on the couch. The patient's respiratory rate is 8 breaths/min, her breathing is shallow, her heart rate is 40 beats/min, and her pulse is weak. The husband hands you an empty bottle of hydrocodone (Vicodin), which was refilled the day before. You should: Select one: a. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. b. ventilate her with a BVM. c. perform a rapid head-to-toe exam. d. contact the poison control center.

ventilate her with a BVM.

While evaluating a patient with chest pain, your partner tells you that the patient's blood pressure is 140/94 mm Hg. The lower number represents the pressure from the: Select one: a. ventricles relaxing. b. ventricles contracting. c. atria relaxing. d. atria contracting.

ventricles relaxing.

You are attending to a 3-year-old male patient who is presenting with severe shortness of breath. His parents report that he has had a cough and cold with a low grade fever for the past two days. They became worried today, as his level of distress has increased dramatically. On assessment, the patient is sitting upright and making high-pitched noises with each breath. Based on this information, the patient is most likely suffering from: Select one: a. inflammation of the lower respiratory tract and bronchospasm. b. viral infection of the upper respiratory tract. c. bacterial infection of the epiglottis. d. inflammation of the bronchioles.

viral infection of the upper respiratory tract.

The EMT's responsibility during search-and-rescue operations is to _________. Select one: a. direct other incoming EMS units b. assist in the search on foot c. wait at the staging area until the patient is located d. assume medical command

wait at the staging area until the patient is located

The main objective of traffic control at the scene of a motor vehicle crash is to: Select one: a. facilitate a route for the media to access the scene. b. get oncoming traffic past the scene as soon as possible. c. prevent curious onlookers from observing the scene. d. warn oncoming traffic and prevent another crash.

warn oncoming traffic and prevent another crash.

In determining the potential for a terrorist attack, you should routinely observe all of the following on every call, EXCEPT: Select one: a. the type of call. b. the location type. c. weather conditions. d. victim's statements.

weather conditions.

Nitroglycerin is contraindicated in patients: Select one: a. with a systolic blood pressure less than 120 mm Hg. b. who have taken up to two doses. c. with a history of an ischemic stroke. d. who have experienced a head injury

who have experienced a head injury

When assessing motor function in a conscious patient's lower extremities, you should expect the patient to: Select one: a. note any changes in temperature. b. identify different types of stimuli. c. wiggle his or her toes on command. d. feel you touching the extremity.

wiggle his or her toes on command.

If you properly assess and stabilize a patient at the scene, driving to the hospital with excessive speed: Select one: a. increases the patient's chance for survival. b. will decrease the driver's reaction time. c. is often necessary if the patient is critical. d. is allowable according to state law.

will decrease the driver's reaction time.

A nasopharyngeal airway is inserted: Select one: a. into the smaller nostril with the tip following the roof of the nose. b. with the bevel pointing downward if inserted into the left nare. c. with the bevel facing the septum if inserted into the right nare. d. into the larger nostril with the tip pointing away from the septum

with the bevel facing the septum if inserted into the right nare.

A patient with spontaneous respirations is breathing: Select one: a. with shallow depth. b. without difficulty. c. at a normal rate. d. without assistance.

without assistance.