Chapter 2 MOI Trauma

A larger and more disrupted entrance wound than the bullet caliber would suggest is an indicator that what has taken​ place? A. Bullet tumbling or deformation B. Premature formation of the cavitational wave C. The bullet was fired from a greater distance D. The bullet was fired from a close range

A

After securing the scene of a​ shooting, law enforcement instructs you to approach the scene. The male victim received a single penetrating gunshot to the head and is unconscious. You expect that the cavitational energy of the bullet has resulted​ in: A. extreme pressures within the skull. B. axial loading injury. C. excessive blood loss. D. a persistent vegetative state.

A

At what height does a fall become severe enough to necessitate trauma services based solely on the mechanism of​ injury? A. About three times the​ patient's height B. Fifteen feet C. Thirty feet D. ​Twenty-five feet

A

Cavitation is a term typically associated with which type of​ trauma? A. ​High-velocity penetrating trauma B. ​Low-velocity blunt trauma C. ​High-velocity blunt trauma D. ​Low-velocity penetrating trauma

A

During penetrating​ trauma, what causes damage to the object being penetrated​ (the target)? A. Conversion and absorption of the penetrating​ object's kinetic energy by the target B. The need by the penetrating object to retain kinetic energy C. A lack of opposing energy from the target D. The loss of friction

A

Estimating the angle of entry of a bullet can best be accomplished​ by: A. a careful scene survey. B. interviewing the suspect. C. palpating for the bullet. D. localizing pain.

A

How will the force exerted against the chest when struck be changed if struck by a bat that is twice as heavy as a normal​ bat? A. The force will double if the mass doubles. B. The force will quadruple because the force is squared if the mass doubles. C. The force is halved because the bat is larger. D. The force is the same if the velocity is the same.

A

Knee, femur, and hip dislocations or fractures commonly result from which pathway in an automobile​ collision? A. ​Down-and-under pathway B. Acceleration pathway C. Restrained pathway D. Ejection

A

Shear injury occurs along edges of the impacting force​ or: A. at organ attachments. B. in the bones. C. on the skin surface. D. in the muscles.

A

The energy of a body in constant motion is​ called: A. Kinetic B. Potential C. Impact D. Deceleration

A

The most significant variable in a fall​ is: A. rate of deceleration B. contact area C. fall height D. transmission pathway

A

Treatment of personal watercraft accident victims is typically additionally complicated​ by: A. the risk of drowning or hypothermia. B. the lack of a braking system. C. the lack of a crumple zone. D. impact trauma.

A

What affects the amount of energy delivered by a projectile to the tissue it​ impacts? A. Trajectory B. Centrifugal force C. Acceleration D. Compounding

A

What is a disadvantage to shoes designed for major contact​ sports? A. They lock the foot in​ place, which can lead to ligament injuries. B. They make it more difficult to stabilize the patient. C. They are typically more slippery than normal shoes. D. They do not provide adequate ankle support.

A

What is a good estimation of the size of the area of internal damage in a​ high-velocity bullet​ wound? A. The diameter of the exit wound B. The diameter of the bullet C. The diameter of the entrance wound D. The length of the bullet

A

When a​ vehicle's air bag deploys during an​ accident, it can cause injuries to​ the: A. head. B. abdomen. C. heart. D. pelvis.

A

When treating a football player with a suspected spine​ injury, it is appropriate​ to: A. leave the helmet and pads in place during immobilization. B. return the player to the game if cleared by the athletic trainer. C. remove the player from the field prior to immobilization. D. remove the helmet and pads after clearing the cervical spine.

A

Which condition makes gunshot wounds to the face especially​ grave? A. The loss of landmarks needed to help assure intubation B. The victim is unable to explain what happened C. The unconscious victim is unable to provide an accurate history D. You may be unable to ascertain the​ victim's level of consciousness

A

Which injury process is responsible for the largest area of damage from a handgun​ bullet? A. Direct injury B. Heat injury C. Pressure wave D. Cavitation

A

Which of the injury types is most likely to be complicated by​ entrapment? A. Crush injuries B. ATV collisions C. Falls D. Blast injuries

A

​Off-road vehicle collisions often cause injuries similar to those associated​ with: A. auto collisions. B. explosions. C. penetrating trauma. D. blunt force trauma.

A

+6Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding a wound from a​ handgun? A. The pressure wave created when the bullet impacts tissue helps to diminish adjacent organ damage. B. Only organs directly in the​ bullet's path are likely to be injured. C. Tumbling of the bullet delivers significantly less energy. D. Deformation of the bullet increases the chance that the round will retain energy

B

After being cleared by law​ enforcement, you arrive at the scene of a​ 27-year-old male patient who was struck in the right posterior thoracic​ cavity, inferior to the​ scapula, during a​ drive-by shooting. You note that the street is about 100 feet from the victim. You examine the patient and discover a​ small-caliber entry wound and no exit wound. This type of​ wound: A. cannot result in a tension pneumothorax. B. does not typically result in an open pneumothorax. C. typically involves the liver. D. likely involves the stomach.

B

An adult falls 10 feet from a roof and lands on his​ feet; likely injuries​ would: A. likely result in cervical injury from the weight of the head. B. occur to the​ calcaneus, tibia,​ femur, pelvis, and up the spine. C. be conducted up the​ body, resulting in aortic tearing as the heart travels down. D. result in hollow organ rupture.

B

An arrow is an effective​ low-velocity projectile​ because: A. the pressure wave is significant. B. the tip is designed to cause serious internal hemorrhage. C. the tip is designed to remain engaged. D. the shaft is designed to break off if removal is attempted.

B

Chest injuries such as flail​ chest, blunt cardiac​ injury, and aortic tears are most likely to result​ from: A. oblique impacts. B. the​ down-and-under pathway. C. the restrained pathway. D. a​ rear-end impact.

B

Compared to a car that slides into a​ snowbank, an auto that strikes a concrete retaining wall will have a deceleration rate that​ is: A. the same. B. much greater. C. slightly less. D. much less.

B

Crumple zones are least effective in which type of​ collision? A. Frontal impact B. Lateral impact C. Rear end impact D. Oblique impact

B

How much more force impacts a pedestrian who is struck by a car going 20 mph than a pedestrian struck by a car going 10​ mph? A. Twice as bad as the pedestrian hit by the car going 10 mph B. Four times more force than the pedestrian hit by the car going 10 mph C. Equally​ injured, as the cars weigh the same D. Ten times worse than the pedestrian hit by the car going 10 mph

B

In accordance with the law of energy​ conservation, the energy of​ motion, as it pertains to driving an​ ambulance, is converted to what form of energy during the normal braking at a traffic​ light? A. Light B. Heat C. Kinetic D. Mass

B

In a​ single-car accident a vehicle collides with a tree near the​ roadway; during your collision​ analysis, a lack of skid marks would indicate that​ the: A. driver was distracted. B. driver was prevented from braking. C. driver was impaired. D. impact speed was high.

B

In what form of trauma does the energy exchange cause a chain reaction within various body tissues that​ crush, stretch, and tear their​ structures, resulting in injury at and beneath the​ skin's surface without an object actually penetrating the​ body? A. Penetrating trauma B. Blunt trauma C. Inertial trauma D. Kinetic trauma

B

In which type of collision does the occupant contact the​ vehicle's interior​ and/or restraints and slow or​ stop? A. Body collision B. Organ collision C. Additional collisions D. Secondary collision

B

Structural collapse and industrial or agricultural incidents are common causes​ of: A. falls. B. crush injuries. C. toxic inhalation. D. projectile injuries

B

The absolute first consideration in the treatment of a patient with penetrating trauma after arriving on scene​ is: A. scene safety. B. personal safety. C. patient safety. D. ABCs.

B

The most common and serious explosion injuries​ are: A. severe lacerations. B. pulmonary injuries. C. oxidation. D. head injuries.

B

The use of a properly adjusted headrest during a rear​ collision: A. allows slow deceleration of the head. B. accelerates the head at the same speed as the body. C. keeps the head from moving and promotes rotation. D. minimizes the need to use a cervical collar.

B

To what extent does heat injury increase the damage of a bullet​ wound? A. Heat damage is only significant if the bullet does not exit the body. B. The effect of bullet temperature is generally negligible. C. The bullet can cauterize the wound​ track, reducing hemorrhage. D. Heat damage is generally​ significant, especially where the bullet comes to rest.

B

Treatment of penetrating trauma injuries may commonly be performed at potential crime scenes. After patient​ care, you should next give a high level of priority​ to: A. personal safety. B. conserving evidence. C. scene safety. D. the search for additional victims.

B

What best describes how​ Newton's first law of motion applies to penetrating​ trauma? A. It explains the trajectory at work during a collision. B. It explains both how a projectile delivers its energy to an object and how that object reacts to being impacted. C. It explains kinetic energy. D. It explains how a projectile delivers​ it's mass to an object.

B

What causes a bullet entry wound that is larger than expected for the caliber of the​ gun? A. Cavitation B. Tumbling C. Pressure wave D. Stippling

B

What emergency airway procedure perforates the membrane between the thyroid and cricoid​ cartilages, utilizing a needle or other puncture​ device, to provide a route for ventilation directly into the lower​ airway? A. Invasive cricoid perforation B. Percutaneous cricothyrotomy C. Emergency tracheostomy D. Rapid sequence intubation

B

What impact type would most likely be associated with acceleration damage to the cervical​ spine? A. Front impact B. Rear impact C. Frontal oblique impact D. Rollover

B

What is a zone of​ injury? A. The area of swelling surrounding a compartment injury B. The area of​ crushed, torn, and contused tissue that does not function​ normally, which surrounds a projectile wound C. Physical contact with the bullet and its movement that creates a temporary cavity that​ crushes, stretches, and tears the affected tissues D. The area of laceration associated with a puncture wound

B

What practical effect does doubling the mass of a penetrating object have on the​ target? A. The potential damage remains unchanged. B. It doubles the potential damage. C. It halves the potential damage. D. It quadruples the potential damage.

B

When a person falls forward on outstretched​ arms, which bone is least likely to​ fracture? A. Clavicle B. Pelvic C. Wrist D. Shoulder

B

When conducting a collision evaluation of a​ two-vehicle accident in which the occupant was​ restrained, which collision type would you expect to involve the most force communicated to an occupant at the same impact​ speed? A. A frontal impact B. A lateral impact C. A rear end collision D. An oblique impact

B

When would anaerobic metabolism come into play in crush​ injuries? A. As a result of IV fluid administration B. During entrapment of a limb C. As a result of pain control administration D. During​ difficult-to-control hemorrhage

B

Which hazard possibility was never really a consideration at trauma scenes 50 years​ ago? A. Crime B. Terrorism C. Domestic disputes D. Interpersonal disputes

B

Which incendiary compound spontaneously combusts when exposed to​ air? A. Napalm B. Phosphorus C. Nitroglycerine D. Naphtha

B

Which of the following represents the only complaint that may give a clue to the development of compartment​ syndrome? A. Dizziness B. Intense muscle pain C. ​Sudden-onset confusion D. Shortness of breath

B

Which statement correctly applies to an underwater​ blast? A. The density of the water limits the lethal range of an underwater detonation. B. The density of water extends the lethal range of an explosion threefold. C. Injuries in underwater detonations are less serious because the density of water is similar to a person. D. The lack of free oxygen limits the lethal range of an underwater detonation.

B

Why is compartment syndrome difficult to determine​ pre-hospital? A. There is no level of suspicion for it in the field. B. Onset depends on the steady increase of​ pressure, which takes time. C. Injuries that result in compartment syndrome are rare. D. Other associated injuries are more painful.

B

You are treating the victim of a knife wound to the chest who is displaying​ hypotension, muffled heart​ sounds, and jugular venous distention. Field treatment of this victim should​ include: A. positive pressure ventilation. B. immediate and rapid transport to the ED. C. a needle decompression. D. a pericardiocentesis.

B

Collision of a​ medium-velocity bullet with the body after striking Kevlar body armor is​ considered: A. tumble inducing. B. a primary impact. C. a secondary impact. D. energy exchange reducing.

C

Compartment syndrome is frequently the result​ of: A. abdominal herniation. B. a flail segment. C. blunt trauma. D. limb amputation.

C

During a vehicle​ collision, lap belt and shoulder strap use prevents the wearer​ from: A. being injured. B. compression injuries. C. continuing to move. D. secondary impacts.

C

During a​ fall, the​ victim's body maintains fall velocity until striking the unyielding ground. The​ organs, muscles, and other structures also continue to travel until they strike a stopped surface within the body. What is the law behind this continued​ movement? A. Conservation B. Velocity C. Inertia D. Force

C

During your collision analysis of two vehicles striking head​ on, you note that the SRS system deployed in both​ cars, and the drivers are walking around the scene. Neither vehicle has a damaged windshield. What should your vehicle investigation also​ include? A. Ask the drivers how fast they were traveling. B. Look for skid marks C. Lift the air bag and look for dash or steering wheel damage. D. Poll bystanders.

C

How does doubling the speed of a bullet affect the impact​ energy? A. The impact energy is doubled. B. The impact energy is about the same. C. The impact energy is quadrupled. D. The mass of the bullet is halved.

C

Identification of compartment syndrome may be unlikely​ without: A. recognizing the symptoms in the field. B. an accurate patient complaint. C. an accurate MOI for the ED staff. D. a thorough secondary exam.

C

In a motor vehicle​ collision, the impacts on victims from other objects within the passenger compartment are​ called: A. additional impacts. B. deceleration impacts. C. secondary collisions. D. body collisions.

C

In an automotive​ collision, the energy of motion is transferred to the vehicle body and ultimately to the occupants. This transfer of energy is the result of which​ law? A. The law of inertia B. The mechanism of injury C. The law of energy conservation D. The law of kinetic energy

C

Tertiary blast injuries can result​ from: A. projectile impacts. B. secondary combustion. C. structural building collapse. D. the overpressure wave.

C

The manner in which energy exchange damages human tissue is referred to as​ what? A. Deceleration injuries B. Blunt force trauma C. Biomechanics of trauma D. Kinetics of impact

C

The​ "blown outward" appearance of a bullet exit wound is the result of which of the​ following? A. Damage by the bullet forcing debris and bodily contents out of the wound B. The bullet and hot gases C. Damage by the bullet and the cavitational wave D. The bullet and displaced bone fragments

C

Uncontrolled swelling of a limb after crushing blunt trauma is likely attributable​ to: A. circulatory collapse. B. deep vein thrombosis. C. compartment syndrome. D. infection.

C

What impact type would likely be associated with unilateral extremity​ fractures, facial​ impact, lateral rib​ fractures, and a dissecting​ aorta? A. Frontal B. Rear C. Lateral D. Rollover

C

What is indicated by the lack of an exit wound in a patient that suffered a​ GSW? A. The bullet struck a bone. B. The bullet broke up. C. The bullet expended all its energy. D. The bullet was tumbling on impact.

C

What is the most appropriate method for placement of an endotracheal tube in a facial gunshot wound victim who has lost all​ landmarks? A. Insert a King or Combitube airway. B. Perform​ rapid-sequence intubation. C. Attempt to visualize the larynx while another rescuer places pressure on the chest. D. Insert two nasopharyngeal airways.

C

What is the primary consideration for a paramedic when responding to the scene of a​ shooting? A. Protect the crime scene for law enforcement. B. Put on personal protective equipment. C. Ensure that the scene is secured by law enforcement. D. Assist the patient.

C

What is the primary determining factor for the degree of injury from a​ fall? A. The amount of stored kinetic energy B. Weight C. Stopping distance D. Gravity

C

What is the study of projectiles in motion and their effects on objects they impact​ called? A. Trajectory B. Biomechanics C. Ballistics D. Penetrating trauma

C

What is the unsteady wobble that a bullet develops when​ deflected? A. Cavitation B. Rifling C. Yaw D. Rotation

C

What practical effect does doubling the velocity of a penetrating object have on the​ target? A. It halves the potential damage. B. The potential damage remains unchanged. C. It quadruples the potential damage. D. It doubles the potential damage.

C

When a bullet comes to rest inside an​ organ, then: A. all the kinetic energy has been converted to mass. B. the trajectory of the round was inadequate. C. all the kinetic energy has been converted to other energy forms. D. gravity has overcome the inertia.

C

Which action contributes most to mortality in a rollover​ accident? A. Impact with unpadded interior components B. Compounding of injuries sustained in the initial collision C. Ejection D. Multiple impacts with the vehicle interior

C

Which definition best defines kinetic​ energy? A. The energy delivered during deceleration B. Force of motion C. The energy of an object in motion D. Inertia of energy

C

Which of the following can drastically increase the severity of a crush​ injury? A. Failure to properly treat compartment syndrome in the field B. Compression of soft tissue C. The crushing pressure remaining in place for an extended period D. Limited bleeding

C

Which of the following incidents is most likely to cause a crush​ injury? A. A factory worker stumbles and strikes his arm on the side of a machine. B. A factory worker slips in chemicals and hits his head. C. A factory worker is pinned between a forklift and a wall. D. A factory worker fall​ feet-first to the factory floor from the top of a machine.

C

Which of the statements is most accurate regarding entrance and exit​ wounds? A. Proper identification is critical to patient care. B. You should carefully document which is which to assist in the investigation. C. Only a forensic investigation can positively determine which is which. D. The bullet follows a straight path between the two.

C

Which type of motorcycle collision occurs when an experienced rider trades severe injuries for minor to moderate injuries by placing the motorcycle between themselves and an​ object? A. Frontal B. Ejection C. Sliding impact D. Angular

C

You are called to the scene of a​ two-car accident. When should your vehicle collision analysis​ begin? A. While performing your primary exam B. As you approach the vehicles C. As you approach the scene D. Immediately after your primary exam

C

You are directed to approach the scene of a shooting by a local security officer at a shopping mall. What should your initial consideration be when approaching the​ patient? A. Performing your primary exam B. Moving the patient to a safe location C. Whether or not the patient is still armed D. Protecting scene evidence

C

You are en route to the scene of a​ bow-hunting accident where a​ 32-year-old male was accidently shot in the upper leg by his​ 14-year-old son. While mentally reviewing possible injuries and the equipment that will most likely assist you​ initially, you understand​ that: A. the boy may be panicked and require psychological assistance. B. a fractured femur is​ likely, and you need to be prepared to apply a traction splint. C. extremity injuries are rarely fatal unless a major blood vessel is​ involved, so you need to be prepared for bleeding control. D. the victim likely fell and struck his​ head, so you will need to be prepared to perform longboard immobilization.

C

A blunt impact begins to cause injury when what​ increase? A. Acceleration and inertia B. Force and mass C. Mass and deceleration D. Kinetic energy and rate of velocity

D

A properly restrained driver is involved in a​ head-on collision. Without contacting any internal structure in the​ car, he sustains a myocardial contusion. What principle of motion describes this​ injury? A. Motion B. Conservation C. Deceleration D. Inertia

D

A shallow diving accident may result in compression force on the cervical spine known​ as: A. blast overpressure. B. epistaxis. C. a pressure wave. D. axial loading.

D

An unrestrained occupant ejected from a vehicle in the​ up-and-over pathway will​ experience: A. no impacts. B. one impact. C. three impacts. D. two impacts.

D

As blunt impact abruptly halts a portion of the​ body, and inertia causes the remaining anatomy to continue its​ motion, one tissue or organ is pushed into another. What type of injury is​ this? A. Shearing injury B. Stretch injury C. Rupture injury D. Compression injury

D

Burn injuries associated with an explosion are​ typically: A. secondary to structural collapse. B. scalds. C. third degree. D. partial thickness.

D

How can you assist the ED staff with the identification and treatment of compartment syndrome​ victims? A. Maintain a high level of suspicion. B. Check on the condition of your patient after transport. C. Query all patients for muscle pain. D. Communicate suspect MOIs to the ED staff.

D

Immediately after​ impact, at what rate of speed will the unrestrained driver continue to move forward in a frontal impact vehicle​ collision? A. Much slower than the vehicle B. Much faster than the vehicle C. The driver will stop with the vehicle. D. The same speed as the vehicle

D

In a lateral impact​ collision, the passenger may become an object causing a secondary collision to the driver shortly after​ impact: A. if the​ passenger's air bag does not deploy. B. if the impact is on the passenger side. C. if the driver is not belted. D. if the passenger is not belted.

D

Inhalation of a toxic substance deliberately distributed by an explosion would be​ considered: A. a terrorism injury. B. a tertiary blast injury. C. an unrelated blast injury. D. a quarternary blast injury.

D

Injuries received by being struck with projectiles in an explosion are​ considered: A. Primary injuries B. Quaternary injuries C. Tertiary injuries D. Secondary injuries

D

In​ trauma, the loss of enough blood volume that it causes death is known​ as: A. hemorrhagic shock. B. circulatory collapse. C. hypovolemia. D. exsanguination.

D

The connective strength and elasticity of tissue influence how much tissue damage occurs with kinetic energy​ transfer; this strength and elasticity is​ called: A. healing. B. memory. C. recovery. D. resiliency.

D

The law of inertia and the law of energy conservation are the two basic principles of what​ concept? A. Velocity B. Force C. Mass D. Kinetics

D

The term​ "force" as it relates to penetrating injuries can be practically defined​ as: A. the mass transferred to the​ "target" on impact. B. the change in mass of a penetrating object on impact. C. ​Newton's first law of motion. D. the rate of deceleration of a penetrating object on impact.

D

Treatment of​ off-road vehicle accident victims is commonly complicated​ by: A. entrapment below the unit. B. the lack of crumple zones. C. a high center of gravity. D. the remote location of accidents.

D

What injuries are received during the primary blast​ phase? A. Personnel displacement B. Crush injuries from collapse C. Chemical burns D. Pulmonary injuries

D

What is the degree of deformity of an​ automobile, involved in an​ accident, most indicative​ of? A. The degree of injury to an unrestrained occupant B. The degree of injury to a restrained occupant C. Only the extent of damage to the vehicle D. The strength and direction of forces experienced by the occupants

D

What is the form of protection is especially effective in a rollover​ accident? A. Side panel air bags B. The supplemental restraint system C. Tempered glass D. A seatbelt

D

What is the most frequent cause of blunt​ trauma? A. Farm accidents B. Assaults C. Motor vehicle accidents D. Falls

D

What is the shock wave and temporary cavity created by medium or​ high-velocity projectiles, such as handgun or rifle​ bullets, when they set a portion of the semifluid body tissue in​ motion? A. Yaw B. Rotation C. Rifling D. Cavitation

D

When approaching the patient at the scene of a shooting​ incident, your survey of the area should​ exclude: A. weapons within the​ patient's reach. B. a determination of the​ victim's original position. C. changes in the scene that may make it unsafe. D. evidence to process.

D

When stabilizing the victim of penetrating​ trauma, what should be done with clothing with bullet or knife holes that obstructs attempts to provide​ care? A. Cut through the clothing. B. Leave the clothing undisturbed. C. Ask law enforcement on the scene for what to do. D. Cut around the holes.

D

Where are supplemental restraint systems​ (SRS) positioned in a​ vehicle? A. In the engine compartment B. In the vehicle suspension C. In the body of the vehicle D. In the steering wheel

D

Which impact type has the highest potential for physical injury relative to the amount of vehicle​ damage? A. Rear impact B. Frontal impact C. Oblique impact D. Lateral impact

D

Which of the following organs would be expected to display the most damage resulting from the pressure wave of a​ high-velocity, penetrating​ object? A. Urinary bladder B. Large intestine C. Lungs D. Liver

D

Which statement is accurate concerning a patient involved in a rollover​ accident? A. Injuries from rollover crashes are more easily predictable than other impact types. B. Secondary collisions are unlikely. C. Patient survival is higher if they are thrown clear of the vehicle. D. Multisystem trauma is common in rollover​ crashes, even if the patient is restrained.

D

Which statement is true regarding protective gear and sports​ injuries? A. Protective gear prevents any chance of a sports injury. B. Newer helmet designs for​ high-contact sports have dispensed with specially fitted padding. C. Protective gear is specifically designed in a fashion that avoids hindering your assessment of the patient. D. Protective gear can contribute to a sports injury.

D

You are attempting CPR on the victim of a​ stabbing; the knife is lodged in the right posterior​ thorax, immediately inferior to the scapula. In order to perform CPR you​ should: A. leave the victim on his stomach and compress his back. B. perform CPR​ "sideways." C. roll the patient onto his back and allow the knife to fold to the side. D. remove the knife to place the victim on his back.

D

You arrive at the scene of an ATV accident and establish that the rider collided with a​ high-tensile wire fence that penetrated his neck. What neck structures are the most often injured from penetrating​ trauma? A. The cervical spine and major blood vessels B. The cervical spine and trachea C. Trachea and esophagus D. Trachea and major blood vessels

D

You respond to the scene of an industrial accident in which your​ victim's arm is crushed in a machine. What should you likely be immediately prepared for when your victim is released from the​ machine? A. Loss of consciousness B. Compartment syndrome C. The need to amputate the arm D. Uncontrolled bleeding

D

Devices such as napalm that are designed to induce damage and injury through combustion are said to​ be: A. incendiary. B. heat inducing. C. ignitable. D. tertiary.

a

Extreme​ exertion, fatigue, and direct trauma commonly contribute​ to: A. sports injuries. B. obesity. C. influenza. D. vehicle collisions.

a

How can the injury potential of assault weapons be greatly​ increased? A. By loading with hunting ammunition B. By reducing the weight of the bullet C. By loading with military ammunition D. By using fully jacketed ammunition

a

The potential for injury decreases​ as: A. the mass of the object increases. B. the time of deceleration increases. C. the speed of the object increases. D. the time of deceleration decreases.

b

Why is tissue damage from knife wounds generally limited to the actual contact​ area? A. Because of the high mass of the attacker B. Because of the low velocity that a knife travels at C. Because of the low mass of the knife D. Because of the travel limitation imposed by the length of the arm

b

A rifle bullet can deliver the most kinetic energy to the tissue it strikes if​ it: A. passes through the tissue. B. remains stable after impact. C. tumbles with impact. D. yaws in flight.

c

Use of recreational vehicles​ (ATVs) has significantly increased. What impact has this increase had on recreational vehicle​ injuries? A. They initially increased slightly but are now decreasing. B. They have decreased because of rider education​ programs, sponsored trail​ rides, and improved safety design. C. They have significantly increased also. D. They have remained relatively flat because of rider education programs and improved safety design.

c

Which aspect of force is the primary cause of​ injury? A. Object mass B. Object weight C. Closing speed D. Rate of deceleration

d