chapter 29 ~ Management of Patients with Nonmalignant Hematologic Disorders

A client being treated for iron deficiency anemia with ferrous sulfate continues to be anemic despite treatment. The nurse should assess the client for use of which medication?

Aluminum hydroxide rationale: The nurse should assess the client for possible use of antacids such as aluminum hydroxide. Clients should take ferrous sulfate and an antacid at least 2 hours apart because antacids bind with iron in the GI tract, decreasing the rate or extent of iron absorption.

The thalassemias are a group of hereditary anemias characterized by which of the following? Select all that apply.

- hypochromia - extreme microcytosis - hemolysis - anemia rationale: The thalassemias are a group of hereditary anemias characterized by hypochromia, extreme microcytosis, destruction of blood elements (hemolysis), and variable degrees of anemia. Thrombocytopenia is not associated with thalassemias.

A nurse assesses a client diagnosed with megaloblastic anemia. Which clinical findings will the nurse most likely find? Select all that apply.

- jaundice - ulcerated corners of the mouth - concave nails rationale: Megaloblastic anemia may cause angular cheilosis (ulcerated corners of the mouth), jaundice (a yellowing of the skin and sclera), and concave nails. A smooth, red tongue and restless leg syndrome are associated with iron deficiency anemia.

Which of the following are assessment findings associated with thrombocytopenia? Select all that apply.

- bleeding gums - epistaxis - hematemesis rationale: Pertinent findings of thrombocytopenia include: bleeding gums, epistaxis, hematemesis, hypotension, and tachypnea.

A client with multiple myeloma reports pain along the spinal column. The client is prescribed naproxen (Aleve) and oxycodone. Prior to administering these medications, the nurse

Checks the client's BUN and creatinine rationale: Naproxen may cause renal dysfunction. It will be important to check and monitor the BUN and creatinine levels, which are indicators of renal function. Because of the disease, the client is not to lift more than 10 pounds and is to use correct body mechanics, by bending with the knees and not bending with the back. Both naproxen and oxycodone may be prescribed for bone pain for a client who has multiple myeloma.

When teaching a client with iron deficiency anemia about appropriate food choices, the nurse encourages the client to increase the dietary intake of which foods?

Beans, dried fruits, and leafy, green vegetables rationale: Food sources high in iron include organ meats (e.g., beef or calf liver, chicken liver), other meats, beans (e.g., black, pinto, and garbanzo), leafy and green vegetables, raisins, and molasses. Taking iron-rich foods with a source of vitamin C (e.g., orange juice) enhances the absorption of iron.

Which is a symptom of Cooley anemia?

Bronzing of the skin rationale: Clients with Cooley anemia exhibit symptoms of severe anemia and a bronzing of the skin, which is caused by hemolysis of erythrocytes. Dyspnea, stomatitis (inflammation of the mouth), and glossitis (inflammation of the tongue) are symptoms of pernicious anemia.

Which is a symptom of hemochromatosis?

Bronzing of the skin rationale: Clients with hemochromatosis exhibit symptoms of weakness, lethargy, arthralgia, weight loss, and loss of libido early in the illness trajectory. The skin may appear hyperpigmented from melanin deposits or appear bronze in color.

A patient with end-stage kidney disease (ESKD) has developed anemia. What laboratory finding does the nurse understand to be significant in this stage of anemia?

Creatinine level of 6 mg/100 mL rationale: The degree of anemia in patients with end-stage renal disease varies greatly; however, in general, patients do not become significantly anemic until the serum creatinine level exceeds 3 mg/100 mL.

A patient had gastric bypass surgery 3 years ago and now, experiencing fatigue, visits the clinic to determine the cause. The patient takes pantoprazole for the treatment of frequent heartburn. What type of anemia is this patient at risk for?

Pernicious anemia rationale: A deficiency of vitamin B 12 can occur in several ways. Inadequate dietary intake is rare but can develop in strict vegans (who consume no meat or dairy products). Faulty absorption from the GI tract is a more common cause. This occurs in conditions such as Crohn's disease, or after ileal resection or gastrectomy.

Which of the following is considered an antidote to heparin?

Protamine sulfate rationale: Protamine sulfate, in the appropriate dosage, acts quickly to reverse the effects of heparin. Vitamin K is the antidote to warfarin (Coumadin). Narcan is the drug used to reverse signs and symptoms of medication-induced narcosis. Ipecac is an emetic used to treat some poisonings.

A client is treated for anemia. What is the nurse's best understanding about the correlation between anemia and the client's iron stores?

There is a strong correlation between iron stores and hemoglobin levels. rationale: A strong correlation exists between laboratory values that measure iron stores and hemoglobin levels. After iron stores are depleted (as reflected by low serum ferritin levels), the hemoglobin level falls.

A client with pernicious anemia is receiving parenteral vitamin B12 therapy. Which client statement indicates effective teaching about this therapy?

"I will receive parenteral vitamin B12 therapy for the rest of my life." rationale: Because a client with pernicious anemia lacks intrinsic factor, oral vitamin B12 can't be absorbed. Therefore, parenteral vitamin B12 therapy is recommended and required for life.

Which of the following are immunosuppressants that prevent the patient's lymphocytes from destroying the stem cells in a patient diagnosed with aplastic anemia? Select all that apply.

- cyclosporine - corticosteroids - ATG - cyclophosphamide

A client diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus comes to the emergency department with severe back pain. The client is taking prednisone daily and reported feeling pain after manually opening the garage door. What adverse effect of long-term corticosteroid therapy is most likely responsible for the pain?

Osteoporosis rationale: Hypertension, osteoporosis, muscle wasting, and truncal obesity are all adverse effects of long-term corticosteroid therapy; however, osteoporosis commonly causes compression fractures of the spine. Hypertension, muscle wasting, and truncal obesity aren't likely to cause severe back pain.

A young client is diagnosed with a mild form of hemophilia and is experiencing bleeding in the joints with pain. In preparing the client for discharge, what instructions should the nurse provide?

Wear a medical identification bracelet. rationale: Clients with hemophilia should wear a medical identification bracelet about having this disease. Ibuprofen interferes with platelet aggregation and may increase the client's bleeding. A warm bath may lessen pain but increase bleeding. Genetic testing and counseling are not necessary for male clients, because females are the carriers of the genetic material for hemophilia.

Hemophilia A is the most common of the three types of hemophilia. What is diminished in the less serious form of hemophilia A, known as von Willebrand's disease?

amount and quality of factor VIII rationale: In a less serious form of hemophilia A, von Willebrand's disease, the amount and quality of factor VIII is diminished.

The nurse is caring for a client with external bleeding. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

Direct pressure rationale: Applying direct pressure to an injury is the initial step in controlling bleeding. Elevation reduces the force of flow, but direct pressure is the first step. The nurse may use pressure point control for severe or arterial bleeding. Pressure points (those areas where large blood vessels can be compressed against bone) include femoral, brachial, facial, carotid, and temporal artery sites. The nurse should avoid applying a tourniquet unless all other measures have failed, because it may further damage the injured extremity.

A few minutes after beginning a blood transfusion, a nurse notes that a client has chills, dyspnea, and urticaria. The nurse reports this to the health care provider immediately because the client probably is experiencing which problem?

A hemolytic allergic reaction caused by an antigen reaction rationale: Hemolytic allergic reactions are fairly common and may cause chills, fever, urticaria, tachycardia, dyspnea, chest pain, hypotension, and other signs of anaphylaxis a few minutes after blood transfusion begins. Although rare, a hemolytic reaction to mismatched blood can occur, triggering a more severe reaction and, possibly, leading to disseminated intravascular coagulation. A hemolytic reaction to Rh-incompatible blood is less severe and occurs several days to 2 weeks after the transfusion. Bacterial contamination of donor blood causes a high fever, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal cramps and, possibly, shock.

When assessing a client with anemia, which assessment is essential?

Health history, including menstrual history in women rationale: When assessing a client with anemia, it is essential to assess the client's health history. Women should be questioned about their menstrual periods (e.g., excessive menstrual flow, other vaginal bleeding) and the use of iron supplements during pregnancy.

A client is receiving chemotherapy for cancer. The nurse reviews the client's laboratory report and notes that he has thrombocytopenia. To which nursing diagnosis should the nurse give the highest priority?

Ineffective tissue perfusion: Cerebral, cardiopulmonary, GI rationale: These are all appropriate nursing diagnoses for the client with thrombocytopenia. However, the risk of cerebral and GI hemorrhage and hypotension pose the greatest risk to the physiological integrity of the client.

The nurse observes a co-worker who always seems to be eating a cup of ice. The nurse encourages the co-worker to have an examination and diagnostic workup with the health care provider. What type of anemia is the nurse concerned the co-worker may have?

Iron deficiency anemia rationale: People with iron deficiency anemia may crave ice, starch, or dirt; this craving is known as pica.

A client admitted to the hospital in preparation for a splenectomy to treat autoimmune hemolytic anemia asks the nurse about the benefits of splenectomy. Which statement best explains the expected effect of splenectomy?

It will remove the major site of red blood cell (RBC) destruction. rationale: For clients with autoimmune hemolytic anemia, if corticosteroids do not produce remission, a splenectomy (i.e., removal of the spleen) may be performed because it removes the major site of RBC destruction.

During the review of morning laboratory values for a client reporting severe fatigue and a red, swollen tongue, the nurse suspects chronic, severe iron deficiency anemia based on which finding?

Low ferritin level concentration rationale: The most consistent indicator of iron deficiency anemia is a low ferritin level, which reflects low iron stores. As the anemia progresses, the MCV, which measures the size of the erythrocytes, also decreases. Hematocrit and RBC levels are also low in relation to the hemoglobin concentration.

A nursing instructor is evaluating a student caring for a neutropenic client. The instructor concludes that the nursing student demonstrates accurate knowledge of neutropenia based on which intervention?

Monitoring the client's temperature and reviewing the client's complete blood count (CBC) with differential rationale: Clients with neutropenia often do not exhibit classic signs of infection. Fever is the most common indicator of infection, yet it is not always present. No definite symptoms of neutropenia appear until the client develops an infection. A routine CBC with differential can reveal neutropenia before the onset of infection.

A nurse suspects that a patient may have aplastic anemia based on clinical manifestations and assessment. Which one of the following lab results would be consistent with this diagnosis?

Neutrophil count of 50% rationale: Laboratory values consistent with a diagnosis of aplastic anemia would be a hemoglobin less than 9 g/dL, significant neutropenia and thrombocytopenia, and a reduced erythrocyte count.

While monitoring a client for the development of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), the nurse should take note of which assessment parameters?

Platelet count, prothrombin time, and partial thromboplastin time rationale: The diagnosis of DIC is based on the results of laboratory studies of prothrombin time, platelet count, thrombin time, partial thromboplastin time, and fibrinogen level as well as client history and other assessment factors. Blood glucose levels, WBC count, calcium levels, and potassium levels aren't used to confirm a diagnosis of DIC.

A nurse should expect to administer which vaccine to the client after a splenectomy?

Pneumovax 23 rationale: Pneumovax 23, a polyvalent pneumococcal vaccine, is administered prophylactically to prevent the pneumococcal sepsis that sometimes occurs after splenectomy. Recombivax HB is a vaccine for hepatitis B. Attenuvax is a live, attenuated virus vaccine for immunization against measles (rubeola). Tetanus toxoid is administered to prevent tetanus resulting from impaired skin integrity caused by traumatic injury.

A client is prescribed 325 mg/day of oral ferrous sulfate. What does the nurse include in client teaching?

Take 1 hour before breakfast rationale: Instructions the nurse will provide for the client taking oral ferrous sulfate is to administer the medication on an empty stomach. Instructions also include that there is decreased absorption of iron with food, particularly dairy products. The client is to increase vitamin C intake (fruits, juices, tomatoes, broccoli), which will enhance iron absorption. The client is to also increase foods high in fiber to decrease risk of constipation.

A client with chronic anemia has received multiple transfusions. Which client action would the nurse be concerned about relative to the client's condition?

Takes over-the-counter iron supplements rationale: When a client receives multiple transfusions and takes iron supplements, there may be a problem with iron overload. It is recommended that clients who are experiencing anemia either avoid or limit alcohol due to interference of alcohol with utilization of essential nutrients. The typical U.S. diet includes 60 grams of protein daily. Clients may be prescribed multivitamins.

A nurse is caring for a client with thalassemia who is being transfused. What is the nurse's role during a transfusion?

To closely monitor the rate of administration rationale: In a client with thalassemia, when transfusions are necessary, the nurse closely monitors the rate of administration. Assessing for enlargement and tenderness over the liver and spleen, advising rest, or administering vitamin B12 injections are not indicated for thalassemia.

Which medication is the antidote to warfarin?

Vitamin K rationale: The antidote for warfarin is vitamin K. Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin. Aspirin and clopidogrel are both antiplatelet medications.

A client has a history of sickle cell anemia with several sickle cell crises over the past 10 years. What blood component results in sickle cell anemia?

hemoglobin S rationale: Hemoglobin A (HbA) normally replaces fetal hemoglobin (HbF) about 6 months after birth. In people with sickle cell anemia, however, an abnormal form of hemoglobin, hemoglobin S (HbS), replaces HbF. HbS causes RBCs to assume a sickled shape under hypoxic conditions.

A client has pernicious anemia and has been receiving treatment for several years. What is the client lacking that results in pernicious anemia?

intrinsic factor rationale: Pernicious anemia develops when a client lacks intrinsic factor, which normally is present in stomach secretions. Intrinsic factor is necessary for absorption of vitamin B12. Vitamin B12, the extrinsic factor in blood, is required for the maturation of erythrocytes.

A client with sickle cell anemia has a

low hematocrit rationale: A client with sickle cell anemia has a low hematocrit and sickled cells on the smear. A client with sickle cell trait usually has a normal hemoglobin level, a normal hematocrit, and a normal blood smear.

A client with megaloblastic anemia reports mouth and tongue soreness. What instruction will the nurse give the client regarding eating while managing the client's symptoms?

"Eat small amounts of bland, soft foods frequently." rationale: Because the client with megaloblastic anemia often reports mouth and tongue soreness, the nurse should instruct the client to eat small amounts of bland, soft foods frequently. The other answer choices do not factor in the client's mouth soreness or need for nutrition.

A home care nurse visits a client diagnosed with atrial fibrillation who is ordered warfarin. The nurse teaches the client about warfarin therapy. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?

"I'll eat four servings of fresh, dark green vegetables every day." rationale: The client requires additional teaching if he states that he'll eat four servings of dark green vegetables every day. Dark, green vegetables contain vitamin K, which reverses the effects of warfarin. The client should limit his intake to one to two servings per day. The client should report bleeding gums and severe or unexplained bruising, which may indicate an excessive dose of warfarin. The client should use an electric razor to prevent cutting himself while shaving.

A client is found to have a low hemoglobin and hematocrit when laboratory work was performed. What does the nurse understand the anemia may have resulted from? Select all that apply.

- blood loss - abnormal erythrocyte production - destruction of normally formed red blood cells rationale: Most anemias result from (1) blood loss, (2) inadequate or abnormal erythrocyte production, or (3) destruction of normally formed red blood cells. The most common types include hypovolemic anemia, iron-deficiency anemia, pernicious anemia, folic acid deficiency anemia, sickle cell anemia, and hemolytic anemias. Although each form of anemia has unique manifestations, all share a common core of symptoms. Anemia does not result from infection or inadequate formed white blood cells.

A patient with sickle cell disease is brought to the emergency department by a parent. The patient has a fever of 101.6°F, heart rate of 116, and a respiratory rate of 32. The nurse auscultates bilateral wheezes in both lung fields. What does the nurse suspect this patient is experiencing?

Acute chest syndrome rationale: Acute chest syndrome is manifested by fever, respiratory distress (tachypnea, cough, wheezing), and new infiltrates seen on the chest x-ray. These signs often mimic infection, which is often the cause. However, the infectious etiology appears to be atypical bacteria such as Chlamydia pneumoniae and Mycoplasma pneumoniae as well as viruses such as respiratory syncytial virus and parvovirus. Other causes include pulmonary fat embolism, pulmonary infarction, and pulmonary thromboembolism. Seventy-five percent of patients who develop acute chest syndrome had a painful vaso-occlusive crisis, usually lasting an average of 2.5 days prior to developing symptoms of acute chest syndrome (Laurie, 2010).

A client's low prothrombin time (PT) was attributed to low vitamin K levels and the client's PT normalized after administration of vitamin K. When performing discharge education in an effort to prevent recurrence, what should the nurse emphasize?

Adequate nutrition rationale: Vitamin K deficiency is often the result of a nutritional deficit. NSAIDs do not influence vitamin K synthesis and clotting factors are not necessary to treat or prevent a vitamin K deficiency. Hygiene is not related to the onset or prevention of vitamin K deficiency.

A client comes to the walk-in clinic complaining of weakness and fatigue. While assessing this client, the nurse finds evidence of petechiae and ecchymoses. The nurse notes that the spleen appears enlarged. What would the nurse suspect is wrong with this client?

Aplastic anemia rationale: Clients with a plastic anemia experience all the typical characteristics of anemia (weakness and fatigue). In addition, they have frequent opportunistic infections plus coagulation abnormalities that are manifested by unusual bleeding, small skin hemorrhages called petechiae, and ecchymoses (bruises). The spleen becomes enlarged with an accumulation of the client's blood cells destroyed by lymphocytes that failed to recognize them as normal cells, or with an accumulation of dead transfused blood cells. The blood cell count shows insufficient numbers of blood cells. A bone marrow aspiration confirms that the production of stem cells is suppressed. This scenario does not describe a client with pernicious anemia, iron-deficiency anemia, or agranulocytosis.

A nurse caring for a client who has hemophilia is getting ready to take the client's vital signs. What should the nurse do before taking a blood pressure?

Ask if taking a blood pressure has ever produced bleeding under the skin or in the arm joints. rationale: Due to the client's enhanced risk for bleeding, before taking a blood pressure, the nurse asks the client if the use of a blood-pressure cuff has ever produced bleeding under the skin or in the arm joints.

A client in end-stage renal disease is prescribed epoetin alfa and oral iron supplements. Before administering the next dose of epoetin alfa and oral iron supplement, what is the priority action taken by the nurse?

Assesses the hemoglobin level rationale: Erythropoietin (epoetin alfa [Epogen]) with oral iron supplements can raise hematocrit levels in the client with end-stage renal disease. The nurse should check the hemoglobin prior to administration of erythropoietin, because too high a hemoglobin level can put the client at risk for heart failure, myocardial infarction, and cerebrovascular accident. Erythropoietin may be administered during dialysis treatments. The BUN will be elevated in the client with end-stage renal disease.

A client is being treated for DIC and the nurse has prioritized the nursing diagnosis of Risk for Deficient Fluid Volume Related to Bleeding. How can the nurse best determine if goals of care relating to this diagnosis are being met?

Closely monitor intake and output. rationale: The client with DIC is at a high risk of deficient fluid volume. The nurse can best gauge the effectiveness of care by closely monitoring the client's intake and output. Each of the other assessments is a necessary element of care, but none addresses fluid balance as directly as close monitoring of intake and output.

What pathophysiological concept related to sickle cell disease predisposes a client with sickle cell disease to pneumonia?

Damage to the spleen increases the risk for infection. rationale: Sickle cell disease can damage the spleen by thrombosis and subsequent damage or necrosis of tissue. This damage to the spleen increases the risk for infection, predisposing the client to pneumonia and acute chest syndrome. Sequestration causes thrombosis, not infection.

The nurse is educating a patient with iron deficiency anemia about food sources high in iron and how to enhance the absorption of iron when eating these foods. What can the nurse inform the client would enhance the absorption?

Eating calf's liver with a glass of orange juice rationale: Food sources high in iron include organ meats (e.g., beef or calf's liver, chicken liver), other meats, beans (e.g., black, pinto, and garbanzo), leafy green vegetables, raisins, and molasses. Taking iron-rich foods with a source of vitamin C (e.g., orange juice) enhances the absorption of iron.

The nurse provides care for an older adult client, diagnosed with anemia, who has a hemoglobin of 9.6 g/dL and a hematocrit of 34%. To determine the cause of the client's blood loss, which is the priority nursing action?

Observe the client's stools for blood. rationale: If an older adult is anemic, blood loss from the gastrointestinal (GI) or genitourinary (GU) tracts is suspected. Observing the stool for blood will determine if the source of the client's bleeding is in the GI tract. Iron-deficiency anemia is unusual in older adults because the body does not eliminate excessive iron, thus increasing total body iron stores and necessitating maintenance of hydration. If evaluation of the GI and GU tracts does not reveal a source of bleeding, evaluating the client's diet may be appropriate; however, this is not the priority nursing action. Monitoring the client's body temperature and BP will assist the nurse in determining the source of the client's blood loss, but these are not priority nursing actions.

A nurse is caring for a client admitted with pernicious anemia. Which set of findings should the nurse expect when assessing the client?

Pallor, tachycardia, and a sore tongue rationale: Pallor, tachycardia, and a sore tongue are all characteristic findings in pernicious anemia. Other clinical manifestations include anorexia; weight loss; a smooth, beefy red tongue; a wide pulse pressure; palpitations; angina pectoris; weakness; fatigue; and paresthesia of the hands and feet. Bradycardia, reduced pulse pressure, weight gain, and double vision aren't characteristic findings in pernicious anemia.

The nurse is talking with the parents of a toddler who was diagnosed with hemophilia A. What instruction should the nurse give to the parents?

Administer factor VIII intravenously at the first sign of bleeding rationale: Clients and families are taught to administer factor VIII intravenously. This helps to prevent bleeding episodes. Activities that minimize trauma are allowed for the toddler, however, playground activities may place the toddler at risk for increased bleeding. Over-the-counter cold preparations are to be avoided because they will interfere with platelet aggregation. Nasal packing is avoided because when the nasal packing is removed, bleeding may occur.

A nurse cares for a client with anemia requiring nutritional supplementation. Which nursing intervention best promotes client adherence with the prescribed therapy?

Assist the client to incorporate the therapeutic regimen into daily activities. rationale: The best way for the nurse to promote adherence to the therapeutic regimen is to assist the client to incorporate the therapeutic regimen into daily activities. This action is the only answer choice that is a collaborative effort with the client and is the reason it is correct.

A patient has a probable diagnosis of polycythemia vera. The nurse reviews the patient's lab work for which diagnostic indicator?

Hematocrit of 60% rationale: Although all results are elevated, the diagnostic indicator is the elevated hematocrit (normal = 42% to 52% for a male). These results are used in combination with other indicators (e.g., splenomegaly) for a definitive diagnosis.

While assessing a client, the nurse discovers the client has a history of restless leg syndrome. Which hematological condition does the nurse associate with this condition?

Iron deficiency anemia rationale: Restless leg syndrome is common in as many as 24% of those with iron deficiency anemia.

During a routine assessment of a patient diagnosed with anemia, the nurse observes the patient's beefy red tongue. The nurse is aware that this is a sign of what kind of anemia?

Megaloblastic rationale: A beefy, red, sore tongue is a characteristic indicator of megaloblastic anemia. The nurse should assess for other signs such as fatigue, hypotension, and tachycardia. Safety issues should also be assessed because balance, coordination, and gait are affected.

The most common cause of iron-deficiency anemia in premenopausal women includes which of the following?

Menorrhagia rationale: The most common cause of iron deficiency anemia in premenopausal women is menorrhagia. In pregnancy, it may be caused by inadequate intake of iron. Iron malabsorption may occur following a gastrectomy or with celiac disease. Lack of vitamin B12 is also a potential cause of anemia.

A male client has been receiving a continuous infusion of weight-based heparin for more than 4 days. The client's PTT is at a level that requires an increase of heparin by 100 units per hour. The client has the laboratory findings shown above. What is the most important action for the nurse to take?

Consult with the physician about discontinuing heparin. rationale: Platelet counts may decrease with heparin therapy, and this client's platelet count has decreased. The client may have heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). Treatment of HIT includes discontinuing the heparin. The question asks about the most important action of the nurse and that is to consult with the physician about discontinuing heparin therapy. The nurse may continue with the current rate and should not increase the heparin dose until consulting with the physician. Warfarin is not administered until the platelet count has returned to normal levels.

A clinical nurse specialist (CNS) is orienting a new graduate registered nurse to an oncology unit where blood product transfusions are frequently administered. In discussing ABO compatibility, the CNS presents several hypothetical scenarios. The new graduate knows that the greatest likelihood of an acute hemolytic reaction would occur when giving:

A-positive blood to an A-negative client. rationale: An acute hemolytic reaction occurs when there is an ABO or Rh incompatibility. For example, giving A blood to a B client would cause a hemolytic reaction. Likewise, giving Rh-positive blood to an Rh-negative client would cause a hemolytic reaction. It's safe to give Rh-negative blood to an Rh-positive client if there is a blood type compatibility. O-negative blood is the universal donor and can be given to all other blood types. AB clients can receive either A or B blood as long as there isn't an Rh incompatibility.

A client is seen in the emergency department with severe pain related to a sickle cell crisis. What does the nurse understand is occurring with this client?

Vascular occlusion in small vessels decreasing blood and oxygen to the tissues. rationale: The person with sickle cell disease repeatedly suffers from two major problems: (1) episodes of sickle cell crisis from vascular occlusion, which develops rapidly under hypoxic conditions, and (2) chronic hemolytic anemia. During a sickle cell crisis, the sickle-shaped cells lodge in small blood vessels, where they block the flow of blood and oxygen to the affected tissue. The vascular occlusion induces severe pain in the ischemic tissue. The client may have increased tolerance for pain due to the chronic nature of the illness. Bone marrow increases the erythrocyte production. Underhydration increases the client's risk of developing a vaso-occlusive crisis.

The nurse monitors the laboratory data for several clients who are diagnosed with hypoproliferative anemias. For each laboratory data, click to specify if the finding indicates microcytic anemia or megaloblastic anemia.

microcytic anemia: - decreased mean corpuscular volume (MCV) - decreased reticulocytes - increased total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) megaloblastic anemia: - increased mean corpuscular volume (MCV) - decreased vitamin b12 - decreased folate rationale: There are three basic types of anemia: hypoproliferative, bleeding, and hemolytic. Each type of anemia presents differently in regard to laboratory data that is expected. The client who is diagnosed with microcytic anemia will have the following laboratory data: decreased mean corpuscular volume (MCV), decreased reticulocytes, and decreased total iron-binding capacity (TIBC). The client who is diagnosed with a megaloblastic anemia (e.g., vitamin B12 and folate deficiencies) will have the following laboratory data: increased MCV and decreases in either serum vitamin B12 or folate levels. Microcytic anemias do not present with the following laboratory data: increased MCV and deficiencies in both vitamin B12 and folate levels. Megaloblastic anemias do not present with the following laboratory data: decreased MCV, decreased reticulocytes, and increased TBIC.