Chapter 54: Management of Patients With Kidney Disorders H & I

The nurse helps a client to correctly perform peritoneal dialysis at home. The nurse must educate the client about the procedure. Which educational information should the nurse provide to the client?

Keep the dialysis supplies in a clean area, away from children and pets

A client is diagnosed with polycystic kidney disease and requires teaching on the management of the disorder. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

"As long as I have one normal kidney, I should be fine."

A client with end-stage renal disease is scheduled to undergo a kidney transplant using a sibling donated kidney. The client asks if immunosuppressive drugs can be avoided. Which is the best response by the nurse?

"Even a perfect match does not guarantee organ success." Even a perfect match does not guarantee that a transplanted organ will not be rejected. Immunosuppressive drugs are used in all organ transplants to decrease incidence of organ rejection. To provide the client with the information needed to provide informed consent, the treatment plan is reviewed and discussed prior to transplant.

The nurse weighs a patient daily and measures urinary output every hour. The nurse notices a weight gain of 1.5 kg in a 74-kg patient over 48 hours. The nurse is aware that this weight gain is equivalent to the retention of:

1,500 mL of fluid A 1-kg weight gain is equal to 1,000 mL of retained fluid.

A history of infection specifically caused by group A beta-hemolytic streptococci is associated with which disorder?

Acute glomerulonephritis

A patient with chronic kidney failure experiences decreased levels of erythropoietin. What serious complication related to those levels should the nurse assess for when caring for this client?

Anemia Anemia develops as a result of inadequate erythropoietin production, the shortened lifespan of RBCs, nutritional deficiencies, and the patient's tendency to bleed, particularly from the GI tract.

A client is in end-stage chronic renal failure and is being added to the transplant list. The nurse explains to the client how donors are found for clients needing kidneys. Which statement is accurate?

Donors are selected from compatible living donors.

Which of the following causes should the nurse suspect in a client is diagnosed with intrarenal failure?

Glomerulonephritis Intrarenal causes of renal failure include prolonged renal ischemia, nephrotoxic agents, and infectious processes such as acute glomerulonephritis.

The nurse cares for a client after extensive abdominal surgery. The client develops an infection that is treated with IV gentamicin. After 4 days of treatment, the client develops oliguria, and laboratory results indicate azotemia. The client is diagnosed with acute tubular necrosis and transferred to the ICU. The client is hemodynamically stable. Which dialysis method would be most appropriate for the client?

Hemodialysis The client is hemodynamically stable and hemodialysis would be most appropriate. Hemodialysis is used for clients who are acutely ill and require short-term dialysis for days to weeks until kidney function resumes and for clients with advanced chronic kidney disease (CKD) and end-stage kidney disease (ESKD) who require long-term or permanent renal replacement therapy.

A client is diagnosed with polycystic kidney disease. Which of the following would the nurse most likely assess?

Hypertension Hypertension is present in approximately 75% of clients with polycystic kidney disease at the time of diagnosis. Pain from retroperitoneal bleeding, lumbar discomfort, and abdominal pain also may be noted based on the size and effects of the cysts. Fever would suggest an infection. Periorbital edema is noted with acute glomerulonephritis.

Acute dialysis is indicated during which situation?

Impending pulmonary edema Acute dialysis is indicated when there is a high and increasing level of serum potassium, fluid overload, or impending pulmonary edema, or increasing acidosis.

A client has end-stage renal failure. Which of the following should the nurse include when teaching the client about nutrition to limit the effects of azotemia?

Increase carbohydrates and limit protein intake. Calories are supplied by carbohydrates and fat to prevent wasting. Protein is restricted because the breakdown products of dietary and tissue protein (urea, uric acid, and organic acids) accumulate quickly in the blood.

What is used to decrease potassium level seen in acute renal failure?

Sodium polystyrene sulfonate The elevated potassium levels may be reduced by administering cation-exchange resins (sodium polystyrene sulfonate [Kayexalate]) orally or by retention enema. Kayexalate works by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the intestinal tract.

The nurse performs acute intermittent peritoneal dialysis (PD) on a client who is experiencing uremic signs and symptoms. The peritoneal fluid is not draining as expected. What is the best response by the nurse?

Turn the client from side to side. If the peritoneal fluid does not drain properly, the nurse can facilitate drainage by turning the client from side to side or raising the head of the bed. The catheter should never be pushed further into the peritoneal cavity.

A nurse assesses a client shortly after living donor kidney transplant surgery. Which postoperative finding must the nurse report to the physician immediately?

Urine output of 20 ml/hour

A client admitted with a gunshot wound to the abdomen is transferred to the intensive care unit after an exploratory laparotomy. IV fluid is being infused at 150 mL/hour. Which assessment finding suggests that the client is experiencing acute renal failure (ARF)?

Urine output of 250 ml/24 hours ARF, characterized by abrupt loss of kidney function, commonly causes oliguria, which is characterized by a urine output of 250 ml/24 hours.

Which of the following is the most accurate indicator of fluid loss or gain?

Weight

The nurse is administering calcium acetate (PhosLo) to a patient with end-stage renal disease. When is the best time for the nurse to administer this medication?

With food Hyperphosphatemia and hypocalcemia are treated with medications that bind dietary phosphorus in the GI tract. Binders such as calcium carbonate (Os-Cal) or calcium acetate (PhosLo) are prescribed, but there is a risk of hypercalcemia. The nurse administers phosphate binders with food for them to be effective.

The nurse is providing discharge instructions to the client with acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

"I should drink as much as possible to keep my kidneys working." Dietary management of acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis includes restrictions of protein, sodium, potassium, and fluids.

What is a hallmark of the diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome?

Proteinuria Proteinuria (predominantly albumin) exceeding 3.5 g per day is the hallmark of the diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome. Hypoalbuminemia, hypernatremia, and hyperkalemia may occur.

A patient has stage 3 chronic kidney failure. What would the nurse expect the patient's glomerular filtration rate (GFR) to be?

A GFR of 30-59 mL/min/1.73 m2 Stage 3 of chronic kidney disease is defined as having a GFR of 30-59 mL/min/1.73 m2

The nurse is reviewing the potassium level of a patient with kidney disease. The results of the test are 6.5 mEq/L, and the nurse observes peaked T waves on the ECG. What priority intervention does the nurse anticipate the physician will order to reduce the potassium level?

Administration of sodium polystyrene sulfonate [Kayexalate]) The elevated potassium levels may be reduced by administering cation-exchange resins (sodium polystyrene sulfonate [Kayexalate]) orally or by retention enema. Kayexalate works by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the intestinal tract.

During the diuresis period of acute kidney injury (AKI), the nurse should observe the client closely for what complication?

Dehydration Dehydration is a complication during the diuresis phase related to elevated urine output and continued symptoms of uremia. The concern with acute kidney injury (AKI) is hyperkalemia. The diuresis phase of AKI is marked by normal or elevated urine output.

Which of the following would a nurse classify as a prerenal cause of acute renal failure?

Septic shock Prerenal causes of acute renal failure include hypovolemic shock, cardiogenic shock secondary to congestive heart failure, septic shock, anaphylaxis, dehydration, renal artery thrombosis or stenosis, cardiac arrest, and lethal dysrhythmias. Ureteral stricture and prostatic hypertrophy would be classified as postrenal causes. Polycystic disease is classified as an intrarenal cause of acute renal failure.

Which nursing assessment finding indicates that the client who has undergone renal transplant has not met expected outcomes?

Fever Fever is an indicator of infection or transplant rejection.

Which term is used to describe the concentration of urea and other nitrogenous wastes in the blood?

Azotemia Azotemia is the concentration of urea and other nitrogenous wastes in the blood. Uremia is an excess of urea and other nitrogenous wastes in the blood

A client with chronic renal failure comes to the clinic for a visit. During the visit, he complains of pruritus. Which suggestion by the nurse would be most appropriate?

"Keep your showers brief, patting your skin dry after showering." The client with pruritus needs to keep the skin clean and dry. The client should take brief showers with tepid water, pat the skin dry, use moisturizing lotions or creams, and avoid scratching. In addition, the client should use a mild laundry detergent to wash clothes and an extra rinse cycle to remove all detergent or add 1 tsp vinegar per quart of water to the rinse cycle to remove any detergent residue.

What is the term for a concentration of urea and other nitrogenous wastes in the blood?

Azotemia Azotemia is the concentration of urea and other nitrogenous wastes in the blood. Uremia is an excess of urea and other nitrogenous wastes in the blood. Hematuria is blood in the urine.

The presence of prerenal azotemia is a probable indicator for hospitalization for CAP. Which of the following is an initial laboratory result that would alert a nurse to this condition?

Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)-to-creatinine ratio (BUN:Cr) >20. The normal BUN:Cr ratio is less than 15. Prerenal azotemia is caused by hypoperfusion of the kidneys due to a nonrenal cause. Over time, higher than normal blood levels of urea or other nitrogen-containing compounds will develop.

The client with chronic renal failure complains of intense itching. Which assessment finding would indicate the need for further nursing education?

Brief, hot daily showers Hot water removes more oils from the skin and can increase dryness and itching.

A client who suffered hypovolemic shock during a cardiac incident has developed acute renal failure. Which is the best nursing rationale for this complication?

Decrease in the blood flow through the kidneys Acute renal failure can be caused by poor perfusion and/or decrease in circulating volume results from hypovolemic shock. Obstruction of urine flow from the kidneys through blood clot formation and structural damage can result in postrenal disorders but not indicated in this client.

What is a characteristic of the intrarenal category of acute kidney injury (AKI)?

Increased BUN The intrarenal category of acute kidney injury (AKI) encompasses an increased BUN, increased creatinine, a low-normal specific gravity of urine, and increased urine sodium. Intrarenal AKI is the result of actual parenchymal damage to the glomeruli or kidney tubules. Acute tubular necrosis (ATN), AKI in which there is damage to the kidney tubules, is the most common type of intrinsic AKI. Characteristics of ATN are intratubular obstruction, tubular back leak (abnormal reabsorption of filtrate and decreased urine flow through the tubule), vasoconstriction, and changes in glomerular permeability. These processes result in a decrease of GFR, progressive azotemia, and fluid and electrolyte imbalances.

When caring for the patient with acute glomerulonephritis, which of the following assessment findings should the nurse anticipate?

Tea-colored urine Tea-colored urine is a typical symptom of glomerulonephritis. Flank pain on the affected side, not left upper quadrant pain, would be present. Pyuria is a symptom of pyelonephritis, not glomerulonephritis. Blood pressure typically elevates in glomerulonephritis.

The nurse cares for a client who underwent a kidney transplant. The nurse understands that rejection of a transplanted kidney within 24 hours after transplant is termed:

hyperacute rejection. After a kidney transplant, rejection and failure can occur within 24 hours (hyperacute), within 3 to 14 days (acute), or after many years. A hyperacute rejection is caused by an immediate antibody-mediated reaction that leads to generalized glomerular capillary thrombosis and necrosis. The term "simple" is not used in the categorization of types of rejection of kidney transplants.

A dialysis client is prescribed erythropoietin (Epogen) to treat anemia associated with end-stage renal disease. The client weighs 147 lbs. The order is for Epogen 50 units/kg subcutaneously 3 times per week. The pharmacy supplied Epogen 3000 units/ml. How many milliliters will the nurse administer to the client? Round to the nearest tenth.

1.1 The client weighs 147 lbs/2.2 lbs per kg = 67.5 kg. Dose to be administered = 67.5 kg x 50 units/kg = 3375 units. 3375 units/3000 units per ml = 1.125 or 1.1 ml.

What is a characteristic of the intrarenal category of acute renal failure?

Increased BUN The intrarenal category of acute renal failure encompasses an increased BUN, increased creatinine, a low specific gravity of urine, and increased urine sodium.

The nurse instructs a client to perform continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis correctly at home. Which educational information should the nurse provide to the client?

Use an aseptic technique during the procedure.

A male client has doubts about performing peritoneal dialysis at home. He informs the nurse about his existing upper respiratory infection. Which of the following suggestions can the nurse offer to the client while performing an at-home peritoneal dialysis?

Wear a mask when performing exchanges. The nurse should advise the client to wear a mask while performing exchanges. This prevents contamination of the dialysis catheter and tubing, and is usually advised to clients with upper respiratory infection.

Because of difficulties with hemodialysis, peritoneal dialysis is initiated to treat a client's uremia. Which finding during this procedure signals a significant problem?

White blood cell (WBC) count of 20,000/mm3 An increased WBC count indicates infection, probably resulting from peritonitis, which may have been caused by insertion of the peritoneal catheter into the peritoneal cavity. Peritonitis can cause the peritoneal membrane to lose its ability to filter solutes; therefore, peritoneal dialysis would no longer be a treatment option for this client

A client is admitted to the hospital with a prerenal disorder, a nonurologic condition that disrupts renal blood flow to the nephrons, affecting their filtering ability. One cause of prerenal acute kidney injury is:

anaphylaxis Anaphylaxis is a cause of prerenal acute renal failure. Myoglobinuria secondary to burns is a cause of intrarenal acute renal failure. Polycystic disease is a cause of intrarenal acute renal failure. Ureteral stricture is a cause of postrenal acute renal failure.

Glomerulonephritis is an inflammatory response in the glomerular capillary membrane, and causes disruption of the renal filtration system. Although diagnostic urinalysis can reveal glomerulonephritis, many clients with glomerulonephritis exhibit:

no symptoms. Many clients with glomerulonephritis have no symptoms. Early symptoms may be so slight that the client does not seek medical attention.

The nurse cares for a client with end-stage kidney disease (ESKD). Which acid-base imbalance is associated with this disorder?

pH 7.20, PaCO2 36, HCO3 14- Metabolic acidosis occurs in end-stage kidney disease (ESKD) because the kidneys are unable to excrete increased loads of acid

A client has been diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis. This condition causes:

proteinuria. The disruption of membrane permeability causes red blood cells (RBCs) and protein molecules to filter from the glomeruli into Bowman's capsule and eventually become lost in the urine. Pyuria is pus in the urine. Polyuria is an increased volume of urine voided.

One of the roles of the nurse in caring for clients with chronic renal failure is to help them learn to minimize and manage potential complications. This would include:

restricting sources of potassium usually found in fresh fruits and vegetables. Restrict sources of potassium usually found in fresh fruits and vegetables; hyperkalemia can cause life-threatening changes. Restrict sodium intake as ordered; doing so prevents excess sodium and fluid accumulation. Prescribed iron and folic acid supplements or Epogen should be taken. Iron and folic acid supplements are needed for RBC production. Epogen stimulates bone marrow to produce RBCs. Restrict protein intake to foods that are complete proteins within prescribed limits. Complete proteins provide positive nitrogen balance for healing and growth.

A client is admitted for treatment of chronic renal failure (CRF). The nurse knows that this disorder increases the client's risk of:

water and sodium retention secondary to a severe decrease in the glomerular filtration rate. The client with CRF is at risk for fluid imbalance — dehydration if the kidneys fail to concentrate urine, or fluid retention if the kidneys fail to produce urine. Electrolyte imbalances associated with this disorder result from the kidneys' inability to excrete phosphorus; such imbalances may lead to hyperphosphatemia with reciprocal hypocalcemia. CRF may cause metabolic acidosis, not metabolic alkalosis, secondary to inability of the kidneys to excrete hydrogen ions.

A nurse receives her client care assignment. Following the report, she should give priority assessment to the client:

who, following a kidney transplant, has returned from hemodialysis with a sodium level of 110 mEq/L and a potassium level of 2.0 mEq/L.

The client with polycystic kidney disease asks the nurse, "Will my kidneys ever function normally again?" The best response by the nurse is:

"As the disease progresses, you will most likely require renal replacement therapy." There is no cure for polycystic kidney disease. Medical management includes therapies to control blood pressure, urinary tract infections, and pain. Renal replacement therapy is indicated as the kidneys fail.

A client who has been treated for chronic renal failure (CRF) is ready for discharge. The nurse should reinforce which dietary instruction?

"Increase your carbohydrate intake." A client with CRF requires extra carbohydrates to prevent protein catabolism. In a client with CRF, unrestricted intake of sodium, protein, potassium, and fluid may lead to a dangerous accumulation of electrolytes and protein metabolic products, such as amino acids and ammonia. Therefore, the client must limit intake of sodium; meat, which is high in protein; bananas, which are high in potassium; and fluid, because the failing kidneys can't secrete adequate urine. Salt substitutes are high in potassium and should be avoided.

After teaching a group of students about how to perform peritoneal dialysis, which statement would indicate to the instructor that the students need additional teaching?

"It is appropriate to warm the dialysate in a microwave." The dialysate should be warmed in a commercial warmer and never in a microwave oven.

An investment banker with chronic renal failure informs the nurse of the choice for continuous cyclic peritoneal dialysis. Which is the best response by the nurse?

"This type of dialysis will provide more independence." Once a treatment choice has been selected by the client, the nurse should support the client in that decision. Continuous cyclic peritoneal dialysis will provide more independence for this client and supports the client's decision for treatment mode.

A client with newly diagnosed renal cancer is questioning why detection was delayed. Which is the best response by the nurse?

"Very few symptoms are associated with renal cancer." Renal cancers rarely cause symptoms in the early stage. Tumors can become quite large before causing symptoms. Painless, gross hematuria is often the first symptom in renal cancer and does not present until later stages of the disease. Adenocarcinomas are the most common renal cancer (about 80%),whereas squamous cell renal cancers are rare. It is not therapeutic to place doubt or blame for delayed diagnosis.

A patient has acute kidney injury (AKI) with a negative nitrogen balance. How much weight does the nurse expect the patient to lose?

0.5 kg/day AKI causes severe nutritional imbalances (because nausea and vomiting contribute to inadequate dietary intake), impaired glucose use and protein synthesis, and increased tissue catabolism. The patient is weighed daily and loses 0.2 to 0.5 kg (0.5 to 1 lb) daily if the nitrogen balance is negative (i.e., caloric intake falls below caloric requirements).

The nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease. The patient has gained 4 kg in the past 3 days. In milliliters, how much fluid retention does this equal? __________________

4000 A 1-kg weight gain is equal to 1,000 mL of retained fluid. 4 kg × 1,000 = 4,000. The most accurate indicator of fluid loss or gain in an acutely ill patient is weight. An accurate daily weight must be obtained and recorded.

Sevelamer hydrochloride (Renagel) has been prescribed for a client with chronic renal failure. The physician has prescribed Renagel 800 mg orally three times per day with meals to treat the client's hyperphosphatemia. The medication is available in 400 mg tablets. How many tablets per day will the nurse administer to the client?

6 The nurse will administer 2 tablets per dose (800 mg/400 mg per tablet). The client receives a total of 3 doses per day or 6 tablets (2 tablets per dose x 3 doses).

Which of the following is a term used to describe excessive nitrogenous waste in the blood, as seen in acute glomerulonephritis?

Azotemia The primary presenting features of acute glomerulonephritis are hematuria, edema, azotemia (excessive nitrogenous wastes in the blood), and proteinuria (>3 to 5 g/day). Bacteremia is excessive bacteria in the blood.

A client with chronic renal failure (CRF) is admitted to the urology unit. Which diagnostic test results are consistent with CRF?

Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 100 mg/dL and serum creatinine 6.5 mg/dL The normal BUN level ranges 8 to 23 mg/dl; the normal serum creatinine level ranges from 0.7 to 1.5 mg/dl. A BUN level of 100 mg/dl and a serum creatinine of 6.5 mg/dl are abnormally elevated results, reflecting CRF and the kidneys' decreased ability to remove nonprotein nitrogen waste from the blood.

A patient admitted with electrolyte imbalance has carpopedal spasm, ECG changes, and a positive Chvostek sign. What deficit does the nurse suspect the patient has?

Calcium Calcium deficit is associated with abdominal and muscle cramps, stridor, carpopedal spasm, hyperactive reflexes, tetany, positive Chvostek's or Trousseau's sign, tingling of fingers and around mouth, and ECG changes.

A client requires hemodialysis. Which type of drug should be withheld before this procedure?

Cardiac glycosides Cardiac glycosides such as digoxin (Lanoxin) should be withheld before hemodialysis. Hypokalemia is one of the electrolyte shifts that occur during dialysis, and a hypokalemic client is at risk for arrhythmias secondary to digoxin toxicity.

Patient education regarding a fistulae or graft includes which of the following? Select all that apply.

Check daily for thrill and bruit. Avoid compression of the site. No IV or blood pressure taken on extremity with dialysis access. No tight clothing.

A client who is blind is admitted for treatment of gastroenteritis. Which nursing diagnosis takes highest priority for this client?

Deficient fluid volume Because the client has gastroenteritis and is probably dehydrated, Deficient fluid volume takes highest priority. A sensory deficit such as blindness puts the client at risk for injury from the environment; however, a potential problem doesn't take highest priority. Although Activity intolerance or Impaired physical mobility also may be relevant, these nursing diagnoses don't take precedence over the client's dehydration.

The nurse expects which of the following assessment findings in the client in the diuretic phase of acute renal failure?

Dehydration The diuretic phase of acute renal failure is characterized by increased urine output, hypotension, and dehydration.

The nurse passes out medications while a client prepares for hemodialysis. The client is ordered to receive numerous medications including antihypertensives. What is the best action for the nurse to take?

Hold the medications until after dialysis. Antihypertensive therapy, often part of the regimen of clients on dialysis, is one example when communication, education, and evaluation can make a difference in client outcomes. The client must know when—and when not—to take the medication. For example, if an antihypertensive agent is taken on a dialysis day, hypotension may occur during dialysis, causing dangerously low blood pressure. Many medications that are taken once daily can be held until after dialysis treatment.

A client in chronic renal failure becomes confused and complains of abdominal cramping, racing heart rate, and numbness of the extremities. The nurse relates these symptoms to which of the following lab values?

Hyperkalemia Hyperkalemia is the life-threatening effect of renal failure. The client can become apathetic; confused; and have abdominal cramping, dysrhythmias, nausea, muscle weakness, and numbness of the extremities. Symptoms of hypocalcemia are muscle twitching, irritability, and tetany. Elevation in urea levels can result in azotemia, which can be exhibited in fluid and electrolyte and/or acid-base imbalance.

The nurse is caring for a patient after kidney surgery. What major danger should the nurse closely monitor for?

Hypovolemic shock caused by hemorrhage If bleeding goes undetected or is not detected promptly, the patient may lose significant amounts of blood and may experience hypoxemia. In addition to hypovolemic shock due to hemorrhage, this type of blood loss may precipitate a myocardial infarction or transient ischemic attack.

A client with acute renal failure progresses through four phases. Which describes the onset phase?

It is accompanied by reduced blood flow to the nephrons. The onset phase is accompanied by reduced blood flow to the nephrons. In the oliguric phase, fluid volume excess develops, which leads to edema, hypertension, and cardiopulmonary complications. During the diuretic phase, excretion of wastes and electrolytes continues to be impaired despite increased water content of the urine. During the recovery phase, normal glomerular filtration and tubular function are restored.

The nurse is caring for a patient in the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury (AKI). What does the nurse know would be the daily urine output?

Less than 400 mL The oliguria period is accompanied by an increase in the serum concentration of substances usually excreted by the kidneys (urea, creatinine, uric acid, organic acids, and the intracellular cations [potassium and magnesium]). The minimum amount of urine needed to rid the body of normal metabolic waste products is 400 mL. In this phase, uremic symptoms first appear and life-threatening conditions such as hyperkalemia develop.

For a client in the oliguric phase of acute renal failure (ARF), which nursing intervention is the most important?

Limiting fluid intake During the oliguric phase of ARF, urine output decreases markedly, possibly leading to fluid overload. Limiting oral and IV fluid intake can prevent fluid overload and its complications, such as heart failure and pulmonary edema.

A client with decreased urine output refractory to fluid challenges is evaluated for renal failure. Which condition may cause the intrinsic (intrarenal) form of acute renal failure?

Nephrotoxic injury secondary to use of contrast media Intrinsic renal failure results from damage to the kidney, such as from nephrotoxic injury caused by contrast media, antibiotics, corticosteroids, or bacterial toxins.

A group of students are reviewing the phases of acute renal failure. The students demonstrate understanding of the material when they identify which of the following as occurring during the second phase?

Oliguria During the second phase, the oliguric phase, oliguria occurs. Diuresis occurs during the third or diuretic phase. Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) occurs during the first, or initiation, phase in which reduced blood flow to the nephrons leads to ATN. Restoration of glomerular function, if it occurs, occurs during the fourth, or recovery, phase.

The nurse cares for a client with acute kidney injury (AKI). The client is experiencing an increase in the serum concentration of urea and creatinine. The nurse determines the client is experiencing which phase of AKI?

Oliguria The oliguria period is accompanied by an increase in the serum concentration of substances usually excreted by the kidneys (urea, creatinine, uric acid, organic acids, and the intracellular cations [potassium and magnesium]).

During hemodialysis, excess water is removed from the blood by which of the following?

Osmosis Excess water is removed from the blood by osmosis, in which water moves from an area of higher solute concentration in the blood toward an area of lower solute concentration into the dialysate.

Nursing assessment for the patient receiving peritoneal dialysis would include which of the following to detect the most serious complication of this procedure?

Palpate the abdominal wall for rebound tenderness. Peritonitis is the most serious complication of peritoneal dialysis. To detect rebound tenderness, the nurse presses one hand firmly into the abdominal wall and quickly withdraws the hand.

Which of the following occurs late in chronic glomerulonephritis?

Peripheral neuropathy Peripheral neuropathy with diminished deep tendon reflexes and neurosensory changes occur late in the disease. The patient becomes confused and demonstrates a limited attention span. An additional late finding includes evidence of pericarditis with or without a pericardial friction rub. The first indication of disease may be a sudden, severe nosebleed, a stroke, or a seizure.

A nurse is reviewing the history of a client who is suspected of having glomerulonephritis. Which of the following would the nurse consider significant?

Recent history of streptococcal infection Glomerulonephritis can occur as a result of infections from group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infections, bacterial endocarditis, or viral infections such as hepatitis B or C or human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).

A client with renal failure is undergoing continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis. Which nursing diagnosis is the most appropriate for this client?

Risk for infection The peritoneal dialysis catheter and regular exchanges of the dialysis bag provide a direct portal for bacteria to enter the body. If the client experiences repeated peritoneal infections, continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis may no longer be effective in clearing waste products.Impaired urinary elimination, Toileting self-care deficit, and Activity intolerance may be pertinent but are secondary to the risk of infection.

Following a nephrectomy, which assessment finding is most important in determining nursing care for the client?

SpO2 at 90% with fine crackles in the lung bases The Risk for Ineffective Breathing Pattern is often a challenge in caring for clients postnephrectomy due to location of incision. Nursing interventions should be directed to improve and maintain SpO2levels at 90% or greater and keep lungs clear of adventitious sounds.

A client is admitted with nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. His blood pressure on admission is 74/30 mm Hg. The client is oliguric and his blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels are elevated. The physician will most likely write an order for which treatment?

Start IV fluids with a normal saline solution bolus followed by a maintenance dose. The client is in prerenal failure caused by hypovolemia. I.V. fluids should be given with a bolus of normal saline solution followed by maintenance I.V. therapy. This treatment should rehydrate the client, causing his blood pressure to rise, his urine output to increase, and the BUN and creatinine levels to normalize. The client wouldn't be able to tolerate oral fluids because of the nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea.

Hyperkalemia is a serious side effect of acute renal failure. Identify the electrocardiogram (ECG) tracing that is diagnostic for hyperkalemia.

Tall, peaked T waves Characteristic ECG signs of hyperkalemia are tall, tented, or peaked T waves, absent P waves, and a widened QRS complex.

A client has undergone a renal transplant and returns to the health care agency for a follow-up evaluation. Which finding would lead to the suspicion that the client is experiencing rejection?

Tenderness over transplant site Signs and symptoms of transplant rejection include abdominal pain, hypertension, weight gain, oliguria, edema, fever, increased serum creatinine levels, and swelling or tenderness over the transplanted kidney site

An expected outcome for the hemodialysis client is:

The client explains how to assess the venous access site. Hemodialysis requires the creation of an arterio-venous access site. The absence of a palpable thrill suggests the AV site is blocked or clotted

A nurse is caring for a client who's ordered continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD). Which finding should lead the nurse to question the client's suitability for CAPD?

The client has a history of diverticulitis. A history of diverticulitis contraindicates CAPD because CAPD has been associated with the rupture of diverticulum.

The nurse is providing supportive care to a client receiving hemodialysis in the management of acute renal failure. Which statement from the nurse best reflects the ability of the kidneys to recover from acute renal failure?

The kidneys can improve over a period of months. The kidneys have a remarkable ability to recover from serious insult. Recovery may take 3 to 12 months. As long as recovery is continuing, there is no need to consider transplant or permanent hemodialysis. Acute renal failure can progress to chronic renal failure.

Which clinical finding should a nurse look for in a client with chronic renal failure?

Uremia Uremia is the buildup of nitrogenous wastes in the blood, evidenced by an elevated blood urea nitrogen and creatine levels. Uremia, anemia, and acidosis are consistent clinical manifestations of chronic renal failure.

A client with chronic renal failure (CRF) has developed faulty red blood cell (RBC) production. The nurse should monitor this client for:

fatigue and weakness. RBCs carry oxygen throughout the body. Decreased RBC production diminishes cellular oxygen, leading to fatigue and weakness. Nausea and vomiting may occur in CRF but don't result from faulty RBC production