Chapter 60-Cardiovascular System

707. A client has developed atrial fibrillation, with a ventricular rate of 150 bpm. The nurse should assess the client for which associated signs/symptoms? 1. Flat neck veins 2. Nausea and vomiting 3. Hypotension and dizziness 4. Hypertension and headache

3. Hypotension and dizziness Rationale: The client with uncontrolled atrial fibrillation with a ventricular rate more than 100 bpm is at risk for low cardiac output because of loss of atrial kick. The nurse assesses the client for palpitations, chest pain or discomfort, hypotension, pulse deficit, fatigue, weakness, dizziness, syncope, shortness of breath, and distended neck veins.

711. The nurse would evaluate the defibrillation of a client was MOST successful if which observation was made? 1. Arousable, sinus rhythm, BP 116/72 2. Nonarousable, sinus rhythm, BP 88/60 3. Arousable, marked bradycardia, BP 86/54 4. Nonarousable, supraventricular tachycardia, BP 122/60

1. Arousable, sinus rhythm, BP 116/72 Rationale: After defibrillation, the client requires continuous monitoring of electrocardiographic rhythm, hemodynamic status, and neurological status. Respiratory and metabolic acidosis develop during ventricular fibrillation because of lack ofrespiration and cardiac output. These can cause cerebral and cardiopulmonary complications. Arousable status, adequate blood pressure, and a sinus rhythm indicates successful response to defibrillation.

708. The nurse is watching the cardiac monitor, and a client's rhythm suddenly changes. There are no P waves; instead, there are fibrillatory waves before each QRS complex. How should the nurse correctly interpret the client's heart rhythm? 1. Atrial fibrillation 2. Sinus tachycardia 3. Ventricular fibrillation 4. Ventricular tachycardia

1. Atrial fibrillation Rationale: Atrial fibrillation is characterized by a loss of P waves and fibrillatory waves before each QRS complex. The atria quiver, which can lead to thrombus formation.

695. A client is admitted to an emergency department with chest pain that is consistent with myocardial infarction based on elevated troponin levels. Heart sounds are normal and vital signs are noted on the client's chart. The nurse should alert the health care provider because these changes are MOST consistent with which complication? Client's Chart Time: 11:00am 11:15am 11:30am 11:45am Pulse: 92 bpm 96 bpm 104 bpm 118 bpm RR: 24 bpm 26 bpm 28 bpm 32 bpm BP: 140/88 128/82 104/68 88/58 1. Cardiogenic shock 2. Cardiac tamponade 3. Pulmonary embolism 4. Dissecting thoracic aortic aneurysm

1. Cardiogenic shock Rationale: Cardiogenic shock occurs with severe damage (more than 40%) to the left ventricle. Classic signs include hypotension, a rapid pulse that becomes weaker, decreased urine output, and cool/clammy skin. Respiratory rate increases as the body develops metabolic acidosis from shock. Cardiac tamponade is accompanied by distant, muffled heart sounds and prominent neck vessels. Pulmonary embolism presents suddenly with severe dyspnea accompanying the chest pain. Dissecting aortic aneurysms usually are accompanied by back pain.

699. A client with myocardial infarction suddenly becomes tachycardic, shows signs of air hunger, and begins coughing frothy, pink-tinged sputum. Which findings would the nurse anticipate when auscultating the client's breath sounds? 1. Stridor 2. Crackles 3. Scattered rhonchi 4. Diminished breath sounds

2. Crackles Rationale: Pulmonary edema is characterized by extreme breathlessness, dyspnea, air hunger, and the production of frothy, pink-tinged sputum.

712. The nurse is evaluating a client's response to cardioversion. Which observation would be of HIGHEST PRIORITY to the nurse? 1. BP 2. Status of airway 3. Oxygen flow rate 4. Level of consciousness

2. Status of airway Rationale: Nursing responsibilities after cardioversion include maintenance first of a patent airway, and then oxygen administration, assessment of vital signs and level of consciousness, and dysrhythmia detection.

703. A client is wearing a continuous cardiac monitor, which begins to sound its alarm. A nurse sees no electrocardiographic complexes on the screen. Which is a PRIORITY action of the nurse? 1. Call a code 2. Call the health care provider 3. Check the client's status and lead placement 4. Press the recorder button on the electrocardiogram console

3. Check the client's status and lead placement Rationale: Sudden loss of electrocardiographic complexes indicates ventricular asystole or possibly electrode displacement. Accurate assessment of the client and equipment is necessary to determine the cause and identify the appropriate intervention. The remaining options are secondary to client assesment

696. A client admitted to the hospital with chest pain and a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus is scheduled for a cardiac catheterization. Which medication would need to be withheld for 24hrs before the procedure and for 48hrs after the procedure? 1. Regular insulin 2. Glipizide (Glucotrol) 3. Repaglinide (Prandin) 4. Metformin (Glucophage)

4. Metformin (Glucophage) Rationale: Metformin (Glucophage) needs to be withheld 24hrs before and for 48hrs after cardiac catheterization because of the injection of contrast medium during the procedure. If the contrast medium affects kidney function, with metformin in the system, the client would be at an increased risk for lactic acidosis. The medications in the remaining options do not need to be withheld 24 hrs before and 48hrs after cardiac catheterization

710. A client in ventricular fibrillation is about to be defibrillated. A nurse knows that to convert this rhythm effectively, the monophasic defibrillator machine should be set at which energy level (in joules) for the first delivery? 1. 50J 2. 120J 3. 200J 4. 360J

4. 360J Rationale: The energy level used for all defibrillation attempts with a monophasic defibrillator is 360 joules.

702. The nurse is reviewing an electrocardiogram rhythm strip. The P waves and QRS complexes are regular. The PR interval is 0.16 second, and QRS complexes measure 0.06 second. The overall heart rate is 64 bpm. Which would be a correct interpretation based on these characteristics? 1. Sinus bradycardia 2. Sick sinus syndrome 3. Normal sinus rhythm 4. First-degree heart block

3. Normal sinus rhythm Rationale: Normal sinus rhythm is defined as a regular rhythm, with an overall rate of 60-100 bpm. The PR and QRS measurements are normal, measuring 0.12-0.20 seconds and 0.04-0.10 seconds, respectively.

698. The nurse in a medical unit is caring for a client with heart failure. The client suddenly develops extreme dyspnea, tachycardia, and lung crackles and the nurse suspects pulmonary edema. The nurse immediately asks another nurse to contact the health care provider and prepares to implement which PRIORITY interventions? (Select all that apply) 1. Administering oxygen 2. Inserting a foley catheter 3. Administering furosemide (Lasix) 4. Administering morphine sulfate intravenously 5. Transporting the client to the coronary care unit 6. Placing the client in low Fowler's side-lying position

1. Administering oxygen 2. Inserting a foley catheter 3. Administering furosemide (Lasix) 4. Administering morphine sulfate intravenously Rationale: Pulmonary edema is a life-threatening event that can result from severe heart failure. In pulmonary edema, the left ventricle fails to eject sufficient blood, and pressure increases in the lungs because of the accumulated blood. Oxygen is always prescribed, and the client is placed in a high Fowler's position to ease the work of breathing. Furosemide, a rapid-acting diuretic, will eliminate accumulated fluid. A foley catheter is inserted to measure output accurately. Intravenously administered morphine sulfate reduces venous return (preload), decreases anxiety, and also reduces the work of breathing. Transporting the client to the coronary care unit is not a priority intervention. In fact, this my not be necessary at all if the client's response to treatment is successful

715. The nurse is assessing the neurovascular status of a client who returned to the surgical nursing unit 4hrs ago after undergoing aortoiliac bypass graft. The affected leg is warm, and the nurse notes redness and edema. The pedal pulse is palpable and unchanged from admission. How should the nurse correctly interpret the client's neurovascular status? 1. The neurovascular status is normal because of increased blood flow through the leg 2. The neurovascular status is moderately impaired, and the surgeon should be called 3. The neurovascular status is slightly deteriorating and should be monitored for another hour 4. The neurovascular status is adequate from an arterial approach, but veous complications are arising

1. The neurovascular status is normal because of increased blood flow through the leg. Rationale: An expercted outcome of aortoiliac bypass graft surgery is warmth, redness, and edema in the surgical extremity because of increased blood flow. The remaining options are incorrect interpretations.

701. A client who had cardiac surgery 24hrs ago has had a urine output averaging 20ml/hr for 2hrs. The client received a single bolus of 500ml of intravenous fluid. Urine output for the subsequent hour was 25ml. Daily laboratory results indicate that the blood urea nitrogen level is 45mg/dl and the serum creatinine level is 2.2mg/dl. On the basis of these findings, the nurse would anticipate that the client is at risk for which problem? 1. Hypovolemia 2. Acute kidney injury 3. Glomerulonephritis 4. Urinary tract infection

2. Acute kidney injury Rationale: The client who undergoes cardiac surgery is at risk for renal injury from poor perfusion, hemolysis, low cardiac output, or vasopressor medication therapy. Renal injury is signaled by decreased urine output and increased blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels. The client may need medications to increase renal perfusion and possibly could need peritoneal dialysis or hemodialysis. No data in the question indicate the presence of hypovolemia, glomerulonephritis, or urinary tract infection.

714. A client's electrocardiogram strip shows atrial and ventricular rates of 110 bpm. The PR interval is 0.14 second, the QRS complex measures 0.08 second, and the PP and RR intervals are regular. How should the nurse correctly interpret this rhythm? 1. Sinus dysrhythmia 2. Sinus tachycardia 3. Sinus bradycardia 4. Normal sinus rhythm

2. Sinus tachycardia Rationale: Sinus tachycardia has the characteristics of normal sinus rhythm, including a regular PP interval and normal width PR and QRS intervals; however, the rate is the differentiating factor. In sinus tachycardia, the atrial and ventricular rates are greater than 100bpm.

719. The nurse notes that a client with sinus rhythm has a premature ventricular contraction that falls on the T wave of the preceding beat. The client's rhythm suddenly changes to one with no P waves, no definable QRS complexes, and coarse wavy lines of varying amplitude. How should the nurse correctly interpret this rhythm? 1. Asystole 2. Atrial fibrillation 3. Ventricular fibrillation 4. Ventricular tachycardia

3. Ventricular fibrillation Rationale: Ventricular fibrillation is characterized by irregular chaotic undulations of varying amplitudes. Ventricular fibrillation has no measurable rate and no visible P waves or QRS complexes and results from electrical chaos in the ventricles.

704. The nurse is watching the cardiac monitor and notices that the rhythm suddenly changes. There are no P waves, the QRS complexes are wide, and the ventricular rate is regular but more than 140 bpm. The nurse determines that the client is experiencing which dysrhythmia? 1. Sinus tachycardia 2. Ventricular fibrillation 3. Ventricular tachycardia 4. Premature ventricular contractions

3. Ventricular tachycardia Rationale: Ventricular tachycardia is characterized by the absence of P waves, wide QRS complexes (longer than 0.12 seconds), and typically a rate between 140-180 impulses/minute. The rhythm is regular.

713. The nurse is caring for a client who has just had implantation of an automatic internal cardioverter-defibrillator. The nurse IMMEDIATELY would assess which item based on PRIORITY? 1. Anxiety level of the client and family 2. Presence of a Medic-Alert card for the client to carry 3. Knowledge of restrictions of postdischarge physical activity 4. Activation status of the device, heart rate cutoff, and number of shocks it is programmed to deliver

4. Activation status of the device, heart rate cutoff, and number of shocks it is programmed to deliver. Rationale: The nurse who is caring for the client after insertion of an automatic internal cardioverter-defibrillator needs to assess device settings, similar to after insertion of a permanent pacemaker. Specifically, the nurse needs to know whether the device is activated, the heart rate cutoff above which it will fire, and the number of shocks it is programmed to deliver. The remaining options are also nursing interventions but are not the priority.

706. A client is having frequent premature ventricular contractions. The nurse should place PRIORITY on assessment of which item? 1. Sensation of palpitations 2. Causative factors, such as caffeine 3. Precipitating factors, such as infection 4. BP and oxygen saturation

4. BP and oxygen saturation Rationale: Premature ventricular contractions can cause hemodynamic compromise. Therefore, the priority is to monitor the blood pressure and oxygen saturation. The shortened ventricular filling time can lead to decreased cardiac output. The client may be asymptomatic or may feel palpitations. Premature ventricular contractions can be caused by cardiac disorders, states of hypoxemia, or by any number of physiological stressors, such as infection, illness, surgery, or trauma, and by intake of caffeine, nicotine, or alcohol.

709. The nurse is assisting to defibrillate a client in ventricular fibrillation. After placing the paddles on the client's chest and before discharging them, whick intervention should be done? 1. Ensure that the client has been intubated 2. Set the defibrillator to the "synchronize" mode 3. Administer an amiodarone bolus intravenously 4. Confirm that the rhythm is actually ventricuclar fibrillation

4. Confirm that the rhythm is actually ventricular fibrillation. Rationale: Until the defibrillator is attached and charged, the client is resuscitated by using cardiopulmonary resuscitation. Once the defibrillator has been attached, the electrocardiogram is checked to verify that the rhythm is ventricular tachycardia. Leads also are checked for any loose connections. A nitroglycerin patch, if present, is removed. The client does not have to be intubated to be defibrillated. The machine is not set to the synchronous mode because there is no underlying rhythm with which to synchronize. Amiodarone may be given subsequently but is not required before defibrillation.

697. A client in sinus bradycardia, with a heart rate of 45 bpm, complains of dizziness and has a BP of 82/60mmHg. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate will be prescribed? 1. Difibrillate the client 2. Administer digoxin (Lanoxin) 3. Continue to monitor the client 4. Prepare for transcutaneous pacing

4. Prepare for transcutaneous pacing Rationale: Hypotension and dizziness are signs of decreased cardiac output. Transcutaneous pacing provides a temporary measure to increase the heart rate and thus perfusion in the symptomatic client. Defibrillation is used for treatment of pulseless ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation. Digoxin will further decrease the client's heart rate. Continuing to monitor the client delays necessary interventions

716. The nurse is evaluating the condition of a client after pericardiocentesis performed to treat cardiac tamponade. Which observation would indicate that the procedure was unsuccessful? 1. Rising BP 2. Clearly audible heart sounds 3. Client expression of relief 4. Rising central venous pressure

4. Rising central venous pressure Rationale: Following pericardiaocentesis, a rise in blood pressure and a fall in central venous pressure are expected. the client usually expresses immediate relief. Heart sounds are no longer muffled or distant.

718. A client with angina complains that the anginal pain is prolonged and severe and occurs at the same time each day, most often at rest in the absence of precipitating factors. How would the nurse BEST describe this type of anginal pain? 1. Stable angina 2. Variant angina 3. Unstable angina 4. Nonanginal pain

2. Variant angina Rationale: Variant angina, or Prinzmetal's angina, is prolonged and severe and occurs at the same time each day, most often at rest. Stable angina is induced by exercise and relieved by rest or nitroglycerin tablets. Unstable angina occurs at lower levels of activity or at rest, is less predictable, and is often a precursor of myocardial infarction.

717. The nurse is caring for a client who had a resection of an abdominal aortic aneurysm yesterday. The client has an intravenous infusion at a rate of 150ml/hr, unchanged for the last 10hrs. The client's urine output for the last 3hrs has been 90, 50, and 28 ml (28ml most recent). The client's blood urea nitrogen level is 35mg/dl and the serum creatinine level is 1.8mg/dl, measured this morning. Which nursing action is the PRIORITY? 1. Check the urine specific gravity 2. Call the health care provider 3. Check to see if the client has a sample for a serum albumin level drawn 4. Put the intravenous line on a pump so that the infusion rate is sure to stay stable

2. Call the health care provider Rationale: Following abnormal aortic aneurysm resection or repair, the nurse monitors the client for signs of acute kidney injury. Acute kidney injury can occur because often much blood is lost during the surgery and, depending on the aneurysm location, the renal arteries may be hypoperfused for a short period during the surgery. Options 1 and 3 are not associated with the data in the question. The IV should have already been on a pump. Urine output lower than 30ml/hr is reported to the HCP.

700. A client with myocardial infarction is developing cardiogenic shock. Because of the risk of myocardial ischemia, what condition should the nurse carefully assess the client for? 1. Bradycardia 2. Ventricular dysrhythmias 3. Rising diastolic BP 4. Falling central venous pressure

2. Ventricular dysrhythmias Rationale: Classic signs of cardiogenic shock as they relate to myocardial ischemia include low blood pressure and tachycardia. The central venous pressure would rise as the backward effects of the severe left ventricular failure became apparent. Dysrhythmias commonly occur as a result of decreased oxygenation and severe damage to greater than 40% of the myocardium.

705. A client has frequent bursts of ventricular tachycardia on the cardiac monitor. What should the nurse be MOST concerned about with this dysrhythmia? 1. It can develop into ventricular fibrillation at any time 2. It is almost impossible to convert to a normal rhythm 3. It is uncomfortable for the client, giving a sense of impending doom 4. it produces a high cardiac output that quickly leads to cerebral and myocardial ischemia

1. It can develop into ventricular fibrillation at any time Rationale: Ventricular tachycardia is a life-threatening dysrhythmia that results from an irritable ectopic focus that takes over as the pacemaker for the heart. The low cardiac output that results can lead quicly to cerebral and myocardial ischemia. Clients frequently experience a feeling of impending doom. Ventricular tachycardia is treated with antidysrhthmic medications, cardioversion (if client is awake), or defibrillation (loss of consciousness). Ventricular tachycardia can deteriorate into ventricular fibrillation at any time.