Chapter 65-66

A patient is scheduled for a CT with iodinated contrast medium. Which medication is discontinued 24 hours before the procedure and for at least 48 hours until kidney function has been reevaluated? a. Glucophage (Metformin) b. Morphine (MS Contin) c. Furosemide (Lasix) d. Oral acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)

a

Impairment in the thirst mechanisms associated with aging makes an older adult patient more vulnerable to which disorder? a. Hypernatremia b. Hypocalcemia c. Hyperkalemia d. Hypoglycemia

a

Limiting fluid intake would have what effect on urine? a. Increases the concentration of urine b. Makes the urine less irritating c. Decreases the risk for urine infection d. decreases the pH of urine

a

Mastering voluntary micturtition is a normal developmental task for which person? a. a healthy 20-month-old toddler b. a 56-year-old women with stress incontinence c. a healthy 8-year-old child d. a 25-year-old with a spinal cord injury

a

The nurse hears in report that the patient is having renal colic pain. Whne performing the physical assessment of this patient during a severe pain episode, what additional sign/symptoms may the nurse expect to observe? a. Diaphoresis b. Redness over the flank c. Jaundice d. Bruit in the renal artery

a

The nurse is assessing a patient for bladder distention. What technique does the nurse use? a. Gently palpate for the outline of the bladder, percuss the lower abdomen, continue toward the umbilicus until dull sounds are no longer produced b. gently palpate for the outline of the bladder, auscultate for sounds in the lower abdomen c. Place one hand under the back and palpate with the other hand over the bladder, percuss the lower abdomen until tympanic sounds are no longer produced. d. Use the hand to depress the bladder as the patient takes a deep breath, then percuss

a

The nurse is reviewing the results of a patient ultrasound of the kidney. The report reveals an enlarged kidney which suggests which possible problem? a. Polycystic kidney b. Kdienyinfection c. Renal carcinoma d. Chronic kidney disease

a

What does the BUN test measure? a. Kidney excretion of urea nitrogen b. Urine osmolality c. Creatinine clearance d. Urine utput

a

Which patient is most likely to have a decreased calcium level? a. Patients with kidney disease b. Patients with cystitis c. Patients with a Foley catheter d. Patients with urinary retention

a

Which patient is most likely to produce urine with a specific gravity of less than 1.005? a. Takes diuretic medication everyday b. Has dehydration secondary to vomiting c. Is hypovolemic due to blood loss d. Has syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic horome

a

Which renal change associated with aging does the nurse expect an older adult patient to report a. Nocturanl polyuria b. Micturition c. Hematuria d. Dysuria

a

Which urine characteristic listed on a urinalysis report arouses the nurses suspicion of a problem in the urinary tract? a. Cloudiness b. Straw color c. Ammonia odor d. One cast per high-powered field

a

The nurse is taking a history on a 55-year-old patient who denies any serious chronic health problems Which sudden onset sign/symptoms suggests possible kidney disease in this patient? a. Weakness b. Hypertension c. Confusion d. Dysrhythmia

b

The nurse is teaching a patient scheduled for an ultrasonography. What preprocedural instruction does the nurse give the patient? a. void just before the test begins b. drink water to fill the bladder c. stop routine medications d have nothing to eat or drink after midnight

b

The nurse is teaching a client who is scheduled for a neobladder and a Kock pouch. Which client statement indicates a correct understanding of these procedures?

"I will have to drain my pouch with a catheter." For the client with a neobladder and a Kock pouch, urine is collected in a pouch and is drained with the use of a catheter.

Which patients narrative describes the symptoms of dysuria? a. "I have to pee all the time." b. "I have to wait before the pee starts." c. "It burns when I pee." d. "It feels like I am going to pee in my pants."

c

After teaching a client with bacterial cystitis who is prescribed phenazopyridine (Pyridium), the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching?

"An orange color in my urine should not alarm me." Phenazopyridine discolors urine, most commonly to a deep reddish orange. Many clients think they have blood in their urine when they see this. In addition, the urine can permanently stain clothing

A nurse assesses a client who presents with renal calculi. Which question should the nurse ask?

"Do any of your family members have this problem?" There is a strong association between family history and stone formation and recurrence. Nephrolithiasis is associated with many genetic variations; therefore, the nurse should ask whether other family members have also had renal stones.

The nurse is educating a female client about hygiene measures to reduce her risk for urinary tract infection. What does the nurse instruct the client to do?

"Wipe from front to back." Wiping front to back keeps organisms in the stool from coming close to the urethra, which increases the risk for infection.

A nurse teaches a client about self-catheterization in the home setting. Which statements should the nurse include in this client's teaching? (Select all that apply.)

- "Wash your hands before and after self-catheterization." - "Use lubricant on the tip of the catheter before insertion." - "Maintain a specific schedule for catheterization." The key points in self-catheterization include washing hands, using lubricants, and maintaining a regular schedule to avoid distention and retention of urine that leads to bacterial growth. A smaller rather than a larger lumen catheter is preferred. The client needs to catheterize more often than every 12 hours.

A nurse teaches a female client who has stress incontinence. Which statements should the nurse include about pelvic muscle exercises? (Select all that apply.)

- "When you start and stop your urine stream, you are using your pelvic muscles." - "Tighten your pelvic muscles for a slow count of 10 and then relax for a slow count of 10." - "Like any other muscle in your body, you can make your pelvic muscles stronger by contracting them." The client should be taught that the muscles used to start and stop urination are pelvic muscles, and that pelvic muscles can be strengthened by contracting and relaxing them.

For which hospitalized client does the nurse recommend the ongoing use of a urinary catheter?

56-year-old woman who is admitted with a vaginal-rectal fistula and diabetes Rationale: This client has a wound that can be irritated by urine and whose urinary tract could become infected by the draining fistula (her diabetes increases her overall risk for infection).

The advanced-practice nurse is performing a digital rectal examination (DRE) and notes that the rectal sphincter contracts on digital insertion. How does the nurse interpret this finding? a. Nerve supply to the bladder is most likely intact. b. There is adequate strength in the pelvic floor. c. A rectocele is placing pressure on the bladder. d. Abnormal function for the bladder is unlikely.

A

The nurse is questioning a female client with a urinary tract infection (UTI) about her antibiotic drug regimen. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instruction? A "I take my medication only when I have symptoms." B "I always wipe front to back." C "I don't use bubble baths and other scented bath products." D "I try to drink 3 liters of fluid a day."

A "I take my medication only when I have symptoms." Clients with UTIs must complete all prescribed antibiotic therapy, even when symptoms of infection are absent. Wiping front to back helps prevent UTIs because it prevents infection-causing microorganisms in the stool from getting near the urethra. Limiting bubble baths and drinking 3 liters of fluid a day help prevent UTIs.

Based on the nurses knowledge of the normal function of the kidney, which large particles are not found in the urine because they are too large to filter through the glomerular capillary walls? (SATA) a. Blood cells b. Albumin c. Other proteins d. Electrolytes e. Water

Abc

A nurse cares for a client who has kidney stones from secondary hyperoxaluria. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering?

Allopurinol (Zyloprim) Stones caused by secondary hyperoxaluria respond to allopurinol (Zyloprim).

A nurse assesses clients on the medical-surgical unit. Which client is at greatest risk for bladder cancer?

An 86-year-old male with a 50-pack-year cigarette smoking history The greatest risk factor for bladder cancer is a long history of tobacco use.

For a patient who needs an indwelling catheter for at least 2 weeks, which intervention would help reduce the bacterial colonization along the catheter? a. Secure the catheter to the female patient's thigh. b. Consider the use of a coated catheter. c. Wash the urine bag and outflow tube every day. d. Apply antiseptic ointment to the catheter tubing.

B - Consider the use of a coated catheter.

A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy for renal calculi. The nurse notes an ecchymotic area on the client's right lower back. Which action should the nurse take?

Apply an ice pack to the site. The shock waves from lithotripsy can cause bleeding into the tissues through which the waves pass. Application of ice can reduce the extent and discomfort of the bruising.

A male college student comes to the clinic reporting burning or difficulty with urination and a discharge from the urethral meatus. Based on the patient's chief complaint, what is the most logical question for the nurse to ask about the patient's past medical history? a. "Do you have a history of a narrow urethra or a stricture?" b. "Could you have been exposed to a sexually transmitted disease (STD)?" c. "Do you have a history of kidney stones?" d. "Have you been drinking an adequate amount of fluids?"

B - "Could you have been exposed to a sexually transmitted disease (STD)?"

A client is admitted for extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy (ESWL). What information obtained on admission is most critical for a nurse to report to the health care provider before the ESWL procedure begins? A. "Blood in my urine has become less noticeable, so maybe I don't need this procedure." B. "I have been taking cephalexin (Keflex) for an infection." C. "I previously had several ESWL procedures performed." D. "I take over-the-counter naproxen (Aleve) twice a day for joint pain."

D. "I take over-the-counter naproxen (Aleve) twice a day for joint pain." Because a high risk for bleeding during ESWL has been noted, clients should not take nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs before this procedure; the ESWL will have to be rescheduled for this client. Blood in the client's urine should be reported to the health care provider, but will not require rescheduling of the procedure because blood is frequently present in the client's urine when kidney stones are present. A diminished amount of blood would not eliminate the need for the procedure. The client's taking cephalexin (Keflex) and the fact that the client has had several previous ESWL procedures should be reported, but will not require rescheduling of the procedure.

A client in the community health clinic is prescribed trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole for cystitis. She reports that she developed hives to "something called Septra." What is the nurse's best action?

Notify the prescriber immediately. Rationale: Septra is a brand name for TMP-SMX, a sulfa-based antibiotic with multiple brand names. The provider needs the allergy information in order to substitute another effective antibiotic.

the nurse is taking a history on a patient with a change in urinary patterns. in additon to medical and surgical history, what does the nurse ask the patient about to complete the assessment? (SATA) a. Occupation exposure to toxins b. Use of illicit substances, such as cocaine c. Financial resources for payment of treatments d. Likelihood of complying with treatment recommendations e. Recent travel to geographic regions that pose infectious disease risks

abe

A patient had a renal scan. What is included in the postprocedural care for this patient? a. Administer laxatives to cleanse the bowel b. Encourage oral fluids to assist excretion of isotope c. Administer captopril (Capoten) to increase blood flow d. Insert a urinary catheter to measure urine output

b

The nurse is assessing a patient with a chronic kidney problem. The nurse notes that the patient has pedal edema and periorbital edema. What additional assessments will the nurse make to assess for fluid overload? (SATA) a. Obtain a urine specimen b. Compare current blood pressure to baseline c. Measure the residual urine with a bladder scanner d. Weigh the patient and compare to baseline e. Auscultate lung fields to determine if fluid is present

bde

A patient has a urinalysis ordered. When is the best time for the nurse to collect the specimen? a. In the evening b. After a meal c. In the morning d. After a fluid bolus

c

A healthy female patient has no physical symptoms, but urinalysis results reveal a protein level of >0.8 mg/dL and a white blood cell count of 4 per high-powered field. What question would the nurse ask the patient in order to assist the health care provider to correctly interpreting the urinalysis results? a. "Have you ever been treated for a urinary tract infection?" b. "Do you have a family history of cardiac or biliary disease?" c. "Are you sexually active and if so, do you use condoms?" d. "Have you recently performed any strenuous exercise?"

d

A patient is scheduled for retrograde urethrography. Postprocedural care is similar to postprocedural care given for which test? a. Ultrasonography b. Computed tomography c. Renal angiogram d. Cystoscopy

d

A client has returned from a captopril renal scan. Which teaching does the nurse provide when the client returns? "Arise slowly and call for assistance when ambulating." "I must measure your intake and output." "We must save your urine because it is radioactive." "I must attach you to this cardiac monitor."

"Arise slowly and call for assistance when ambulating." Captopril can cause severe hypotension during and after the procedure, so the client should be warned to avoid rapid position changes and about the risk for falling as a result of orthostatic (positional) hypotension. Intake and output measurement is not necessary after this procedure, unless it had been requested previously. A small amount of radionuclide is used in a renal scan; the urine is not radioactive, although the nurse should practice Standard Precautions, as always, and wear gloves. Cardiac monitoring is not needed, although the nurse should monitor for hypotension secondary to captopril.

The client passes a urinary stone that laboratory analysis indicates is composed of calcium oxalate. Based on this analysis, which instruction does the nurse specifically include for dietary prevention of the problem?

"Avoid dark green leafy vegetables such as spinach." Rationale: Calcium oxalate stones form more easily in the presence of oxalate. Sources of oxalate include spinach, black tea, and rhubarb. Avoiding these sources of oxalate may reduce the number of stones formed.

A nurse teaches a client with functional urinary incontinence. Which statement should the nurse include in this client's teaching?

"Buy slacks with elastic waistbands that are easy to pull down." Functional urinary incontinence occurs as the result of problems not related to the client's bladder, such as trouble ambulating or difficulty accessing the toilet. One goal is that the client will be able to manage his or her clothing independently. Elastic waistband slacks that are easy to pull down can help the client get on the toilet in time to void.

A confused client with pneumonia is admitted with an indwelling catheter in place. During interdisciplinary rounds the following day, which question should the nurse ask the primary health care provider?

"Can we discontinue the indwelling catheter?" An indwelling catheter dramatically increases the risks of urinary tract infection and urosepsis. Nursing staff should ensure that catheters are left in place only as long as they are medically needed. The nurse should inquire about removing the catheter.

A male client being treated for bladder cancer has a live virus compound instilled into his bladder as a treatment. What instruction does the nurse provide for postprocedure home care?

"Do not share your toilet with family members for the next 24 hours." The toilet should not be shared for 24 hours following this procedure because others using the toilet could be infected with the live virus that was instilled into the client. If only one toilet is available in the household, teach the client to flush the toilet after use and to follow this by adding 1 cup of undiluted bleach to the bowl water.

Which instruction does the nurse give a client who needs a clean-catch urine specimen? "Save all urine for 24 hours." "Use the sponges to cleanse the urethra, and then initiate voiding directly into the cup." "Do not touch the inside of the container." "You will receive an isotope injection, then I will collect your urine."

"Do not touch the inside of the container." A clean-catch specimen is used to obtain urine for culture and sensitivity of organisms present; contamination by the client's hands will render the specimen invalid and alter results. Saving urine for 24 hours is not necessary for a midstream clean-catch urine specimen. After cleaning, the client should initiate voiding into the commode, then stop and resume voiding into the container. Only 1 ounce (30 mL) is needed; the remainder of the urine may be discarded into the commode. A midstream collection further removes secretions and bacteria because urine flushes the distal portion of the internal urethra. A clean-catch specimen for culture does not require an injection of isotope, simply cleansing of the perineum.

A nurse obtains the health history of a client with a suspected diagnosis of bladder cancer. Which question should the nurse ask when determining this client's risk factors?

"Do you smoke cigarettes?" Smoking is known to be a factor that greatly increases the risk of bladder cancer.

An older adult woman who reports a change in bladder function says, "I feel like a child who sometimes pees her pants." What is the nurse's best response? "Have you tried using the toilet at least every couple of hours?" "How does that make you feel?" "We can fix that." "That happens when we get older."

"Have you tried using the toilet at least every couple of hours?"By emptying the bladder on a regular basis, urinary incontinence from overflow may be avoided, which may give the client some sense of control. The client has already stated how she feels; asking her again how she feels does not address her concern nor does it allow for nursing education. The nurse cannot assert that the problem can be fixed because this may be untrue. Suggesting that the problem occurs as we get older does not address the client's concern and does not provide for nursing education.

A nurse cares for a client with urinary incontinence. The client states, "I am so embarrassed. My bladder leaks like a young child's bladder." How should the nurse respond?

"I can teach you strategies to help control your incontinence." The nurse should accept and acknowledge the client's concerns, and assist the client to learn techniques that will allow control of urinary incontinence. The nurse should not diminish the client's concerns with the use of pads or stating statistics about the occurrence of incontinence.

The nurse educates a group of women who have had frequent urinary tract infections (UTIs) about how to avoid recurrences. Which client statement shows a correct understanding of what the nurse has taught?

"I should be drinking at least 1.5 to 2.5 liters of fluids every day." To reduce the number of UTIs, clients should be drinking a minimum of 1.5 to 2.5 liters of fluid (mostly water) each day.

A nurse cares for a postmenopausal client who has had two episodes of bacterial urethritis in the last 6 months. The client asks, "I never have urinary tract infections. Why is this happening now?" How should the nurse respond?

"Low estrogen levels can make the tissue more susceptible to infection." Low estrogen levels decrease moisture and secretions in the perineal area and cause other tissue changes, predisposing it to the development of infection.

The nurse is instructing an older adult female client about interventions to decrease the risk for cystitis. Which client comment indicates that the teaching was effective?

"I should drink 2½ liters of fluid every day." Drinking 2½ liters of fluid a day flushes out the urinary system and helps reduce the risk for cystitis.

After teaching a client with a history of renal calculi, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching?

"I should drink at least 3 liters of fluid every day." Dehydration contributes to the precipitation of minerals to form a stone. Although increased intake of calcium causes hypercalcemia and leads to excessive calcium filtered into the urine, if the client is well hydrated the calcium will be excreted without issues. Dehydration increases the risk for supersaturation of calcium in the urine, which contributes to stone formation. The nurse should encourage the client to drink more fluids, not decrease calcium intake.

The nurse is questioning a female client with a urinary tract infection (UTI) about her antibiotic drug regimen. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instruction?

"I take my medication only when I have symptoms." Clients with UTIs must complete all prescribed antibiotic therapy, even when symptoms of infection are absent.

A client is admitted for extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy (ESWL). What information obtained on admission is most critical for a nurse to report to the health care provider before the ESWL procedure begins?

"I take over-the-counter naproxen (Aleve) twice a day for joint pain." Because a high risk for bleeding during ESWL has been noted, clients should not take nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs before this procedure; the ESWL will have to be rescheduled for this client.

After teaching a client who has stress incontinence, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for additional teaching?

"I will limit my total intake of fluids." Limiting fluids concentrates urine and can irritate tissues, leading to increased incontinence. Many people try to manage incontinence by limiting fluids. Alcoholic and caffeinated beverages are bladder stimulants. Obesity increases intra-abdominal pressure, causing incontinence.

The nurse is teaching the importance of a low purine diet to a client admitted with urolithiasis consisting of uric acid. Which statement by the client indicates that teaching was effective?

"I will no longer be able to have red wine with my dinner." Nutrition therapy depends on the type of stone formed. When stones consist of uric acid (urate), the client should decrease intake of purine sources such as organ meats, poultry, fish, gravies, red wines, and sardines. Reduction of urinary purine content may help prevent these stones from forming.

The nurse is teaching a client how to provide a clean-catch urine specimen. Which statement by the client indicates that teaching was effective? "I must clean with the wipes and then urinate directly into the cup." "I will have to drink 2 liters of fluid before providing the sample." "I'll start to urinate in the toilet, stop, and then urinate into the cup." "It is best to provide the sample while I am bathing."

"I'll start to urinate in the toilet, stop, and then urinate into the cup."To provide a clean-catch urine sample, the client should initiate voiding, then stop, then resume voiding into the container. A midstream collection further removes secretions and bacteria because urine flushes the distal portion of the internal urethra. Although cleaning with wipes before providing a clean-catch urine sample is proper procedure, a step is missing. It is not necessary to drink 2 liters of fluid before providing a clean-catch urine sample. Providing a clean-catch urine sample does not involve bathing.

A nurse provides phone triage to a pregnant client. The client states, "I am experiencing a burning pain when I urinate." How should the nurse respond?

"Make an appointment with your provider to have your infection treated." Pregnant clients with a urinary tract infection require prompt and aggressive treatment because cystitis can lead to acute pyelonephritis during pregnancy. The nurse should encourage the client to make an appointment and have the infection treated.

A client who was previously diagnosed with a urinary tract infection (UTI) and started on antibiotics returns to the clinic 3 days later with the same symptoms. When asked about the previous UTI and medication regimen, the client states, "I only took the first dose because after that, I felt better." How does the nurse respond?

"Not completing your medication can lead to return of your infection." Not completing the drug regimen can lead to recurrence of an infection and bacterial drug resistance. Needing to be re-treated does not mean that the client will have a prolonged treatment regimen. Some treatment modalities are given over a 3-day period. Given this client's history, larger doses for a shorter time span may be a wise plan.

An older adult woman confides to the nurse, "I am so embarrassed about buying adult diapers for myself." How does the nurse respond?

"That is tough. What do you think might help?" Stating that the situation is tough acknowledges the client's concerns, and asking the client to think about what might help assists the client to think of methods to solve her problem.

A 53-year-old postmenopausal woman reports "leaking urine" when she laughs, and is diagnosed with stress incontinence. What does the nurse tell the client about how certain drugs may be able to help with her stress incontinence?

"They may be used to improve urethral resistance." Bladder pressure is greater than urethral resistance; drugs may be used to improve urethral resistance.

A nurse teaches a client who is starting urinary bladder training. Which statement should the nurse include in this client's teaching?

"Try to consciously hold your urine until the scheduled toileting time." The client should try to hold the urine consciously until the next scheduled toileting time. Toileting should occur at specific intervals during the training. The toileting interval should be no less than every hour. The interval can be increased once the client becomes comfortable with the interval.

A nurse teaches a young female client who is prescribed amoxicillin (Amoxil) for a urinary tract infection. Which statement should the nurse include in this client's teaching?

"Use a second form of birth control while on this medication." The client should use a second form of birth control because penicillin seems to reduce the effectiveness of estrogen-containing contraceptives. She should not experience increased menstrual bleeding, an irregular heartbeat, or blood in her urine while taking the medication.

An emergency department nurse assesses a client with a history of urinary incontinence who presents with extreme dry mouth, constipation, and an inability to void. Which question should the nurse ask first?

"What medications are you taking?" Some types of incontinence are treated with anticholinergic medications such as propantheline (Pro-Banthine). Anticholinergic side effects include dry mouth, constipation, and urinary retention. The nurse needs to assess the client's medication list to determine whether the client is taking an anticholinergic medication

A nurse cares for a client who is scheduled for the surgical creation of an ileal conduit. The client states, "I am anxious about having an ileal conduit. What is it like to have this drainage tube?" How should the nurse respond?

"Would you like to speak with someone who has an ileal conduit?" The goal for the client who is scheduled to undergo a procedure such as an ileal conduit is to have a positive self-image and a positive attitude about his or her body. Discussing the procedure candidly with someone who has undergone the same procedure will foster such feelings, especially when the current client has an opportunity to ask questions and voice concerns to someone with first-hand knowledge.

The nurse is teaching a client about pelvic muscle exercises. What information does the nurse include?

"You know that you are exercising correct muscles if you can stop urine flow in midstream." When the client can start and stop the urine stream, the pelvic muscles are being used. Pelvic muscle exercises can be performed anywhere and should be performed more often than 5 minutes twice daily. Noticeable results take several weeks.

The health care provider requests phenazopyridine (Pyridium) for a client with cystitis. What does the nurse tell the client about the drug?

"Your urine will turn red or orange while on the drug." Phenazopyridine will turn the client's urine red or orange. Clients should be warned about this effect of the drug because it will be alarming to them if they are not informed, and care should be taken because it will stain undergarments.

A nurse teaches a client about self-care after experiencing a urinary calculus treated by lithotripsy. Which statements should the nurse include in this client's discharge teaching? (Select all that apply.)

- "Finish the prescribed antibiotic even if you are feeling better." - "Drink at least 3 liters of fluid each day." - "The bruising on your back may take several weeks to resolve." The client should be taught to finish the prescribed antibiotic to ensure that he or she does not get a urinary tract infection. The client should drink at least 3 liters of fluid daily to dilute potential stone-forming crystals, prevent dehydration, and promote urine flow. After lithotripsy, the client should expect bruising that may take several weeks to resolve.

A nurse assesses a client who has had two episodes of bacterial cystitis in the last 6 months. Which questions should the nurse ask? (Select all that apply.)

- "How much water do you drink every day?" - "Do you take estrogen replacement therapy?" -. "Are you on steroids or other immune-suppressing drugs?" Fluid intake, estrogen levels, and immune suppression all can increase the chance of recurrent cystitis.

A nurse teaches a client with a history of calcium phosphate urinary stones. Which statements should the nurse include in this client's dietary teaching? (Select all that apply.)

- "Limit your intake of food high in animal protein." - "Read food labels to help minimize your sodium intake." - "Reduce your intake of milk and other dairy products." Clients with calcium phosphate urinary stones should be taught to limit the intake of foods high in animal protein, sodium, and calcium.

A nurse teaches clients about the difference between urge incontinence and stress incontinence. Which statements should the nurse include in this education? (Select all that apply.)

- "Stress incontinence occurs due to weak pelvic floor muscles." - "Urge incontinence occurs due to abnormal bladder contractions." Clients who suffer from stress incontinence have weak pelvic floor muscles or urethral sphincter and cannot tighten their urethra sufficiently to overcome the increased detrusor pressure. Stress incontinence is common after childbirth, when the pelvic muscles are stretched and weakened from pregnancy and delivery. Urge incontinence occurs in people who cannot suppress the contraction signal from the detrusor muscle.

Which clients with long-term urinary problems does the nurse refer to community resources and support groups?

- A 32-year-old with a cystectomy - A 44-year-old with a Kock pouch - A 78-year-old with urinary incontinence

A nurse assesses a client with a fungal urinary tract infection (UTI). Which assessments should the nurse complete? (Select all that apply.)

- Assess the medical history and current medical problems. - Obtain a current list of medications. Clients who are severely immunocompromised or who have diabetes mellitus are more prone to fungal UTIs. The nurse should assess for these factors by asking about medical history, current medical problems, and the current medication list.

A client with a urinary tract infection is prescribed trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim). What information does the nurse provide to this client about taking this drug?

- Be certain to wear sunscreen and protective clothing - Drink at least 3 liters of fluids every day - Take this drug with 8 ounces of water - You will need to take all of this drug to get the benefits

An older adult client diagnosed with stress incontinence is prescribed the medication oxybutynin (Ditropan). Which side effects does the nurse tell the client to expect?

- Dry mouth - Increased intraocular pressure - Constipation

The nurse is teaching a group of older adult women about the signs and symptoms of urinary tract infection (UTI). Which concepts does the nurse explain in the presentation?

- Dysuria - Frequency - Nocturia - Urgency

A client diagnosed with stress incontinence is started on propantheline (Pro-Banthine). What interventions does the nurse suggest to alleviate the side effects of this anticholinergic drug?

- Encourage increased fluids - Increase fiber intake - Use hard candy for dry mouth

Which interventions are helpful in preventing bladder cancer?

- Showering after working with or around chemicals - Stopping the use of tobacco - Wearing gloves and a mask when working around chemicals and fumes

A nurse cares for clients with urinary incontinence. Which types of incontinence are correctly paired with their clinical manifestation? (Select all that apply.)

- Stress incontinence - Urine loss with physical exertion - Urge incontinence - Large amount of urine with each occurrence -. Overflow incontinence - Constant dribbling of urine Stress incontinence is a loss of urine with physical exertion, coughing, sneezing, or exercising. Urge incontinence presents with an abrupt and strong urge to void and usually has a large amount of urine released with each occurrence. Overflow incontinence occurs with bladder distention and results in a constant dribbling of urine.

Which clients with an indwelling urinary catheter does the nurse reassess to determine whether the catheterization needs to be continued or can be discontinued?

- Three-day postoperative client - Client in the stepdown unit - Incontinent older adult in long-term care

The nurse in the urology clinic is providing teaching for a female client with cystitis. Which instructions does the nurse include in the teaching plan?

- Try to take in 64 ounces of fluid each day. - Be sure to complete the full course of antibiotics - If urine remains cloudy, call the clinic

What information will the nurse provide to a client who is scheduled for extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy?

- Your urine will be strained after the procedure - Be sure to finish all of your antibiotics - Remember to drink at least 3 liters of fluid a day to promote urine flow

A client who was previously diagnosed with a urinary tract infection (UTI) and started on antibiotics returns to the clinic 3 days later with the same symptoms. When asked about the previous UTI and medication regimen, the client states, "I only took the first dose because after that, I felt better." How does the nurse respond? A "Not completing your medication can lead to return of your infection." B "That means your treatment will be prolonged with this new infection." C "This means you will now have to take two drugs instead of one." D "What you did was okay; however, let's get you started on something else."

A "Not completing your medication can lead to return of your infection." Not completing the drug regimen can lead to recurrence of an infection and bacterial drug resistance. Needing to be re-treated does not mean that the client will have a prolonged treatment regimen. Some treatment modalities are given over a 3-day period. Given this client's history, larger doses for a shorter time span may be a wise plan. The client does not need to take two drugs, and this response is punitive rather than instructive. Saying that the client's actions were okay does not inform the client with respect to nonadherence. The client needed to take all the prescribed medication to make certain that the infection was properly treated.

A young woman tells the nurse that she gets frequent UTIs that seem to follow sexual intercourse. Which questions would the nurse ask? (Select all that apply.) a. "Do you use a diaphragm or spermicides for contraception?" b. "Do you feel guilty or embarrassed about your sexual activities?" c. "Have you considered abstaining from intercourse?" d. "Do you and your partner(s) wash the perineal area before intercourse?" e. "Some positions cause more irritation during sex. Have you noticed this?"

A - "Do you use a diaphragm or spermicides for contraception?" D - "Do you and your partner(s) wash the perineal area before intercourse?" E - "Some positions cause more irritation during sex. Have you noticed this?"

The nurse is teaching a patient about self-care measures to prevent UTIs. Which daily fluid intake does the nurse recommend to the patient to prevent a bladder infection? a. 2 to 3 L of water b. 3 to 6 glasses of iced tea c. 4 to 6 cups of electrolyte fluid d. 3 to 4 glasses of juice

A - 2 to 3 L of water

Teaching intermittent self-catheterization for incontinence is appropriate for which patient? a. 25-year-old male patient with paraplegia b. 35-year-old female patient with stress incontinence c. 70-year-old patient who wears absorbent briefs d. 18-year-old patient with a severe head injury

A - 25-year-old male patient with paraplegia

Which patient is mostly likely to have mixed incontinence? a. 54-year-old woman who had four full-term pregnancies b. 52-year-old man who had a stroke with neurologic deficits c. 76-year-old man with benign prostatic hyperplasia d. 25-year-old woman who has a pelvic fracture

A - 54-year-old woman who had four full-term pregnancies

The nurse is caring for a patient with an indwelling catheter. What intervention does the nurse use to minimize catheter-related infections? a. Assess the patient daily to determine need for catheter. b. Irrigate the catheter daily with sterile solution to remove debris. c. Use sterile technique when opening system to obtain urine samples. d. Apply antiseptic solutions or antibiotic ointments to the perineal area.

A - Assess the patient daily to determine need for catheter.

The nurse is teaching a woman how to prevent UTIs. What information does the nurse include? a. Clean the perineal area from front to back. b. Always use a condom if spermicides are used for contraception. c. Obtain prescription for oral estrogen for vaginal dryness. d. Avoid urinary stasis by urinating every 6 to 8 hours.

A - Clean the perineal area from front to back.

Patients who have central nervous system lesions from stroke, multiple sclerosis, or parasacral spinal cord lesions may have which type of urinary incontinence? a. Detrusor hyperreflexia b. Mixed c. Stress d. Functional

A - Detrusor hyperreflexia

A patient is diagnosed with a urethral stricture. The nurse prepares the patient for which temporary treatment? a. Dilation of the urethra b. Antibiotic therapy c. Fluid restriction d. Urinary diversion

A - Dilation of the urethra

The nurse is counseling a patient with recurrent symptomatic UTIs about dietary therapy. What information does the nurse give to the patient? a. Drink 50 mL of concentrated cranberry juice every day. b. Low consumption of protein may prevent recurrent UTIs. c. Caffeine, carbonated beverages, and tomato products cause UTI. d. Cranberry tablets are more effective than juice or fluids.

A - Drink 50 mL of concentrated cranberry juice every day.

The urine output of a patient with a kidney stone has decreased from 40 mL/hr to 5 mL/hr. What is the nurse's priority action? a. Ensure IV access and notify the health care provider. b. Perform the Credé maneuver on the patient's bladder. c. Test the urine for ketone bodies. d. Document the finding and continue monitoring.

A - Ensure IV access and notify the health care provider.

The nurse is teaching self-care measures to a patient who had lithotripsy for kidney stones. What information does the nurse include? (Select all that apply.) a. Finish the entire prescription of antibiotics to prevent UTIs. b. Balance regular exercise with sleep and rest. c. Drink at least 3 L of fluid a day. d. Watch for and immediately report bruising after lithotripsy. e. Urine may be bloody for several days. f. Pain in the region of the kidneys or bladder is expected.

A - Finish the entire prescription of antibiotics to prevent UTIs. B - Balance regular exercise with sleep and rest. C - Drink at least 3 L of fluid a day. E - Urine may be bloody for several days.

A patient's recurrent cystitis appears to be related to sexual intercourse. The patient seems uncomfortable talking about the situation. What communication technique does the nurse use to assist the patient? a. Have a frank and sensitive discussion with the patient. b. Give the patient reading material with instructions to call with any questions. c. Call the patient's partner and invite the partner to discuss the problem. d. Talk about other topics until the patient feels more comfortable disclosing.

A - Have a frank and sensitive discussion with the patient.

A patient reports intense urgency, frequency, and bladder pain. Urinalysis results show white blood cells (WBCs) and red blood cells (RBCs) and urine culture results are negative for infection. How does the nurse interpret these findings? a. Interstitial cystitis b. Urethritis c. Bacteriuria d. Infectious cystitis

A - Interstitial cystitis

What does the nurse include in the care plan for a patient who had pyelolithotomy? (Select all that apply.) a. Monitor the amount of bleeding from incisions. b. Restrict fluids to prevent edema and fluid overload. c. Strain the urine to monitor the passage of stone fragments. d. Encourage fluids to avoid dehydration and supersaturation. e. Monitor changes in urine output. f. Administer antibiotics to eliminate or prevent infections.

A - Monitor the amount of bleeding from incisions. C - Strain the urine to monitor the passage of stone fragments. D - Encourage fluids to avoid dehydration and supersaturation. E - Monitor changes in urine output. F - Administer antibiotics to eliminate or prevent infections.

The home health nurse is assessing an older adult patient who refuses to leave the house to see friends or participate in usual activities. She reports taking a bath several times a day and becomes very upset when she has an incontinent episode. What is the priority problem for this patient? a. Negative self-image b. Stress urinary incontinence c. Social isolation d. Potential for skin breakdown

A - Negative self-image

Which task related to care of patients who have indwelling catheters can be delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Perform daily catheter care by washing the perineum and proximal portion of the catheter with soap and water. b. Use sterile technique when inserting the urinary catheter or when opening the system to obtain urine samples. c. Determine whether use of condom catheters is appropriate for male patients and apply the devices accordingly. d. Keep urine collection bag in a place that is readily visible to the patient, so that the patient is reassured of kidney function.

A - Perform daily catheter care by washing the perineum and proximal portion of the catheter with soap and water.

The health care provider has recommended intermittent self-catheterization for a patient with long-term problems of incomplete bladder emptying. Which information does the nurse give the patient about the procedure? a. Perform proper handwashing and cleaning of the catheter to reduce the risk for infection. b. Use a large-lumen catheter and good lubrication for rapid emptying of the bladder. c. Catheterize yourself whenever the bladder gets distended. d. Use sterile technique, especially if catheterization is done by a family member.

A - Perform proper handwashing and cleaning of the catheter to reduce the risk for infection.

The nurse is reviewing a care plan for a patient who has functional incontinence. There is a note that containment is recommended, especially at night. What is the major concern with this approach? a. Skin integrity b. Cost of care and materials c. Self-esteem of the patient d. Fall risk

A - Skin integrity

A patient returns to the medical-surgical unit after having shock wave lithotripsy (SWL). What is an appropriate nursing intervention for the postprocedural care of this patient? a. Strain the urine to monitor the passage of stone fragments. b. Report bruising that occurs on the flank of the affected side. c. Continuously monitor electrocardiogram (ECG) for dysrhythmias. d. Apply a local anesthetic cream to the skin of the affected side.

A - Strain the urine to monitor the passage of stone fragments.

A middle-aged woman has urinary stress incontinence related to weak pelvic muscles. The patient is highly motivated to participate in self-care. Which interventions does the nurse include in the treatment plan? (Select all that apply.) a. Suggest keeping a detailed diary of urine leakage, activities, and foods eaten. b. Suggest wearing absorbent undergarments during the assessment process. c. Teach pelvic floor (Kegel) exercise therapy. d. Teach about vaginal cone therapy. e. Encourage drinking orange juice every day for 4 to 6 weeks. f. Refer to a nutritionist for diet therapy for weight reduction.

A - Suggest keeping a detailed diary of urine leakage, activities, and foods eaten. B - Suggest wearing absorbent undergarments during the assessment process. C - Teach pelvic floor (Kegel) exercise therapy. D - Teach about vaginal cone therapy. F - Refer to a nutritionist for diet therapy for weight reduction.

The nurse is designing a habit training bladder program for an older adult patient who is alert but mildly confused. What task associated with the training program is delegated to the UAP? a. Tell the patient it is time to go to the toilet and assist him to go on a regular schedule. b. Help the patient record the incidents of incontinence in a bladder diary. c. Change the patient's incontinence pants (or pad) every 4 hours. d. Gradually encourage independence and increase the intervals between voidings.

A - Tell the patient it is time to go to the toilet and assist him to go on a regular schedule.

A patient reports symptoms indicating a UTI. Results from which diagnostic test will verify a UTI? a. Urinalysis to test for leukocyte esterase and nitrate b. Urinalysis for glucose and red blood cells c. Urinalysis to test for ketones and protein d. Urinalysis for pH and specific gravity

A - Urinalysis to test for leukocyte esterase and nitrate

The nurse receives the change-of-shift report on four clients. Which client does the nurse decide to assess first?

A 28-year-old with urolithiasis who has been receiving morphine sulfate and has not voided for 8 hours Anuria may indicate urinary obstruction at the bladder neck or urethra and is an emergency because obstruction can cause acute kidney failure. The client who has been receiving morphine sulfate may be oversedated and may not be aware of any discomfort caused by bladder distention.

Which client does the nurse manager on the medical unit assign to an experienced LPN/LVN?

A 55-year-old with incontinence who has intermittent catheterization prescribed Insertion of catheters is within the education and legal scope of practice for LPN/LVNs.

A nurse assesses clients on the medical-surgical unit. Which client is at greatest risk for the development of bacterial cystitis?

A 58-year-old female who is not taking estrogen replacement Females at any age are more susceptible to cystitis than men because of the shorter urethra in women. Postmenopausal women who are not on hormone replacement therapy are at increased risk for bacterial cystitis because of changes in the cells of the urethra and vagina. The middle-aged woman who has never been pregnant would not have a risk potential as high as the older woman who is not using hormone replacement therapy.

A nurse plans care for clients with urinary incontinence. Which client is correctly paired with the appropriate intervention?

A 58-year-old postmenopausal client who is not taking estrogen therapy - Electrical stimulation Exercise therapy and electrical stimulation are used for clients with stress incontinence related to childbirth or low levels of estrogen after menopause. Exercise therapy increases pelvic wall strength; it does not improve ambulation.

A nurse cares for adult clients who experience urge incontinence. For which client should the nurse plan a habit training program?

A 78-year-old female who is confused For a bladder training program to succeed in a client with urge incontinence, the client must be alert, aware, and able to resist the urge to urinate. Habit training will work best for a confused client. This includes going to the bathroom (or being assisted to the bathroom) at set times.

Which instruction does the nurse give a client who needs a clean-catch urine specimen? "Save all urine for 24 hours." "Use the sponges to cleanse the urethra, and then initiate voiding directly into the cup." "Do not touch the inside of the container." Correct "You will receive an isotope injection, then I will collect your urine."

A clean-catch specimen is used to obtain urine for culture and sensitivity of organisms present; contamination by the client's hands will render the specimen invalid and alter results. Saving urine for 24 hours is not necessary for a midstream clean-catch urine specimen. After cleaning, the client should initiate voiding into the commode, then stop and resume voiding into the container. Only 1 ounce (30 mL) is needed; the remainder of the urine may be discarded into the commode. A midstream collection further removes secretions and bacteria because urine flushes the distal portion of the internal urethra. A clean-catch specimen for culture does not require an injection of isotope, simply cleansing of the perineum.

The nurse has these client assignments. Which client does the nurse encourage to consume 2 to 3 liters of fluid each day? Client with chronic kidney disease Client with heart failure Client with complete bowel obstruction Client with hyperparathyroidism Correct

A major feature of hyperparathyroidism is hypercalcemia, which predisposes a client to kidney stones; this client should remain hydrated. A client with chronic kidney disease should not consume 2 to 3 liters of water because the kidneys are not functioning properly, and this could lead to fluid retention. People with heart failure typically have fluid volume excess. A client with complete bowel obstruction may experience vomiting and should be NPO.

A client with a urinary tract infection is prescribed trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim). What information does the nurse provide to this client about taking this drug? (Select all that apply.) A. "Be certain to wear sunscreen and protective clothing." B. "Drink at least 3 liters of fluids every day." C. "Take this drug with 8 ounces of water." D. "Try to urinate frequently to keep your bladder empty." E. "You will need to take all of this drug to get the benefits."

A. "Be certain to wear sunscreen and protective clothing." B. "Drink at least 3 liters of fluids every day." C. "Take this drug with 8 ounces of water." E. "You will need to take all of this drug to get the benefits." Wearing sunscreen and protective clothing is important while taking trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole. Increased sensitivity to the sun can lead to severe sunburn. Sulfamethoxazole can form crystals that precipitate in the kidney tubules; fluid intake prevents this complication. Clients should be cautioned to take all of the drug that is prescribed for them, even if their symptoms improve or disappear soon. Emptying the bladder is important, but not keeping it empty. The client should be advised to urinate every 3 to 4 hours or more often if he or she feels the urge.

The nurse educates a group of women who have had frequent urinary tract infections (UTIs) about how to avoid recurrences. Which client statement shows a correct understanding of what the nurse has taught? A. "I should be drinking at least 1.5 to 2.5 liters of fluids every day." B. "It is a good idea for me to reduce germs by taking a tub bath daily." C. "Trying to get to the bathroom to urinate every 6 hours is important for me." D. "Urinating 1000 mL on a daily basis is a good amount for me."

A. "I should be drinking at least 1.5 to 2.5 liters of fluids every day." To reduce the number of UTIs, clients should be drinking a minimum of 1.5 to 2.5 liters of fluid (mostly water) each day. Showers, rather than tub baths, are recommended for women who have recurrent UTIs. Urinating every 3 to 4 hours is ideal for reducing the occurrence of UTI. This is advisable rather than waiting until the bladder is full to urinate. Urinary output should be at least 1.5 liters daily. Ensuring this amount "out" is a good indicator that the client is drinking an adequate amount of fluid.

What information will the nurse provide to a client who is scheduled for extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy? (Select all that apply.) A. "Your urine will be strained after the procedure." B. "Be sure to finish all of your antibiotics." C. "Immediately call the health care provider if you notice bruising." D. "Remember to drink at least 3 liters of fluid a day to promote urine flow." E. "You will need to change the incisional dressing once a day."

A. "Your urine will be strained after the procedure." B. "Be sure to finish all of your antibiotics." D. "Remember to drink at least 3 liters of fluid a day to promote urine flow." After lithotripsy, urine is strained to monitor the passage of stone fragments. Clients must finish the entire antibiotic prescription to decrease the risk of developing a urinary tract infection. Drinking at least 3 L of fluid a day dilutes potential stone-forming crystals, prevents dehydration, and promotes urine flow. Bruising on the flank of the affected side is expected after lithotripsy as a result of the shock waves that break the stone into small fragments. The client must notify the health care provider if he or she develops pain, fever, chills, or difficulty with urination because these signs and symptoms may signal the beginning of an infection or the formation of another stone. There is no incision with extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy. There may be a small incision when intracorporeal lithotripsy is performed.

Which clients with long-term urinary problems does the nurse refer to community resources and support groups? (Select all that apply.) A. A 32-year-old with a cystectomy B. A 44-year-old with a Kock pouch C. A 48-year-old with urinary calculi D. A 78-year-old with urinary incontinence E. An 80-year-old with dementia

A. A 32-year-old with a cystectomy B. A 44-year-old with a Kock pouch D. A 78-year-old with urinary incontinence Clients with a cystectomy, Kock pouch, or urinary incontinence would benefit from community resources and support groups. Others who have had their bladders removed are good sources of information and for help in establishing coping mechanisms. They can provide ideas for living with the problem or methods of curing (or minimizing) it. Urinary calculi typically are not a long-term problem that requires community resources and support groups. The older adult client with dementia would not benefit from community resources and support groups because of the client's cognitive difficulties.

A client who is admitted with urolithiasis reports "spasms of intense flank pain, nausea, and severe dizziness." Which intervention does the nurse implement first? A. Administer morphine sulfate 4 mg IV. B. Begin an infusion of metoclopramide (Reglan) 10 mg IV. C. Obtain a urine specimen for urinalysis. D. Start an infusion of 0.9% normal saline at 100 mL/hr.

A. Administer morphine sulfate 4 mg IV. Morphine administered intravenously will decrease the pain and the associated sympathetic nervous system reactions of nausea and hypotension. An infusion of metoclopramide (Reglan) 10 mg IV should be begun after the client's pain is controlled. A urine specimen for urinalysis should be obtained and an infusion of 0.9% normal saline at 100 mL/hr should be started after the client's pain is controlled.

An older adult client diagnosed with stress incontinence is prescribed the medication oxybutynin (Ditropan). Which side effects does the nurse tell the client to expect? (Select all that apply.) A. Dry mouth B. Increased blood pressure C. Increased intraocular pressure D. Constipation E. Reddish-orange urine color

A. Dry mouth C. Increased intraocular pressure D. Constipation Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic/antispasmodic. Side effects include dry mouth, urinary retention, constipation, and risk for increased intraocular pressure with the potential to make glaucoma worse. Alpha-adrenergic agonists and beta blockers, which may be prescribed for urinary incontinence, may cause an increase in blood pressure. Phenazopyridine, a bladder analgesic used to decrease urinary pain, causes the urine to be a reddish-orange color.

The nurse is teaching a group of older adult women about the signs and symptoms of urinary tract infection (UTI). Which concepts does the nurse explain in the presentation? (Select all that apply.) A. Dysuria B. Enuresis C. Frequency D. Nocturia E. Urgency F. Polyuria

A. Dysuria C. Frequency D. Nocturia E. Urgency Dysuria (painful urination), frequency, nocturia (frequent urinating at night), and urgency (having the urge to urinate quickly) are symptoms of UTI. Enuresis (bed-wetting) and polyuria (increased amounts of urine production) are not signs of a UTI.

Several patients are scheduled for testing to diagnose potential kidney problems. Which test requires a patient to have a urinary catheter inserted before the test? a. Urine stream testing b. Computed tomography c. Cystography d. Renal scan

c

A 65-year old client is seeing his primary care provider for an annual examination. Which assessment finding alerts the nurse to an increased risk for bladder cancer? A. Smoking B. Urine with a high specific gravity C. Recurrent urinary tract infections D. History of cancer in another organ or tissue

A. Smoking Rationale: Many compounds in tobacco enter the bloodstream and affect other organs, such as the bladder. Concentrated urine is associated with kidney stones and UTIs. The urinary bladder is not a common site for metastases.

Which clients with an indwelling urinary catheter does the nurse reassess to determine whether the catheterization needs to be continued or can be discontinued? (Select all that apply.) A. Three-day postoperative client B. Client in the stepdown unit C. Comatose client with careful monitoring of intake and output (I&O) D. Incontinent client with perineal skin breakdown E. Incontinent older adult in long-term care

A. Three-day postoperative client B. Client in the stepdown unit E. Incontinent older adult in long-term care Three days after surgery, the postoperative client probably should be able to urinate on his or her own. This may be influenced by the type of surgery, but most clients do not need long-term catheterization after they have surgery. The incidence of complications (colonization of bacteria) begins to increase after 48 hours postinsertion. The client in the stepdown unit is definitely one who should be considered for catheter discontinuation; he or she should be somewhat ambulatory and able to get to a bedside commode. Incontinence in older adults does not necessarily mean that they have to be catheterized. The introduction of a catheter invites the possibility of infection. These clients can often be managed with adult incontinence pads with less risk for developing a urinary tract infection. These infections in the older adult population are serious and should be avoided. The comatose client who is on strict I&O must have a urinary catheter in place to keep an accurate account of fluid balance. A client who is incontinent with no breakdown areas would be considered, but perineal skin problems in this situation make a catheter necessary for this client's skin to have a clean, dry environment for healing.

16. A nurse obtains the health history of a client with a suspected diagnosis of bladder cancer. Which question should the nurse ask when determining this client's risk factors? a. "Do you smoke cigarettes?" b. "Do you use any alcohol?" c. "Do you use recreational drugs?" d. "Do you take any prescription drugs?"

ANS: A Smoking is known to be a factor that greatly increases the risk of bladder cancer. Alcohol use, recreational drug use, and prescription drug use (except medications that contain phenacetin) are not known to increase the risk of developing bladder cancer.

13. A nurse cares for a client admitted from a nursing home after several recent falls. What prescription should the nurse complete first? a. Obtain urine sample for culture and sensitivity. b. Administer intravenous antibiotics. c. Encourage protein intake and additional fluids. d. Consult physical therapy for gait training.

ANS: A Although all interventions are or might be important, obtaining a urine sample for urinalysis takes priority. Often urinary tract infection (UTI) symptoms in older adults are atypical, and a UTI may present with new onset of confusion or falling. The urine sample should be obtained before starting antibiotics. Dietary requirements and gait training should be implemented after obtaining the urine sample.

A nurse cares for a client with an increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)/creatinine ratio. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Assess the client's dietary habits. b. Inquire about the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). c. Hold the client's metformin (Glucophage). d. Contact the health care provider immediately.

ANS: A An elevated BUN/creatinine ratio is often indicative of dehydration, urinary obstruction, catabolism, or a high-protein diet. The nurse should inquire about the client's dietary habits. Kidney damage related to NSAID use most likely would manifest with elevations in both BUN and creatinine, but no change in the ratio. The nurse should obtain more assessment data before holding any medications or contacting the provider.

12. A nurse reviews the allergy list of a client who is scheduled for an intravenous urography. Which client allergy should alert the nurse to urgently contact the health care provider? a. Seafood b. Penicillin c. Bee stings d. Red food dye

ANS: A Clients with seafood allergies often have severe allergic reactions to the standard dyes used during intravenous urography. The other allergies have no impact on the client's safety during an intravenous urography.

10. After teaching a client with a history of renal calculi, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching? a. "I should drink at least 3 liters of fluid every day." b. "I will eliminate all dairy or sources of calcium from my diet." c. "Aspirin and aspirin-containing products can lead to stones." d. "The doctor can give me antibiotics at the first sign of a stone."

ANS: A Dehydration contributes to the precipitation of minerals to form a stone. Although increased intake of calcium causes hypercalcemia and leads to excessive calcium filtered into the urine, if the client is well hydrated the calcium will be excreted without issues. Dehydration increases the risk for supersaturation of calcium in the urine, which contributes to stone formation. The nurse should encourage the client to drink more fluids, not decrease calcium intake. Ingestion of aspirin or aspirin-containing products does not cause a stone. Antibiotics neither prevent nor treat a stone.

6. A nurse cares for adult clients who experience urge incontinence. For which client should the nurse plan a habit training program? a. A 78-year-old female who is confused b. A 65-year-old male with diabetes mellitus c. A 52-year-old female with kidney failure d. A 47-year-old male with arthritis

ANS: A For a bladder training program to succeed in a client with urge incontinence, the client must be alert, aware, and able to resist the urge to urinate. Habit training will work best for a confused client. This includes going to the bathroom (or being assisted to the bathroom) at set times. The other clients may benefit from another type of bladder training.

5. After teaching a client who has stress incontinence, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for additional teaching? a. "I will limit my total intake of fluids." b. "I must avoid drinking alcoholic beverages." c. "I must avoid drinking caffeinated beverages." d. "I shall try to lose about 10% of my body weight."

ANS: A Limiting fluids concentrates urine and can irritate tissues, leading to increased incontinence. Many people try to manage incontinence by limiting fluids. Alcoholic and caffeinated beverages are bladder stimulants. Obesity increases intra-abdominal pressure, causing incontinence.

. A nurse cares for a client with diabetes mellitus who is prescribed metformin (Glucophage) and is scheduled for an intravenous urography. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Contact the provider and recommend discontinuing the metformin. b. Keep the client NPO for at least 6 hours prior to the examination. c. Check the client's capillary artery blood glucose and administer prescribed insulin. d. Administer intravenous fluids to dilute and increase the excretion of dye.

ANS: A Metformin can cause lactic acidosis and renal impairment as the result of an interaction with the dye. This drug must be discontinued for 48 hours before the procedure and not started again after the procedure until urine output is well established. The client's health care provider needs to provide alternative therapy for the client until the metformin can be resumed. Keeping the client NPO, checking the client's blood glucose, and administering intravenous fluids should be part of the client's plan of care, but are not the priority, as the examination should not occur while the client is still taking metformin.

5. A nurse contacts the health care provider after reviewing a client's laboratory results and noting a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 35 mg/dL and a creatinine of 1.0 mg/dL. For which action should the nurse recommend a prescription? a. Intravenous fluids b. Hemodialysis c. Fluid restriction d. Urine culture and sensitivity

ANS: A Normal BUN is 10 to 20 mg/dL. Normal creatinine is 0.6 to 1.2 mg/dL (males) or 0.5 to 1.1 mg/dL (females). Creatinine is more specific for kidney function than BUN, because BUN can be affected by several factors (dehydration, high-protein diet, and catabolism). This client's creatinine is normal, which suggests a non-renal cause for the elevated BUN. A common cause of increased BUN is dehydration, so the nurse should anticipate giving the client more fluids, not placing the client on fluid restrictions. Hemodialysis is not an appropriate treatment for dehydration. The lab results do not indicate an infection; therefore, a urine culture and sensitivity is not appropriate.

8. A nurse reviews laboratory results for a client who was admitted for a myocardial infarction and cardiogenic shock 2 days ago. Which laboratory test result should the nurse expect to find? a. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 52 mg/dL b. Creatinine of 2.3 mg/dL c. BUN of 10 mg/dL d. BUN/creatinine ratio of 8:1

ANS: A Shock leads to decreased renal perfusion. An elevated BUN accompanies this condition. The creatinine should be normal because no kidney damage occurred. A low BUN signifies overhydration, malnutrition, or liver damage. A low BUN/creatinine ratio indicates fluid volume excess or acute renal tubular acidosis.

After delegating to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) the task of completing a bladder scan examination for a client, the nurse evaluates the UAP's performance. Which action by the UAP indicates the nurse must provide additional instructions when delegating this task? a. Selecting the female icon for all female clients and male icon for all male clients b. Telling the client, "This test measures the amount of urine in your bladder." c. Applying ultrasound gel to the scanning head and removing it when finished d. Taking at least two readings using the aiming icon to place the scanning head

ANS: A The UAP should use the female icon for women who have not had a hysterectomy. This allows the scanner to subtract the volume of the uterus from readings. If a woman has had a hysterectomy, the UAP should choose the male icon. The UAP should explain the procedure to the client, apply gel to the scanning head and clean it after use, and take at least two readings.

18. A nurse teaches a young female client who is prescribed amoxicillin (Amoxil) for a urinary tract infection. Which statement should the nurse include in this client's teaching? a. "Use a second form of birth control while on this medication." b. "You will experience increased menstrual bleeding while on this drug." c. "You may experience an irregular heartbeat while on this drug." d. "Watch for blood in your urine while taking this medication."

ANS: A The client should use a second form of birth control because penicillin seems to reduce the effectiveness of estrogen-containing contraceptives. She should not experience increased menstrual bleeding, an irregular heartbeat, or blood in her urine while taking the medication.

23. A nurse assesses a client who presents with renal calculi. Which question should the nurse ask? a. "Do any of your family members have this problem?" b. "Do you drink any cranberry juice?" c. "Do you urinate after sexual intercourse?" d. "Do you experience burning with urination?"

ANS: A There is a strong association between family history and stone formation and recurrence. Nephrolithiasis is associated with many genetic variations; therefore, the nurse should ask whether other family members have also had renal stones. The other questions do not refer to renal calculi but instead are questions that should be asked of a client with a urinary tract infection.

7. A nurse teaches a client about self-care after experiencing a urinary calculus treated by lithotripsy. Which statements should the nurse include in this client's discharge teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. "Finish the prescribed antibiotic even if you are feeling better." b. "Drink at least 3 liters of fluid each day." c. "The bruising on your back may take several weeks to resolve." d. "Report any blood present in your urine." e. "It is normal to experience pain and difficulty urinating."

ANS: A, B, C The client should be taught to finish the prescribed antibiotic to ensure that he or she does not get a urinary tract infection. The client should drink at least 3 liters of fluid daily to dilute potential stone-forming crystals, prevent dehydration, and promote urine flow. After lithotripsy, the client should expect bruising that may take several weeks to resolve. The client should also experience blood in the urine for several days. The client should report any pain, fever, chills, or difficulty with urination to the provider as these may signal the beginning of an infection or the formation of another stone.

1. A nurse assesses a client who has had two episodes of bacterial cystitis in the last 6 months. Which questions should the nurse ask? (Select all that apply.) a. "How much water do you drink every day?" b. "Do you take estrogen replacement therapy?" c. "Does anyone in your family have a history of cystitis?" d. "Are you on steroids or other immune-suppressing drugs?" e. "Do you drink grapefruit juice or orange juice daily?"

ANS: A, B, D Fluid intake, estrogen levels, and immune suppression all can increase the chance of recurrent cystitis. Family history is usually insignificant, and cranberry juice, not grapefruit or orange juice, has been found to increase the acidic pH and reduce the risk for bacterial cystitis.

5. A nurse cares for clients with urinary incontinence. Which types of incontinence are correctly paired with their clinical manifestation? (Select all that apply.) a. Stress incontinence - Urine loss with physical exertion b. Urge incontinence - Large amount of urine with each occurrence c. Functional incontinence - Urine loss results from abnormal detrusor contractions d. Overflow incontinence - Constant dribbling of urine e. Reflex incontinence - Leakage of urine without lower urinary tract disorder

ANS: A, B, D Stress incontinence is a loss of urine with physical exertion, coughing, sneezing, or exercising. Urge incontinence presents with an abrupt and strong urge to void and usually has a large amount of urine released with each occurrence. Overflow incontinence occurs with bladder distention and results in a constant dribbling of urine. Functional incontinence is the leakage of urine caused by factors other than a disorder of the lower urinary tract. Reflex incontinence results from abnormal detrusor contractions from a neurologic abnormality.

1. A nurse reviews a client's laboratory results. Which results from the client's urinalysis should the nurse identify as normal? (Select all that apply.) a. pH: 6 b. Specific gravity: 1.015 c. Protein: 1.2 mg/dL d. Glucose: negative e. Nitrate: small f. Leukocyte esterase: positive

ANS: A, B, D The pH, specific gravity, and glucose are all within normal ranges. The other values are abnormal.

6. A nurse teaches a client with a history of calcium phosphate urinary stones. Which statements should the nurse include in this client's dietary teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. "Limit your intake of food high in animal protein." b. "Read food labels to help minimize your sodium intake." c. "Avoid spinach, black tea, and rhubarb." d. "Drink white wine or beer instead of red wine." e. "Reduce your intake of milk and other dairy products."

ANS: A, B, E Clients with calcium phosphate urinary stones should be taught to limit the intake of foods high in animal protein, sodium, and calcium. Clients with calcium oxalate stones should avoid spinach, black tea, and rhubarb. Clients with uric acid stones should avoid red wine.

A nurse prepares a client for a percutaneous kidney biopsy. Which actions should the nurse take prior to this procedure? (Select all that apply.) a. Keep the client NPO for 4 to 6 hours. b. Obtain coagulation study results. c. Maintain strict bedrest in a supine position. d. Assess for blood in the client's urine. e. Administer antihypertensive medications.

ANS: A, B, E Prior to a percutaneous kidney biopsy, the client should be NPO for 4 to 6 hours. Coagulation studies should be completed to prevent bleeding after the biopsy. Blood pressure medications should be administered to prevent hypertension before and after the procedure. There is no need to keep the client on bedrest or assess for blood in the client's urine prior to the procedure; these interventions should be implemented after a percutaneous kidney biopsy.

8. A nurse teaches a female client who has stress incontinence. Which statements should the nurse include about pelvic muscle exercises? (Select all that apply.) a. "When you start and stop your urine stream, you are using your pelvic muscles." b. "Tighten your pelvic muscles for a slow count of 10 and then relax for a slow count of 10." c. "Pelvic muscle exercises should only be performed sitting upright with your feet on the floor." d. "After you have been doing these exercises for a couple days, your control of urine will improve." e. "Like any other muscle in your body, you can make your pelvic muscles stronger by contracting them."

ANS: A, B, E The client should be taught that the muscles used to start and stop urination are pelvic muscles, and that pelvic muscles can be strengthened by contracting and relaxing them. The client should tighten pelvic muscles for a slow count of 10 and then relax the muscles for a slow count of 10, and perform this exercise 15 times while in lying-down, sitting-up, and standing positions. The client should begin to notice improvement in control of urine after several weeks of exercising the pelvic muscles.

A nurse plans care for an older adult client. Which interventions should the nurse include in this client's plan of care to promote kidney health? (Select all that apply.) a. Ensure adequate fluid intake. b. Leave the bathroom light on at night. c. Encourage use of the toilet every 6 hours. d. Delegate bladder training instructions to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). e. Provide thorough perineal care after each voiding. f. Assess for urinary retention and urinary tract infection.

ANS: A, B, E, F The nurse should ensure that the client receives adequate fluid intake and has adequate lighting to ambulate safely to the bathroom at night, encourage the client to use the toilet every 2 hours, provide thorough perineal care after each voiding, and assess for urinary retention and urinary tract infections. The nurse should not delegate any teaching to the UAP, including bladder training instructions. The UAP may participate in bladder training activities, including encouraging and assisting the client to the bathroom at specific times.

2. A nurse teaches a client about self-catheterization in the home setting. Which statements should the nurse include in this client's teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. "Wash your hands before and after self-catheterization." b. "Use a large-lumen catheter for each catheterization." c. "Use lubricant on the tip of the catheter before insertion." d. "Self-catheterize at least twice a day or every 12 hours." e. "Use sterile gloves and sterile technique for the procedure." f. "Maintain a specific schedule for catheterization."

ANS: A, C, F The key points in self-catheterization include washing hands, using lubricants, and maintaining a regular schedule to avoid distention and retention of urine that leads to bacterial growth. A smaller rather than a larger lumen catheter is preferred. The client needs to catheterize more often than every 12 hours. Self-catheterization in the home is a clean procedure.

A nurse assesses a client recovering from a cystoscopy. Which assessment findings should alert the nurse to urgently contact the health care provider? (Select all that apply.) a. Decrease in urine output b. Tolerating oral fluids c. Prescription for metformin d. Blood clots present in the urine e. Burning sensation when urinating

ANS: A, D The nurse should monitor urine output and contact the provider if urine output decreases or becomes absent. The nurse should also assess for blood in the client's urine. The urine may be pink-tinged, but gross bleeding or blood clots should not be present. If bleeding is present, the nurse should urgently contact the provider. Tolerating oral fluids is a positive outcome and does not need intervention. Metformin would be a concern if the client received dye; no dye is used in a cystoscopy procedure. The client may experience a burning sensation when urinating after this procedure; this would not require a call to the provider.

. A nurse cares for a client who has elevated levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Which disorder should the nurse identify as a trigger for the release of this hormone? a. Pneumonia b. Dehydration c. Renal failure d. Edema

ANS: B ADH increases tubular permeability to water, leading to absorption of more water into the capillaries. ADH is triggered by a rising extracellular fluid osmolarity, as occurs in dehydration. Pneumonia, renal failure, and edema would not trigger the release of ADH.

2. A nurse reviews the laboratory findings of a client with a urinary tract infection. The laboratory report notes a "shift to the left" in a client's white blood cell count. Which action should the nurse take? a. Request that the laboratory perform a differential analysis on the white blood cells. b. Notify the provider and start an intravenous line for parenteral antibiotics. c. Collaborate with the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to strain the client's urine for renal calculi. d. Assess the client for a potential allergic reaction and anaphylactic shock.

ANS: B An increase in band cells creates a "shift to the left." A left shift most commonly occurs with urosepsis and is seen rarely with uncomplicated urinary tract infections. The nurse will be administering antibiotics, most likely via IV, so he or she should notify the provider and prepare to give the antibiotics. The shift to the left is part of a differential white blood cell count. The nurse would not need to strain urine for stones. Allergic reactions are associated with elevated eosinophil cells, not band cells.

22. A nurse plans care for clients with urinary incontinence. Which client is correctly paired with the appropriate intervention? a. A 29-year-old client after a difficult vaginal delivery - Habit training b. A 58-year-old postmenopausal client who is not taking estrogen therapy - Electrical stimulation c. A 64-year-old female with Alzheimer's-type senile dementia - Bladder training d. A 77-year-old female who has difficulty ambulating - Exercise therapy

ANS: B Exercise therapy and electrical stimulation are used for clients with stress incontinence related to childbirth or low levels of estrogen after menopause. Exercise therapy increases pelvic wall strength; it does not improve ambulation. Physical therapy and a bedside commode would be appropriate interventions for the client who has difficulty ambulating. Habit training is the type of bladder training that will be most effective with cognitively impaired clients. Bladder training can be used only with a client who is alert, aware, and able to resist the urge to urinate.

7. After delegating care to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) for a client who is prescribed habit training to manage incontinence, a nurse evaluates the UAP's understanding. Which action indicates the UAP needs additional teaching? a. Toileting the client after breakfast b. Changing the client's incontinence brief when wet c. Encouraging the client to drink fluids d. Recording the client's incontinence episodes

ANS: B Habit training is undermined by the use of absorbent incontinence briefs or pads. The nurse should re-educate the UAP on the technique of habit training. The UAP should continue to toilet the client after meals, encourage the client to drink fluids, and record incontinent episodes.

A nurse reviews a female client's laboratory results. Which results from the client's urinalysis should the nurse recognize as abnormal? a. pH 5.6 b. Ketone bodies present c. Specific gravity of 1.020 d. Clear and yellow color

ANS: B Ketone bodies are by-products of incomplete metabolism of fatty acids. Normally no ketones are present in urine. Ketone bodies are produced when fat sources are used instead of glucose to provide cellular energy. A pH between 4.6 and 8, specific gravity between 1.005 and 1.030, and clear yellow urine are normal findings for a female client's urinalysis.

3. A nurse cares for a postmenopausal client who has had two episodes of bacterial urethritis in the last 6 months. The client asks, "I never have urinary tract infections. Why is this happening now?" How should the nurse respond? a. "Your immune system becomes less effective as you age." b. "Low estrogen levels can make the tissue more susceptible to infection." c. "You should be more careful with your personal hygiene in this area." d. "It is likely that you have an untreated sexually transmitted disease."

ANS: B Low estrogen levels decrease moisture and secretions in the perineal area and cause other tissue changes, predisposing it to the development of infection. Urethritis is most common in postmenopausal women for this reason. Although immune function does decrease with aging and sexually transmitted diseases are a known cause of urethritis, the most likely reason in this client is low estrogen levels. Personal hygiene usually does not contribute to this disease process.

A nurse reviews the health history of a client with an oversecretion of renin. Which disorder should the nurse correlate with this assessment finding? a. Alzheimer's disease b. Hypertension c. Diabetes mellitus d. Viral hepatitis

ANS: B Renin is secreted when special cells in the distal convoluted tubule, called the macula densa, sense changes in blood volume and pressure. When the macula densa cells sense that blood volume, blood pressure, or blood sodium levels are low, renin is secreted. Renin then converts angiotensinogen into angiotensin I. This leads to a series of reactions that cause secretion of the hormone aldosterone. This hormone increases kidney reabsorption of sodium and water, increasing blood pressure, blood volume, and blood sodium levels. Inappropriate or excessive renin secretion is a major cause of persistent hypertension. Renin has no impact on Alzheimer's disease, diabetes mellitus, or viral hepatitis.

20. An emergency department nurse assesses a client with a history of urinary incontinence who presents with extreme dry mouth, constipation, and an inability to void. Which question should the nurse ask first? a. "Are you drinking plenty of water?" b. "What medications are you taking?" c. "Have you tried laxatives or enemas?" d. "Has this type of thing ever happened before?"

ANS: B Some types of incontinence are treated with anticholinergic medications such as propantheline (Pro-Banthine). Anticholinergic side effects include dry mouth, constipation, and urinary retention. The nurse needs to assess the client's medication list to determine whether the client is taking an anticholinergic medication. If he or she is taking anticholinergics, the nurse should further assess the client's manifestations to determine if they are related to a simple side effect or an overdose. The other questions are not as helpful to understanding the current situation.

21. A nurse teaches a client who is starting urinary bladder training. Which statement should the nurse include in this client's teaching? a. "Use the toilet when you first feel the urge, rather than at specific intervals." b. "Try to consciously hold your urine until the scheduled toileting time." c. "Initially try to use the toilet at least every half hour for the first 24 hours." d. "The toileting interval can be increased once you have been continent for a week."

ANS: B The client should try to hold the urine consciously until the next scheduled toileting time. Toileting should occur at specific intervals during the training. The toileting interval should be no less than every hour. The interval can be increased once the client becomes comfortable with the interval.

24. A nurse assesses a male client who is recovering from a urologic procedure. Which assessment finding indicates an obstruction of urine flow? a. Severe pain b. Overflow incontinence c. Hypotension d. Blood-tinged urine

ANS: B The most common manifestation of urethral stricture after a urologic procedure is obstruction of urine flow. This rarely causes pain and has no impact on blood pressure. The client may experience overflow incontinence with the involuntary loss of urine when the bladder is distended. Blood in the urine is not a manifestation of the obstruction of urine flow.

12. A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy for renal calculi. The nurse notes an ecchymotic area on the client's right lower back. Which action should the nurse take? a. Administer fresh-frozen plasma. b. Apply an ice pack to the site. c. Place the client in the prone position. d. Obtain serum coagulation test results.

ANS: B The shock waves from lithotripsy can cause bleeding into the tissues through which the waves pass. Application of ice can reduce the extent and discomfort of the bruising. Although coagulation test results and fresh-frozen plasma are used to assess and treat bleeding disorders, ecchymosis after this procedure is not unusual and does not warrant a higher level of intervention. Changing the client's position will not decrease bleeding.

A nurse cares for a client with a urine specific gravity of 1.018. Which action should the nurse take? a. Evaluate the client's intake and output for the past 24 hours. b. Document the finding in the chart and continue to monitor. c. Obtain a specimen for a urine culture and sensitivity. d. Encourage the client to drink more fluids, especially water.

ANS: B This specific gravity is within the normal range for urine. There is no need to evaluate the client's intake and output, obtain a urine specimen, or increase fluid intake.

A nurse assesses clients on the medical-surgical unit. Which clients are at risk for kidney problems? (Select all that apply.) a. A 24-year-old pregnant woman prescribed prenatal vitamins b. A 32-year-old bodybuilder taking synthetic creatine supplements c. A 56-year-old who is taking metformin for diabetes mellitus d. A 68-year-old taking high-dose nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) for chronic back pain e. A 75-year-old with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is prescribed an albuterol nebulizer

ANS: B, C, D Many medications can affect kidney function. Clients who take synthetic creatine supplements, metformin, and high-dose or long-term NSAIDs are at risk for kidney dysfunction. Prenatal vitamins and albuterol nebulizers do not place these clients at risk

A nurse teaches a client who is recovering from a urography. Which instruction should the nurse include in this client's discharge teaching? a. "Avoid direct contact with your urine for 24 hours until the radioisotope clears." b. "You may have some dribbling of urine for several weeks after this procedure." c. "Be sure to drink at least 3 liters of fluids today to help eliminate the dye faster." d. "Your skin may become slightly yellow from the dye used in this procedure."

ANS: C Dyes used in urography are potentially nephrotoxic. A large fluid intake will help the client eliminate the dye rapidly. Dyes used in urography are not radioactive, the client should not experience any dribbling of urine, and the dye should not change the color of the client's skin.

4. A nurse assesses a client with a fungal urinary tract infection (UTI). Which assessments should the nurse complete? (Select all that apply.) a. Palpate the kidneys and bladder. b. Assess the medical history and current medical problems. c. Perform a bladder scan to assess post-void residual. d. Inquire about recent travel to foreign countries. e. Obtain a current list of medications.

ANS: B, E Clients who are severely immunocompromised or who have diabetes mellitus are more prone to fungal UTIs. The nurse should assess for these factors by asking about medical history, current medical problems, and the current medication list. A physical examination and a post-void residual may be needed, but not until further information is obtained indicating that these examinations are necessary. Travel to foreign countries probably would not be important because, even if exposed, the client needs some degree of compromised immunity to develop a fungal UTI.

3. A nurse teaches clients about the difference between urge incontinence and stress incontinence. Which statements should the nurse include in this education? (Select all that apply.) a. "Urge incontinence involves a post-void residual volume less than 50 mL." b. "Stress incontinence occurs due to weak pelvic floor muscles." c. "Stress incontinence usually occurs in people with dementia." d. "Urge incontinence can be managed by increasing fluid intake." e. "Urge incontinence occurs due to abnormal bladder contractions."

ANS: B, E Clients who suffer from stress incontinence have weak pelvic floor muscles or urethral sphincter and cannot tighten their urethra sufficiently to overcome the increased detrusor pressure. Stress incontinence is common after childbirth, when the pelvic muscles are stretched and weakened from pregnancy and delivery. Urge incontinence occurs in people who cannot suppress the contraction signal from the detrusor muscle. Abnormal detrusor contractions may be a result of neurologic abnormalities including dementia, or may occur with no known abnormality. Post-void residual is associated with reflex incontinence, not with urge incontinence or stress incontinence. Management of urge incontinence includes decreasing fluid intake, especially in the evening hours.

15. A nurse assesses a client with bladder cancer who is recovering from a complete cystectomy with ileal conduit. Which assessment finding should alert the nurse to urgently contact the health care provider? a. The ileostomy is draining blood-tinged urine. b. There is serous sanguineous drainage present on the surgical dressing. c. The ileostomy stoma is pale and cyanotic in appearance. d. Oxygen saturations are 92% on room air.

ANS: C A pale or cyanotic stoma indicates impaired circulation to the stoma and must be treated to prevent necrosis. Blood-tinged urine and serous sanguineous drainage are expected after this type of surgery. Oxygen saturation of 92% on room air is at the low limit of normal.

A nurse cares for a client who is recovering from a closed percutaneous kidney biopsy. The client states, "My pain has suddenly increased from a 3 to a 10 on a scale of 0 to 10." Which action should the nurse take first? a. Reposition the client on the operative side. b. Administer the prescribed opioid analgesic. c. Assess the pulse rate and blood pressure. d. Examine the color of the client's urine.

ANS: C An increase in the intensity of pain after a percutaneous kidney biopsy is a symptom of internal hemorrhage. A change in vital signs can indicate that hemorrhage is occurring. Before other actions, the nurse must assess the client's hemodynamic status.

9. A confused client with pneumonia is admitted with an indwelling catheter in place. During interdisciplinary rounds the following day, which question should the nurse ask the primary health care provider? a. "Do you want daily weights on this client?" b. "Will the client be able to return home?" c. "Can we discontinue the indwelling catheter?" d. "Should we get another chest x-ray today?"

ANS: C An indwelling catheter dramatically increases the risks of urinary tract infection and urosepsis. Nursing staff should ensure that catheters are left in place only as long as they are medically needed. The nurse should inquire about removing the catheter. All other questions might be appropriate, but because of client safety, this question takes priority.

4. A nurse assesses a client with renal insufficiency and a low red blood cell count. The client asks, "Is my anemia related to the renal insufficiency?" How should the nurse respond? a. "Red blood cells produce erythropoietin, which increases blood flow to the kidneys." b. "Your anemia and renal insufficiency are related to inadequate vitamin D and a loss of bone density." c. "Erythropoietin is usually released from the kidneys and stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow." d. "Kidney insufficiency inhibits active transportation of red blood cells throughout the blood."

ANS: C Erythropoietin is produced in the kidney and is released in response to decreased oxygen tension in the renal blood supply. Erythropoietin stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow. Anemia and renal insufficiency are not manifestations of vitamin D deficiency. The kidneys do not play a role in the transportation of red blood cells or any other cells in the blood.

1. A nurse assesses clients on the medical-surgical unit. Which client is at greatest risk for the development of bacterial cystitis? a. A 36-year-old female who has never been pregnant b. A 42-year-old male who is prescribed cyclophosphamide c. A 58-year-old female who is not taking estrogen replacement d. A 77-year-old male with mild congestive heart failure

ANS: C Females at any age are more susceptible to cystitis than men because of the shorter urethra in women. Postmenopausal women who are not on hormone replacement therapy are at increased risk for bacterial cystitis because of changes in the cells of the urethra and vagina. The middle-aged woman who has never been pregnant would not have a risk potential as high as the older woman who is not using hormone replacement therapy.

A nurse obtains a sterile urine specimen from a client's Foley catheter. After applying a clamp to the drainage tubing distal to the injection port, which action should the nurse take next? a. Clamp another section of the tube to create a fixed sample section for retrieval. b. Insert a syringe into the injection port and aspirate the quantity of urine required. c. Clean the injection port cap of the drainage tubing with povidone-iodine solution. d. Withdraw 10 mL of urine and discard it; then withdraw a fresh sample of urine.

ANS: C It is important to clean the injection port cap of the catheter drainage tubing with an appropriate antiseptic, such as povidone-iodine solution or alcohol. This will help prevent surface contamination before injection of the syringe. The urine sample should be collected directly from the catheter; therefore, a second clamp to create a sample section would not be appropriate. Every sample from the catheter is usable; there is the need to discard the first sample.

4. After teaching a client with bacterial cystitis who is prescribed phenazopyridine (Pyridium), the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching? a. "I will not take this drug with food or milk." b. "If I think I am pregnant, I will stop the drug." c. "An orange color in my urine should not alarm me." d. "I will drink two glasses of cranberry juice daily."

ANS: C Phenazopyridine discolors urine, most commonly to a deep reddish orange. Many clients think they have blood in their urine when they see this. In addition, the urine can permanently stain clothing. Phenazopyridine is safe to take if the client is pregnant. There are no dietary restrictions or needs while taking this medication.

26. A nurse provides phone triage to a pregnant client. The client states, "I am experiencing a burning pain when I urinate." How should the nurse respond? a. "This means labor will start soon. Prepare to go to the hospital." b. "You probably have a urinary tract infection. Drink more cranberry juice." c. "Make an appointment with your provider to have your infection treated." d. "Your pelvic wall is weakening. Pelvic muscle exercises should help."

ANS: C Pregnant clients with a urinary tract infection require prompt and aggressive treatment because cystitis can lead to acute pyelonephritis during pregnancy. The nurse should encourage the client to make an appointment and have the infection treated. Burning pain when urinating does not indicate the start of labor or weakening of pelvic muscles.

25. A nurse cares for a client with urinary incontinence. The client states, "I am so embarrassed. My bladder leaks like a young child's bladder." How should the nurse respond? a. "I understand how you feel. I would be mortified." b. "Incontinence pads will minimize leaks in public." c. "I can teach you strategies to help control your incontinence." d. "More women experience incontinence than you might think."

ANS: C The nurse should accept and acknowledge the client's concerns, and assist the client to learn techniques that will allow control of urinary incontinence. The nurse should not diminish the client's concerns with the use of pads or stating statistics about the occurrence of incontinence.

19. A nurse teaches a client with functional urinary incontinence. Which statement should the nurse include in this client's teaching? a. "You must clean around your catheter daily with soap and water." b. "Wash the vaginal weights with a 10% bleach solution after each use." c. "Operations to repair your bladder are available, and you can consider these." d. "Buy slacks with elastic waistbands that are easy to pull down."

ANS: D Functional urinary incontinence occurs as the result of problems not related to the client's bladder, such as trouble ambulating or difficulty accessing the toilet. One goal is that the client will be able to manage his or her clothing independently. Elastic waistband slacks that are easy to pull down can help the client get on the toilet in time to void. The other instructions do not relate to functional urinary incontinence.

A nurse reviews the urinalysis of a client and notes the presence of glucose. Which action should the nurse take? a. Document findings and continue to monitor the client. b. Contact the provider and recommend a 24-hour urine test. c. Review the client's recent dietary selections. d. Perform a capillary artery glucose assessment.

ANS: D Glucose normally is not found in the urine. The normal renal threshold for glucose is about 220 mg/dL, which means that a person whose blood glucose is less than 220 mg/dL will not have glucose in the urine. A positive finding for glucose on urinalysis indicates high blood sugar. The most appropriate action would be to perform a capillary artery glucose assessment. The client needs further evaluation for this abnormal result; therefore, documenting and continuing to monitor is not appropriate. Requesting a 24-hour urine test or reviewing the client's dietary selections will not assist the nurse to make a clinical decision related to this abnormality.

8. A nurse plans care for a client with overflow incontinence. Which intervention should the nurse include in this client's plan of care to assist with elimination? a. Stroke the medial aspect of the thigh. b. Use intermittent catheterization. c. Provide digital anal stimulation. d. Use the Valsalva maneuver.

ANS: D In clients with overflow incontinence, the voiding reflex arc is not intact. Mechanical pressure, such as that achieved through the Valsalva maneuver (holding the breath and bearing down as if to defecate), can initiate voiding. Stroking the medial aspect of the thigh or providing digital anal stimulation requires the reflex arc to be intact to initiate elimination. Due to the high risk for infection, intermittent catheterization should only be implemented when other interventions are not successful.

A nurse cares for a client with a urine specific gravity of 1.040. Which action should the nurse take? a. Obtain a urine culture and sensitivity. b. Place the client on restricted fluids. c. Assess the client's creatinine level. d. Increase the client's fluid intake.

ANS: D Normal specific gravity for urine is 1.005 to 1.030. A high specific gravity can occur with dehydration, decreased kidney blood flow (often because of dehydration), and the presence of antidiuretic hormone. Increasing the client's fluid intake would be a beneficial intervention. Assessing the creatinine or obtaining a urine culture would not provide data necessary for the nurse to make a clinical decision.

3. A nurse reviews the urinalysis results of a client and notes a urine osmolality of 1200 mOsm/L. Which action should the nurse take? a. Contact the provider and recommend a low-sodium diet. b. Prepare to administer an intravenous diuretic. c. Obtain a suction device and implement seizure precautions. d. Encourage the client to drink more fluids.

ANS: D Normal urine osmolality ranges from 300 to 900 mOsm/L. This client's urine is more concentrated, indicating dehydration. The nurse should encourage the client to drink more water. Dehydration can be associated with elevated serum sodium levels. Although a low-sodium diet may be appropriate for this client, this diet change will not have a significant impact on urine osmolality. A diuretic would increase urine output and decrease urine osmolality further. Low serum sodium levels, not elevated serum levels, place the client at risk for seizure activity. These options would further contribute to the client's dehydration or elevate the osmolality.

11. A nurse cares for a client who has kidney stones from secondary hyperoxaluria. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering? a. Phenazopyridine (Pyridium) b. Propantheline (Pro-Banthine) c. Tolterodine (Detrol LA) d. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

ANS: D Stones caused by secondary hyperoxaluria respond to allopurinol (Zyloprim). Phenazopyridine is given to clients with urinary tract infections. Propantheline is an anticholinergic. Tolterodine is an anticholinergic with smooth muscle relaxant properties.

17. A nurse cares for a client who is scheduled for the surgical creation of an ileal conduit. The client states, "I am anxious about having an ileal conduit. What is it like to have this drainage tube?" How should the nurse respond? a. "I will ask the provider to prescribe you an antianxiety medication." b. "Would you like to discuss the procedure with your doctor once more?" c. "I think it would be nice to not have to worry about finding a bathroom." d. "Would you like to speak with someone who has an ileal conduit?"

ANS: D The goal for the client who is scheduled to undergo a procedure such as an ileal conduit is to have a positive self-image and a positive attitude about his or her body. Discussing the procedure candidly with someone who has undergone the same procedure will foster such feelings, especially when the current client has an opportunity to ask questions and voice concerns to someone with first-hand knowledge. Medications for anxiety will not promote a positive self-image and a positive attitude, nor will discussing the procedure once more with the physician or hearing the nurse's opinion.

14. A nurse assesses clients on the medical-surgical unit. Which client is at greatest risk for bladder cancer? a. A 25-year-old female with a history of sexually transmitted diseases b. A 42-year-old male who has worked in a lumber yard for 10 years c. A 55-year-old female who has had numerous episodes of bacterial cystitis d. An 86-year-old male with a 50-pack-year cigarette smoking history

ANS: D The greatest risk factor for bladder cancer is a long history of tobacco use. The other factors would not necessarily contribute to the development of this specific type of cancer.

A nurse cares for a client who is having trouble voiding. The client states, "I cannot urinate in public places." How should the nurse respond? a. "I will turn on the faucet in the bathroom to help stimulate your urination." b. "I can recommend a prescription for a diuretic to improve your urine output." c. "I'll move you to a room with a private bathroom to increase your comfort." d. "I will close the curtain to provide you with as much privacy as possible."

ANS: D The nurse should provide privacy to clients who may be uncomfortable or have issues related to elimination or the urogenital area. Turning on the faucet and administering a diuretic will not address the client's concern. Although moving the client to a private room with a private bathroom would be nice, this is not realistic. The nurse needs to provide as much privacy as possible within the client's current room.

A client with these assessment data is preparing to undergo a computed tomography scan with contrast: Physical Assessment DX Findings Medications Flank pain Dysuria Bilateral knee pain BUN 54 mg/dL Creatinine 2.4 mg/dL Calcium 8.5 mg/dL Captopril Metformin Acetylcysteine Which medication does the nurse plan to administer before the procedure? Acetylcysteine (Mucosil) Metformin (Glucophage) Captopril (Capoten) Acetaminophen (Tylenol)

Acetylcysteine (Mucosil) This client has kidney impairment demonstrated by increased creatinine. Acetylcysteine (an antioxidant) may be used to prevent contrast-induced nephrotoxic effects. Metformin is held at least 24 hours before procedures using contrast. Although captopril and acetaminophen may be administered with a sip of water with permission of the provider, this is not essential before the procedure.

A client who is admitted with urolithiasis reports "spasms of intense flank pain, nausea, and severe dizziness." Which intervention does the nurse implement first?

Administer morphine sulfate 4 mg IV. Morphine administered intravenously will decrease the pain and the associated sympathetic nervous system reactions of nausea and hypotension.

Which patient has the highest risk for developing a complicated UTI? a. 26-year-old woman who is sexually active, but not currently pregnant b. 22-year-old man who has a neurogenic bladder due to spinal cord injury c. 35-year-old woman who had three full-term pregnancies and a miscarriage d. 53-year-old woman who is having some menstrual irregularities

B - 22-year-old man who has a neurogenic bladder due to spinal cord injury

The nurse is teaching a patient with urge incontinence about dietary modifications. What is the best information the nurse gives to the patient about fluid intake? a. Drink at least 2000 mL per day unless contraindicated. b. Drink 120 mL every hour or 240 mL every 2 hours and limit fluids after dinner. c. Drink fluid freely in the morning hours, but limit intake before going to bed. d. Drinking water is especially good for bladder health.

B - Drink 120 mL every hour or 240 mL every 2 hours and limit fluids after dinner.

The nurse hears in report that the patient is being treated for a fungal UTI. In addition to performing routine care and assessments, the nurse is extra-vigilant for signs/symptoms of which systemic disorder that may underlie the fungal UTI? a. Chronic cardiac disease b. Immune system compromise c. Respiratory system dysfunction d. Connective tissue disorder

B - Immune system compromise

A patient with urinary incontinence is prescribed oxybutynin (Ditropan). What precautions or instructions does the nurse provide related to this therapy? a. Avoid aspirin or aspirin-containing products. b. Increase fluids and dietary fiber intake. c. Report any unusual vaginal bleeding. d. Change positions slowly, especially in the morning.

B - Increase fluids and dietary fiber intake.

The nursing student sees an order for a urinalysis for a patient with frequency, urgency, and dysuria. In order to collect the specimen, what does the student do? a. Use sterile technique to insert a small-diameter (6 Fr) catheter. b. Instruct the patient on how to collect a clean-catch specimen. c. Tell the patient to urinate approximately 10 mL into a specimen cup. d. Take the urine from a bedpan and transfer it into a specimen cup.

B - Instruct the patient on how to collect a clean-catch specimen.

A patient is admitted for an elective orthopedic surgical procedure. The patient also has a personal and family history for urolithiasis. Which circumstance creates the greatest risk for recurrent urolithiasis? a. Giving the patient milk with every meal tray b. Keeping the patient NPO for extended periods c. Giving the patient an opioid narcotic for pain d. Inserting an indwelling catheter for the procedure

B - Keeping the patient NPO for extended periods

Which group has the highest prevalence of urinary tract infections (UTIs)? a. Young men b. Older women c. Older men d. School-aged girls

B - Older women

Which clinical manifestation indicates to the nurse that interventions for the patient's renal colic are effective? a. Urine is pink-tinged. b. Patient reports that pain is relieved. c. Urine output is 50 mL/min. d. Bladder scan shows no residual urine.

B - Patient reports that pain is relieved.

Which patient with incontinence is most likely to benefit from a surgical intervention? a. Patient with vaginal atrophy and altered urethral competency b. Patient with reflex (overflow) incontinence caused by obstruction c. Patient with functional incontinence related to musculoskeletal weakness d. Patient with urge incontinence or overactive bladder

B - Patient with reflex (overflow) incontinence caused by obstruction

A patient received an antibiotic prescription several hours ago and has started the medication, but requests "some relief from the burning." What comfort measures does the nurse suggest to the patient? a. Take over-the-counter acetaminophen. b. Sit in a sitz bath and urinate into the warm water. c. Place a cold pack over the perineal area. d. Rest in a recumbent position with legs elevated.

B - Sit in a sitz bath and urinate into the warm water.

A patient has agreed to try a bladder training program. What is the priority nursing intervention in starting this therapy? a. Start a schedule for voiding (e.g., every 2-3 hours). b. Teach the patient how to be alert, aware, and able to resist the urge to urinate. c. Convince the patient that the bladder issues are controlling his/her lifestyle. d. Give a thorough explanation of the problem of stress incontinence.

B - Teach the patient how to be alert, aware, and able to resist the urge to urinate.

A patient has been performing Kegel exercises for 2 months. How does the nurse know whether the exercises are working? a. Incontinence is still present, but the patient states that it is less. b. The patient is able to stop the urinary stream. c. There are no complaints of urgency from the patient. d. The patient is using absorbent undergarments for protection.

B - The patient is able to stop the urinary stream.

The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for an older adult patient with an indwelling catheter. The urine culture is pending, but the urinalysis shows greater than 105 colony-forming units, and the differential WBC count shows a "left shift." How does the nurse interpret these findings? a. Interstitial cystitis b. Urosepsis c. Complicated cystitis d. Radiation-induced cystitis

B - Urosepsis

The employee health nurse is conducting a presentation for employees who work in a paint manufacturing plant. In order to protect against bladder cancer, the nurse advises that everyone who works with chemicals should do what? a. Shower with mild soap and rinse well before they come to work. b. Use personal protective equipment such as gloves and masks. c. Limit their exposure to chemicals and fumes at all times. d. Avoid hobbies such as furniture refinishing that further expose to chemicals.

B - Use personal protective equipment such as gloves and masks.

A male client being treated for bladder cancer has a live virus compound instilled into his bladder as a treatment. What instruction does the nurse provide for postprocedure home care? A. "After 12 hours, your toilet should be cleaned with a 10% solution of bleach." B. "Do not share your toilet with family members for the next 24 hours." C. "Please be sure to stand when you are urinating." D. "Your underwear worn during the procedure and for the first 12 hours afterward should be bagged and discarded."

B. "Do not share your toilet with family members for the next 24 hours." The toilet should not be shared for 24 hours following this procedure because others using the toilet could be infected with the live virus that was instilled into the client. If only one toilet is available in the household, teach the client to flush the toilet after use and to follow this by adding 1 cup of undiluted bleach to the bowl water. The bowl is then flushed after 15 minutes, and the seat and flat surfaces of the toilet are wiped with a cloth containing a solution of 10% liquid bleach. The client must sit when he is urinating for at least 24 hours postprocedure to prevent splashing of the contaminated urine out of the commode, where it could be toxic for anyone who comes in contact with it. Underwear or other clothing that has come into contact with urine during the 24 hours after instillation should be washed separately from other clothing in a solution of 10% liquid bleach; it does not need to be discarded.

The nurse is teaching a client with a neurogenic bladder to use intermittent self-catheterization for bladder emptying. Which client statement indicates a need for further clarification? A. "A small-lumen catheter will help prevent injury to my urethra." B. "I will use a new, sterile catheter each time I do the procedure." C. "My family members can be taught to help me if I need it." D. "Proper handwashing before I start the procedure is very important."

B. "I will use a new, sterile catheter each time I do the procedure." Catheters are cleaned and reused. With proper handwashing and cleaning of the catheter, no increase in bacterial complications has been shown. Catheters are replaced when they show signs of deteriorating. The smallest lumen possible and the use of a lubricant help reduce urethral trauma to this sensitive mucous tissue. Research shows that family members in the home can be taught to perform straight catheterizations using a clean (rather than a sterile) catheter with good outcomes. Proper handwashing is extremely important in reducing the risk for infection in clients who use intermittent self-catheterization and is a principle that should be stressed.

The nurse receives the change-of-shift report on four clients. Which client does the nurse decide to assess first? A. A 26-year-old admitted 2 days ago with urosepsis with an oral temperature of 99.4° F (37.4° C) B. A 28-year-old with urolithiasis who has been receiving morphine sulfate and has not voided for 8 hours C. A 32-year-old admitted with hematuria and possible bladder cancer who is scheduled for cystoscopy D. A 40-year-old with noninfectious urethritis who is reporting "burning" and has estrogen cream prescribed

B. A 28-year-old with urolithiasis who has been receiving morphine sulfate and has not voided for 8 hours Anuria may indicate urinary obstruction at the bladder neck or urethra and is an emergency because obstruction can cause acute kidney failure. The client who has been receiving morphine sulfate may be oversedated and may not be aware of any discomfort caused by bladder distention. The 26-year-old admitted with urosepsis and slight fever, the 32-year-old scheduled for cystoscopy, and the 40-year-old with noninfectious urethritis are not at immediate risk for complications or deterioration.

A client diagnosed with stress incontinence is started on propantheline (Pro-Banthine). What interventions does the nurse suggest to alleviate the side effects of this anticholinergic drug? (Select all that apply.) A. Take the drug at bedtime. B. Encourage increased fluids. C. Increase fiber intake. D. Limit the intake of dairy products. E. Use hard candy for dry mouth.

B. Encourage increased fluids. C. Increase fiber intake. E. Use hard candy for dry mouth. Anticholinergics cause constipation; increasing fluids and fiber intake will help with this problem. Anticholinergics also cause extreme dry mouth, which can be alleviated with using hard candy to moisten the mouth. Taking the drug at night and limiting dairy products will not have an effect on the complications encountered with propantheline.

Which interventions are helpful in preventing bladder cancer? (Select all that apply.) A. Drinking 2½ liters of fluid a day B. Showering after working with or around chemicals C. Stopping the use of tobacco D. Using pelvic floor muscle exercises E. Wearing a lead apron when working with chemicals F. Wearing gloves and a mask when working around chemicals and fumes

B. Showering after working with or around chemicals C. Stopping the use of tobacco F. Wearing gloves and a mask when working around chemicals and fumes Certain chemicals (e.g., those used by professional hairdressers) are known to be carcinogenic in evaluating the risk for bladder cancer. Protective gear is advised. Bathing after exposure to them is advisable. Tobacco use is one of the highest, if not the highest, risk factor in the development of bladder cancer. Increasing fluid intake is helpful for some urinary problems such as urinary tract infection, but no correlation has been noted between fluid intake and bladder cancer risk. Using pelvic floor muscle strengthening (Kegel) exercises is helpful with certain types of incontinence, but no data show that these exercises prevent bladder cancer. Precautions should be taken when working with chemicals; however, lead aprons are used to protect from radiation.

The nurse in the urology clinic is providing teaching for a female client with cystitis. Which instructions does the nurse include in the teaching plan? (Select all that apply.) A. Cleanse the perineum from back to front after using the bathroom. B. Try to take in 64 ounces of fluid each day. C. Be sure to complete the full course of antibiotics. D. If urine remains cloudy, call the clinic. E. Expect some flank discomfort until the antibiotic has worked.

B. Try to take in 64 ounces of fluid each day. C. Be sure to complete the full course of antibiotics. D. If urine remains cloudy, call the clinic. Between 64 and 100 ounces (2 to 3 liters) of fluid should be taken daily to dilute bacteria and prevent infection. Not completing the course of antibiotics could suppress the bacteria, but would not destroy all bacteria, causing the infection to resurface. For persistent symptoms of infection, the client should contact the provider. The perineal area should be cleansed from front to back or "clean to dirty" to prevent infection. Cystitis produces suprapubic symptoms; flank pain occurs with infection or inflammation of the kidney. Awarded 0.0 points out of 3.0 possible points.

When planning an assessment of the urethra, what does the nurse do first? Examine the meatus. Note any unusual discharge. Record the presence of abnormalities. Don gloves.

Before examination begins, body fluid precautions (gloves) must be implemented first. Examining the meatus, noting unusual discharge, or recording the presence of abnormalities are things that the nurse should do after putting on gloves.

When planning an assessment of the urethra, what does the nurse do first? Examine the meatus. Note any unusual discharge. Record the presence of abnormalities. Don gloves. Correct

Before examination begins, body fluid precautions (gloves) must be implemented first. Examining the meatus, noting unusual discharge, or recording the presence of abnormalities are things that the nurse should do after putting on gloves.

The nurse is reviewing the medical record for a client with polycystic kidney disease who is scheduled for computed tomographic angiography with contrast: History and Physical Assessment Medications Diagnostic Findings Polycystic kidney disease Diabetes Hysterectomy Abdomen distended Negative edema Glyburide Metformin Synthroid BUN 26 mg/dL Creatinine 1.0 mg/dL HbA1c 6.9% Glucose 132 mg/dL Which intervention is essential for the nurse to perform? Obtain a thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level. Report the blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine. Hold the metformin 24 hours before and on the day of the procedure. Correct Notify the provider regarding blood glucose and glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) values.

Before studies with contrast media are performed, the nurse must withhold metformin, which may cause lactic acidosis. The focus of this admission is the polycystic kidneys; a TSH level is not essential at this time. BUN and creatinine are normal. The glucose is only mildly elevated (if fasting), and the HbA1c is in an appropriate range.

The nurse visualizes blood clots in a client's urinary catheter after a cystoscopy. What nursing intervention does the nurse perform first? Administer heparin intravenously. Remove the urinary catheter. Notify the health care provider. Correct Irrigate the catheter with sterile saline.

Bleeding and/or blood clots are potential complications of cystoscopy and may obstruct the catheter and decrease urine output. The nurse should monitor urine output and notify the health care provider of obvious blood clots or a decreased or absent urine output. Heparin will not be administered due to bleeding. The urinary catheter is allowing close monitoring of the urinary system and should not be removed at this time. The Foley catheter may be irrigated with sterile saline, as ordered.

An older adult woman who reports a change in bladder function says, "I feel like a child who sometimes pees her pants." What is the nurse's best response? "Have you tried using the toilet at least every couple of hours?" Correct "How does that make you feel?" "We can fix that." "That happens when we get older."

By emptying the bladder on a regular basis, urinary incontinence from overflow may be avoided, which may give the client some sense of control. The client has already stated how she feels; asking her again how she feels does not address her concern nor does it allow for nursing education. The nurse cannot assert that the problem can be fixed because this may be untrue. Suggesting that the problem occurs as we get older does not address the client's concern and does not provide for nursing education.

The nurse is talking to a 68-year-old male patient who has lifestyle choices and occupational exposure that put him at high risk for bladder cancer. The nurse is most concerned about which urinary characteristic? a. Frequency b. Nocturia c. Painless hematuria d. Incontinence

C - Painless hematuria

The nurse is caring for an older adult patient with urinary incontinence. The patient is alert and oriented, but refuses to use the call bell and has fallen several times while trying to get to the bathroom. What is the nurse's priority concern for this patient? a. Managing noncompliance b. Accurately measuring urinary output c. Providing fall prevention measures d. Managing urinary incontinence

C - Providing fall prevention measures

A 53-year-old postmenopausal woman reports "leaking urine" when she laughs, and is diagnosed with stress incontinence. What does the nurse tell the client about how certain drugs may be able to help with her stress incontinence? A "They can relieve your anxiety associated with incontinence." B "They help your bladder to empty." C "They may be used to improve urethral resistance." D "They decrease your bladder's tone."

C "They may be used to improve urethral resistance." Bladder pressure is greater than urethral resistance; drugs may be used to improve urethral resistance. Relieving anxiety has not been shown to improve stress incontinence. No drugs have been shown to promote bladder emptying, and this is not usually the problem with stress incontinence. Emptying the bladder is accomplished by the individual or, if that is not possible, by using a catheter. Decreasing bladder tone would not be a desired outcome for a woman with incontinence.

A young female patient reports experiencing burning with urination. What question does the nurse ask to differentiate between a vaginal infection and a urinary infection? a. "Have you noticed any blood in the urine?" b. "Have you had recent sexual intercourse?" c. "Have you noticed any vaginal discharge?" d. "Have you had fever or chills?"

C - "Have you noticed any vaginal discharge?"

Which statement by a patient indicates effective coping with a Kock's pouch? a. "I don't have any discomfort, but the pouch frequently overflows." b. "My wife has been irrigating the pouch daily. She likes to do it." c. "I check the pouch every 2 to 3 hours depending on my fluid and diet." d. "I never undress in front of anyone anymore, but I guess that is okay."

C - "I check the pouch every 2 to 3 hours depending on my fluid and diet."

The nurse is evaluating outcome criteria for a patient being treated for urge incontinence. Which statement indicates the treatment has been successful? a. "I'm following the prescribed therapy, but I think surgery is my best choice." b. "I still lose a little urine when I sneeze, but I have been wearing a thin pad." c. "I had trouble at first, but now I go to the toilet every 3 hours." d. "I have been using the bladder compression technique and it works."

C - "I had trouble at first, but now I go to the toilet every 3 hours."

Which patient has the highest risk for bladder cancer? a. 60-year-old male patient with malnutrition secondary to chronic alcoholism and self- neglect b. 25-year-old male patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus, who is noncompliant with therapeutic regimen c. 60-year-old female patient who smokes two packs of cigarettes per day and works in a chemical factory d. 25-year-old female patient who has had three episodes of bacterial (Escherichia coli) cystitis in the past year.

C - 60-year-old female patient who smokes two packs of cigarettes per day and works in a chemical factory

The nurse is working in a long-term care facility. Which circumstance is cause for greatest concern, because the facility has a large number of residents who are developing UTIs? a. Residents are not drinking enough fluids with meals. b. Unlicensed personnel are not assisting with toileting in a timely fashion. c. A large percentage of residents have indwelling urinary catheters. d. Many residents have severe dementia and functional incontinence.

C - A large percentage of residents have indwelling urinary catheters.

Which dietary changes does the nurse suggest to a patient with urge incontinence? a. Limit fluid intake to no more than 2 L/day. b. Peel all fruit before consuming. c. Avoid alcohol and caffeine. d. Avoid smoked or salted food

C - Avoid alcohol and caffeine.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has an indwelling catheter and subsequently developed a UTI. The patient has been receiving antibiotics for several days, but develops hypotension, a rapid pulse, and confusion. The nurse suspects urosepsis and alerts the health care provider. Which diagnostic test is the provider most likely to order to confirm urosepsis? a. Culture of the drainage bag b. Culture of the catheter tip c. Blood culture d. Repeat urinalysis

C - Blood culture

The home health nurse reads in the patient's chart that the patient has asymptomatic bacterial urinary tract infection (ABUTI). Which intervention will the nurse perform? a. Obtain an order for urinalysis and urine culture and sensitivity. b. Check the patient's medication list for appropriate antibiotic order. c. Closely monitor for conditions that cause progression to acute infection. d. Ask the patient when the ABUTI first started and when it was diagnosed.

C - Closely monitor for conditions that cause progression to acute infection.

Several patients at the clinic have just been diagnosed with UTIs. Which patients may need longer antibiotic treatment (7 to 21 days) or different agents than the typical first-line medi- cations? (Select all that apply.) a. Postmenopausal patient b. Patient with urethritis c. Diabetic patient d. Immunosuppressed patient e. Pregnant patient

C - Diabetic patient D -Immunosuppressed patient E - Pregnant patient

A patient is diagnosed with a fungal UTI. Which drug does the nurse anticipate the patient will be treated with? a. Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) b. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) c. Fluconazole (Diflucan) d. Amoxicillin (Amoxil)

C - Fluconazole (Diflucan)

An older adult patient with a cognitive impair-ment is living in an extended-care facility. The patient is incontinent, but as the family points out, "he will urinate in the toilet if somebody helps him." Which type of incontinence does the nurse suspect in this patient? a. Urge b. Overflow c. Functional d. Stress

C - Functional

The cystoscopy results for a patient include a small-capacity bladder, the presence of Hunner's ulcers, and small hemorrhages after bladder distention. How does the nurse interpret this report? a. Urosepsis b. Complicated cystitis c. Interstitial cystitis d. Urethritis

C - Interstitial cystitis

The nurse is caring for an obese older adult patient with dementia. The patient is alert and ambulatory, but has functional incontinence. Which nursing intervention is best for this patient? a. Help the patient to lose weight. b. Help the patient apply an estrogen cream. c. Offer assistance with toileting every 2 hours. d. Intermittently catheterize the patient.

C - Offer assistance with toileting every 2 hours.

A patient is diagnosed with urethral stricture. What findings does the nurse expect to see documented in the patient's chart for this condition? a. Pain on urination b. Pain on ejaculation c. Overflow incontinence d. Hematuria and pyuria

C - Overflow incontinence

A patient reports severe flank pain. The report indicates that urine is turbid, malodorous, and rust-colored; RBCs, WBCs, and bacteria are present; and microscopic analysis shows crystals. What does this data suggest? a. Pyuria and cystitis b. Staghorn calculus with infection c. Urolithiasis and infection d. Dysuria and urinary retention

C - Urolithiasis and infection

The client passes a urinary stone that laboratory analysis indicates is composed of calcium oxalate. Based on this analysis, which instruction does the nurse specifically include for dietary prevention of the problem? A. "Increase your intake of meat, fish, and cranberry juice." B. "Avoid citrus fruits and citrus juices such as oranges." C. "Avoid dark green leafy vegetables such as spinach." D. "Decrease your intake of dairy products, especially milk."

C. "Avoid dark green leafy vegetables such as spinach." Rationale: Calcium oxalate stones form more easily in the presence of oxalate. Sources of oxalate include spinach, black tea, and rhubarb. Avoiding these sources of oxalate may reduce the number of stones formed. Citrus intake is not restricted in this type of stone and is often suggested to be increased. Dietary intake of calcium does not appear to affect calcium-based stone formation, although the client should avoid calcium mineral supplements. Moderation of meat reduces stone formation in general.

The nurse is instructing an older adult female client about interventions to decrease the risk for cystitis. Which client comment indicates that the teaching was effective? A. "I must avoid drinking carbonated beverages." B. "I need to douche vaginally once a week." C. "I should drink 2½ liters of fluid every day." D. "I will not drink fluids after 8 PM each evening."

C. "I should drink 2½ liters of fluid every day." Drinking 2½ liters of fluid a day flushes out the urinary system and helps reduce the risk for cystitis. Avoiding carbonated beverages is not necessary to reduce the risk for cystitis. Douching is not a healthy behavior because it removes beneficial organisms as well as the harmful ones. Avoiding fluids after 8:00 p.m. would help prevent nocturia but not cystitis. It is recommended that clients with incontinence problems limit their late-night fluid intake to 120 mL.

The nurse is educating a female client about hygiene measures to reduce her risk for urinary tract infection. What does the nurse instruct the client to do? A. "Douche—but only once a month." B. "Use only white toilet paper." C. "Wipe from front to back." D. "Wipe with the softest toilet paper available."

C. "Wipe from front to back." Wiping front to back keeps organisms in the stool from coming close to the urethra, which increases the risk for infection. Douching is an unhealthy behavior because it removes beneficial organisms as well as the harmful ones. White toilet paper helps prevent allergies, not infections. Using soft toilet paper does not prevent infection.

For which hospitalized client does the nurse recommend the ongoing use of a urinary catheter? A. 36-year-old woman who is blind receiving diuretics B. 46-year-old man who has paraplegia and is admitted for asthma management C. 56-year-old woman who is admitted with a vaginal-rectal fistula and diabetes D. 66-year-old man who has severe osteoarthritis and high risk for falling

C. 56-year-old woman who is admitted with a vaginal-rectal fistula and diabetes Rationale: This client has a wound that can be irritated by urine and whose urinary tract could become infected by the draining fistula (her diabetes increases her overall risk for infection). All of these other clients could be managed with frequent toileting. The men could also be managed with external urine collection devices.

A cognitively impaired client has urge incontinence. Which method for achieving continence does the nurse include in the client's care plan? A. Bladder training B. Credé method C. Habit training D. Kegel exercises

C. Habit training Habit training (scheduled toileting) will be most effective in reducing incontinence for a cognitively impaired client because the caregiver is responsible for helping the client to a toilet on a scheduled basis. Bladder training, the Credé method, and learning Kegel exercises require that the client be alert, cooperative, and able to assist with his or her own training.

Which nursing activity illustrates proper aseptic technique during catheter care? A. Applying Betadine ointment to the perineal area after catheterization B. Irrigating the catheter daily C. Positioning the collection bag below the height of the bladder D. Sending a urine specimen to the laboratory for testing

C. Positioning the collection bag below the height of the bladder Correct Urine collection bags must be kept below the level of the bladder at all times. Elevating the collection bag above the bladder causes reflux of pathogens from the bag into the urinary tract. Applying antiseptic solutions or antibiotic ointments to the perineal area of catheterized clients has not demonstrated any beneficial effect. A closed system of irrigation must be maintained by ensuring that catheter tubing connections are sealed securely; disconnections can introduce pathogens into the urinary tract, so routine catheter irrigation should be avoided. Sending a urine specimen to the laboratory is not indicated for asepsis.

The certified Wound, Ostomy, and Continence Nurse or enterostomal therapist teaches a client who has had a cystectomy about which care principles for the client's post-discharge activities? A. Nutritional and dietary care B. Respiratory care C. Stoma and pouch care D. Wiping from front to back (asepsis)

C. Stoma and pouch care The enterostomal therapist demonstrates external pouch application, local skin care, pouch care, methods of adhesion, and drainage mechanisms. The registered dietitian teaches the cystectomy client about nutritional care. The respiratory therapist teaches the cystectomy client about respiratory care. The client with a cystectomy does not require instruction about front-to-back wiping.

Which type of incontinence benefits from pelvic floor muscle (Kegel) exercise? A. Functional B. Overflow C. Stress D. Urge

C. Stress Pelvic floor (Kegel) exercise therapy for women with stress incontinence strengthens the muscles of the pelvic floor, thereby helping decrease the occurrence of incontinence. Functional incontinence is not caused by a weakened pelvic floor; rather, it is due to structural problems often resulting from injury or trauma. Overflow incontinence is caused by too much urine being stored in the bladder. Urge incontinence is caused by a problem (i.e., neurologic) with the client's urge to urinate.

A 32-year-old female with a urinary tract infection (UTI) reports urinary frequency, urgency, and some discomfort upon urination. Her vital signs are stable except for a temperature of 100° F. Which drug does the health care provider prescribe? A. Nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin) after intercourse B. Estrogen (Premarin) C. Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) D. Phenazopyridine (Pyridium) with intercourse

C. Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) Guidelines indicate that a 3-day course of trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole is effective in treating uncomplicated, community-acquired UTI in women. Drugs from the same class as nitrofurantoin reduce bacteria in the urinary tract by inhibiting bacterial reproduction (bacteriostatic action). This client needs a drug that will kill bacteria. Estrogen cream may help prevent recurrent UTIs in postmenopausal women, which this client is not (at age 32). Use of Premarin is related to problems with incontinence. Phenazopyridine (Pyridium) is not used to treat infection, but symptoms of a UTI.

A client has returned from a captopril renal scan. Which teaching does the nurse provide when the client returns? "Arise slowly and call for assistance when ambulating." Correct "I must measure your intake and output." "We must save your urine because it is radioactive." "I must attach you to this cardiac monitor."

Captopril can cause severe hypotension during and after the procedure, so the client should be warned to avoid rapid position changes and about the risk for falling as a result of orthostatic (positional) hypotension. Intake and output measurement is not necessary after this procedure, unless it had been requested previously. A small amount of radionuclide is used in a renal scan; the urine is not radioactive, although the nurse should practice Standard Precautions, as always, and wear gloves. Cardiac monitoring is not needed, although the nurse should monitor for hypotension secondary to captopril.

After delegating care to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) for a client who is prescribed habit training to manage incontinence, a nurse evaluates the UAP's understanding. Which action indicates the UAP needs additional teaching?

Changing the client's incontinence brief when wet Habit training is undermined by the use of absorbent incontinence briefs or pads. The nurse should re-educate the UAP on the technique of habit training. The UAP should continue to toilet the client after meals, encourage the client to drink fluids, and record incontinent episodes.

Which technique does the nurse use to obtain a sterile urine specimen from a client with a Foley catheter? Disconnect the Foley catheter from the drainage tube and collect urine directly from the Foley. Remove the existing catheter and obtain a sample during the process of inserting a new Foley. Use a sterile syringe to withdraw urine from the urine collection bag. Clamp the tubing, attach a syringe to the specimen, and withdraw at least 5 mL of urine.

Clamping the tubing, attaching a syringe to the specimen, and withdrawing at least 5 mL of urine is the correct technique for obtaining a sterile urine specimen from the client with a Foley catheter. Disconnecting the Foley catheter from the drainage tube and collecting urine directly from the Foley increases the risk for microbe exposure. A Foley catheter should not be removed to get a urine sample. Microbes may be in the urine collection bag from standing urine, so using a sterile syringe to withdraw urine from the urine collection bag is not the proper technique to obtain a urine sample.

Which technique does the nurse use to obtain a sterile urine specimen from a client with a Foley catheter? Disconnect the Foley catheter from the drainage tube and collect urine directly from the Foley. Remove the existing catheter and obtain a sample during the process of inserting a new Foley. Use a sterile syringe to withdraw urine from the urine collection bag. Clamp the tubing, attach a syringe to the specimen, and withdraw at least 5 mL of urine. Correct

Clamping the tubing, attaching a syringe to the specimen, and withdrawing at least 5 mL of urine is the correct technique for obtaining a sterile urine specimen from the client with a Foley catheter. Disconnecting the Foley catheter from the drainage tube and collecting urine directly from the Foley increases the risk for microbe exposure. A Foley catheter should not be removed to get a urine sample. Microbes may be in the urine collection bag from standing urine, so using a sterile syringe to withdraw urine from the urine collection bag is not the proper technique to obtain a urine sample.

For which clients scheduled for a computed tomography (CT) scan with contrast does the nurse communicate safety concerns to the health care provider? (Select all that apply.) Client with an allergy to shrimp Client with a history of asthma Client who requests morphine sulfate every 3 hours Client with a blood urea nitrogen of 62 mg/dL and a creatinine of 2.0 mg/dL Client who took metformin (Glucophage) 4 hours ago

Client with an allergy to shrimp Correct Client with a history of asthma Correct creatinine of 2.0 mg/dL Correct Client who took metformin (Glucophage) 4 hours ago Correct The client who will be undergoing a CT scan with contrast should be asked about known hay fever or food or drug allergies, especially to seafood, eggs, milk, or chocolate. Contrast reactions have been reported to be as high as 15% in these clients. Clients with asthma have been shown to be at greater risk for contrast reactions than the general public. When reactions do occur, they are more likely to be severe. The risk for contrast-induced nephropathy is increased in clients who have pre-existing renal insufficiency (e.g., serum creatinine levels greater than 1.5 mg/dL or estimated glomerular filtration rate less than 45 mL/min). Metformin must be discontinued at least 24 hours before and for at least 48 hours after any study using contrast media because the life-threatening complication of lactic acidosis, although rare, could occur. There are no contraindications to undergo CT with contrast while taking morphine sulfate. CT with contrast may help to identify the underlying cause of pain.

The nurse has these client assignments. Which client does the nurse encourage to consume 2 to 3 liters of fluid each day? Client with chronic kidney disease Client with heart failure Client with complete bowel obstruction Client with hyperparathyroidism

Client with hyperparathyroidism A major feature of hyperparathyroidism is hypercalcemia, which predisposes a client to kidney stones; this client should remain hydrated. A client with chronic kidney disease should not consume 2 to 3 liters of water because the kidneys are not functioning properly, and this could lead to fluid retention. People with heart failure typically have fluid volume excess. A client with complete bowel obstruction may experience vomiting and should be NPO.

The charge nurse is making client assignments for the day shift. Which client is best to assign to an LPN/LVN? Client who has just returned from having a kidney artery angioplasty Client with polycystic kidney disease who is having a kidney ultrasound Client who is going for a cystoscopy and cystourethroscopy Client with glomerulonephritis who is having a kidney biopsy

Client with polycystic kidney disease who is having a kidney ultrasound Kidney ultrasounds are noninvasive procedures without complications; the LPN/LVN can provide this care. A kidney artery angioplasty is an invasive procedure that requires postprocedure monitoring for complications, especially hemorrhage; a registered nurse is needed. Cystoscopy and cystourethroscopy are procedures that are associated with potentially serious complications such as bleeding and infection. These clients should be assigned to RN staff members. Kidney biopsy is associated with potentially serious complications such as bleeding, and this client should be assigned to RN staff members.

Which laboratory test is the best indicator of kidney function? Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) Creatinine Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) Alkaline phosphatase

Creatinine excretion, the end product of muscle metabolism, remains relatively steady and therefore is the best indicator of renal function. BUN may be affected by protein or fluid intake. AST and alkaline phosphatase are measures of hepatic function.

Which laboratory test is the best indicator of kidney function? Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) Creatinine Correct Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) Alkaline phosphatase

Creatinine excretion, the end product of muscle metabolism, remains relatively steady and therefore is the best indicator of renal function. BUN may be affected by protein or fluid intake. AST and alkaline phosphatase are measures of hepatic function.

The health care provider requests phenazopyridine (Pyridium) for a client with cystitis. What does the nurse tell the client about the drug? A "It will act as an antibacterial drug." B "This drug will treat your infection, not the symptoms of it." C "You need to take the drug on an empty stomach." D "Your urine will turn red or orange while on the drug."

D "Your urine will turn red or orange while on the drug." Phenazopyridine will turn the client's urine red or orange. Clients should be warned about this effect of the drug because it will be alarming to them if they are not informed, and care should be taken because it will stain undergarments. Phenazopyridine reduces bladder pain and burning by exerting a local analgesic/anesthetic effect on the mucosa of the urinary tract. It does treat the symptoms of bladder infection; it has no antibacterial action. Phenazopyridine should be taken with a meal or immediately after eating.

The nurse is teaching a man about how to prevent UTIs. What information does the nurse include? a. "Have a minimal fluid intake of 5 L daily, unless contraindicated." b. "Empty your bladder before and after sexual intercourse." c. "Make sure that spermicides are used with condoms." d. "Gently wash the genital area before intercourse."

D - "Gently wash the genital area before intercourse."

A patient has had a bladder suspension and a suprapubic catheter is in place. The patient wants to know how long the catheter will remain in place. What is the nurse's best response? a. "Typically it remains for 24 hours postoperatively." b. "It will be removed at your first clinic visit." c. "When you can void on your own, it will be removed." d. "It will be removed when you can void and residual urine is less than 50 mL."

D - "It will be removed when you can void and residual urine is less than 50 mL."

Which patient should not be advised to take cranberry juice? a. 26-year-old pregnant woman with a history of uncomplicated UTI b. 23-year-old man with history of recurrent kidney stones c. 65-year-old man with urinary retention secondary to enlarged prostate d. 33-year-old woman with dysuria associated with interstitial cystitis

D - 33-year-old woman with dysuria associated with interstitial cystitis

The nurse is teaching a patient a behavioral intervention for bladder compression. In order to correctly perform the Credé method, what does the nurse teach the patient to do? a. Insert the fingers into the vagina and gently push against the vaginal wall. b. Breathe in deeply and direct the pressure towards the bladder during exhalation. c. Empty the bladder, wait a few minutes, and attempt a second bladder emptying. d. Apply firm and steady pressure over the bladder area with the palm of the hand.

D - Apply firm and steady pressure over the bladder area with the palm of the hand.

The nurse is performing an assessment on a patient with probable stress incontinence. Which assessment technique does the nurse use to validate stress incontinence? a. Assess the abdomen to estimate bladder fullness. b. Check for residual urine using a portable ultrasound. c. Catheterize the patient immediately after voiding. d. Ask the patient to cough while wearing a perineal pad.

D - Ask the patient to cough while wearing a perineal pad.

The nurse is caring for a patient with functional incontinence. The UAP reports that "the linens have been changed four times within the past 6 hours, but the patient refuses to wear a diaper." What does the nurse do next? a. Thank the UAP for the hard work and advise to continue to change the linens. b. Call the health care provider to obtain an order for an indwelling catheter. c. Instruct the UAP to stop using the word "diaper" and instead use "incontinence pants." d. Assess the patient for any new urinary problems and ask about toileting preferences.

D - Assess the patient for any new urinary problems and ask about toileting preferences.

What role does drug therapy have as an intervention for reflex (overflow) urinary incontinence? a. Captopril (Capoten) is given to lower urine cystine levels. b. Levofloxacin (Levaquin) is given to prevent UTIs with this type of incontinence. c. Midorine (ProAmatine) is given to increase the contractile force of the bladder. d. Bethanechol chloride (Urecholine) may be used short-term after surgery.

D - Bethanechol chloride (Urecholine) may be used short-term after surgery.

A patient has UTI symptoms but there are no bacteria in the urine. The health care provider suspects interstitial cystitis. The nurse prepares patient teaching material for which diagnostic test? a. Urography b. Abdominal sonography c. Computed tomography (CT) d. Cystoscopy

D - Cystoscopy

A patient comes to the clinic and reports severe flank pain, bladder distention, and nausea and vomiting with increasingly smaller amounts of urine with frank blood. The patient states, "I have kidney stones and I just need a prescription for pain medication." What is the nurse's priority concern? a. Controlling the patient's pain b. Checking the quantity of blood in the urine c. Flushing the kidneys with oral fluids d. Determining if there is an obstruction

D - Determining if there is an obstruction

A patient is returning from the postanesthesia care unit after surgery for bladder cancer resulting in a cutaneous ureterostomy. Where does the nurse expect the stoma to be located? a. On the perineum b. At the beltline c. On the posterior flank d. In the midabdominal area

D - In the midabdominal area

A patient has had surgery for bladder cancer. To prevent recurrence of superficial bladder cancer, the nurse anticipates that the health care provider is likely to recommend which treatment? a. No treatment is needed for this benign condition. b. Intravesical instillation of single-agent chemotherapy. c. Radiation therapy to the bladder, ureters, and urethra. d. Intravesical instillation of bacille Calmette- Guérin.

D - Intravesical instillation of bacille Calmette- Guérin.

A patient is considering vaginal cone therapy, but is a little hesitant because she does not understand how it works. What does the nurse tell her about how vaginal cone therapy improves incontinence? a. It mechanically obstructs urine loss from the urethra. b. It repositions the bladder to reduce compression. c. It increases the normal flora of the perineum. d. It strengthens pelvic floor muscles.

D - It strengthens pelvic floor muscles.

The health care provider verbally informs the nurse that the patient needs a fluoroquinolone antibiotic to treat a UTI. The pharmacy delivers gabapentin (Neurontin). What should the nurse do first? a. Administer the medication as ordered. b. Call the pharmacist and ask for a read back of the order. c. Call the health care provider for clarification of the order. d. Look at the written order to clarify the name of the medication.

D - Look at the written order to clarify the name of the medication.

The nurse is caring for a patient with urolithiasis. Which medication is likely to be given in the acute phase to relieve the patient's severe pain? a. Ketorolac (Toradol) b. Oxybutynin chloride (Ditropan) c. Propantheline bromide (Pro-Banthine) d. Morphine sulfate (Astramorph)

D - Morphine sulfate (Astramorph)

In which patient circumstance would the nurse question the order for the insertion of an indwelling catheter? a. Patient is critically ill and at risk for hypovolemic shock. b. Patient has urinary retention with beginnings of hydronephrosis. c. Patient was in a car accident and has a possible spinal cord injury. d. Patient has functional incontinence related to Alzheimer's disease.

D - Patient has functional incontinence related to Alzheimer's disease.

A patient has been started on oxybutynin (Ditropan) for urinary incontinence. What is the major action of this medication? a. Increases blood flow to the urethra b. Blocks acetylcholine receptors c. Causes slight numbing of the bladder d. Relaxes bladder muscles

D - Relaxes bladder muscles

A patient with a history of kidney stones presents with severe flank pain, nausea, vomiting, pallor, and diaphoresis. He reports freely passing urine, but it is bloody. The priority for nursing care is to monitor for which patient problem? a. Possible dehydration b. Impaired tissue perfusion c. Impaired urinary elimination d. Severe pain

D - Severe pain

A patient repots the loss of small amounts of urine during coughing, sneezing, jogging, or lifting. Which type of incontinence do these symptoms describe? a. Urge b. Overflow c. Functional d. Stress

D - Stress

Which urine characteristic suggests that the patient is drinking a sufficient amount of fluid? a. Urine pH is between 6 to 6.5. b. Urine has a high specific gravity. c. Urine has a faint ammonia odor. d. Urine is a pale yellow color.

D - Urine is a pale yellow color.

The nurse is teaching a client who is scheduled for a neobladder and a Kock pouch. Which client statement indicates a correct understanding of these procedures? A. "If I restrict my oral intake of fluids, the adjustment will be easier." B. "I must go to the restroom more often because my urine will be excreted through my anus." C. "I need to wear loose-fitting pants so the urine can flow into my ostomy bag." D. "I will have to drain my pouch with a catheter."

D. "I will have to drain my pouch with a catheter." For the client with a neobladder and a Kock pouch, urine is collected in a pouch and is drained with the use of a catheter. Fluids should not be restricted. A neobladder does not require the use of an ostomy bag.

The nurse is teaching the importance of a low purine diet to a client admitted with urolithiasis consisting of uric acid. Which statement by the client indicates that teaching was effective? A. "I am so relieved that I can continue eating my fried fish meals every week." B. "I will quit growing rhubarb in my garden since I'm not supposed to eat it anymore." C. "My wife will be happy to know that I can keep enjoying her liver and onions recipe." D. "I will no longer be able to have red wine with my dinner."

D. "I will no longer be able to have red wine with my dinner." Nutrition therapy depends on the type of stone formed. When stones consist of uric acid (urate), the client should decrease intake of purine sources such as organ meats, poultry, fish, gravies, red wines, and sardines. Reduction of urinary purine content may help prevent these stones from forming. Avoiding oxalate sources such as spinach, black tea, and rhubarb is appropriate when the stones consist of calcium oxalate.

An older adult woman confides to the nurse, "I am so embarrassed about buying adult diapers for myself." How does the nurse respond? A. "Don't worry about it. You need them." B. "Shop at night, when stores are less crowded." C. "Tell everyone that they are for your husband." D. "That is tough. What do you think might help?"

D. "That is tough. What do you think might help?" Stating that the situation is tough acknowledges the client's concerns, and asking the client to think about what might help assists the client to think of methods to solve her problem. Telling the client not to worry is dismissive of the client's concerns. Telling the client to shop at night does not empower the client, and it reaffirms the client's embarrassment. Suggesting to the client that she tell everyone they are for her husband also does not empower the client; rather, it suggests to the client that telling untruths is acceptable.

The nurse is teaching a client about pelvic muscle exercises. What information does the nurse include? A. "For the best effect, perform all of your exercises while you are seated on the toilet." B. "Limit your exercises to 5 minutes twice a day, or you will injure yourself." C. "Results should be visible to you within 72 hours." D. "You know that you are exercising correct muscles if you can stop urine flow in midstream."

D. "You know that you are exercising correct muscles if you can stop urine flow in midstream." When the client can start and stop the urine stream, the pelvic muscles are being used. Pelvic muscle exercises can be performed anywhere and should be performed more often than 5 minutes twice daily. Noticeable results take several weeks.

Which client does the nurse manager on the medical unit assign to an experienced LPN/LVN? A. A 42-year-old with painless hematuria who needs an admission assessment B. A 46-year-old scheduled for cystectomy who needs help in selecting a stoma site C. A 48-year-old receiving intravesical chemotherapy for bladder cancer D. A 55-year-old with incontinence who has intermittent catheterization prescribed

D. A 55-year-old with incontinence who has intermittent catheterization prescribed Insertion of catheters is within the education and legal scope of practice for LPN/LVNs. Admission assessments and intravesical chemotherapy should be done by an RN. Preoperative preparation for cystectomy and stoma site selection should be done by an RN and either a Certified Wound, Ostomy, and Continence Nurse or an enterostomal therapy nurse.

Which nursing intervention or practice is most effective in helping to prevent urinary tract infection (UTI) in hospitalized clients?

Periodically re-evaluating the need for indwelling catheters Studies have shown that re-evaluating the need for indwelling catheters in clients is the most effective way to prevent UTIs in the hospital setting.

What does the nurse teach a client to do to decrease the risk for urinary tract infection (UTI)? A. Limit fluid intake. B. Increase caffeine consumption. C. Limit sugar intake. D. Drink about 3 liters of fluid daily.

D. Drink about 3 liters of fluid daily. Drinking about 3 liters of fluid daily, if another medical problem does not require fluid restriction, helps prevent dehydration and UTIs. Fluids flush the system and should not be limited. Increased caffeine intake and limiting sugar intake will not prevent UTIs.

A client in the community health clinic is prescribed trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole for cystitis. She reports that she developed hives to "something called Septra." What is the nurse's best action? A. Reassure the client that Septra is not trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole. B. Highlight this important information in the client's medical record. C. Place an allergy alert band on the client's wrist. D. Notify the prescriber immediately.

D. Notify the prescriber immediately. Rationale: Septra is a brand name for TMP-SMX, a sulfa-based antibiotic with multiple brand names. It is inappropriate to band a wrist in a community health clinic. This information may need to be added to the client's medical record, but simply highlighting the information will not prevent an avoidable adverse drug event. The provider needs the allergy information in order to substitute another effective antibiotic.

Which nursing intervention or practice is most effective in helping to prevent urinary tract infection (UTI) in hospitalized clients? A. Encouraging them to drink fluids B. Irrigating all catheters daily with sterile saline C. Recommending that catheters be placed in all clients D. Periodically re-evaluating the need for indwelling catheters

D. Periodically re-evaluating the need for indwelling catheters Studies have shown that re-evaluating the need for indwelling catheters in clients is the most effective way to prevent UTIs in the hospital setting. Encouraging fluids, although it is a valuable practice for clients with catheters, will not necessarily prevent the occurrence of UTIs in the hospital setting. In some clients, their conditions do not permit an increase in fluids, such as those with congestive heart failure and kidney failure. Irrigating catheters daily is contraindicated; any time a closed system is opened, bacteria may be introduced. Placing catheters in all clients is unnecessary and unrealistic. This practice would place more clients at risk for the development of UTI.

A client who is 6 months pregnant comes to the prenatal clinic with a suspected urinary tract infection (UTI). What action does the nurse take with this client? A. Discharges the client to her home for strict bedrest for the duration of the pregnancy B. Instructs the client to drink a minimum of 3 liters of fluids, especially water, every day to "flush out" bacteria C. Recommends that the client refrain from having sexual intercourse until after she has delivered her baby D. Refers the client to the clinic nurse practitioner for immediate follow-up

D. Refers the client to the clinic nurse practitioner for immediate follow-up Pregnant women with UTIs require prompt and aggressive treatment because simple cystitis can lead to acute pyelonephritis. This in turn can cause preterm labor with adverse effects for the fetus. It is unsafe for the client to be sent home without analysis of the symptoms that she has. Her problem needs to be investigated without delay. Although drinking increased amounts of fluids is helpful, it will not cure an infection. Having sexual intercourse (or not having it) is not related to the client's problem. The client's symptoms need follow-up with a health care provider.

The nurse is caring for clients on a renal/kidney medical-surgical unit. Which drug, requested by the health care provider for a client with a urinary tract infection (UTI), does the nurse question? A. Bactrim B. Cipro C. Noroxin D. Tegretol

D. Tegretol Drug alerts state that confusion is frequent (sound alike and look alike) between the drugs Tequin (gatifloxacin) and Tegretol (carbamazepine). The former is used for UTI, and the latter is prescribed as an oral anticonvulsant. Bactrim (trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole), Cipro (ciprofloxacin), and Noroxin (norfloxacin) are drugs used to treat UTI.

A client is referred to a home health agency after being hospitalized with overflow incontinence and a urinary tract infection. Which nursing action can the home health RN delegate to the home health aide (unlicensed assistive personnel [UAP])? A. Assisting the client in developing a schedule for when to take prescribed antibiotics B. Inserting a straight catheter as necessary if the client is unable to empty the bladder C. Teaching the client how to use the Credé maneuver to empty the bladder more fully D. Using a bladder scanner (with training) to check residual bladder volume after the client voids

D. Using a bladder scanner (with training) to check residual bladder volume after the client voids Use of a bladder scanner is noninvasive and can be accomplished by a home health aide (UAP) who has been trained and evaluated in this skill. Assisting the client in developing a schedule for when to take prescribed antibiotics, inserting a straight catheter, and teaching the client to use the Credé maneuver all require more education and are in the legal scope of practice of the LPN/LVN or RN.

Which age-related change can cause nocturia? Decreased ability to concentrate urine Decreased production of antidiuretic hormone Increased production of erythropoietin Increased secretion of aldosterone

Decreased ability to concentrate urine Nocturia may result from decreased kidney-concentrating ability associated with aging. Increased production of antidiuretic hormone, decreased production of erythropoietin, and decreased secretion of aldosterone are age-related changes.

What does the nurse teach a client to do to decrease the risk for urinary tract infection (UTI)?

Drink about 3 liters of fluid daily. Drinking about 3 liters of fluid daily, if another medical problem does not require fluid restriction, helps prevent dehydration and UTIs.

Which assessment finding alarms the nurse immediately after a client returns from the operating room for cystoscopy performed under conscious sedation? Pink-tinged urine Urinary frequency Temperature of 100.8° F Lethargy

Fever, chills, or an elevated white blood cell count after cystoscopy suggest infection after an invasive procedure; the provider must be notified immediately. Pink-tinged urine is expected after a cystoscopy; gross hematuria would require notification of the surgeon. Frequency may be noted as a result of irritation of the bladder. If sedation or anesthesia was used, lethargy is an expected effect.

Which assessment finding alarms the nurse immediately after a client returns from the operating room for cystoscopy performed under conscious sedation? Pink-tinged urine Urinary frequency Temperature of 100.8° F Correct Lethargy

Fever, chills, or an elevated white blood cell count after cystoscopy suggest infection after an invasive procedure; the provider must be notified immediately. Pink-tinged urine is expected after a cystoscopy; gross hematuria would require notification of the surgeon. Frequency may be noted as a result of irritation of the bladder. If sedation or anesthesia was used, lethargy is an expected effect.

When a client with diabetes returns to the medical unit after a computed tomography (CT) scan with contrast dye, all of these interventions are prescribed. Which intervention does the nurse implement first? Give lispro (Humalog) insulin, 12 units subcutaneously. Request a breakfast tray for the client. Infuse 0.45% normal saline at 125 mL/hr. Correct Administer captopril (Capoten).

Fluids are needed because the dye used in a CT scan with contrast has an osmotic effect, causing dehydration and potential kidney failure. Lispro is not administered until the breakfast tray arrives. A breakfast tray will be requested, but preventing complications of the procedure is done first. Because the client may be hypovolemic, the nurse should monitor blood pressure and administer IV fluids before deciding whether administration of captopril is appropriate.

The certified Wound, Ostomy, and Continence Nurse or enterostomal therapist teaches a client who has had a cystectomy about which care principles for the client's post-discharge activities?

Stoma and pouch care The enterostomal therapist demonstrates external pouch application, local skin care, pouch care, methods of adhesion, and drainage mechanisms.

A cognitively impaired client has urge incontinence. Which method for achieving continence does the nurse include in the client's care plan?

Habit training Habit training (scheduled toileting) will be most effective in reducing incontinence for a cognitively impaired client because the caregiver is responsible for helping the client to a toilet on a scheduled basis.

When performing bladder scanning to detect residual urine in a female client, the nurse must first assess which factor? Abdominal girth Presence of urinary infection History of hysterectomy Hematuria

History of hysterectomy The scanner must be in the scan mode for female clients to ensure the scanner subtracts the volume of the uterus from the measurement, or in the scan mode for male clients for women who have undergone a hysterectomy. The nurse performs this procedure in response to distention or pressure in the bladder; girth is not a factor. This procedure detects urine retained in the bladder, not infection. The presence of retained urine in the bladder is assessed, regardless of hematuria.

The nurse is reviewing the medical record for a client with polycystic kidney disease who is scheduled for computed tomographic angiography with contrast: History and Physical Medications & Dx Findings Polycystic kidney disease Diabetes Hysterectomy Abdomen distended Negative edema Glyburide Metformin Synthroid BUN 26 mg/dL Creatinine 1.0 mg/dL HbA1c 6.9% Glucose 132 mg/dL Which intervention is essential for the nurse to perform? Obtain a thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level. Report the blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine. Hold the metformin 24 hours before and on the day of the procedure. Notify the provider regarding blood glucose and glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) values.

Hold the metformin 24 hours before and on the day of the procedure. Before studies with contrast media are performed, the nurse must withhold metformin, which may cause lactic acidosis. The focus of this admission is the polycystic kidneys; a TSH level is not essential at this time. BUN and creatinine are normal. The glucose is only mildly elevated (if fasting), and the HbA1c is in an appropriate range.

The nurse is teaching a client with a neurogenic bladder to use intermittent self-catheterization for bladder emptying. Which client statement indicates a need for further clarification?

I will use a new, sterile catheter each time I do the procedure." Catheters are cleaned and reused. With proper handwashing and cleaning of the catheter, no increase in bacterial complications has been shown.

Which urinary assessment information for a client indicates the potential need for increased fluids? Increased blood urea nitrogen Increased creatinine Pale-colored urine Decreased sodium

Increased blood urea nitrogen can indicate dehydration. Increased creatinine indicates kidney impairment. Pale-colored urine signifies diluted urine, which indicates adequate fluid intake. Increased, not decreased, sodium indicates dehydration.

Which urinary assessment information for a client indicates the potential need for increased fluids? Increased blood urea nitrogen Correct Increased creatinine Pale-colored urine Decreased sodium

Increased blood urea nitrogen can indicate dehydration. Increased creatinine indicates kidney impairment. Pale-colored urine signifies diluted urine, which indicates adequate fluid intake. Increased, not decreased, sodium indicates dehydration.

When a client with diabetes returns to the medical unit after a computed tomography (CT) scan with contrast dye, all of these interventions are prescribed. Which intervention does the nurse implement first? Give lispro (Humalog) insulin, 12 units subcutaneously. Request a breakfast tray for the client. Infuse 0.45% normal saline at 125 mL/hr. Administer captopril (Capoten).

Infuse 0.45% normal saline at 125 mL/hr. Fluids are needed because the dye used in a CT scan with contrast has an osmotic effect, causing dehydration and potential kidney failure. Lispro is not administered until the breakfast tray arrives. A breakfast tray will be requested, but preventing complications of the procedure is done first. Because the client may be hypovolemic, the nurse should monitor blood pressure and administer IV fluids before deciding whether administration of captopril is appropriate.

The charge nurse is making client assignments for the day shift. Which client is best to assign to an LPN/LVN? Client who has just returned from having a kidney artery angioplasty Client with polycystic kidney disease who is having a kidney ultrasound Correct Client who is going for a cystoscopy and cystourethroscopy Client with glomerulonephritis who is having a kidney biopsy

Kidney ultrasounds are noninvasive procedures without complications; the LPN/LVN can provide this care. A kidney artery angioplasty is an invasive procedure that requires postprocedure monitoring for complications, especially hemorrhage; a registered nurse is needed. Cystoscopy and cystourethroscopy are procedures that are associated with potentially serious complications such as bleeding and infection. These clients should be assigned to RN staff members. Kidney biopsy is associated with potentially serious complications such as bleeding, and this client should be assigned to RN staff members.

Which type of incontinence benefits from pelvic floor muscle (Kegel) exercise?

Stress Pelvic floor (Kegel) exercise therapy for women with stress incontinence strengthens the muscles of the pelvic floor, thereby helping decrease the occurrence of incontinence.

When caring for a client with uremia, the nurse assesses for which symptom? Tenderness at the costovertebral angle (CVA) Cyanosis of the skin Nausea and vomiting Correct Insomnia

Manifestations of uremia include anorexia, nausea, vomiting, weakness, and fatigue. CVA tenderness is a sign of inflammation or infection in the renal pelvis. Cyanosis is related to poor tissue perfusion. Insomnia is nonspecific and may be caused by psychoemotional factors, medications, or other problems.

When caring for a client with uremia, the nurse assesses for which symptom? Tenderness at the costovertebral angle (CVA) Cyanosis of the skin Nausea and vomiting Insomnia

Nausea and vomiting Manifestations of uremia include anorexia, nausea, vomiting, weakness, and fatigue. CVA tenderness is a sign of inflammation or infection in the renal pelvis. Cyanosis is related to poor tissue perfusion. Insomnia is nonspecific and may be caused by psychoemotional factors, medications, or other problems.

Which age-related change can cause nocturia? Decreased ability to concentrate urine Correct Decreased production of antidiuretic hormone Increased production of erythropoietin Increased secretion of aldosterone

Nocturia may result from decreased kidney-concentrating ability associated with aging. Increased production of antidiuretic hormone, decreased production of erythropoietin, and decreased secretion of aldosterone are age-related changes.

A client is scheduled for a cystoscopy later this morning. The consent form is not signed, and the client has not had any preoperative medication. The nurse notes that the provider visited the client the day before. What action does the nurse take? Asks the client to sign the informed consent Cancels the procedure Asks the client's spouse to sign the form Notifies the department and the provider

Notifies the department and the provider The client may be asked to sign the consent form in the department; notifying both the provider and the department ensures communication across the continuum of care, with less likelihood of omission of information. The provider gives the client a complete description of and reasons for the procedure and explains complications; the nurse reinforces this information. The procedure should not be cancelled without an attempt to correct the situation. The client has not received sedation, so nothing suggests that the client is not competent to consent.

The nurse visualizes blood clots in a client's urinary catheter after a cystoscopy. What nursing intervention does the nurse perform first? Administer heparin intravenously. Remove the urinary catheter. Notify the health care provider. Irrigate the catheter with sterile saline.

Notify the health care provider. Bleeding and/or blood clots are potential complications of cystoscopy and may obstruct the catheter and decrease urine output. The nurse should monitor urine output and notify the health care provider of obvious blood clots or a decreased or absent urine output. Heparin will not be administered due to bleeding. The urinary catheter is allowing close monitoring of the urinary system and should not be removed at this time. The Foley catheter may be irrigated with sterile saline, as ordered.

A nurse reviews the laboratory findings of a client with a urinary tract infection. The laboratory report notes a "shift to the left" in a client's white blood cell count. Which action should the nurse take?

Notify the provider and start an intravenous line for parenteral antibiotics. An increase in band cells creates a "shift to the left." A left shift most commonly occurs with urosepsis and is seen rarely with uncomplicated urinary tract infections. The nurse will be administering antibiotics, most likely via IV, so he or she should notify the provider and prepare to give the antibiotics.

A nurse cares for a client admitted from a nursing home after several recent falls. What prescription should the nurse complete first?

Obtain urine sample for culture and sensitivity. Although all interventions are or might be important, obtaining a urine sample for urinalysis takes priority. Often urinary tract infection (UTI) symptoms in older adults are atypical, and a UTI may present with new onset of confusion or falling. The urine sample should be obtained before starting antibiotics

A nurse assesses a male client who is recovering from a urologic procedure. Which assessment finding indicates an obstruction of urine flow?

Overflow incontinence The most common manifestation of urethral stricture after a urologic procedure is obstruction of urine flow. This rarely causes pain and has no impact on blood pressure. The client may experience overflow incontinence with the involuntary loss of urine when the bladder is distended.

Which percussion technique does the nurse use to assess a client who reports flank pain? Place outstretched fingers over the flank area and percuss with the fingertips. Place one hand with the palm down flat over the flank area and use the other fisted hand to thump the hand on the flank. Place one hand with the palm up over the flank area and cup the other hand to percuss the hand on the flank. Quickly tap the flank area with cupped hands.

Place one hand with the palm down flat over the flank area and use the other fisted hand to thump the hand on the flank. While the client assumes a sitting, side-lying, or supine position, the nurse forms one of the hands into a clenched fist. The other hand is placed flat over the costovertebral (CVA) angle of the client. Then, a firm thump is quickly delivered to the hand over the CVA area. Percussion is not appropriate for flank pain. Placing one hand palm up is not the correct technique. Percussion therapy, not assessment, involves tapping the flank area.

Which nursing activity illustrates proper aseptic technique during catheter care?

Positioning the collection bag below the height of the bladder Urine collection bags must be kept below the level of the bladder at all times. Elevating the collection bag above the bladder causes reflux of pathogens from the bag into the urinary tract.

A client is in the emergency department for an inability to void and for bladder distention. What is most important for the nurse to provide to the client? Increased oral fluids IV fluids Privacy Health history forms

Privacy The nurse should provide privacy, assistance, and voiding stimulants, such as warm water over the perineum, as needed, for the client with urinary problems. Increased oral fluids and IV fluids would exacerbate the client's problem. Obtaining a health history is not the priority for this client's care.

A client had a computed tomography (CT) scan with contrast dye 8 hours ago. Which nursing intervention is the priority for this client? Maintaining bedrest Medicating for pain Monitoring for hematuria Promoting fluid intake

Promoting fluid intake The nurse should ensure adequate hydration by urging the client to take oral fluid or by giving IV fluids. Hydration reduces the risk for kidney damage. Bedrest is not indicated for the client who has undergone a CT scan with contrast dye. CT with contrast dye is not a painful procedure, so pain medication is not indicated. The client who has undergone CT with contrast dye is not at risk for hematuria.

A client who is 6 months pregnant comes to the prenatal clinic with a suspected urinary tract infection (UTI). What action does the nurse take with this client?

Refers the client to the clinic nurse practitioner for immediate follow-up Pregnant women with UTIs require prompt and aggressive treatment because simple cystitis can lead to acute pyelonephritis. This in turn can cause preterm labor with adverse effects for the fetus. It is unsafe for the client to be sent home without analysis of the symptoms that she has. Her problem needs to be investigated without delay.

A 65-year old client is seeing his primary care provider for an annual examination. Which assessment finding alerts the nurse to an increased risk for bladder cancer?

Smoking Rationale: Many compounds in tobacco enter the bloodstream and affect other organs, such as the bladder. Concentrated urine is associated with kidney stones and UTIs.

The nurse is caring for clients on a renal/kidney medical-surgical unit. Which drug, requested by the health care provider for a client with a urinary tract infection (UTI), does the nurse question?

Tegretol Drug alerts state that confusion is frequent (sound alike and look alike) between the drugs Tequin (gatifloxacin) and Tegretol (carbamazepine).

The RN is caring for a client who has just had a kidney biopsy. Which action does the nurse perform first? Obtain blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine. Position the client supine. Administer pain medications. Check urine for hematuria.

The client is positioned supine for several hours after a kidney biopsy to decrease the risk for hemorrhage. BUN and creatinine would be obtained before the procedure is performed. Only local discomfort should be noted around the procedure site; severe pain would indicate hematoma. Although pink urine may develop, the nurse should position the client to prevent bleeding first; the other actions are appropriate after this procedure, but do not need to be done immediately after the biopsy.

The RN is caring for a client who has just had a kidney biopsy. Which action does the nurse perform first? Obtain blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine. Position the client supine. Correct Administer pain medications. Check urine for hematuria.

The client is positioned supine for several hours after a kidney biopsy to decrease the risk for hemorrhage. BUN and creatinine would be obtained before the procedure is performed. Only local discomfort should be noted around the procedure site; severe pain would indicate hematoma. Although pink urine may develop, the nurse should position the client to prevent bleeding first; the other actions are appropriate after this procedure, but do not need to be done immediately after the biopsy.

A client is scheduled for a cystoscopy later this morning. The consent form is not signed, and the client has not had any preoperative medication. The nurse notes that the provider visited the client the day before. What action does the nurse take? Asks the client to sign the informed consent Cancels the procedure Asks the client's spouse to sign the form Notifies the department and the provider Correct

The client may be asked to sign the consent form in the department; notifying both the provider and the department ensures communication across the continuum of care, with less likelihood of omission of information. The provider gives the client a complete description of and reasons for the procedure and explains complications; the nurse reinforces this information. The procedure should not be cancelled without an attempt to correct the situation. The client has not received sedation, so nothing suggests that the client is not competent to consent.

For which clients scheduled for a computed tomography (CT) scan with contrast does the nurse communicate safety concerns to the health care provider? (Select all that apply.) Client with an allergy to shrimp Correct Client with a history of asthma Correct Client who requests morphine sulfate every 3 hours Client with a blood urea nitrogen of 62 mg/dL and a creatinine of 2.0 mg/dL Correct Client who took metformin (Glucophage) 4 hours ago Correct

The client who will be undergoing a CT scan with contrast should be asked about known hay fever or food or drug allergies, especially to seafood, eggs, milk, or chocolate. Contrast reactions have been reported to be as high as 15% in these clients. Clients with asthma have been shown to be at greater risk for contrast reactions than the general public. When reactions do occur, they are more likely to be severe. The risk for contrast-induced nephropathy is increased in clients who have pre-existing renal insufficiency (e.g., serum creatinine levels greater than 1.5 mg/dL or estimated glomerular filtration rate less than 45 mL/min). Metformin must be discontinued at least 24 hours before and for at least 48 hours after any study using contrast media because the life-threatening complication of lactic acidosis, although rare, could occur. There are no contraindications to undergo CT with contrast while taking morphine sulfate. CT with contrast may help to identify the underlying cause of pain.

A nurse assesses a client with bladder cancer who is recovering from a complete cystectomy with ileal conduit. Which assessment finding should alert the nurse to urgently contact the health care provider?

The ileostomy stoma is pale and cyanotic in appearance. A pale or cyanotic stoma indicates impaired circulation to the stoma and must be treated to prevent necrosis.

A client had a computed tomography (CT) scan with contrast dye 8 hours ago. Which nursing intervention is the priority for this client? Maintaining bedrest Medicating for pain Monitoring for hematuria Promoting fluid intake Correct

The nurse should ensure adequate hydration by urging the client to take oral fluid or by giving IV fluids. Hydration reduces the risk for kidney damage. Bedrest is not indicated for the client who has undergone a CT scan with contrast dye. CT with contrast dye is not a painful procedure, so pain medication is not indicated. The client who has undergone CT with contrast dye is not at risk for hematuria.

A client is in the emergency department for an inability to void and for bladder distention. What is most important for the nurse to provide to the client? Increased oral fluids IV fluids Privacy Correct Health history forms

The nurse should provide privacy, assistance, and voiding stimulants, such as warm water over the perineum, as needed, for the client with urinary problems. Increased oral fluids and IV fluids would exacerbate the client's problem. Obtaining a health history is not the priority for this client's care.

One of the nurse's roles is talking to adult clients about urinary and sexual hygiene. Which words does the nurse use when referring to the client's reproductive body parts? Children's terms that are easily understood Slang words and terms that are heard "socially" Technical and medical terminology Words that the client uses Correct

The nurse should use the terms with which the client is most familiar, so there is no chance for the client to misunderstand information. Using the client's language ensures the comfort level for the client. The use of children's terms is demeaning to adult clients. The use of slang terms is unprofessional. Technical terms should not be used because the client may not know what they mean.

When performing bladder scanning to detect residual urine in a female client, the nurse must first assess which factor? Abdominal girth Presence of urinary infection History of hysterectomy Correct Hematuria

The scanner must be in the scan mode for female clients to ensure the scanner subtracts the volume of the uterus from the measurement, or in the scan mode for male clients for women who have undergone a hysterectomy. The nurse performs this procedure in response to distention or pressure in the bladder; girth is not a factor. This procedure detects urine retained in the bladder, not infection. The presence of retained urine in the bladder is assessed, regardless of hematuria.

A client with these assessment data is preparing to undergo a computed tomography scan with contrast: Physical Assessment Diagnostic Findings Medications Flank pain BUN 54 mg/dL Captopril Dysuria Creatinine 2.4 mg/dL Metformin Bilateral knee pain Calcium 8.5 mg/dL Acetylcysteine Which medication does the nurse plan to administer before the procedure? Acetylcysteine (Mucosil) Correct Metformin (Glucophage) Captopril (Capoten) Acetaminophen (Tylenol)

This client has kidney impairment demonstrated by increased creatinine. Acetylcysteine (an antioxidant) may be used to prevent contrast-induced nephrotoxic effects. Metformin is held at least 24 hours before procedures using contrast. Although captopril and acetaminophen may be administered with a sip of water with permission of the provider, this is not essential before the procedure.

The nurse is teaching a client how to provide a clean-catch urine specimen. Which statement by the client indicates that teaching was effective? "I must clean with the wipes and then urinate directly into the cup." "I will have to drink 2 liters of fluid before providing the sample." "I'll start to urinate in the toilet, stop, and then urinate into the cup." Correct "It is best to provide the sample while I am bathing."

To provide a clean-catch urine sample, the client should initiate voiding, then stop, then resume voiding into the container. A midstream collection further removes secretions and bacteria because urine flushes the distal portion of the internal urethra. Although cleaning with wipes before providing a clean-catch urine sample is proper procedure, a step is missing. It is not necessary to drink 2 liters of fluid before providing a clean-catch urine sample. Providing a clean-catch urine sample does not involve bathing.

A 32-year-old female with a urinary tract infection (UTI) reports urinary frequency, urgency, and some discomfort upon urination. Her vital signs are stable except for a temperature of 100° F. Which drug does the health care provider prescribe?

Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) Guidelines indicate that a 3-day course of trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole is effective in treating uncomplicated, community-acquired UTI in women. Drugs from the same class as nitrofurantoin reduce bacteria in the urinary tract by inhibiting bacterial reproduction (bacteriostatic action). This client needs a drug that will kill bacteria.

A nurse plans care for a client with overflow incontinence. Which intervention should the nurse include in this client's plan of care to assist with elimination?

Use the Valsalva maneuver. In clients with overflow incontinence, the voiding reflex arc is not intact. Mechanical pressure, such as that achieved through the Valsalva maneuver (holding the breath and bearing down as if to defecate), can initiate voiding.

A client is referred to a home health agency after being hospitalized with overflow incontinence and a urinary tract infection. Which nursing action can the home health RN delegate to the home health aide (unlicensed assistive personnel [UAP])?

Using a bladder scanner (with training) to check residual bladder volume after the client voids Use of a bladder scanner is noninvasive and can be accomplished by a home health aide (UAP) who has been trained and evaluated in this skill.

Which percussion technique does the nurse use to assess a client who reports flank pain? Place outstretched fingers over the flank area and percuss with the fingertips. Place one hand with the palm down flat over the flank area and use the other fisted hand to thump the hand on the flank. Correct Place one hand with the palm up over the flank area and cup the other hand to percuss the hand on the flank. Quickly tap the flank area with cupped hands.

While the client assumes a sitting, side-lying, or supine position, the nurse forms one of the hands into a clenched fist. The other hand is placed flat over the costovertebral (CVA) angle of the client. Then, a firm thump is quickly delivered to the hand over the CVA area. Percussion is not appropriate for flank pain. Placing one hand palm up is not the correct technique. Percussion therapy, not assessment, involves tapping the flank area.

One of the nurse's roles is talking to adult clients about urinary and sexual hygiene. Which words does the nurse use when referring to the client's reproductive body parts? Children's terms that are easily understood Slang words and terms that are heard "socially" Technical and medical terminology Words that the client uses

Words that the client uses The nurse should use the terms with which the client is most familiar, so there is no chance for the client to misunderstand information. Using the client's language ensures the comfort level for the client. The use of children's terms is demeaning to adult clients. The use of slang terms is unprofessional. Technical terms should not be used because the client may not know what they mean.

A patient had a cystoscopy. After the procedure, what does the nurse expect to see in this patient? a. Pink-tinged urine b. Blood urine c. Very dilute urine d. Decreased urine output

a

The nurse performs a dipstick urine test for a patient being evaluated for kidney problems. Glucose is present in the urine. How does the nurse interpret this result? a. Blood glucose level is greater than 220 mg/dL b. The kidneys are failing to filter any glucose c. The patient is at risk for hypoglycemia d. The renal threshold has not been exceeded

a

an elderly patient has been in bed for several days after a fall. The nurse encourages ambulation to stimulate the movemnt of urine through the ureter by what phenomenon? a. Peristalsis b. Gravity c. Pelvic pressure d. Back flow

a

the nurse is talking to a group of older women about changes in the urinary system related to aging. what symptoms is likely to be the common concern for this group? a. Incontinence b. Hematuria c. Retention d. Dysuria

a

A patient has undergone a kidney biopsy. In the immediate postprocedural period, the nurse notifies the health care provider about which findings? (SATA) a. Hematuria with blood clots b. Localized pain at the site c. "Tamponade effect" d. Decreasing urine output e. Flank pain f. Decreasing blood pressure

adef

A patient has sustained a minor kidney injury. Which structure must remain functional in order to form urine from blood? a. Medulla b. Nephron C. calyx d. capsule

b

A patient has undergone a kidney biopsy. what does the nurse monitor for in the patient related to this procedure? a. Nephrotoxicity b. Hemorrhage c. Urinary retention d. Hypertension

b

A patient is diagnosed with renal artery stenosis. Which sound does the nurse expect to hear by auscultation when a bruit is present in a renal artery? a. Quiet, pulsating sound b. Swishing sound c. Faint wheezing d. NO sound at all

b

A patient returns to the unit after a renal scan. Which instruction about the patient urine does the nurse give to the UAP caring for the patient? a. It is radioactive, so it should be handled with special biohazard precautions b. It does not place anyone at risk because of the small amount of radioactive material c. its radioactivity is dangerous only to those who are pregnant d. it is potentially dangerous if allowed to sit for prolonged periods in the command

b

An older adult male patient has a history of an enlarged prostate. the patient is most liekly to report which symptoms associated with this condition? a. Inability to sense the urge to void b. Difficulty starting the urine stream c. Excreting large amounts of very dilute urine d. Burning sensation when urinating

b

Damage to which renal structure or tissues can change the acutal production of urine? a. kidney parenchyma b. convulted tubules c. calyces d. ureters

b

During the day, the nursing student is measuring urine output and observing for urine characteristics in a patient. Which abnormal finding is the most urgent, which must be reported to the supervising nurse? a. Specific gravity is decreased b. Output is decreased c. pH is decreased d. Color has changed

b

In which circumstance is the regulatory role of aldosterone most important in order for the person to maintain homeostasis? a. person is having pain related to a kidney stone b. person has been hiking in the desert for several hours c. person experiences stress incontinence when coughing d. person experiences a burning sensation during urination

b

Ketones in the urine may indicate which occurrence or process? a. Increased glomerular membrane permeability b. Chronic kidney infection c. Body's use of fat for cellular energy d. Urianry tract infection

b

The health care provider informs the nurse that there is a change in orders because the patient has a decrease in creatine clearance rate. what change does the nurse anticipate? a. fluid restriction b. reduction of drug dosage c. limitation on activity level d. modification of diet

b

The nurse is caring for a patient with dehydration. Which laboratory test results does the nurse anticipate to see for this patient? a. BUN and creatinine ratio stay the same b. BUN rises faster than creatinine level c. Creatinine rises faster than BUN d. BUN and creatinine have a direct relationship

b

The nurse is interviewing a 35-year-old women who needs evaluation for a potential kidney problem. The woman reports she has been pregant twice and has two healthy children. what would the nurse ask about health problems that occurred during pregnancy? a. "How much weight did you gain during the preganncy? b. "Were you treated for gestational diabetes?" c. "Did both of your pregnancies go to full-term? d. "Did you have a urinary catheter inserted during labor?"

b

The nurse is performing an assessment of the renal system. What is the first step in the assessment process? a. Percuss the lower abdomen; continue toward the umbilicus b. Observe the flank region for asymmetry or discoloration c. Listen for a bruit over each renal artery d. Lightly palpate the abdomen in all quadreants

b

The nurse is preparing to assess a female patients urethra prior to the insertion of a Foley catheter. In addition to gloves, which equipment does the nurse obtain to perform the initial assessment? a. Glass slide b. Good light source c. Speculum d. Cotton ball

b

The nurse reads in the assessment note made by the advanced-practice nurse that the "left kidney cannot be palpated." How does the nurse interpret this notation? a. The left kidney is smaller than normal, which indicates CKD b. The left kidney is normally deeper and often cannot be palpated c. The palpation of kidneys should be repeated by another provider d. The patient is too obese for this type of examination

b

The nurse sees that an older patient has a blood osmolarity of 303 mOsm/L. Which additional assessment will the nurse make before notifying the health care provider about the laboratory results? a. Patients mental stauts b. Signs of dehydration c. Patients temeprature d. Odor of the urine

b

The nurse tells the patient that the health care provider recommends a fluid intake of at least 2 liters per day. The nurse then asks the patient to report on fluid intake over the past 24 hours to assess typical intake. The patient reports 15 ounces of coffee and 10 ounces of juice for breakfast; 10 ounces of skim milk for a midmorning snack, 12 ounces of protein shake for lunch, 1/2 liter of sports drink in the afternoon and 3 ounces of wine for dinner. After calculating the 24-hour fluid intake, what does the nurse tell the patient? a. Fluid consumptions should be increased by at least 2 more servings b. Fluid consumption is meeting the 2 liters/day recommendation c. Fluid consumption exceeds recommendation, therefore eliminate the wine d. Fluid consumption only includes liquids such as water, juice, or milk

b

Vitamin D is converted to its active form in the kidney. If this function fails, which electrolyte imbalance will occur? a. Hyperkalemia b. Hypocalcemia c. Hypernatremia d. Hypoglycemia

b

What is an advantage of a renal scan compared to a CT scan for diagnosing the perfusion, function, and structure of the kidneys? a. renal scan is more readily tolerated by elderly patients and small children b. Renal scan is preferred if the patient is allergic to iodine or has impaired kidney function c. renal scans are more likely to detect pathologic changes that CT scans do not detect d. renal scan requires less pre- and postprocedural care than CT scan

b

When patients have problems with kidneys or urinary tract, what is the most common symptoms that prompts them to seek medical attention? a. Change in the frequency or amount of urinartion b. Pain in flank or abdomen or pain when urinating c. Noticing a change in the color or odor of the urine d. Exposure to a nephrotoxic substance

b

Which ethnic group has the highest risk for kidney failure and needs special attention for patient teaching related to hypertension and sodium intake? a. caucasian American b. African Americans c. asian americans d Native Americans

b

Which hormone is released from the posterior pituitary and makes the distal convoluted tubule and the collecting duct permeable to water to maximize reabsorption and produce concentrated urine? a. Aldosterone b. Vasopressin c. Bradykinins d. Natriuretic

b

Which patient is most likely to exceed the renal threshold if there is noncompliance with the prescribed therapeutic regimen? a. Has recurrent kidney stone formation b. has type 2 diabetes mellitus c. has functional urinary incontinence d. has biliary obstruction

b

Which personal action is most likely to cause the kidenys to produce and release erythropoietin? a. person moves to a low desert area where the humidity is very low b. person moves to a high-altitude area where atmospehric oxygen is low c. Person drinks an excessive amount of fluid that resutls in fluid overload d. person eats a large high-protein meal after a rigourous exercise workout

b

Which test is the best indicator of kidney function? a Urine osmolarity b. serum creatinine c. Urine pH d. BUN

b

the nurse is caring for a paitent who sustained major injuries in an automobile accident. Which blood pressure will result in compromised kidney function, in particualr the glomerular filtration rate (GFR)? a. 150/70 mm Hg b. 70/40 mm Hg c. 80/60 mm Hg d. 140/80 mm Hg

b

what is the average urine output of a healthy adult for a 24-hour period? a. 500 to 1000 mL per day b. 1500 to 2000 mL per day c. 3000 to 5000 mL per day d. 5000 to 7000 mL per day

b

A 24-hour urine specimen is required from a patient. Which strategy is best to ensure that all the urine is collected for the full 24-hour period? a. Instruct the UAP to collect all the urine b. Put a bedpan or commode next to the bed as a reminder c. Place a sign in the bathroom reminding everyone to save urine d. Verbally remind the patient about the test

c

In addition to kidney disease, which patient condition causes the BUN to rise above the noraml range? a. Anemia b. Asthama c. Infection d. Malnutrtion

c

The community health nurse is talking to a group of African-American adults about renal health. The nurse encourages the participants to have which type of yearly examination to screen for kidney problems a. Kidney ultrasound b. Serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen c. Urinalysis and microalbuminuria d. 24-hour urine collection

c

The nurse and nutritionist are evaluating the diet and nutritional therapies for a patient with kidney problems. BUN levels for this patient are tracked because of the direct relationship to the intake and metabolism of which substance? a. Lipids b. Carbohydrates c. Protein d. Fluids

c

The nurse is determining whether a patient has a history of hypertension because of the potential for kidney problems. Which question is best to elicit this information? a. "Do you have high blood pressure?" b. "Do you take any blood pressure medications?" c. "Have you ever been told that your blood pressure was high?" d. "When was the last time you had your blood pressure checked"

c

The nurse is planning the care for several patients who are undergoing diagnostic testing. Which patient is likely to need the most time for postprocedural care? a will have a kidney, ureter, and bladder x-ray b. Needs a kidney ultrasound c. Will have a cystoscopy d. Needs urine for culture and sensitivity

c

The nurse is taking a nutritional history on a patient. The patient states, "I really don't drink as much water as I should." What is the nurses best response? a. "We should probably all drink more water than we do." b. "Its an easy thing to forget; just try to remember to drink more." c. "What would encourage you to drink the recommneded 2 literes per day?" d. "Id like you to read this brochure about kidney health and fluids."

c

What does an increase in the ratio of BUN to serum creatinine indicate? a. Highly suggestive of kidney dysfunction b. definitive for kidney infection c. Suggests kidney factors causing an elevation in BUN d. Suggests nonkidney factors causing an elevation in serum creatinine

c

Which diagnostic test incorpartes contrast dye, but does not place a patient at risk for nephrotoxicity? a. renal scan b. Renal angiogrpahy c. Voiding cystourethrogram d. Computed tomography

c

A healthy 34-year-old male with no physical complaints has a BUN of 26 mg/dL. Which questions would the nurse ask to identify nonrenal factors that could be contributing to this laboratory result? (SATA) a. "Did you drink a lot of extra fluid before the blood sample was drawn?" b. "Have you been on a severe protein- or calorie-restricted diet?" c. "Are you taking or have you recently taken any steroid medications?" d. "Have you recently experienced any physical or emotional stress?" e. "Have you noticed any blood in the stool or have you vomited any blood?"

cde

A patient appears very uncomfortable with the nurses questions about urinary functions and patterns. what is the best technique for the nurse to use to elixit relevant information and decrease the patients discomfort ? a. Defere the questions until a later time b. Direct the questions toward a family member c. Use anatomic or medical terminology d. Use the patients own terminology

d

A patient reports flank pain and tenderness. What technique does the nurse use to assess for costovertebral angle tenderness? a. Percuss the nontender flank and assess for rebound b. Thump the CVA area with the flat surface of the hand c. Thump the CVA area with a clenched fist d. Place one palm over the CVA area, thump with other fist

d

A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) devleops anorexia nausea and vomiting, muscle cramping, and purritus. How does the nurse interepret these findings? a. Oliguria b. Azotemia c. Anuria d. Uremia

d

The nurse is assisting an inexperienced health care provider to assess a patient who has an aneurysm. The nurse would intervene if the provider performed which action? a. Inspected the flank for bruising or redness b. listened for a bruit over the renal artery c. Auscultated the abdomen for bowel sounds d. Palapated deeply to locate masses or tenderness

d

Which abnormal finding would be associated with chronic kidney disease? a. Hematuria b. Pus in the urine c. Blood at the urethral meatus d. Decreased urine specific gravity

d

Which event is most likely to trigger renin production? a. patient particpiates in strenuous exercise b. Patient becomes anxious and nervous. c. Patient has urge to urinate during the night d. patient sustains significant blood loss

d

Which hematologic disorder is most likely to occur if the hormonal function of the kidneys is not working properly? a. Leukemia b. Thrombocyopenia c. Neutrpenia d. Anemia

d

Which over-the-counter product used by a patient does the nurse further explore for potential impact on kideny function? a. Mouthwash with alcohol b. Fiber supplement c. Vitamin C d. Acetaminophen

d

Place the steps of using a bedside bladder scanner in the correct order a. Select the male or female icon the bladder scanner b. Aim the scan head towards the expected location of the bladder c. Place the probe midline bout 1.5 inches above the pubic bone d. explain the purpose and what sensations to expect e. Place the ultrasound probe with gel right above the symphysis pubis f. press and release the scan button

daecbf