Chapter 71-Diasters, Mass Casualty Incidents, and Complex Emergencies
What is the most common example of an advanced warning event that might require a hospital evacuation? 1. Bomb threat 2. Earthquake 3. Hurricane 4. Tornado
ANS: 3
During the implementation of a disaster plan, who is responsible for all aspects of the response? 1. Planning chief 2. Operations officer 3. Logistics section chief 4. Incident commander
ANS: 4
A green-tagged patient arrives at the emergency department after a mass casualty incident (MCI) involving radiation. Which is the priority nursing action for this patient? 1. Implementing decontamination measures 2. Performing a head-to-toe physical examination 3. Placing a special bracelet with a disaster number 4. Taking a digital photo and placing it on the medical record
ANS: 1
The nurse dons which level of personal protective equipment (PPE) when assigned to care for a patient when the type of airborne exposure is unknown? 1. Level A 2. Level B 3. Level C 4. Level D
ANS: 1
The nurse is helping devise a training plan to familiarize healthcare providers with emergency response procedures. Which training measure is most effective to adequately prepare the trainees? 1. Drills 2. Tabletop exercises 3. Access to the policy 4. Computer simulations
ANS: 1
The nurse manager is reviewing the hospital disaster plan with other members of the committee. Which is the minimum number of disaster drills the committee must plan and implement each year? 1. Two 2. Three 3. Four 4. Five
ANS: 1
The nurse understands that which is an example of an internal threat that could lead to a "shelter in place" (SIP) order? 1. Infrastructure damage from an earthquake 2. Civil unrest 3. Chemical release 4. Terrorist threat
ANS: 1
What is the goal of triage? 1. Maximize number of survivors 2. Provide lifesaving measures 3. Determine level of care needed 4. Prioritize care needs of all victims
ANS: 1
What is the highest level of personal protective equipment (PPE) for respiratory protection? 1. Level A 2. Level B 3. Level C 4. Level D
ANS: 1
What is the priority in the preparedness of healthcare professionals in any type of disaster plan? 1. Identification of hazards 2. Cooperation with state authorities 3. Collaboration with local authorities 4. Implementation of federal mandates
ANS: 1
In preparing an educational presentation regarding potential injuries and medical issues during a blizzard, the nurse includes which injuries? Select all that apply. 1. Orthopedic issues 2. Acute myocardial infarction 3. Carbon monoxide poisoning 4. Animal attacks/bites 5. Abdominal trauma
ANS: 1, 2, 3, 5
Which events may require a hospital evacuation with no advanced warning? Select all that apply. 1. Explosions 2. Floods 3. Building Fires 4. Hurricanes 5. Tornadoes
ANS: 1, 3, 5
During the implementation of a disaster plan that involves exposure to toxic substances, who is responsible for decontamination? 1. Safety/security officer 2. Operations chief 3. Logistics section chief 4. Incident commander
ANS: 2
The nurse dons which level of personal protective equipment (PPE) when assigned to care for a patient requiring the highest level of respiratory protection but less skin protection? 1. Level A 2. Level B 3. Level C 4. Level D
ANS: 2
Which organization requires hospitals to have disaster and evacuation plans in the event of an emergency? 1. American Hospital Association (AHA) 2. Hospital Regulatory Agency 3. Homeland Security 4. Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA)
ANS: 2
What are the three main goals of decontamination? Select all that apply. 1. Enlist as many hospital personnel as possible. 2. Restrict contaminated patients from entering the hospital. 3. Decontaminate patients as quickly as possible. 4. Protect the decontamination team. 5. Treat all patients who are contaminated in the emergency department.
ANS: 2, 3, 4
What are the key elements to ensure the safety of all personnel participating in an emergency hospital drill? Select all that apply. 1. Use real equipment. 2. All drill communications begin and end with "This is a drill." 3. Have strict start and stop times for the drill. 4. There must be a safety officer with the sole responsibility to monitor any unsafe situations. 5. Use strategies to make the situation realistic.
ANS: 2, 4
Based upon Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment (START), the nurse tags the patient with which injury as yellow during the triage process? 1. Ankle sprain 2. Hypovolemic shock 3. Open femur fracture 4. Massive head trauma
ANS: 3
The nurse dons which level of personal protective equipment (PPE) when assigned to care for a patient when the type of airborne exposure is known? 1. Level A 2. Level B 3. Level C 4. Level D
ANS: 3
The nurse responds to a mass casualty event and implements Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment (START) to triage patients. Which patient does the nurse tag as green? 1. The patient who remains apneic after airway repositioning. 2. The patient who begins breathing after airway management is implemented. 3. The patient who is walking, has abrasions, and follows commands appropriately. 4. The breathing patient with a capillary refill of 3 seconds who cannot follow simple direction.
ANS: 3
The nurse works in an emergency department (ED) in a city that experiences an earthquake prepares to care for patients with which type of injury? 1. Drowning 2. Electrocution 3. Crush injuries 4. Carbon monoxide poisoning
ANS: 3
In a disaster, which hospital department is responsible for the secondary triage of patients? 1. Medical unit 2. Operating suite 3. Radiology department 4. Emergency department
ANS: 4
The nurse dons which level of personal protective equipment (PPE) when needing only protection from nontoxic (nuisance) contamination? 1. Level A 2. Level B 3. Level C 4. Level D
ANS: 4
What is the priority intervention when treating patients during a mass casualty event using Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment (START)? 1. Assessing for a pulse 2. Administering oxygen 3. Preparing for endotracheal tube intubation 4. Applying direct pressure to control bleeding
ANS: 4
When conducting triage assessments using Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment (START), how long does the nurse assess a patient before moving to the next one? 1. 15 seconds or less 2. 30 seconds or less 3. 45 seconds or less 4. 60 seconds or less
ANS: 4
Which entity is responsible for activating the disaster plan during a mass casualty incident (MCI)? 1. Local emergency management system 2. State emergency management system 3. Federal emergency management agency 4. Hospital-level emergency management system
ANS: 4
Which patient injury would receive a black tag by the triage nurse during a mass casualty incident? 1. Concussion 2. Ankle sprain 3. Open femur fracture 4. Full-thickness body burns
ANS: 4
Which public health risk became a major focus for hospitals after the September 11, 2001 terrorist attacks? 1. Anthrax exposure 2. Multi-casualty incidents 3. Mass casualty incidents (MCI) 4. Weapons of mass destruction (WMD)
ANS: 4
The nurse provides care to patients who have been exposed to radiation. Which actions does the nurse implement to minimize personal exposure? Select all that apply. 1. Use hand sanitizer after patient contact. 2. Ensure that all personal vaccinations are current. 3. Wear a radiation badge to monitor exposure time. 4. Provide distance from the source if on site of the accident. 5. Wear appropriate personal protective equipment when providing patient care.
ANS: 4,5
The nurse is conducting triage under mass casualty conditions and assigns which tag to the patient who is experiencing hypovolemic shock as a result of a penetrating wound? 1. Red 2. Black 3. Green 4. Yellow
ANS:1
