Chapter 9: Navigation: Charts and Publications (9.1-9.4)

The vertical limits of that portion of Class E airspace designated as a Federal Airway over Magee Airport are (Refer to area 3) a) 1,200 feet AGL to 17,999 feet MSL b) 700 feet MSL to 12,500 feet MSL c) 7,500 feet MSL to 17,999 feet MSL

a) 1,200 feet AGL to 17,999 feet MSL

What is the approximate latitude and longitude of Cooperstown Airport? a) 47°25'N - 98°06'W b) 47°25'N - 99°54'W c) 47°55'N - 98°06'W

a) 47°25'N - 98°06'W

(Refer to area 5) What is the CTAF/UNICOM frequency at Barnes County Airport a) 122.2 MHz b) 122.8 MHz c) 123.6 MHz

b) 122.8 MHz

Which public use airports depicted are indicated as having fuel? a) Commerce (Area 6) and Rockwall (Area 1) b) Rockwall (Area 1) and Sulphur Springs (Area 5) c) Commerce (Area 6) and Sulphur Springs (Area 5)

b) Rockwall (Area 1) and Sulphur Springs (Area 5)

Under what condition, if any, may pilots fly through a restricted area? a) When flying on airways with an ATC clearance b) With the controlling agency's authorization c) Regulations do not allow this

b) With the controlling agency's authorization

Weather information is available at the Coeur d'Alene (COE) Airport (Area 2) a) over the VOR frequency 108.8 b) from AWOS 3 135.075 c) from UNICOM (CTAF) on 122.8

b) from AWOS 3 135.075

A blue segmented circle on a Sectional Chart depicts which class airspace? a) Class B b) Class C c) Class D

c) Class D

The flag symbols at Statesboro Bullock County Airport, Claxton-Evans County Airport, and Ridgeland Airport are a) outer boundaries of Savannah Class C airspace b) airports with special traffic patterns c) visual checkpoints to identify position for initial callup prior to entering Savannah Class C airspace

c) visual checkpoints to identify position for initial callup prior to entering Savannah Class C airspace

(Refer to area 3) If Dallas Executive Tower is not in operation, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic? a) 127.25 MHz b) 122.95 MHz c) 126.35 MHz

a) 127.25 MHz

(Refer to 3) When flying over Arrowwood National Wildlife Refuge, a pilot should fly no lower than a) 2,000 feet AGL b) 2,500 feet AGL c) 3,000 feet AGL

a) 2,000 feet AGL

(Refer to area 2) Identify the airspace over Bryn Airport a) Class G airspace -- surface up to but not including 1,200 feet AGL; Class E airspace -- 1,200 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL b) Class G airspace -- surface up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL c) a) Class G airspace -- surface up to but not including 700 feet MSL; Class E airspace -- 700 feet to 14,500 feet MSL

a) Class G airspace -- surface up to but not including 1,200 feet AGL; Class E airspace -- 1,200 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL

What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on the northeast side of Airpark East Airport by 500 feet? (Refer to area 1) a) 1,010 feet MSL b) 1,273 feet MSL c) 1,283 feet MSL

b) 1,273 feet MSL

(Refer to area 3) The floor of Class B airspace at Dallas Executive Airport is a) at the surface b) 3,000 feet MSL c) 3,100 feet MSL

b) 3,000 feet MSL

(Refer to area 8) What minimum altitude is required to fly over the Cedar Hill TV towers in the congested area southwest of Dallas Executive? a) 2,731 feet MSL b) 3,549 feet MSL c) 3,349 feet MSL

b) 3,549 feet MSL

Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Shoshone County Airport a) 47°02'N - 116°11'W b) 47°33'N - 116°11'W c) 47°32'N - 116°14'W

b) 47°33'N - 116°11'W

The controlled airspace located at the Corpus Christi VORTAC (Area 5) begins at a) the surface b) 700 feet AGL c) 1,200 feet MSL

b) 700 feet AGL

(Refer to area 2) What kind of airport is Deshler (6D7)? a) A private airport with a grass runway b) A public airport with a runway that is not a hard surface c) An abandoned paved airport having landmark value

b) A public airport with a runway that is not a hard surface

Information concerning parachute jumping sites may be found in the a) NOTAMs b) Chart Supplement c) Graphic Notices and Supplemental Data

b) Chart Supplement

The NALF Fentress (NFE) Airport is in what type of airspace? (Refer to area 6) a) Class C b) Class E c) Class G

b) Class E

Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has a) filed a IFR flight plan b) received prior authorization from the controlling agency c) received prior permission from the commanding officer of the nearest military base

b) received prior authorization from the controlling agency

For information about the parachute jumping at Caddo Mills Airport, refer to a) notes on the border of the chart b) the Airport/Facility Directory section of the Chart Supplement c) NOTAMs for Caddo Mills Airport

b) the Airport/Facility Directory section of the Chart Supplement

For information about glider operations at Ridgeland Airport, refer to a) notes on the border of the chart b) the Chart Supplement c) NOTAMs for Ridgeland Airport

b) the Chart Supplement

When are two-way communications required on a flight from Gnoss Airport (DVO) (Area 4) to Livermore Airport (LVK) (Area 5) at an altitude of 3,500 ft. MSL? When entering a) the Class B airspace b) the Livermore Airport Class D airspace c) both the Class B airspace and the Livermore Airport Class D airspace

b) the Livermore Airport Class D airspace

(Refer to area 2) What is the correct UNICOM frequency to be used at Coeur D'Alene to request fuel? a) 135.075 MHz b) 122.1/108.8 MHz c) 122.8 MHz

c) 122.8 MHz

The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over Sandpoint Airport at 1,200 feet AGL are (Refer to area 1) a) 1 mile and clear of clouds b) 1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud c) 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud

c) 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud

An aircraft takes off from Gnoss Airport (Area 4) and flies southeast 25.4 NM to Buchanan Airport. What maximum elevation figure would assure obstruction clearance during the flight? a) 6,000 feet MSL b) 4,200 feet MSL c) 3,200 feet MSL

c) 3,200 feet MSL

(Refer to area 4) The floor of Class B airspace overlying Hicks Airport (T67) north-northwest of Fort Worth Meacham Field is a) at the surface b) 3,200 feet MSL c) 4,000 feet MSL

c) 4,000 feet MSL

The CAUTION box denotes what hazard to aircraft? a) Unmarked blimp hangars at 308 feet MSL b) Unmarked balloon on cable to 3,008 feet AGL c) Unmarked balloon on cable to 3,008 feet MSL

c) Unmarked balloon on cable to 3,008 feet MSL

Which airport is located at approximately 47°21'N latitude and 101°01'W longitude? a) Underwood b) Pietsch c) Washburn

c) Washburn

(Refer to area 6) Sky Way Airport is a) an airport restricted to use by private and recreational pilots b) a restricted military stage field within restricted airspace c) a nonpublic-use airport

c) a nonpublic-use airport

(Refer to area 2) The flag symbol at Lake Drummond represents a a) compulsory reporting point for Norfolk Class C airspace b) compulsory reporting point for Hampton Roads airport c) visual checkpoint used to identify position for initial callup to Norfolk Approach Control

c) visual checkpoint used to identify position for initial callup to Norfolk Approach Control

Which airport is located at approximately 47 degrees 41 minutes 00 seconds N latitude and 101 degrees 36 minutes 00 seconds W longitude? a) Fischer b) Crooked Lake c) Johnson

a) Fischer

What minimum radio equipment is required to land and take off at Norfolk International? (Refer to area 1) a) Mode C transponder and omnireceiver b) Mode C transponder and two-way radio c) Mode C transponder, omnireceiver, and DME

b) Mode C transponder and two-way radio

What is the dotted outlined area northwest of Gila Bend Airport, near Area 3? a) Restricted airspace b) Military operations area c) Wilderness area

c) Wilderness area

The elevation of the Chesapeake Regional Airport is (Refer to area 2) a) 19 feet b) 36 feet c) 360 feet

a) 19 feet

Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Currituck County Airport. (Refer to area 3) a) 36°24'N - 76°01'W b) 36°48'N - 76°01'W c) 47°24'N - 75°58'W

a) 36°24'N - 76°01'W

(Refer to Area 3.) The top of the group obstruction approximately 11 nautical miles from the Savannah VORTAC on the 010° radial is a) 454 feet MSL b) 429 feet AGL c) 417 feet MSL

a) 454 feet MSL

(Refer to area 3) What is the recommended communications procedure for departure at Currituck County Airport? a) Broadcast intentions prior to taxi and announcing runway departure b) Contact Elizabeth City tower on 120.5 c) Radio need not be used

a) Broadcast intentions prior to taxi and announcing runway departure

(Refer to area 2) What is the recommended communication procedure which inbound to land at Cooperstown Airport? a) Broadcast intentions when 10 miles out on the CTAF/MULTICOM frequency, 122.9 MHz b) Contact UNICOM when 10 miles out on 122.8 MHz c) Circle the airport in a left turn prior to entering traffic

a) Broadcast intentions when 10 miles out on the CTAF/MULTICOM frequency, 122.9 MHz

(Refer to area 3) Identify the airspace over Sprague Airport a) Class G airspace -- surface up to but not including 1,200 feet AGL; Class E airspace -- 1,200 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL b) Class G airspace -- surface up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL c) a) Class G airspace -- surface up to but not including 700 feet MSL; Class E airspace -- 700 feet to 14,500 feet MSL

a) Class G airspace -- surface up to but not including 1,200 feet AGL; Class E airspace -- 1,200 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL

When are two-way radio communications required on a flight from Bishop Airport (Area 4) to McCampbell Airport (Area 1) at an altitude of 2,000 feet MSL? a) Entering the Corpus Christi Class C airspace b) Leaving and entering the alert areas and entering the Corpus Christi Class C airspace c) Leaving and entering the alert areas, entering the Corpus Christi Class C airspace, and passing through the Cabaniss Field Class D airspace

a) Entering the Corpus Christi Class C airspace

What type of military flight operations should a pilot expect along IR 644? (Refer to area 3) a) IFR training flights above 1,500 feet AGL at speeds in excess of 250 knots b) VFR training flights above 1,500 feet AGL at speeds less than 250 knots c) Instrument training flights below 1,500 feet AGL at speeds in excess of 150 knots

a) IFR training flights above 1,500 feet AGL at speeds in excess of 250 knots

Which public use airport depicted is indicated as having fuel? a) Minot Int'l (Area 1) b) Garrison (Area 2) c) Mercer County Regional Airport (Area 3)

a) Minot Int'l (Area 1)

What hazards to aircraft may exist in restricted areas such as R-5302A? (Refer to area 4) a) Unusual, often invisible, hazards such as aerial gunnery or guided missiles b) High volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity c) Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers

a) Unusual, often invisible, hazards such as aerial gunnery or guided missiles

(Refer to area 1) Dubey Airport is a) a privately owned airport restricted to use b) a restricted military stage field within restricted airspace c) an airport restricted to use by sport pilots only

a) a privately owned airport restricted to use

(Refer to area 6) The Class C airspace at Metropolitan Oakland International (OAK) which extends from the surface upward has a ceiling of a) both 2,100 feet and 3,000 feet MSL b) 10,000 feet MSL c) 2,100 feet AGL

a) both 2,100 feet and 3,000 feet MSL

(Refer to area 3) What is the recommended communications procedure for a landing at Currituck County Airport? a) transmit intentions on 122.9 MHz when 10 miles out and give position reports in the traffic pattern b) Contact Elizabeth City FSS for airport advisory service c) Contact New Bern FSS for area traffic information

a) transmit intentions on 122.9 MHz when 10 miles out and give position reports in the traffic pattern

(Refer to area 3) What is the floor of the Savannah Class C airspace at the shelf area (outer circle)? a) 1,200 feet AGL b) 1,300 feet MSL c) 1,700 feet MSL

b) 1,300 feet MSL

(Refer to area 2) The CTAF/MULTICOM frequency for Garrison Airport is a) 122.8 MHz b) 122.9 MHz c) 123.0 MHz

b) 122.9 MHz

(Refer to area 4) The CTAF/UNIFORM frequency at Jamestown Airport is a) 122.2 MHz b) 123.0 MHz c) 123.6 MHz

b) 123.0 MHz

(Refer to area 2) The control tower frequency for Addison Airport is a) 122.95 MHz b) 126.0 MHz c) 133.4 MHz

b) 126.0 MHz

Pilots flying over a national wildlife refuge are requested to fly no lower than a) 1,000 feet AGL b) 2,000 feet AGL c) 3,000 feet AGL

b) 2,000 feet AGL

The terrain elevation of the light tan (light colored) area between Minot (Area 1) and Audubon Lake (Area 2) varies from a) sea level to 2,000 feet MSL b) 2,000 feet to 2,500 feet MSL c) 2,000 feet and 2,700 feet MSL

b) 2,000 feet to 2,500 feet MSL

(Refer to area 7) The airspace overlying Mc Kinney (TKI) is controlled from the surface to a) 700 feet AGL b) 2,900 feet MSL c) 2,500 feet MSL

b) 2,900 feet MSL

(Refer to area 1) What minimum altitude is required to avoid the Livermore Airport (LVK) Class D airspace? a) 2,503 feet MSL b) 2,901 feet MSL c) 3,297 feet MSL

b) 2,901 feet MSL

What is the base of Class B airspace at Lakeview (30F) Airport (Area 2)? a) 4,000 b) 3,000 c) 1,700

b) 3,000

At which airports is fixed-wing Special VFR not authorized? a) Fort Worth Meacham and Fort Worth Spinks b) Dallas-Fort Worth International and Dallas Love Field c) Addison and Dallas Executive

b) Dallas-Fort Worth International and Dallas Love Field

Which statement about longitude and latitude is true? a) Lines of longitude are parallel to the equator b) Lines of longitude cross the Equator at right angles c) The 0-degree line latitude passes through Greewich, England

b) Lines of longitude cross the Equator at right angles

Which airport is located at approximately 47°34'30"N latitude and 100°43'00"W longitude? a) Linrud b) Makeeff c) Johnson

b) Makeeff

(Refer to area 2) What hazards to aircraft may exist in areas such as Devils Lake East MOA? a) Unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles b) Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers c) High volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity

b) Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers

What are the basic VFR weather minima required to takeoff from the Onawa, IA (K36) airport during the day? a) 3 statue miles visibility, 500 feet below the clouds, 1,000 feet above the clouds, and 2,000 feet horizontally from the clouds b) 0 statue miles, clear of clouds c) 1 statue mile, clear of clouds

c) 1 statue mile, clear of clouds

What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on the southeast side of Winnsboro Airport by 500 feet? (Refer to area 2) a) 823 feet MSL b) 1,013 feet MSL c) 1,403 feet MSL

c) 1,403 feet MSL

(Refer to area 3) What is the height of the lighted obstacle approximately 6 nautical miles southwest of Savannah International? a) 1,498 feet MSL b) 1,531 feet AGL c) 1,548 feet MSL

c) 1,548 feet MSL

As standard operating practice, all inbound traffic to an airport without a control tower should continuously monitor the appropriate facility from a distance of a) 25 miles b) 20 miles c) 10 miles

c) 10 miles

At Sioux Gateway/Col Day (N42°24.16' W96°23.06') which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to self-announce position and intentions when the control tower is closed? a) 122.95 MHz b) 119.45 MHz c) 118.7 MHz

c) 118.7 MHz

(Refer to area 2) At Coeur D'Alene, which frequency should be used as Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to self-announce position and intentions? a) 122.05 MHz b) 122.1/108.8 MHz c) 122.8 MHz

c) 122.8 MHz

(Refer to area 2) At Coeur D'Alene, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic? a) 122.05 MHz b) 135.075 MHz c) 122.8 MHz

c) 122.8 MHz

With certain exceptions, Class E airspace extends upward from either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL to, but does not include, a) 10,000 feet MSL b) 14,500 feet MSL c) 18,000 feet MSL

c) 18,000 feet MSL

(Refer to Area 2) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over the town of Cooperstown between 1,200 feet AGL 10,000 feet MSL are a) 1 mile and clear of clouds b) 1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds c) 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds

c) 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds

Which is true concerning the blue and magenta colors used to depict airports on Sectional Aeronautical Charts? a) Airports with control towers underlying Class A, B, and C airspace are sown in blue; Class D and E airspace are magenta b) Airports with control towers underlying C, D, and E airspace are shown in magenta c) Airports with control towers underlying Class B, C, D, and E airspace are shown in blue

c) Airports with control towers underlying Class B, C, D, and E airspace are shown in blue

What must a pilot do or be aware of when transitioning an Alert Area? a) All pilots must contact the controlling agency to ensure aircraft separation b) Non-participating aircraft may transit the area as long as they operate in accordance with their waiver c) Be aware that the area may contain unusual aeronautical activity or high volume of pilot training

c) Be aware that the area may contain unusual aeronautical activity or high volume of pilot training

(Refer to area 4) The airspace directly overlying Fort Worth Meacham is a) Class B airspace to 10,000 feet MSL b) Class C airspace to 5,000 feet MSL c) Class D airspace to 3,200 feet MSL

c) Class D airspace to 3,200 feet MSL

(Refer to east of area 5) The airspace overlying and within 5 miles of Barnes County Airport is a) Class D airspace from the surface to the floor of the overlying Class E airspace b) Class E airspace from the surface to 1,200 feet MSL c) Class G airspace from the surface to 700 feet AGL

c) Class G airspace from the surface to 700 feet AGL

The airspace surrounding the Gila Bend AF AUX Airport (GXF) (Area 6) is classified as Class a) B b) C c) D

c) D

(Refer to area 3) What is the airspace classification around Findlay (FDY) airport? a) C b) D c) E

c) E

What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a Military Operations Area (MOA)? a) Obtain a clearance from the controlling agency prior to entering the MOA b) Operate only on the airways that transverse the MOA c) Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted

c) Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted

(Refer to area 5) The navigation facility at Dallas-Ft. Worth International (DFW) is a a) VOR b) VORTAC c) VOR/DME

c) VOR/DME

The Devils Lake East MOA (Area 1) is a a) meteorological observation area b) military observation area c) military operations area

c) military operations area