chapters 28-36
A 17-year-old female dislocated her patella while playing soccer. Her knee is flexed and she complains of severe pain. You should: Select one: A. keep her knee flexed and secure it with padded board splints. B. flex her knee slightly more and assess for distal circulation. C. gently straighten her knee and apply a padded board splint. D. make one attempt to return the patella to its normal position.
a
A 28-year-old male was struck in the chest with a baseball bat during an altercation. He is conscious and alert and complains of severe chest pain. Your assessment reveals a large area of ecchymosis over the sternum and a rapid, irregular pulse. In addition to providing supplemental oxygen, you should: Select one: A. prepare for immediate transport. B. apply bulky dressings to the sternum. C. determine if he has cardiac problems. D. apply an AED and assess his BP.
a
A 54-year-old male accidentally shot himself in the leg while cleaning his gun. Your assessment reveals a small entrance wound to the medial aspect of his right leg. The exit wound is on the opposite side of the leg and is actively bleeding. The patient complains of numbness and tingling in his right foot. You should: Select one: A. control the bleeding and cover the wound with a sterile dressing. B. manually stabilize the leg above and below the site of injury. C. assess distal pulses as well as sensory and motor functions. D. gently manipulate the injured leg until the numbness dissipates.
a
A man jumped from the roof of his house and landed on his feet. He complains of pain to his heels, knees, and lower back. This mechanism of injury is an example of A. axial loading. B. distraction. C. hyperextension. D. hyperflexion.
a
A patient with a head injury presents with abnormal flexion of his extremities. What numeric value should you assign to him for motor response? Select one: A. 3 B. 2 C. 5 D. 4
a
A simple pneumothorax: Select one: A. is commonly caused by blunt chest trauma. B. is caused by penetrating chest trauma. C. heals on its own without any treatment. D. often has a nontraumatic cause.
a
An open pneumothorax occurs when: Select one: A. air enters the pleural space from outside the body. B. a fractured rib perforates the tissue of the lung. C. extreme pleural pressure causes the lung to rupture. D. air enters the pleural space from a perforated lung.
a
Common signs and symptoms of a serious head injury include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. a rapid, thready pulse. B. CSF leakage from the ears. C. widening pulse pressure. D. decerebrate posturing.
a
If a patient with a chest injury is only able to inhale small amounts of air per breath, he or she: Select one: A. must increase his or her respiratory rate to maintain adequate minute volume. B. will maintain adequate minute volume if his or her respiratory rate stays the same. C. will eliminate more carbon dioxide than if he or she were breathing deeply. D. often breathes at a slower rate because of lung damage caused by the injury.
a
Immediately life-threatening chest injuries must be found and managed during the _______. Select one: A. primary assessment B. scene size-up C. patient history D. secondary assessment
a
In general, musculoskeletal injuries should be splinted before moving the patient unless: Select one: A. the patient is clinically unstable. B. deformity and swelling are present. C. the patient is in severe pain. D. transport time is less than 15 minutes.
a
In pediatric patients, the liver and spleen are _______. Select one: A. larger in proportion to the abdomen B. smaller in proportion to the abdomen C. less likely to bleed when injured D. more protected by the thorax compared to adults
a
In which of the following situations should the EMT splint an injured limb in the position of deformity? Select one: A. If resistance is encountered or the patient experiences severe pain B. If transport time to the hospital is greater than 20 to 30 minutes C. If a traction splint will be used to immobilize the injured extremity D. When distal circulation and neurological functions are absent
a
Rapid deceleration of the head, such as when it impacts the windshield, causes: Select one: A. compression injuries or bruising to the anterior portion of the brain and stretching or tearing to the posterior portion of the brain. B. stretching or tearing of the anterior aspect of the brain and compression injuries or bruising to the posterior aspect of the brain. C. compression injuries and contusions to the anterior, posterior, and lateral aspects of the brain. D. primary impact to the posterior aspect of the brain, resulting in compression injuries, bruising, or torn blood vessels.
a
The musculoskeletal system refers to the: Select one: A. bones and voluntary muscles of the body. B. involuntary muscles of the nervous system. C. nervous system's control over the muscles. D. connective tissue that supports the skeleton.
a
The thoracic cavity is separated from the abdominal cavity by the: Select one: A. diaphragm. B. anterior rib cage. C. intercostal margin. D. costovertebral angle.
a
The tough, fibrous outer meningeal layer is called the: Select one: A. dura mater. B. arachnoid mater. C. gray mater. D. pia mater.
a
What part of the nervous system controls the body's voluntary activities? Select one: A. Somatic B. Autonomic C. Sensory D. Central
a
When a hollow organ is punctured during a penetrating injury to the abdomen: Select one: A. peritonitis may not develop for several hours. B. the abdomen will become instantly distended. C. it will bleed profusely and rapidly cause shock. D. it commonly protrudes through the injury site.
a
When immobilizing a seated patient with a short backboard or vest-style immobilization device, you should apply a cervical collar: Select one: A. after assessing distal neurovascular functions. B. after the torso has been adequately secured. C. after moving the patient to a long backboard. D. before manually stabilizing the patient's head.
a
Which of the following head injuries would cause the patient's condition to deteriorate MOST rapidly? Select one: A. Epidural hematoma B. Cerebral contusion C. Subdural hematoma D. Cerebral concussion
a
Which of the following is true regarding injury to the kidneys? Select one: A. Injury to the kidneys usually indicates injury to other organs. B. Kidney injuries are rarely caused by blunt trauma. C. The kidneys are not well protected. D. Only minimal force is needed to damage the kidneys.
a
Which of the following sets of vital signs depicts Cushing triad? Select one: A. Blood pressure, 190/110 mm Hg; pulse, 55 beats/min; respirations, 30 breaths/min B. Blood pressure, 90/50 mm Hg; pulse, 120 beats/min; respirations, 10 breaths/min C. Blood pressure, 80/40 mm Hg; pulse, 30 beats/min; respirations, 32 breaths/min D. Blood pressure, 200/100 mm Hg; pulse, 140 beats/min; respirations, 28 breaths/min
a
Which of the following statements regarding secondary brain injury is correct? Select one: A. Hypoxia and hypotension are the two most common causes of secondary brain injury. B. It results from direct brain trauma following an impact to the head. C. Because cerebral edema develops quickly, it is considered to be a primary brain injury. D. Signs are often present immediately after an impact to the head.
a
Your presence is requested by law enforcement to assess a 33-year-old female who was sexually assaulted. The patient is conscious and obviously upset. As you are talking to her, you note an impressive amount of blood on her clothes in the groin area. Her blood pressure is 98/58 mm Hg, her pulse is 130 beats/min, and her respirations are 24 breaths/min. You should: Select one: A. control any external bleeding, administer oxygen, and transport at once. B. allow her to change her clothes and take a shower before you transport. C. visualize the vaginal area and pack the vagina with sterile dressings. D. arrange for a rape crisis center representative to speak with the patient.
a
A 37-year-old male was pinned between a flatbed truck and a loading dock. On exam, you find bruising to the chest, distended neck veins, bilaterally diminished breath sounds, and bilateral scleral hemorrhaging. You should: Select one: A. suspect a severe hemopneumothorax. B. aggressively manage his airway. C. request a paramedic ambulance. D. perform a secondary assessment
b
A 45-year-old male was working on his roof when he fell approximately 12 feet, landing on his feet. He is conscious and alert and complains of an ache in his lower back. He is breathing adequately and has stable vital signs. You should: Select one: A. allow him to refuse transport if his vital signs remain stable. B. immobilize his spine and perform a focused secondary exam. C. obtain a Glasgow Coma Score value and give him oxygen. D. perform a rapid head-to-toe exam and immobilize his spine.
b
A flail chest occurs when: Select one: A. multiple ribs are fractured on both sides of the thoracic cage. B. a segment of the chest wall is detached from the thoracic cage. C. a segment of fractured ribs bulges during the inhalation phase. D. more than three ribs are fractured on the same side of the chest.
b
A supracondylar or intercondylar fracture is also known as a fracture of the: Select one: A. olecranon process. B. distal humerus C. radial head. D. proximal radius.
b
Abdominal pain, vomiting, and fever are most likely due to _______. Select one: A. evisceration B. infection C. hypovolemia D. hemorrhage
b
An epidural hematoma is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: A. bleeding between the dura mater and brain. B. bleeding between the skull and dura mater. C. venous lacerations that occur within the brain. D. an injury caused by a damaged cerebral artery.
b
Children are often "belly breathers" because _______. Select one: A. their diaphragm is not functional B. their intercostal muscles are not developed C. they are routinely hypoxic D. they are consciously controlling ventilations
b
Compression injury is most likely due to which of the following? Select one: A. Ejection of unrestrained driver B. Improperly placed lab belt C. Hollow-organ rupture D. Stabbing
b
During your assessment of a patient with blunt chest trauma, you note that the patient has shallow breathing and paradoxical movement of the left chest wall. You should: Select one: A. apply high-flow oxygen via nonrebreathing mask. B. assist ventilations with a bag-valve mask. C. make note of it and continue your assessment. D. request a paramedic to decompress the chest.
b
During your primary assessment of a 19-year-old unconscious male who experienced severe head trauma, you note that his respirations are rapid, irregular, and shallow. He has bloody secretions draining from his mouth and nose. You should: Select one: A. pack his nostrils to stop the drainage of blood. B. suction his oropharynx for up to 15 seconds. C. assist his ventilations with a BVM. D. immobilize his spine and transport immediately.
b
Elevation of the rib cage during inhalation occurs when: Select one: A. the diaphragm descends. B. the intercostal muscles contract. C. intrathoracic pressure decreases. D. abdominal contents descend.
b
Following a stab wound to the left anterior chest, a 25-year-old male presents with a decreased level of consciousness and signs of shock. Which of the following additional assessment findings should increase your index of suspicion for a cardiac tamponade? Select one: A. A rapid, irregular pulse B. Engorged jugular veins C. Widening pulse pressure D. Diminished breath sounds
b
In order to avoid exacerbating a patient's injury, it is especially important to use extreme caution when providing positive-pressure ventilation to patients with a: Select one: A. cardiac tamponade. B. pneumothorax. C. flail chest. D. myocardial contusion.
b
Placing a pregnant patient in a supine position during the third trimester of pregnancy: Select one: A. results in spontaneous urinary incontinence if the bladder is full. B. may decrease the amount of blood that returns to the heart. C. often causes hypotension secondary to cardiac compression. D. is recommended if the patient has severe abdominal discomfort.
b
Pleural fluid is contained between the: Select one: A. parietal pleura and the heart. B. visceral and parietal pleurae. C. visceral pleura and the lung. D. parietal pleura and the chest wall.
b
The MOST significant hazard associated with splinting is: Select one: A. reduction in circulation distal to the injury site. B. delaying transport of a critically injured patient. C. aggravation of the injury or worsened pain. D. compression of nerves, tissues, and vasculature.
b
When a person is lying supine at the end of exhalation, the diaphragm: Select one: A. contracts and flattens inferiorly. B. may rise as high as the nipple line. C. is less prone to penetrating trauma. D. descends below the level of the navel.
b
When caring for a patient with a possible fracture of the scapula, the EMT should: Select one: A. apply rigid board splints across the chest and back. B. carefully assess the patient for breathing problems. C. recognize that scapular fractures are life threatening. D. assume that minimal force was applied to the back.
b
When should you visually inspect the external genitalia on your patient? Select one: A. Anytime the patient agrees to treatment and transport B. Only when there is a complaint of severe pain or other injury C. Always during the secondary assessment D. Only when ordered by medical direction
b
Which of the following breathing patterns is MOST indicative of increased intracranial pressure? Select one: A. Slow, shallow, occasional gasps that progress to prolonged periods of apnea B. Irregular rate, pattern, and volume of breathing with intermittent periods of apnea C. Increased rate and depth with the distinct odor of acetone on the patient's breath D. Increased rate with a normal inspiratory time and a prolonged expiratory time
b
Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would MOST likely result in deformity? Select one: A. Severe strain B. Displaced fracture C. Hairline fracture D. Moderate sprain
b
Which of the following nerves allow sensory and motor impulses to be sent from one nerve directly to another? Select one: A. Somatic B. Connecting C. Autonomic D. Peripheral
b
Which of the following statements regarding motor nerves is correct? Select one: A. They perform special functions such as sight, smell, and hearing. B. They carry information from the CNS to the muscles. C. They are part of the CNS and control reflexes. D. They transmit information from the body to the brain via the spinal cord.
b
You should suspect a kidney injury anytime the patient presents with _______. Select one: A. dyspnea B. a hematoma in the flank region C. abdominal distention D. nausea
b
Your documentation on a sexual assault victim should _______. Select one: A. include your opinion of the nature of the incident B. be objective and factual C. describe the status of the suspect(s) D. be subjective and summarize the crime
b
A 22-year-old female was ejected from her car after striking a tree head-on. As you approach her, you note obvious closed deformities to both of her femurs. She is not moving and does not appear to be conscious. You should: Select one: A. apply manual stabilization to both of her femurs. B. assess for a carotid pulse and assist her ventilations. C. stabilize her head and perform a primary assessment. D. administer oxygen and perform a rapid assessment.
c
A fracture is MOST accurately defined as a(n): Select one: A. abnormality in the structure of a bone. B. disruption in the midshaft of a bone. C. break in the continuity of the bone. D. total loss of function in a bone.
c
A reflex arc occurs when: Select one: A. a sensory nerve sends a message to the brain but the motor nerve fails to send the appropriate response to the body. B. the brain interprets sensory information that it receives from peripheral and cranial nerves and sends a signal to the muscles. C. a sensory nerve detects an irritating stimulus and bypasses the brain by sending a direct message to the motor nerve. D. the motor nerves function automatically without receiving a message from the CNS.
c
A spinal cord injury at the level of C7 would MOST likely result in: Select one: A. paralysis of the diaphragm. B. paralysis of all the respiratory muscles. C. paralysis of the intercostal muscles. D. immediate cardiac arrest.
c
Closed chest injuries are typically caused by _______. Select one: A. flying debris B. high-velocity weapons C. blunt trauma D. penetrating trauma
c
In contrast to a cerebral concussion, a cerebral contusion: Select one: A. does not cause pressure within the skull. B. usually does not cause a loss of consciousness. C. involves physical injury to the brain tissue. D. results from a laceration to the brain tissue.
c
Patients with chest injuries will often present with _______. Select one: A. Cheyne-Stokes respirations B. Kussmaul respirations C. tachypnea D. agonal respirations
c
Skeletal muscle is attached to the bone by tough, ropelike, fibrous structures called: Select one: A. ligaments. B. fascia. C. tendons. D. cartilage.
c
The central nervous system (CNS) is composed of the: Select one: A. cerebellum and brain. B. cerebrum and meninges. C. brain and spinal cord. D. meninges and spinal cord.
c
When a patient stiffens the muscles of the abdomen, it is known as _______. Select one: A. distention. B. instability. C. guarding. D. crepitus.
c
When activated, the sympathetic nervous system produces all of the following effects, EXCEPT: Select one: A. shunting of blood to vital organs. B. increase in heart rate. C. pupillary constriction. D. dilation of the bronchiole smooth muscle.
c
When immobilizing a trauma patient's spine, the EMT manually stabilizing the head should not let go until: Select one: A. an appropriately sized cervical collar has been applied. B. the head has been stabilized with lateral immobilization. C. the patient has been completely secured to the backboard. D. the patient has been secured to the ambulance stretcher.
c
Which of the following organs would MOST likely bleed profusely when injured? Select one: A. Bladder B. Stomach C. Liver D. Intestin
c
Which of the following statements regarding compartment syndrome is correct? Select one: A. Most cases of compartment syndrome occur following a severe fracture of the pelvis. B. Compartment syndrome occurs because of increased pressure within the bone cavity. C. Compartment syndrome typically develops within 6 to 12 hours after an injury. D. In most cases, compartment syndrome develops within a few minutes after an injury.
c
You are transporting a patient with blunt abdominal trauma. The patient is unstable and is experiencing obvious signs and symptoms of shock. Your estimated time of arrival at the hospital is less than 10 minutes. After treating the patient appropriately, you should: Select one: A. perform a comprehensive secondary assessment. B. forgo the hospital radio report because of his condition. C. closely monitor him and reassess him frequently. D. begin documenting the call on the patient care form.
c
A "hip" fracture is actually a fracture of the: Select one: A. femoral shaft. B. pubic symphysis. C. pelvic girdle. D. proximal femur.
d
A 54-year-old male experienced an avulsion to his penis when his foreskin got caught in the zipper of his pants. He was able to unzip his pants and remove the foreskin prior to your arrival. Your assessment reveals that he is in severe pain and that the avulsion is bleeding moderately. The MOST appropriate treatment for this patient includes: Select one: A. requesting a paramedic to administer pain medication. B. administering 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. C. covering the avulsion with moist, sterile dressings. D. applying direct pressure with a dry, sterile dressing.
d
A man called EMS 12 hours after injuring his chest. Your assessment reveals a flail segment to the right side of the chest. The patient is experiencing respiratory distress and his oxygen saturation is 78%. His breath sounds are equal bilaterally and his jugular veins are normal. You should suspect: Select one: A. traumatic asphyxia. B. tension pneumothorax. C. massive hemothorax. D. pulmonary contusion.
d
A patient who presents with profound cyanosis following a chest injury: Select one: A. is most likely experiencing severe blood loss. B. has most likely experienced a ruptured aorta. C. should be placed in Trendelenburg position. D. requires prompt ventilation and oxygenation.
d
A temporary loss or alteration of part or all of the brain's abilities to function without physical damage to the brain MOST accurately describes a(n): Select one: A. cerebral contusion. B. intracerebral hematoma. C. intracranial hemorrhage. D. cerebral concussion.
d
A tight-fitting motorcycle helmet should be left in place unless: Select one: A. the patient complains of severe neck or back pain. B. the patient must be placed onto a long backboard. C. the helmet is equipped with a full face shield or visor. D. it interferes with your assessment of the airway.
d
All of the following are hollow abdominal organs, EXCEPT the: Select one: A. stomach. B. ureters. C. bladder. D. spleen.
d
An indicator of an expanding intracranial hematoma or rapidly progressing brain swelling is: Select one: A. acute unilateral paralysis following the injury. B. an acute increase in the patient's pulse rate. C. a progressively lowering blood pressure. D. a rapid deterioration of neurologic signs.
d
An open fracture is MOST accurately defined as a fracture in which: Select one: A. a bullet shatters the underlying bone. B. bone ends protrude through the skin. C. a large laceration overlies the fracture. D. the overlying skin is no longer intact.
d
Because the depth of an open abdominal wound is often difficult to determine: Select one: A. vital signs should be monitored frequently. B. the abdomen must be vigorously palpated. C. the EMT must perform a thorough exam. D. prompt transport to the hospital is essential.
d
Crepitus and false motion are: Select one: A. indicators of a severe sprain. B. only seen with open fractures. C. most common with dislocations. D. positive indicators of a fracture.
d
Difficulty breathing and a sunken appearance of the anterior abdominal wall is MOST indicative of a ruptured: Select one: A. spleen. B. stomach. C. aorta. D. diaphragm.
d
During your assessment of a 29-year-old female with significant deformity to her left elbow, you are unable to palpate a radial pulse. Your transport time to the hospital is approximately 40 minutes. You should: Select one: A. carefully straighten the injured arm and secure it with padded board splints. B. make two or three attempts to restore distal circulation by manipulating the elbow. C. splint the elbow in the position of deformity and transport immediately. D. apply gentle manual traction in line with the limb and reassess for a pulse.
d
During your secondary assessment of a 30-year-old male who fell 25 feet, you note crepitus when palpating his pelvis. Your partner advises you that the patient's blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg and his heart rate is 120 beats/min and weak. After completing your assessment, you should: Select one: A. defer spinal immobilization and transport to a trauma center. B. log roll the patient onto a long backboard and transport at once. C. perform a focused physical exam with emphasis on the pelvis. D. stabilize the pelvis with a pelvic binder and protect the spine.
d
Hyperextension injuries of the spine are MOST commonly the result of: Select one: A. compression. B. diving. C. falls. D. hangings.
d
If you do not have the appropriate-size cervical collar, you should: Select one: A. place sandbags on either side of the patient's head. B. defer cervical immobilization and apply lateral head blocks. C. ask the patient to keep his or her head in a neutral position. D. use rolled towels to immobilize the patient's head.
d
In which of the following situations would the EMT be the LEAST likely to immobilize a patient's spine? Select one: A. No spinal pain, but tingling in the extremities B. Unresponsive, but moving all extremities equally C. Pain to the c-spine, but no numbness or tingling. D. No distracting injuries or evidence of intoxication
d
Injuries to the external male genitalia _______. Select one: A. are often life-threatening B. frequently lead to hypovolemic shock C. usually result in permanent damage D. are rarely life-threatening
d
Once a cervical collar has been applied to a patient with a possible spinal injury, it should not be removed unless: Select one: A. sensory and motor functions remain intact. B. the patient adamantly denies neck pain. C. lateral immobilization has been applied. D. it causes a problem managing the airway.
d
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is used to assess: Select one: A. sensory response, pupil reaction, and heart rate. B. verbal response, eye opening, and mental status. C. mental status, eye opening, and respiratory rate. D. eye opening, verbal response, and motor response.
d
The MOST reliable sign of a head injury is: Select one: A. decreased sensation in the extremities. B. a pulse that is rapid and thready. C. an abnormally low blood pressure. D. a decreased level of consciousness.
d
The _________ is the best-protected part of the CNS and controls the functions of the cardiac and respiratory systems. Select one: A. spinal cord B. cerebral cortex C. cerebellum D. brain stem
d
The five sections of the spinal column, in descending order, are the: Select one: A. coccygeal, sacral, lumbar, thoracic, and cervical. B. thoracic, cervical, lumbar, coccygeal, and sacral. C. cervical, coccygeal, thoracic, sacral, and lumbar. D. cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal.
d
The ideal procedure for moving an injured patient from the ground to a backboard is: Select one: A. the use of a scoop stretcher. B. the direct patient carry. C. the clothes drag. D. the four-person log roll.
d
When assessing a patient with a head injury, you note the presence of thin, bloody fluid draining from his right ear. This indicates: Select one: A. fractures to the internal structures of the ear following direct trauma. B. a linear skull fracture and a significant increase in intracranial pressure. C. significant pressure and bleeding in between the skull and dura mater. D. rupture of the tympanic membrane following diffuse impact to the head.
d
Which of the following is most likely to cause immediate death? Select one: A. Pulmonary contusion B. Myocardial contusion C. Aortic dissection D. Aortic rupture
d
Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would pose the greatest threat to a patient's life? Select one: A. An amputated extremity B. Nondisplaced long bone fractures C. Bilateral femur fractures D. Pelvic fracture with hypotension
d
Which of the following statements regarding abdominal eviscerations is correct? Select one: A. Most eviscerations occur to the left upper quadrant. B. Adherent material is preferred when covering an evisceration. C. The organs should be replaced carefully to avoid heat loss. D. The protruding organs should be kept warm and moist.
d
While jogging, a 19-year-old male experienced an acute onset of shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain. He is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. Your assessment reveals that he has diminished breath sounds over the left side of the chest. You should: Select one: A. circumferentially tape a dressing around his chest. B. recognize that he needs a needle decompression. C. immediately perform a rapid head-to-toe exam. D. administer oxygen and transport to the hospital.
d
With regard to musculoskeletal injuries, the zone of injury is defined as the: Select one: A. exact part of the bone or joint that was disrupted. B. area of obvious deformity over the site of impact. C. part of the body that sustained secondary injury. D. area of soft-tissue damage surrounding the injury.
d
You are transporting a 42-year-old male who experienced blunt abdominal trauma. He is receiving oxygen at 12 L/min via a nonrebreathing mask and full spinal precautions have been applied. During your reassessment, you note his level of consciousness has decreased and his respirations have become shallow. You should: Select one: A. perform a comprehensive secondary assessment to determine why his clinical status has changed. B. reassess his vital signs and then notify the receiving hospital of the change in his clinical status. C. suction his oropharynx to ensure it is clear of secretions and then increase the oxygen flow rate to 15 L/min. D. insert an airway adjunct if he will tolerate it and begin assisting his ventilations with a BVM.
d
You arrive at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash. The patient, a 50-year-old female, was removed from her vehicle prior to your arrival. Bystanders who removed her state that she was not wearing a seatbelt. The patient is unresponsive, tachycardic, and diaphoretic. Your assessment reveals bilaterally clear and equal breath sounds, a midline trachea, and collapsed jugular veins. You should be MOST suspicious that this patient has experienced a: Select one: A. massive hemothorax. B. tension pneumothorax. C. pericardial tamponade. D. laceration of the aorta.
d
You have sealed the open chest wound of a 40-year-old male who was stabbed in the anterior chest. Your reassessment reveals that he is experiencing increasing respiratory distress and tachycardia, and is developing cyanosis. You should: Select one: A. call for a paramedic ambulance. B. begin rapid transport at once. C. begin ventilatory assistance. D. partially remove the dressing.
d
You respond to a residence for a 40-year-old female who was assaulted by her husband; the scene has been secured by law enforcement. Upon your arrival, you find the patient lying supine on the floor in the kitchen. She is semiconscious with severely labored breathing. Further assessment reveals a large bruise to the left anterior chest, jugular venous distention, and unilaterally absent breath sounds. As your partner is supporting her ventilations, you should: Select one: A. insert an oropharyngeal airway. B. perform a focused secondary exam. C. obtain a set of baseline vital signs. D. immediately request ALS support.
d
You should be MOST suspicious that a patient has experienced a significant head injury if his or her pulse is: Select one: A. irregular. B. rapid. C. weak. D. slow.
d