CIS 359 Final

Each of the following is a role for the crisis management response team EXCEPT: a. Informing local emergency services to respond to the crisis b. Supporting personnel and their loved ones during the crisis c. Communicating with major customers and other stakeholders d. Keeping the public informed about the event

a. Informing local emergency services to respond to the crisis

_____ are the technically qualified individuals tasked to configure firewalls, deploy IDSs, implement security software, diagnose and troubleshoot problems, and coordinate with systems and network administrators to ensure that an organization's security technology is properly implemented. a. Security analysts b. Security managers c. CISOs d. CSOs

a. Security analysts

Ideally, the _____, systems administrators, the chief information security officer (CISO), and key IT and business managers should be actively involved during the creation and development of all CP components a. chief information officer (CIO) b. chief financial officer (CFO) c. senior auditor d. chief executive officer (CEO)

a. chief information officer (CIO)

The model commonly used by large organizations places the information security department within the _____ department. a. information technology b. management c. physical security d. production

a. information technology

A background check must always be conducted to determine the level of trust the business can place in a candidate for an information security position. a. true b. false

a. true

An organization should integrate security awareness education into a new hire's ongoing job orientation and make it a part of every employee's on-the-job security training. a. true b. false

a. true

Due care and due diligence require that an organization make a valid effort to protect others and continually maintain this level of effort, ensuring these actions are effective. a. true b. false

a. true

Individuals with authorization and privileges to manage information within the organization are most likely to cause harm or damage by accident. a. true b. false

a. true

The Secret Service is charged with safeguarding the nation's financial infrastructure and payments systems to preserve the integrity of the economy. a. true b. false

a. true

The business impact analysis is a preparatory activity common to both CP and risk management. a. true b. false

a. true

The process of integrating information security perspectives into the hiring process includes with reviewing and updating all job descriptions. a. true b. false

a. true

Upper management should learn more about the budgetary needs of the information security function and the positions within it. _____ a. true b. false

a. true

​The FTC recommends that people place an initial fraud alert (among other things) when they suspect they are victims of identity theft. a. true b. false

a. true

There are three general causes of unethical and illegal behavior: _____, Accident, and Intent. a. Curiosity b. Ignorance c. Revenge d. None of the other answers are correct

b. Ignorance

_____ are hired by the organization to serve in a temporary position or to supplement the existing workforce. a. Contractors b. Temporary employees c. Consultants d. Self-employees

b. Temporary employees

Individuals with authorization and privileges to manage information within the organization are most likely to cause harm or damage _____. a. with intent b. by accident and/or through unintentional negligence c. with malice d. none of the other answers are correct

b. by accident and/or through unintentional negligence

A key difference between a policy and a law is that ignorance of a law is an acceptable defense. a. true b. false

b. false

The key difference between laws and ethics is that ethics carry the authority of a governing body and laws do not. a. true b. false

b. false

The first phase of the risk management process is _____. a. risk evaluation b. risk identification c. risk control d. forming the risk management planning team

b. risk identification

The _____ defines stiffer penalties for prosecution of terrorism-related activities. a. Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act b. Economic Espionage Act c. USA PATRIOT Act d. Sarbanes-Oxley Act

c. USA PATRIOT Act

A threat _____ is an evaluation of the threats to information assets, including a determination of their likelihood of occurrence and potential impact of an attack. a. review b. search c. assessment d. investigation

c. assessment

Risk _____ is the identification, analysis, and evaluation of risk as initial parts of risk management. a. identification b. management c. assessment d. control

c. assessment

The concept of competitive _____ refers to falling behind the competition. a. shortcoming b. drawback c. disadvantage d. failure

c. disadvantage

Many organizations use a(n) _____ interview to remind the employee of contractual obligations, such as nondisclosure agreements, and to obtain feedback on the employee's tenure in the organization. a. hostile b. departure c. exit d. termination

c. exit

The total amount of time the system owner or authorizing official is willing to accept for a business process outage or disruption is _____. a. recovery time objective (RTO) b. recovery point objective (RPO) c. maximum tolerable downtime (MTD) d. work recovery time (WRT)

c. maximum tolerable downtime (MTD)

The point in time before a disruption or system outage to which business process data can be recovered after an outage is ____. a. work recovery time (WRT) b. maximum tolerable downtime (MTD) c. recovery point objective (RPO) d. recovery time objective (RTO)

c. recovery point objective (RPO)

Risk _____ is the assessment of the amount of risk an organization is willing to accept for a particular information asset, typically synthesized into the organization's overall risk appetite. a. residual b. benefit c. tolerance d. baseline

c. tolerance

Laws, policies, and their associated penalties only provide deterrence if which of the following conditions is present? a. Fear of penalty b. Probability of being caught c. Probability of penalty being administered d. All of the other answers are correct

d. All of the other answers are correct

The _____ is the title most commonly associated with the top information security officer in the organization. a. CTO b. CFO c. CEO d. CISO

d. CISO

_____ is the rapid determination of the scope of the breach in the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information and information assets during or just following an incident. a. Incident response b. Disaster assessment c. Containment development d. Damage assessment

d. Damage assessment

_____ addresses are sometimes called electronic serial numbers or hardware addresses. a. IP b. HTTP c. DHCP d. MAC

d. MAC

The latest forecasts for information security-related positions expect _____ openings than in many previous years.. a. many fewer b. fewer c. the same number of d. more

d. more

A ____ is a contractual document guaranteeing certain minimal levels of service provided by a vendor. a. memorandum of understanding b. mutual agreement c. time-share agreement d. service agreement

d. service agreement