Cisco 200-301 Exam Actual Questions

Question #38 Describe TCP.

-sends transmissions in sequence -uses a lower transmission rate to ensure reliability -transmits packets as a stream -used by FTP, SMTP, SSH

Question #38 Describe UDP.

-transmissions include an 8-byte header -transmits packets individually -uses a higher transmission rate to support latency-sensitive applications -used by DHCP, SNMP, TFTP

3. What are some descriptions of TFTP?

-uses port 69 -does not require user authentication -uses UDP

3. What are some descriptions of FTP?

-uses ports 20 and 21 -provides reliability when loading an IOS image upon boot up -uses TCP

Question #86 What is the maximum bandwidth of a T1 point-to-point connection? A. 1.544 Mbps B. 2.048 Mbps C. 34.368 Mbps D. 43.7 Mbps

A. 1.544 Mbps

Question #72 An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4GHz channels and lower usage on the 5GHz channels. What must be configured to allow clients to preferentially use5GHz access points? A. Client Band Select B. Re-Anchor Roamed Clients C. OEAP Spilt Tunnel D. 11ac MU-MIMO

A. Client Band Select

Question #71 Which TCP/IP protocols use UDP as their primary transmission protocols? A. DNS B. HTTP C. RTP D. SMTP E. SNMP F. Telnet

A. DNS C. RTP E. SNMP

Question #50 Which two statements about the purpose of the OSI model are accurate? (Choose two.) A. Defines the network functions that occur at each layer B. Facilitates an understanding of how information travels throughout a network C. Changes in one layer do not impact other layer D. Ensures reliable data delivery through its layered approach

A. Defines the network functions that occur at each layer B. Facilitates an understanding of how information travels throughout a network

Question #21 Which action is taken by switch port enabled for PoE power classification override? A. If a monitored port exceeds the maximum administrative value for power, the port is shutdown and err-disabled. B. When a powered device begins drawing power from a PoE switch port, a syslog message is generated. C. As power usage on a PoE switch port is checked, data flow to the connected device is temporarily paused. D. If a switch determines that a device is using less than the minimum configured power, it assumes the device has failed and disconnects it.

A. If a monitored port exceeds the maximum administrative value for power, the port is shutdown and err-disabled.

Question #20 What is a benefit of using a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller? A. It eliminates the need to configure each access point individually. B. Central AP management requires more complex configurations. C. Unique SSIDs cannot use the same authentication method. D. It supports autonomous and lightweight APs.

A. It eliminates the need to configure each access point individually.

Question #54 Which two statements are true about the command ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.4? (Choose two.) A. It establishes a static route to the 172.16.3.0 network. B. It establishes a static route to the 192.168.2.0 network. C. It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination to the 172.16.3.0 network. D. It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination out the interface with the address 192.168.2.4. E. It uses the default administrative distance. F. It is a route that would be used last if other routes to the same destination exist

A. It establishes a static route to the 172.16.3.0 network. E. It uses the default administrative distance.

Question #101 Which QoS Profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a voice over WLAN deployment? A. Platinum B. Bronze C. Gold D. Silver

A. Platinum

Question #67 Which two functions are performed by the core layer in a three-tier architecture? (Choose two.) A. Provide uninterrupted forwarding service B. Inspect packets for malicious activity C. Ensure timely data transfer between layers D. Provide direct connectivity for end user devices E. Police traffic that is sent to the edge of the network

A. Provide uninterrupted forwarding service C. Ensure timely data transfer between layers

6. How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints? A. TCP uses the three-way handshake, and UDP does not guarantee message delivery. B. TCP uses synchronization packets, and UDP uses acknowledgment packets. C. UDP provides reliable message transfer, and TCP is a connectionless protocol. D. UDP uses SYN, SYN ACK, and FIN bits in the frame header while TCP uses SYN, SYN ACK, and ACK bits.

A. TCP uses the three-way handshake, and UDP does not guarantee message delivery.

Question #31 What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? (Choose two.) A. The distribution layer runs Layer 2 and Layer 3 technologies B. The network core is designed to maintain continuous connectivity when devices fail C. The access layer manages routing between devices in different domains D. The core layer maintains wired connections for each host E. The core and distribution layers perform the same functions

A. The distribution layer runs Layer 2 and Layer 3 technologies B. The network core is designed to maintain continuous connectivity when devices fail

Question #51 Which three statements about MAC addresses are correct? (Choose three.) A. To communicate with other devices on a network, a network device must have a unique MAC address B. The MAC address is also referred to as the IP address C. The MAC address of a device must be configured in the Cisco IOS CLI by a user with administrative privileges D. A MAC address contains two main components, the first of which identifies the manufacturer of the hardware and the second of which uniquely identifies the hardware E. An example of a MAC address is 0A:26:B8:D6:65:90 F. A MAC address contains two main components, the first of which identifies the network on which the host resides and the second of which uniquely identifies the host on the network

A. To communicate with other devices on a network, a network device must have a unique MAC address D. A MAC address contains two main components, the first of which identifies the manufacturer of the hardware and the second of which uniquely identifies the hardware E. An example of a MAC address is 0A:26:B8:D6:65:90

Question #119 Which design element is a best practice when deploying an 802.11b wireless infrastructure? A. allocating nonoverlapping channels to access points that are in close physical proximity to one another B. disabling TCP so that access points can negotiate signal levels with their attached wireless devices C. configuring access points to provide clients with a maximum of 5 Mbps D. setting the maximum data rate to 54 Mbps on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller

A. allocating nonoverlapping channels to access points that are in close physical proximity to one another

Question #23 Which function does the range of private IPv4 addresses perform? A. allows multiple companies to each use the same addresses without conflicts B. provides a direct connection for hosts from outside of the enterprise network C. ensures that NAT is not required to reach the Internet with private range addressing D. enables secure communications to the Internet for all external hosts

A. allows multiple companies to each use the same addresses without conflicts

Question #59 Which two WAN architecture options help a business scalability and reliability for the network? (Choose two.) A. asychronous routing B. single-homed branches C. dual-homed branches D. static routing E. dynamic routing

A. asychronous routing C. dual-homed branches

Question #58Topic 1 Which WAN access technology is preferred for a small office / home office architecture? A. broadband cable access B. frame-relay packet switching C. dedicated point-to-point leased line D. Integrated Services Digital Network switching

A. broadband cable access

Question #94 Why was the RFC 1918 address space defined? A. conserve public IPv4 addressing B. support the NAT protocol C. preserve public IPv6 address space D. reduce instances of overlapping IP addresses

A. conserve public IPv4 addressing

Question #68 What is a recommended approach to avoid co-channel congestion while installing access points that use the 2.4 GHz frequency? A. different nonoverlapping channels B. one overlapping channel C. one nonoverlapping channel D. different overlapping channels

A. different nonoverlapping channels

Question #43 A wireless administrator has configured a WLAN; however, the clients need access to a less congested 5-GHz network for their voice quality. Which action must be taken to meet the requirement? A. enable Band Select B. enable DTIM C. enable RX-SOP D. enable AAA override

A. enable Band Select

Question #65 Which function is performed by the collapsed core layer in a two-tier architecture? A. enforcing routing policies B. marking interesting traffic for data policies C. applying security policies D. attaching users to the edge of the network

A. enforcing routing policies

Question #64 What are two functions of a server on a network? (Choose two.) A. handles requests from multiple workstations at the same time B. achieves redundancy by exclusively using virtual server clustering C. housed solely in a data center that is dedicated to a single client D. runs the same operating system in order to communicate with other servers E. runs applications that send and retrieve data for workstations that make requests

A. handles requests from multiple workstations at the same time E. runs applications that send and retrieve data for workstations that make requests

4. A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two.) A. input errors B. frame C. giants D. CRC E. runts

A. input errors D. CRC

Question #98 A network administrator is setting up a new IPv6 network using the 64-bit address 2001:0EB8:00C1:2200:0001:0000:0000:0331/64. To simplify the configuration, the administrator has decided to compress the address. Which IP address must the administrator configure? A. ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:22:1::331/64 B. ipv6 address 21:EB8:C1:2200:1::331/64 C. ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:2200:1:0000:331/64 D. ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:2200:1::331/64

A. ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:22:1::331/64

Question #125 Which command is used to enable LLDP globally on a Cisco IOS ISR? A. lldp run B. lldp enable C. lldp transmit D. cdp run E. cdp enable

A. lldp run

7. Which 802.11 frame type is Association Response? A. management B. protected frame C. action D. control Hide Solution

A. management

Question #82 What are characteristics of a collapsed core network architecture? A. single device handles the core and the distribution layer B. enhances network availability C. more cost-effective than other options D. most appropriate for small network designs E. separate devices handle the core and the distribution layer

A. single device handles the core and the distribution layer C. more cost-effective than other options D. most appropriate for small network designs

Question #97 Which type of organization should use a collapsed-core architecture? A. small and needs to reduce networking costs B. large and must minimize downtime when hardware fails C. large and requires a flexible, scalable network design D. currently small but is expected to grow dramatically in the near future

A. small and needs to reduce networking costs

Question #61 Which two options are the best reasons to use an IPV4 private IP space? (Choose two.) A. to enable intra-enterprise communication B. to implement NAT C. to connect applications D. to conserve global address space E. to manage routing overhead

A. to enable intra-enterprise communication D. to conserve global address space

Question #46 For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? A. to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2 B. to allow communication with devices on a different network C. to differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet D. to establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit first E. to allow communication between different devices on the same network F. to allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown

A. to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2 E. to allow communication between different devices on the same network

Question #60 What is the binary pattern of unique ipv6 unique local address? A. 00000000 B. 11111100 C. 11111111 D. 11111101

B. 11111100

Question #15 Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet? A. 172.9.0.0/16 B. 172.28.0.0/16 C. 192.0.0.0/8 D. 209.165.201.0/24

B. 172.28.0.0/16

Question #52 Which technique can you use to route IPv6 traffic over an IPv4 infrastructure? A. NAT B. 6 to 4 tunneling C. L2TPv3 D. dual-stack

B. 6 to 4 tunneling

Question #87 What are two similarities between UTP Cat 5e and Cat 6a cabling? (Choose two.) A. Both support speeds up to 10 Gigabit. B. Both support speeds of at least 1 Gigabit. C. Both support runs of up to 55 meters. D. Both support runs of up to 100 meters. E. Both operate at a frequency of 500 MHz

B. Both support speeds of at least 1 Gigabit. D. Both support runs of up to 100 meters.

Question #57 Which two goals reasons to implement private IPv4 addressing on your network? (Choose two.) A. Comply with PCI regulations B. Conserve IPv4 address C. Reduce the size of the forwarding table on network routers D. Reduce the risk of a network security breach E. Comply with local law Reveal Solution

B. Conserve IPv4 address D. Reduce the risk of a network security breach

Question #71 Which TCP/IP protocols use TCP as their primary transmission protocols? A. DNS B. HTTP C. RTP D. SMTP E. SNMP F. Telnet

B. HTTP D. SMTP F. Telnet

Question #118 A Cisco IP phone receives untagged data traffic from an attached PC. Which action is taken by the phone? A. It drops the traffic. B. It allows the traffic to pass through unchanged. C. It tags the traffic with the native VLAN. D. It tags the traffic with the default VLAN.

B. It allows the traffic to pass through unchanged.

Question #26 How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they provide reliability for delivery of packets? A. TCP does not guarantee delivery or error checking to ensure that there is no corruption of data, UDP provides message acknowledgement and retransmits data if lost. B. TCP provides flow control to avoid overwhelming a receiver by sending too many packets at once, UDP sends packets to the receiver in a continuous stream without checking. C. TCP is a connectionless protocol that does not provide reliable delivery of data; UDP is a connection-oriented protocol that uses sequencing to provide reliable delivery. D. TCP uses windowing to deliver packets reliably; UDP provides reliable message transfer between hosts by establishing a three-way handshake

B. TCP provides flow control to avoid overwhelming a receiver by sending too many packets at once, UDP sends packets to the receiver in a continuous stream without checking.

Question #84 What is the difference in data transmission delivery and reliability between TCP and UDP? A. TCP transmits data at a higher rate and ensures packet delivery. UDP retransmits lost data to ensure applications receive the data on the remote end. B. TCP requires the connection to be established before transmitting data. UDP transmits data at a higher rate without ensuring packet delivery. C. UDP sets up a connection between both devices before transmitting data. TCP uses the three-way handshake to transmit data with a reliable connection. D. UDP is used for multicast and broadcast communication. TCP is used for unicast communication and transmits data at a higher rate with error checking.

B. TCP requires the connection to be established before transmitting data. UDP transmits data at a higher rate without ensuring packet delivery.

Question #27 What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two.) A. A BNC connector is used for fiber connections B. The glass core component is encased in a cladding C. The data can pass through the cladding D. Light is transmitted through the core of the fiber E. Fiber connects to physical interfaces using RJ-45 connections Reveal Solution

B. The glass core component is encased in a cladding D. Light is transmitted through the core of the fiber

Question #55 What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose two.) A. They are routed the same as public IP addresses. B. They are less costly than public IP addresses. C. They can be assigned to devices without Internet connections. D. They eliminate the necessity for NAT policies. E. They eliminate duplicate IP conflicts.

B. They are less costly than public IP addresses. C. They can be assigned to devices without Internet connections.

Question #92 What are network endpoints? A. support inter-VLAN connectivity B. a threat to the network if they are compromised C. act as routers to connect a user to the service provider network D. enforce policies for campus-wide traffic going to the Internet

B. a threat to the network if they are compromised

Question #82 What are characteristics of a three-tier network architecture? A. single device handles the core and the distribution layer B. enhances network availability C. more cost-effective than other options D. most appropriate for small network designs E. separate devices handle the core and the distribution layer

B. enhances network availability E. separate devices handle the core and the distribution layer

Question #45 What is the destination MAC address of a broadcast frame? A. 00:00:0c:07:ac:01 B. ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff C. 43:2e:08:00:00:0c D. 00:00:0c:43:2e:08 E. 00:00:0c:ff:ff:ff

B. ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff

Question #79 An implementer is preparing hardware for virtualization to create virtual machines on a host. What is needed to provide communication between hardware and virtual machines? A. router B. hypervisor C. switch D. straight cable

B. hypervisor

Question #37 An office has 8 floors with approximately 30-40 users per floor. One subnet must be used. Which command must be configured on the router Switched Virtual Interface to use address space efficiently? A. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0 B. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.254.0 C. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.128 D. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.224

B. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.254.0

Question #112 Which mode allows access points to be managed by Cisco Wireless LAN Controllers? A. bridge B. lightweight C. mobility express D. autonomous

B. lightweight

Question #83 Which 802.11 frame type is indicated by a probe response after a client sends a probe request? A. data B. management C. control D. action

B. management

Question #111 Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation protocol? A. active B. on C. auto D. desirable

B. on

Question #17 Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and cannot route on the Internet? A. link-local B. unique local C. multicast D. global unicast

B. unique local

Question #19 What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two.) A. when Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection is used B. when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex C. when the sending device waits 15 seconds before sending the frame again D. when a collision occurs after the 32nd byte of a frame has been transmitted E. when the cable length limits are exceeded

B. when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex E. when the cable length limits are exceeded

Question #41 Using direct sequence spread spectrum, which three 2.4-GHz channels are used to limit collisions? A. 5, 6, 7 B. 1, 2, 3 C. 1, 6, 11 D. 1, 5, 10

C. 1, 6, 11

Question #34 A corporate office uses four floors in a building.✑ Floor 1 has 24 users. Floor 2 has 29 users. Floor 3 has 28 users. Floor 4 has 22 users. Which subnet summarizes and gives the most efficient distribution of IP addresses for the router configuration? A. 192.168.0.0/24 as summary and 192.168.0.0/28 for each floor B. 192.168.0.0/23 as summary and 192.168.0.0/25 for each floor C. 192.168.0.0/25 as summary and 192.168.0.0/27 for each floor D. 192.168.0.0/26 as summary and 192.168.0.0/29 for each floor

C. 192.168.0.0/25 as summary and 192.168.0.0/27 for each floor

Question #8 In which way does a spine-and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are require? A. A spine switch and a leaf switch can be added with redundant connections between them. B. A spine switch can be added with at least 40 GB uplinks. C. A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch. D. A leaf switch can be added with a single connection to a core spine switch.

C. A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch.

Question #25 Several new coverage cells are required to improve the Wi-Fi network of an organization. Which two standard designs are recommended? (Choose two.) A. 5GHz provides increased network capacity with up to 23 nonoverlapping channels. B. 5GHz channel selection requires an autonomous access point. C. Cells that overlap one another are configured to use nonoverlapping channels. D. Adjacent cells with overlapping channels use a repeater access point. E. For maximum throughput, the WLC is configured to dynamically set adjacent access points to the channel

C. Cells that overlap one another are configured to use nonoverlapping channels. Most Voted E. For maximum throughput, the WLC is configured to dynamically set adjacent access points to the channel.

Question #22 What occurs to frames during the process of frame flooding? A. Frames are sent to all ports, including those that are assigned to other VLANs. B. Frames are sent to every port on the switch that has a matching entry in MAC address table. C. Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN except from the originating port. D. Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN.

C. Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN except from the originating port.

Question #113 Which two values or settings must be entered when configuring a new WLAN in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI? (Choose two.) A. QoS settings B. IP address of one or more access points C. SSID D. profile name E. management interface settings

C. SSID D. profile name

Question #106 Which configuration ensures that the switch is always the root for VLAN 750? A. Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 38418607 B. Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 0 C. Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 root primary D. Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 614440

C. Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 root primary

Question #74 Under which condition is TCP preferred over UDP? A. UDP is used when low latency is optimal, and TCP is used when latency is tolerable. B. TCP is used when dropped data is more acceptable, and UDP is used when data is accepted out-of-order. C. TCP is used when data reliability is critical, and UDP is used when missing packets are acceptable. D. UDP is used when data is highly interactive, and TCP is used when data is time-sensitive

C. TCP is used when data reliability is critical, and UDP is used when missing packets are acceptable. Most Voted

Question #42 How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they guarantee packet delivery? A. TCP uses retransmissions, acknowledgment, and parity checks, and UDP uses cyclic redundancy checks only B. TCP uses two-dimensional parity checks, checksums, and cyclic redundancy checks, and UDP uses retransmissions only C. TCP uses checksum, acknowledgements, and retransmissions, and UDP uses checksums only D. TCP uses checksum, parity checks, and retransmissions, and UDP uses acknowledgements only

C. TCP uses checksum, acknowledgements, and retransmissions, and UDP uses checksums only

Question #13 What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC address is received? A. The Layer 2 switch forwards the packet and adds the destination MAC address to its MAC address table. B. The Layer 2 switch sends a copy of a packet to CPU for destination MAC address learning. C. The Layer 2 switch floods packets to all ports except the receiving port in the given VLAN. D. The Layer 2 switch drops the received frame.

C. The Layer 2 switch floods packets to all ports except the receiving port in the given VLAN.

Question #9 What identifies the functionality of virtual machines? A. The hypervisor communicates on Layer 3 without the need for additional resources. B. Each hypervisor supports a single virtual machine and a single software switch. C. The hypervisor virtualizes physical components including CPU, memory, and storage. D. Virtualized servers run efficiently when physically connected to a switch that is separate from the hypervisor.

C. The hypervisor virtualizes physical components including CPU, memory, and storage.

Question #33 What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is generated? A. The interface ID is configured as a random 64-bit value B. The characters FE80 are inserted at the beginning of the MAC address of the interface C. The seventh bit of the original MAC address of the interface is inverted D. The MAC address of the interface is used as the interface ID without modification

C. The seventh bit of the original MAC address of the interface is inverted

Question #81 In which situation is private IPv4 addressing appropriate for a new subnet on the network of an organization? A. The network has multiple endpoint listeners, and it is desired to limit the number of broadcasts. B. The ISP requires the new subnet to be advertised to the Internet for web services. C. There is limited unique address space, and traffic on the new subnet will stay local within the organization. D. Traffic on the subnet must traverse a site-to-site VPN to an outside organization.

C. There is limited unique address space, and traffic on the new subnet will stay local within the organization. Most Voted

Question #63 What is the same for both copper and fiber interfaces when using SFP modules? A. They support an inline optical attenuator to enhance signal strength B. They accommodate single-mode and multi-mode in a single module C. They provide minimal interruption to services by being hot-swappable D. They offer reliable bandwidth up to 100 Mbps in half duplex mode

C. They provide minimal interruption to services by being hot-swappable

Question #78 What is a role of access points in an enterprise network? A. integrate with SNMP in preventing DDoS attacks B. serve as a first line of defense in an enterprise network C. connect wireless devices to a wired network D. support secure user logins to devices on the network

C. connect wireless devices to a wired network

Question #24 Which action must be taken to assign a global unicast IPv6 address on an interface that is derived from the MAC address of that interface? A. explicitly assign a link-local address B. disable the EUI-64 bit process C. enable SLAAC on an interface D. configure a stateful DHCPv6 server on the network

C. enable SLAAC on an interface

Question #109 Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller? A. local B. mesh C. flexconnect D. sniffer

C. flexconnect

Question #76 A network engineer must configure the router R1 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface to connect to the router R2 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface. For the configuration to be applied, the engineer must compress the address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0500:000a:400F:583B. Which command must be issued on the interface? A. ipv6 address 2001::db8:0000::500:a:400F:583B B. ipv6 address 2001:db8:0::500:a:4F:583B C. ipv6 address 2001:db8::500:a:400F:583B D. ipv6 address 2001:0db8::5:a:4F:583B

C. ipv6 address 2001:db8::500:a:400F:583B

Question #10 Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a specified IPv6 prefix and MAC address of an interface? A. ipv6 address dhcp B. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::/64 eui-64 C. ipv6 address autoconfig D. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::2/64 link-local

C. ipv6 address autoconfig

Question #39 A device detects two stations transmitting frames at the same time. This condition occurs after the first 64 bytes of the frame is received. Which interface counter increments? A. runt B. collision C. late collision D. CRC

C. late collision

Question #114 Which command is used to specify the delay time in seconds for LLDP to initialize on any interface? A. lldp timer B. lldp tlv-select C. lldp reinit D. lldp holdtime

C. lldp reinit

Question #70 What are two functions of a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two.) A. acts as a central point for association and authentication servers B. selects the best route between networks on a WAN C. moves packets within a VLAN D. moves packets between different VLANs E. makes forwarding decisions based on the MAC address of a packet

C. moves packets within a VLAN E. makes forwarding decisions based on the MAC address of a packet

Question #48 Which component of an Ethernet frame is used to notify a host that traffic is coming? A. start of frame delimiter B. Type field C. preamble D. Data field

C. preamble

Question #36 What is a characteristic of spine-and-leaf architecture? A. Each link between leaf switches allows for higher bandwidth. B. It provides greater predictability on STP blocked ports. C. It provides variable latency. D. Each device is separated by the same number of hops.

D. Each device is separated by the same number of hops.

Question #29 Which IPv6 address block forwards packets to a multicast address rather than a unicast address? A. 2000::/3 B. FC00::/7 C. FE80::/10 D. FF00::/12

D. FF00::/12

Question #18 Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address? A. 2000::/3 B. FC00::/7 C. FE80::/10 D. FF00::/8

D. FF00::/8

Question #11 When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two.) A. 2000::/3 B. 2002::5 C. FC00::/7 D. FF02::1 E. FF02::2

D. FF02::1 E. FF02::2

Question #80 How does a Cisco Unified Wireless Network respond to Wi-Fi channel overlap? A. It allows the administrator to assign the channels on a per-device or per-interface basis. B. It segregates devices from different manufactures onto different channels. C. It analyzes client load and background noise and dynamically assigns a channel. D. It alternates automatically between 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz on adjacent access points.

D. It alternates automatically between 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz on adjacent access points.

Question #99 What is the primary effect of the spanning-tree portfast command? A. It immediately enables the port in the listening state. B. It immediately puts the port into the forwarding state when the switch is reloaded. C. It enables BPDU messages. D. It minimizes spanning-tree convergence time.

D. It minimizes spanning-tree convergence time.

Question #91 Which two network actions occur within the data plane? (Choose two.) A. Run routing protocols. B. Make a configuration change from an incoming NETCONF RPC. C. Add or remove an 802.1Q trunking header. D. Match the destination MAC address to the MAC address table. E. Reply to an incoming ICMP echo request

D. Match the destination MAC address to the MAC address table. E. Reply to an incoming ICMP echo request

Question #100 What occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch? A. Root port choice and spanning-tree recalculation are accelerated when a switch link goes down. B. After spanning-tree converges, PortFast shuts down any port that receives BPDUs. C. VTP is allowed to propagate VLAN configuration information from switch to switch automatically. D. Spanning-tree fails to detect a switching loop increasing the likelihood of broadcast storms

D. Spanning-tree fails to detect a switching loop increasing the likelihood of broadcast storms.

Question #30 What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP? A. TCP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol. B. TCP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol. C. TCP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol. D. TCP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol

D. TCP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol.

Question #28 How does CAPWAP communicate between an access point in local mode and a WLC? A. The access point must not be connected to the wired network, as it would create a loop B. The access point must be connected to the same switch as the WLC C. The access point must directly connect to the WLC using a copper cable D. The access point has the ability to link to any switch in the network, assuming connectivity to the WLC

D. The access point has the ability to link to any switch in the network, assuming connectivity to the WLC

Question #117 Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol. SW1 is set to Dynamic Auto and SW2 is set to Dynamic Desirable. What is the result of this configuration? A. The link becomes an access port. B. The link is in an error disabled state. C. The link is in a down state. D. The link becomes a trunk port

D. The link becomes a trunk port

Question #89 Which network action occurs within the data plane? A. reply to an incoming ICMP echo request B. make a configuration change from an incoming NETCONF RPC C. run routing protocols (OSPF, EIGRP, RIP, BGP) D. compare the destination IP address to the IP routing table

D. compare the destination IP address to the IP routing table

Question #77 What is a network appliance that checks the state of a packet to determine whether the packet is legitimate? A. Layer 2 switch B. LAN controller C. load balancer D. firewall

D. firewall

Question #73 Which networking function occurs on the data plane? A. processing inbound SSH management traffic B. sending and receiving OSPF Hello packets C. facilitates spanning-tree elections D. forwarding remote client/server traffic

D. forwarding remote client/server traffic

Question #32 Which type of IPv6 address is publicly routable in the same way as IPv4 public addresses? A. multicast B. unique local C. link-local D. global unicast

D. global unicast

Question #121 Which two command sequences must be configured on a switch to establish a Layer 3 EtherChannel with an open-standard protocol? (Choose two.) A. interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1 channel-group 10 mode auto B. interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1 channel-group 10 mode on C. interface port-channel 10 no switchport ip address 172.16.0.1 255.255.255.0 D. interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1 channel-group 10 mode active E. interface port-channel 10 switchport switchport mode trunk

D. interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1 channel-group 10 mode active Most Voted E. interface port-channel 10 switchport switchport mode trunk

Question #14 An engineer must configure a /30 subnet between two routes. Which usable IP address and subnet mask combination meets this criteria? A. interface e0/0 description to XX-AXXX:XXXXX ip address 10.2.1.3 255.255.255.252 B. interface e0/0 description to XX-AXXX:XXXXX ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.248 C. interface e0/0 description to XX-AXXX:XXXXX ip address 172.16.1.4 255.255.255.248 D. interface e0/0 description to XX-AXXX:XXXXX ip address 209.165.201.2 225.255.255.252

D. interface e0/0 description to XX-AXXX:XXXXX ip address 209.165.201.2 225.255.255.252

Question #49 You are configuring your edge routers interface with a public IP address for Internet connectivity. The router needs to obtain the IP address from the service provider dynamically.Which command is needed on interface FastEthernet 0/0 to accomplish this? A. ip default-gateway B. ip route C. ip default-network D. ip address dhcp E. ip address dynamic

D. ip address dhcp

Question #88 What is a characteristic of cloud-based network topology? A. onsite network services are provided with physical Layer 2 and Layer 3 components B. wireless connections provide the sole access method to services C. physical workstations are configured to share resources D. services are provided by a public, private, or hybrid deployment

D. services are provided by a public, private, or hybrid deployment

Question #69 A manager asks a network engineer to advise which cloud service models are used so employees do not have to waste their time installing, managing, and updating software that is only used occasionally. Which cloud service model does the engineer recommend? A. infrastructure-as-a-service B. platform-as-a-service C. business process as service to support different types of service D. software-as-a-service

D. software-as-a-service

Question #104 An engineer needs to configure LLDP to send the port description type length value (TLV). Which command sequence must be implemented? A. switch(config-if)#lldp port-description B. switch#lldp port-description C. switch(config-line)#lldp port-description D. switch(config)#lldp port-description

D. switch(config)#lldp port-description

Question #66 What is the primary function of a Layer 3 device? A. to transmit wireless traffic between hosts B. to analyze traffic and drop unauthorized traffic from the Internet C. to forward traffic within the same broadcast domain D. to pass traffic between different networks

D. to pass traffic between different networks

Question #56 What are two benefits that the UDP protocol provide for application traffic? (Choose two.) A. UDP traffic has lower overhead than TCP traffic B. UDP provides a built-in recovery mechanism to retransmit lost packets C. The CTL field in the UDP packet header enables a three-way handshake to establish the connection D. UDP maintains the connection state to provide more stable connections than TCP E. The application can use checksums to verify the integrity of application data

E. The application can use checksums to verify the integrity of application data Hide Solution