Clinical Biochem Final 2020 Combined
131. which of the following(s) play a role in the initiation of lung cancer a. Radon b. Iodine isotopes c. UV radiation (100-200nm) d. 40K
a
295. True for insulinomas: a. Most of them are benign b. Most of them are multiple c. Most of them are malignant d. None
a
81)Acute promyelocytic leukemia is - AML M3 - AML M4 - AML M5 - AML M7
a
What does PAS stain? a. Carbohydrates b. Lipids c. Esterases d. Peroxidases
a
45. Which tumor markers belong to the oncofetal antigens? a. AFP b. CEA c. CA 15-3 d. PSA
a, b
Hepcidin: a. is synthesized in the liver b. is bound to ferroportin c. is synthesized in the bone marrow d. is bound to HFE protein
a, b
The following platelet count may result in sever bleeding a. 3 G/L b. 9 G/L c. 100 G/L d. none
a, b
282. Which of the following belongs to the monosaccharides? a. Fructose b. Glucose c. Lactose d. Galactose
a, b, d
82)Characteristics of myelodysplastic syndrome - Pancytopenia - Ineffective hemopoiesis - Thrombocytosis - Diagnostic morphologic changes in 1, 2 or 3 lineages
a, b, d
83. What factor(s) can cause fasting hypoglycaemia? a. insulinoma b. food intake c. ACTH deficiency d. Septicemia
a, c
139) In the SLICC classification of autoantibodies , which ones are included for lupus ? - ANA - ANCA - anti-Sm - anti-dsDNA
a, c, d
320. Characteristic features of nephrosis syndrome? A. Glomerular proteinuria B. Tubular proteinuria C. Decreased glomerular filtration rate D. Hypoalbuminemia
a, d
140. How many samples are drawn during an OGTT test? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. none
b
213. How can we calculate INR? a. (control PT/patient PT) x ISI b. (patient PT/control PT)^ISI c. patient PT x ISI d. none of them
b
146. characteristic alterations in thalasemias a. Low platelet count b. Low MCV c. Low MCH d. Low WBC
b, c
124. which of the following antibiotics require monitoring? A, penicillins B, cefalosporins C, aminoglycosids D, macrolide antibiotics
c
19. Staining method in which detects bone marrow iron stores? a. GAPA b. PAS c. Prussian blue d. Sudan black
c
316. The following is the primary regulator of oncotic pressure a. Sodium b. Potassium c. Albumin d. Glucose
c
76) The last hormone to decrease in hypopituitarism - FSH - LH - TSH - ACTH
c
CSF in a healthy patient is: a. Xanthocrome (yellow/orange) b. Bloody c. Colorless d. Opalescent (turbid)
c
In hemophilia A: a. Bleeding time is prolonged b. Level ofvWf is elevated c. APTT is prolonged d. Platelate functions are abnormal
c
What is the expected shelf-life of a CPDA1 anticoagulated whole blood? a. 15 days b. 25 days c. 35 days d. None
c
134. what can be the cause of an elevated serum Ca2+ concentration in cancer patients a. Ectopic production of ADH b. Ectopic production of serotonin c. Ectopic production of PTH or PTHrP d. The presence of osteolytic bone metastasis
c, d
171) True for enzyme activities - 1 IU < 1 nanokatal - 1 IU > 1 katal - 1 IU < 1 katal - 1 IU > 1 nanokatal
c, d
19) The first POCT test was - urine glucose - blood triglyceride - blood cholesterol - pregnancy test - urine
d
The following markers identify B cells: a. MPO b. CD3 c. CD13 d. CD19
d
Which leukemias display PAS positivity? a. AML M5 b. AML M7 c. CML d. none
d
Order of vacutainer tube drawing? A. Culture blood B. EDTA C. Citrate D. Seperation
Order: 1) culture 2) citrate 3) separation 4) EDTA
103) Which laboratory tests suggest primary hyperthyroidism ? - TSH low , fT4 high , fT3 high - TSH high , fT4 high , fT3 high - TSH high , fT4 normal , fT3 high - TSH low , fT4 normal , fT3 high
a
124. the following statements are NOT characteristic for the tumor lysis syndrome a. Usually associated with hypokalemia b. Usually associated with hyperkalemia c. May be associated with symptoms of cardiac arrythmias or tetani d. Massive cell lysis induced by chemotherapy
a
130. linkage analysis is used to define the of disease-associated genes a. Localization b. Numerical alteration c. Structural changes d. Point mutation
a
131) Gastrin secretion after administration of secretin - increased in Zollinger-Ellison syndrome - decreased in Zollinger-Ellison syndrome - increased in pernicious anemia -decreased in pernicious anemia
a
15. CFTR protein is a a. Cl- channel b. Na+ channel c. K+ channel d. Ca2+ channel
a
170. Net urinary excretion of uric acid is: a. 6-12% of the amount filtered b. 20-25% of the amount filtered c. 50-55% of the amount filtered d. 70-75% of the amount filtered
a
175. We evaluate two new diagnostic methods on samples of cancer patients and healthy controls using ROC ("receiver operating characteristic curve") analysis. The area under the ROC curve is 0.848 in the case of method "A" and 0.645 in the case of method "B". Which method discriminates better between cancer patients and the healthy controls? a. Method "A" b. Method "B" c. There is no difference between the two methods d. None of the answers is correct
a
181. which are the consecutive steps of the PCR? a. Denaturation, hybridization, chain elongation. b. Hybridization, denaturation, chain reaction. c. Chain elongation, hybridization, denaturation. d. Chain elongation, denaturation, digestion.
a
20. False positive results are obtained with immune-inhibition CK-MB assay in the case of: a. Macro CK b. Skeletal muscle injury c. Hemolysis d. Following exercise
a
211. false positive results are obtained with immunoinhibition CK-MB assay in case of: a. macro CK b. skeletal muscle injury c. hypovolemia d. following exercise
a
25) What causes Zollinger-Ellison syndrome ? - Gastrinoma - VIPoma - Celiac disease - Gastric ulcer
a
251. There is a higher risk for atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease in case of: a. LDL - C elevation b. HDL - C elevation c. VLDL decrease d. None of them
a
256. What is not characteristic of type 1 diabetes: a. Appears in old age b. Appears in patients with lean body weight c. Shows HLA association d. Insulin treatment is needed
a
262. How much glucose should be administered to a 20 kg child during OGTT? a. 35 gram b. 45 gram c. 75 gram d. OGTT is forbidden in children
a
266. treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis can lead to: a. hypokalemia b. hyponatremia c. hyperkalemia d. hypernatremia
a
27. Predominant water depletion is caused by: a. Diabetes insipidus b. Conn's syndrome (primary hyperaldosteronism) c. Addison's disease d. Hypoalbuminemia
a
30. Which condition(s) cause(s) pseudohyperkalemia? (lecture: disorders of potassium metabolism) a. Extreme thrombocytosis b. Increased potassium uptake c. Acidosis d. Thrombocytopenia
a
306. The first phase of predominant Na depletion, the patient has: a. Hypovolemia b. Hyponatraemia c. Hemodilution d. Increased urinary Na+
a
307. Laboratory finding(s) in addison's disease: a. Increased hemoglobin and hematocrit b. Decreased urea c. Hypernatraemia d. Hypokalaemia
a
308. Predominant water depletion is caused by: a. Diabetes insipidus b. Conn's syndrome c. Addison's disease d. Hypoalbuminemia
a
309. Laboratory finding(s) in predominant water depletion: a. Hypernatraemia b. Normonatraemia c. Hyponatraemia d. Decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit
a
33. The molecules released from the myocardial cells in an acute myocardial infarction appear and reach their peak concentration in the systemic circulation in the following order : a. 1->ions-2metabolites-3macromolecules b. c. d.
a
36. In which oncogenes can we detect mutation in the case of patients suffering from familial medullary thyroid cancer? a. RET b. BRCA1 c. BRCA2 d. APC
a
369.in the "U*V/P" formula, used for calculation of creatinine clearance(ml/s).the serum letters mean: p.49 in file a) U is the concentration of creatinine in the urine (umol/L) b) U is the amount of creatinine excreted during 24 hours(mmol/24hours) c) P is the concentration of creatinine in the urine(umol/L) d) V is the amount of urine excreted during 1 second(ml/s)
a
4. What error may result from prolonged sample storage? a. Preanalytical b. Analytical c. Postanalytical d. None
a
42. Laboratory finding(s) in predominant water depletion: a. Hypernatremia b. Normonatremia c. Hyponatremia d. Decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit
a
5. Which lipoprotein has the highest relative triglyceride concentration? a. Chylomicron b. VLDL c. LDL d. HDL
a
60. Which is the most frequent thrombophilia in the Caucasian population? a. APC resistance b. Antithrombin III deficiency c. Protein C deficiency d. Protein S deficiency
a
62. D-dimer a. Derives from crosslinked fibrin by plasmin-induced degradation b. Derives from non-crosslinked fibrin by plasmin-induced degradation c. Derives from fibrinogen by plasmin-induced degradation d. Derives from abnormal fibrinogen by plasmin-induced degradation
a
65. the following changes may occur in blood specimens during storage a. K is released from the RBC b. The blood absorbs CO2 from the air and the pH ↓ c. In the rbc's glucose is produced, that leaks out through the membrane and ↑ plasma glucose level d. Exposure to sunlight results in the decomposition of certain blood constituents (e.g. bilirubin)
a
92. Hereditary fructose intolerance (fructose-1-P-aldolase deficiency) a. Fructose consumption causes hypoglycemia b. Fructose consumption causes hyperglycemia c. There are no clinical symptoms, it causes only fructosuria d. Glucose consumption is not recommended
a
95. which statements are true for cystic fibrosis a. Affects 1° the Cl ion transport b. Affects 1°the sodium ion transport c. Affects 1° the potassium ion transport d. None of the above are affected
a
97. which oxygen radical is synthesized DIRECTLY by the NADPH-oxidase enzyme a. Superoxide ion (O2-) b. Hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) c. Hydrochlorus radical (OCl") d. Hydroxyl radical (OH")
a
98. the plasma concentration of von Willebrand factor A, in individuals with blood group 0 is lower than individuals with other blood groups B, in individuals with blood group 0 is higher than in individuals with other blood groups C, is decreased in Bernard-Soulier syndrome D, in decreased in hemophilia A
a
A child with O (not Bombay) Rh+ can have parents with: a. A Rh+ / B Rh+ b. A Rh- / B Rh- c. AB Rh+ / AB Rh- d. AB Rh- / O Rh-
a
ALL is most common in which age group? a. 2-10 b. 20-40 c. 40-60 d. +70
a
Characteristic cytochemical reaction in monocytes: a. α-NAE b. Prussian blue c. PAS d. Sudan + acid phosphatase
a
Characteristic morphological feature for myelodysplasia a. Hypogranulated neutrophils b. Hyperlobulated nuclei in neutrophils c. Toxic granulation in neutrophils d. None
a
Deficiency of which vitamin causes PT prolongation a vitamin K
a
In the bed-side test agglutination occurs with anti-B and anti-AB antibodies, while with anti-A and in the autocontrol no agglutination develops. What is the blood type of the patient? a. B b. AB c. A d. O
a
In which case TSH is elevated ? - primary hypothyroidism - secondary hypothyroidism - primary hyperthyroidism - acute phase of a non-thyroid illness
a
Most common POCT test - blood glucose - urine glucose - pregnancy test - urine - blood cholesterol
a
Serum calcium - approximately half is in free , non-bound form - nearly all is protein-bound -nearly all is free - nearly all is in complex
a
Small uniform lymphoblasts appear in the following FAB type: a. ALL L1 b. ALL L2 c. ALL L3 d. AML M1
a
The cause of May-Hegglin anomaly - Congenital bone marrow hypoplasia - Accelerated platelet destruction due to immune mechanism - Increased platelet production in the bone marrow - Abnormal platelet distribution , increased platelet sequestration in the spleen
a
What causes Zollinger-Ellison syndrome ? -gastrinomaa - VIPoma -celiac disease - gastric ulcer
a
What is the first line test for evaluation of thyroid function ? - TSH - reverse T3 - T4 - fT4
a
What is the principle of immunophenotyping? a. To detect cell surface and intracytoplasmic antigens with help of fluorescent labeled monoclonal antibodies b. Antigen analysis by flow cytometry after the lysis of white blood cells c. To stain cell surface antigens directly with fluorescent dyes d. To detect P glycoprotein
a
Which are the consecutive steps of PCR? a. Denaturation, hybridization, chain elongation b. Hybridization, denaturation, chain elongation c. Chain elongation, hybridization, denaturation d. Chain elongation, denaturation, digestion
a
Which chronic leukemia is characterized by visible nucleoli in the leukemic cells? a. PLL (prolymphocytic) b. CLL c. HCL (hairy cell leukemia) d. Plasma cell leukemia
a
Which is the most frequent familial thrombophilia in the Caucasian population? a. APC resistance b. Antithrombin II deficiency c. Protein C deficiency d. Protein S deficiency
a
Which of the enzymes are elevated in acute hepatitis: a. GPT (ALT) b. Alpha amylase c. Lipase d. LDH1
a
Which vacutainer tubes are used for hematology analyzers? a. EDTA anticoagulated tubes b. Sodium citrate anticoagulated tubes c. Tubes without anticoagulant (native) d. Sodium-fluoride containing tubes
a
Which vacutainer tubes are used for hematology tests? a. EDTA anticoagulated tubes b. Sodium citrate anticoagulated tubes c. Tubes without anticoagulant (native) d. Sodium- fluorldo containing tubes
a
281. Characteristic features of the diuretic phase of acute tubular necrosis: a. The serum K concentration decreases remarkably (close to the reference range) b. The serum urea concentration decreases remarkably (close to the reference range) c. The serum creatinine concentration decreases remarkably (close to the reference range) d. The volume of urine produce is lower than 400 ml/day
a (maybe also b and c)
Auto control can be positive in the ABO determination in the following cases: a. Cold autoantibodies b. Transfusion of RH(D) blood to a Rh(D) negative male if the transfusion history was negative c. Antibody against Rh(D) antigen d. Antibody against platelets
a (maybe also b and c)
100) Markers for bone formation - osteocalcin -alkaline phosphatase -creatine kinase -acid phosphatase
a, b
105) Which are metabolites of adrenaline -Metanephrine - VMA( Vanillyl Mandelic Acid) - Normetanephrine - HVA ( HomoVanillic Acid)
a, b
106) Urinary excretion of which catecholamine or catecholamine metabolite increase in neuroblastoma ? - dopamine - HVA - adrenaline - epinephrine
a, b
114. The plasma total protein concentration may increase in the following cases a. Hypergammaglobulinaemia b. Paraproteinaemia c. Catabolic states d. Haemodilution
a, b
126. Retinoblastoma 1 (RB1) gene a. Is a tumor suppressor gene b. Plays important role in cell cycle regulation c. Has a DNA repair function d. Is a oncogene
a, b
13. Glanzmann thrombasthenia: a. Platelet receptor defect b. Results in impaired platelet aggregation defect c. Results in impaired platelet secretion d. Results in impaired platelet procoagulant activity
a, b
133. which of the following is a human carcinogene a. Aflatoxin b. Saturated fat c. Unsaturated fat d. Beta carotin
a, b
135. Characteristics of type 1 diabetes: a. mostly appears in young people b. appears in lean subjects c. is usually accompanied by high insulin values d. none
a, b
153. haemolytic anemia is characterised by a. High LDH b. High uncinjugated bilirubin c. Normal bilirubin d. Normal LDH
a, b
160. hepcidin: a. Is synthesized in the liver b. Is bound to ferroportin c. Is synthesized in the bone marrow d. Is bound to HFE protein
a, b
183. Sources of analytical variation are: a. Imprecision b. Trueness c. Within individual variation d. Between individual
a, b
19. In which condition(s) occur(s) LDH flip, in addition to myocardial infarction? a. Hemolytic anemia b. Pernicious anemia c. ITP d. Liver failure
a, b
19. What kind of laboratory methods are used in the screening and/or diagnosis of platelet function disorders? a. Bleeding time b. Platelet aggregometry c. Prothrombin time d. Fibrin monomer test
a, b
195. Cause(s) of ECF to ICF K+ shift: a. insulin infusion at high glucose level b. alkalosis c. alcoholism d. prolonged vomiting
a, b
2) Low urine osmolality is obtained in the water deprivation test - Cranial diabetes insipidus - Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus - Primary polydipsia - None
a, b
2. Cause of severe inherited hyperhomocysteinaemia? a. Homozygous cystathionin synthase deficiency b. Homozygous MTHFR deficiency c. Folic acid deficiency d. Vitamin B2 deficiency
a, b
20) The most important advantages of POCT are - short turnaround time - cheap reagents - accuracy - no advantages
a, b
22. Which test are used in evaluation of iron hemostasis a. Serum ferritin concentration b. Transferrin saturation c. Determination of the maintenance of RBCs d. Crychemolysis test
a, b
224. Which lipoprotein fraction causes the creamy supernatant on the surface of serum during the visual inspection of serum? a. Chylomicron b. VLDL c. LDL d. HDL
a, b
23) In cirrhosis - Conjugated bilirubin is elevated in the serum - Bilirubin can be detected in the urine - Bilirubin cannot be detected in the urine - Serum albumin concentration is elevated
a, b
250. In diabetic ketoacidosis the cause of hyperkalaemia can be a. Acidosis b. Insulin deficiency c. Hypocalcemia d. Hypertriglyceridemia
a, b
258. The followings are true for insulin a. Consists of 2 polypeptide chains b. Contains 3 disulfide bridges c. Elevates K value d. Elevates creatinine value
a, b
29. The followings are NOT characteristics for CRP a. Reacts with the F-polysaccharide of Streptococcus pneumoniae b. Synthesized in the kidneys c. Can initiate opsonisaton of bacteria d. once complexed activation the classical complement pathway
a, b
303. Cause(s) of ECFICF K+ shift: a. Insulin infusion at high glucose level b. Alkalosis c. Alcoholism d. Prolonged vomiting
a, b
31. Which test(s) are informative on the glomerular filtration rate? (lecture: laboratory diagnosis of renal disorders) a. Serum creatinine with eGFR b. Serum cystatin C c. Ammonium chloride loading test d. Urine specific gravity
a, b
31. which statement(s) is (are) true: a. acidosis elevates serum ionized calcium level b. alkalosis decreases serum ionized calcium level c. acidosis decreases serum ionized calcium level d. alkalosis increases serum iodized calcium
a, b
310. What is (are) the characteristic for antiphospholipid syndrome? A. Spontaneous abortion B. The presence of lupus anticoagulant C. Impaired platelet procoagulant activity D. Shortened clotting time in phospholipids dependent tests
a, b
33. The plasma urea concentration is decreased in the following case(s): (lecture: laboratory diagnosis of renal disorders) a. Severe liver disease b. Low protein intake c. Gastrointestinal bleeding d. Dehydration
a, b
34) Autoantibodies used in the diagnosis of celiac disease - Anti-endomysium antibodies - Anti-transglutaminase antibodies - Anti-thrombocytic antibodies - Anti-extracted nuclear antigen antibodies
a, b
38. According to the Gompertzius pattern the doubling time of the tumor cells is short : a. During the 1-10 doubling b. During the 10-20 doubling c. During the 30-33 doubling d. During the 33-40 doubling
a, b
41. Low urine osmolality is obtained in the water deprivation test a. Cranial diabetes insipidus b. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus c. Primary polydipsia d. None
a, b
41. Which approaches can be used for controlling the analytical performance of a laboratory? (Practical pg 84) a. Using internal quality control samples b. Participating in external quality control schemes c. Regular assessment of turnaround time (TAT) d. Evaluation the satisfactory of doctors requiring laboratory tests using questionnaires
a, b
43) Which statement is true for thyroid hormones ? - They are required for normal growth - They increase heart rate and contraction - They decrease heart rate - They increase the uptake of sodium
a, b
5. The following statement(s) is(are) true for imprecision a. It is measured by repeated analysis (n=15-20 samples) within optimal and routine conditions b. Expressed as CV(%)=SD*100/mean c. Expressed as CV(%)=mean*100SD d. It is measured as a deviation from the true value
a, b
52. which is a vasodilator a.NO b. PGI2 c. TAX2 d. leukterins
a, b
6. If reference values show normal distribution reference limits can be calculated: a. Mean ±2SD b. By cutting 2.5% of the values (events) from the upper and lower take of the distribution curve c. By logarithm transformation of the data d. Setting positive
a, b
63) Serum amylase is elevated in the following conditions - acute pancreatitis - salivary gland inflammation - stroke - MI
a, b
68) Alkaline phosphatase might be elevated in - pregnancy - childhood - diabetic ketoacidosis - menstruation
a, b
77. Hyperalbuminaemia can be caused by a. Dehydration b. Venous stasis during blood collection c. ↑ albumin synthesis d. Starving
a, b
78) In which diseases does familial pheochromocytoma occur ? - Von Hippel Lindau diseases - Recklinghausen syndrome - Neuroblastoma - Melanoma
a, b
8. What is (Are) included in the clinical/laboratory criteria of antiphospholipid syndrome? a. Spontaneous abortions b. The presence of lupus anticoagulant c. Presence of cutaneous bleeding d. Impaired platelet aggregation
a, b
89. Which definition is true in PKU. a. Inheritance : autosomal recessive b. Diagnosis is based on determination of plasma phenylalanine and tyrosine concentration c. The disorder had good prognosis even is the diagnosis was established in young adulthood d. The symptoms of disorder are mild, adequate drug treatment is available
a, b
93) Useful in diagnostics of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome - gastrin -secretin - IGF-1 - pepsin
a, b
95. which of the following(s) is(are) included in the clinical criteria of antiphospholipid syndrome? A, arterial or venous thrombosis in one or more vessels B, multiple spontaneous abortions in the clinical history without any other obvious underlying disease C, unexplained postoperative bleeding in the clinical history D, coumarin induced necrosis in the clinical history
a, b
99. plasma total protein concentration may increase a. In case of dehydration of patient b. In case of stasis during venipunture c. In case of starvation d. In case of hepatic failure
a, b
Autoantibodies used in the diagnosis of celiac disease - anti-endomysium autoantibodies - anti-transglutaminase autoantibodies - anti-thrombocyte autoantibodies - anti-extracted nuclear antigens autoantibodies
a, b
Enzymes taking part in catecholamine inactivation -catecholamine-O-methyl transferase ( COMT) - monoamine oxidase - UDP-glucuronosyl transferase - 11beta-hydroxylase
a, b
Glanzmann thrombasthernia: a. platelet receptor defect b. platelet aggregation defect c. defect of platelet secretion d. defect of platelet procoagulant activity
a, b
Hormones of posterior pituitary - oxytocin - vasopressin - prolactin - dopamine
a, b
Low urine osmolality is obtained in the water deprivation test - cranial diabetes insipidus - nephrogenic diabetes insipidus - primary polydypsia - none
a, b
Maximal peak of gastric acid secretion -decreased in achlorohydria - enhanced in chronic duodenal ulcer - decreased in chronic duodenal ulcer - enhanced in chronic benign gastric ulcer
a, b
The C13-urea breath test - is suitable for detection of Helicobacter pylori infection - the ratio of exhaled 13 CO2/12 CO2 is determined by mass spectrometer - utilizes C14-labeled radioactive urea - not used for monitoring of Helicobacter eradication therapy
a, b
The following platelet counts may resuly in sever bleeding : a. 3 G/L b. 9 G/L c. 100 G/L d. none
a, b
Tumor-associated hypercalcemias are caused by - bone metastases - parathyroid hormone-related peptide release - increased PTH release - vitamin D overproduction
a, b
What are metabolites of adrenaline - metanephrine - VMA - HVA - normetanephrine
a, b
What cause RBC membrane defect? A. Hereditary spherocytosis B. Hereditary elliptocytosis C. Iron deficiency D. B12 deficiency
a, b
What is the characteristic for antiphospholipid syndrome? a. Spontaneous abortion b. The presence of lupus anticoagulant c. Impaired platelet procoagulant activity d. Shortened clotting time in phospholipid-dependent clotting tests
a, b
Which enzyme level remains elevated 5 days after the onset of acute pancreatitis ? - serum lipase - urine amylase - urine lipase - serum amylase
a, b
Which statement is true for thyroid hormones ? - they are required for normal growth - they increase heart rate and contraction - they increase the uptake of sodium - they decrease heart rate
a, b
which of the following(s) is(are) included in the clinical criteria of antiphospholipid syndrome? a. arterial or venous thrombosis in one or more vessels b. multiple spontaneous abortions in the clinical history without any other obvious under-laying diseases c. unexplained postoperative bleedings in the clinical history d. coumarin induced necrosis in the clinical history
a, b (need to check c and d)
101. which molecules released from destroyed cells enter the systemic circulation mm via the slow lymphatic drainage. a. Ions b. Metabolites c. Macromolecules d. None of them
a, b, c
107) Which of the following drugs cause hemolysis - Penicillin - Methyldopa - Phenacetin - None
a, b, c
114. What are the factors known to alter the concentration of free (non-esterified) intracellular cholesterol? a. activity of the hydroxy-methyl-glutaryl-CoA (HMG-CoA) reductase enzyme b. expression of LDL-receptors on the cell surface c. activity of the acyl-CoA-cholesterol-acyl-transferase (ACAT) enzyme d. the apo B-48 content of the LDL molecule
a, b, c
121. Which of the following hormones are insulin antagonists? a. growth hormone (STH) b. epinephrine c. glucagon d. vasopressin (ADH)
a, b, c
124) Which are the characteristic feature of POCT measurement ? - POCT instrument is cheaper than clinical chemistry analyzers - The cost of one measurement is low - Analysis can be performed from low specimen volume - Analysis must be carried out by a medical doctor
a, b, c
124. Late complication(s) of diabetes mellitus: a. nephropathy (diffuse nodular glomerulosclerosis) b. premature coronary artery disease c. retinopathy d. anorexia
a, b, c
128. mutation of the HNPCC1 gene is predisposition factor CRC carcinomas a. Colorectal b. Endometrial c. Ovarian d. Bladder
a, b, c
133) Main components of standard isocratic HPLC system - analytical column - pump -detector -electrolyte container
a, b, c
137. what is the proper frequency of tumor marker determinations a. Before and 2-10 days after the beginning of the therapy b. In intervals of 3 months during the 1st and 2nd year after beginning of the therapy c. In intervals of 6 months during the 3rd, 4th and 5th year after beginning of the therapy d. 2 months after the first occurence of a significant increase of the corresponding tumor marker
a, b, c
14) Serum calcium is elevated in - Primary hyperparathyroidism - Ectopic PTH secretion - Tertiary hyperparathyroidism - Secondary hyperparathyroidism
a, b, c
141) Wilson disease - neuropsychiatric symptoms in young adults - serum copper accumulation in iris of eye , liver etc. - AR inheritance - defect in serum iron absorption
a, b, c
16) Which of the following are detected in cholestasis ? - Lipoprotein X - Increased serum copper concentration - Increased serum bile acid concentration -Decreased serum bile acid concentration
a, b, c
165. Which factor cause hypoglycemia? a. Insulinoma b. Nesidioblastosis c. ACTH deficiency d. Food intake
a, b, c
203. Late complication(s) of diabetes mellitus a. nephropathy (diffuse nodular glomerulosclerosis) b. premature coronary artery disease c. retinopathy d. anorexia
a, b, c
27. Indication of CSF sampling: a. Meningeal infection b. Subarachnoidal hemorrhage c. CNS malignancy d. Hemorrhagic diathesis
a, b, c
317. Which of the following might causes acute renal failure? A. Burns B. Trauma C. Prostate tumor D. Anticoagulant treatment
a, b, c
332. Which of the following might causes acute renal failure? a. Burns b. Trauma c. Prostate tumor d. Anticoagulant treatment
a, b, c
337. Which of the following hormone/s is/are insulin antagonists? a. Growth hormone (STH) b. epinephrine c. glucagon d. vasopressin
a, b, c
40. The possible cause(s) of renal failure associated with cancer: a. Obstruction of the urinary tract (e.g. by prostatic cancer) b. Direct infiltration of the kidneys (e.g. by lymphoma) c. Benece-Jones proteinuria (in myeloma) d. None of them
a, b, c
48. Causes of hyperalbuminaemia: a. Dehydration b. Venous stasis during bloodcollection c. Overinfusion of albumin d. inflammation
a, b, c
5) What kind of autoantibodies can be detected in thyroid diseases ? - Autoantibody against thyroid peroxidase - Autoantibody against thyroglobulin - Thyroid stimulating immunoglobulin - None
a, b, c
5. Which test(s) can be used in the diagnosis of acute DIC? a. Thrombin time b. Fibrin monomer test c. D- dimer test d. Protein S determination
a, b, c
55. which are the possible causes of the paraneoplastic hypoproliferative anemia a. Iron deficiency b. Megaloblastic anemia c. Secondary bone marrow damage due to cancer treatment d. Autoimmune reaction caused by antibodies against erythrocytes
a, b, c
69. Which Test(s) is (are) suitable for detecting intravascular activation of clotting cascade? a. Fibrinopeptide A+B b. Prothrombin 1+2 fragments c. Thrombin - antithrombin complex d. Fibrinogen
a, b, c
77. The following statements is (are) valid for lipoproteins (a): a. Independent risk factor of atherosclerosis. b. Partial homology with plasminogen c. It contains apo B100 and apoprotein's d. It has no influence of the atherosclerotic risks
a, b, c
79. Procalcitonin is an effective tool in the differential diagnosis of the following clinical situations: a. Does the patient have a viral or bacterial meningitis b. Etiology of fever of unknown origin c. Does the patient have chronic inflammation or acute bacterial infection d. Does the patient have chronic or acute myeloid leukaemia
a, b, c
92)Causes of hypocalcemia can be - Hypoparathyroidism - Pseudohypoparathyroidism - Secondary hyperparathyroidism - vitamin D excess
a, b, c
94)Diagnostic test for malabsorption - Iron - Albumin - Prothrombin time -Sodium
a, b, c
Adrenal steroid hormones - aldosterone - cortisol -androgens -ACTH
a, b, c
Indications of CSF sampling: a. Meningeal infection b. Subarachnoidal hemorrhage c. CNS malignancy d. Hemorrhagic diabetes
a, b, c
Laboratory tests in Addison disease - determination of plasma cortisol - serum Na and K levels - ACTH stimulation test -dexamethasone suppression test
a, b, c
Rules of performing POCT - results must be documented - quality control - results must be compared with those measured in a central lab - education is not important in POCT
a, b, c
Test for diagnosis of acute DIC: a. TT b. Fibrin monomer test c. D-dimer test d. Protein-S determination
a, b, c
Which factors can cause fasting hypoglycemia: a. Insulinoma b. Nesdioblastosis c. ACTH deficiency d. Food intake
a, b, c
Which of the following hormones are insulin antagonists: a. Growth hormone (S or 5TH) b. Epinephrine c. Glucagon d. Vasopressin (ADH)
a, b, c
Which test is used in the diagnosis of malabsorption ? - prothrombin time - serum albumin -serum iron - serum Na
a, b, c
what kind of inclusions can be found in the mature red blood cell? a. basophil stippling b. Howell-Jolly bodies c. Malaria parasites d. nucleus
a, b, c
105. Characteristic(s) of ketoacidosis: a. hypovolemia due to osmotic diuresis and hyperventilation b. acidosis mostly due to the production of ketone bodies c. increased protein synthesis due to ketonemia d. prerenal uremia due to hypovolemia
a, b, d
123. Following factor(s) has (have) a role in the pathogenesis of type I diabetes: a. genetic susceptibility b. environmental factors (e.g. viruses) c. insulin resistance d. autoimmune processes
a, b, d
136) Choose true statements - the yellow color of CSF sample refers to former hemorrhage - red CSF color might indicate subarachnoid bleeding or artificial blood contamination during sampling procedure - clear CSF excludes meningitis - viral meningitis has elevated lymphocyte counts and normal CSF glucose concentration
a, b, d
16. What kind of laboratory results may suggest the presence of von Willebrand disease from the followings? a. Prolonged PFA-100 closure time b. Abnormal platelet aggregation in the presence of ristocetin c. Prolonged prothrombin time d. Decreased factor VIII level
a, b, d
171. Parts of the ion selective electrodes: a. Internal electrode b. Ion Selective membrane c. Photodetector d. Internal electrolyte
a, b, d
183. During the measurements of serum urea by an indirect enzymatic method ammonia/ammonium ions is formed in the reaction of urease on urea. The amount if ammonia/ ammonium ion produced can be measured by the following methods or equipment: a. Berthelot's colour reaction b. Ion selective electrode c. Color reaction with diacetyl monoxin d. Conductorietic method
a, b, d
193. Which statements are true in predicting late complications of diabetes? a. microabluminurea is an early sign of diabetic nephropathy b. albumin/ creatinine ratio is a reliable test in the screening of diabetic nephropathy c. insulin level correlates with neuropathy d. vascular complications can be predicted by measuring lipid parameters: LDL-C, HDL-C, cholesterol, TAG
a, b, d
197. Characteristic features of chylomicron: a. it was the lowest density among the lipoprotein b. has the highest size among lipoprotein c. on lipoprotein electrophoresis it can be found in pre- beta bond d. it is synthesized by enterocytes of intestine
a, b, d
199. Following factor(s) has (have) a role in the pathogenesis of type 1 diabetes: a. genetic susceptibility b. enviromental factors (e.g. viruses) c. insulin resistance d. autoimmune processes
a, b, d
243. Which laboratory parameter(s) is (are) necessary for the calculation of the serum LDL-cholesterol concentration using the Friedewald formula a. Serum total cholesterol concentration b. Serum HDL cholesterol concentration c. Serum VLDL cholesterol concentration d. Serum triglyceride concentration
a, b, d
26. What can cause predominant water depletion in the presence of normal homeostatic mechanisms? a. Sweating b. Diarrhea c. Oxytocin infusion in 5% glucose of dextrose- saline d. Excessive burns
a, b, d
276. What can cause predominant water depletion in the presence of normal homeostatic mechanism? a. Sweating b. Diarrhea c. Oxytocin infusion in 5% glucose or dextrose-saline d. Excessive burns
a, b, d
284. what kind of hormone(s) is (are) produced by the endocrine pancreas? a. Somatostatin b. Glucagon c. Growth hormone (STH) d. Insulin
a, b, d
293. Characteristic finding(s) in ketoacidosis: a. Ketonaemia b. Insulin deficiency c. Hypoglycaemia d. Increased glucagon level
a, b, d
364.Acidosis can be caused by: p.76 in file. a) Renal failure b) Lung disorder c) Vomiting d) Diarrhea
a, b, d
38. Characteristic feature(s) of acute nephritic syndrome (robbins pg 550) a. Salt and water retention b. Rapid onset of hematuria c. GFR is normal d. It follows a beta- hemolytic streptococcus infection
a, b, d
50. which statement is true for CRP a. Synthesised in the liver b. An excellent marker of inflammatory diease c. In inflammation its elevation follows the elavation of erythrocytes sedimentation rate (ESR) d. It's level is raised in myocardial infarction
a, b, d
55) Laboratory tests in Addison disease - Synacthen test (ACTH test) - determination of plasma cortisol - dexamethasone suppression test - serum Na, K determination
a, b, d
80) Adrenal steroid hormones are - aldosterone -cortisol - ACTH - androgens
a, b, d
84. inflammatory mediators synthesized in cells a. NO b. Prostaglandins c. Anaphylaxis d. Cytokines
a, b, d
88) The following can cause Addison disease - tuberculosis - AIDS - ACTH treatment - autoimmune adrenalitis
a, b, d
D 47) Hypocalcemia can be detected in - hypoparathyroidism - pseudohypoparathyroidism - vitamin D excess - secondary hyperparathyroidism
a, b, d
Metabolic effects of Growth Hormone/ - Increases lipolysis - Increases protein synthesis - Increases tissue glucose uptake - Increases hepatic glucose production
a, b, d
Trigger factor(s) in acute Porphyrias: a. Drugs(barbiturates) b. Alcohol c. Vitamin K deficiency d. Starvation
a, b, d
105. laboratory sign(s) of chronic renal failure: A, elevated serum urea B, normal serum urea C, elevated serum creatinine D, normal serum creatinine
a, c
107. characteristic feature(s) of Fanconi syndrome A, generalized tubular defect b. impaired glomerular filtration c, glucosuria and aminoaciduria d, isolated damage of distal tubules
a, c
113. which statements is / are true a. Purity of the isolated DNA : A260nm/A280nm b. Purity of the isolated DNA : A280nm/A260nm c. Ratio < 1,7 indicates protein contamination d. Ratio > 1,7 indicates protein contamination
a, c
117. Enzymes in the salvage pathway of the purine synthesis are: a. hypoxantine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase b. xanthine oxidase c. adenine phosphoribosyl transferase d. purine 5' nucleotidase
a, c
118. compensatory mechanisms in acid-base disorders are characterized by: A, fast compensation (in a few minutes) is characteristic for the lung and the buffer system B, slow (in a few days) compensation is characteristic for the lung C, slow (in a few days) compensation is characteristic for the kidneys D, fast (in a few minutes) compensation is characteristic for the kidneys
a, c
120. Characteristic insulin effect(s): a. inhibition of lipolysis b. enhancement of lipolysis c. inhibition of gluconeogenesis d. enhancement of gluconeogenesis
a, c
120. the following tumor markers are oncofetal antigens a) SCC b) CA-19-9 c) TPA d) NSE
a, c
121) Serum bile acid concentration 2 hours after a meal is - significantly elevated in cholestasis - significantly decreased in cholestasis - decreased in ileum resection or inflammation - increased in ileum resection or inflammation
a, c
126) Which test is useful in diagnosis of malabsorption - prothrombin time - thrombin time - serum iron - serum Na
a, c
135. the tumor markers suggested for use in 1° gastric(stomach) cancers a. CA 19-9 b. CA 15-3 c. CEA d. CA 72-1
a, c
136. Following factor(s) has (have) a role in the pathogenesis of type 2 diabetes: a. impaired insulin secretion in later stage b. environmental factors (e.g. viruses) c. insulin resistance with compensatory hyperinsulinemia d. autoimmune processes
a, c
138) Question about CSF analysis -S-100 is a protein , whose level is elevated in hypoxia , trauma or severe BBB injury due to severe malignant disease -wrong statement about CK-MB - Using isoelectric focusing , oligoclonal bands detected in gamma-globulin region are indicative of intrathecal IgG synthesis (e.g. multiple sclerosis , Guillain-Barre) - forgot exactly , but was a wrong statement
a, c
151. soluble transferrin receptor determination is a valuable parameter in the differential diagnosis of iron deficiency anemia and anemia of chronic disease, because a. It is a negative acute phase reactant b. Acute phase response does not affect its concentration c. Its concentration is increased in iron deficiency d. Its concentration is decreased in iron deficiency
a, c
158. Characteristic features of Reye's syndrome a. Marked elevation in ALT and AST b. Incidence is high in elderly women c. Hyperammonemia d. Hypocalcaemia
a, c
165. in case of iron deficiency a. Ferritin mRNA translation is slow b. Ferritin mRNA translation is fast c. Transferrin receptor mRNA stabilty increases d. Transferrin receptor mRNA stability decreases
a, c
174. In prerenal acute renal failure: a. aldosteron level is increased b. renin level is decreased c. small volume of concentrated urine is excreted d. the patient has polyuria
a, c
176. The tumor markers suggested for use in primary gastric (stomach) cancer: a. CA 72-4 b. CA 15-3 c. CEA d. CA 125
a, c
185. which factor(s) induce(s) insulin secretion? a. high plasma potassium concentration b. fasting c. elevated blood glucose level d. epinephrine
a, c
185. which is glycogen storage disease? a. Von Gierke disease b. Gaucher disease c. Pompe disease d. Tay-Sachs disease.
a, c
188. characteristic(s) of hyp?????? Non-ketotic hyperglycemia? a. symptom of type 2 diabetes b. symptom of type 1 diabetes c. extreme dehydration, high osmolality d. caused by complete insulin deficiency
a, c
196. What factor(s) can cause fasting hypoglycaemia? a. Insulinoma b. food intake c. ACTH deficiency d. Septicemia
a, c
208. Which statement(s) is (are) true? a. Porphyrias are caused by enzyme defects in heme biosynthesis b. Porphyrias are caused by enzyme defects in globin chain biosynthesis c. Porphyrinogens are oxidized to porphyrins in the urine and stool d. Porphyrinogens are reduced to porphyrins in the urine and stool
a, c
21) Drugs interfering with catecholamine measurement using HPLC - alpha-methyldopa - benzodiazepine - levodopa - lithium - isoproterenol
a, c
212. Bleeding time is prolonged in the following condition(s) : a. Thrornbocytopenia b. haemophilia A c. von Willebrand disease d. APC resistance
a, c
216. The measured ion electric potential depends on the following parameters a. concentration of the measured ion b. the intensity of the emitted light c. temperature d. the absorbance of the macrocyclic chromophore
a, c
22)The C13-urea breath test - Is suitable for the detection of Helicobacter pylori infection - Not used for monitoring of Helicobacter eradication therapy - The ratio of exhaled 13CO2/12CO2 is determined by a mass spectrometer - Utilizes C14-labeled radioactive urea
a, c
23. Laboratory findings in predominant excess of water: a. Haemodilution b. Haemoconcentration c. Hyponatraemia when overhydration is rapid and no time for water movement between extra- and intracellular compartment d. Hypernatraemia
a, c
23. The cellular elements of urine are listed in a row according to their increasing average size. Which answer show the correct order? a. Erythrocyte<leukocyte<squamous epithelial cell<cast b. Erythrocyte<squamous epithelial cell<leukocyte<cast c. Leukocyte<urothelium<squamous epithelial cell<cast d. Leukocyte<urothelium<cast<squamous epithelial cell
a, c
249. Characteristic for diabetic ketoacidosis a. Hyperkalemia b. Hypokalemia c. Whole body potassium depletion d. Whole body potassium excess
a, c
26)Alcoholic liver disease - Alcoholic hepatitis - Gilbert syndrome - Alcoholic cirrhosis - Primary biliary cirrhosis
a, c
278. Laboratory signs of hemoconcentration: a. Elevated hemoglobin level b. Decreased hematocrit c. Elevated serum total protein concentration d. Decreased serum albumin level
a, c
287. Which factor(s) induce(s) insulin secretion? a. high plasma potassium concentration b. fasting c. high plasma glucose concentration d. adrenaline
a, c
290. When can you establish the diagnosis of diabetes mellitus if the patient has got clinical symptoms? a. Fasting plasma glucose concentration > 7.0 mmol/L b. Fasting plasma glucose concentration > 7.8 mmol/L c. Glucose concentration 2 hours after oral glucose > 11.1 mmol/L d. Glucose concentration 2 hours after oral glucose > 7.8 mmol/L
a, c
294. Characteristic finding(s) In ketoacidosis: a. Hyperkalaemia b. Hypokalaemia c. Total body potassium depletion d. Totally body potassium excess
a, c
3. What is characteristic for a vulnerable atherosclerotic plaque? a. Thin fibrous cap b. Thick fibrous cap c. High ratio of inflammatory cells to vascular smooth muscle cells d. High ratio of vascular smooth muscle cells to inflammatory cells
a, c
305. The statement under ae true for antinuclear antibodies (ANA): a. Collective term for all antibodies that target any of the antigens present in the nucleus b. IgA class antibodies have the highest diagnostic value c. Antinuclear antibodies are characteristic for systemic autoimmune diseases d. The gold standard analytical method is indirect immunofluorescence assay performed on rat liver/kidney/stomach tissue sections.
a, c
318. characteristic insulin effect/s: a. Inhibition of lipolysis b. Enhancement of lipolysis c. Inhibition of gluconeogenesis d. Enhancement of gluconeogenesis
a, c
325. Compensatory mechanism in acid base disorders are characterized by: A. Fast compensation (in few minute) is characteristic for lung and buffer system B. Slow (in few days) compensation is characteristic for the lung C. Slow (in few days) compensation is characteristic for the kidney D. Fast compensation (in few minute) is characteristic for the kidney
a, c
327. Laboratory findings in predominant excess of water: a. Haemodilution b. haemoconcentration c. hyponatraeaeaeaemia d. hypernatraeaeaeamia
a, c
331. Elevation of plasma K+ induces: a. increase aldosterone secretion b. decreased aldosterone secretion c. increased insulin secretion d. decreased insulin secretion
a, c
336. characteristic insulin effect/s: a. Inhibition of lipolysis b. Enhancement of lipolysis c. Inhibition of gluconeogenesis d. Enhancement of gluconeogenesis
a, c
337. Characteristics of insulin effect(s) a. enhances glycogen synthesis b. enhancement of lipolysis c. facilitates protein synthesis d. enhancement of gluconeogenesis
a, c
34. General vascular changes in acute inflammation a. Increased permeability of the vessel wall b. Decreased permeability of the vessel wall c. Vasodilation d. Prolonged Vasoconstriction
a, c
37. Which substances are involved in the leukocyte endothelial cell interaction? a. E-selectin b. K-selectin c. L-selectin d. Z-selectin
a, c
39. Which of the following biochemical markers are specific for bone formation? a. Bone-specific alkali phosphatase b. tartaric resistant acid phosphatase c. osteocalcin(GLA-bone proteins) d. C-terminal collagen telopeptide (CTs)
a, c
42) Which statement is true for thyroglobulin ? - Contains a large amount of tyrosine - Contains a large amount of hydroxyproline - Can be detected in the folliculi of the thyroid - Can be detected in the folliculi of the parathyroids
a, c
43. Elevation of plasma K+ induces: a. Increased aldosterone secretion b. Decreased aldosterone secretion c. Increased insulin secretion d. Decreased insulin secretion
a, c
52) Characteristics of neuroblastoma are - Increased VMA and/or HMA excretion in the urine - Occurs mostly in adults - NSE may be elevated and it is a negative prognostic factor - Highly decreased epinephrine in the urine in all cases - Highly increased epinephrine in the urine in all cases
a, c
57) The following negative feedback effects can be observed in the menstrual cycle - estradiol effect on FSH - estradiol effect on LH - effect of progesterone and estradiol on LH - none
a, c
58) Sarcoglycanes - composed of 4 different transmembrane glycoproteins - bind directly to dystrophin - mutations in all have been known to cause dystrophy -show high degree of homology with many known proteins
a, c
86. Possible causes of hypoalbuminaemia a. Increased loss of proteins via the kidneys (nephrosis) b. Stasis of blood collection c. Starvation d. Dehydration
a, c
96)Features of TTP - Hemolytic anemia is present - Activation of blood coagulation - Very high molecular weight von Willebrand factor multimers are present in the circulation - Aplastic anemia is present
a, c
FX deficiency will result in pathological a. prothrombin time b. thrombin time c. APTT d. bleeding time
a, c
Fat-soluble vitamins(s) is (are): a. Vitamin K b. Vitamin C c. Vitamin D d. Riboflavin
a, c
Methods for the determination of hematocrit. a. Calculation b. Measurement of enzyme activity c. Centrifugation d. Measurement of the decrease of the freezing point
a, c
Natural antibodies are: a. Belong to IgM class b. Belong to IgG class c. Are developed by first year of life d. Are developed in intrauterine life
a, c
Positive Acute phase proteins: a. C reactive protein b. Albumin c. Haptoglobin d. Transferrin
a, c
Serum bile acid concentration 2 hours after a meal - significantly elevated in cholestasis - significantly decreased in cholestasis - decreased in resection or inflammation of the ileum - increased in resection or inflammation of the ileum
a, c
The buker chamber: a. the large aquare borderd by 3 lines is 1 mm^2 b. the large square bordered by 3 lines is 1 cm^2 c. after the application of the coverslip the depth of the counting area is 0.1 mm d. after the application of the coverslip the depth of the counting area is 1 mm
a, c
The following marker(s) identify myeloid cells: a. MPO b. CD3 c. CD13 d. CD19
a, c
Which factor induces insulin secretion: a. Hyperkalemia b. Fasting c. Elevated blood glucose d. Epinephrine
a, c
Which of the following laboratory result can be considered as a normal, physiological change in elderly persons? a. Cholesterol is elevated b. Cholesterol is decreased c. Triglyceride is elevated d. Triglyceride is decreased
a, c
Which statement is true in chromatography ? - Retention time can be useful in the identification of the analytes in a given HPLC system - mobile phase is always a gas - the shape of stationary phase can be planar - chromatography is not used for separation of metanephrines
a, c
Which statement(s) is (are) true? a. Porphyrias are caused by enzyme defects in haem biosynthesis b. Porphyrias are caused by enzyme defects in globin chain synthesis c. Porphyrinogens are oxidized to porphyrins in the urine and stool d. Porphyrinogens are reduced to porphyrins in the urine and stool
a, c
Which statement(s) is (are) true? a. Purity of the isolate DNA: A260nm/A280nm b. Purity of the isolate DNA: A280nm/A260nm c. Ratio < 1.7 indicates protein contamination d. Ratio > 1.7 indicates protein contamination
a, c
102) Which of the following are true - High concentration of collagen cross-links in the urine indicated increased osteoclast activity - high concentration of collagen cross-links in the urine indicated increased osteoblast activity - extremely high AP activity can be detected in Paget disease - osteomalacia develops in case of low vitamin intake
a, c, d
104. which statement(s) is/are true a. Lysosomal lipid storage disorders, which are caused by the deficiency of a specific hydrolase b. The main clinical symptom of the Gaucher disease is the mental retardation, because of the abnormal sphingolipid is stored in the CNS c. The main clinical symptoms of Tay-Sachs disease is the mental retardation because the abnormal glycosphingolipid is stored in the CNS d. In Niemann-Pick disease the abnormal metabolie is stored in the CNS and in periferal tissues (hepar, spleen)
a, c, d
110) MLPA assay - is used in the laboratory diagnosis of BMD/DMD - can distinguish between frame shift or frame mutation - can be used for identification of exon duplication - can be used for the identification of exon deletion
a, c, d
122) Primary bile acids - are conjugated with glycine or taurine in the hepatocytes - are conjugated with glycine or taurine in the duodenum - bacteria in the gut convert them to secondary bile acids - cholic and chenodeoxycholic acids
a, c, d
138. characteristic feature of the ideal tumor marker a. Produced specifically by either malignant or premalignant tissue b. Long half life c. Rise and fall of the marker concentration follows progression and regression d. Produced in an organ specific manner
a, c, d
150. iron absorption is increased in case of a. Ferrous iron b. Alkalic pH - antacids, pancreatic enzymes c. Iron deficiency d. Acidic pH - HCl, ascorbic acid
a, c, d
163. inherited haemolytic anemias a. Sphaerocytosis b. Paraoxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria c. G-6-P-DH deficiency d. Beta thalasemia
a, c, d
172. Laboratory sign(s) of chronic renal failure: a. elevated serum urea and creatinine b. normal serum urea and creatinine c. hypocalcaemia d. hyperphosphataemia
a, c, d
27) Which are stable , non-radioactive isotopes used in non-invasive diagnostics ( breath test) - C13 - C14 - N15 - O18
a, c, d
28. Serum biomarker(s) are used to detect an acute phase reaction a. CRP b. haemoglobin c. PCT d. Cytokines
a, c, d
314. Laboratory sign(s) of chronic renal failure: a. elevated serum urea and creatinine b. normal serum urea and creatinine c. hypocalcaemia d. hyperphosphataemia
a, c, d
320. Characteristic features of nephrosis syndrome? A. Glomerular proteinuria B. Tubular proteinuria C. Decreased glomerular filtration rate D. Hypoalbuminemia
a, c, d
40. Cause(s) of nephrotic syndrome (lecture: pathobiochemistry of renal function I.II) a. SLE b. Renal tubular acidosis type 2 c. Diabetic nephropathy d. "minimal change" glomerulonephritis
a, c, d
53. Methods for detection of CK-MB enzymes is/are: a. Electrophoresis densitometry b. HLPC c. Immuno-inhibition assay d. immunochemical assay
a, c, d
56. What conditions may increase the risk of venous thrombosis from the following? a. Malignancies b. Aspirin treatment in certain situation c. Heparin treatment in certain situation d. Antiphspholipid syndrome
a, c, d
74. Bleeding time can be prolonged in the following condition(s) a. Thrombocytopenia b. Haemophilia A c. Von Willebrand disease d. Aspirin treatment
a, c, d
78. Positive acute phase reaction a. C-reactive protein b. Transferrin c. Fibrinogen d. Ceruloplasmin
a, c, d
82. What is (are) the test(s) used for diagnosis of acute DIC? a, Fibrin monomer test b, Protein C determination c, Thrombin time d, Prothrombin time
a, c, d
87)Characteristic findings in Cushing syndrome - increased urine cortisol - normal plasma ACTH concentration - loss of diurnal variation of cortisol secretion - increased plasma cortisol level
a, c, d
88. the cause/s of hyperphenylalanineaemia can be a. Phenylalanine hydroxylase deficiency b. Phenylpyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency c. Dihydropteridine reductase deficiency d. Dihydrofolate reductase deficiency
a, c, d
Which cells might be present in a healthy individual's peripheral blood? a. Basophil granulocyte b. Myeloblast c. Monocyte d. Red blood cell
a, c, d
Which methods are used to detect autoantibodies in serum samples ? - indirect immunofluorescence assay - hemolytic assay - immunoblot - ELISA
a, c, d
inherited hemolytic anemia(s): a. sphaerocytosis b. paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria c. glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency d. beta-thalassemia
a, c, d
what of the following(s) is(are) characteristic for heparin induced thrombocytopenia? a. it usually develops 5-14 days after the first dose of heparin b. the disease is associated most frequently with uncontrolled bleeding. c. platelet count decrease at least by 50% d. laboratory diagnosis is based on the result of particulated gel immunoassay
a, c, d
90. Not valid in the case of cystinuria a. One of the most rare type of aminoacidurias b. The cause of disorder is the defect in the renal transport system of cysteine, lysine, ornitine and arginine c. The elavation of plasma level of cysteine results in serious mental retardation d. The prevalence of cystinuria is higher than the prevalence of classical form of PKU. e. The elavation of plasma level of cysteine is caused by liver disease f. The incidence of cystinuria is higher then the incidence of classical form of PKU
a, c, e
108. biochemical test(s) of the glomerular functions: A, determination of serum creatinine concentration with eGFR B, ammonium chloride loading test C, HPLC measurement of quantitate individual aminoacids in urine D, creatinine clearance determination
a, d
109) Which statements are true ? - total T3 and T4 determinations are not valuable tests in the evaluation of thyroid function - total T3 and T4 determinations are valuable tests in evaluation of thyroid function - TBG concentration always changes in parallel with thyroid function -TBG concentration might change independently of thyroid function
a, d
117. which endocrine gland(s) is/are affected in multiple endocrin neoplasia type IIA (MEN IIA) a. Thyreoid (medullay cancer) b. Pancreatic islets c. Adrenal cortex d. Adrenal medulla
a, d
120) Which of the following are true ? -Hepatic excretion of bilirubin is impaired in Dubin-Johnson syndrome - Hepatic uptake of bilirubin is impaired in Dubin-Johnson syndrome - Urinary UBG is increased in Dubin-Johnson syndrome - No urinary UBG is detected in Dubin-Johnson syndrome
a, d
127) What is the main effect of gastrin ? - stimulation of gastric HCl secretion - inhibition of gastric HCl secretion - stimulation of bicarbonate secretion - stimulation of pancreatic enzyme secretion
a, d
129. relative risk of cancers in relatives of cancer probands is higher than 10% for a. Ovarian cancer b. Male breast cancer c. Lung cancer d. Female breast cancer
a, d
136. indicate the occupational carcinogens to humans a. Asbestos b. Adriarnycin c. Propylene oxide d. Arsenic and arsenic compounds
a, d
137) Which are true ? - before CSF sampling of 2-4 hours peripheral blood sample needs to be obtained for serum as well - in viral meningitis increase in neutrophil count is typical - CSF glucose level is often normal in bacterial meningitis - in case of traumatic sampling, bloody CSF sample becomes clear after centrifugation
a, d
142) Cirrhosis - bilirubin in urine - no bilirubin in urine - elevated serum albumin - correct statement about impaired liver synthetic function ( cannot remember), maybe jaundice , something like that
a, d
147. haemolytic anemia is characterised by a. Decreased serum free haptoglobin b. Increased serum haptoglobin c. Increased serum conjugated bilirubin d. Increased serum unconjugated bilirubin
a, d
163. Elevation of ck: a. Skeletal muscle injury b. Acute hepatitis c. Chronic renal failure d. Hypothermia
a, d
17. The following tumor markers are enzymes a. NSE b. AFP c. CEA d. PSA
a, d
173. The following enzymes are released from necrotic cells/tissues and have no known function in the blood: a. GOT b. Coagulation factor II c. Complement factor C3 d. LDH
a, d
188. In primary aldosteronism a. plasma K+ is decreased b. plasma bicarbonate is decreased c. plasma K+ is increased d. plasma bicarbonate is increased
a, d
192. Potassium shifts from the intracellular fluid (ICF) to the extracellular fluid (ECF) in the following cases: a. Acidosis b. Alkalosis c. rise in the plasma insulin concentration d. inefficiency of Na/K pump
a, d
195. which is (are) true measurement of HDL-cholesterol? a. in the routine clinical laboratory, it is measured by homogenous direct enzymatic assay b. HDL- cholesterol is not measured in most laboratories but rather calculate using the Fredericksen formula c. the ultra-centrifugation method for demonstration of HDL-cholesterol is widely available, frequently used, easy method d. HDL-c can be determined by electrophoresis
a, d
2. The following changes may occur in blood specimens during storage a. K is released from RBC b. The blood absorbs CO2 from the air and the pH decreases c. In the RBCs glucose is produced, that leaks out through the membrane and increases plasma glucose level d. Labile enzymes loose activity
a, d
206. which of the following conditions cause elevation of total CK activity: a. skeletal muscle injury b. acute hepatitis c. chronic renal failure d. hypothermia
a, d
209. True for acute intermittent porphyria: a. photosensitivity is not among the symptoms of the disease b. main symptom is photosensitivity c. during attacks uroporphyrinogen I and coproporphyrinogen I are excreted in the urine and stool d. during attacks ALA and PBG are excreted in the urine and stool
a, d
219. in the U*V/P formula used for calculation of creatinine clearance (ml/min) the letters means: a. U is the concentration of creatinine in urine b. U is the amount of creatinine excreted during 24 hours c. P is the concentration of creatinine in urine d. V is the volume excreted during 1 minute
a, d
231. Which of the following conditions cause the elevation of total CK activity? a. Skeletal muscle injury b. Acute hepatitis c. Hemolysis d. Hypothermia
a, d
256. True for porphyria cutanea tarda: a. 15-20% of cases is inherited b. less common form of cutaneous porphyrias c. no photosensitivity is detected d. erythema, vesicles, later scarring and pigmentation are the signs of photosensitivity in this disease
a, d
264. A hemophilic male and a non-carrier, normal female may have the following offsprings: a. Normal male b. Normal female c. Hemophilic male d. Carrier female
a, d
280. The creatine concentration measured by the Jaffe reaction is: a. Higher than the real concentration in the presence of ketone bodies b. Lower than the real concentration in the presence of ketone bodies c. Higher than the real concentration in the presence of bilirubin d. Lower than the real concentration in the presence of bilirubin
a, d
291. Possible causes of pseudohyperkalaemia: a. In vitro heamolysis b. Acute or chronic renal failure c. Hypoaldosteronism d. Prolonged venous stasis
a, d
3. What are the screening tests of platelet system from the following list? a. Bleeding time b. Activated partial thromboplastin time c. Thrombin time d. PFA-100 closure time
a, d
300. Characteristic feature(s) of the glomerular proteinuria: a. Caused by the increased glomerular permeability b. Caused by the decreased reabsorption of freely filtrated low molecular weight proteins c. Only low molecular weight (Mr) proteins can be detected in urine d. High molecular weight (Mr) proteins are also present in urine
a, d
302. What condition(s) cause(s) pseudohyperkalemia? a. Extreme thrombocytosis b. Increased potassium uptake c. Acidosis d. Transfusion of erythrocytes stored over the date of expiry
a, d
32. Which molecules are prostaglandin? a. PGI2 b. LTB2 c. 5-HETE d. TXA2
a, d
323. Characteristic features of glomerular proteinuria A. Is caused by increased glomerular permeability B. Is caused by decreased reabsorption of freely filtrated low molecular weight proteins C. Only low molecular weight (MW<50KDa) proteins can be detected in the urine D. Higher molecular weight (MW>50KDa) proteins are also present in the urine
a, d
330. Potassium shift from the intracellular fluid (ICF) to the extracellular fluid (ECF) occurs in the following cases: a. Acidosis b. Alkalosis c. Rise in the plasma insulin con. d. Inefficiency of Na/K pump
a, d
35) Which statements are NOT true? - In disorders of salivary glands both serum amylase and serum lipase are elevated - Rupture of ectopic pregnancy can cause the elevation of serum amylase activity - In patients with severely impaired glomerular function serum amylase level is elevated - In macroamylasemia , both serum amylase and serum lipase are elevated
a, d
36) The amylase clearance /creatinine clearance ratio is: - increasing in acute pancreatitis - increasing in renal insufficiency - increasing in macroamylasemia - decreasing in macroamylasemia
a, d
39) Causes of secondary hyperaldosteronism - Renin-secreting tumors - Adrenal adenoma - Conn syndrome - Nephrosis syndrome
a, d
41. Which statements are true? a. The "driver" mutation provide selective growth advantage for the transformed epithelial cells compared to their normal counterparts b. The "driver" mutation have no effect on the tumor develop and growth c. The majority of the "driver" mutation develop in the preneoplastic time d. The driver genes can be component of 12 major signaling pathways
a, d
61. Changes in urine components during storage: a. Destruction of glucose by bacteria b. Glucose production by bacteria c. Elavation of Na concentration in the urine d. Decrease of pH in the urine
a, d
64. Which of the following conditions causes inherited thrombophilia? a. Antithrombin deficiency b. Von Willebrand's disease c. Factor V deficiency d. Protein S deficiency
a, d
68)Advantages of the hemoglobin-cyanide method for the determination of Hb - hemoglobin and methemoglobin are measured - sulfhemoglobin is measured - cyanide-containing reagents and waste - easy to perform , accurate and reproducible
a, d
7) How can triiodothyronine be formed ? - With the deiodination of thyroxine in the peripheral tissue - With the conjugation of one diiodothyronine and one monoiodothyronine in the peripheral tissue - With the conjugation of three monoiodothyronine in the thyroid - With the conjugation of one diiodothyronine and one monoiodothyronine in the thyroid
a, d
72) Characteristic feature of male hypergonadotropic hypogonadism - high plasma FSH/LH concentrations - low plasma FSH/LH concentrations - high plasma testosterone concentrations - low plasma testosterone concentrations
a, d
75. which statement(s) is/are FALSE from the following: a. Each enzyme deficiency in B-oxidation of fatty acids results in carnitine cycle disorder b. The peroxisomes are subcellular membrane organelles, which are the storage places of about 40 enzymes of lipid, AA and H2O2 metabolism c. The disorders of peroxisome can be named as disorders of very long chain FA d. The disorders of match oxidation are inherited in dominant way - autosomal recessive
a, d
76. Visual examination may give us information about the levels of which of the following? a. Chylomicrons b. LDL c. HDL d. VLDL
a, d
77) Biological effects of hormones regulating the GH secretion - GHRH stimulates GH secretion - GHRH inhibits GH secretion - somatostatin stimulates GH secretion - somatostatin inhibits GH secretion
a, d
79. Which of the following conditions can cause APTT prolongation? a. hemophilia A b. in case of FVII deficiency c. Inherited thrombophilia d. liver failure
a, d
80. Thrombin time can be prolonged: a. in hypofibrinogenaemia b. in von Willebrand disease c. in hyperfibrinogenaemia d. in afibrinogenaemia
a, d
81) The following clinical conditions can lead to diabetes insipidus - encephalitis - pancreatitis -hepatitis - chronic renal disease
a, d
90)Main effects of PTH are the following - increased bone resorption - decreased bone resorption - increased tubular phosphate reabsorption in kidneys - decreased tubular phosphate reabsorption in kidneys
a, d
98. which molecules are prostaglandins a. PGl2 b. LTB-4 c. 5-HETE d. TXA2
a, d
CH50 hemolytic assay - the complement system is activated by antibodies - tests the total complement activity via the alternative pathway - the result is high in complement factor deficiencies - the result is low in complement consumption
a, d
Characteristic feature of Reye syndrome - hyperammonemia -hypocalcemia -incidence is high in elderly women - marked elevation of ALT and AST
a, d
Characteristic(s) of multiple myeloma: a. Lytic bone lesions b. Disease of the childhood c. Accumulation of the myeloid cells in the bone marrow d. Monoclonal protein (M protein) in the serum and the urine
a, d
Hemolytic anemia is characterized by a. Decrease serum haptoglobin b. Increase serum haptoglobin c. Increase serum conjugated bilirubin d. Increased serum unconjugated bilirubin
a, d
In chronic ITP a. The life span of platelets in the circulation is significantly reduced b. Antibodies are produced against drug-plasma protein complex c. The number of megakaryocytes in the bone marrow is decreased d. The number of the megakaryocytes in the bone marrow is elevated or normal
a, d
Lab test for monitoring unfractionated heparin therapy a. Prothrombin time b. APTT c. Bleeding time d. Antithrombin III determination
a, d
True for acute intermittent porphyria: a. Photosensitivity is not among the symptoms of the disease b. Main symptom is photosensitivity c. During attack uroporphyrinogen I and coproporphyrinogen I are excreted in the urine and stool d. During attacks ALA and PBG are excreted in the urine and stool
a, d
True for porphyria cutanea tarda: a. 15-20% of cases is inherited b. Less common form of cutaneous porphyrias c. No photosensitivity is detected d. Erythema, vesicles, later scarring and pigmentation are the sign of photosensitivity in this disease
a, d
What are the screening tests in platelets system from the list a. Bleeding time b. APTT c. TT d. PFA-100 closure time
a, d
Which are true ? - Hepatic excretion of bilirubin is impaired in Dubin-Johnson syndrome - Hepatic uptake of bilirubin is impaired in Dubin-Johnson syndrome - Urinary UBG is increased in Dubin-Johnson syndrome - No urinary UBG is detected in Dubin-Johnson syndrome
a, d
Which of the following is (are) charactersitics features of CLL? a. Grumprecht shadow in smear b. Eosinophilia c. CD19 positivity d. CD5 positivity
a, d (maybe also c)
279. Laboratory methods suitable for urea determination: a. Chemical reaction with o-phthalaldehyde (colour product) b. End point Jaffe reaction c. Completely enzymatic UV method using creatine hydrolase and creatine kinase enzymes d. Indirect enzymatic method using urease and detection of the ammonia/ammonium ion formed by an ionselective electrode
a, d (not sure)
1. The determination of which homocysteine fraction is important for the assessment of atherosclerotic risk? a. Free homocysteine b. Total homocysteine c. Protein-bound homocysteine d. Homocysteine
b
1. Which depicts the sensitivity? a. TP/(FP+TP) b. TP/(FN+TP) c. TN/(FP+TN) d. TN/(FN+TN)
b
10. Which is cerebroside storage disease? a. Von Gierke disease b. Gaucher disease c. Pompe disease d. Tay-Sachs disease
b
107. genetic causes of the multiple forms of enzymes a. Post-translational modifications on the protein components b. The enzyme are coded at multiple gene loci c. Aggregation of the enzyme molecules d. Post-translational modifications on a non-protein component
b
108) Which of the following is characteristic for acute pancreatitis - hypercalcemia -hypocalcemia -hypermagnesemia -none
b
108. The following list shows the lipoproteins in an order of increasing density: a. chylomicron˂LDL˂VLDL˂HDL b. chylomicron˂VLDL˂LDL˂HDL c. LDL˂chylomicron˂VLDL˂HDL d. VLDL˂chylomicron˂LDL˂HDL
b
109. Which lipoprotein(s) can be found in the pre-beta band of lipoprotein electrophoresis? a. chylomicron b. VLDL c. LDL d. HDL
b
111) Unambiguous identification of heterozygote deletion carrier in DMD/BMD can be done by -by the Chamberlain multiplex PCR assay - by the MLPA assay - by the Beggs multiplex PCR assay - by serum CK measurement
b
114)Bilirubin can be detected in the urine by - Nylander test( KOH , bismuth nitrate , K-Na tartrate) - Rosin test ( 1% alcoholic iodine solution) -Ehrlich reagent ( p-dimethyl aminobenzaldehyde) -Sulfosalicylic acid test ( 20% sulfosalicylic acid solution)
b
119. which is an important intracellular buffer? A, bicarbonate B, proteins C, ammonia D, none
b
126. What does it mean if the 2 hour value after OGTT is 9.0 mmol/L? a. impaired fasting glycemia (IFG) b. impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) c. Diabetes mellitus d. Normal
b
127. which gene mutation is associated with familial male breast cancer a. BRCA1 b. BRCA2 c. C-MYC d. ATM
b
128) Which of the following are characteristic in VIPomas ? - hyperkalemia - hypokalemia - hyperglycemia - none
b
13) Parathyroid hormone - Decreases serum calcium concentration - Increases serum calcium concentration - Has no effect on serum phosphate levels - Has no effect on formation of calcitriol in the kidneys
b
13. Which statement(s) is (are) true? a. Homocysteine is taken up by the food b. Methionine is the sole source for homocysteine synthesis c. Cysteine is the sole source for homocysteine synthesis d. The major plasmatic form of homocysteine is free homocysteine
b
14. Which statement(s) is/are true for cystic fibrosis? a. Is inherited in autosomal recessive way, due to its incidence of about 1:2500 b. Is inherited in autosomal recessive way c. Affects all endocrine gland containing organs in the human body d. Can be diagnosed only in childhood
b
169. The plasma level of which biochemical marker starts to rise most early during the onset of M.I: a. CK-MB b. Myoglobin c. Troponin - T d. LDH1
b
176. RTA-2 is: a. distal renal tubular acidosis b. proximal renal tubular acidosis c. combined renal tubular acidosis d. selective aldosteron deficiency
b
179. Biochemical change(s) in plasma in acute renal failure: a. hypokalemia b. hypocalcemia c. hypernatremia d. plasma bicarbonate is increased
b
184. What is the prevailing mode of inheritance in metabolic disorders of the carbohydrate/lipid metabolism? a. X linked, recessive b. Autosomal, recessive c. X linked dominant d. Autosomal dominant
b
186. "X" o the red blood cell of a healthy person. When can you find red blood cell shows on "Y" picture (https://imgur.com/a/TP6OJRc)? a. Folate deficiency. b. Iron deficiency c. Vitamin B12 deficiency d. Sickle cell anemia
b
199. the following parameters are used for the calculation of serum LDL-cholesterol according to friedwald formula: a. total serum-cholesterol, HDL-cholesterol, chylomicron b. total serum cholesterol, HDL-cholesterol, triglyceride c. HDL-cholesterol, VLDL-cholesterol, TAG d. total serum-cholesterol, VLDL-cholesterol, TAG
b
203. the following statement are true in the case of gout: a. more frequent in female population b. symptoms can be explained by increase inflammatory reaction caused by the precipitation of monosodium urate crystals from supersaturated body fluids c. symptoms can be explained by the intense inflammatory reaction caused by the precipitation of calcium phosphate crystals from super saturated body fluids d. more frequent in children
b
204. What does it mean if the 2 hour value after OGTT is 9.0 mmol/L? a. impaired fasting glycemia (IFG) b. impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) c. Diabetes mellitus d. Normal
b
206. The following test reflects the mean blood glucose value of the preceding 6-8 weeks: a. Fructosamine b. glycated hemoglobin c. urinary glucose d. none
b
21. The plasma level of which biochemical marker starts to rise most early following the onset of myocardial infarction? a. CK-MB b. Myoglobin c. Troponin T (cTnT) d. LDH-1
b
213. risk of atherosclerosis is increased by: a. elevated serum HDL-cholesterol level b. elevated serum LDL-cholesterol level c. elevated serum apo-A level d. decreased serum IDL-cholesterol level
b
234. Which of the following is characteristic in Fredrickson type V hyperlipoproteinemia? a. Clear sera with creamy layer on top b. Presence of chylomicron and dense preBeta band on lipid electrophoresis c. Triglyceride below 1.7 mmol/L d. Low cholesterol level
b
24. What is sideroblast a. Myeloid precursor containing iron deposits in the bone marrow b. Erythroid precursor containing iron deposits in the bone marrow c. Myeloid cell containing iron deposits in the peripheral blood d. Erythoid cell containing iron deposits in the peripheral blood
b
26. Which of the following may lead to hypouricemia? a. Overt alcohol consumption b. Overt treatment with allopurinol c. Chemotherapy d. Diabetes mellitus
b
264. The following test reflects the mean blood glucose value of the preceding 6-8 weeks: a. Fructosamine b. Glycated hemoglobin c. Urinary glucose d. none
b
268. Characteristics of exogenous hyperinsulinism: a. High insulin, high C-peptide b. High insulin, low C-peptide c. Low insulin, high C-peptide d. Low insulin, low C-peptide
b
274. Pseudohyperkalemia can be caused by: a. Thrombocytopenia b. Thrombocytemia c. Cushing syndrome d. Traumatic blood drawing
b
292. True for Fructosamine: a. Always changes in parallel with fasting blood glucose b. Refers to mean blood glucose of the previous 2-3 weeks c. Refers to mean blood glucose of the previous 6-8 weeks d. A diagnostic test for hypoglycaemic coma
b
296. How can we differentiate between exogenous and endogenous hyperinsulinism? a. Determination of plasma insulin concentration b. Plasma C-peptide measurement c. Plasma glucose measurement d. Determination of glucose concertation in the urine
b
305. In isoosmolar volume depletion a. There is hypernatremia b. There is hemconcentration c. There is hyperkalemia d. Sodium excretion
b
309. Protein C A. Decrease activity is associated with coagulopathy B. Decrease activity is associated with thrombophilia C. Its activation form liberates plasminogen activator from the endothelium D. Heparin is required for its activation
b
315. Which is an Angiotensin II effect? a. Vasodilation b. Vasoconstriction c. Inhibition of aldosterone secretion d. None
b
32) The most sensitive test for determining alcohol consumption - Transaminases - Carbohydrate-deficient transferrin - Serum bilirubin - Urinary UBG
b
32. Cause of overflow proteinuria: a. increased glomerular permeability b. increased plasma concentration of a relatively freely filtrated protein. c. Decreased tubular reabsorption of filtered plasma proteins d. Decreased number of glomeruli
b
323. What does it mean if the 2 hour value after OGTT is 9.0 mmol/L? a. impaired fasting glycemia (IFG) b. impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) c. Diabetes mellitus d. Normal
b
324. What is your opinion about the patients acid base alteration if you see the following blood gas results: PH 7.3 PaCO2: 2.41 Hgmm, PaO2:95Hgmm, standard bicarbonate 15mmol/L. A. Metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation B. Metabolic acidosis without compensation C. Respiratory acidosis with respiratory compensation D. Metabolic acidosis without respiratory compensation
b
329. Pseudohyperkalemia can be caused by: a. thrombocytopenia b. thrombocythemia c. cushing syndrome d. traumatic blood drawing
b
329. Which type/s of abnormality of sodium and water balance occurs in Addison's disease? a. Predominant water depletion b. Predominant Na depletion c. Predominant water excess d. Predominant Na excess
b
34. What is your diagnosis about the patient's acid base alteration who has the following blood gas results: (lecture acid-base) pH:7.3 (reference range: 7.34-7.44). pCO2: 41 mmHg (reference range: 33-44 mmHg) bicarbonate: 15 mmol/L (reference range: 18-23 mmol/L) a. Metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation b. Metabolic acidosis without compensation c. Respiratory acidosis with compensation d. Metabolic alkalosis without compensation
b
368.Labratory test used for monitoring coumarin therapy: p.363 in file. a) Activated partial thromboplastin time(APTT) b) Prothrombin time and INR calculated from PT c) Thrombin time d) Reptilase time
b
42. Genetic cause(s) of multiple form of enzymes: a. post translational modification on protein component b. The enzymes are coded at multiple gene loci c. Aggregation of the enzyme molecules d. Post-translational modification on a non protein component
b
44. Which type of abnormality of sodium and water balance occurs in Addison's disease? a. Predominant water depletion b. Predominant Na depletion c. Predominant water excess d. Predominant Na excess
b
45. Which is an Angiotensin II effect? a. Vasodilation b. Vasoconstriction c. Inhibition of aldosterone secretion d. None
b
46. What is the definition of "laboratory turn-around-time (TAT)"? a. time between requesting analysis and transferring result to HIS b. time between the sample's arrival in lab and transferring results to HIS c. time between drawing and sample's arrival in lab d. time between sample's requestand blood drawing
b
51. Technic(s) and method(s) which is/are NOT suitable for the differientiation of isoenzymes and isoforms a. Zone electrophoresis b. Phlame photometry c. Isoelectric focusing d. Selective inactivation
b
56. which hormone has the major role in the development of paraneoplastic erythrocytosis a. Calcitonin b. Erythropoetin c. G-CSF d. thrombopoetin
b
62. Reference interval: a. The interval btw the mean ±2SD of the reference sample group b. It corresponds to the interval btw the mean ±2SD of the reference sample group only if the distribution of the values is normal (gaussian). c. Under no condition does it correspond to the interval btw the mean ±2SD of the reference sample group. d. ?
b
71. Hemophilia B stands for a. FVIII deficiency b. FIX deficiency c. FX deficiency d. FXI deficiency
b
71. inaccuracy of analytical methods a. Poor reproducibility b. Deviation from the true value c. The measure of differences among repeated analysis d. Random error
b
74) Which of the following sex hormones bind dominantly to cortisol-binding globulin ( CBG) in plasma? - estradiol -progesterone -testosterone -none
b
77. Which factor deficiency gives a normal APTT? a. FII b. FVII c. FIX d. FXII
b
78. The following establishment is (are) true in case of gout a. More frequent in female population b. Symptoms can be explained by the intense inflammatory reaction of monosodium urate crystals from supersaturated body fluids. c. Symptoms can be explained by the intense inflammatory reactions calcium phosphate crystals from supersaturated body fluids. d. Symptoms are caused by allergical reaction of tophi.
b
79) A blood sample from a heavy smoker is measured by the hemoglobin-cyanide method.We measure the absorbance at 540 nm , after the 5th minute.What kind of deviation do we get using this method ? - We get lower value than real hemoglobin concentration - We get higher value than real hemoglobin concentration - Smoking does not influence the result -Smoking gives us both lower and higher value results
b
80. make the proper order based on increasing amino acid concentration a. CSF < cells < plasma b. CSF <plasma < cells c. Cells < CSF < plasma d. Plasma < CSF < cells
b
82. What kind of method do we use for detection of cardiac troponin I a. Electrophoresis b. Immunochemical assay c. Liquid chromatography d. Flowcytometry.
b
83. in which phase of the leukocyte-endothel interaction play selectins a role: a. Transmigration b. Initial contact, rolling c. Adhesion d. Chemotaxis
b
9. Which is the reference method for homocysteine determination? a. Radioenzymatic assay b. High performance liquid chromatography (HPLC) c. Combined enzymatic-enzyme immunoassay d. Combined enzymatic-fluorescence polarization immunoassay
b
94. which statement(s) is / are true for cystic fibrosis a. Is inherited in autosomal recessive way, due to its incidence of about 1:2500 b. Is inherited in autosomal recessive way c. Affects all endocrine gland containing organs in the human body ( no the exocrine) d. Can be diagnosed only in childhood
b
APL translocation a. T(8,21) b. T(15,17) c. T(9,22) d. T(9,21)
b
Chronic myelodysplastic anemia a. Never transform to ALL b. May transform to ALL c. d.
b
EDTA inhibits blood clotting by: a.Inhibiting glycolysis b.Binding calcium c.Inactivating thrombin d.It does not inhibit blood clotting
b
Hemophilia B stands for: a. F. VII deficiency b. F. IX deficiency c. F. X deficiency d. F. XI deficiency
b
In case of salivary gland disorder - serum lipase is elevated - serum amylase is elevated - urine lipase is elevated -the ratio of amylase P isoform is elevated
b
Most sensitive test for monitoring alcohol consumption - transaminases - carbohydrate-deficient transferrin - serum bilirubin - urinary UBG
b
Nucleoli are detectable in the following hematological disorder: a. CLL b. PLL c. HCL d. none
b
PTH - decreases serum calcium concentration - increases serum calcium concentration - has no effect on serum phosphate level - has no effect on the formation of calcitriol in the kidneys
b
The determination of which homocysteine fraction is important for the assessment of artherosclerotic risk: a. Free homocysteine b. Total homocysteine c. Protein bound homocysteine d. None
b
The rate of blast cells in accelerated phase of CGL is: a. Below 1% b. Between 5 and 20% c. Over 20% d. Not characteristic
b
What is the last step of compatibility testing? a. ABO grouping b. Cross-match of donor red cells with recipient plasma c. Rh typing d. Antibody screening
b
What is the platelet count in case of thrombocytopenia: a. PLT <400 G/L b. PLT <100 G/L c. PLT >400 G/L d. PLT between 150 G/L and 400 G/L
b
Which are true ? - Endogenous substrate of TPMT is guanine - HGPRT plays a role in the formation of active metabolites from thioguanine analogues - XO plays a role in the formation of active metabolites from thioguanine analogues - TPMT poor metabolizers can not receive thioguanine drugs
b
Which is an important intracellular buffer: a. Bicarbonate b. Proteins c. Ammonia d. None
b
Which is the recommended procedure for cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and blood glucose determination? a. Blood sampling 2-4 hours after CSF collection b. Blood sampling 2-4 hours before CSF collection c. Blood sampling and CSF collection in the same time (in the same minute) d. Blood sampling 2-4 days before CSF collection
b
Which statement(s) is (are) true? a. An A group person has got anti-A antibodies in his serum b. An A group person has got anti-B antibodies in his serum c. An A group person has got anti-A and anti-B antibodies in his serum d. An A group person has got no antibodies in his serum
b
Which vacutainer tubes are used for hemostasis tests? a. EDTA anticoagulated tubes b. Sodium citrate anticoagulated tubes c. Tubes without anticoagulant (native) d. Sodium-fluoride containing tubes
b
Which vacutainer tubes are used for hemostasis tests? a. EDTA anticoagulated tubes b. Sodium citrate anticoagulated tubes c. Tubes without anticoagulant (native) d. Sodium-fluoride containing tubes
b
what is a sideroblast? a. myeloid precursor containing iron deposits in the bone marrow. b. erythroid precursor containing iron deposits in the bone marrow c. myeloid cell containing iron deposits in the peripheral blood d. erythroid cell containing iron deposits in the peripheral blood.
b
which is the disease where ADAMTS13 plays a key role in the pathomechanism? a. ITP b. TTP c. HUS d. none
b
275. Transfusion of stored blood may result in: a. Hypoglycemia b. Hyperkalemia c. Hypokalemia d. Hyperglycemia
b (maybe a also)
119. During the measurement of serum urea by an indirect enzymatic method ammonia/ammonium ion is formed in the reaction of urease on urea. The amount of ammonia/ammonium ion produced can be measured by the following methods or equipments: a. GAPA reaction b. Ionselective electrode c. coagulometer d. conductometric method
b (maybe also d)
10) UBG is increased in the urine - In gastroenteritis - In hemolysis - In preicteric phase of acute hepatitis - In complete block of bile flow duct
b, c
100, in which inherited hemostasis disorders is hemarthrosis is a characteristic feature? A, platelet aggregation disorder B, hemophilia A C, hemophilia B D, Dysfibrinogenemia
b, c
101. in which coagulopathies is spontaneous abortion a characteristic feature? A, hemophilia A B, Factor XIII deficiency C, afibrinogenemia D, hemophilia B
b, c
103. Sign the correct answer a. The homocystinuria can develop only in inherited form b. The hyperhomocysteinaemia is toxic to the vascular endothelium c. The most prevalent form of inherited homocystinuria is caused by the deficiency of cystathionine b synthase d. The deficiency of methyl tetrahydrofolate reductase and transferase can not result in hyperhomocysteinaemia
b, c
105) Causes of pseudohyponatremia a. Na determination after exreme water intake using flame photometry b. Na determination using indirect ion-selective electrode in a lipaemic sample c. Na determination using flame photometry in a hyperproteinemic sample d. Na determination using a direct ion-selective electrode when the sample is lipaemic
b, c
110. characteristic feature(s) of proteinuria associated with isolated tubular damage: A, the albumin concentration of urine increases remarkably B, the retinol-binding protein (RBP) concentration of urine increases remarkably C, the α-1-mikroglobulin concentration of urine increases remarkably D, the IgG concentration of urine increases remarkably
b, c
115) Following samples are suitable for the diagnosis of pheochromocytoma - Random urine sample - 24-hour collected urine - Spontaneous urine with creatinine determination in infants - Routine diagnostic blood sample taken anytime during the day
b, c
116. hypercalcaemia (high serum calcium concentration) can be caused by the following changes in cancer patients a. The tumor secretes anti diuretic hormone (ADH) b. The tumor secretes parathormone (PTH) c. The tumor secretes osteclast activating factor d. None of them
b, c
119) Delta bilirubin - is not bound to albumin - is bound to albumin - is conjugated - is not conjugated
b, c
12. Which vitamin(s) is (are) involved in the catabolism of homocysteine? a. Vitamin E b. Vitamin B12 c. Folic acid d. Vitamin K
b, c
125. The following fasting blood glucose value(s) is (are) characteristic for diabetes: a. 6.5 mmol/L b. 8.5 mmol/L c. 11 mmol/L d. none
b, c
14. Which statement is (are) true for aspirin treatment? a. The effectiveness can be monitored using VASP phosphorylation assay b. Aspirin inhibits cyclooxygenase-1 enzyme irreversibly c. The effectiveness can be monitors using platelet aggregation and secretion induced by arachidonic acid d. Aspirin is a competitive inhibitor of platelet GPIIb/IIIa receptor
b, c
144. iron uptake into the cells a. Is mediated through ferritin b. Is mediated through transferrin receptor c. Is an example for receptor mediated endocytosis d. Is an example for simple diffusion
b, c
147. Risk of atherosclerosis is increased by: a. Elevated serum HDL-cholesterol level b. Elevated serum LDL-cholesterol level c. Elevated serum triglyceride level d. Elevated serum IDL-cholesterol level
b, c
152. in case of sideroblastic anemia a. Sideroblasts are detected in the peripheral smear b. Sideroblasts are detected in the bone marrow c. Microcytosis is detected in the peripheral smear d. Macrocytosis is detected in the peripheral smear
b, c
154. megalolastic anemias may be due to a. Vitamin B6 deficiency b. Vit B12 deficiency c. Folic acid deficiency d. None
b, c
156. In pernicious anemia blood smear we see a. No evident deviations b. Macro-ovalocytes c. Hypersegmented granulocytes d. Microspherocytes
b, c
164. thalasemia major is characterised by a. Normal MCV b. Transfusion dependent anemia c. Elevated HbA2 &/or HbF level d. B12 deficiency
b, c
167. in iron deficiency anemia a. Transferrin saturation is higher than 50% b. Transferrin saturation is less than 10% c. Serum ferritin conc decreases d. Serum ferritin conc increases
b, c
168. Which vitamins are involved in the catabolism of homocysteine: a. Vitamin E b. Vit B12 c. Folic acid d. Vit K
b, c
170) Non-specific signs that might be observed in malignant disease - Bence-Jones proteinuria - anemia - hyperuricemia - high concentration of catecholamines in urine
b, c
177. Which statement(s) is/are true for Delta F508 mutation? a. The mutant protein reaches the cytoplasmic membrane but defective in conduction b. The mutation is the most common pathogenic alteration in CFTR gene among Caucasians c. The mutation occurred once in human evolution d. The mutant protein is degraded from the Golgi
b, c
177. Which statement(s) is/are true for erythropoietin synthesis? a. It is produced in the liver b. It is produced in the kidneys c. Hypoxia is the stimulus for production d. Iron overload is the stimulus for production
b, c
178. the following changes occur when whole blood is stored for one month: a. Na is elevated b. K is elevated c. PH decrease d. PH increases
b, c
180. Megaloblasts are: a. Abnormal myeloids in the peripheral smear b. Abnormal myeloid precoursors in the bone marrow c. Abnormal erythroid precoursors in the bone marrow d. Abnormal erythroid in the peripheral smear
b, c
182. which are normally present in the peripheral blood? a. Proerythroblast b. Mature red blood cell c. Reticulocyte d. Normoblast
b, c
20. Which drugs from the following are included in the group of DOACs? a. Warfarin b. Dabigatran c. Rivaroxaban d. Hirudin
b, c
205. Test useful in the diagnosis of diabetes: a. Insulin b. Fasting glucose c. OGTT d. Glycated hemoglobin
b, c
21. Which statement(s) is(are) true for hemoglobin H disease? a. It is a type beta thalassemia b. It is a type of alpha thalassemia c. Beta globin chains are accumulated d. Alpha globin chains are accumulated
b, c
23. Laboratory sign(s) of hemolysis a. Elevated conjugated bilirubin b. Decreased free haptoglobin c. Elevated LDH activity d. Elevated alkaline phosphatase activity
b, c
235. Visual examination does not give information about the elevated level of: a. Chylomicrons b. LDL c. HDL d. VLDL
b, c
248. The following fasting blood glucose value(s) indicate diabetes: a. 5.5 mmol/L b. 8.6 mmol/L c. 11 mmol/L d. None
b, c
252. There is a higher risk for atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease in case of a. Elevation of HDL-C b. Decrease of HDL - C c. Elevation of VLDL d. None of them
b, c
253. There is higher risk of atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease in case of a. Elevation of HDL - C b. Decrease of HDL - C c. Elevation of VLDL d. Decrease of Lp(a)
b, c
272. Characteristic features of ANP: a. It is produced by the kidneys b. It is produced by the atria c. Enhances Na excretion d. Enhances Na retention
b, c
289. The following(s) may cause secondary diabetes: a. Hyperkalemia b. Haemochromatosis c. Cystic fibrosis d. Leiden mutation
b, c
29) Common causes of acute pancreatitis - Brain tumor - Ethanol abuse - Gallstones - Hypernatremia
b, c
30) Which are true - In a healthy individual serum bilirubin is conjugated - In a healthy individual serum bilirubin is not conjugated - In a healthy individual UBG is detected in urine - In a healthy individual UBG is not detected in urine
b, c
319. Useful laboratory test(s) in the differential diagnosis of proteinuria: A. Creatinine clearance B. Electrophoresis of urine proteins C. Determination of retinol binding protein in the urine D. Urea determination in the urine
b, c
33)Parathyroid hormone - Decrease phosphate excretion in the kidneys - Increases phosphate excretion in the kidneys - Increases calcitriol formation in the kidneys - Decreases calcitriol formation in the kidneys
b, c
341. The following gasting blood glucose values are characteristic for diabtetes: a. 6.5 mmol/L b. 8.5 mmol/L c. 11 mmol/L d. none
b, c
37) Which test result is NOT characteristic for the Cushing syndrome caused by ectopic ACTH secretion? - Basal plasma cortisol is elevated - High-dose dexamethasone suppression test is positive - CRH is positive - The circadian changes in the plasma cortisol concentration disappears
b, c
39. Characteristic feature(s) of distal renal tubular acidosis (RTA-1) a. Hypochloremic acidosis b. Hyperchloremic acidosis c. Hypokalemia d. Hyperkalemia
b, c
43. The following statements are NOT characteristic for carcinoid tumors? a. They arise from the cells of the APUD series b. They are of high grade malignancy c. They distant metastasis very frequently d. They secrete vasoactive amines (5-HT)
b, c
48) Which of the following are true ? - Concentration of ionized calcium increases in alkalosis - Concentration of ionized calcium decreases in alkalosis - Concentration of ionized calcium increases in acidosis - Concentration of ionized calcium decreases in acidosis
b, c
57. What are the screening tests of the coagulopathies from the following list? a. Bleeding time b. Activated partial thromboplastin time c. Thrombin time d. PFA-100 closure time
b, c
59) Which enzymes are elevated in acute pancreatitis? - creatine kinase - amylase - lipase - acid phosphatase
b, c
6) In the acute phase of non-thyroidal illness - T3 to T4 conversion is impaired - T4 to T3 conversion is impaired - rT3 is increased - rT3 is decreased
b, c
6. The measurement of D- dimer is useful a. As a screening test for coagulopathies b. In the diagnosis of acute DIC c. In excluding pulmonary embolization and deep venous thrombosis d. In the diagnosis of platelet function disorders
b, c
6. Which of the following test(s) is (are) used for monitoring diabetes therapy? a. Oral glucose tolerance test b. Fructosamine c. Glycated hemoglobin d. Amylase determination
b, c
60. in hereditary sphaerocytosis we can see: a. Macro-ovalocytes in the smear b. Micro spherocytes in the smear -there are not microovalocytes c. Reticulocytosis d. Normal reticulocyte count
b, c
62)Which enzyme levels remain elevated 5 DAYS after the onset of acute pancreatitis ? - serum amylase - serum lipase - urine amylase - urine lipase
b, c
65) Characteristic feature of malignant hyperthermia - Extremely high serum CK activity - Severe acidosis - Myoglobinuria - Exclusively males are affected
b, c
65. Which statement(s) is (are) true for the functional test of APC resistance? a. Chromogenic test b. Clotting test c. APTT is measured in the presence and the absence of activated protein C d. Patient has activated protein C resistance if the ratio of APTT measured with activated protein C/APTT measured without using activated protein C>2
b, c
69)Osteocalcin - is a marker of bone resorption - is a marker of bone formation - is secreted by osteoblasts - is secreted by osteoclasts
b, c
79) Enzymes taking part in the catecholamine inactivation - UDP-glucuronyl transferase - Catecholamine-O-methyl transferase - Monoamine oxidase - 11-beta hydroxylase
b, c
84) True for SHBG ( Sex Hormone Binding Globulin) - binds progesterone - binds testosterone - in males it is lower than in females - it binds estrogen with the highest affinity
b, c
85) Characteristics of the clomiphene test - only informative in males - inhibits steroid receptors in hypothalamus - GnRH is elevated during normal response - GnRH is decreased during normal response
b, c
89) Which are true ? - Ultrarapid metabolizers exist in the case of CYP2C9 - Ultrarapid metabolizers exist in the case of CYP2C19 - Ultrarapid metabolizers exist in the case of CYP2D6 - Ultrarapid metabolizers exist in the case of TPMT
b, c
92. Tests useful in the diagnosis of diabetes: a. insulin b. fasting glucose c. OGTT d. glycated hemoglobin
b, c
96) True for Cushing syndrome - urinary cortisol secretion decreases - adrenal adenoma could be a cause of th disease - cessation of cortisol diurnal variation - none
b, c
97. the inheritance of type III von Willebrand disease is A, dominant B, recessive C, autosomal D, X-linked
b, c
An A Rh+ mother and an AB Rh+ father can have a baby with: a. O Rh+ b. B Rh- c. AB Rh- d. O Rh-
b, c
In iron deficiency anemia a. Transferrin saturation is higher than 50% b. Transferrin saturation is less than 10% c. Serum ferritin concentration decreases d. Serum ferritin concentration increases
b, c
In the acute phase of a non-thyroid illness - T3 to T4 conversion is impaired - T4 to T3 conversion is impaired - rT3 is increased - rT3 is decreased
b, c
Signals of hepatic cell injury a. Elevated acid phosphatase activity b. Elevated alkaline phosphatase activity c. Elevated transaminase activity d. Elevated lactate dehydrogenase activity
b, c
Thalassemia major is characterized by: a. Normal MCV b. Transfusion dependent anemia c. Elevated HbA2 level d. B12 deficiency
b, c
The following laboratory alterations are characteristic for multiple myeloma: a. hypouricemia b. hyperuricemia c. anemia d. polycythemia
b, c
Which anticoagulant is used for the storage of blood products? a. Heparin b. Citrate c. CPDA d. EDTA
b, c
Which erythroids are normally present in the peripheral blood? a. proerythroblast b. Mature RBC c. Reticulocyte d. Normoblast
b, c
Which of the following statements is (are) true concerning quantitative D-dimer determination? a. excellent positive predictive value b. high sensitivity c. negative test result (below the cut off value) excludes the presence of thrombosis with high certainty d. test result can be positive exclusively in the presence of the thrombosis
b, c
Which statement(s) is (are) true? a. Galactose can be found on the red blood cells of an A type person b. Galactose can be found on the red blood cells of a B type person c. Galactose can be found on the red blood cells of an AB person d. Galactose can be found on the red blood cells of an O type person
b, c
Which statements are true ? - In a healthy individual serum bilirubin in conjugated - In a healthy individual serum bilirubin is not conjugated - In a healthy individual UBG is detected in urine - In a healthy individual UBG is not detected in urine
b, c
Which vitamins are involved in catabolism of homocysteine: a. Vitamin E b. Vit B12 c. Folic acid d. Vit K
b, c
laboratory signs of hemolysis: a. elevated conjugated bilirubin b. decreased free hepatohglobin c. elevated LDH activity d. elevated alkaline phosphate activity
b, c
pernicious anemia is: a. a microcytic anemia b. a macrocytic anemia c. characterized by megaloblasts in the bone marrow d. characterized by megaloblasts in the peripheral blood.
b, c
sudan black will stain: a. glycogen b. phospholipids c. myeloblasts d. lymphoblast
b, c
the following changes occur when whole blood is stored for one month: a. Na is elevated b. K is elevated c. pH decreases d. pH increases
b, c
106) According to FAB classification , which leukemia does not belong to the lymphoid leukemias? - ALL - Acute monocytic leukemia ( M5) - Acute erythroid leukemia ( M6) - Acute myeloid leukemia( AML)
b, c, d
112) Possible cause of primary amenorrhea -climacterium - hypopituitarism - congenital adrenal hyperplasia -testicular feminization
b, c, d
117) In acute viral hepatitis - bilirubin cannot be detected in the urine - bilirubin in the serum is mainly conjugated - elevation of transaminases often precedes jaundice - UBG might disappear from the urine at the height of jaundice
b, c, d
118) Lipoprotein X - is a separate risk factor for atherosclerosis -appears in severe cholestasis - in electrophoretogram it can be detected in the LDL band - in electrophoresis it moves towards the cathode
b, c, d
123) Bromosulphtalein test - measures the synthetic function of the liver - measures the conjugation and excretion capacity of the liver - is a good diagnostic tool in recognizing fatty liver - is a good diagnostic tool in recognizing anicteric hepatitis
b, c, d
129. Characteristic(s) of diabetic ketoacidosis: a. hypovolemia with electrolyte (Na, K) accumulation in the body b. hypovolemia with electrolyte (Na, K) depletion in the body c. hyperventilation due to metabolic acidosis d. ketogenesis due to increased lipolysis and glucogon effect
b, c, d
134. DIC can occur in the following clinical disorders: a. diabetes mellitus b. dead-fetus syndrome c. gram negative sepsis d. tumors
b, c, d
141. which three elements of lifestyle play the most important role in the development of cancer in the population a. Excessive consumption of alcohol b. Smoking c. Sedentary lifestyle (physical inactivity) d. Inappropriate diet
b, c, d
18)Characteristic feature of hyperammonemic encephalopathy - Ketone bodies accumulated in the blood are responsible for the symptoms - Accumulation of ammonia and glutamate in the brain is responsible for the symptoms - Protein-rich meal could be a precipitating factor - GI bleeding could be a precipitating factor
b, c, d
18. What are the laboratory signs of the presence of a lupus anticoagulant? a. Prolonged thrombin time b. Prolonged APTT c. Correction of the prolonged clotting time in a 1:1 mixing study d. The clotting time is dependent on the phospholipid concentration of the reagent.
b, c, d
207. Characteristic(s) of diabetic ketoacidosis: a. hypovolemia with electrolyte (Na, K) accumulation in the body b. hypovolemia with electrolyte (Na, K) depletion in the body c. hyperventilation due to metabolic acidosis d. ketogenesis due to increased lipolysis and glucagon effect
b, c, d
214. false K+ results are obtained in the following case: a. in case of hyperlipidemia b. hemolytic sample c. if the blood sample is contaminated by K+ infusion d. if the whole blood is stored in the fridge for a long time
b, c, d
233. Lipoprotein X: a. Is a separate risk factor for atherosclerosis b. Appears in sever cholestasis c. In agarose gel electrophoresis it can be detected in the LDL band d. In agarose gel electrophoresis it moves towards the cathode
b, c, d
283. What kind of cell(s) is (are) there in the islets of Langerhans? a. Fibroblasts b. Beta-cells c. Delta-cells d. Alpha-cells
b, c, d
297. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true regarding the genetic background of autoimmune diseases? a. There are no monogenic autoimmune diseases b. The diagnostically most relevant genes causing genetic susceptibility in autoimmune diseases are in the MHC/HLA region c. Association of ankylosing spondylitis (Bechterew's disease) and HLA B27 utilized in routine diagnostics d. Celiac disease and HLA DQ2/DQ8 alleles show a strong association
b, c, d
299. Which of the following test(s) are informative on the tubular functions of the kidneys? a. Creatinine, clearance b. After water deprivation measurement of urine specific gravity of osmolarity c. Measurement of the concentration of individual amino acids d. Ammonium chloride loading test
b, c, d
312. Which of the following diseases can result in acute DIC? A. Chronic starvation B. Sepsis C. Malignant disease D. Dead fetus syndrome
b, c, d
64) Reaction mixture of Jendrassik-Grof bilirubin determination method consists of - Na nitroprusside - sulfanilic acid - Na nitrite - caffeine
b, c, d
7. What can be the metabolic consequences of an enzyme in primary aminoaciduria? a. Elevation of the concentration of the product deficient enzyme b. Elevation of the substrate concentration of the deficient enzyme c. Elevation of the level of products generated by alternative metabolic pathways d. Appearance of a substrate in the urine
b, c, d
71) Methods suitable for ovulation detection - postcoital test - the measurement of the basal body temperature -the measurement of the LH surge 24-36 hours before ovulation - the measurement of serum progesterone concentration in the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle - sperm- mucus penetration test
b, c, d
9. Which of the following conditions can cause acquired protein C deficiency? a. Heparin therapy b. Vitamin K antagonist therapy c. Vitamin K deficiency d. Severe liver disease
b, c, d
90)Which statements are true about pharmacogenetics of warfarin? - VKORC1 genotype affects substantially the time required to reach stable anticoagulation - CYP2C9 genotype affects substantially the time required to reach stable anticoagulation - Warfarin was first a rat poison and later became human medicine -CYP2C9+3 allele has larger effect to the activity of the enzyme compared to CYP2C9+2 allele
b, c, d
91) True statements - Mild hypomagnesemia inhibits PTH on target cells through inhibition of PTH binding to its receptor - Severe hypomagnesemia inhibits PTH on target cells through inhibition of PTH binding to its receptor - Main stimulator of PTH secretion is hypocalcemia - Calcitriol inhibits PTH secretion
b, c, d
93. In which type of glycogen storage disorder is diagnostic the galactose administration test a. In galactokinase deficiency b. In Von Gierke disease, which is caused by glu-6-Pase deficiency, there is a failure of blood glucose to increase in response to galactose administration c. In amylo-1,6-glucosidase deficiency, where hyperglycaemic response to galactose can be detected d. In type III glycogen storage disorder
b, c, d
99) Methods based on the measurement of immunoprecipitates - total protein measurement - turbidimetry and nephelometry - radial immunodiffusion - latex particle sensitized turbidimetry/nephelometry
b, c, d
Catecholamine synthesis occurs in the following organs -adrenal cortex - adrenal medulla -paraganglion -sympathetic neurons
b, c, d
DIC occurs in the following: a. Diabetes melitius b. Dead-fetus syndrome c. Gram negative sepsis d. Tumors
b, c, d
In acute viral hepatitis - bilirubin cannot be detected in urine - bilirubin in the serum is mainly conjugated - elevation of transaminases often precedes jaundice - UBG might disappear from the urine at the peak of jaundice
b, c, d
Materials for determination of hematocrit using centrifugion: a. Spectrophotometer b. Wax c. Glass capillary d. Microhematocritcentrifuge
b, c, d
Which laboratory parameter rises significantly during storage of whole blood? a. Glucose b. Potassium c. LDH d. RBC hemoglobin
b, c, d
297. Characteristic(s) for glycogen storage disease type I. (von Gierke): a. Hyperglycaemia b. Hypoglyoaemia c. Increased lactate concentration d. Alkalosis e. acidosis
b, c, e
179. Pernicious anemia is: a. a microcytic anemia b. a macrocytic anemia c. characterized by megaloblasts in the bone marrow d. characterized by megaloblasts in the peripheral blood e. Macroovalocytes in peripheral smear f. Serum B12 concentration is low
b, c, e ,f
10. Routine diagnostic methods for the evaluation of sodium and potassium: a. Enzymatic methods (spectrophotometry) b. Potentiometry c. Chromatography d. Flame photometry
b, d
100) Serum electrophoresis is characterized by - serum without hemolysis and plasma are not acceptable - it is used to diagnose monoclonal gammopathy - the migration rate of the protein is influenced only by the net negative charge of the protein and the gel structure has no effect - the migration rate of the proteins is influenced by the molecular weight and net negative charge of the protein and the pore size of the gel
b, d
105. the effect of histamine a. Platelet activation b. Endothelial cell contraction in venules c. Leukocytic activation d. Increased vascular permeabiltiy
b, d
108. which metabolic disorder causes severe clinical symptoms a. Galactokinase deficiency b. Galactose-1-P-uridyl transferase deficiency c. Fructokinase deficiency d. Fructose-1-P-aldolase deficiency
b, d
11. Which clinical symptoms are characteristics to glycogen storage disease? a. Hyperglycemia b. Hepatomegaly c. Renal failure d. Hypoglycemia
b, d
113) Which cells produce inhibin ? -Leydig cells of testes - Sertoli cells of testes - theca cells of the ovary - follicular cells of the ovary
b, d
115. which protein(s) bind(s) PSA in blood a. Haptoglobin b. α1-antichymotrypsine c. α1-acid glycoprotein d. α2-macroglobulin
b, d
116)Carbohydrate deficient transferrin - most of the transferrin present in the serum belongs to this fraction - is a good indicator of alcohol consumption in the previous 2 weeks - contains 9-10 sialic acid molecules - can be detected in 1-2% in healthy non-drinkers
b, d
12. In type 2B von Willebrand disease a. The binding of von Willebrand factor to its platelet receptor is decreased b. The binding of von Willebrand factor to its platelet receptor is increased c. Intermediate and high molecular weight VWF multimers are missing d. Only the high molecular vWF multimers are missing
b, d
122. which statement(s) is (are) true? A, the tissue storage of the drug elicits a biological response B, in the liver drug metabolites are formed C, in the kidney the protein bound drug is removed D, in the kidney the free drug is removed
b, d
125) Which samples are investigated in the xylose absorption test ? - stool - urine sample at 5 hours - blood sample after 5 hours - blood sample after 1 hour
b, d
128. Tests useful in the monitoring of diabetes: a. insulin b. fructosamine c. OGTT d. glycated hemoglobin
b, d
13. Which statement(s) is/are true for cystic fibrosis? a. The allele-specific PCR method is not useful for carrier b. CF can be diagnosed from chorionic villi sample by DNA analysis c. The disease is usually caused by insertion d. Life expectancy is about 30-40 yrs
b, d
134) The disadvantages of POCT are - analysis must be carried out by a medical doctor - POCT is slightly less accurate - we cannot measure from capillary blood samples - the integration of results into the central recoreds is not always provided
b, d
140. which tumor markers can be used for cancer screening in certain risk groups a. CA 19-9 b. Calcitonin c. CA 72-4 d. AFP
b, d
142. which of following statements are true a. Transferrin saturation decreases in iron overload b. Tranferrin saturation increases in iron overload c. Ferritin concentration decreases in iron overload d. Ferritin concentration increases in iron overload
b, d
143. characteristic features of iron metabolism a. Serum iron concentration correlates with the saturation of iron stores b. Iron is recycled in an almost closed system c. Huge amount of iron is excreted through the kidneys d. Free iron is toxic physiologically iron is bound to proteins
b, d
145. which of the following disorder(s) cause hypochromic microcytic anemia a. B12 vitamin deficiency b. Iron deficiency c. Iron overload d. Thalasemia
b, d
148. which of the following cause RBC membrane defect a. Iron deficiency b. Hereditary spherocytosis c. B12 deficiency d. Hereditary elliptocytosis
b, d
159. iron transporter a. HFE protein b. DMT1 c. Hepcidin d. Ferroportin
b, d
161. laboratory signs of iron deficiency a. Elevated ferritin concentration b. Decreased ferritin concentration c. Elavated transferrin saturation d. Decreased transferrin saturation
b, d
166. what is a thalasemia a. Disease of the the CNS b. Microcytic anemia c. Macrocytic anemia d. Decreased synthesis of one of the globin chain
b, d
176. Characteristics of urine sediment analysis: a. The most suitable sample for urine sediment analysis is urine collected for 24 hours b. Urine sediment analysis can be performed reliably within two hours after proper urine sampling, if the urine sample is kept at +4c c. Microscopic analysis of urine sediment have to be performed using only high power magnification (x400), application of smaller magnifications is not recommended d. The average number of cells in urine sediment is given by one high power magnification field (HPF)
b, d
177. Characteristic feature(s) of acute nephritic syndrome: a. tubular acidosis b. rapid onset of hematuria or proteinuria c. GFR is normal d. it follows Streptococcus infection
b, d
198. What is (are) the effect(s) of insulin? a. increases lipolysis b. increases cellular glucose uptake c. increases gluconeogenesis in the liver d. increases lipogenesis
b, d
25. Which of the following cause hypochromatic microcytic anaemia? a. B12 vitamin deficiency b. Iron deficiency c. Iron overload d. Thalassemia
b, d
26. Characteristic feature(s) in Paroxysomal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria a. Autoimmune hemolytic anaemia b. Haemolytic anaemia characterized by the increased sensitivity of RBC towards complement mediated lysis c. Primarily affects the gastrointestinal tract d. Is characterized by elevated LDH
b, d
288. what is (are) the characteristic(s) of type 2 diabetes? a. Presents in children or young adults b. Insulin resistance c. Family history uncommon d. Obesity
b, d
291. Which parameter(s) is (are) used in the monitoring of the therapy of diabetes mellitus? a. LDL-C b. Glycated haemoglobin c. OGTT d. Fructosamine
b, d
3. Trueness of analytical methods a. Good reproducibility b. Difference between the measured and true value c. Small random error d. Bias
b, d
31) When can we detect a physiologically elevated alkaline phosphatase activity in the serum ? - In elderly - In children - In non-pregnant women - In the third trimester of a normal pregnancy
b, d
311. Characteristic feature(s) of acute nephritic syndrome: a. tubular acidosis b. rapid onset of hematuria or proteinuria c. GFR is normal d. it follows Streptococcus infection
b, d
312. The urea level of the plasma is increased in the following case(s): A. Severe liver disease B. Dehydration C. Low protein intake D. Hyper catabolic state
b, d
322. The urea level of the plasma is increased in the following case(s): A. Severe liver disease B. Dehydration C. Low protein intake D. Hyper catabolic state
b, d
326. Select the true statement(s): a. Forced ventilation caused by irritation of the breathing center results in increased pCO2 and so leads to respiratory acidosis b. In patients with chronic obstructive lung disorder the most frequently seen acid base alteration is respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation c. Hysteric hyperventilation cause no change in pCO2 d. Hyperventilation is a fast compensatory mechanism in metabolic acidosis
b, d
336. Pseudohyperkalaemia can be caused by: a. Thrombocytopenia b. thrombocytosis c. Cushing syndrome d. Prolonged venous stasis
b, d
35. Select the true statement(s): a. Forced ventilation caused by irritation of the breathing center results in increased pCO2 and so leads to respiratory acidosis b. In patients with chronic obstructive lung disorder the most frequently seen acid base alteration is respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation c. Hysteric hyperventilation cause no change in pCO2 d. Hyperventilation is a fast compensatory mechanism in metabolic acidosis
b, d
350.Charicteristic features of acute nephritic syndrome: a) Tubular acidosis b) Rapid onset of hematuria c) Edema at the lower extremities d) It follows streptococcus infection
b, d
37. In uremia there is a. Increased RBC population b. Decreased calcitriol synthesis c. Increased calcitriol synthesis d. Decreased erythropoietin synthesis
b, d
40) Produced in the anterior pituitary - GnRH - FSH - Oxytocin - ACTH
b, d
41) Which hormones have a common alpha chain in their structure ? - TRH - TSH - Thyroxin - HCG
b, d
69. what is NOT characeristic during prolonged sample storage a. Elavation of potassium b. Elavation of calcium c. Elavation of LDH d. Elavation of pH
b, d
71. when blood to be collected for lipid tests? a. morning before breakfast and after a coffee or tee b. minimum 12 hours after food intake c. minimum two weeks after finishing therapy with influence lipid metabolism d. minimum three months after myocardial infraction
b, d
75) ( Worth repeating) Parathormone - decreases phosphate excretion in the kidneys - increases phosphate excretion in the kidneys - decreases calcitiol formation in the kidneys -increases calcitriol formation in the kidneys
b, d
75. In alkaline urine can be seen: a. Amorphous urates b. Amorphous phosphate c. Rosettes from triple phosphate d. "coffin lid" from triple phosphate
b, d
82) Frequently seen symptoms in hypopituitarism - Decrease in insulin production - decrease in ACTH production - decrease of cholinesterase production - combined decrease of growth hormone and gonadotropic hormone production
b, d
85. What is(are) the effects of insulin? a. increases lipolysis b. increases cellular glucose uptake c. increases gluconeogenesis in the liver d. increases lipogenesis
b, d
86) Which protein binds thyroid hormones ? - Transferrin - TBG - TSH - Prealbumin
b, d
86. Pseudohyperkalaemia can be caused by: a. thrombocytopenia b. thrombocytosis c. Cushing syndrome d. Prolonged venous stasis
b, d
9) Wolff-Chaikoff effect - Lasts for approximately 2 months - Lasts for approximately 10 days - Increase in thyroid hormone levels by large amount of iodine - Reduction in thyroid hormone levels by large amount of iodine
b, d
91. which answer(s) is/are true a. The most serious form of the disorders of galactose metabolism is galactokinase deficiency b. The symptoms of galactose-1-P uridil transferase deficiency are present on breast fed neonates because the lactose is a disaccharide composed of glucose and galactose c. The deficiency of UDP galactose-4-epimerase wont result in clinical symptoms d. The deficiency of galactose-1-P-uridil transferase results in elavation of serum galactose and galactose -1-P.
b, d
99. What is (are) characteristic(s) of type 2 diabetes? a. always presents in children or young adults b. insulin resistance c. family history uncommon d. obesity
b, d
Anti-D antibodies: a. Are IgM b. Are IgG c. Temperature optimum is 20°C d. Temperature optimum is 37°C
b, d
Deficiency of which vitamin(s) cause(s) megaloblastic anemia? a. Ascorbic acid b. Folic acid c. Vitamin A d. Vitamin B12
b, d
Hemolytic disease of the newborn can be caused by the following antibody: a. Anti-A b. Anti-K c. Anti-B d. Anti-D
b, d
Indirect antiglobulin test: a. Detect antibodies bound to RBC surface b. Detect free antibodies in serum c. Is used in bedside ABO typing d. Is used in antibody screening and identification
b, d
Principle of cell counting and sizing in hematology analyzes a. Is based on the different heat stability of cells b. Is based on the detection of changes impedance c. Is based on the detection of the autofluorescence of cells d. Is based on the detection of scattered light from cells passing one by one in front of a laser beam
b, d
Rh system: a. antibodies are "cold" b. antigens are proteins c. antigens are carbohydrates d. antibodies can cross the placenta
b, d
What is thalassemia? a. Disease of the CNS b. Microcytic anemia c. Macrocytic anemia d. Decreases synthesis of one of the globin chains
b, d
Which of the following cause RBC membrane defect(s): a. Iron deficiency b. Hereditary spherocytosis c. B12 deficiency d. Hereditary elliptocytosis
b, d
Which of the following laboratory abnormality can be seen frequently in newborns? a. Hypermagnesaemia b. Hyperbilirubinaemia c. Hypercalcaemia d. Hypoglycaemia
b, d
Which statement is true for serum thyroglobulin concentration ? - is used for the follow-up of medullary thyroid carcinoma patients - it reflects thyroid tissue mass - it is the product of parafollicular C cells - used for follow-up of a patient with well-differentiated thyroid carcinoma
b, d
Which statement(s) is (are) true? a. The tissue storage of the drug elicits a biological response b. In the liver drug metabolites are formed c. In the kidney the protein bound drug is removed d. In the kidney free drug is removed
b, d
Wolff-Chaikoff effect - lasts for about 2 months - lasts for about 10 days - increase in thyroid hormone levels by administration of a large amount of iodine - reduction of thyroid hormone levels by a large amount of iodine
b, d
What is the correct answer? A.M3 has poor outcome B.M3 has a good outcome C. Therapy related myeloid neoplasm has a good outcome D. Therapy related myeloid neoplasm has a poor outcome
b, d (not sure)
Function of Duffy blood group? a. Laminin receptor b. Chemokine receptor c. KIDD d. Urea transporter e. Receptor for Plasmodium vivax
b, e
10. Which condition can cause neonatal purpura fulminant? a. Homozygous form of factor V leiden mutation b. Homozygous form of antithrombin III deficiency c. Homozygous form of protein C deficiency d. Homozygous occurrence of prothrombin 20210A allele
c
102. in which tissue homogenate can we measure the highest relative activity of the creatine kinase (CK. enzyme) a. Heart highest GOT b. Liver highest GPT c. Skeletal muscle d. Red blood cells highest LDH
c
104. True for glycated hemoglobin a. always changes in parallel with fasting blood glucose b. refers to mean blood glucose of the previous 2-3 weeks c. refers to mean blood glucose of the previous 6-8 weeks d. diagnostic test for ketoacidosis
c
107) Enzyme test in the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis - pseudocholinesterase - GOT - alpha-amylase -LDH
c
109. the cause of the disorder in the oxidation of very long chain fatty acids a. Defect of fatty acid oxidation in the mitochondria b. Absence of lyzosomal enzymes c. Peroxisomal disorder d. Absence of a cytoplasmic fatty acid oxidase
c
110. which is the most important and frequent clinical application of tumor markers a. screening b. diagnosis of tumors c. follow-up d. estimation of prognosis
c
111. the level of procalcitonin is raised in a. myocardial infarction b. leukemia c. sepsis d. decreased thyroid function
c
112. Characteristics of the type I hyperlipoproteinaemia: (combined 141) a. visual inspection of serum (after standing overnight at 4°C) shows turbidity while creamy supernatant on the surface of the serum is not present. b. very much increased serum LDL-cholesterol level c. in the lipoprotein electrophoresis intensive band can be seen at the origin d. lower serum triglyceride level
c
120. in which space is the drug distributed if the calculated volume distribution is the 4 liter? A, intracellular water B, extracellular water C, plasma water D, none
c
123. how many half lives have to elapse to achieve stead state concentration? A, 1 B, 2 C, 5 D, 10
c
123. which disease(s) can be screened by the serum calcitonin measurement (among the high risk induviduals) a. Familial papillary carcinoma of the thyroid gland b. Familial adenoma of the parathyroid gland c. Familial medullary carcinoma of the thyroid gland d. Familial phaeochromocytoma
c
130) What is the Zollinger- Ellison syndrome ? - achlorohydria - specific form of chronic pancreatitis - gastrin-secreting tumour in stomach , duodenum or pancreas -secretin-secreting tumour in stomach , duodenum or pancreas
c
132. after the chernobil nuclear power accident significant increase of_____________ was seen a. Malignant melanome b. Acute and chronic myeloid leukemias c. Childhood thyroid cancer d. Non-Hogkin's lymphomas
c
149. the iron transporting protein is a. Albumin b. Ceruloplasmin c. Transferrin d. Ferritin
c
155. If the Schilling test is negative both with labeled B12 and labeled 12 + IF you suspect a. Dietary problem b. Pernicious anemia c. Intestinal disease d. None
c
156. Which crystals of the urine sediment show an „envelope" like shape under the microscope? a. cystine b. triple phosphate (magnesium ammonium phosphate) c. calcium oxalate bihydrate d. uric acid
c
17. What is an LDH flip? a. LDH activity is higher than CK activity b. LDH-5 activity is higher than LDH-1 activity c. LDH-1 activity is higher than LDH-2 activity d. LDH-2 activity is higher than LDH-1 activity
c
170. The plasma level of which biochemical marker remain elevated longest after the onset of M.I: a. CK-MB b. Myoglobin c. Troponin - T d. LDH1
c
171. the most frequent RBC enzymopathy is cause by deficiency of : a. Glucose phosphorylase b. Glucose 6-phospatase c. Glucose 6-phospatase dehydrogenase d. Phosphogluconate dehydrogenase
c
178. If reference values show non-Gaussian distribution reference limits can be calculated: a. As: mean +/-2SD b. By cutting 2.5% of the values (events) from the upper and lower take of the distribution curve c. Using non-parametric methods d. Using parametric methods
c
18. The serum concentration of which tumor markers are used in the calculation of the ROMA score(%) a. CEA and CA 125 b. CEA and HE4 c. CA-125 and HE4 d. CA-125 and SCC
c
18. What is macro CK type 1? a. Complex of CK-MM with immunoglobulins b. Oligomeric mitochondrial CK c. Complex of CK-BB with immunoglobulins d. High molecular weight CK-M subunit due to mutation
c
187. characteristic(s) of type 2 diabetes a. always appears in young people b. appears in lean subject c. might be accompanied by high insulin values d. none
c
197. Which type of surgery can lead to postprandial hypoglycemia? a. Appendectomy b. Colectomy c. Gastrectomy d. None
c
2. FVII deficiency will result in a pathological a. Platelet count b. Bleeding time c. PT d. APTT
c
202. How much glucose should be administered to an adult patient during OGTT? a. 35 gramm b. 175 gramm c. 75 gramm d. OGTT is forbidden in adults
c
209. the plasma level of which biochemical marker remains elevated 6 days after the onset of myocardial infarction? a. CK-MB b. myoglobin c. troponin T (cTNT) d. GOT
c
21. Which laboratory method is suitable for monitoring the effectiveness of LMWH treatment? a. APTT b. Prothrombin time and calculated INR c. Anti- FXa assay d. Modified thrombin time
c
211. What is the internationally accepted form of reporting prothrombin time results? a. SI b. ISI c. INR d. Activity
c
215. Which crystals of the urine sediment show an „envelope" like shape under the microscope? a. cysteine b. tripel phosphate (magnesium ammonium phosphate) c. calcium oxalate bihydrate d. uric acid
c
22. The following is the primary regulator of oncotic pressure a. Sodium b. Potassium c. Albumin d. Glucose
c
24. Characteristics of primary hyperaldosteronism: a. Lower serum aldosterone level b. Hyperkalaemia c. Lower plasma renin levels d. Acidosis
c
25. Causes of enhanced renin secretion a. Increased tubular reabsorption b. Enhanced glomerular filtration c. Decreased renal blood flow d. Increased renal blood flow
c
257. Characteristic of type 2 diabetes: a. Appears in young age b. Appears in patients with lean body weight c. In many cases can be managed by diet alone d. Insulin treatment is always needed
c
261. Which test are pathological in hemophilia A: a. Bleeding time b. Platelet count c. APTT d. F XII activity
c
269. The following disease can lead to cataract formation: a. Fructose intolerance b. vonGierke disease c. galactosemia d. none
c
277. Characteristics of primary hyperaldosteronism: a. Lower serum aldosterone level b. Hyperkalemia c. Lower serum renin levels d. Acidosis
c
277. Thienopyridines (e.g clopidogrel) a. Inhibit platelet adhesion b. Inhibit the thrombin receptor irreversibly c. Their active metabolite inhibits the ADP receptor irreversibly d. Their active metabolite inhibits the fibrinogen receptor recersibly
c
28. CSF in a healthy patient is: a. Xanthochrome (yellow) b. Bloody c. Coloreless d. Opalescent (turbid)
c
29. Which measurement(s) can not be preformed with POCT technique? a. Glucose b. Triglyceride c. Homocysteine d. Cholesterol
c
306. Mark the statement (s) which is/are true for pathological autoantibodies: a. All pathological autoantibodies are pathogenic b. All pathological autoantibodies belong to the IgG class c. Binding between the antigen and the antibody is strong in general d. Pathological autoantibodies are polereactive, low affinity antibodies
c
307. Which of the following coagulation is (are) X linxed? A. FV deficiency B. FVII deficiency C. FIX deficiency D. FXI deficiency
c
308. Which screening test is (are) prolonged in hemophilia A? A. Bleeding time B. PT C. APTT D. TT
c
31. SI unit of enzyme activity: a. Katal=mmol/ms b. Katal=micromole/ms c. Katal=mol/s d. Katal=mmol/s
c
310. The SIADH syndrome cause(s): a. Predominant excess of sodium b. Predominant sodium depletion c. Predominant excess of water d. Secondary aldosteronism
c
328. Cause/s of enhanced renin secretion: a. impaired glomerular filtration b. enhanced glomerular filtration c. Decrease renal blood flow d. Increase renal blood flow
c
331. Cause/s of enhanced renin secretion: a. impaired glomerular filtration b. enhanced glomerular filtration c. Decrease renal blood flow d. Increase renal blood flow
c
35. Which type of tumor has the highest number of small genetic alterations in it genome a. pediatric retinoblastoma b. chronic lymphocytic leukemia c. Lung cancer d. prostate cancer
c
36. What is the definition of "sample transfer turn- around- time (TAT)"? (practical pg 85) a. Time between requesting analysis and transferring result to HIS b. Time between the sample's arrival in lab and transferring result to HIS c. Time between blood drawing and sample's arrival in lab d. Time between sample request and blood drawing
c
4) Which tests are used for screening for congenital hyperthyroidism? - fT4 - fT3 - TSH - TRH stimulation test
c
44) When can we detect very high serum TSH concentration ? - In primary hyperthyroidism - In secondary hypothyroidism - In primary hypothyroidism - In the acute phase of a severe , non-thyroid illness
c
44. The cause of the disorder in the oxidation of very long chain fatty acids a. Defect of fatty acid oxidiation in the mitochondria b. Abscence of lysosomal enzymes c. Peroxisomal disorder d. abscence of a cytoplasmic fatty acid odidase
c
46) What is the TRH releasing test ? - measures TRH secreting capacity of the hypothalamus - measures TRH secreting capacity of hypophysis - measures TSH secreting capacity of hypophysis after the administration of TRH - measures the TRH secreting capacity of thy hypophysis after administration of TSH
c
50. The SIADH syndrome cause(s): a. Predominant excess of sodium b. Predominant sodium depletion c. Predominant excess of water d. Secondary aldosteronism
c
56) The enzyme responsible for the formation of active , dihydrotestosterone -21-hydroxylase - 11-hydroxylase - 5a-reductase - none
c
63. Reference interval a. Includes all normal values b. Includes all pathological values c. Includes the middle 95% of the reference population d. Mean of normal population, plus-minus SD.
c
67. Precision of laboratory tests: a. Difference of two parallel determinations b. Deviation from the true value c. Measure of reproducibility, assessed by repeated analysis of the same sample and expressed as CV% d. Measure of reproducibility assessed by repeated analysis of the same samlpe and expressed as 2SD.
c
7. Which test is positive only in primary hyperfibrinolysis? a. D- dimer b. TAT complex c. FDP d. Fibrin monomer
c
72. Labratory test of measuring low molecular weight heparin therapy a. APTT b. Thrombin time c. Activated factor X inhibition test (anti FXa assay) d. INR
c
73) Characteristic lab findings in secondary hypogonadism - high FSH/LH ,high estrogen - low FSH/LH , high estrogen - low FSH/LH , low estrogen - high FSH/LH , low estrogen
c
73. Membrane surface proteins participating in the firm adhesion of leukocytes to endothelial cells a. Cytokines b. Chemokines c. Integrins d. Selectins
c
75. Which tests are pathological in haemophilia A? a. Bleeding time b. Platelet count c. APTT d. Factor XII activity
c
79. Which drugs interferes with folate metabolism? a. Digoxin b. Theophylline c. Methotrexate d. None
c
8. What kind of laboratory method is used in the newborn screening program of aminoaciduria? a. ELISA b. Immuno stry c. Mass spectrometry d. Molecular genetic testing
c
84. Which type of surgery can lead to postprandial hypoglycemia? a. appendectomy b. colectomy c. gastrectomy d. none
c
87. In most of the cases of paraproteinaemia the following changes are charecteristic for the electrophoretic patteren of plasma proteins a. The albumin fraction is greatly elevated b. The alfa-1-globulin fraction is greatly elavated c. In the gamma-globulin region an intensive and sharp monoclonal band is visible d. In the gamma globulin region there is a diffuse increase of gamma globulins
c
89. How much glucose should be administered to an adult patient during OGTT? a. 35 gram b. 175 gram c. 75 gram d. OGTT is forbidden in adults
c
96. the laboratory dignosis of CF a. The sweat lost is useful in the prenatal diagnosis b. All mutations of the CFTR can be detected with DNA analysis c. The measurement of immunoreactive trypsinogen may be informative d. The detection of elevated Cl concentration can be performer by the Guthrie-test
c
96. which statement is true for von Willebrand's disease? A, prothrombin time is usually prolonged B, thrombin time is usually prolonged C, bleeding time is usually prolonged D, platelet count is usually prolonged
c
ABO system: a. Antibodies are "warm" b. Antigens are proteins. c. Antigens are carbohydrates d. Antibodies belong to IgG class
c
How long can store RBC concentrate? a. 1 Year B. 1 week C. 5 week D. 10 week
c
How many-fold is the risk for venous thrombosis increased in homozygous factor V Leiden mutation? a. It is not increased b. 8-fold c. 80-fold d. 800-fold
c
Hypersegmented granulocyte is: a. neutrophil granulocyte with a nucleus containing 3-5 segments b. eosinophil granulocyte with a nucleus containing 1-2 segments c. neutrophil granulocyte with a nucleus containing more than 5 segments d. neutrophil granulocyte with a nucleus containing more than 3 segments
c
In the bed-side test agglutination occurs with anti-A and anti-AB antibodies, while with anti-B and in the autocontrol no agglutination develops. What is the blood type of the patient? a. B b. AB c. A d. O
c
In which space is the drug distributed if the calculated volume of distribution is the 3-4 liter? a. Intracellular water b. Extracellular water c. Plasma water d. None
c
Kidd blood group antigens: a. have no function b. are ion transporters c. are urea transporters d. are laminin receptors
c
Myeloblasts are commonly observed in which of the following Leukemias? a. HCL b. CLL c. AML d. ALL
c
Pas positivity is in the following case: A. AML B. CML C. Pure erythroid leukaemia D. Myeloma
c
The iron transporting protein is: a. Albumin b. Ceruloplasmin c. Transferrin d. Ferritin
c
Thienopyrinines (e.g. Clodiogrel) a. inhibit platelet adhesion b. inhibit the thrombin receptor irreversibly c. their active metabolism inhibits the ADP receptor irreversibly d. their active metabolite inhibits the ADP receptor reversibly
c
What can be the explanation if a Rh(D) negative mother and a Rh(D) positive father have got a Rh(D) negative child? a. It is impossible b. The baby's Rh phenotype can not be determined c. Father is heterozygous for D (D/d) d. Both parents are homozygous for D (D/D)
c
What does RDW mean? a. Refers to the hemoglobin content of red blood cells b. White cell distribution width c. Red cell distribution width d. Refers to the stain-binding capacity of white blood cells
c
What is the international acceptable method for reporting prothrombin time test in the case of cumarintherapy: a. SI b. ISI c. INR d. Activity
c
What is the reverse grouping test? a. This test can be used to detect rare, irregular antibodies b. The serological reaction with anti-B c. The test to detect ABO antibodies in serum or plasma d. The simple method for looking for maternal-infant blodd group incompatibility
c
Which blood product is used in the case of prolonged PT and APTT? a. Platelet b. RBC mass c. FFP (Fresh Frozen Plasma) d. None
c
Which chromosome aberration results in bcr/abl transcript formation? a. 8/21 b. 15/17 c. 9/22 d. inv 16
c
Which condition causes neonatal purpura fulminant? a. homozygous form of factor 5 Leiden mutation b. homozygous form of antithrombin 3 deficiency c. homozygous form of protein C deficiency d. gomozygous occurance of prothrombin 20210A allel
c
Which cytochemical reaction(s) is (are) used in leukemia diagnosis? a. non specific esterase b. polymethine c. sudan d. oxazine 750
c
Which dye stains the nuclei in the May-Grunwald giesma staining method? a. Hematoxylin b. Eosin c. Methylene blue d. Prussian blue
c
Which of the coagulopathies are X linked a. F V b. F. VII c. F. IX d. F. XI
c
Which of the following is (are) characteristic feature(s) of CML? a. Gumprecth shadows in smear b. High GAPA score c. Low GAPA score d. Exclusively Myeloblasts in smear
c
Which one of the following allelic pairs does not belong to the Rh blood group system? a. D/d b. E/e c. I/i d. C/c
c
Which statement is true for von Willebrand's disease? a. Prothrombin time is usually prolonged b. Thrombin time is usually prolonged c. Bleeding time is usually prolonged d. Platelet count is usually decreased
c
the level of which protein decrases significantly during pregnancy? a. factor 8 b. protein C c. protein S d. fibrinogen
c
1. Which tests are pathological in hemophilia A? a. Bleeding time b. Platelet count c. APTT d. Factor VIII activity
c, d
101) Characteristic feature of osteoporosis - extremely high AP activity - highest incidence between 40-50 years of age - postmenopausal form is characterized by low estrogen levels - serum calcium and phosphate concentration remain in the reference range
c, d
11) Tumor-associated hypercalcemias are caused by - vitamin D overproduction - increased parathyroid hormone release - parathyroid hormone-related peptide release - bone metastases
c, d
11. Absence of von Willebrand factor or abnormal von Willebrand can cause: a. Platelet secretion defect b. Defect of platelet procoagulant activity c. Decreased plasma level of blood coagulation factor VIII d. Platelet adhesion defect
c, d
11. In order to identify the rise risk factors of atherosclerosis laboratory diagnostics is mandatory in individuals who have a. Myocardial infarction below 80 years of age b. Xanthomas c. Diabetes mellitus d. Hypertension
c, d
112. the DNA sequencing is: a. A screening method b. A cheap mutaion detection method c. Can detect all small-scale mutation d. A method that characterizes every mutation
c, d
113. Isoosmolar volume depletion may occur in: A, conn syndrome (primary hyperaldosteronism) B, Addison's disease C, profuse vomitus D, paralytic ileus
c, d
12) Which statements are true? - Serum alkaline phosphatase and GGT are elevated in hemolytic icterus - GOT and GPT are elevated in posthepatic icterus - serum GPT(ALT) is elevated in hepatocellular destruction - GOT(AST) in the hepatic cells can be found both in the cytosol and in mitochondria In hemolytic or pre-hepatic jaundice enzyme levels are normal
c, d
122. Characteristic(s) of type 2 diabetes: a. always appears at young age b. appears in patients with lean body weight c. mostly appears in obese, middle aged or elderly patients d. onset is usually slow
c, d
122. the following statements are characteristic features of the paraneoplastic syndromes (PS) a. PS can be present in 40-50% of tumors b. PS is relatively frequently associated with lung tumors c. Recognition of PS alerts to a new diagnosis of cancer d. PS may cause severe symptoms requring special palliative therapy
c, d
135 ) Catecholamine producing organs - Kidney - Liver - Adrenal medulla - Brain
c, d
14. Characteristic(s) of the kinetic Jaffe reaction used for the measurement of serum creatinine concentration: a. A blue product is formed in alkaline solution by the addition of phenol and hypochlorite b. The key enzyme of the reaction is creatinine aminohydrolase c. Creatinine in alkaline solution gives an orange condensation product with picric acid d. During the reaction the change in absorbance from 30 seconds to two minutes is mainly caused by creatinine and not by the other disturbing serum components
c, d
17. In which conditions from the followings the diagnosis of antiphospholipid syndrome can be established? a. The patient has increased anticardiolipin IgM concentration measure 5 days after an episode of deep venous thrombosis b. The patient, who suffered deep venous thrombosis one year before, has lupus anticoagulant detected three times from three independent samples within a month. c. The patient, who has four consecutive unexplained miscarriages in her case history, has lupus anticoagulant detected in two independent samples 12 weeks apart. d. The patient, who suffered myocardial infraction one year before, has increased anticardiolipin IgG concentration measured in two independent samples 4 months apart
c, d
172. proteins located in the beta-globulin band during protein electrophoresis a. IgG b. Haptoglobin c. Transferrin d. Complement components
c, d
173. Characteristic features of cholesterol molecule: a. It consist of glycerol esterified with three long chain fatty acid b. Chylomicrons contains the largest amount of it from the lipoproteins c. It can inhibit the HMG-COA reductase enzyme intracellularly d. It is a precursor of bile acids
c, d
177. Characteristics features of urothelium cells in urine sediment: a. They are large (50-60 micrometer) polygonal cells b. They originated from the proximal segment of the tubules c. Sometimes the can be bi- or multinucleated d. Their average size is larger than the average size of the leukocytes in urine sediment
c, d
200. Characteristic(s) of type 2 diabetes: a. always appears at young age b. appers in patients with lean body weight c. mostly appears in obese, middle aged orelderly patients d. onset is usually slow
c, d
201. Fasting blood glucose level(s) that prove(s) diabetes: a. 4.8 mmol/L b. 6.9 mmol/L c. 8 mmol/L d. 15 mmol/L
c, d
240. In which tissue(s) is CK-BB present? a. Cardiac muscle b. Skeletal muscle c. Smooth muscle d. Brain
c, d
25. What is/are characteristic for the Lesch-Nyhan syndrome? a. Xantin oxidase deficiency b. Hypouricemia c. HGPRT deficiency d. Hyperuricemia
c, d
276. Aspirin: a. Causes platelet storage-pool disease b. Inhibits fibrinogen receptors irreversibly c. Inhibits cycloocygenase irreversibly d. Inhibits thromboxane A2 production from arachidonic acid
c, d
365. in case of disseminated intravascular coagulopathy thrombin time prolongation is caused by: a) FXII deficiency b) Plasminogen deficiency c) Hypofibrinogenaemia d) Elvation of fibrin degradation protein level
c, d
45)Which statements are true ? - Reverse T3 is biologically more potent than fT3 - fT4 is biologically more potent than fT3 - fT4 is biologically more effective than reverse T3 - fT3 is biologically more effective than fT4
c, d
46. The most important tumor markers of germ cell tumors: a. SCC b. CA125 c. AFP d. hCG
c, d
47. The following statements are characteristics for the Tumor lysis syndrome a. usually associated with hypokalaemia b. usually associated with hypercalcaemia c. may be associated with symptoms of cardiac arrhythmias or tetany d. massive cell lysis induced by chemotherapy
c, d
51) True statements - Pheochromocytoma is never associated with other diseases - Pheochromocytoma is always associated with Cushing syndrome - Pheochromocytoma can be associated with MEN syndrome - Pheochromocytoma can be associated with neurofibromatosis ( Recklinghausen syndrome)
c, d
53) Preparation of the patients before sample collection for pheochromocytoma diagnostics includes - Decreased fluid intake a few days before sample collection - 1 day complete starvation - Avoidance of certain foods ( chocolate , banana) at least 3 days before sample collection - Avoidance of drugs interfering with catecholamine metabolism/determination at least 8 days before sample collection
c, d
57. laboratory alteration detected during attacks in periodic paralysis a. Hyponatremia b. hypernatremia c. hypokalemia d. hyperkalemia
c, d
66)Dystrophin - its C-terminus binds to actin - has two transmembrane domains - has at least seven tissue-specific isoforms - its gene is one of the largest known human genes
c, d
67) Muscular dystrophies - are rare genetic diseases - inheritance is always X-linked - have frequently overlapping phenotypes - are diverse group of diseases characterized by progressive muscle weakness
c, d
70) Markers of bone resorption - osteocalcin -alkaline phosphatase - tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase - C-and-N telopeptide crosslaps
c, d
70)Which cytochemical reactions are used in the leukemia diagnosis ? - Polymethine - Oxazine - Sudan ( AML and ALL) - Non-specific esterase
c, d
74. Role of opsonins a. Tissue destruction b. A subtype of cytokines c. Cover the surface of particles to be phagocytosed d. Promote the attachment of particles to the surface of phagocytes
c, d
82. the most important screening tests for metabolic disorders a. GC/MS b. HPLC c. Thin layer chromatography d. Guthrie microbiological test
c, d
88. Fasting blood glucose level(s) that prove(s) diabetes: (Combined 98) a. 4.8 mmol/L b. 6.9 mmol/L c. 8 mmol/L d. 15mmol/L
c, d
99)Laboratory alterations detected during attacks in periodic paralysis -hyponatremia -hypernatremia - hypokalemia -hyperkalemia
c, d
Absence of von Willebrand factor or abnormal von Willebrand can cause: a. Platelet secretion defect b. Defect of platelet procoagulant activity c. Decrease of the plasma level of blood coagulation factor VIII d. Platelet adhesion defect
c, d
Causes of secondary hyperaldosteronism - Conn syndrome - adrenal adenoma - Renin-secreting tumours - nephrosis syndrome
c, d
Common causes of acute pancreatitis - brain tumor - hypernatremia - ethanol abuse - gallstones
c, d
In which tissue is CK-BB present: a. Cardiac muscle b. Skeletal muscle c. Smooth muscle d. Brain
c, d
The DNA sequencing is: a. A screening method b. A cheap mutation detection method c. Can detect all small-scale mutations d. A method that characterizes every mutation
c, d
Which are true ? - Serum alkaline phosphatase and GGT are elevated in hemolytic icterus - GOT and GPT are elevated in posthepatic icterus - serum GPT is elevated in hepatocellular destruction - GOT in hepatocytes can be found both in cytosol and mitochondria
c, d
Which autoantibodies are used in the diagnostics of autoimmune hepatitis type 2 - anti-transglutaminase antibodies - anti-islet cell antibodies - anti-Liver cytosol 1 ( LC1) antibodies - anti-liver-kidney microsome 1 (LKM1) antibodies
c, d
Which cytochemical reaction(s) is (are) positive in AML M2? a. PAS b. Prussian blue c. Sudan d. Myeloperoxidase
c, d
Which test is able to differentiate between primary biliary cirrhosis/cholangitis versus primary sclerosing cholangitis ? - anti-transglutaminase autoantibodies - anti-adrenal cortex autoantibodies - Endoscopic retrograde cholangio-pancreatography ( ERCP) -anti-mitochondrial autoantibodies ( AMA)
c, d
Which tests reflect impaired synthetic function of the liver ? - elevated serum albumin - increased serum pseudocholinesterase activity - decreased level of clotting factors -decreased serum pseudocholinesterase activity
c, d
aspirin: a. causes platelet storage-pool disease b. inhibits fibrinogen receptor irreversibly c. inhibits cyclooxygenase irreversibly d. inhibits thromboxane A2 production form arachidonic acid
c, d
in untreated Cooley's anemia: a. Hemoglobin 120-140 g/L b. MCV 80-100 fL c. Hemoglobin 40-50 g/L d. MCV 50-60 fL
c, d
140) Crigler-Najjar syndrome - impaired hepatic bilibubin uptake - impaired hepatic bilirubin excretion - impaired hepatic bilirubin conjugation - severe conjugated bilirubinemia ensues - severe unconjugated bilirubinemia ensues
c, e
what is the maximum frequency if one donate whole blood? a. once a year b. 2 times a year c. 4 times a year d. 6 times a year
c? (men 5, women 3)
101) Which sample type is acceptable for total protein determination - serum after having a meal - citrated plasma - heparin or EDTA plasma -serum without hemolysis and lipemia
d
104) What is the first line test for evaluation of thyroid function - Reverse T3 - T4 -fT4 - TSH
d
106. which proteins belong to the group of negative acute phase proteins a. CRP b. Haptoglobin c. Fribrinogen d. Transferrin
d
121. during metastasis formation the downregulation of which adhesion molecule play a key role in deattachment of tumor cells from each other (in „loosening" up) a. L-selectin b. P-selectin c. ICAM-1 d. E-cadherin
d
121. which drug effect can be monitored based on the biological response? A, theophylline B, digoxin C, carbamazepine D, antihypertensive
d
129) What is the diagnostic application of the C13 urea breath test ? - test for measurement of glomerular filtration - test of tubular function - a test for detection of E Coli infection in the GI tract - a test for detection of Helicobacter pylori infection
d
146. Which hyperlipoproteinemia's (WHO classification) characteristic feature is the appearance of a broad-beta band on the electrophoretogram? a. Type I b. Type IIa c. Type IIb d. Type III
d
15) Hypomagnesemia might develop -After stroke - After myocardial damage - In diabetic ketoacidosis - In case of diarrhea or malasorption
d
15. The most frequent genetic cause of activated protein C resistance is: a. Prothrombin 20210 polymorphism b. Mutation of protein C c. Mutation of protein S d. Leiden mutation of factor V
d
157. Which is the most frequently used and most suitable urine sample type for urine sediment analysis? a. suprapubical aspiration specimen b. catheter specimen c. urostomy specimen d. first morning urine, mid-stream specimen
d
158. in sideroblastic anemia we can see a. Jolly bodies b. Increased LDH c. Normal serum ferritin level d. Ringed sideroblasts in the bone marrow
d
16. Which hormone has the major role in the development of paraneoplastic thrombocytosis? a. Calcitonin b. Erythropoietin c. G-CSF d. Thrombopoietin
d
162. In untreated cooleys anemia a. Hgb 120-140 g/L b. MCV 80-100fL c. Hbg 40-50 g/L d. MCV 50-60 fL
d
17) Causes of prothrombin time prolongation in gallbladder diseases( gallstones) - Hemophilia A - Hemophilia B - Impaired synthetic function of the liver - Vitamin K deficiency due to inadequate bile flow
d
174. In colorectal cancer type of genetic alteration present in the highest number per tumor a. Chromosomal inversion b. Gene amplification c. Small deletion d. Point mutation
d
191. At the following K value there is an immediate danger of cardiac arrest: a. 5.5 nunolft b. 6.5 mmol/L c. 7.5 mmol/L d. 10 mmol/L
d
191. Probably OGTT (glucose tolerance test) a. 3.5 mmol/L b. 6.5 mmol/L c. 8.5 mmol/L d. none
d
20. Which result reflects a healthy adult hemoglobin ratio? a. HbA2: 2.0%, HbF: 4% b. HbA2: 6.0%, HbF: 1% c. HbA2: 8.0%, HbF: 4% d. HbA2: 2.0%, HbF: 0.8%
d
237. False CK enzyme activity is obtained in the following case(s): a. In case of extreme hyperlipidemia b. Hemolytic sample c. If the blood sample is contaminated by Na/K infusion d. None of them
d
24) Serum calcium - Nearly all is in complex - Nearly all is in its free , non-bound form - Nearly all is protein-bound - Approximately half of it is free , non-bound
d
240. Laboratory finding(s) in secondary aldosteronism: a. Hypernatraemia b. Hyperkalaemia c. increased urinary Na d. normonatremia or mild hyponatremia
d
259. In case of normal renal function, glycosuria appears at the following blood glucose values: a. 3,5 mmol/L b. 6.5 mmol/L c. 8.5 mmol/L d. 11.1 mmol/L (?) none
d
266. What test(s) is/are abnormal in the case of FVIII deficiency? a. Prothrombin time b. Thrombin time c. Bleeding time d. None
d
273. At the following K value there is an immediate danger of cardiac arrest: a. 5.5 mmol/L b. 6.5 mmol/L c. 7.5 mmol/L d. None
d
28) Which enzyme level is elevated significantly 1 hour after the onset of acute pancreatitis ? - Serum amylase - Serum lipase - Urine amylase - None
d
28. Therapeutic approaches used in the treatment of hypokalaemia: (lecture: disorders of potassium metabolism) a. Intravenous Ca-gluconate b. Glucose + insulin c. Ion- exchange resins d. Oral or intravenous K supplementation
d
29. what can cause hyperkalemia? (lecture: disorders of potassium metabolism) a. Alkalosis b. Hyperaldosteronism c. Renal tubular acidosis I d. Acute renal failure
d
3) Which hormone is produced in the liver upon stimulation by GH , that is responsible for the peripheral effects of GH? - Somatostatin - Somatropic hormone - Somatolysin - Somatomedin-C ( IGF-1)
d
30. The following state(s) is (are) true concerning compartmentalization of circulating plasma calcium: a. 47% is found in complex with anions b. at least 90% is found as free ions c. the level of protein bound is less than 10% d. homeostatic mechanism regulates unbound free ion concentration
d
301. What can cause hyperkalemia? a. Alkalosis b. Hyperaldosteronism c. Renal tubular acidosis type I d. Acute renal failure
d
311. Which is the most prevalent inherited thrombophilia in Europe? A. ATIII deficiency B. PC deficiency C. PS deficiency D. Factor V Leiden
d
38) Laboratory sign of primary hyperaldosteronism - Hyperkalemia - Hyponatremia - Decreased potassium secretion in urine - Increased potassium secretion in urine
d
4. The following list shows the lipoproteins in an order of increasing size: a. Chylomicron<HDL<LDL<VLDL b. LDL<HDL<VLDL<chylomicron c. LDL<HDL<chylomicron<VLDL d. HDL<LDL<VLDL<chylomicron
d
4. What test(s) is (are) abnormal in the case of FXIII deficiency? a. Prothrombin time b. Thrombin time c. Bleeding time d. None
d
44. Laboratory sign of hyperaldosteronism a. Hyperkalemia b. Hyponatremia c. Decrease potassium secretion d. Enhance potassium secretion
d
49) In secondary hyperparathyroidism - is never associated with osteomalacia or rickets - is always associated with osteomalacia or rickets - serum calcium is elevated - serum calcium is generally decreased
d
49. The most important enzymes responsible for the developement of PKU a. dihydropteridine reductase b. tyrosine aminotransferase c. Phenylalanine aminotransferase d. Phenylalanine hydroxylase
d
51. At the following K value there is an immediate danger of cardiac arrest: a. 3.5 mmol/L b. 6.5 mmol/L c. 7.5 mmol/L d. None
d
54) Which part of the adrenal gland produces and secretes the androgens ? - adrenal medulla - zona glomerulosa - zona fasciculata - zona reticularis
d
60) Which measurement cannot be performed with POCT technique ? - glucose - triglyceride - cholesterol - homocysteine
d
64. Specificity of laboratory tests: a. Number of true positive cases devided by the number of all cases with disease (TP + FP)x 100 b. Number of TP cases devided by the number of all positive ( TP + FP) cases x 100 c. The sum of the TP and the TN cases divided by the total number of tests x 100 d. Number of TN cases divided by the number of all cases without disease (FP + TN) x 100
d
66. The meaning of the formula below: (TP + TN / total # of tests. x 100 a. Diagnostic specificity b. Diagnostic sensitivity c. Predictive value for negative results d. Diagnostic efficiency
d
67)What does weak D mean ? - A new blood group system - Anti-D antibodies - The normal D antigen bears several epitopes and the patient D antigen does not contain all of the epitopes - All epitopes are present on RBC ,however , the number of D antigen is reduced , and for this reason erythrocytes react less strongly than RBCs with normal number of antigens
d
7. Which ketone bodi(es) can be detected in the urine with the Na-nitroprussid reaction? a. Only acetone b. Only acetoacetate c. -hydroxy-butirate d. Acetone and acetoacetate
d
70. Aspirin a. Cause platelet storage pool disease b. Inhibit fibrinogen receptor irreversibly c. Inhibit ADP receptor irreversibly d. Inhibit thromboxane A2 production from arachidonic acid
d
70. when do you indicate ApoE genotyping? a. In case of cholesterol and triglycerol levels are above risk limit and the sera is clear visually b. in case of cholesterol and triglycerol levels are above risk limit and the sera is clear or slightly turbid visually-with chylomicron layer on top c. in case of cholesterol and triaglycerol levels are above risk limit and the sera is clear or slightly turbid visually, with chylomicron layer on top, and electrophoresis shows a beta nan pre-beta bands d. in case of cholesterol and triaglycerol levels are above risk limit and the sera is clear or slightly turbid visually, with chylomicron layer on top, and electrophoresis shows a broad band instead of beta and pre-beta.
d
70. which depicts the negative predictive value a. TP/ (FP + TP ) b. TP/ (FN + TP) c. TN/ (FP + TN) d. TN/ (FN + TN)
d
78. Charecteristics for lupus anticoagulant a. Usually prolonged thrombin time b. Usually prolonged bleeding time c. Antibody against clotting factor d. Prolonged phospholipid dependent clotting time assays, like APTT
d
8) Jod Basedow phenomenon - Iodine-induced hypothyroidism in patients with who have underlying thyroid abnormality - Calcium-induced hyperthyroidism in patients who have underlying thyroid abnormality - Iodine-induced hypothyroidism in patients who have no thyroid abnormality - Iodine-induced hyperthyroidism in patients who have underlying thyroid abnormality
d
8. 14% HbA1c value means: a. This value is in the reference range b. This value is below the reference range, it means severe hypoglycemia c. This value is slightly above the reference range, with accepted metabolic control of the diabetic patient d. Uncompensated diabetes, very bad metabolic control
d
83) The cause of hyperphosphatemia may be - hyperparathyroidism - vitamin D deficiency - liver disease - diabetic ketoacidosis
d
85) What is the difference between TTP and HUS? - Hemolytic anemia is present only in HUS - Thrombocytopenia is present only in TTP - TTP patients do not present neurological symptoms - HUS patients do not present neurological symptoms
d
89) The following are true regarding compartmentalization of circulating plasma calcium - the level of protein-bound calcium is less than 10% - at least 90% is found as free circulating ions - 47% is found in complex with anions - homeostatic mechanisms regulated unbound free ion concentration The
d
9. Which enzyme is deficient in alkaptonuria? a. Phenylananine hydroxylase b. Methylene reductase c. Arginosuccinate lyase d. Hemogentisic acid oxidase
d
95) A normal value is obtained in the xylose absorption test in the following conditions -Intestinal malabsorption -Celiac disease - Crohn disease - Pancreatic disease
d
97) Laboratory changes during normal pregnancy - elevated urea -elevated albumin - decreased alkaline phosphatase - decreased glucose tolerance
d
98) Characteristics of creatine kinase activity in the serum during the course of Duchenne muscular dystrophy - low level at the beginning , later activity becomes high - equally high CK activity throughout the course of the disease - CK activity is not increased in the disease -extremely high activity at the beginning of the disease , later when muscle mass decreases , gradually decreasing activity can be detected
d
ALL L2 is having the following morphology a. Small uniform lymphocytes b. Large lymphocytes without nucleoli c. Large lymphocytes with vacuoles d. Large, heterogeneous sized lymphocytes with nucleoli
d
Anti D antibodies a. Are present in all Rh negative individual b. Are present in all Rh positive individual c. Temperature optimum is 20C d. Temperature optimum is 37C
d
Antibodies against antigens of the ABO system: a. Are detectable in newborns only b. Are detectable in patients only after incompatible infusion c. Are always detectable with enzymated cells only d. Are not exclusively detectable in patient after transfusion, the regular antibodies of this blood group system are so called natural antibodies and follow the rule of Landsteiner
d
Auer-rods are characteristics features in the leukemia a. ALL (L2) b. AML(M0) c. CLL d. Acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL)
d
Causes of prothrombin time prolongation in gallbladder diseases (gallstones) - hemophilia A - hemophilia B - impaired synthetic function of the liver - vitamin K deficiency due to inadequate bile flow
d
Characteristics of lupus anticoagulant a. Prolonged PT time b. Prolonged bleeding time c. Antibody against Clotting factor d. Prolonged phospholipid dependent clotting time
d
Deficiency of which vitamin(s) causes(s) prothrombin time (PT) prolongation? a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin b c. Vitamin C d. Vitamin K
d
Gumprecth-shadows are characteristic features of the peripheral smear in: a. ALL (L1) b. CML c. AML (M4) d. CLL
d
If the mother is group B (genotype BO) and the father is group A (genotype AO) what are the possible ABO genotypes of their children? a. Only AB b. Only BO c. Only AO d. AB, AO, BO or OO
d
Sickle cell characteristics: a. result in Hemochromatosis b. main cause is folic acid and B12 defficiency c. life span is 150 days d. life span is shorter than normal in the circulation
d
The concentration of what immunoglobulin isotype is elevated dominantly in primary biliary cirrhosis/cholangitis ? - IgA - IgE - IgG -IgM
d
The myelomonocytic leukemia is: a. AML M1 b. AML M2 c. AML M3 d. AML M4
d
Tubes with sodium-flouride content (gray stopper) are used for: a. Hemostasis tests b. Hematology tests c. Blood culture tests d. Glucose determination
d
What is detected by brilliant-cresyl-blue in the reticulocyte? Remnants of: a. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum b. DNA c. Nucleus d. Residual RNA
d
What is the largest leukocyte in the peripheral smear? a. Neutrophil granulocyte b. Eosinophil granulocyte c. Basophil granulocyte d. Monocyte
d
Which drug effect can be monitored based on the biological response? a. Theophylline b. Digoxin c. Carbamazepine d. Antihypertensive
d
Which is the blood group where the greatest amount of H-antigen is found on red blood cells? a. AB blood group b. B blood group c. A blood group d. O blood group
d
Which of the following blood group is absorbed in h.pylori? a. Kidd b. duffy c. lutheran d. Lewis
d
Which of the following blood groups is absorbed on red blood cell by passive diffusion? a. Kidd b. Duffy c. Lutheran d. Lewis
d
Which sample is used for hemostasis tests: a.Native blood (without anticoagulant) b.Blood anticoagulated with heparin c.Blood anticoagulated with EDTA d.Blood anticoagulated with Na-Citrate
d
Which semiquantitave cytochemical reaction is informative in CML? a. PAS b. Sudan black c. NSE d. GAPA
d
which phenotype is characteristic for lymphoblasts? a. CD33/CD13 b. CD33/CD34 c. CD19/CD34 d. CD5/CD20
d
which result reflects a healthy adult's hemoglobin ration? a. HbA2 2.0% HbF 4% b. HbA2 6.0% HbF 1% c. HbA2 8.0% HbF 4% d. HbA2 2.0% HbF 0.8%
d
Antibodies against antigens of the ABO system: a. Are always detectable in newborns only b. Are detectable in patients only after incomplete transfusion c. Are always detectable in one-year old babies d. Are not exclusively detectable in patients after transfusion, the regular antibodies of this blood group system are so called natural antibodies and follow the rule of Landsteiner
d (maybe also c)
125. which of the following genes play important role in the development and progression of colorectal cancer a. ERBB-1 b. P53 c. KRAS d. APC
d (maybe b and c)
216. Which is the most frequently used and most suitable urine sample type for urine sediment analysis? a. suprapubical aspiration specimen b. catheter specimen c. urostomy specimen d. first morning urine, mid-stream specimen
d (not sure)