CLS review questions Hubbard
Eikenella corrodens is a small, Gram-negative coccobacillus that is catalase and indole negative, oxidase positive, and has a characteristic bleach odor. It is normal oral flora and associated with human bite wounds. What is characteristic about the colonial morphology of this bacterium?
Colonies corrode or pit the agar
A genetic disorder causing a deficiency of certain enzymes in the synthetic pathways leading to cortisol and aldosterone production is referred to as:
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
In accordance with the atmospheric requirements of bacteria, which type of bacteria can grow aerobically and anaerobically (exponential growth?)
Facultative anaerobes
A temperature rise of 1C or more in association with a transfusion is usually indicative of which of the following transfusion reactions?
Febrile
The acute-phase protein primarily responsible for an increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is:
Fibrinogen
Which dimorphic fungus produces characteristic tuberculate macroconidia at 25C to 30C and small, single-budding yeast cells at 37C.
Histoplasma capsulatum
The use of phenylethyl alcohol (PEA) sheep blood agar is helpful in anaerobic culturing because PEA:
Inhibits Gram-negative facultative anaerobes but allows of obligate anaerobes
Which of the following hormones, when present at low levels or when absent, has the ability to produce hyperglycemia?
Insulin
Absorption of vitamin B12 in the stomach and gut requires the presence of:
Intrinsic factor
Nephelometry:
Involves the measurement of scattered light as it passes through antigen-antibody complexes
The type of chromatography based on the separation of solutes by their size and the charge of the ionic species being analyzed is:
Ion-exchange chromatography
To reduce graft-versus-host disease, what type of transfusion product should be given?
Irradiated red blood cells
Rheumatoid factor (RF):
Is a collection of antibodies specific for the Fc portion of IgG molecules
The Du antigen:
Is a weakened form of the D antigen
Urea:
Is synthesized from CO2 and ammonia
Tissue transferred between genetically identical individuals is the definition of which of the following?
Isograft
Urine with a fixed specific gravity equal to 1.010 is termed:
Isosthenuric
CD8 cells recognize antigens associated with which MHC class?
MHC class I
Sputum was processed for staining and culture of acid-fast bacilli. An isolate with the following characteristics was grown on Lowenstein-Jensen agar: buff colored, dry and heaped up colonies; niacin, nitrate, and urease positive. Growth required 23 days at 35C. the most likely identity of this isolate is:
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Which organism is the etiologic agent of primary atypical pneumonia, often referred to as "walking pneumonia"?
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
What substance besides red blood cells and hemoglobin will react with the blood pad on the reagent test strip?
Myoglobin
Which of the following cardiac markers is the first to increase after an acute myocardial infarction?
Myoglobin CK-MB
Match the correct antidote that is administered for intoxication with the correct drugs. Acetaminophen =
N-acetylcysteine
Match the correct antidote that is administered for intoxication with the correct drugs. Narcotics =
Naloxone
All of the following are characteristics of Kidd antibodies, except:
Naturally occurring
A non-lactose-fermenting, Gram-negative rod demonstrated the following characteristics: oxidase negative; production of hydrogen sulfide; deamination of phenylalanine; gelatin positive; indole negative; ornithine decarboxylase positive. The bacterium is most likely which of the following?
Proteus mirabilis
Urinary aminolaevulinic acid (ALA) levels are increased in all of the following disorders, except:
Protoporphyria
If antibody is in excess of the amount of antigen present, the result is a false negative. This phenomenon is known as:
Prozone effect
A false-negative result in a VDRL test may be caused by
Prozone phenomenon
During a state of low blood volume and decreased extracellular sodium level (as in cardiac failure), which one of the following occurs?
Renin is produced by the kidneys and is converted to angiotensin, which induces the secretion of aldosterone by the renal gland, which in turn increases reabsorption of sodium and retention of water.
The reagent strip method used to detect protein in urine is based on:
The "protein error of indicators"
In Bruton's disease, measurement of serum immunoglobulins would indicate:
The absence of all immunoglobulins
An international unit (U) of enzyme activity is:
The amount of enzyme that will catalyze the reaction of 1 micromole of substrate per minute
Regarding hepatitis B:
The antibody to the core antigen appears shortly after the appearance of HBsAg
Rhinoviruses are naked, icosahedral viruses in the family Picornaviridae. What infections are usually associated with the rhinoviruses?
The common cold
The number and type of casts found in urine sediment reflect:
The extent of renal tubular involvement in disease processes
The term molarity describes which of the following?
The number of moles of solute per liter of solution
A differential medium often used in the primary isolation and identification of Vibrio is:
Thiosulfate citrate bile salt-sucrose (TCBS) agar
The vector for the organism Borrelia burgdorferi is a:
Tick
Which of the following fungal infection-etiologic agent associations is correct?
Tinea nigra-Exophiala werneckii
Which of the following statements concerning protein is incorrect?
Total protein is best assessed by the brom-cresol green dye binding method
Which of the following proteins binds ferric iron and is increased in iron-deficiency anemia?
Transferrin
The type of cells that line the bladder are:
Transitional cells
An individual with hepatic cirrhosis has excess peritoneal fluid in his abdominal cavity between the 2 layers of mesothelial cells. This abnormal fluid buildup is referred to as a(n):
Transudate
The dermatophytic fungus that produces smooth, pencil-shaped macroconidia with 3 to 8 cells and numerous club-shaped microconidia that occur singly along the hyphae and that has colonies with a deep red reverse is:
Trichophyton rubrum
Normal crystals found in alkaline urine include:
Triple phosphate, amorphous phosphates, ammonium biurate
Which cardiac marker is elevated for the longest period after myocardial infarction (MI)?
Troponin T
The finding of indigo blue-colored urine is indicative of a defect in the metabolism of:
Tryptophan
When a unit of blood is irradiated, what is the new expiration date?
Twenty-eight days from the date of irradiation or the original outdate of the unit, whichever is sooner
Testing of a urine specimen must occur within how many hours after collection?
Two
The Widal reaction is used primarily to detect:
Typhoid fever
To determine if a specimen is urine, measure the concentrations of:
Urea and creatinine
A toxic condition involving a very high serum level of urea and creatinine accompanied by failure of the three main functions of the renal system is referred to as:
Uremia
The pigment responsible for normal urine color that is present in the highest concentration is:
Urochrome
Two morphological differences between Taenia solium and Taenia saginata are:
Uterine branching, rostellum
Regarding enzyme kinetics, the Michaelis-Menton hypothesis of the relationship between reaction velocity and substrate concentration is correctly expressed by which of the following formulas?
V = Vmax[S] / Km + [S]
Melena is:
A large amount of blood in a stool sample
A fluorescent stain used to detect bacteria in blood and other body fluids is the:
Acridine orange stain
The type of immunity that follows the injection of an antigen is termed:
Active
In a urine sample that is being examined microscopically, the best way to differentiate yeast from RBCs is to:
Add a drop of dilute acetic acid to the urine sediment to lyse red blood cells.
An examination for the presence of white blood cells (neutrophils) in a stool sample is performed to:
Aid in the differential diagnosis of diarrhea
The protein reagent pad on a urine reagent testing strip is specific for:
Albumin
The hormone responsible for maintenance of sodium balance through its action on the renal tubules is:
Aldosterone
An example of a marker of bone formation is:
Alkaline phosphatase
AABB requires that patient samples for compatibility testing be stored for a least:
7 days after transfusion
Immunity to rubella is indicated by a rubella titer of at least:
8
Of the following, which antistreptolysin O (ASO) test result would indicate a recent streptococcal infection?
>200 Todd units
Bacterial decomposition of urea produces urine that has an odor of:
Ammonia
A pink-orange acidic urine becomes turbid after it has been refrigerated. This is probably due to:
Amorphous urates
Hepatitis A is characteristically:
An acute infection transmitted by fecal-oral route
Which of the following transfusion reactions occurs after infusions of only a few milliliters of blood and gives no history of fever?
Anaphylactic
The Du test is performed by incubating a patient's red cells with:
Anti-D serum followed by washing and antihuman globulin (AHG) reagent
Mycoplasma pneumoniae infections can sometimes be associated with:
Anti-I antibodies
The lupus erythematosus (LE) cell forms in the presence of:
Anti-deoxynucleoprotein (DNP) antibodies
Prozone occurs when:
Antibody molecules are in excess of antigen
A substance that stimulates antibody formation and has the ability to bind to an antibody is the definition of which of the following?
Antigen
In the ELISA test:
Antigen-antibody interaction is indicated by a color change
Which of the following terms is correctly matched with the definition of urine output?
Anuria: decreased urine output at night
Which of the following is considered a permanent deferral?
Anyone who has risk factors for Creutzfelt-Jakob disease (CJD) or who has an immediate family member with CJD
Antibodies in secondary syphilis:
Are mostly IgG
Preferred specimen requirement for blood gas analysis include:
Arterial blood on ice with liquid heparin as the anticoagulant
Synovial fluid is collected by:
Arthrocentesis
Fully embryonated eggs are ingested and hatch in the intestines and begin to migrate through the blood and lymphatic system. They finally reach the esophagus and once again after enter the intestines, where the mature worm begins to lay eggs. This is the life cycle of:
Ascaris lumbricoides
Which opportunistic fungus produces phialoconidia in chains, supported by phialides that cover the upper two thirds of a vesicle, with a dark greenish to gray colonies that grow at 45C.
Aspergillus fumigatus
Match the correct antidote that is administered for intoxication with the correct drugs. Pesticides =
Atropine
Most immunodeficiencies are associated with primary defects of:
B cells
Epstein-Barr virus infects:
B lymphocytes
A sputum from a patient with pneumonia was cultured on Sabouraud's media at 24C and 37C. A white fluffy mold grew that microscopically demonstrated barrel-shaped arthrospores. A tissue biopsy of the lung demonstrated large spherules containing endospores. This fungus was:
Coccidioides immitis
Consider the following results: Patient cells with anti-A: 4+ Patient cells with anti-B: 0 Patient serum with A1 cells 1+ Patient serum with B cells: 4+ Patient cells with patient serum: 2+ Of the following, which is the most likely cause of the ABO typing discrepancy?
Cold autoantibody
If the autocontrol and all antibody panel cells agglutinate at room temperature but react less strongly at 37C and in the AHG phase, you might suspect:
Cold-reacting autoantibody
Cellular casts degenerate into:
Granular casts
How is Diphyllabothrium latum infection acquired?
Ingestion of plerocercoid larva in undercooked fish.
The antigens used in the Weil-Felix are prepared from strains of
Proteus
Each unit of platelet concentration transfused should increase the platelet count by:
5 to 10 X 10(9)/L
Which of the following is the formula for coefficient of variation?
(Standard deviation x 100) / Mean
When stored at -18C, fresh frozen plasma (FFP) can safely be stored for:
1 year
Ketones in urine are frequently associated with:
Acidosis
What would the calculated anion gap be for the following electrolyte values: Na+ 148 mmol/L; K+ 5.8 mmol/L; Cl- 87 mmol/L; and CO2 24 mmol/L?
42.8 and increased
A unit of whole blood collected from an adult should contain approximately:
450 mL of blood
Cell suspensions used in blood banking procedures are typically:
3% to 5%
The normal glomerular filtrate volume per minute is:
120 mL/minute
A 52-year-old visited his doctor for a physical. The patient was overweight and had missed his last two appointments because of his business commitments. His blood pressure was elevated, his total cholesterol was 210 mg/dL, and his triglyceride was 150 mg/dL. The patient's HDL cholesterol was 23 mg/dL (normal reference range interval = 29-60 mg/dL). What would this patient's calculated LDL cholesterol value be?
157 mg/dL
Which T helper-to-T cytotoxic ratio (CD4:CD8 ratio) is most likely in a patient with AIDS?
1:2
In the liquid state, plasma must be stored at:
1C to 6C
If platelets are to be stored for 5 days on a rotator, what is the optimal storage temperature?
20 to 24C
The normal healthy reference interval for CSF total protein is approximately:
20 to 50 mg/dL
Blood collected in heparin must be transfused within:
24 hours
Clinically significant antibodies occur in approximately:
3% of the population
In hemagglutination inhibition (HAI) tests:
A positive test results in no agglutination
Observations of urine color and clarity should be performed using:
A well-mixed uncentrifuged specimen
An individual who secretes A and H substances in his saliva must possess the following genes:
A, H, and Se
Acute hemolytic transfusion reactions are usually due to:
ABO incompatibility
In a spectrophotometric determination, which one of the following is the formula for calculating the absorbance of a solution?
Absorptivity x light path in cm x concentration
Which of the following transfusion reactions is an example of an acute nonimmunologic reaction?
Bacterial contamination
A CSF glucose concentration of 35 mg/dL would indicate which of the following:
Bacterial meningitis
A Gram-negative bacillus from an abdominal abscess is isolated on anaerobic media, but no growth is seen on sheep agar incubated aerobically. The isolate is resistant to vancomycin, kanamycin, and colistin. It is indole negative and grows in thioglycolate with 20% bile. This isolate is most likely:
Bacteroides fragilis
Blood selected for exchange transfusions must:
Be less than 7 days old
A yellow-brown urine results from the excretion of:
Bilirubin
The dimorphic fungus that is the etiologic agent of Gilchrist's disease, endemic south of the Ohio River and east of the Mississippi River, with a diagnostic tissue phase consisting of a large yeast with a broad-based bud, is:
Blastomyces dermatitidis
Bordet-Gengou agar is most commonly used to isolate which of the following bacteria?
Bordetella pertussis
While performing a peripheral blood cell differential, you notice what looks like spirochetes among the red blood cells. This patient most likely is infected with:
Borrelia recurrentis
Which of the following is not characteristic of the anaerobe Clostridium difficile?
Brick-red fluorescence upon exposure to ultraviolet light
Which medium is recommended for the isolation of Legionella, the causative agent of Legionnaires' disease and Pontiac fever?
Buffered charcoal yeast extract agar (BCYE)
Which antigens are not destroyed by enzymes?
C
Which part of the following complement proteins is NOT part of the membrane attack complex?
C4
Which isoenzyme of creatine kinase (CK) is primarily found in cardiac muscle?
CK-MB
Most renal calculi contain:
Calcium and oxalate
A patient with pseudogout (degenerative arthritis) would be expected to have what kind of crystals in their synovial fluid?
Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate
An isolate from a dog bite grows on blood agar in the presence of carbon dioxide only. The colonies are yellow and show a haze of growth at the periphery. Gram staining reveals a Gram-negative fusiform bacillus. The most likely identity of this isolate is:
Capnocytophaga
An isolate from cerebrospinal fluid showed a small gray isolate on blood agar with a narrow zone of beta-hemolysis. It was Hippurate hydrolysis and CAMP test positive. What additional test should be done before a presumptive identification is reported?
Catalase
The bacterial cell structure that serves as an osmotic barrier and that is a site of action for some antibiotics is the:
Cell membrane
Which urogenital pathogen is the most common sexually transmitted bacterial pathogen in the United States?
Chlamydia trachomatis
The lipoprotein classes involved in the transport of the majority of triglycerides from the small intestine through the circulation to various tissues are the:
Chylomicrons and VLDL
The component in citrate phosphate dextrose anticoagulant-1 (CPDA-1) that binds calcium is:
Citrate
Which pathway of complement activation requires the presence of antibody?
Classical pathway
To obtain a "clean catch" urine specimen
Clean the external genitalia, void a few milliliters of urine into the toilet, and then collect the midstream flow.
A Gram stain of vaginal discharge showed squamous epithelial cells with tiny bacilli. This finding is referred to as:
Clue cells
The function of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is to:
Control water reabsorption by the tubules
A hemolyzed specimen is received in the laboratory for enzyme analysis. The assay for which of the following enzyme values would be affected by the hemolysis?
Creatine kinase
Which of the following is prepared from FFP that has been partially thawed between 1C and 6C, centrifuged, and has had the supernatant removed , and which is immediately frozen at or below -18C?
Cryoprecipitate
Birdseed agar (caffeic acid agar) is used for the growth of the following yeast?
Cryptococcus neoformans
The dexamethasone suppression test is used to diagnose which one of the following?
Cushing's syndrome
Which of the following asexual conidia are characteristic of the dematiaceous opportunist Bipolaris?
Cylindrical four- to five- celled poroconidia supported on "bent-knee" conidiophores
An autosomal recessive disorder that leads to lung disease but begins in the pancreas with decreased pancreatic enzyme secretion is:
Cystic fibrosis
The formation of intranuclear inclusions in tissue culture cells infected with virus particles with virus particles is an example of which of the following?
Cytopathic effect
Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) is an example of:
Cytotoxic-type hypersensitivity
Anti-LW reacts strongest with which cell?
D positive
How does decreased temperature affect an enzymatic chemical reaction rate?
Decreases the rate of the reaction
A dark, amber-colored random urine sample can be caused by:
Dehydration
Antibodies to Rh, MNS, Kell, or Duffy antigens may cause:
Delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions
Which phylum is known as the fungi imperfecti because the fungi in this phylum have no known sexual stage?
Deuteromycota
Which disease is associated with a deficiency of T cells but normal B cells?
DiGeorge syndrome
The primary disease caused by Campylobacter jejuni ssp. jejuni is:
Diarrhea
A 24-year-old man who had just recovered from infectious mononucleosis had evidence of a genital lesion. His RPR test was positive. What should the technologist do next?
Do a confirmatory treponemal test
The two main subgroups, A1 and A2, can be differentiated by using reagent made from which of the following?
Dolichos biflorus
The Ouchterlony method is a type of:
Double immunodiffusion
The active accumulation of fluid within body cavities caused by infections, malignancies, or inflammation damaging the vascular wall is known as a(n):
Effusion
What laboratory test must be performed to determine if a test strain of Corynebacterium diphtheriae is a toxigenic stain and produces the diphtheria toxin?
Elek test
The finding of ingested red blood cells in the cytoplasm of a trophozoite is presumptive evidence that the organism is:
Entamoeba histolytica
The females of which parasitic worm migrate down the intestinal tract to pass out of the anus and deposit their eggs?
Enterobius vermicularis
The pathogen Staphylococcus aureus is a catalase positive, coagulase positive, Gram-positive coccus. Which staphylococcal toxin is associated with toxic shock syndrome (TSS)?
Enterotoxin F
The test most widely used to detect HIV antibodies is:
Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
Large, multisegmented, smooth-walled macroconidia occuring singly or in clusters of 2 to 3 are characteristic of:
Epidermophyton floccosum
Which Gram-positive bacillus is nonmotile, catalase negative, and forms hydrogen sulfide?
Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
In the chronic disseminated stage of Lyme disease, all are common symptoms, except:
Erythema migrans
An isolate on MacConkey agar gives the following results: oxidase negative; dark colonies; indole positive; citrate negative. The most likely identity of this isolate is:
Escherichia coli
Which one of the B vitamins is a critical component of the diet of a pregnant woman to help avoid neural tube defects in the fetus?
Folate
Match the correct antidote that is administered for intoxication with the correct drugs. Salicylate =
Forced alkaline diuresis
The immunoglobulin class of anti-M antibodies is:
Frequently a mixture of IgG and IgM
Which enzyme protects red blood cells from oxidation and subsequent hemolysis?
Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD)
The physiologic catabolism of glucose to pyruvate for ATP production is referred to as:
Glycolysis
MN is associated with which of the following?
Glycophorin A
Antiglomerular basement membrane antibody is most often associated with which condition?
Goodpasture's disease
Which Gram-positive bacterium is associated with pharyngitis, scarlet fever, rheumatic fever, and glomerulonephritis?
Group A streptococcus pyogenes
The Runyon classification system is designed to classify the species of the genus Mycobacterium based on photosensitivity and rate of growth. Which group is composed of the mycobacteria that produce pigment in the light only?
Group I, photochromogens
Hepatitis B is considered most infectious when which marker is detectable?
HBeAg
Which heteroploid or continuous cell line is used to culture respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) and adenoviruses?
HEp-2 cells
The HLA antigens most frequently associated with organ transplant rejection are:
HLA-A, HLA-B, HLA-DR
Ankylosing spondylitis is often associated with the HLA marker:
HLA-B27
An 8-year-old girl with the following symptoms visits her pediatrician: failure to gain weight, lethargy, weakness, and some impairment of school performance. Thyroid hormone analysis revealed decreased T4, decreased T3, and elevated TSH. The most likely cause of her disease is:
Hashimoto's thyroiditis
The most widely used test for rubella antibodies is:
Hemagglutination inhibition (HAI)
A patient with yellowish skin and eyes, fatigue, and mild motor system dysfunction visits her physician. Upon laboratory assessment, her total serum bilirubin concentration is 3.0 mg/dL (normal 0.2-1.0 mg/dL) with increased urinary urobilinogen. The most likely diagnosis in this case would be:
Hepatobiliary disease
In the Monospot assay for infectious mononucleosis (IM), beef erythrocytes will absorb only the:
Heterophile antibody of infectious mononucleosis
In type I hypersensitivity reactions, IgE attaches to basophils or tissue mast cells and triggers the release of:
Histamines
Most adults have strong ______ antigen expression and weak ______ expression
I/i
Anaphylactic transfusion reactions are usually caused by antibodies against:
IgA
The immunoglobulin class associated with type I hypersensitivity reactions and parasitic infections is:
IgE
Most clinically significant antibodies against blood group antigens are:
IgG
Complement is bound by:
IgG and IgM
Which of the following represents the relative concentration of immunoglobulins in decreasing order in normal serum?
IgG, IgA, IgM, IgD
Which antibody class exists as a pentamer?
IgM
Lewis antibodies are examples of:
IgM antibodies that react on immediate spin
Which of the following is diagnostic of congenital rubella syndrome?
IgM rubella antibodies in a neonate
The 5 classes of antibodies are:
IgM, IgG, IgD, IgE, IgA
Regarding the gel technique, which step is not performed?
Immediate spin
Glomerular basement membrane thickening in membranous glomerulonephritis as a result of deposition of:
Immune complexes
Transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease (TA-GVHD) reactions occur when:
Immunologically competent lymphocytes are transfused into an immunoincompetent host
The most common cause of false-negative results in the antiglobulin test is:
Inadequately washed red cells
The effect of aldosterone on serum potassium is to __________ its level in the circulation.
Increase
The overall effect of parathyroid hormone (PTH) release is to:
Increase bone resorption of calcium
A positive chemical reagent strip test for blood with no blood cells (RBCs) found in the sediment:
Indicates the presence of hemoglobin or myoglobin
Which of the following is not associated with or characteristic of the Hanta virus?
Infections in the United States are endemic to the northeastern states.
A low seminal fluid volume of 1.0 mL containing a sperm count of 5 million/mL would indicate which one of the following?
Infertility
Ascaris lumbricoides infection is acquired by:
Ingestion of eggs
Which of the following is not characteristic of the parasitic worm Strongyloides stercoralis?
It is the guinea worm
An antibody that is typically enhanced by treatment with proteolytic enzymes is:
Kidd
Which lactose-fermenting, Gram-negative rod is characterized by the following: indole positive; Vogues-Proskauer positive; citrate positive; urea positive; nonmotile?
Klebsiella oxytoca
The indole test detects an organism's ability to produce the enzyme tryptophanase and deaminate tryptophan to indole, pyruvate acid, and ammonia. A positive reaction is detected with the addition of which reagent?
Kovac's or Ehrlich's reagent (paradimethylaminobenzaldehyde)
What immunodominant sugar is responsible for H specificity?
L-fucose
A low minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) can be correlated with what Kirby-Bauer disk diffusion result?
Large zone of inhibition
It would not be unusual for pregnant women to express which Lewis phenotype?
Le(a-b-)
Which of the following is characteristic of Clostridium perfringens?
Lecithinase positive
Species of the sandfly (Phlebotamus) serve as vectors for:
Leishmaniasis
In the analysis of enzyme reaction velocity, the plot of 1/velocity vs. 1/substrate concentration is known as the:
Lineweaver-Burk plot
A positive bilirubin result is noted on the reagent strip for a routine urinalysis. and bilirubin crystals are noted on the microscopic examination. This would indicate:
Liver disease
To perform a microscopic examination of a urine for casts, the sediment is examined using a(n):
Low-power objective
Which of the following blood group systems is linked to the Se (secretor) genes?
Lutheran
Classic skin lesions, erythema chronicum migrans (EMC), are characteristic of which infection?
Lyme disease: Borrelia burgdor is the causative agent
On xylose lysine deoxycholate (XLD) agar, Salmonella colonies are:
Red with black centers
Mixing patient serum and donor red cells together and observing for direct cell lysis or agglutination is known as:
Major crossmatch
Which of the following tests donor cells against the recipient's serum and primarily functions to determine the ABO compatibility of the donor cells?
Major crossmatch
Surface IgM, surface IgG, and Fc receptors are found on:
Mature B cells
Tests of pancreatic exocrine function include:
Measurement of serum amylase and lipase activity
The cavities of the body that hold abdominal organs, lungs, and the heart are lined by two membranes consisting of which of the following cell types?
Mesothelial cells
A test specific for Treponema pallidum is:
Microhemagglutination assay (MHA-TP)
The lowest concentration of an antibiotic that kills 99.9% of a bacterial isolate is:
Minimum bactericidal concentration (MBC)
Sperm motility that is marked at a value of 3.0 indicates that the sperm are:
Mobile with moderate linear progression
Of the cells below, which are considered to be antigen-presenting cells?
Monocytes
Which Mycobacterium species is an environmental organism that can colonize healthy individuals or cause opportunistic infections in immunocompromised individuals and is commonly associated with disseminated disease in AIDS patients?
Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC)
A scotochromogen often found as a contaminant but rarely, if ever, as a pathogen is:
Mycobacterium gordonae
Which Mycobacterium species is the etiologic agent of Hansen's disease and cannot be cultured in vitro?
Mycobacterium leprae
The urinalysis reagent strip reaction that reacts specifically to the presence of increased numbers of certain bacteria in the urine is:
Nitrite
A test that aids in evaluating the respiratory burst of neutrophils is the:
Nitroblue tetrazolium (NBT) reductase test
In the ASO test, it the patient's serum contains sufficient antistreptolysin antibody to neutralize the streptolysin O (SLO) reagent:
No hemolysis of the RBCs occurs
Which of the following is not characteristic of the gastrointestinal Campylobacter jejuni ssp. jejuni?
Nonmotile
A 25-year-old man with a normal food and fluid intake excreted 1400 mL of urine in 24 hours. This urine volume can best be described as:
Normal
A 28-year-old woman with a history of miscarriages visits her obstetrician for assessment of pregnancy. She sees the physician every several days to have her chorionic gonadotropin (CG) level analyzed. The value of her CG begins at approximately 5 IU/L and appears to double approximately every 7 to 8 days. These results indicate which of the following?
Normal pregnancy
A bombay individual would have which of the following ABO phenotypes?
O
Treponema pallidum ssp. pallidum is the etiologic agent of syphilis. Although serologic testing is usually used for definitive diagnosis, what other observation during the primary or secondary stages is diagnostic of a syphilis infection?1. Treponema pallidum ssp. pallidum is the etiologic agent of syphilis. Although serologic testing is usually used for definitive diagnosis, what other observation during the primary or secondary stages is diagnostic of a syphilis infection?
Observation of motile treponemes with darkfield microscopy
Unsheathed microfilariae that are recovered from a "skin snip" are which of the following?
Onchocerca volvulus
Which one of the following statements concerning oncofetal antigens is incorrect?
Oncofetal antigens are synthesized by placental trophoblasts
Microscopic screening of a pale, bulky stool from a patient with prolonged diarrhea is performed for fecal neutrophils, fats, and meat fibers. The neutrophil examination is negative, fat globules are counted as 200/high-power field (hpf), and 10 meat fibers are observed. What type of diarrhea is suggested by these results?
Osmotic
The three-glass method of urine collection is performed to assess:
Prostate infection
The sulfosalicylic acid precipitation (SSA) confirmatory test is useful in detecting:
Proteins other than albumin
Which of the following is a characteristic of Neisseria gonorrhoeae?
Oxidase positive
Match the correct antidote that is administered for intoxication with the correct drugs. Carbon monoxide =
Oxygen
Which autoantibody specificity is found in patients with paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria?
P
Which test results are characteristic of group D Streptococcus and are used to differentiate the bacterium from Enterococcus?
PYR negative and no growth in 6.5% NaCl broth
The Paromyxoviridae are enveloped RNA viruses with helical symmetry. Which RNA virus in this family is correctly associated with the infection it causes?
Parainfluenza virus- a paramyxovirus that causes croup in infants
The type of immunity that follows the injection of antibodies synthesized by another individual or animal is termed:
Passive
A Gram-negative coccobacillus was isolated from an infected cat bite. The isolate grew on blood agar with a musty smell but did not grow on MacConkey agar. It was catalase, indole, and oxidase positive and susceptible to a 2 U penicillin disk. The most likely identity of this isolate is:
Pasteurella multocida
What is the presumptive identification of an anaerobic, Gram-positive coccus that is susceptible to sodium polyanethol sulfonate (SPS)?
Peptostreptococcus anaerobius
Urine that has a mousy odor typically indicates:
Phenylketonuria
As a rule, only ring forms and banana-shaped gametocytes are observed in peripheral blood smears of:
Plasmodium falciparum
Merozoites (6 to 12) forming a rosette shape around a chunk of hemozoin pigment in a schizont are associated with malaria by:
Plasmodium malariae
Persons who phenotype as Fy(a-b-) are resistant to infection by which organism?
Plasmodium vivax
Which Gram-negative rod is characterized by the following: fermentative metabolism; oxidase positive; susceptible to vibriostatic agent O/129 (150 ug); gelatin hydrolysis negative; ferments inositol; positive lysine and ornithine decarboxylases; arginine dihyrolase positive?
Plesiomonas
Diabetes insipidus is a disease characterized by:
Polydipsia, polyuria, and urine with a low specific gravity
The alternate complement pathway is activated by:
Polysaccharides of target cells
Which of the following is a characteristic of Haemophilus influenzae?
Porphyrin negative
When elevated amounts of bilirubin are present to the liver with elevated serum unconjugated bilirubin, what type of jaundice occurs?
Prehepatic
Antimitochondrial antibodies (AMA) are often seen in:
Primary biliary cirrhosis
In regard to thyroid hormone abnormalities, a decreased serum T4 and T3 with an increased-to-normal serum TSH is indicative of:
Primary hypothyroidism
Pretransfusion testing begins with:
Proper identification of the patient
An isolate from a urine culture exhibited the following characteristics: oxidase positive; colorless colonies on MacConkey agar; beta-hemolytic colonies on blood agar with a feathered margin; and presence of a corn tortilla or grapelike odor. Further characterization showed the organism to be nonfermentative. This isolate is most likely:
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
The fluorescent pseudomonads produce pyoverdine, a pigment that fluoresces under UV light. Which Pseudomonas species is a member of the fluorescent pseudomonads and produces pyocyanin?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
A chemistry analyzer that can perform multiple analyses on a single specimen during one run is referred to as a:
Random access analyzer
A positive antibody screen, negative autocontrol, and positive major crossmatch may be caused by:
Recipient alloantibody to donor cell antigens
An unconscious young man known to have consumed large amounts of aspirin was admitted to the ER. The patient's breathing was shallow, and his color was poor. What is the likely eventual acid-base status of this patient?
Respiratory acidosis
The D antigen of the Fisher-Race nomenclature corresponds to which of the following antigens of the Wiener nomenclature?
Rho
The etiologic agent of the arthropod-borne infection Rocky Mountain spotted fever is:
Rickettsia rickettsii
Which technique is typified by radial immunodiffusion combined with electrophoresis?
Rocket immunoelectrophoresis
Review the result of the ABO type below. Which is not a reason for this discrepancy? Anti-A: 0, Anti-B: 0, Anti-A,B: 0, A1 cells: 0, B cells: 0.
Rouleaux
The fungi in the phylum Zygomycota are characterized by large, ribbon-like aseptate hyphae. Which species demonstrates elongated asexual sporangiospores in large, flask-shaped sporangia with rhizoids opposite the sporangiophores?
Saksenaea
Regarding reproductive hormones, increased serum follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), luteinizing hormone (LH), and estrogen indicates:
Secondary ovarian hyperfunction
The rapid rise, elevated level, and prolonged production of antibody following a repeat exposure to an antigen is called:
Secondary response
A synovial fluid was recieved in the lab from a 23-year-old man who had a recent football injury. In the days following the injury, he reported progressively increasing pain and swelling. The final lab report of the synovial fluid was as follows: Color: Brownish green Clarity: Turbid Viscosity: Low to absent ' Fibrin clots: Present WBC differential: 93% segmented neutrophils, 7% lymphocytes Plasma-synovial glucose difference (mg/dL): 45 Bacterial identification: Staphylococcus aureus Based on these lab results, the most probable diagnosis is:
Septic inflammation
Which member of the family Enterobacteriaceae is characterized by the following: motile; gelatin hydrolysis positive; DNase positive; demonstrates a red pigment that is enhanced with room temperature incubation?
Serratia marcescens
A physician calls the laboratory and asks what lab tests should be requested to assess the acid-base balance function of a patient's renal system. You reply:
Serum bicarbonate and blood pH
The Herpesviridae are enveloped DNA viruses with icoshedral symmetry. The varicella zoster virus is in the Alphaherpesvirinae subfamily. Which of the following is caused by the reactivation of the latent varicella zoster virus?
Shingles
The high extracellular concentration of which cation contributes to the osmolality of extracellular fluid?
Sodium
The basic descriptive statistic commonly used in a clinical laboratory to describe dispersion of data or groups of single observations around a central value is:
Standard deviation
What genus of bacterial is commonly found as normal flora on the skin and may be seen as a contaminant in blood cultures?
Staphylococcus
Resistance to a 5-mg novobiocin disk is characteristic used to identify:
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
Malabsorption of fats by the gastrointestinal system is called:
Steatorrhea
An isolate from cerebrospinal fluid gave the following characteristics: alpha-hemolytic on blood agar; catalase negative; Gram-positive coccus; susceptible to optochin. The most likely identity of this isolate is:
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Hydrolysis of L-pyrrolidonyl-beta-naphthylamide (PYR) is a characteristic of:
Streptococcus pyogenes and Enterococcus
Which of the following is not a characteristic of organisms in the family Enterobacteriaceae?
Strict aerobes
Chlamydia trachomatis, an obligate intracellular parasite, is a common etiologic agent of sexually transmitted infections in the United States. Which subtype(s) is (are) associated with lymphogranuloma venereum?
Subtype L
A Gram-positive coccus isolated on 5% sheep blood agar was identified as Micrococcus species. Which of the following is not characteristic of Micrococcus?
Susceptible to furazolidone
Hypersecretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) leads to which of the following disorders?
Syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH)
Which of the following is most often associated with the formation of a serous fluid transudate?
Systemic disease
The nephrotic syndrome frequently occurs as a compilation of:
Systemic shock
John Doe received a new kidney 2 weeks ago. Postoperative workup results were as expected. Another workup was requested due to some pain and a spike in fever. The results for the current workup were as follows: From the information provided, what can you conclude about the status of the organ transplanted?
The patient is experiencing an acute rejection of the kidney
Regarding gastric fluid analysis, what does the term "achlorhydria" mean?
The physiologic failure of gastric fluid pH to fall below 3.5 or 1.0 pH unit with gastric stimulation
A patient with petit mal seizures was treated by his physician with phenobarbital. A year later, a different physician prescribed valproic acid in conjunction with the phenobarbital. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the interaction of these two drugs?
The presence of valproic acid in the serum can increase the serum concentration of phenobarbital
In regard to enzyme kinetics, first-order kinetics state that:
The reaction rate of an enzymatic reaction is directly proportional to the concentration of the substrate
Which of the following is true regarding a cerebrospinal fluid specimen received for microbiological analysis?
The specimen should be processed immediately
IgM antibodies are frequently hemolytic because of
Their efficient ability to fix complement
Characteristics of the ABO blood group antibodies include:
They are naturally occuring and are mostly IgM
A deficiency of which vitamin will produce abnormal bone mineralization and eventually osteomalacia?
Vitamin D
Most causes of autoimmune hemolytic anemias (AIHA) are:
Warm AIHA
Hepatitis B:
Was formerly known as "the Australia antigen"
The most commonly used confirmatory test for the presence of HIV antibodies is:
Western blot
Antibodies against the p24 core protein of the HIV virus usually develop:
Within 6 to 8 weeks after infection
Immunofixation electrophoresis (IFE) is often used in conjunction with immunoelectrophoresis (IEP) to:
Work up a monoclonal gammopathy
An example of a preanalytical variable that might affect laboratory results in the clinical chemistry lab is:
Wrong specimen type
The antigens of the Cartwright blood group systems are:
Yta and Ytb
Which stain is a carbol fuchsin acid-fast stain into the mycobacterial cell wall?
Ziehl-Neelsen
Which of the following tumor markers is an oncofetal antigen seen in liver tumors and germ-cell tumors such as testicular cancer?
alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
