Communicable Diseases - Practice Set B

A client with influenza is prescribed with an antiviral drug. The nurse determines that the client indicates an understanding of the treatment if he or she state the following? A. "I will take the medication exactly as prescribed". B. "I will not be able to infect others while I am on this treatment". C. "I will stop the medication once I feel okay". D. "I will resume my usual activities because these medications have minimal undesirable effects".

A. "I will take the medication exactly as prescribed".

A Mantoux skin test is considered not significant if the size of the induration is: A. 0 to 4 mm. B. 5 to 6 mm. C. 7 to 8 mm. D. 9 mm.

A. 0 to 4 mm.

A diagnosis of wasting syndrome can be initially made when involuntary weight loss exceeds what percentage of baseline body weight? A. 10% B. 15% C. 20% D. 25%

A. 10%

Signs of plasma leakage usually appear after how many hours? A. 24 hours. B. 48 hours. C. 72 hours. D. 4 hours.

A. 24 hours.

You are preparing to leave the room after performing oral suctioning on a client who is on contact and airborne precautions. In which order will you perform the following actions? 1. Take off the gown. 2. Remove N95 respirator. 3. Perform hand hygiene. 4. Take off goggles. 5. Remove gloves. A. 5, 4, 1, 2, 3 B. 4, 5, 2, 1, 3 C. 1, 2, 4, 5, 3 D. 2, 4, 2, 1, 3

A. 5, 4, 1, 2, 3.

An example of an upper urinary tract infection is: A. Acute pyelonephritis. B. Cystitis. C. Prostatitis. D. Urethritis.

A. Acute pyelonephritis.

12-year-old Caroline has recurring nephrotic syndrome; which of the following areas of potential disturbances should be a prime consideration when planning ongoing nursing care? A. Body image. B. Sexual maturation. C. Muscle coordination. D. Intellectual development.

A. Body image

All of which are examples of antiviral influenza medications except? A. Ethionamide (Trecator) B. Amantadine (Symmetrel) C. Oseltamivir (Tamiflu) D. Zanamivir (Relenza)

A. Ethionamide (Trecator)

A client who has frequent watery stool is admitted to the unit due to dehydration. Which nursing action should the charge nurse delegate to an LPN/LVN? A. Giving the ordered metronidazole (Flagyl) 500 mg PO to the client B. Reconsidering the client's medical history for any risk factors for diarrhea C. Doing ongoing assessments to determine the client's hydration status D. Explaining the purpose of ordered stool cultures to the client family

A. Giving the ordered metronidazole (Flagyl) 500 mg PO to the client

Which of the following is the FIRST priority in preventing infections when providing care for a client? A. Handwashing B. Wearing gloves C. Using a barrier between client's furniture and nurse's bag D. Wearing gowns and goggles

A. Handwashing

A 4-month-old with meningococcal meningitis has just been admitted to the pediatric unit. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority? A. Instituting droplet precautions B. Administering acetaminophen (Tylenol) C. Obtaining history information from the parents D. Orienting the parents to the pediatric unit

A. Instituting droplet precautions

Maria, an 85-year-old patient with a feeding tube, has been experiencing severe watery stool. The patient is lethargic and has poor skin turgor, a pulse of 120, and hyperactive reflexes. Nursing interventions would include: A. Measuring and recording intake and output and daily weights. B. Administering salt tablets and monitoring hypertonic parenteral solutions. C. Administering sedatives. D. Applying wrist restraints to avoid displacement of the feeding tube.

A. Measuring and recording intake and output and daily weights.

Which of the following is not considered as pneumonia in the immunocompromised host? A. Nosocomial pneumonia. B. Fungal pneumonia. C. Pneumocystis pneumonia. D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

A. Nosocomial pneumonia.

Adalimumab (Humira) is given to a client for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following side effect is associated with the medication? A. Numbness. B. Diarrhea. C. Urinary retention. . Weight gain.

A. Numbness.

The nurse assessed the client and noted shortness of breath and recent trip to China. The client is strongly suspected of having Middle East Respiratory Syndrome (MERS-CoV). Which of these prescribed actions will the nurse take first? A. Place the client on airborne and contact precautions B. Introduce normal saline at 75 mL/hr C. Give methylprednisolone (SOLU-Medrol) 1 g intravenously (IV) D. Take blood, urine, sputum cultures

A. Place the client on airborne and contact precautions

A client who has recently traveled to China comes to the emergency department (ED) with increasing shortness of breath and is strongly suspected of having a COVID-19. Which of these prescribed actions will you take first? A. Place the client on contact and airborne precautions B. Obtain blood, urine, and sputum for cultures C. Administer methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) 1 gram/IV D. Infuse normal saline at 100ml/hr

A. Place the client on contact and airborne precautions.

A 90-year-old client is confined to the unit for two weeks. He has been receiving antibiotics for more than a week and tells that he is having frequent watery stools. Which action will you take first? A. Place the client on contact precautions B. Educate the client about correct hand washing C. Notify the physician about the loose stools D. Get stool specimens for culture

A. Place the client on contact precautions.

Which of the following is a complication of DHF? A. Shock. B. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura. C. Respiratory failure. D. Acute renal failure.

A. Shock.

The client is having a lumbar puncture performed. The nurse would plan to place the client in which position for the procedure? A. Side-lying, with legs pulled up and head bent down onto the chest B. Side-lying, with a pillow under the hip C. Prone, in a slight Trendelenburg's position D. Prone, with a pillow under the abdomen

A. Side-lying, with legs pulled up and head bent down onto the chest

A nonimmunized child appears at the clinic with a visible rash. Which of the following observations indicates the child may have rubeola (measles)? A. Small blue-white spots are visible on the oral mucosa. B. The rash begins on the trunk and spreads outward. C. There is low-grade fever. D. The lesions have a "teardrop on a rose petal" appearance.

A. Small blue-white spots are visible on the oral mucosa.

ou are caring for a patient who has been bitten by dog. What medication do you suspect the physician will order for this patient? A. Tetanus vaccine B. Rabies vaccine C. Antibiotics D. Antivenom

A. Tetanus vaccine

For the tubercle bacilli to multiply and initiate a tissue reaction in the lungs, it must be deposited in: A. The alveoli. B. The bronchi. C. The trachea. D. All of the above.

A. The alveoli.

The nurse manager is planning the clinical assignments for the day. Which staff members can be assigned to care for a client with herpes zoster? Select all that apply A. The nurse who never had German Measles. B. The nurse who never received the varicella zoster vaccine. C. The nurse who never had mumps. D. The nurse who never had roseola. E. The nurse who never had chicken pox.

A. The nurse who never had German Measles. C. The nurse who never had mumps. D. The nurse who never had roseola.

A female client has just been diagnosed with condylomata acuminata (genital warts). What information is appropriate to tell this client? A. This condition puts her at a higher risk for cervical cancer; therefore, she should have a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear annually. B. The most common treatment is metronidazole (Flagyl), which should eradicate the problem within 7 to 10 days. C. The potential for transmission to her sexual partner will be eliminated if condoms are used every time they have sexual intercourse. D. The human papillomavirus (HPV), which causes condylomata acuminata, can't be transmitted during oral sex.

A. This condition puts her at a higher risk for cervical cancer; therefore, she should have a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear annually.

After receiving an immunization for diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis, a patient develops swelling and tenderness at the injection site, a low-grade fever, and malaise. The pediatric nurse informs the patient's parents that: A. This is a mild reaction, and teaches them how to manage it. B. The reaction is severe enough that they should bring the patient to an emergency department. C. This is an appropriate reaction, and instructs them to do nothing. D. They should delay future immunizations until the patient sees an allergist.

A. This is a mild reaction, and teaches them how to manage it.

A female client has just been diagnosed with condylomata acuminata (genital warts). What information is appropriate to tell this client? A.This condition puts her at a higher risk for cervical cancer; therefore, she should have a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear annually B. The most common treatment is metronidazole (Flagyl), which should eradicate the problem within 7 to 10 days C. The potential for transmission to her sexual partner will be eliminated if condoms are used every time they have sexual intercourse D. The human papillomavirus (HPV), which causes condylomata acuminata, can't be transmitted during oral sex

A.This condition puts her at a higher risk for cervical cancer; therefore, she should have a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear annually

The infectious agent that causes malaria is known as which of the following? A. Protozoan parasiteB. Bacterial parasiteC. Viral parasiteD. Fungal parasite

A: Protozoan parasite

The mother of a 2-year-old who has been bitten by the family dog asks the nurse what to do about the bite. What should the nurse tell the mother? A. "You need to take the child to the local urgent care center immediately." B. "Wash the bite area with lots of running water, and then check the injury." C. "Determine when the child's latest tetanus vaccine was administered." D. "Make an appointment to see the child's physician now to start rabies shots."

B. "Wash the bite area with lots of running water, and then check the injury."

When monitoring the daily weight of a patient with fluid volume deficit (FVD), the nurse is aware that fluid loss may be considered when weight loss begins to exceed: A. 0.25 lb B. 0.50 lb C. 1 lb D. 1 kg

B. 0.50 lb

n which order will the nurse perform the following actions as she prepares to leave the room of a client with airborne precautions after performing oral suctioning? 1. Take off goggles2. Take off gown3. Remove gloves4. Remove N95 respirator5. Perform hand hygiene A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 B. 2, 1, 4, 3, 5 C. 3, 4, 1, 2, 5 D. 4, 3, 2, 1, 5

B. 2, 1, 4, 3, 5

There are how many serotypes of the dengue virus? A. 2. B. 4. C. 6. D. 10.

B. 4.

CAP occurs either in the community setting or within the first _____ hours after hospitalization. A. 24. B. 48. C. 72. D. 36.

B. 48.

Dr. Grey prescribes norfloxacin (Noroxin), 400 mg P.O. twice daily, for a client with a urinary tract infection (UTI). The client asks the nurse how long to continue taking the drug. For an uncomplicated UTI, the usual duration of norfloxacin therapy is: A. 3 to 5 days. B. 7 to 10 days. C. 12 to 14 days. D. 10 to 21 days.

B. 7 to 10 days.

While working in a pediatric clinic, you receive a telephone call from the parent of a 10-year-old who is receiving chemotherapy for leukemia. The client's sibling has chickenpox. Which of these actions will you anticipate taking next? A. Teach the parents regarding contact and airborne precaution. B. Administer varicella-zoster immune globulin to the client. C. Prepare the client for admission to a private room in the hospital. D. Educate the parent about the correct use of acyclovir (Zovirax).

B. Administer varicella-zoster immune globulin to the client.

Which mosquito genus is associated with spreading the human malaria parasite? A. Culex B. Anopheles C. Aedes D. Lutzia

B. Anopheles

What is the most common form of aspiration pneumonia? A. Fungal infection. B. Bacterial infection. C. Myocardial infarction. D. Renal insufficiency.

B. Bacterial infection.

The most debilitating gastrointestinal condition found in up to 90% of all AIDS patients is: A. Anorexia. B. Chronic diarrhea. C. Nausea. D. Vomiting.

B. Chronic diarrhea.

Karina a client with myasthenia gravis is to receive immunosuppressive therapy. The nurse understands that this therapy is effective because it: A. Stimulates the production of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction. B. Decreases the production of autoantibodies that attack the acetylcholine receptors. C. Inhibits the breakdown of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction. D. Promotes the removal of antibodies that impair the transmission of impulses

B. Decreases the production of autoantibodies that attack the acetylcholine receptors.

The school nurse is asked which action will take to have the most impact on the incidence of infectious diseases in school. The correct response is: A. Grant written information about infection control to all parents B. Ensure that students are immunized according to national guidelines C. Make soap and water easily accessible in the classrooms D. Educate students on how to cover their mouths when coughing

B. Ensure that students are immunized according to national guidelines

The school nurse is asked which action will take to have the most impact on the incidence of infectious diseases in school. The correct response is: A. Grant written information about infection control to all parents B. Ensure that students are immunized according to national guidelines C. Make soap and water easily accessible in the classrooms D. Educate students on how to cover their mouths when coughing

B. Ensure that students are immunized according to national guidelines.

What is the vector of the dengue virus? A. Male Aedes aegypti mosquito. B. Female Aedes aegypti mosquito. C. Any Aedes aegypti mosquito. D. All of the above.

B. Female Aedes aegypti mosquito.

The malaria parasite is spread by which of the following? A. Male mosquitoes B. Female mosquitoes C. Both male and female mosquitoes

B. Female mosquitoes

Nurse Jeremy is evaluating a client's fluid intake and output record. Fluid intake and urine output should relate in which way? A. Fluid intake should be double the urine output. B. Fluid intake should be approximately equal to the urine output. C. Fluid intake should be half the urine output. D. Fluid intake should be inversely proportional to the urine output.

B. Fluid intake should be approximately equal to the urine output.

A nurse is preparing to administer a Rubella vaccine to a client prior discharge home. Which of the following is not true regarding this vaccine? A. Pain, redness, swelling, or a lump is some of the adverse reaction. B. Given intramuscularly in the lateral aspect of the middle third of the vastus lateralis muscle C. The need to use of contraception after immunization. D. Contraindicated in a client with an allergy to duck eggs.

B. Given intramuscularly in the lateral aspect of the middle third of the vastus lateralis muscle.

A client comes to the outpatient department complaining of vaginal discharge, dysuria, and genital irritation. Suspecting a sexually transmitted disease (STD), Dr. Smith orders diagnostic tests of the vaginal discharge. Which STD must be reported to the public health department? A. Chlamydia B. Gonorrhea C. Genital herpes D. Human papillomavirus infection

B. Gonorrhea

Denise has increased intracranial pressure (ICP) due to meningococcemia; which of the following if stated by her parents would indicate a need for Nurse Charlie to reexplain the purpose for elevating the head of the bed at a 10 to 20-degree angle? A. Help alleviate headache B. Increase intrathoracic pressure C. Maintain neutral position D. Reduce intra-abdominal pressure

B. Increase intrathoracic pressure

The classic signs and symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis include which of the following? A. Pain on weight-bearing, rash and low-grade fever. B. Joint swelling, joint stiffness in the morning and bilateral joint movement. C. Crepitus, development of Heberden's nodes and anemia. D. Fatigue, leucopenia and joint pain.

B. Joint swelling, joint stiffness in the morning and bilateral joint movement.

Which of the following information, when voiced by the mother, would indicate to the nurse that she understands home care instructions following the administration of diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis injection? A. Measures to control subsequent diarrhea B. Measures to reduce fever C. Need for dietary restrictions D. Reasons for subsequent rash

B. Measures to reduce fever

Which of the following conditions most commonly causes acute glomerulonephritis? A. A congenital condition leading to renal dysfunction. B. Prior infection with group A Streptococcus within the past 10-14 days. C. Viral infection of the glomeruli. D. Nephrotic syndrome.

B. Prior infection with group A Streptococcus within the past 10-14 days.

The rabies virus is passed on by contact with what part of an infected animal? A. Skin B. Saliva C. Blood D. Claws E. B and C

B. Saliva

A 5-month old infant was brought by his mother to the health center because of diarrhea occurring 4 to 5 times a day. His skin goes back slowly after a skin pinch and his eyes are sunken. Using the IMCI guidelines, you will classify this infant in which category? A. No signs of dehydration B. Some dehydration C. Severe dehydration D. The data is insufficient

B. Some dehydration

Based on the assessment, you classified a 3-month old infant with the chief complaint of diarrhea in the category of SOME DEHYDRATION. Based on the IMCI management guidelines, which of the following will you do? A. Bring the infant to the nearest facility where IV fluids can be given B. Supervise the mother in giving 200 to 400 ml of Oresol in 4 hours C. Give the infant's mother instructions on home management D. Keep the infant in your health center for close observation

B. Supervise the mother in giving 200 to 400 ml. of Oresol in 4 hours.

Which of the following is the most important purpose of handwashing? A. To promote hand circulation B. To prevent the transfer of microorganism C. To avoid touching the client with a dirty hand D. To provide comfort

B. To prevent the transfer of microorganisms.

It is estimated that Mycobacterium tuberculosis infects about what percentage of the world's population? A. 10%. B. 25%. C. 35%. D. 50%.

C. 35%.

HAP is the onset of pneumonia symptoms more than _____ hours after admission in patients with no evidence of infection at the time of admission. A. 72. B. 36. C. 48. D. 24.

C. 48.

Prophylactic isoniazid drug treatment is necessary for about how many months? A. 3 months. B. 3 to 5 months. C. 6 to 12 months. D. 13 to 18 months.

C. 6 to 12 months.

Which of the following individuals would the nurse consider to have the highest priority for receiving an influenza vaccination? A. A 60-year-old man with a hiatal hernia. B. A 36-year-old woman with 3 children. C. A 50-year-old woman caring for a spouse with cancer. D. A 60-year-old woman with osteoarthritis.

C. A 50-year-old woman caring for a spouse with cancer.

he client with varicella will most likely have an order for which category of medication? A. Antibiotics. B. Antipyretics. C. Antivirals. D. Anticoagulants.

C. Antivirals.

A 4 month-year-old infant has just received diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis (DtaP). Hours later, the mother report to the clinic because her child develops redness and swelling at the injection site. The nurse instructs the mother to do which of the following? A. Report to the clinic for a repeat injection on the other site B. Application of hot compress C. Application of cold compress D. Monitor for signs of fever

C. Application of cold compress

Which of the following medication is contraindicated for a patient with DHF? A. Coumadin. B. Warfarin. C. Aspirin. D. Acetaminophen.

C. Aspirin.

A child age 7 was unable to receive the measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine at the recommended scheduled time. When would the nurse expect to administer MMR vaccine? A. In a month from now. B. In a year from now. C. At age 10. D. At age 13.

C. At age 10

A male client with acute pyelonephritis receives a prescription for co-trimoxazole (Septra) P.O. twice daily for 10 days. Which finding best demonstrates that the client has followed the prescribed regimen? A. Urine output increases to 2,000 ml/day. B. Flank and abdominal discomfort decrease. C. Bacteria are absent in urine culture. D. The red blood cell (RBC) count is normal.

C. Bacteria are absent in urine culture.

A sign of possible UTI is: A. A negative urine culture. B. An output of 200 to 900 mL with each voiding. C. Cloudy urine. D. Urine with specific gravity of 1.005 to 1.022.

C. Cloudy urine.

Annaliza has a nursing diagnosis of fluid volume deficit. Which one of the following medications could potentially exacerbate the problem? A. Synthroid B. Digoxin C. Lasix D. Insulin

C. Lasix

Which of these statements is correct? A. Malaria is a neglected tropical disease B. If you get malaria once, you won't get it again C. Malaria is quite often endemic in poorer regions of the world

C. Malaria is quite often endemic in poorer regions of the world

fter trying to conceive for a year, a couple consults an infertility specialist. When obtaining a history from the husband, Nurse Jessica inquires about childhood infectious diseases. Which childhood infectious disease most significantly affects male fertility? A. Chickenpox B. Measles C. Mumps D. Scarlet fever

C. Mumps

An infected patient has chills and begins shivering. The best nursing intervention is to: A. Apply iced alcohol sponges B. Provide increased cool liquids C. Provide additional bedclothes D. Provide increased ventilation

C. Provide additional bedclothes

Nurse Parvati is assessing a child who is diagnosed with Meningococcemia. Which assessment findings would the nurse suspect? A. Prickling sensations around fingers and toes B. Bruising and discoloration around the eyes C. Purpuric lesions over the lower extremities D. Painless, progressive muscle weakness

C. Purpuric lesions over the lower extremities

A client has just been prescribed with Methotrexate (Trexall) for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis who did not respond to any other treatment. An important reminder for the client is to? A. Clay-colored stool is a normal response of the treatment. B. Pregnancy is not contraindicated with the use of the medication. C. Strict hand washing. D. Get a daily source of sunlight during the day.

C. Strict hand washing.

Sunshine, age 13, has had a lumbar puncture to examine the CSF to determine if bacterial infection exists. The best position to keep her in after the procedure is: A. Prone for two hours to prevent aspiration, should she vomit B. Semi-Fowler's so she can watch TV for five hours and be entertained C. Supine for several hours, to prevent a headache D. On her right sides to encourage return of CSF

C. Supine for several hours, to prevent a headache

In a client with diarrhea, which outcome indicates that fluid resuscitation is successful? A. The client passes formed stools at regular intervals B. The client reports a decrease in stool frequency and liquidity C. The client exhibits firm skin turgor D. The client no longer experiences perianal burning.

C. The client exhibits firm skin turgor.

Dr. Jones prescribes corticosteroids for a child with nephritic syndrome. What is the primary purpose of administering corticosteroids to this child? A. To increase blood pressure. B. To reduce inflammation. C. To decrease proteinuria. D. To prevent infection.

C. To decrease proteinuria.

1. A widely used laboratory test that measures HIV-RNA levels and tracks the body's response to HIV infection is the: A. CD4/CD8 ratio. B. EIA test. C. Viral load test. D. Western blot.

C. Viral load test.

Mr. Mc Princeton who is diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) complains about joints that always hurt, saying, "I just feel like staying in bed all day." Which discharge instruction would be aimed at maintaining as such function as possible? A. "Refrain from exercise because it only aggravates the disease process." B. "Apply elastic bandages to all joints to increase the pain threshold." C. "Maintain a supine position most of the day to prevent the stress of weight bearing." D. "Promote aquatic (water) exercises to enhance joint mobility."

D. "Promote aquatic (water) exercises to enhance joint mobility."

At which of the following ages would the nurse expect to administer the varicella zoster vaccine to a child? A. At birth. B. 2 months. C. 6 months. D. 12 months.

D. 12 months.

If you have been bitten or scratched by a wild animal, what should you do? A. Clean the wound with soap and water to remove any saliva B. Call your health care provider as soon as possible C. Call your state or local health department as soon as possible D. All of the above

D. All of the above

There is an increased risk of UTIs in the presence of: A. Altered metabolic states B. Immunosuppression. C. Urethral mucosa abrasion D. All of the above

D. All of the above

What can you do to prevent getting rabies? A. Have your pets and other domesticated animals regularly vaccinated against rabies B. Keep your dog on a leash when you take it outside your yard C. Don't approach wild animals D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Abnormal laboratory findings seen with AIDS include: A. Decreased CD4 and T cell count. B. P24 antigen. C. Positive EIA test. D. All of the above.

D. All of the above.

Nurse Lily is assessing a male client diagnosed with gonorrhea. Which symptom most likely prompted the client to seek medical attention? A. Rashes on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. B. Cauliflower-like warts on the penis. C. Painful red papules on the shaft of the penis. D. Foul-smelling discharge from the penis.

D. Foul-smelling discharge from the penis.

A 10-year-old client contracted Middle East Respiratory Syndrome (MERS-CoV) when traveling abroad with her parents. The nurse knows she must put on personal protective equipment to protect herself while providing care. Based on the mode of MERS-CoV transmission, which personal protective should the nurse wear? A. Gloves B. Gown and gloves C. Gown, gloves, and mask D. Gown, gloves, mask, and eye goggles or eye shield

D. Gown, gloves, mask, and eye goggles or eye shield

A 10-year-old client contracted COVID-19 when traveling abroad with her parents. The nurse knows she must put on personal protective equipment to protect herself while providing care. Based on the mode of transmission, which personal protective should the nurse wear? A. GlovesB. Gown and glovesC. Gown, gloves, and maskD. Gown, gloves, mask, and eye goggles or eye shield

D. Gown, gloves, mask, and eye goggles or eye shield.

Characteristics of the Mycobacterium tuberculosis include all of the following except: A. It can be transmitted only by droplet nuclei. B. It is acid-fast. C. It is able to lie dormant within the body for years. D. It survives in anaerobic conditions.

D. It survives in anaerobic conditions.

A public health nurse is conducting a seminar to a community about live, attenuated influenza vaccine (LAIV), inactivated influenza vaccine and antiviral medications to a group of nursing students. Which of the following statements by the students indicates a need for further teaching? A. Inactivated influenza vaccine is administered intramuscularly, while live, attenuated influenza vaccine (LAIV) is administered intranasally. B. Oseltamivir is recommended for the treatment of pregnant women with flu. C. Inactivated influenza vaccine contains killed viruses while live, attenuated influenza vaccine (LAIV) contains attenuated viruses still capable of replication within the host. D. Live-attenuated influenza vaccine is given during the influenza antiviral therapy.

D. Live-attenuated influenza vaccine is given during the influenza antiviral therapy.

The adolescent patient has symptoms of meningitis: nuchal rigidity, fever, vomiting, and lethargy. The nurse knows to prepare for the following test: A. Blood culture B. Throat and ear culture C. CAT scan D. Lumbar puncture

D. Lumbar puncture

Gold sodium thiomalate is prescribed to a client with rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following side effects indicates an overdosage of the medication? A. Flushing. B. Dizziness. C. Joint pain. D. Metallic taste.

D. Metallic taste.

The nurse is caring for a 20 lbs (9 kg) 6 month-old with a 3-day history of diarrhea, occasional vomiting and fever. Peripheral intravenous therapy has been initiated, with 5% dextrose in 0.33% normal saline with 20 mEq of potassium per liter infusing at 35 ml/hr. Which finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately? A. 3 episodes of vomiting in 1 hour B. Periodic crying and irritability C. Vigorous sucking on a pacifier D. No measurable voiding in 4 hours

D. No measurable voiding in 4 hours

You are the charge nurse on the pediatric unit when a pediatrician calls wanting to admit a child with rubeola (measles). Which of these factors is of most concern in determining whether to admit the child to your unit? A. There are several children receiving chemotherapy on the unit. B. The infection control nurse liaison is not on the unit today. C. The infection control nurse liaison is not on the unit today. D. No negative-airflow rooms are available on the unit.

D. No negative-airflow rooms are available on the unit.

A 26-year-old female client seeks care for a possible infection. Her symptoms include burning on urination and frequent, urgent voiding of small amounts of urine. She's placed on trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) to treat possible infection. Another medication is prescribed to decrease the pain and frequency. Which of the following is the most likely medication prescribed? A. Nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin) B. Ibuprofen (Motrin) C. Acetaminophen with codeine D. Phenazopyridine (Pyridium)

D. Phenazopyridine (Pyridium)

The most common infection in persons with AIDS (80% occurrence) is: A. Cytomegalovirus. B. Legionnaire's disease. C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis. D. Pneumocystis pneumonia.

D. Pneumocystis pneumonia.

Alaric was diagnosed with minimal-change nephrotic syndrome; which of the following signs and symptoms are characteristics of the said disorder? A. Hypertension, edema, hematuria. B. Hypertension, edema, proteinuria. C. Gross hematuria, fever, proteinuria. D. Poor appetite, edema, proteinuria.

D. Poor appetite, edema, proteinuria.

A newly admitted client is suspected to have avian influenza ("bird flu") due to increasing dyspnea and dehydration. Which of these prescribed actions will the nurse implement first? A. Give first dose of oseltamivir (Tamiflu) B. Instill 5% dextrose in water at 100 mL/hr C. Collect blood and sputum specimens for testing D. Start oxygen using a nonrebreather mask

D. Start oxygen using a nonrebreather mask

A 6-year-old child is scheduled to have measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine. Which of the following route will you expect the nurse to administer the vaccine? A. Intramuscularly in the vastus lateralis muscle. B. Intramuscularly in the deltoid muscle. C. Subcutaneously in the gluteal area. D. Subcutaneously in the outer aspect of the upper arm.

D. Subcutaneously in the outer aspect of the upper arm.

The most common site of a lower UTI is the: A. Bladder B. Kidney C. Prostate D. Urethra

D. Urethra

Which of the following treatment measures should be implemented for a child with leukemia who has been exposed to the chickenpox? A. No treatment is indicated. B. Acyclovir (Zovirax) should be started on exposure. C. Varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) should be given with the evidence of disease. D. VZIG should be given within 72 hours of exposure.

D. VZIG should be given within 72 hours of exposure.

Health information for a female patient diagnosed as having cystitis includes all of the following except: A. Cleanse around the perineum and urethral meatus from front to back. B. Drink liberal amounts of fluid. C. Shower rather than bathe in a tub. D. Void no more frequently than every 6 hours.

D. Void no more frequently than every 6 hours.

Which one of the following are NOT antimalarial compounds? A. Quinine B. Artemisinin C. Chloroquine D. Mefloquine E. Penicillin

E. Penicillin

The most significant initial nursing observations that need to be made about a client with myasthenia include: A. Respiratory exchange and ability to swallow B. Degree of anxiety about her diagnosis C. Ability to smile an to close her eyelids D. Ability to chew and speak distinctly

Respiratory exchange and ability to swallow

What is the leading cause of CAP? A. S. aureus. B. H. influenza. C. E. coli. D. S. pneumonia.

S. pneumonia.