Comptia Core 1 A+ P5

(This is a simulated Performance-Based Question. If this was on the real exam, you would be asked to drag and drop the steps into the proper order from step one to step seven.) Dion Training's email server is not sending out emails to users who have a Yahoo email address. What is the proper order that you should follow to troubleshoot this issue using the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology? (1) Verify system functionality; (2) Identify the problem; (3) Establish a theory of cause; (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem; (5) Test the theory to determine the cause; (6) Implement the solution; (7) Document findings and actions (1) Identify the problem; (2) Establish a theory of cause; (3) Test the theory to determine the cause; (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem; (5) Implement the solution; (6) Verify system functionality; (7) Document findings and actions (1) Establish a theory of cause; (2) Test the theory to determine the cause; (3) Identify the problem; (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem; (5) Verify system functionality; (6) Implement the solution; (7) Document findings and actions (1) Identify the problem; (2) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem; (3) Implement the solution; (4) Establish a theory of cause; (5) Test the theory to determine the cause; (6) Document findings and actions; (7) Verify system functionality

(1) Identify the problem; (2) Establish a theory of cause; (3) Test the theory to determine the cause; (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem; (5) Implement the solution; (6) Verify system functionality; (7) Document findings and actions OBJ-5.1: You must know the network troubleshooting methodology steps in the right order for the exam. You will see numerous questions both in the multiple-choice and simulation sections on this topic. If you received this question on the real exam, it will appear as a "drag and drop" question with each of the steps making up a single box, and you need to put them into the correct order. The troubleshooting steps are to (1) Identify the problem, (2) Establish a theory of probable cause, (3) Test the theory to determine the cause, (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and identify potential effects, (5) Implement the solution or escalate as necessary, (6) Verify full system functionality and if applicable implement preventative measures, and (7) Document findings, actions, outcomes, and lessons learned.

You are building a virtualization server that runs on Windows Server 2016. The server will host multiple virtual machines, each with a different operating system. Which type of hypervisor should you select for this environment? Type 2 IaaS Bare metal Type 1

Type 2 OBJ-4.2: A Type 2 hypervisor runs on top of an existing operating system. In this case, the scenario states that the virtualization server is already running Windows 2016, so you must install your hypervisor on Windows 2016. A Type 1 hypervisor, also known as bare metal, uses a specialized hypervisor OS to run the virtual machines (such as VM Ware's ESXi). Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a consumer to outsource computing equipment purchases and running their own data center.

What is the MOST common connector type used when connecting a USB cable to the back of a printer? Type A Mini-USB Micro-USB Type B

Type B OBJ-3.1: The most common USB connector used to connect to a printer is USB Type B. This connector has a large square-shaped male connector that is connected to the rear of the printer. A USB Type A connector is often used to connect to the workstation or computer itself. This question specifically asked which connector is being attached to the printer. Micro USB is a miniaturized version of the Universal Serial Bus (USB) interface developed for connecting compact and mobile devices such as smartphones, MP3 players, GPS devices, and digital cameras. Mini USB was introduced with USB 2.0 and was used with digital cameras and early tablets.

Which of the following types of USB connections can support data rates of up to 12 Mbps? You Answered USB 2.0 USB 3.0 USB 3.1 USB 1.1

USB 1.1 OBJ-3.1: USB 1.1 can support data rates up to 12 Mbps. Universal serial bus (USB) is the main type of connection interface used on desktops and laptops. A larger Type A connector attaches to a port on the host; Type B and Mini- or Micro-Type B connectors are used for devices. USB 1.1 supports 12 Mbps while USB 2.0 supports 480 Mbps and is backward compatible with 1.1 devices which run at a slower speed. USB devices are considered hot-swappable and each device can draw up to 2.5 W of power over a USB port. USB 3.0 and 3.1 define 5 Gbps (SuperSpeed) and 10 Gbps (SuperSpeed+) rates and can deliver up to 4.5 W of power.

Which of the following technologies could be used in a licensed long-range fixed wireless system? Bluetooth Cellular NFC Wi-Fi

Wi-Fi OBJ-2.3: Long-range fixed wireless can be licensed or unlicensed depending on the frequencies and power levels being utilized. For example, an 802.11 wireless network could be established using a directional antenna to connect two buildings over several miles using unlicensed frequencies and minimal power levels (under 200 mW) which are under the FCC limits. Alternatively, a microwave link can be established in the 4.91 GHz to 5.97 GHz unlicensed frequency range using a point-to-multipoint microwave antenna and transceiver system. Conversely, a user could purchase a licensed cellular fixed wireless system that requires a license from the FCC to operate to ensure they are not interfering with other users and services in the same frequency band.

Which of the following type of hard disk drives would provide the best performance in a gaming workstation? 5400 rpm 10,000 rpm 15,000 rpm 7200 rpm

15,000 rpm OBJ-3.3: Hard drive performance is limited based on the number of revolutions per minute (RPM) the disk can spin. If a disk can spin faster, it can retrieve or store data on the disk quicker. For a high-performance gaming computer, a 15,000 rpm hard disk drive or an SSD should be used. For low-end office desktops, using a 5,400 rpm hard disk drive to save money is acceptable.

A customer is upset that their laptop is too slow during the bootup process and when loading programs. The laptop is configured with an Intel i7 processor, 16 GB of RAM, a 500 GB HDD operating at 5400 RPM, and a dedicated GPU with 8 GB of RAM. Which of the following upgrades should you install to best increase the system's performance? 2 TB HDD 512 GB SSD Integrated GPU 32 GB of RAM

512 GB SSD OBJ-1.1: Based on the system specifications, the system's slowest part appears to be the 5400 RPM hard disk drive (HDD). Therefore, replacing the HDD with a solid-state device (SSD) would dramatically increase the loading speeds as the operating system and other programs are read from the storage device during bootup and when loading programs. Another viable option would be to purchase a faster HDD, such as operating at 7200 RPM or 10,000 RPM. Still, though, an SSD would be faster than a higher RPM HDD, so it remains the best answer. If the laptop had 4GB or less of memory then it would be appropriate to increase the memory to 8GB or 16GB to increase the speed. An integrated GPU cannot be upgraded on a laptop since the integrated GPU is built into the CPU of the laptop, nor could a dedicated GPU be added to most modern laptops.

You have been asked by Dion Training to build a specialized computer that will be used exclusively for running numerous virtual machines simultaneously for their lab environment. Which of the following should you install to BEST meet the company's needs? (Select TWO) 64 GB of DDR4 Intel i9 with 8-cores 1 TB HDD Intel i3 with 2-cores 8 GB of DDR3 1 TB SSD

64 GB of DDR4, Intel i9 with 8-cores OBJ-4.2: According to CompTIA, the two main things you need to include for a dedicated virtualization workstation are (1) maximum RAM and (2) multiple CPU cores. Based on the options provided, you should pick the 64 GB of DDR4 (maximum RAM) and the Intel i9 with 8-cores (multiple processor cores) for this workstation's configuration. The CPU should support virtualization and be a multicore processor. The memory should be fast and contain at least 16 GB of RAM to host numerous VMs effectively.

Which of the following is a public IP address? 68.24.91.15 10.0.1.45 172.18.2.68 192.168.1.45

68.24.91.15 OBJ-2.5: IP addresses are either public, private, localhost, or APIPA addresses. Any address from 169.254.1.0 to 169.254.254.255 is considered an APIPA address. A private IP address is in the range of 10.x.x.x, 172.16-31.x.x, or 192.168.x.x. A localhost IP is 127.0.0.1. All others are considered public IP addresses.

Which type of wireless network utilizes the 5 GHz frequency band and reaches speeds of up to 54 Mbps? 802.11ac 802.11a 802.11n 802.11g 802.11b 802.11ax

802.11a OBJ-2.3: The 802.11a (Wireless A) standard utilizes a 5 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 54 Mbps. Unfortunately, when this was first released, the radios to operate with this standard were fairly expensive, so it did not sell well or become widespread. The 802.11b (Wireless B) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 11 Mbps. The 802.11g (Wireless G) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 54 Mbps. The 802.11n (Wireless N) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 108 Mbps or a 5.0 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 600 Mbps. Wireless N supports the use of multiple-input-multiple-output (MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. Wireless N supports channel bonding by combining two 20 MHz channels into a single 40 MHz channel to provide additional bandwidth. The 802.11ac (Wireless AC or Wi-Fi 5) standard utilizes a 5 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at theoretical speeds up to 3.5 Gbps. Wireless AC uses channel bonding to create a single channel of up to 160 MHz to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses multi-user multiple-input-multiple-output (MU-MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. The 802.11ax (Wireless AX or Wi-Fi 6) standard utilizes 2.4 GHz and 5.0 GHz frequencies to provide wireless networking at theoretical speeds up to 9.6 Gbps. Wireless AC uses orthogonal frequency-division multiple access (OFDMA) to conduct multiplexing of the frequencies transmitted and received to each client to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses channel bonding to create a single channel of up to 160 MHz to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses multi-user multiple-input-multiple-output (MU-MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. Wireless AC also has a version called Wi-Fi 6E that supports the 6GHz frequency instead of the 2.4 GHz and 5.0 GHz frequencies used in Wi-Fi 6.

Your company is currently using a 5 GHz wireless security system, so your boss has asked you to install a 2.4 GHz wireless network to use for the company's computer network to prevent interference. Which of the following can NOT be installed to provide a 2.4 GHz wireless network? 802.11b 802.11g 802.11ac 802.11n

802.11ac OBJ-2.3: Wireless networks are configured to use either 2.4 GHz or 5.0 GHz frequencies, depending on the network type. 802.11a and 802.11ac both utilize a 5.0 GHz frequency for their communications. 802.11b and 802.11g both utilize a 2.4 GHz frequency for their communications. 802.11n and 802.11ax utilize either 2.4 GHz, 5.0 GHz, or both, depending on the Wi-Fi device's manufacturer. The 802.11b (Wireless B) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 11 Mbps. The 802.11g (Wireless G) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 54 Mbps. The 802.11n (Wireless N) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 108 Mbps or a 5.0 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 600 Mbps. Wireless N supports the use of multiple-input-multiple-output (MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. Wireless N supports channel bonding by combining two 20 MHz channels into a single 40 MHz channel to provide additional bandwidth. The 802.11ac (Wireless AC or Wi-Fi 5) standard utilizes a 5 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at theoretical speeds up to 5.5 Gbps. Wireless AC uses channel bonding to create a single channel of up to 160 MHz to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses multi-user multiple-input-multiple-output (MU-MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds.

Which type of wireless network utilizes the 5 GHz frequency band and reaches speeds of up to 9.6 Gbps? 802.11b 802.11g 802.11a 802.11n 802.11ax 802.11ac

802.11ax OBJ-2.3: The 802.11ax (Wireless AX or Wi-Fi 6) standard utilizes 2.4 GHz and 5.0 GHz frequencies to provide wireless networking at theoretical speeds up to 9.6 Gbps. Wireless AC uses orthogonal frequency-division multiple access (OFDMA) to conduct multiplexing of the frequencies transmitted and received to each client to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses channel bonding to create a single channel of up to 160 MHz to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses multi-user multiple-input-multiple-output (MU-MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. Wireless AC also has a version called Wi-Fi 6E that supports the 6GHz frequency instead of the 2.4 GHz and 5.0 GHz frequencies used in Wi-Fi 6. The 802.11ac (Wireless AC or Wi-Fi 5) standard utilizes a 5 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at theoretical speeds up to 3.5 Gbps. Wireless AC uses channel bonding to create a single channel of up to 160 MHz to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses multi-user multiple-input-multiple-output (MU-MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. The 802.11n (Wireless N) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 108 Mbps or a 5.0 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 600 Mbps. Wireless N supports the use of multiple-input-multiple-output (MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. Wireless N supports channel bonding by combining two 20 MHz channels into a single 40 MHz channel to provide additional bandwidth. The 802.11g (Wireless G) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 54 Mbps. The 802.11b (Wireless B) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 11 Mbps. The 802.11a (Wireless A) standard utilizes a 5 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 54 Mbps.

Dion Training has just installed a web server for a new domain name. Which of the following DNS records would need to be created to allow users to reach the website using its domain name and then redirect clients to the proper IPv6 address for the server? AAAA A MX SOA

AAAA OBJ-2.6: An AAAA record associates your domain name with an IPv6 address. An A record associates your domain name with an IPv4 address. An MX record is used for outgoing (SMTP) and incoming (POP3/IMAP) traffic. A Start of Authority (SOA) resource record indicates which Domain Name Server (DNS) is the best source of information for the specified domain.

(This is a simulated Performance-Based Question. On the real certification exam, you will be asked to click on the appropriate device in a network diagram to see and modify its configuration.) Wireless network users recently began experiencing speed and performance issues on your network after Access Point 2 (AP2) was replaced due to a recent hardware failure. The original wireless network was installed according to a wireless consultant's specifications and has always worked properly without any past issues. You have been asked to evaluate the situation and resolve any issues you find to improve the network's performance and connectivity. The client has instructed you to adjust the least amount of settings/configurations possible while attempting to fix the issue. Before arriving on-site, you receive the below office's floor plan with an elementary network diagram drawn on top. Based on the information provided to you so far, which network device would you log into first to begin your troubleshooting efforts? AP1 SW1 AP3 AP2

AP2 OBJ-5.7: Since everything was working properly on the network before AP2 was replaced after the recent hardware failure, AP2 likely has some configuration error that has led to the recent connectivity and performance problems. Therefore, you should begin your troubleshooting efforts with AP2. According to the CompTIA troubleshooting method, you should always determine if anything has changed and question the obvious. If AP2 was recently replaced, it is most likely the device with an incorrect configuration setting or the one causing the issues.

You have connected a new Smart TV to your home network and powered it on. When you try to access Netflix, you receive an error. You check the Network Status menu and see an IP address of 169.254.0.24. Which of the following types of IP addresses has your new Smart TV been assigned? Private Public APIPA Link-local

APIPA OBJ-2.5: Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) is a feature in operating systems (such as Windows) that enables computers to automatically self-configure an IP address and subnet mask when their DHCP server isn't reachable. A private IP address is an IP address reserved for internal use behind a router or other Network Address Translation (NAT) devices, apart from the public. Private IP addresses provide an entirely separate set of addresses that still allow access to a network without taking up a public IP address space. A public IP address is an IP address that is used to access the Internet and can be routed on the Internet, unlike private addresses. A link-local IP is an IPv6 address that is valid only for communications within the network segment or the broadcast domain that the host is connected to.

(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component's name onto the proper location on the motherboard.) Using the image of the motherboard above, which of the following correctly indicates the circled area? Audio connector PATA connector USB connector Front panel connector

Audio connector OBJ-3.4: The area circled indicates the audio connector on this motherboard. This is used to connect the CD/DVD audio cable from the drive to the motherboard for digital audio. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of the motherboard by sight.

A user submits a trouble ticket for their laptop. The user states that every time they move the laptop from one place to another, the system loses power and shutdowns. You have examined the laptop fully and then removed and reinstalled the hard drive, RAM, ribbon cable to the LCD, and the battery, but the laptop is still shutting down whenever it is moved. Which of the following is MOST likely causing the issue with this laptop shutting down? Laptop is unplugged Battery connection is loose Laptop is overheating Failed CMOS battery

Battery connection is loose OBJ-5.5: Based on the symptoms provided (laptop shutting down whenever it is moved), it is most likely a loose battery connection causing the issue. If the battery connection wasn't loos and the laptop was unplugged, the laptop would continue to run on battery power. Overheating can cause a laptop to shut down, but it wouldn't necessarily happen each time the laptop is moved. If the CMOS battery fails, it will not cause the laptop to shut down, but instead will cause the laptop to lose the correct date/time.

Which of the following wireless networking technologies is commonly used to connect a mouse to a laptop to create a PAN? Microwave Bluetooth NFC Wi-Fi

Bluetooth OBJ-2.3: A personal area network (PAN) is a close-range network that is usually based on Bluetooth or NFC for communications between personal devices, such as smartphones, laptops, printers, and other peripheral devices. Bluetooth is a wireless technology standard used for exchanging data between fixed and mobile devices over short distances using UHF radio waves in the industrial, scientific, and medical radio bands from 2.402 GHz to 2.480 GHz and building a personal area network (PAN). Bluetooth is commonly used when connecting wireless devices like mice, trackpads, headphones, and other devices. Near-field communication (NFC) is a set of communication protocols that enable two electronic devices, one of which is usually a portable device such as a smartphone, to establish communication by bringing them within 4 cm of each other. This is commonly used for contactless payment systems, transferring contacts, or transferring a file from one device to another. Wi-Fi is the IEEE 802.11 standard for wireless networking based on spread spectrum radio transmission in the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands. The standard has six main iterations (a, b, g, n, ac, and ax), describing different modulation techniques, supported distances, and data rates. Microwave transmissions occur when using a frequency between 4 GHz and 10 GHz depending on the implementation. Microwave links are used for long-range fixed wireless services.

Sally just purchased a new iPhone and AirPods to listen to her music. After setting up the new iPhone, she can get online and watch YouTube, but her wireless headphones aren't working. Which of the following is MOST likely the problem? Cellular is not enabled The phone is in airplane mode WiFi is not enabled Bluetooth is not enabled

Bluetooth is not enabled OBJ-5.5: Since Sally can connect to the internet, either her cellular or WiFi is enabled, and the phone would not be in airplane mode. Since AirPods work over Bluetooth, it is most likely that the Bluetooth is not enabled on the new phone and should be turned on. Once Bluetooth is enabled, the Airpods will need to be paired to the device to begin using them.

An employee is complaining that their workstation is not booting into Windows when they reboot their machine. You noticed that during the reboot, the system is loading into a PXE-based OS. What should you do next? Boot into recovery mode to fix the boot order Reboot PC to determine if it will boot from the HDD Press F12 to boot into boot mode and select the correct device Boot to BIOS and select the HDD from the boot order

Boot to BIOS and select the HDD from the boot orde OBJ-5.3: PXE (Preboot Execution Environment) is a network boot execution process allowing you to retrieve an image from a PXE server. It is often used for reimaging computers in corporate deployments. To boot from the hard drive instead, the BIOS's boot order should be changed from PXE to HDD. Rebooting the workstation will just reload the PXE-based OS again. Since the system is booting to the PXE environment, it is bypassing the internal hard drive's OS making recovery mode an invalid choice.

A technician is building a new computer for Dion Training. The technician installs the motherboard, processor, memory, hard drives, and case fans, then they attempt to connect the cables to the appropriate connections. When the technician powers on the system, the fans spin, and the motherboard's LEDs light up. Unfortunately, the computer does not successfully complete the POST and the monitor remains blank. Which of the following did the technician likely forget to connect to the motherboard? CPU 8-pin power cable Motherboard 24-pin power cable Case fan 4-pin power cable SATA 15-pin power cable

CPU 8-pin power cable OBJ-5.2: Based on the scenario, it is most likely that the technician forgot to connect the 8-pin CPU power cable. Without the CPU receiving power, the POST test cannot be run and the system will not boot up. If the motherboard power cable was not connected, then the motherboard's LED would not be lit. If the SATA 15-pin power cable was not connected, the system could still complete the POST and a "bootable device not found" error would be displayed on the monitor. If the case fan's power cables were not connected, the fans would not be spinning. Therefore, the right answer must be that the CPU power cable was not properly connected by the technician.

Which of the following tools is used by a technician to remove the jacket or sheathing from a wire when building a cable? Punchdown tool Crimper Cable tester Cable stripper

Cable stripper OBJ-2.8: A cable stripper is used to remove the plastic jacket from an ethernet cable to access its internal wires (twisted pairs). A cable tester is used to ensure a cable is properly created as a patch cable (straight through) or a crossover cable. Cable testers provide detailed information on the physical and electrical properties of the cable. For example, they test and report cable conditions, crosstalk, attenuation, noise, resistance, and other cable run characteristics. Punchdown tools are used to connect an ethernet cable to the back of a patch panel, a punchdown block, or the back of a network wall jack. A crimper is a tool used to attach an RJ-45 plastic connector to an unshielded twisted pair (UTP) or shielded twisted pair (STP) cable. It pushes a portion of the plastic into the jacket of the cable to hold it in place.

You have been asked to fix a laptop with a screen image that is being displayed upside down. What is the BEST method to fix this issue? Change the orientation of the screen Replace the LCD panel Update the display drivers Replace the integrated GPU

Change the orientation of the screen OBJ-1.3: Windows offers a beneficial function for viewing documents or playing pranks on your friends. With a simple key combination, you can rotate your screen in any direction - flip it upside-down, or lay it on the side. To change your laptop screen orientation, hold down the Ctrl and Alt keys on your keyboard, then press the up/down/left/right arrow key. You can also change your screen orientation in the Windows display settings. An integrated GPU is part of the laptop's CPU and cannot be easily replaced. The display drivers and the LCD panel are not the cause of the issue since you can see the screen image properly (although it is being displayed upside down).

You are troubleshooting a computer, and your supervisor believes that the issue is with the workstation's RAM. Which of the following symptoms did your supervisor likely observe? Burning smell Distended capacitors Continuous reboot Incorrect date/time on the workstation

Continuous reboot OBJ-5.2: Hardware failure or system instability can cause the computer to reboot continuously. The problem could be the RAM, hard drive, power supply, graphics card, or external devices. Based on the symptoms of a continuous reboot, the supervisor likely suspected the RAM as the cause of the issue. A burning smell is indicative of a bad power supply. A foul odor is indicative of a distended capacitor. The incorrect date/time on the workstation is indicative of a dead CMOS battery.

Your son accidentally knocked his laptop off his desk while it was charging. Your son picks up the laptop and notices that the laptop's battery will no longer charge. You begin to troubleshoot the problem to identify the cause. You ensure the laptop is connected to the power adapter and that the power adapter is plugged into a power outlet, but the laptop's battery will still not charge. Which of the following components was MOST likely damaged when the laptop was knocked off of the desk? DC jack Hard drive Battery Power adapter

DC jack OBJ-5.5: One of the most important parts of any good laptop is the DC power jack. This item allows you to charge your battery and provides you with a steady source of electricity. If it fails, your laptop will lose power and eventually be unable to turn it on. If your battery won't charge or will only charge if the connection is made at a certain angle, this is usually an indication that the DC power jack has failed. To rule out the battery or power adapter as the source of the problem, you can use a multimeter to ensure they are providing the right amount of power.

You have been asked by Dion Training to build a specialized computer that will be used exclusively as a gaming machine for beta testing some new video games they are developing. Which of the following should you install to BEST meet the company's needs? (Select FOUR) Dedicated video card with GPU 1 TB HDD CPU with integrated GPU 512 GB SSD Liquid cooling 7.1 Dolby Sound audio card

Dedicated video card with GPU, 512 GB SSD, Liquid cooling, 7.1 Dolby Sound audio card. OBJ-3.4: According to CompTIA, the four main things you need to include for a gaming PC are (1) an SSD, (2) a high-end video/specialized GPU, (3) a high-definition sound card, and (4) high-end cooling. Based on the options provided, you should pick the 512 GB SSD (instead of the 1 TB HDD), the dedicated video card with GPU (instead of the CPU with integrated GPU), the 7.1 Dolby Sound audio card (instead of integrated sound from the motherboard), and the high-end cooling (liquid cooling over fans) for this workstation's configuration.

A technician needs to upgrade the RAM in a database server. The server's memory must support maintaining the highest levels of integrity. Which of the following type of RAM should the technician install? Non-Parity SODIMM VRAM ECC

ECC OBJ-3.2: Error checking and correcting or error correcting code (ECC) is a type of system memory that has built-in error correction security. ECC is more expensive than normal memory and requires support from the motherboard. ECC is commonly used in production servers and not in standard desktops or laptops. Non-parity memory is a type of system memory that does not perform error checking except when conducting the initial startup memory count. VRAM (video RAM) refers to any type of random access memory (RAM) specifically used to store image data for a computer display. A small outline dual inline memory module (SODIMM) can be purchased in various types and sizes to fit any laptop, router, or other small form factor computing device.

You have been asked to provide some training to Dion Training's system administrators about the importance of proper patching of a system before deployment. To demonstrate the effects of deploying a new system without patching it first, you ask the system administrators to provide you with an image of a brand-new server they plan to deploy. How should you deploy the image to demonstrate the vulnerabilities exposed while maintaining the security of the corporate network? Utilize a server with multiple virtual machine snapshots installed o it, restore from a known compromised image, then scan it for vulnerabilities Deploy the image to a brand new physical server, connect it to the corporate network, then conduct a vulnerability scan to demonstrate how many vulnerabilities are now on the network Deploy the system image within a virtual machine, ensure it is in an isolated sandbox environment, then scan it for vulnerabilities Deploy the vulnerable image to a virtual machine on a physical server, create an ACL to restrict all incoming connections to the system, then scan it for vulnerabilities

Deploy the system image within a virtual machine, ensure it is in an isolated sandbox environment, then scan it for vulnerabilities OBJ-4.2: To ensure your corporate network's safety, any vulnerable image you deploy should be done within a sandboxed environment. This will ensure that an outside attacker cannot exploit the vulnerabilities but will still allow you to show the vulnerabilities found during a scan to demonstrate how important patching is to the security of the server.

What is the sixth step of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology? Test the theory to determine the cause Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution Document findings, actions, and outcomes Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures

Document findings, actions, and outcomes OBJ-5.1: For the exam, it is important that you can list and identify the 6 steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology in order. (1) Identify the problem. (2) Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). (3) Test the theory to determine the cause. (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and then implement the solution. (5) Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures. (6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

You have just installed a second monitor for a bookkeeper's workstation so they can stretch their spreadsheets across both monitors. This would essentially let them use the two monitors as one combined larger monitor. Which of the following settings should you configure? Color depth Extended mode Refresh rate Resolution

Extended mode OBJ-5.4: The extended mode allows the Windows output to be stretched across two or more monitors as if they were a single monitor. This can be configured under the Display settings in Windows 10. Refresh rate is the measure of how fast an image can be updated on a monitor or display. If a monitor has a lower refresh rate, then blurring and ghosting can occur. Color depth defines how many unique colors can be displayed by the projected image at once. Most monitors have a default or native resolution. When you first connect a monitor to a Windows workstation, this native resolution is detected, and Windows attempts to configure itself automatically. If this creates an imbalance between the two monitors, a technician can adjust the screen's resolution by changing it in the Display settings area of Windows 10.

You are building a virtualization environment to host public-facing servers that must connect to the internet. This will require that you install several secured Linux distributions as VMs. The VMs need to have access to a virtualized network and communicate with the host operating system and the internet. Which of the following types of network connections should you configure for each VM? Internal Localhost Private External

External OBJ-4.2: If you select external, the VMs would have internet access. If you select internal, each VM can communicate between the host and the other VMs. The private network connection type will create a switch that is usable only by the VMs. The VMs cannot use the switch to communicate with the host. If you select localhost, each VM could only communicate with itself.

What type of connector is used to terminate a coaxial cable? RJ-11 DB-9 RJ-45 F type

F type OBJ-3.1: The F type connector is used with coaxial cables. Both RG-6 and RG-59 are cable types used for coaxial cable connections. RG-6 cabling is recommended for your Cable TV, satellite, TV antennas, or broadband internet. RG-59 cabling is generally better for most CCTV systems and other analog video signals. An RJ-45 connector is used to terminate a copper twisted-pair Ethernet cable. A DB-9 connector is used to terminate an RS-232 serial cable. An RJ-11 connector is used to terminate cables used for phone lines.

Which of the following types of connectors are used to terminate a coaxial cable for your cable modem? DB-9 RJ-45 F-type RJ-11

F-type OBJ-3.1: F type is the connector used with coaxial cables. Both RG-6 and RG-59 are cable types used for coaxial cable connections. RG-6 cabling is recommended for your Cable TV, satellite, TV antennas, or broadband internet. RG-59 cabling is generally better for most CCTV systems and other analog video signals. A copper twisted-pair Ethernet cable is usually terminated with an RJ-45 connector. An RS-232 serial cable is normally terminated with a DB-9 connector. A fiber optic cable normally uses an ST, SC, LC, or MTRJ connector.

An Android user recently cracked their screen and had it replaced. If they are in a dark room, the phone works fine. If the user enters a room with normal lights on, then the phone's display is dim and hard to read. What is MOST likely the problem? Defective display Auto-brightness is enabled Low battery Faulty ambient light sensor

Faulty ambient light sensor OBJ-5.5: The ambient light sensor appears to be broken or malfunctioning. The ambient light sensor may be too sensitive as it is taking in more light than usual. This can occur if the sensor is faulty or if the screen was replaced incorrectly, and the technician forgot to install the black gasket around the ambient light sensor. The auto-brightness setting being enabled would increase the brightness in a lit room and decrease the brightness in a dark room. If the device has a low battery, it may dim the display to save battery life but it would still be readable. If the display was defective, it would be difficult to read in all light conditions and not just in the bright room.

You have just finished building a Windows server, installing its operating system, updating its security patches, formatting a dedicated data partition, and creating accounts for all of the company's employees. What is the next thing that must be configured to provide users with the ability to access the data contained on the server's data partition? File sharing RAID storage Audit logging Print server

File sharing OBJ-2.4: Most of the options provided are reasonable next steps, but the question specifically states that you want to allow the users to access the server's data. Therefore, file sharing is the next step to providing access to the data and folders for employees on the network. After configuring file sharing, it would be good to configure audit logging and possibly a print server. RAID storage should have been configured before installing the operating system or creating the data partition. A file server is used to host and control access to shared files and folders for the organization.

A company wants to ensure that its mobile devices are configured to protect any data stored on them if they are lost or stolen. Which of the following should you enable and enforce through their MDM? Full storage encryption Enable OS updates Remove backups Enable SSO

Full storage encryption OBJ-1.4: Mobile device management (MDM) software suites are designed to manage the use of smartphones and tablets within an enterprise. Full storage encryption is used to encrypt the user and system data stored in the device's internal storage. The encryption key is stored in a protected portion of the device and can be used to remotely wipe the device if it is lost or stolen. Single sign-on (SSO) is an authentication technology that allows a user to authenticate once and receive authorizations for multiple services. Operating system updates are made freely available by the software manufacturer to fix problems in a particular software version, including any security vulnerabilities. Updates can be classified as hotfixes (available only to selected customers and for a limited problem), patches (generally available), and service packs (installable collections of patches and software improvements). A backup is a copy of user and system data that can enable the recovery of data after data loss or a disaster.

Which of the following cloud services provides access to Docs, Sheets, Drive, and other productivity tools using a subscription-based pricing model? Google Workspace iTunes Microsoft 365 iCloud

Google Workspace OBJ-1.4: Google Workspace is a collection of cloud computing, productivity and collaboration tools, software, and products developed and marketed by Google. Microsoft 365, formerly Office 365, is a line of subscription services offered by Microsoft which adds to and includes the Microsoft Office product line. Apple's online cloud storage and file synchronization service for macOS and iOS devices is called iCloud. The service provides a centralized location for mail, contacts, calendar, photos, notes, reminders, and files online. Apple's iTunes is a media player, media library, Internet radio broadcaster, mobile device management utility, and the client app for the iTunes Store. It is not a cloud-based solution for synchronization.

You are troubleshooting a storage issue on a customer's computer. During the computer's operation, you hear a loud, rhythmic sound. Which of the following storage components is likely failing? RAM SSD HDD M.2 PCIe

HDD OBJ-5.3: A hard disk drive (HDD) is a mechanical storage device that relies on a storage platter and a read arm. When a hard drive begins to fail, the drive will begin to make a loud clicking noise. This noise is usually rhythmic since the failed spot makes the noise every time the drive rotates during the read/write process. The other options (M.2 PCIe, SSD, and RAM) have no moving parts; therefore, no rhythmic noise would be created during their failure.

Which of the following protocols operates over port 143 by default? POP3 RDP IMAP HTTPS

IMAP OBJ-2.1: The internet message access protocol (IMAP) is a TCP/IP application protocol that provides a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server using TCP port number 143. Unlike POP3, messages persist on the server after the client has downloaded them. IMAP also supports mailbox management functions, such as creating subfolders and access to the same mailbox by more than one client at the same time. The post office protocol (POP3) is a TCP/IP application protocol providing a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server over port 110. The server usually deletes messages once the client has downloaded them. The hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over port 443. The remote desktop protocol (RDP) is a protocol used for the remote administration of a host using a graphical user interface. RDP operates over TCP port 3389.

Which of the following would installing a multicore CPU achieve? Increased video editing speed Increased video speed Increased performance and overall processing Accessing shared folders on a server

Increased performance and overall processing OBJ-3.4: A multicore CPU offers essential performance, and overall processing increases to the system. When attempting to access shared folders on a server, a high-performance network interface card (NIC) would be a better choice. When trying to increase the video playback or video editing speed, installing a dedicated GPU would be a more appropriate choice.

John connected his MacBook to the corporate network and is trying to print to the office's large network printer. John notices that the print job is failing to print. The other employees in the office are having no issues printing from their Windows workstations. Which of the following should be done to resolve John's issue? Enable Bonjour on John's MacBook Install and enable the OS X printing option on the network printer Install the print drivers for OS X on the print server Restart the print spooler on the print server

Install the print drivers for OS X on the print server OBJ-3.6: You should install the print drivers for OS X (macOS) on the print server to ensure compatibility with MacBooks and iMac devices. Since the Windows users can print to the network printer without any issues, the printer and the network are working properly. Instead, the most likely explanation is that the print server does not have the print drivers for OS X (macOS) installed on it.

Tom, a student, wants to install Windows and Linux to practice configuring these operating systems as part of his CompTIA+ studies. His current Windows 10 laptop has a multi-core processor, and 16 GB of RAM installed. Which of the following should Tom do? Install virtualization software and install each OS as a virtual machine Buy an inexpensive Windows 10 laptop Purchase a Chromebook and utilize cloud-based virtual machines Purchase a new high-end gaming laptop with Windows 10 pre-installed

Install virtualization software and install each OS as a virtual machine OBJ-4.2: The best solution would be to install virtualization software like VirtualBox, VM Ware, or Hyper-V. This will allow the student to run additional operating systems for practice. While they could buy additional laptops to practice on, there is no need to spend money on additional hardware since their laptop has multiple cores and plenty of memory to create the two virtual machines. Based on the information provided, Tom's computer is sufficient to run at least one Linux virtual machine on his Windows system so he doesn't need to buy a new laptop. Chromebooks do not support virtual machines. If Tom was going to use cloud-based virtual machines, he could use his current Windows machine to access them instead of buying a new Chromebook.

Dion Training uses a VoIP conferencing solution to conduct its weekly staff meetings. When Jason is talking, some of the employees say it sounds like he is speeding up and slowing down randomly. Tamera is sitting in the office with Jason, and she says Jason is speaking at the same rate the entire time. Which of the following network performance metrics would be most useful in determining why the VoIP service is not presenting a consistent pace when delivering Jason's voice over the network? Jitter Bandwidth Throughput Latency

Jitter OBJ-5.7: Jitter is a network condition that occurs when a time delay in the sending of data packets over a network connection occurs. Jitter is a big problem for any real-time applications you may be supporting on your networks, like video conferences, voice-over IP, and virtual desktop infrastructure clients. A jitter is simply a variation in the delay of the packets, and this can cause some strange side effects, especially for voice and video calls. If you have ever been in a video conference where someone was speaking and then their voice started speeding up for 5 or 10 seconds, then returned to normal speed, you have been on the receiving end of their network's jitter. Latency is the measure of time that it takes for data to reach its destination across a network. Usually, we measure network latency as the round-trip time from a workstation to the distant end and back. Throughput is an actual measure of how much data is successfully transferred from the source to a destination. Bandwidth is the maximum rate of data transfer across a given network. Now, bandwidth is more of a theoretical concept that measures how much data could be transferred from a source to a destination under ideal conditions. Therefore, we often measure throughput, instead of bandwidth, to monitor our network performance.

Which of the following devices would allow you to control and provide input commands to multiple servers within the same server rack using a single set of input devices? Touchpad KVM Mouse Keyboard

KVM OBJ-3.1: A keyboard video mouse (KVM) switch is used to support a single set of input and output devices controlling several PCs. A KVM is typically used with servers but 2- port versions allow a single keyboard, mouse, and display to be used with two PCs. Generally, a single KVM installed in each server rack allows the administrator to quickly switch between physical servers within the rack using the same keyboard, mouse, and monitor. A touchpad is an input device used on most laptops to replace a mouse. The touchpad allows the user to control the cursor by moving a finger over the pad's surface. A mouse is an input device that is used to control the movements of a cursor and to select objects on the screen. A keyboard is an input device that is used to enter data into a computer using different key layouts based on the geographical region in which it is used.

You are building a bitcoin mining workstation that will have multiple graphics cards, lots of memory, and an octa-core processor. This computer is expected to generate a lot of heat during its operations. Which of the following solutions would MOST efficiently dissipate all of the heat produced? Replace the power supply with a more efficient model Passive heat sink High RPM fans Liquid cooling system

Liquid cooling system OBJ-3.4: Since the system described in the question will have multiple graphics cards (GPUs), lots of memory, and an 8-core CPU, it is expected to generate a lot of heat during its crypto mining operation. For any extremely high-powered processing environment that generates a lot of heat (for example, gaming workstations), liquid cooling becomes the MOST efficient way to dissipate the system's heat. A heat sink is a block of copper or aluminum with fins. A cooling effect occurs when convection is achieved using passive cooling as the fins expose a larger surface area to the air around the component. Fans are used to dissipate the heat generated by the processors by increasing the airflow across the components. Replacing the power supply with a more efficient model can reduce some of the heat generated by the power supply, but it will not reduce the heat generated by the CPU or the graphics cards.

Which of the following technologies would allow an organization to secure and manage their customer enterprise applications that are installed on a user's smartphone or tablet? CDMA GSM MDM MAM

MAM OBJ-1.4: Mobile application management (MAM) is software that secures and enables IT administrators to have control over enterprise applications on end users' corporate and personal smartphones and tablets. MAM software allows IT administrators to apply and enforce corporate policies on mobile apps and limit the sharing of corporate data among apps. Mobile device management (MDM) software suites are designed to manage the use of smartphones and tablets within an enterprise. MAMs focus on the application while MDMs focus on the device. The global system for mobile (GSM) communication standard for cellular radio communications and data transfer uses a SIM card to identify the subscriber and network provider. The code division multiple access (CDMA) communication standard for cellular radio communications and data transfer uses a method of multiplexing a communications channel using a code to key the modulation of a particular signal.

Due to a global pandemic, your company decides to implement a telework policy for its employees. Unfortunately, the company doesn't have enough time to issue laptops and smartphones to each employee. The Chief Information Officer (CIO) has decided to allow employees to use their laptops and smartphones when conducting their work from home. Which of the following technologies should be implemented to allow the company the ability to manage the employees' mobile devices, provide security updates, and perform remote administration? MDM GSM CDMA NVMe

MDM OBJ-1.4: Mobile application management (MAM) is software that secures and enables IT administrators to have control over enterprise applications on end users' corporate and personal smartphones and tablets. MAM software allows IT administrators to apply and enforce corporate policies on mobile apps and limit the sharing of corporate data among apps. Since the employees will be using their laptops and smartphones, the company should implement and install MDM across the employee's devices to better secure their devices if they give the company permission. The global system for mobile (GSM) communication standard for cellular radio communications and data transfer uses a SIM card to identify the subscriber and network provider. The code division multiple access (CDMA) communication standard for cellular radio communications and data transfer uses a method of multiplexing a communications channel using a code to key the modulation of a particular signal. Non-volatile memory express (NVMe) is an interface for connecting flash memory devices, such as SSDs, directly to a PCI Express bus. NVMe allows much higher transfer rates than SATA/AHCI.

You are currently conducting passive reconnaissance in preparation for an upcoming penetration test against Dion Training. You are reviewing the DNS records for the company and are trying to identify which of their servers accept email messages for their domain name. Which of the following DNS records should you analyze? SRV TXT MX NS

MX OBJ-2.6: Mail Exchange (MX) records are used to provide the mail server that accepts email messages for a particular domain. Nameserver (NS) records are used to list the authoritative DNS server for a particular domain. Text (TXT) records are used to provide information about a resource such as a server, network, or service in human-readable form. They often contain domain verification and domain authentications for third-party tools that can send information on behalf of a domain name. Service (SRV) records are used to provide host and port information on services such as voice over IP (VoIP) and instant messaging (IM) applications.

A workstation is having intermittent issues and continues to receive system errors or freeze. You believe that the problem is being caused by the workstation's motherboard, not getting the proper amount of power to it, and you want to perform a test to confirm your theory. Which of the following tools should you use to determine if the proper amount of power is being supplied to the motherboard? Cable tester Loopback plug Multimeter POST card

Multimeter OBJ-5.2: A multimeter can measure the voltage, amperage, and resistance of a circuit. A multimeter can be a hand-held device useful for basic fault finding and field service work or a bench instrument that can measure electricity with a high degree of accuracy. Using a multimeter, you can determine the exact voltage being supplied to the motherboard from the workstation's power supply. A POST card is a plug-in diagnostic interface card that displays progress and error codes generated during the power-on self-test of a computer. A loopback plug is used to test a port. When you connect a loopback plug to a port, you should see a solid connection LED. You can also use the loopback plug in conjunction with diagnostic software. A cable tester is used to ensure a cable is properly created as a patch cable (straight through) or a crossover cable. Cable testers provide detailed information on the physical and electrical properties of the cable. For example, they test and report cable conditions, crosstalk, attenuation, noise, resistance, and other cable run characteristics.

You are at the grocery store. At the checkout, you place your smartphone near the payment terminal to authorize the charge. Which of the following technologies did you use to make this purchase? Smart card Zigbee NFC KVM

NFC OBJ-1.3: NFC (near-field communication) is a set of communication protocols that enable two electronic devices to establish communication by bringing them within an inch or two (3-4 cm) of each other. Most modern smartphones use NFC to provide payment information between a smartphone and an NFC reader at the store. Apple Pay and Google Pay are examples of NFC payment solutions. Zigbee is a low-power wireless communications open-source protocol used primarily for home automation. Zigbee uses radio frequencies in the 2.4 GHz band and a mesh topology. A smart card is a card with a chip containing data on it. Smart cards are typically used for authentication, with the chip storing authentication data such as a digital certificate. A keyboard video mouse (KVM) switch is used to support a single set of input and output devices controlling several PCs. A KVM is more typically used with servers but 2- port versions allow a single keyboard, mouse, and display to be used with two PCs.

(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component's name onto the proper location on the motherboard.) Using the image of the motherboard above, which of the following correctly indicates the circled area? Port cluster Front connection PATA connector AGP

Port cluster OBJ-3.4: The area circled indicates the port cluster on the rear of the motherboard. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of the motherboard by sight.

Natalie just bought a new mobile Android phone, but her current phone is an iPhone. She needs to move all of her phone's existing contacts and appointments from her calendar from her current phone to her new phone. Natalie's iPhone was configured to use her Dion Training corporate account to save all her contacts and appointments to their cloud-based service, as well. Which of the following is the BEST way for Natalie to migrate her data from her old iPhone to her new Android device? Natalie should perform a backup of her iPhone using iTunes on her PC and then import the contacts and appointments from her PC to her new Android device Natalie should log into her corporate email account on the new Android phone and restore her contacts and appointments to the new device Natalie should create an NFC connection to transfer all compatible data between the iPhone and the Android devices Natalie should create a wireless Bluetooth connection between the iPhone and the Android devices and use it to copy her contacts and appointments to the new device

Natalie should log into her corporate email account on the new Android phone and restore her contacts and appointments to the new device OBJ-1.4: Since Natalie has a corporate account used to synchronize data from her device to the cloud, the easier and quickest method would be to fully synchronize her contacts and appointments to her corporate cloud-based account from her old device first. Then, she can configure her new Android device to access her corporate account. It will automatically download and synchronize the data from the cloud-based servers onto her new Android device. Moving data over Bluetooth from an iPhone to an Android can be complicated, so using the cloud synchronization option would be easier and faster. You cannot use iTunes to move data from an iPhone to an Android device since iTunes only supports iPhone and iPad devices. While NFC can transfer data between two phones that are placed close together, it is not the optimal way to transmit large amounts of data such as all of the contacts or appointments from a previous phone.

Which of the following protocols operates over port 137 by default? LDAP NetBIOS IMAP RDP

NetBIOS OBJ-2.1: The network basic input/output system (NetBIOS)/NetBIOS over TCP/IP (NetBT) is a session management protocol used to provide name registration and resolution services on legacy Microsoft networks and those using WINS. NetBIOS/NetBT operates on TCP/UDP ports 137 and 139. The internet message access protocol (IMAP) is a TCP/IP application protocol that provides a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server using TCP port number 143. Unlike POP3, messages persist on the server after the client has downloaded them. IMAP also supports mailbox management functions, such as creating subfolders and access to the same mailbox by more than one client at the same time. The lightweight directory access protocol (LDAP) is a protocol used to access and update information in an X.500-style network resource directory. LDAP uses port 389. The remote desktop protocol (RDP) is a protocol used for the remote administration of a host using a graphical user interface. RDP operates over TCP port 3389.

(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component's name onto the proper location on the motherboard.) Using the image of the motherboard above, which of the following correctly indicates the circled area? PCI PCIe x16 AGP PCIe x4

PCIe x16 OBJ-3.4: The area circled indicates the PCIe x16 (PCI Express x16) slots. PCIe (peripheral component interconnect express) is an interface standard for connecting high-speed components. Every desktop PC motherboard has some PCIe slots you can use to add GPUs (video cards or graphics cards), RAID cards, network adapters, Wi-Fi cards, or SSD (solid-state drive) add-on cards. The types of PCIe slots available in your PC will depend on your motherboard and are designated as PCIe x1, x4, x8, and x16. Graphics cards almost exclusively rely on PCIe x16 expansion slots for their connectivity. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of the motherboard by sight.

When using an impact printer, what is used to transfer the ink to a piece of paper? Ribbon Inkjet cartridge Toner Filament

Ribbon OBJ-3.7: An impact printer operates the same way as an old-fashioned typewriter. It uses a film-like ribbon that sits inside between the paper and print head. The ribbon is impacted by a series of mechanical dots in the print head, and this transfers the ink from the ribbon to the paper to form the desired image or text. An inkjet cartridge is used with an inkjet printer. Toner is used with a laser printer. Filament is used with a 3-D printer.

You just bought a new car and want to use the built-in stereo to make and receive calls on your smartphone. Which of the following should you perform to connect your smartphone to the car stereo? Enabling Wi-Fi Installing the device drivers Enabling NFC Pairing the device

Pairing the device OBJ-1.4: By pairing the device, you will establish the Bluetooth connection between your smartphone and the car stereo. Bluetooth is commonly used to create a wireless connection between a smartphone and a car stereo for making/receiving phone calls, streaming music from the smartphone to the stereo, and other functions supported by the stereo. Bluetooth is a wireless technology standard used for exchanging data between fixed and mobile devices over short distances using UHF radio waves in the industrial, scientific, and medical radio bands from 2.402 GHz to 2.480 GHz and building a personal area network (PAN). Near-field communication (NFC) is a set of communication protocols that enable two electronic devices, one of which is usually a portable device such as a smartphone, to establish communication by bringing them within 4 cm of each other. This is commonly used for contactless payment systems, transferring contacts, or transferring a file from one device to another. Wi-Fi is the IEEE 802.11 standard for wireless networking based on spread spectrum radio transmission in the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands. The standard has six main iterations (a, b, g, n, ac, and ax), describing different modulation techniques, supported distances, and data rates. A device driver is a small piece of code that is loaded during the boot sequence of an operating system. This code, usually provided by the hardware vendor, provides access to a device, or hardware, from the OS kernel. Under Windows, a signing system is in place for drivers to ensure that they do not make the OS unstable.

A company has just installed a VoIP system on its network. Before the installation, all of the switches were replaced with layer 3 multilayer switches to allow for the VoIP devices to be placed on separate VLANs and have the packets routed accurately between them. What type of network segmentation technique is this an example of? Compliance enforcement Performance optimization Separate public/private networking Honeynet implementation

Performance optimization OBJ-5.7: Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) performance optimization can help a business improve the quality of its video and audio communications over the Internet by decreasing the size of the broadcast domain through the creation of VLANs. Each VLAN can contain the VoIP devices for a single department or business unit, and traffic is routed between the VLANs using layer 3 multilayer switches to increase the performance of the voice communication systems. Performance optimization helps companies bolster the availability, accessibility, security, and overall performance of their networks. Compliance enforcement involves dividing up one network into smaller sections to better control the flow of traffic across the network and to restrict confidential data to a specific network segment based on a specific regulation or contractual requirement, such as PCI DSS segmentation requirements. A honeynet is an intentionally vulnerable network segment that is used to observe and investigate the attack techniques of a hacker or adversary. Separate public/private networking involves segmenting the network into two portions: public and private. This is often used in cloud architectures to protect private data.

You have been asked to configure your neighbor's SOHO network. Your neighbor wants to build a Minecraft server so that all their friends can play together over the internet. When configuring their firewall, where should you place the server? WAN LAN MAN Perimeter network

Perimeter network OBJ-2.5: A perimeter network (formerly called a Demilitarized Zone or DMZ) is a portion of a private network connected to the Internet and protected against intrusion. Certain services may need to be made publicly accessible from the Internet (such as a web, email, or Minecraft server) and they should be installed in the perimeter network instead of in your intranet. If communication is required between hosts on either side of a perimeter network, then a host within the perimeter network will act as a proxy to take the request. If the request is valid, it re-transmits it to the destination. External hosts have no idea about what is behind the perimeter network so that the intranet remains secure. A perimeter network can be implemented using either two firewalls (screened subnet) or a single three-legged firewall (one with three network ports). In this SOHO network, it would use a single three-legged firewall approach to separate the perimeter network from the LAN and WAN. A local area network (LAN) is a network where all the nodes or hosts participating in the network are directly connected with cables or short-range wireless media. A wide area network (WAN) is a network that spans multiple geographic locations such as the internet. A metropolitan area network (MAN) is a network that covers a geographical area equivalent to a city or municipality.

Which of the following is NOT categorized as wearable technology? VR headsets Smartwatches Phablets Fitness monitors

Phablets OBJ-1.3: Phablets are essentially large smartphones. Their size is smaller than a tablet but larger than a smartphone. Generally, smartphones that have screen sizes between 5.5" and 7" are considered phablets by manufacturers. Many phablets also come with a stylus for note-taking on the larger screen size instead of using your finger. Smartwatches, fitness monitors, and VR headsets are all considered wearable technology or wearables. Fitness monitors are wearable mobile devices that focus on tracking the health and exercise habits of their users. A high-end smartwatch (for example, an Apple Watch) will allow the user to see their notifications, chat activity, and even make phone calls. A mid-range or low-end smartwatch can still have the ability to read your chat and notifications, but you may be unable to make phone calls from it. A virtual reality headset (VR) is a headset worn like goggles to interact with images displayed in the headset. Virtual reality is a computer-generated, simulated environment experienced via a headset connected to a PC or powered by a smartphone.

Which type of RAID should be used for a virtualization server that must have the fastest speed and highest redundancy level? RAID 1 RAID 10 RAID 0 RAID 5

RAID 10 OBJ-3.3: RAID 10 offers the fastest speed, best reliability, and highest redundancy but is more costly as the overall disk storage will be greatly reduced. A RAID 10 combines disk mirroring and disk striping to protect data stored in the array and required a minimum of four disks. A RAID 0 provides disk striping (speed/performance) but not mirroring with a minimum of two disks. A RAID 1 provides mirroring (redundancy) but not disk striping with a minimum of two disks. A RAID 5 provides block-level striping with distributed parity to provide redundancy using a minimum of three disks.

You are configuring a new server for a client. The client has purchased five 1 TB hard drives and would like the server's storage system to provide redundancy and double fault tolerance. Which of the following configurations would BEST meet the client's requirements? RAID 10 RAID 0 RAID 1 RAID 5

RAID 10 OBJ-3.3: RAID 10 provides for redundancy and double fault tolerance. RAID 10, also known as RAID 1+0, is a RAID configuration that combines disk mirroring and disk striping to protect data. It requires a minimum of four disks and stripes data across mirrored pairs. As long as one disk in each mirrored pair is functional, data can be retrieved. RAID 5 is a redundant array of independent disks configuration that uses disk striping with parity, but it only provides single fault tolerance. A RAID 0 provides disk striping (speed/performance) but not mirroring with a minimum of two disks. A RAID 1 provides mirroring (redundancy) but not disk striping with a minimum of two disks.

(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component's name onto the proper location on the port cluster.) Using the image above, which of the following correctly indicates the port labeled as I? RJ-11 PS/2 RJ-45 DB-9

RJ-45 OBJ-3.1: This port is the RJ-45 connection or network interface card (NIC) port that is used to connect a computer to a wired network. An RJ-45 connector is used to terminate a copper twisted-pair Ethernet cable. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of a motherboard's rear port cluster by sight.

What type of services can allow you to get more storage and more resources added to the cloud as fast as possible? Measured services Rapid elasticity Resource pooling Metered services

Rapid elasticity OBJ-4.1: Rapid elasticity allows users to automatically request additional space in the cloud or other types of services. Because of the setup of cloud computing services, provisioning can be seamless for the client or user. Providers still need to allocate and de-allocate resources that are often irrelevant on the client or user's side. This feature allows a service to be scaled up without purchasing, installing, and configuring new hardware, unlike if you had to install more physical storage into a server or datacenter. Resource pooling refers to the concept that allows a virtual environment to allocate memory and processing capacity for a VMs use. Metered services are pre-paid, a-la-carte, pay-per-use, or committed offerings. A metered service like a database may charge its users based on the actual usage of the service resources on an hourly or monthly basis. For example, Dion Training used the AWS Lambda serverless product in some of our automation. This service charges us $0.20 for every 1 million requests processed. Measured service is a term that IT professionals apply to cloud computing that references services where the cloud provider measures or monitors the provision of services for various reasons, including billing, effective use of resources, or overall predictive planning.

Which of the following devices could be used to extend transmissions of a signal over longer distances by receiving and retransmitting a given signal at the lowest cost? Switch Repeater Router Firewall

Repeater OBJ-2.2: A repeater is an electronic device that receives a signal and retransmits it. Repeaters are used to extend transmissions so that the signal can cover longer distances or be received on the other side of an obstruction. Repeaters may be wired or wireless, and they rebroadcast whatever signal is received through their transmitter. A firewall is a network security system that monitors and controls the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules. A firewall typically establishes a barrier between a trusted internal network and an untrusted external network, such as the internet. A switch is a network device that receives incoming data into a buffer, then the destination MAC address is compared with an address table so that data is only sent out to the port with the corresponding MAC address. In a switched network, each port is in a separate collision domain. A router is a network device that links dissimilar networks and can support multiple alternate paths between locations based upon the parameters of speed, traffic loads, and cost. Routers are used to logically divide networks into subnets.

You see some fading across your papers when printing things using a laser printer. The black color appears to be more faded than the other colors on your documents. What is the BEST solution to this problem? Clean the printer's transfer roller Replace the toner cartridge in the printer Increase the temperature of the fuser element Change the feed rate of the paper

Replace the toner cartridge in the printer OBJ-5.6: A symptom of low toner is faded or faint colors in your printed papers. Most modern printers will also indicate the amount of toner left using their on-screen display and present a warning message for low toner and an error message when the printer is completely out of toner. With color laser printers, there are four different toner colors used during printing: black, cyan, magenta, and yellow. If only the black appears to be faded, it is possible that it is running low on toner. This is a common problem since most employees print more black and white documents than color documents which leads to the black toner normally running out before the other colors.

(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component's name onto the proper location on the port cluster.) Using the image above, which of the following correctly indicates the port labeled as C? PS2 USB FireWire SPDIF

SPDIF OBJ-3.1: This port is the SPDIF (Sony-Philips Digital Interface Format) connection. This is a fiber optic port used to transmit digital audio. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of a motherboard's rear port cluster by sight.

You have signed up for a web-based appointment scheduling application to help you manage your new IT technical support business. What type of solution would this be categorized as? IaaS SaaS PaaS DaaS

SaaS OBJ-4.1: Software as a Service (SaaS) is ca loud computing service that enables a service provider to make applications available over the Internet to end-users. This can be a calendar, scheduling, invoicing, word processor, database, or other programs. For example, Google Docs and Office 365 are both word processing SaaS solutions. Platform as a Service (PaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables consumers to rent fully configured systems that are set up for specific purposes. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a consumer to outsource computing equipment purchases and running their own data center. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a consumer to outsource computing equipment purchases and running their own data center.

Your company's file server is using a RAID 5 configuration. You just received an alert from the server that states that "RAID is degraded" and that the "Local Disk 0, Physical Disk 3 has failed". Which of the following is the BEST way to fix this error? Schedule an authorized downtime period, replace physical disk 3, rebuild the array, and confirm that the RAID is no longer reporting itself as degraded Format logical disk 0, manually configure a new RAID using the remaining good drives from the RAID 5 and confirm that the RAID is no longer reporting itself as degraded Reconfigure the RAID 5 to a RAID 0 to avoid any downtime, then rebuild the array during the next authorized maintenance period, and confirm that the RAID is no longer reporting itself as degraded Replace physical disk 3 immediately, rebuild the array, and confirm that the RAID is no longer reporting itself as degraded

Schedule an authorized downtime period, replace physical disk 3, rebuild the array, and confirm that the RAID is no longer reporting itself as degraded OBJ-5.3: Since a RAID 5 has some built-in redundancy, it will continue to operate while in this degraded state without any additional redundancy since one of the drives has failed. It is best to schedule an authorized downtime period, replace the failed drive, rebuild the array, and confirm that the RAID is no longer reporting itself as degraded. During the rebuilding of the array, the system may perform extremely slowly, and users may experience a loss of service, which is why scheduling some downtime is necessary. Formatting the logical drive or changing a RAID 5 to a RAID 0 will cause data loss, and therefore they are not the correct answers.

You are at the grocery store. At the checkout, you slide your credit card through the payment terminal and then sign your name to authorize the charge. Which of the following did you MOST likely use to make this purchase? NFC device Signature pad Touchpad Bluetooth reader

Signature pad OBJ-1.3: Many stores use a signature pad to digitally capture your handwritten signature when using a credit card to pay for your purchase. A signature capture pad is a device that electronically captures a person's handwritten signature on an LCD touchpad using a pen-type stylus. Once captured, digital signatures can be imported into and used with most ID software and security programs. Signatures can also be digitally stored for future use. Near-field communication (NFC) is a set of communication protocols that enable two electronic devices, one of which is usually a portable device such as a smartphone, to establish communication by bringing them within 4 cm of each other. This is commonly used for contactless payment systems, transferring contacts, or transferring a file from one device to another. Bluetooth is a wireless technology standard used for exchanging data between fixed and mobile devices over short distances using UHF radio waves in the industrial, scientific, and medical radio bands from 2.402 GHz to 2.480 GHz and building a personal area network (PAN). Bluetooth is commonly used when connecting wireless devices like mice, trackpads, headphones, and other devices. A touchpad is an input device used on most laptops to replace a mouse. The touchpad allows the user to control the cursor by moving a finger over the pad's surface.

John is a small business owner who is always running between meetings. He wants to buy a device that will let him quickly and easily see his email notifications, view his instant messages and chats, and keep in touch with his executive assistant who is back at the office. Which device would BEST meet John's needs? Smartwatch Portable hotspot Fitness monitor e-Reader

Smartwatch OBJ-1.4: A high-end smartwatch (for example, an Apple Watch) will allow the user to see their notifications, chat activity, and even make phone calls. A mid-range or low-end smartwatch can still have the ability to read your chat and notifications, but you may be unable to make phone calls from it. A fitness monitor is a wearable mobile device that focuses on tracking the health and exercise habits of its users. A high-end smartwatch usually includes fitness tracking functionality, as well. An e-Reader is a tablet-sized device designed for reading rather than general-purpose computing. For example, the Amazon Paperwhite is an example of a traditional e-Reader. A portable hotspot is a dedicated mobile device that connects to a cellular network and provides a wireless (Wi-Fi) network for a small number of users.

You are configuring a print server on the network. Which type of IP address should you configure it with? Link-local Dynamic APIPA Static

Static OBJ-2.5: A static IP address should be used for servers to ensure they are easy to find, access, and manage on the network. When configuring a static IP address, you need to include the IP address, subnet mask, gateway, and DNS server's IP address. A static IP address is used when the DHCP server is disabled and clients are configured manually to join the network properly. A dynamic IP address is configured automatically by a DHCP server when a new host joins the network. Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) is a feature of Windows-based operating systems that enables a computer to automatically assign itself an IP address when there is no Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server available to perform that function. When a host uses an APIPA address, it can communicate with other hosts on the same network using APIPA. Still, it cannot reach other networks or communicate with hosts who have managed to obtain a valid DHCP lease. An APIPA address is also known as a link-local address.

Jason wants to order a new gaming laptop for his son for his birthday. The laptop display must support a high refresh rate of 120 Hz or 144 Hz. Which of the following types of laptop displays should Jason purchase to meet this requirement? Plasma TN IPS VA

TN OBJ-1.2: A twisted nematic (TN) LCD panel uses technology where the panel is black when no electric current is running through the liquid crystal cells because the cells align themselves in a twisted state. When an electric current is applied, the liquid crystal cells untwist, allowing light to pass through, resulting in a white display screen. TN displays can be made with high refresh rates of 120 Hz or 144 Hz which makes them popular with gamers. An in-plane switching (IPS) LCD panel uses technology designed to resolve the quality issues inherent in TN panel technology, including strong viewing angle dependence and low-quality color reproduction. IPS displays have great color accuracy, but they do not support higher refresh rates sought after by gamers. A vertical alignment (VA) LCD panel uses technology designed to have liquid crystals lay perpendicular to the glass substrate when power is removed and in a vertical position when voltage is applied. This allows light to move through the liquid pixels when voltage is applied and the image is then produced. VA displays are a good middle-ground between IPS and TN panel displays. A plasma display is a type of flat panel display that uses small cells containing plasma with ionized gas that responds to electric fields. Plasma displays create excessive heat and are not as energy efficient as an LCD, LED, or OLED display.

Dion Training wants to create a DNS record to enter DKIM or SPF information into the domain name system to help prevent from spam coming from their domain. Which type of DNS record should be created? TXT PTR SRV SOA

TXT OBJ-2.6: The DNS text (TXT) record lets a domain administrator enter text into the Domain Name Systems. The TXT record was originally intended as a place for human-readable notes. However, now it is also possible to put some machine-readable data into TXT records. TXT records are a key component of several different email authentication methods (SPF, DKIM, and DMARC) that help an email server determine if a message is from a trusted source. A DNS service (SRV) record specifies a host and port for specific services such as voice over IP (VoIP), instant messaging, and others. A Start of Authority (SOA) resource record indicates which Domain Name Server (DNS) is the best source of information for the specified domain. PTR records are used for the Reverse DNS (Domain Name System) lookup. Using the IP address, you can get the associated domain/hostname. An A record should exist for every PTR record.

What is the third step of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology? Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution Document findings, actions, and outcomes Test the theory to determine the cause Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures

Test the theory to determine the cause OBJ-5.1: For the exam, it is important that you can list and identify the 6 steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology in order. (1) Identify the problem. (2) Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). (3) Test the theory to determine the cause. (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and then implement the solution. (5) Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures. (6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

You are working as a network technician and have been asked to troubleshoot an issue with a workstation. You have just established a theory of probable cause. Which of the following steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology should you perform NEXT? Verify full system functionality Test the theory to determine the cause Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem Identify the problem

Test the theory to determine the cause OBJ-5.1: The next step would be to "test the theory to determine the cause" since you just finished the "establish a theory of probable cause" step. The troubleshooting steps are to (1) Identify the problem, (2) Establish a theory of probable cause, (3) Test the theory to determine the cause, (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and identify potential effects, (5) Implement the solution or escalate as necessary, (6) Verify full system functionality and if applicable implement preventative measures, and (7) Document findings, actions, outcomes, and lessons learned.

You have been asked to troubleshoot a digital projector in the home theater in your neighbor's basement. Your neighbor attempted to replace the projector's bulb, but after running for a few minutes, a message appears on the screen, and the projector turns itself off again. Based on these symptoms, what are the MOST likely causes of the projector continually turning off after just a few minutes of usage with a new bulb? (Select TWO) The brightness needs to be increased Incorrect video resolution setting The video driver on the media player needs to be updated The bulb's life counter needs to be reset The cooling fan needs to be cleaned or replaced A higher lumen bulb must be installed

The bulb's life counter needs to be reset & The cooling fan needs to be cleaned or replaced OBJ-5.4: Most projectors keep track of the life of a bulb/lamp using a life counter. If you forget to reset the life counter after replacing the bulb/lamp, the projector can often turn itself off since it believes the bulb/lamp still needs to be replaced. Another cause of a project turning itself off is when it overheats. This can be caused by an overly dirty cooling fan or a failed cooling fan. To solve this issue, simply clean or replace the cooling fan to prevent the projector from overheating.

Jason left his smartphone in his car while running into a convenience store to grab a cold drink on a sunny day. When he got back to the car, his smartphone would not turn on. Which of the following issues most likely occurred? The digitizer is broken The smartphone is overheated The battery is depleted The smartphone has no connectivity

The smartphone is overheated OBJ-5.5: Smartphones are designed to operate between 32 and 95 degrees Fahrenheit (0 to 35 degrees Celsius). If a smartphone is left in a car on a sunny day, it is likely to become overheated and shut down until it returns to a normal temperature range. If this occurs, the smartphone should remain off until it cools down to the normal range.

A customer called the service desk and complained that they could not reach the internet on their computer. You ask the customer to open their command prompt, type in ipconfig, and read you the IP address. The customer reads the IP as 169.254.12.45. What is the root cause of the customer's issue based on what you know so far? Their workstation cannot reach the default gateway Their workstation cannot reach the DNS server Their workstation cannot reach the web server Their workstation cannot reach the DHCP server

Their workstation cannot reach the DHCP server OBJ-5.7: Since the customer's IP address is 169.254.12.45, it is an APIPA address. Since the workstation has an APIPA address, it means the DHCP server was unreachable. Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) is a feature of Windows-based operating systems that enables a computer to automatically assign itself an IP address when there is no Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server available to perform that function. APIPA serves as a DHCP server failover mechanism and makes it easier to configure and support small local area networks (LANs). If no DHCP server is currently available, either because the server is temporarily down or because none exists on the network, the computer selects an IP address from a range of addresses (from 169.254.0.0 - 169.254.255.255) reserved for that purpose.

Your son has a gaming laptop in his bedroom. He loves his laptop since it allows him to take it over to his friend's houses when desired, but his laptop only has 1 USB port. When he gets home, though, he prefers to use a USB mouse, keyboard, and webcam when playing games on his laptop. He only has $20 saved up but wants to buy a device that would allow him to connect all 3 of these peripherals with one USB connector. Which of the following do you recommend he purchase? Docking Station USB 4-port hub Port replicator Thunderbolt

USB 4-port hub OBJ-1.3: Since your son has a limited budget of just $20, the best option to meet his needs would be a USB 4-port hub. This would allow him to connect his USB mouse, keyboard, and a webcam to the USB 4-port hub and then connect the USB 4-port hub using a single USB connector to the laptop. A USB hub is a device that connects to a USB port to allow additional USB devices to be connected to the PC, essentially increasing the number of USB ports available. Thunderbolt is a connector type that can be used either as a display interface (like DisplayPort) or as a general peripheral interface (like USB 3). Thunderbolt 3 uses USB-C connectors. A docking station is a sophisticated type of port replicator designed to provide additional ports (such as network or USB) and functionality (such as expansion slots and drives) to a portable computer when used at a desk. A port replicator is a simple device to extend the range of ports (for example, USB, DVI, HDMI, Thunderbolt, network, and so on) available for a laptop computer when it is used at a desk. The difference between a docking station and a port replicator is that a docking station can add additional capabilities beyond what is already integrated into the laptop whereas a port replicator can only reproduce the same ports that already exist on the laptop.

You have just installed a new hard disk drive into your computer, but the motherboard does not recognize it within the BIOS/UEFI. You have verified the drive is properly connected to the motherboard and the power supply with the correct cables, but it still is not recognized. Which of the following actions would BEST solve this problem? Format the new hard drive as FAT-32 Configure a RAID in the BIOS/UEFI Format the new hard drive as NTFS Update the firmware of the motherboard

Update the firmware of the motherboard OBJ-5.3: This type of error (drive not recognized) is usually the result of the motherboard's firmware not supporting a newer hard drive model or the cables not being properly connected. Since we already established that the cables were properly connected, we have to consider the firmware as the issue. To troubleshoot this issue, you should restart the computer and enter the BIOS/UEFI configuration. If the BIOS/UEFI does not recognize the hard drive, then the motherboard's firmware will need to be updated. If the BIOS/UEFI cannot detect the hard drive, then the operating system cannot detect the drive either (since it relies on the underlying BIOS/UEFI to make the connection). This means that you cannot format the hard drive or configure a RAID.

A technician has installed an 802.11n network, and most users can see speeds of up to 300Mbps. A few of the users have an 802.11n network card but cannot get speeds higher than 108Mbps. What should the technician do to fix the issue? Upgrade the WLAN card driver Rollback the firmware on the WLAN card Install a vulnerability patch Upgrade the OS version to 64-bit

Upgrade the WLAN card driver OBJ-5.7: Wireless N networks can support up to 600Mbps with the network cards' proper software drivers. Without them, they can only achieve 108Mbps since they cannot communicate with the increased data compression rates. Wireless network interface card drivers are software programs installed on your hard disk that allow your operating system to communicate with your wireless and network adapters. Wireless and network driver problems usually occur due to missing, outdated, or corrupt drivers.

Which of the following refers to using virtual machines as a method of provisioning workstations for corporate users? VDI IaaS SaaS PaaS

VDI OBJ-4.1: Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) refers to using a VM as a means of provisioning corporate desktops. In a typical VDI, desktop computers are replaced by low-spec, low-power thin client computers. When the thin client starts, it boots a minimal OS, allowing the user to log on to a VM stored on the company server or cloud infrastructure. The user connects to the VM using some remote desktop protocol (Microsoft Remote Desktop or Citrix ICA, for instance). The thin client has to find the correct image and use an appropriate authentication mechanism. Software as a Service (SaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a service provider to make applications available over the Internet to end-users. This can be a calendar, scheduling, invoicing, word processor, database, or other programs. For example, Google Docs and Office 365 are both word processing SaaS solutions. Platform as a Service (PaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables consumers to rent fully configured systems that are set up for specific purposes. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a consumer to outsource computing equipment purchases and running their own data center.

(This is a simulated PBQ. If you had this question on the real exam, you would be asked to drag-and-drop a label with the component's name onto the proper location on the port cluster.) Using the image above, which of the following correctly indicates the port labeled as E? DVI-I HDMI VGA DVI-D

VGA OBJ-3.1: This port is the VGA connection. A video graphics array (VGA) connector is a 15-pin HD connector that has been used to connect the graphics adapter to a monitor since 1987. The use of digital flat-panel displays rather than CRTs has made this analog connector increasingly obsolete. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of a motherboard's rear port cluster by sight.

Your company has an office in Boston and is worried that its employees may not reach the office during periods of heavy snowfall. You have been asked to select a technology that would allow employees to work remotely from their homes during poor weather conditions. Which of the following should you select? NAT VLAN IDS VPN

VPN OBJ-2.6: A remote-access VPN connection allows an individual user to connect to a private network from a remote location using a laptop or desktop computer connected to the internet. A remote-access VPN allows individual users to establish secure connections with a remote computer network. Once established, the remote user can access the corporate network and its capabilities as if they were accessing the network from their own office spaces. Network address translation (NAT) is a network service provided by a router or proxy server to map private local addresses to one or more publicly accessible IP addresses. NAT can use static mappings but is commonly implemented as network port address translation (PAT) or NAT overloading, where a few public IP addresses are mapped to multiple LAN hosts using port allocations. A Virtual LAN (VLAN) is a logically separate network that is created using switching technology. Even though hosts on two VLANs may be physically connected to the same cabling, local traffic is isolated to each VLAN so they must use a router to communicate. An intrusion detection system (IDS) is a device or software application that monitors a network or system for malicious activity or policy violations. Any malicious activity or violation is typically reported to an administrator or collected centrally using a security information and event management system. Unlike an IPS, which can stop malicious activity or policy violations, an IDS can only log these issues and not stop them.

A client's laptop appears to have been infected with malware. You have begun troubleshooting, established a plan of action, and have already implemented your proposed solution. According to the best practice troubleshooting methodology, what is the NEXT step you should take? Test the theory to determine the cause Identify the problem Verify full system functionality Document findings, actions, and outcomes

Verify full system functionality BJ-5.1: For the exam, it is important that you can list and identify the 6 steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology in order. (1) Identify the problem. (2) Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). (3) Test the theory to determine the cause. (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and then implement the solution. (5) Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures. (6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

You just replaced a failed motherboard in a corporate workstation and returned it to service. About an hour later, the customer complained that the workstation is randomly shutting down and rebooting itself. You suspect the memory module may be corrupt, and you perform a memory test, but the memory passes all of your tests. Which of the following should you attempt NEXT in troubleshooting this problem? Verify the case fans are clean and properly connected Remove and reseat the RAM Reset the BIOS Replace the RAM with ECC modules

Verify the case fans are clean and properly connected OBJ-5.2: If a workstation overheats, it will shut down or reboot itself to protect the processor. This can occur if the case fans are clogged with dust or become unplugged. By checking and reconnecting the case fans, the technician can rule out an overheating issue causing this problem. Since the memory was already tested successfully, it does not need to be removed and reseated, or replaced with ECC modules. The BIOS is not the issue since the computer booted up into Windows successfully before rebooting.

Dion Training's multifunction laser printer recently had a paper jam. An employee pulled the paper out of the rollers to clear the jam. Unfortunately, the device still has a paper jam error displayed on the screen and will not print. You have been called to fix this issue. Which of the following should you attempt FIRST? Verify the paper path and its sensors are not blocked Update the drivers on the print server Replace the toner cartridge Replace the pickup rollers

Verify the paper path and its sensors are not blocked OBJ-5.6: Often, employees will pull the jammed paper out of a printer to clear a paper jam. This can lead to small bits of paper being left in the path or in front of a blockage sensor. As a technician, you should always check the entire path is clear and the sensors are not blocked first if the printer claims there is a paper jam as this is the most likely cause of a continued paper jam error.

Which of the following resources is used by virtual machines to communicate with other virtual machines on the same network but prevents them from communicating with resources on the internet? Virtual external network Network address translation Virtual internal network DNS

Virtual internal network OBJ-4.2: Most virtual machines running on a workstation will have their own virtual internal network to communicate within the virtual environment while preventing them from communicating with the outside world. You may also configure a shared network address for the virtual machine to have the same IP address as the physical host that it is running on. This usually relies on network address translation to communicate from the virtual environment (inside) to the physical world (outside/internet). If you are communicating internally in the virtual network, there is no need for DNS or an external network.

You have been asked to replace the processor in a workstation. You remove the old processor, install the new processor into the motherboard slot, attach the heat sink, and attempt to power on the workstation. The workstation boots up but after a minute the computer shuts itself down. Which of the following steps did you MOST likely forget to perform? You forgot to reattach the power cables to the case fans You forgot to close the ZIF socket You forgot to replace the RAM with parity memory You forgot to apply thermal paste to the processor during the installation

You forgot to apply thermal paste to the processor during the installation OBJ-3.4: When you install a processor, you need to ensure you install it in the processor socket on the motherboard, apply thermal paste to the backside of the processor, attach the heat sink, attach the processor fan to the heat sink, and then connect the power cable to the processor fan. If you neglect to apply the thermal paste between the processor and the heat sink, the heat sink cannot effectively dissipate all the heat from the processor, and the computer will shut itself down to protect the processor from becoming overheated. Thermal paste is a paste used to connect a heat sink to a CPU that provides a liquid thermally conductive compound gel to fill any gaps between the CPU and the heat sink to transfer heat more efficiently to the heat sink from the CPU.

Which of the following operating systems cannot be installed as a guest inside of a virtual machine on a Windows 10 laptop running Virtual Box? Kali Linux Windows 8 Red Hat Linux macOS

macOS OBJ-4.2: The macOS software can only be installed in a Virtual Box virtual machine running on a macOS system. If you are running Virtual Box on Windows, it can only install other versions of Windows, Linux, and Unix. This is because Apple's operating system is a free product but can only be installed on official Apple hardware as part of the licensing agreement. A Windows or Linux virtual machine can be installed on any host operating system.