CompTIA Project+ Practice Assessment
An organization looks to move its computing services to the cloud. A project team documents the requirements. Moving Windows servers to the cloud is part of what project initiative? (Select all that apply.) Anything as a service (XaaS) Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) Software as a service (SaaS) Platform as a service (PaaS)
Anything as a service (XaaS) Infrastructure as a service (IaaS)
A project manager (PM) conducts a needs assessment to realize the skills needed for a new project. The PM should include which data in the skills matrix to determine the needed skills? Areas for development Cause and effect Total allocation Skills gap
Areas for development A skills matrix helps to identify development areas. People work on projects to develop their skills and further their careers.
A project manager creates a communications plan for a large project. The objective is to share as many visuals as possible with the non-technical stakeholders. To accomplish this, what part of the plan does the project manager focus on for the upcoming project? Channels Artifacts Recipients Goals
Artifacts Communication artifacts include presentations, pictures, documents, and more. Identify the various communication artifacts that require the address of the needs of the stakeholders and team members.
A project manager procures a resource through a coworker that creates a script to automate a process. Which resource procurement method takes place? Build Buy Lease Subscribe
Build Building a resource involves using a resource to create it. It includes the effort of designing, building, and implementing a product, including the cost of securing resources.
Responsibilities are that they will need to ensure that requirements stay aligned with project scope and business needs. What role does the employee pursue? Quality assurance Developer Business analyst Architect
Business analyst Business analysts hold a unique role between business and technical teams and operate as a translator between business and IT. Core responsibility is ensuring that project requirements stay aligned with project scope and business needs.
A new project requires the purchase of several specialized servers. A project manager inquires about other clients' experiences and the vendor's ability to meet demands. Which vendor evaluation techniques does the project manager utilize in project planning? (Select all that apply.) Value Capacity Reference Cost-benefit
Capacity Reference A capacity evaluation considers if a vendor is likely to meet the demands of the contract. Physical capacity refers to the volume of work a vendor can produce. A project manager or procurement analyst may ask other vendor clients how they interact, which technology they use, and why they work with the vendor. They also inquire about the vendor's performance.
A team member suggests the use of a task board for keeping track of progress. The project manager agrees and implements which components to track work? (Select all that apply.) Card Matrix Board Lane
Card Board Lane Activity owners move cards across a tracking board, from a "to do" state to a "finished" state as they finish work. A task board is also easy to update; users drag and drop cards to update the status. A task board is a visual task tracking tool. The Kanban board is a popular methodology that uses a task board. However, a team member can use a task board with any methodology. Work item cards are organized into lanes by their work states. Activity owners move the cards across the board, from a "to do" state to a "finished" state state as they finish work.
A development team completes a project. The project manager presents the deliverables to stakeholders. Upon validation of the product, what conditions exist for the project manager to take the next steps? (Select all that apply.) Change requests are not allowed. No new work is performed. Deliverables are transferred. The project can be closed.
Change requests are not allowed. No new work is performed. The project can be closed.
When compiling a project closeout report, a project manager documents which content? (Select all that apply.) Closure approval ESG factors Change order requests Transition summary
Closure approval Transition summary The project manager includes the closure approval request in the report. When the project manager, project sponsor, and stakeholders sign off, the project is formally closed. A transition summary will summarize how the project affected ongoing operations and who the operation owners are.
A project requires that team members have the proper background clearance and access to appropriate parts of the project. The project does not require the highest level of access defined in the organization. The project manager assigns access to sensitive materials on a case-by-case basis for what type of clearance? Restricted Public Internal Confidential
Confidential Confidential data is sensitive data with limited access. The information is only available to authorized users either on a role or case-by-case basis.
A project manager kicks off a new project with a meeting. During the meeting, the project manager formalizes assignments and shares the responsibility matrix with the team. What role does a team of subject matter experts, who provide advice during the project, fill in the project's matrix? Consulted Accountable Informed Responsible
Consulted
A project manager needs to utilize extra funds for documented risks. What fund type does the project manager use? Management reserve Resource cost Expected monetary value Contingency reserve
Contingency reserve Contingency reserve is a calculated buffer of time and cost that covers documented risks. These risks are called "known unknowns," which means they are known but may or may not happen.
A project manager provides information management content for a group of both technical and non-technical users. What approach does the project manager use to present this information? Mind mapping Quadrant diagramming Data flow diagramming Flowcharting
Data flow diagramming Data flow diagramming is the best approach for presenting project deliverable processes to technical and non-technical audiences. A data flow diagram shows how information flows through a process or system and can be used to represent complex processes in a simple and easy-to-understand format.
A project manager (PM) builds a team project dashboard. What information does the PM find valuable and add to the dashboard? Risks Return on investment (ROI) Scope Deadlines
Deadlines A team-level dashboard is tactical and centers around the work. A team dashboard answers questions such as current team member utilization and task deadlines.
An organization is requesting training on a new development tool that will benefit an upcoming project and wants the project manager to use funds that are set for contingency reserves as it was not considered during the estimate process. What action will transpire as a result of the project manager taking funds from the contingency reserves? Decrease the reserve balance and increase the project estimate. Reduce the reserve balance and increase the project cost. Reduce the reserve balance and decrease the project cost. Increase the reserve balance and increase the project estimate.
Decrease the reserve balance and increase the project estimate.
A development team completes a project. The project manager receives product validation. The project can move to the next steps. Which of the following has just taken place in the project lifecycle? The project closes. New work takes place. Change request processes occur. Deliverables transference occurs.
Deliverables transference occurs. The transition plan outlines how the deliverables will transition to the permanent owners. Validation occurs when the transference of the deliverable occurs and is approved.
Which project framework has a focus on continuous integration/continuous delivery (CI/CD)? DevOps Extreme programming (XP) Agile Waterfall
DevOps DevOps offers superior operational support, reducing team friction and improving cross-functional collaboration. Continuous integration/continuous delivery (CI/CD) is a core DevOps practice that drives all other improvements.
An organization instructs a project manager to conduct a cost performance exercise on a project. The project manager calculates the cost variance of the project by referencing what other input? (Select all that apply.) Planned value Contingency reserve Earned value Actual cost
Earned value Actual cost
An organization instructs a project manager to conduct a cost performance exercise on a project. The project manager calculates the cost variance of the project by referencing what other input? (Select all that apply.) Planned value Contingency reserve Earned value Actual cost
Earned value Earned value (EV) is the actual schedule and is a point in time value. To calculate a cost variance, actual cost is subtracted from earned value. Actual cost Actual cost (AC) is the actual cost and is a point in time value. The cost variance is earned value less the actual cost.
A project manager assigns tasks to project team members. In a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS), where would a project manager place a high-level deliverable? Level Element Work Package Leg
Element An Element in a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) represents the deliverables within the project. These descriptions are typically concise, often comprising only two or three words. High-level deliverables, therefore, would be placed as elements in the WBS.
A project manager prepares a new project's work breakdown structure (WBS). The project manager creates a branch for certain tasks and then ends the branch with a final outcome. When drafting the WBS, what terminology does the project manager assign to the outcome? (Select all that apply.) Element Level Work package Leg
Element Work package Elements are the deliverables in a work breakdown structure (WBS). It is each box in a chart and each row in a table. The WBS element is short, at just two or three words. The work package element is the lowest in each branch or leg; an element without a child element is a work package. Known as a "terminal element," a work package estimates costs, resources, and timing.
During a project meeting at an organization, a visitor states that they represent a group that will interact with the project's final output. What role does the visitor play? Senior manager End-user Sponsor Customer
End-user In project management, the end-user is the person who will interact with the project's final output. Sometimes the end-user and customer are the same, but this is not always the case.
A project manager reviews the notes from a previous project and discovers issues with community interactions. The project manager learns that the project improperly disposed of waste. What factors did the past project fail to impose? (Select all that apply.) Environmental Social Governance Current state
Environmental Social Governance
A project team member suggests that some deliverables in a software project are developed with paired programming iteratively. The project manager agrees and initiates what project framework? Agile Waterfall PRojects IN Controlled Environments (PRINCE2) Extreme programming (XP)
Extreme programming (XP) Extreme programming (XP) is an agile software development framework. It stands out as a framework with a heavy emphasis on software engineering practices. It is an iterative framework that features paired programming as an approach.
A project team meets with project stakeholders on a software application project. Stakeholders request that the application have a very complex data searching option. Which requirement does the project manager note for inclusion in the project? Features Usability Compatibility Compliance
Features
A project manager (PM) completes a project closeout report. If the PM summarizes reserves, which report area is the focus? Performance analysis Financial summary Transition summary Lessons learned summary
Financial summary A financial summary summarizes the project's final performance against the cost baseline and summarizes reserves usage. It is best to attach a copy of the final reconciled budget to the report.
A project manager completes a contract for services that places a vendor at risk. The vendor agrees to which contract type? Cost-plus Fixed-price Time and materials Unit price
Fixed-price A fixed-price contract agrees to a set price for a fixed scope of work. It places most of the contract risk on the vendor. For example, if materials cost increases, the vendor does not earn more.
A project manager operates under a directive project management office (PMO). What level of authority does the project management office exercise? Upon request Partial Full None
Full A directive PMO is the most controlling type, and it sets the rules for the company. This PMO has full authority over projects, standards, and procedures.
A project manager performs a gap analysis on a project and finds that outside resources have difficulty accessing a data storage drive. The project manager records this gap as which type? Allocation Utilization Function Skills
Function Features and functions include the capabilities and tasks that physical resources need to perform. It is how the project manager needs frameworks to operate and software to run.
The deliverable for a software project maintains some personal data for customers located in Virginia in the United States. Project team members focus on security features during development. A European team member suggests what regulation is similar to the state's Consumer Data Protection Act? Personally identifiable information (PII) Protected health information (PHI) Intellectual property (IP) General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)
General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)
An organization asks a project manager to create a communications plan for an upcoming project. The objective is to make the communication clear and understandable, avoiding the use of jargon or unnecessary verbiage. To accomplish this, what part of the plan does the project manager focus on for the upcoming project? Recipients Goals Artifacts Channels
Goals The communication plan should have goals. Define the purpose of communication first. Creating clarity early in the process allows the project manager to design the appropriate amount of communication.
An in-progress project experiences severe delays. Upon review, middle management finds that upper management has been misreporting project progress and expenses. As a result, the organization places the project on hold and addresses which operational issue? Environmental Governance Social Identity
Governance Governance factors describe how the company operates, including its policies, transparency, and structure. Governance could change with new policies, oversight committees, and replacement executives for issues such as mismanagement of waste.
A project manager reviews resources that will participate in a large software deployment project. Resources that utilize soft skills are very important to the project's success. What resource type does this characterize? Procured Capital Physical Human
Human
A high-profile project experiences numerous difficulties and the client questions the team's ability in maintaining its reported vision, values, and mission statement. The project manager places the project on hold and coordinates efforts with management and HR to remediate the concerns vented by the client. What is the client questioning in this scenario? Social Governance Environmental Identity
Identity A company's identity includes its vision, mission statement, values, and brand. In addition, the company identity may incorporate its position on multiple factors. Identity would suffer from issues with factors.
A project manager deals with risk on a current project. When creating a risk register, what does the project manager document? Communication information Notable timely and high-impact risks Scope impacts as a result of realized risks Impact, priority, or other scoring criteria
Impact, priority, or other scoring criteria Any information the project manager gathers during a risk management process is collected in a risk register. This register includes many details such as impact, priority, or other scoring criteria, risk priority or ranking, and the risk owner.
An organization holds a formal meeting to discuss an upcoming product release. Management decides that a focus group will review an early project deliverable so designers can obtain feedback. All members vote for a dual-moderator approach. How will the team conduct the focus group? Include two moderators who take opposite views. Include two groups who will observe each other. Include a lead moderator and a second as a quality check. Include participants who may act as moderators.
Include a lead moderator and a second as a quality check. A dual-moderator focus group employs two moderators. One is the lead facilitator and keeps the interactions flowing. The other serves as a quality check; they track the topics and ensure the group covers all the content.
An organization kicks off the start of a new project. A group of individuals who need to be kept up-to-date with the project's progress fill which role in the project's matrix? Consulted Informed Accountable Responsible
Informed
An organization's new project focuses on moving technology to the cloud, specifically considering storage services. During the initiation phase, the project manager evaluates the need for cloud storage services, such as AWS S3 or Azure Storage. Which specific cloud model does the project manager push to implement for these storage services? Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) Platform as a service (PaaS) Software as a service (SaaS) Anything as a service (XaaS)
Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) refers to basic computing resources, such as servers, networks, and storage. For example, cloud storage is an IaaS product where a company purchases information storage space from a third party.
A project manager assigns a team member to perform quality control duties. What action does the team member take? Addresses all processes and procedures. Inspects finished work. Documents any industry or regulatory standards. Creates a list of measurable quality targets.
Inspects finished work.
A project manager reviews project risk for a deliverable and discovers that several related issues exist that will delay the project. The project manager documents the risk using which area of knowledge? Detectability evaluation Quantitative analysis Interconnectivity evaluation Qualitative analysis
Interconnectivity evaluation Interconnectivity describes how risk will affect more than a single event. Nothing exists in isolation, so every risk could create a ripple effect if it were to occur.
A project manager is advised by leadership that the team's project deadline for the new project is decreased by two weeks. While planning for the project, the PM evaluates the variances between estimation techniques. What statements are true of Parametric Model Estimating? (Select all that Apply.) It augments either Bottom-Up or Top-Down estimates with historical data. It uses known variables to create a custom estimate for a project. It creates an estimate of the entire project or key deliverables. It creates estimates at the lowest-level activities, work packages, and user stories.
It augments either Bottom-Up or Top-Down estimates with historical data. It uses known variables to create a custom estimate for a project. Parametric model estimating does augment either bottom-up or top-down estimates with historical data. In addition to either augmenting Bottom-Up or Top-Down Estimating, Parametric model estimating uses known variables to create a custom estimate for a project.
A project manager implements key performance indicators (KPIs) for several project processes. Which metrics does the manager record after finishing the deliverable? Leading indicators SMART objectives Objectives and key results Lagging indicators
Lagging indicators Lagging indicators are reflective measures, which describe the actual success of a project or process. The project manager captures these measures after completing the work.
A project manager uses a backward pass approach to evaluate a project timeline. What values will the project manager calculate while implementing this method? (Select all that apply.) Early start Early finish Late start Late finish
Late start Late finish Late start (LS) is the latest an activity can start and allow the project to finish on time. Late start calculates by using a backward pass of the timeline. Late finish (LF) is the latest an activity can finish, allowing the project to finish on time. Late finish calculates by using a backward pass of the timeline.
A project manager looks at a resource management plan and realizes that the project manager can do some phases of the resource lifecycle in parallel. Which phases does the project manager review and take action on simultaneously? (Select all that apply.) Retirement Maintenance Improvement Acquisition
Maintenance Improvement The improvement and maintenance phases run simultaneously for a single product. Between acquiring and retiring a resource, the project manager cares for and improves it.
A project manager looks to brainstorm ideas with a user-friendly tool. What approach does the project manager use while thinking through problems? Data flow diagramming Quadrant diagramming Flowcharting Mind mapping
Mind mapping A mind map visualizes categories of information around a single theme. Mind maps are excellent for facilitating brainstorming activities, thinking through problems, or consolidating information.
An organization takes on an IT implementation project. The goal for the development team is to use a modular approach where components will exist on different servers for a single solution. Which computing service does the development team design and construct? Networking and connectivity Data warehousing Multitiered architecture Storage plan
Multitiered architecture Multitiered architecture is a modular software design, which divides software into layers, or tiers. The team builds and implements each tier separately. The modules are logically separated from an abstract design perspective and physically located on different servers.
A new project manager performs a needs assessment for an upcoming project. How does the project performance improve if the manager addresses any documented unknowns? Resource smoothing On-time performance Resource leveling Gap differences
On-time performance A project needs assessment improves on-time performance. This assessment reduces the number of unknowns that appear later in the project and reduces delays.
A project manager looks to resolve project timeline issues using the 80/20 rule. How does the project manager analyze the issues? Scatter diagram Pareto chart Run chart Five-why
Pareto chart The Pareto principle asserts to resolve most problems by fixing a small portion of the root causes. The 80/20 rule is a simple way to describe the principle; 80% of issues are created by 20% of the causes.
A project manager creates a requirements traceability matrix (RTM) for an in-progress project. What does the project manager use the matrix for in the in-progress project? (Select all that apply.) Perform impact analysis. Test results. Understand requirements. Establish a budget.
Perform impact analysis. Test results. Understand requirements.
A project manager needs to visualize a project concept for stakeholders. Which productivity tool does the project manager utilize to accomplish this goal? Presentation Spreadsheet Word processor Text document
Presentation
The project team has identified a change that needs to be made to the final deliverable. However, the change will not be implemented in the current project iteration and will be deferred to a later version. A change order has been created to document this change and is awaiting approval. Which type of change order is being used in this scenario? Plan update Team improvement Product change Strategic change
Product change A product change is a change order that affects the final deliverable of a project. The change order being described recommends a change that will not be implemented in the current project iteration but will impact the final deliverable later.
A project manager decides to manage a project using a framework based on the concept of improving during the project's progress. Which team member role does the project manager introduce that is specific to this framework? Project manager Product owner Product manager Project stakeholder
Product owner Agile frameworks introduced the product owner role. They identify how to improve a product and are accountable for creating the most valuable product possible.
A software development team develops a data storage system for a customer that uses various levels of security. Which level does the team design so digital press releases can be available? Public Restricted Confidential Internal
Public Public data is the least sensitive. It has no restrictions and is publicly available. Press releases, the content of a company website, and job postings are all examples of public data.
A project manager assigns a team member to create a list of measurable quality targets. Which quality-related function does the team member perform? Quality assurance Quality control Quality standards Quality objectives
Quality objectives Quality objectives are within a quality assurance plan by creating a list of measurable quality targets. The project will have multiple quality targets. Examples of targets include on-time delivery and the number of defects.
A vendor provides examples of product offerings while communicating with a project manager of a large software project. Which document do the parties utilize for this process? Request for information (RFI) Request for proposal (RFP) Request for bid (RFB) Request for quote (RFQ)
Request for information (RFI) A project manager (PM) uses a request for information (RFI) to learn more about solutions before initiating the solicitation process. A vendor responds to an RFI with more information about their products or services.
Vendors compete for a contract on a new project by submitting proposed solutions. To which document do vendors respond? Request for proposal (RFP) Request for information (RFI) Request for quote (RFQ) Request for bid (RFB)
Request for proposal (RFP) A request for proposal (RFP) solicits multiple vendor proposals for a solution. An RFP is incredibly detailed, formal, and structured.
A project manager (PM) builds a compressed view for a dashboard. This approach allows for a quick and easy view for executives. What information does the PM find valuable and add to the dashboard? Return on investment (ROI) Scope Risks Deadlines
Return on investment (ROI) An executive-level dashboard will have extremely compressed information. The dashboard should display a relevant business value measure, such as the revenue generated and return on investment.
A cyber technician is preparing a presentation for an upcoming project with the topic covering the various aspects/attributes associated with risk analyses. What is described as a key risk parameter that evaluates how quickly a risk would be identified if it were to occur during the project? Quality escape Quality audit Risk detectability Risk interconnectivity
Risk detectability Risk detectability evaluates how quickly the user would identify a risk if it were to occur. Low detectability risks will move through an entire process and reach end-users before finding the risk.
A project manager looks to resolve project timeline issues by keeping track of two distinct variables. How does the project manager analyze the issues? Run chart Pareto chart Scatter diagram Five-why
Scatter diagram A scatter diagram or scatter plot graphically demonstrates the relationship between two variables - one on the x-axis and one on the y-axis. Then, a dot represents the occurrence of each (x,y) variable.
A new project manager takes inventory of project management tools. Of interest is a tool that will utilize workflow automation for resource allocation. Which type of software does the manager utilize to accomplish this goal? Diagramming Scheduling Surveying Conferencing
Scheduling Project management scheduling software allows project managers to create comprehensive project schedules. These applications include many features, such as task planning, workflow automation, and resource allocation.
A project manager discovers that a team member has been discussing project details in an online public chat room. While the intent is not malicious, the team member's mistake is cause for concern. The project manager discusses the issue with the team member and educates the entire team on the potential impact of which operational issue? Governance Social Environmental Identity
Social
A project manager needs to provide historical cost and budget data for several closed projects. Which productivity tool does the project manager utilize to accomplish this goal? Text document Presentation Word processor Spreadsheet
Spreadsheet
A project manager tracks tasks and realizes that two tasks are not set to run properly. One task is to run only after another begins. The other task is to finish only after another begins. The project manager has to remedy which two task types? (Select all that apply.) Finish-to-Finish Start-to-Start Start-to-Finish Finish-to-Start
Start-to-Start Start-to-Finish
A project team member submits a change order request. The team member explains that the service in use for software development is no longer available, and they need to research a new solution. What change order type does the team member submit? Scope Product change Team improvement Strategic change
Strategic change An organization's strategic direction may switch in the middle of a project. Often, these changes redirect a project to protect it from cancellation.
A seasoned project manager requires all team members to be available for a weekly meeting. Participants are required to be present as the meeting occurs in real-time. Following the meeting, a staff member will use a designated communication channel to distribute meeting minutes. What communication methods are used in this scenario? (Select all that apply.) Synchronous Informal Formal Written
Synchronous Formal Written Synchronous communication is also called real-time communication. The participants in this communication type interact and share information at the same time. Formal communication represents official communication channels. These are the intentional, procedural channels where information flows and documents decisions. Written communication includes anything where exchanges occur through handwritten or typed messages. Examples of written communication include letters through the mail, chat messages, emails, and Braille.
An organization initiates a new software project. A project manager prepares the paperwork and establishes performance measures for milestone activities. The project manager records leading indicators by utilizing which metric reporting approach? Ensuring goals are realistic Taking predictive measures Taking reflective measures Using reasonable estimation
Taking predictive measures Leading indicators are predictive measures. There is an assumption that if these measures perform well, the truly desired outcomes will improve.
A developer working on a software project submits a change order request. The developer explains that a new software tool has become available and will improve development processes. What change order type does the developer submit? Strategic change Product change Team improvement Scope
Team improvement With a team improvement, the project team inspects and improves systems at every retrospective, phase gate, and lessons learned event.
When practicing a waterfall project methodology, in which phase is a project team member responsible for valid quality specifications? Testing Design Requirements Maintenance
Testing In the waterfall testing phase, project team members verify that any work completed meets the requirements and quality specifications.
A project manager works on a work breakdown structure (WBS). The goal is to create a clear and easy-to-navigate design. Which guidelines does the project manager follow when stopping to break a work element down to maintain level responsibility? (Select all that apply.) The element produces a measurable deliverable. The team can confidently estimate the time, cost, and resources. The element will span multiple reporting periods. The element will last for more than 4 and less than 40 hours.
The element produces a measurable deliverable. The team can confidently estimate the time, cost, and resources. A work breakdown structure (WBS) should not have so many details that it is overwhelming. When a team can estimate the time, cost, and resources, an element no longer needs to be broken down. The work breakdown structure (WBS) should break down into enough levels to provide a clear project plan. A measurable deliverable is one good way to stop an element from further breakdown.
A project nears an important milestone date. As a result, the project manager closely monitors daily task progress. Which tool does the project manager utilize daily to display the number of items completed per iteration? Burndown chart Throughput chart Burnup chart Velocity chart
Throughput chart A throughput chart measures the number of items completed per iteration. The chart contains several previous iterations and usually plots an average for the iterations shown.
A project team is preparing for an upcoming project and is completing a project estimate to forecast time, resources, and costs. What estimating technique creates an estimate of the entire project or key deliverables? Top-Down estimating Bottom-Up estimating Three-Point estimating Parametric model estimating
Top-Down estimating Top-down estimating creates an estimate of the entire project or key deliverables. Then estimates are cascaded down to the activities. Top-down estimating is less accurate than other techniques.
A project activity starts later than anticipated. The project manager performs a critical path exercise to view the project timeline and determines that the late start does not have a negative impact. What concepts influence this output? (Select all that apply.) Critical path Total float Slack Weighted average
Total float Slack The total float is the amount of time an activity can wait to start without impacting the total project timeline. Total float (TF) is calculated for every activity when determining the critical path. Total float is also slack because it measures the available slack in the schedule. There are two formulas that are useful in calculating slack.
A project manager presents stakeholders with a risk management plan. In the plan, a third party handles the risk. What risk management strategy does the project manager initiate for these risks? Avoid Accept Mitigate Transfer
Transfer Risk transference assigns the risk to a third party. Transferring the risk moves financial responsibility for a risk to somebody else, but the risk might still happen.
Project stakeholders meet and decide that a focus group session will help keep a project deliverable on track. The stakeholders propose a dueling-moderator approach for the session. How does the session present itself to attendees? Two moderators take opposite views. Participants may act as moderators. Two groups will observe each other. There is a lead moderator and a second as a quality check.
Two moderators take opposite views. A dueling-moderator focus group also uses two moderators. However, both moderators are actively engaged in facilitation and take opposite views.
A company posts an internal memo inviting team members to join a project. The post states that participants will receive an additional 2% pay for any eligible project hours in addition to the standard company hourly rate. The project manager calculates the pay with which value while building a resource worksheet? Resource cost rate Unit of measure Cost aggregation Reserves
Unit of measure A resource cost rate matches with some unit of measure (UOM). The UOM will vary by resource type. Hourly is an example of a UOM.
A project team meets to discuss documenting functional and non-functional requirements for a new software application deliverable. Which nonfunctional requirements does the team document as requirements? (Select all that apply.) Implementation Usability Features Compliance
Usability Compliance Usability is a nonfunctional requirement that refers to how user-friendly the solution is. While the actual interface may be a functional requirement, ease of use is not. Compliance refers to the need for the solution to comply with applicable regulations. That may include operational regulations or regulations related to the end deliverable.
A new project requires specialized tools for the development of a software product. Several vendors provide a solution, so the project manager focuses on functionality at a reasonable price. Which vendor evaluation technique does the project manager utilize in project planning? Capacity Reference Value Cost-benefit
Value The best-value evaluation considers cost and additional performance factors in selecting the vendor that will provide the most value at a reasonable cost.
A project team falls behind on scheduled tasks. As a result, the project manager pushes for an increase in productivity. While doing so, the project manager uses which measurement tool to check story points in previous iterations to calculate an average of iterations? Throughput chart Burnup chart Burndown chart Velocity chart
Velocity chart A velocity chart measures how many story points are completed per iteration. The chart contains several previous iterations and usually plots an average for the iterations shown.
Which project framework has extremely high costs when changes are implemented later in the project? Agile Extreme programming (XP) Waterfall DevOps
Waterfall A waterfall project has high change costs later in the project, so a project manager thoroughly designs the project early in the process. It is better to avoid redesigns as they are costly.
A project manager pilots a project for a new customer. The project has a strict budget. Which project management framework does the project manager practice? Kanban Scrum Agile Waterfall
Waterfall Waterfall projects have a strict budget as the customer negotiates features and costs at the start of the project. To manage cost, the customer should not request changes.
A seasoned project manager prefers to manage projects in a linear and sequential fashion. Which framework does the project manager use? Waterfall Agile Kanban Scrum
Waterfall The waterfall is a linear, sequential project management framework. All work gets completed in one phase before another phase starts. Work only flows one way in the waterfall.
A project manager realizes that some risks exist in a few project tasks. As the impact is low, the project manager does not act upon the problems. What risk management strategy does the project manager initiate for these risks? Transfer Mitigate Avoid Accept
Accept
A project manager builds an escalation plan for an in-progress software development project. The manager can map solutions to possible issues by escalation level using a matrix. With six months left on the project, what issue does the manager deem as an issue for the highest level of escalation? An error in a code module function A team member's temporary scheduling conflict An exhausted overall budget The desire to upgrade development tools
An exhausted overall budget An exhausted budget would require the highest level of escalation to remedy. This may involve having stakeholders and management review the project. With no budget, the project cannot move forward.
An organization assigns a solution architect to a large cloud-based implementation project. The architect is currently working on an initial solution for the deliverable. What project phase and which document is the architect currently creating? (Select all that apply.) Analysis Low-level Design High-level
Analysis High-level The architect creates the high-level design (HLD) in the software development life cycle (SDLC) analysis phase. The project sponsor, solution architect, and technical staff collaborate to develop the solution design. The high-level design (HLD) is a conceptual design that describes how the solution will need to work and integrate. It defines nonfunctional requirements and non-negotiable parameters.
