CSCS Combined

48. A sprinter runs with too little height of the swing leg knee. Which of the following recommendations is MOST appropriate? A. use a longer push-off with each stride B. emphasize development of stretch-shortening cycle C. increase stride length to allow for greater ROM

B 529-532

42. During the acceleration phase of sprinting, which of the following techniques is MOST appropriate? A. athlete should be nearly upright by 30m B. recovery of swing leg is low to the ground during initial steps C. athlete steps laterally during initial drive phase

B 530-531

5. Which of the following activities relies primarily on the phosphagen energy system? A. 400m Sprint B. 5RM Back Barbell Squat C. 400m Freestyle Swim D. 5K Race

B 54/57

23. The goal of the hypertrophy/endurance phase of the preparatory period to increase A. muscular strength. B. fat free mass. C movement speed.

B 589

1. A head collegiate strength and conditioning professional is scheduled to supervise the resistance training session of the men's rowing team. He is unexpectedly called away from the facility 10 minutes before the session is scheduled to begin. Which of the following should the assistant strength and conditioning professional do NEXT? A. cancel the training session B. supervise the training session C. ask the rowing coach to supervise the athletes

B 643-646

49. Performing a Valsalva maneuver during a 1RM effort results in which of the following? A. improved dynamic balance B. increased core stability C. decreased blood pressure

B 85-86

12. Which of the following exercises increases axial bone mineral density MOST? A. seated leg press B. barbell shoulder press C. dumbbell chest press

B 97-99

-1 A volleyball player, the team's setter, needs to improve her upper-body strength in the off-season training program. What training load and repetition range would a strength and conditioning coach use to bring about the needed improvement in upper-body strength? a. 60-70 percent, 4-8 repetitions b. 70-85 percent, 6-10 repetitions c. 80-90 percent, 8-10 repetitions d. 85-100 percent, 4-6 repetitions

B: 70-85 percent, 6-10 repetitions The athlete's position on the volleyball court dictates that she will need sufficient strength and muscular resiliency in her pressing musculature as well as in her upper back. To meet this requirement, she will need to train at sufficient loading intensities to develop the strength in the targeted upper-body musculature, and this can effectively be achieved with 75-85 percent loading intensity. At that intensity level, she will develop over the entire off-season program. To develop muscular resiliency and work capacity, she will need to train with a sufficient number of repetitions per set, which should fall between 6 and 10 repetitions.

-1 When training an athlete who needs to perform multiple explosive events in brief periods of time, what intensity and repetition range should a strength coach prescribe? a. Equal to or less than 85 percent, equal to or less than 6 repetitions b. 75-85 percent, 3-5 repetitions c. 67-85 percent, 3-5 repetitions d. 80-90 percent, 1-2 repetitions

B: 75-85 percent, 3-5 repetitions An athlete who is training for repetitive explosive bouts in competition will need to train at a sufficient threshold so as to develop the power capacity required, but will also need to do so in a moderate fashion to be able to perform the activity at a high level over time. Training in the 75-85 percent loading intensity range meets the first requirement of using a training load that will require the athlete to move with great force and velocity, and the 3-5 repetitions per set is a sufficient amount of work per set to develop the capacity to produce large force and velocity consistently over a period of time.

What is combination training? a. A form of interval training b. A form of cross-training c. A form of endurance training d. A form of strength-endurance training

B: A form of cross-training Combination training is a type of cross-training that requires an anaerobic athlete to train aerobically for a period of time in order to facilitate recovery from prior training sessions. There is some debate as to the overall effectiveness of this approach when considering the traits and characteristics of an anaerobic athlete's sport, as training aerobically may cause a reduction in muscle size, strength, and power.

-1 Why is backpedal running considered to be a specific and independent movement pattern and not simply the reverse of forward sprinting? a. Mechanical resistance to backpedal running b. Anatomical and functional symmetry of the leg c. Alternate muscle firing patterns d. Different force couplings at the hip and thigh

B: Anatomical and functional symmetry of the leg The distinction between the two patterns arises from the mechanical constraints on the two movements, due to the anatomical and functional asymmetry of the leg, and is evident in the kinetics and kinematics of each. Backpedal running is characterized by shorter stride length, increased stride frequency, greater support phase time, and smaller range of motion at the knee, hip, and ankle joints.

Which of the responsibilities below is NOT within the purview of the strength and conditioning coach? a. Coach team warm-up activities b. Assess injuries c. Provide skill and movement corrections during training d. Develop and implement training programs

B: Assessing injuries. The strength and conditioning coach is not involved in the assessment of injuries during either a competition or a training session. The strength and conditioning coach should never provide medical advice, as this is not within his scope of responsibilities or within the scope of his training and education. In case of an emergency, the strength and conditioning coach can provide CPR/AED or first-aid support until medical personnel arrive. This is a legal issue, and the delineation of medical responsibilities falls to those licensed to perform such activities by the state of insurance

During a combine event, there are 12 separate timers during the 40-yard dash event. What is the best approach for accurately collecting reporting the data? a. Remove the highest and lowest times and then assess the average b. Calculate the average of all 12 timers c. Determine the standard deviation among the times d. Determine and report the

B: Calculate the average of all 12 timers. The most effective approach for reporting the times to the athletes is to take the average of the 12 timers, because the sample size is small and removing any score will affect the accuracy of the reporting, as the differences between the lowest and highest score should be minimal at best. The only appropriate time to remove a score would be if the result were a full second or more greater than the other scores, as this suggest user error during measurement.

When working with an older adult who has been diagnosed with osteopenia, what is the key aspect of the evaluation process that ensures the implementation of developmentally appropriate training program? a. Strength testing b. Complete health and movement screenings c. Aerobic training capacity assessment d. Anaerobic power testing

B: Complete health and movement screenings Following the standard pre-screening practices - which include completing the health history questionnaire and implementing developmentally appropriate movements, loading intensities, training frequency, and volume for an older adult - will produce the desired effect on the trainee without engaging in any risky behaviors that may lead to injury due to thinning joints or falls. There are few, if any, limitations on an individual who has been diagnosed with osteopenia.

What are the primary goals for the strength and conditioning program, either as a private company or a university athletic department? a. Improve speed and agility b. Decrease potential injury risk and improve performance c. Develop athletes mentally and physically d. Individual development through a team setting

B: Decrease potential injury risks and improve performance The primary focus of the strength and conditioning facility is to decrease potential injury risks and to improve athletic performance. The facility may offer a range of services, from restorative massages to blending smoothies, the objective of which is to decrease the risk of injury and improve performance.

When determining the grip width for the snatch, which approach listed below is recommended? a. 1/4 inch outside of snatch rings on barbell b. Elbow to elbow c. Wrist to elbow d. Total wingspan

B: Elbow to elbow The effective and preferred methods of assessing the correct grip width for the snatch lift is to measure from elbow-to-elbow or from fist-to-opposite shoulder. Using either approach is acceptable with taller or longer-armed lifters benefitting from the fist-to-opposite shoulder method as this accounts for the longer ulnae that will cause the lifter to have a longer transition phase from second pull to overhead resulting in more energy and effort expended. Shorter stature and armed lifters will benefit from the elbow-to-elbow approach.

-1 When determining the effectiveness of a training program, when should the strength and conditioning coach perform a final review? a. End of each sport season b. End of the competition year c. End of the off-season program d. End of the in-season program

B: End of the competition year A full review of the strength and conditioning program should take place at the end of the competitive year, as the post-season period will consist of little training for the athletes (other than general sport activity); and the next competitive season will not begin until the off-season training program begins again. The strength and conditioning coach should evaluate athlete progress over the course of each sport season, but does not need to do a full qualitative review until the end of the competitive season.

Name the phenomenon that causes increased oxygen usage after an intense bout of exercise. a. Post-exercise oxygen consumption b. Excess post-exercise consumption c. Excess post-intense-exercise consumption d. Excess oxygen consumption

B: Excess post-exercise consumption Excess post-exercise consumption refers to the increased rate of oxygen above resting rates after an intense bout of exercise. This increased oxygen need post-training session causes an increased metabolic demand that causes a significant increase in the resting metabolic rate for six to twelve hours post training session.

A member of the strength and conditioning facility is wearing blue jeans to train in the facility. What are the proper action/s for a strength and conditioning coach or associate staff member to take for this first-time rules violation? I. Verbal warning by staff member II. Dismissal from facility for the day III. Make member award of violated rule IV. Document the offense a. I and II b. I and III c. I, III, and IV only d. I, II, and III only

B: I and III The process that should be undertaken when an athlete or member of the strength and conditioning facility violates a rule for the first time requires the staff member to provide a verbal warning to the member and an explanation of the rule. This verbal reprimand should also include a reminder of the disciplinary action that will be taken for a second offense.

C

** A basketball player is training for muscular hypertrophy, which of the following load and repetition combinations is the MOST appropriate? Load (% 1RM) Goal Repetitions A. 87-93 3-5 B. 87-90 6-8 C. 75-80 8-10 D. 65-67 12-15

B

** Which of the following sequences of tests will produce the most reliable results? I. Vertical Jump. II. 1.5 mile run. III. T-Test. IV. 1 RM Bench Press. A. I, II, III, IV. B. I,III,IV,II. C. IV,II,III,I. D. I, IV, II, III.

C 272/283

** Which of the following tests is NOT used to measure maximum muscular power? a. Margarina-Kalamen test. b. vertical jump. c. 40 yard (37 m) sprint. d. 1RM power clean.

B 255

** You are performing a test battery on high school wrestlers that includes the maximum number of pull-ups, push-ups, and sit-ups they can perform. Approximately how long should these athletes be given between exercises to prevent fatigue from confounding the results? A. At least 2 minutes. B. At least 5 minutes. C. At least 10 minutes. D. At least 15 minutes.

C 465

-1 A defensive lineman is training to increase his strength. Which of the following rest period lengths would maximize his goal? a) 30-60 seconds. b) 60-90seconds. c) 2-5 minutes. d) 5-10 minutes.

D 458

-1 A high school wrestler is looking to increase his overall strength. What percentage of his 1 RM should he be working with? a) 65. b) 75. c) 80. d) 90.

A 590

-1 An athlete is performing exercises with 50-75% of her 1RM for 3-6 sets of 10-20 repetitions. She is at a time of year when she has no competitions, what phase of her preparatory period is she likely in? a) Hypertrophy/Endurance Phase. b) Basic Strength Phase. c) Strength/Power Phase. d) Strength/Endurance Phase.

C

-1 Which of the following is a test of maximum muscular power? A. 1 RM Bench Press. B. T-Test. C. Standing Long Jump. D. 1 RM Back Squat.

B 563

-1 Which of the following is the method most commonly used to assign and regulate exercise intensity? a. oxygen consumption. b. heart rate. c. ratings of perceived exertion. d. race pace.

C 477

-1 Which of the following is the suggested volume for a basketball player beginning a lower body plyometric training program? a) 40-60 throws per session. b) 40-60 contacts per session. c) 80-100 contacts per session. d) 100-120 contacts per session.

A 567

-1 Which of the following types of aerobic endurance training occurs at an intensity greater than VO2max? A. High-Intensity Interval Training. B. Interval. C. Pace/Tempo. D. Long, Slow Distance.

Off-season programs may require: 1. how many training hours per day? 2. days a week? 3. what type of workouts?

1. 1.5-2 hrs 2. 2-3 days 3. free weight

In-season programs may require: 1. how much training per day? 2. days a week?

1. 20-30 minutes 2. 3-4 days

1. acute, priming 2. glycolytic, oxidative, acid-base, lactic

1. Submax exercise can be useful for ___ and ___ effects. 2. However, interval training increases ___ and ___ enzyme activities, ___ buffering capacity, and ___ power and capacity.

on the skin-fold measure, take 2 measurements until they're within ____% of eachother and then average

10

Staff-to-Athlete ratio for middle school

1:10

Staff-to-Athlete ratio for secondary/high school

1:15

how many days per week can you do overspeed training/how much recovery must there be between sessions?

2 days/week; must have 48 hours recovery

1 rep (1RM) & rep max (RM)

2 types of rep maxes

On the 1RM squat, there's 1 or 2 spotters?

2, either end of bar

Best of ____ trials is recorded

3

1. Hold-relax 2. Contract-relax 3. Hold-relax w/ agonist contraction

3 types of PNF stretching

A

3. Which of the following activities places the MOST metabolic demand on the aerobic energy system? A. Lacrosse. B. Powerlifting. C. Diving. D. Gymnastics.

What is the time range on anaerobic capacity exercises?

30-90 seconds

C 22

30. What type of lever occurs when the muscle force and the resistive force act on the same side of the fulcrum, and the muscle force acts through a moment arm shorter than through which the resistive force acts? A. First Class. B. Second Class. C. Third Class. D. Fourth Class.

_________-___________ reps is the optimum number for speed development work

6-8

C

61. Which of the following factors affect the intensity of lower body plyometric drills? I. Gender. II. Height of the drill. III. Body weight. IV. Speed of the drill. A. I, II, III only. B. II,III only. C. II,III,IV only. D. I, III, IV only.

D 567

65. Which of the following types of aerobic training is characterized by an intensity slightly above race pace? A. Long, slow distance. B. Interval. C. Fartlek. D. Pace/Tempo.

C

66. All of the following would be appropriate for the strength/power phase of a periodized training program for a college football offensive lineman EXCEPT? A. Barbell Back Squat with 85% of the 1 RM. B. Barbell Bench Press with 90% of the 1 RM. C. Seated Shoulder Press with 60% of the 1RM. D. Plyometric Medicine Ball Drop and Upward throw with a 12 lb. ball.

no formal drill work is required before the ages of _________________

9-10

12. A baseball pitcher has an elbow flexion to elbow extension strength ratio of 1:3. Which of the following exercises should be added to his program? A. biceps curl B. bench press C. triceps pushdown

A

13. A strength and conditioning professional plans on administering a 12-min run in the heat. Which of the following is the MOST important to consider before testing? A. measuring the relative humidity B. allowing athletes to acclimatize for 1 hr C. ensuring athletes are well hydrated 48 hrs before the test

A

15. An athlete should begin the pro-agility test by sprinting A. 5 yd (4.6 m) to the left. B. 10 yd (9.1 m) forward. C. 5 yd (4.6 m) backward.

A

39. A strength and conditioning professional observes an athlete everting his foot during the downward movement of a bodyweight squat. Which of the following BEST describes the corresponding effect on the knee alignment? A. valgus B. varus C. no change

A

45. Which of the following is the primary movement during the catch phase of the power clean? A. Hip Flexion B. Knee Extension C. Ankle Plantar flexion D. Shoulder Extension

A

7. Which of the following sequences is the MOST appropriate? A. power clean, bench press, back squat, pull-up B. push press, shoulder press, power clean, deadlift C. leg press, front squat, power snatch, push press

A

Which of the following tests assess muscular power in a male tennis player? A. Standing long jump. B. 1 RM Squat. C. 1 RM Bench Press. D. 40 yard sprint.

A

36. Which of the following exercises involves a second-class lever? A. standing calf (heel) raise B. dumbbell biceps curl C. lying triceps extension

A 21-22

134 beats/min

A 30-year-old athlete with a resting heart rat of 50 beats/min is training at 60% of her maximal heart rate. Using the Karvohen method, what is her exercise heart rate?

Proper spotting of the forward lunge has the spotter? a) Stepping forward with the same leg as the lifter's lead leg. b) Stepping forward with the opposite leg as the lifter's lead leg. c) Stepping forward with both legs. d) Not stepping forward with the lifter.

A 385

You are instructing a female soccer player on the deadlift. Correct technique for lifting a bar off of the floor would include all of the following EXCEPT? a) Lift the bar up to your chest before standing. b) Keep the bar close to the body. c) Keep the back flat. d) Weight evenly dispersed between the feet.

A 389

You are observing an athlete performing power cleans and notice an error during the Catch phase. Which of the following would need correction? a) A flexed torso. b) A tight torso. c) Flat feet. d) Neutral head position.

A 405

20. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate to include in the strength/power phase for a collegiate soccer goalie? A. push press with 85% of 1RM for 3 sets of 3 repetitions B. deadlift with 95% of the 1RM for 5 sets of 2 repetitions C. back squat with 65% of the 1RM for 4 sets of 12 repetitions

A 458

22. A volleyball player needs to increase his multiple-effort event power. Which of the following protocols is MOST appropriate for him to use while performing the power clean exercise? Load (% 1RM) Goal repetitions A. 85 4 B. 90 3 C. 95 2

A 458 80-90% 1-2 reps 75-85% 3-5 reps

53. Which of the following accumulates in the working muscle as an athlete exercises at near-maximum intensity? A. hydrogen ions B. creatine phosphate C. lactic acid

A 49/57

52. Which of the following will be improved the MOST by increasing the strength of the hip flexor muscles? A. maximum speed B. start speed C. deceleration speed

A 527-532

46. Which of the following techniques should be emphasized when starting a sprint from the blocks? A. swing the arms through a large range of motion B. attain an upright position by approximately 10 m C. maximize stride by pushing off with the front leg only

A 527-533

34. You are watching a video of a sprinter at maximum velocity, during the early support phase you notice excessive forward rotation of the tibia over the ankle. This represents a deficiency in which of the following? A. Eccentric Plantar flexion B. Concentric Plantar flexion C. Eccentric Knee Flexion D. Concentric Knee Flexion

A 531

31. Which of the following protocols MOST closely simulates the metabolic demands of a basketball game? Work interval Intensity (%maximal power) A. 10 sec 95% B. 30 sec 75% C. 50 sec 55%

A 60/89

13. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate set of conditions for a strength and conditioning facility? Temperature Humidity Sound levels A. 72°F (22.2° C) 55% 85 dB B. 70°F (21.1° C) 50% 95 dB C. 68°F (20.0° C) 65% 80 dB

A 627-628

9. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate guideline for the arrangement of equipment for safety in a strength and conditioning facility? A. visibility and traffic flow B. grouping according to emphasis on body parts C. grouping according to equipment manufacturer

A 628-629

6. Which of the following is MOST appropriate for an assistant strength and conditioning professional to perform? A. properly instruct exercise techniques B. provide appropriate nutritional recommendations C. purchase equipment for the facility

A 642-652

10. A new collegiate athlete wants to use the strength and conditioning facility for the first time. The FIRST priority of the strength and conditioning professional is to make sure that the new student-athlete A. obtains clearance from the sports medicine staff. B. signs a release agreement form prior to using the facility. C. attends an orientation session for familiarization.

A 647-648

C 148

A 67 year old female was found to have a bone mineral density -1.5 standard deviations below the young adult mean and would like to begin a resistance training program. Based on her bone mineral density she would be classified as having? a) Osteoporosis. b) Sarcopenia. c) Osteopenia. d) Sarcoporosis.

46. An 18-year-old collegiate rugby player is participating in a resistance training program. The strength and conditioning professional conducted strength testing every 6 weeks with the following results: Exercise 1 RM bench press Pre-testing Week 6 Week 12 Week 18 200 lb (91 kg) 210 lb (95 kg) 215 lb (98 kg) 225 lb (102 kg) Which of the following is PRIMARILY responsible for the increases in strength from week 6 to week 18? A. muscle fiber hypertrophy B. motor unit synchronization C. muscle fiber recruitment increases

A 88-95

A 253

A college basketball coach would like to know which one of her players has the most muscular power. Which of the following is the MOST valid test for measuring muscular power? a. vertical jump. b. 1RM bench press. c. 5RM squat. d. 100 m (109 yard) spring.

D 448

A college football offensive lineman has entered the offseason, and will resume his resistance training program after a period of active rest. What is the recommended frequency of resistance training sessions per week during the offseason? a) 1-2. b) 1-3 . c) 3-4 . d) 4-6.

B 444

A core exercise that emphasizes loading of the spine directly or indirectly is known as? a) Assistance exercise. b) Structural exercise. c) Sport Specific exercise. d) Functional exercise.

Structural (involves muscle stabilization of posture during execution) -direct = back squat -indirect = power clean

A core exercise that emphasizes loading the spine directly or indirectly. What are some examples of the direct/indirect types of these exercises?

box jump

A female basketball player has a low vertical jump. Add what exercise?

C

A female tennis player is beginning a resistance training program and can incorporate all of the following to reduce the risk of injury EXCEPT? A. Performing several variations of an exercise. B. Performing one warm-up set with light weight. C. Performing basic exercises through a partial range of motion. D. Using light weight for new exercises.

Load-volume, rep-volume = Avg. weight lifted per rep, per workout session

A good approximation for metabolic & mechanical power output (true intensity or quality of work parameters) is dividing ___ by ___.

series

A group of sets and recovery intervals

First class lever: triceps extension

A lever for which the muscle force and resistive force act on opposite sides of the fulcrum

Second class: Standing heel raise

A lever for which the muscle force and resistive force act on the same side of the fulcrum

B 57

A male athlete fatigues during the running of a marathon and must pull out of the race. Which is the most probable factor that limited his performance in the race? a. Depleted creatine phosphate. b. Depleted muscle glycogen. c. Depleted fat stores. d. Low pH.

A 131

A male cross country runner is suspected of suffering from overtraining, all of the following are markers of Aerobic overtraining EXCEPT? a. Increased percentage of body fat. b. Increased submaximal exercise heart rate. c. Increased creatine kinase. d. Increased muscle soreness.

Undulating or nonlinear

A periodization model alternative that involves large fluctuations in the load and volume assignments for core exercises

C 414

A professional baseball player would like to train a 6RM load in the bench press with the addition of chains. Presently the athlete's 6 RM is 200 lbs. How much weight should be placed on the barbell if the athlete applies a 24.4 lb. chain? A. 175 lbs. B. 178 lbs. C. 188 lbs. D. 195 lbs."

B 610

A soccer player sprained his left MCL 6 days ago, what stage of the tissue healing is he most likely in? a) Inflammation Phase. b) Repair Phase. c) Regeneration Phase. d) RemodelingPhase.

Closed

A squat or Push up is an example of a open or closed kinetic chain exercise?

Index finger

A stopwatch is best operated objectively & reliably by using ___ and not thumb

power exercise

A structural exercise that is performed explosively is a....

C 473

A volleyball player would like to increase her vertical jump, how can this athlete improve her force production? A. Recruit small muscles or muscle groups during an activity. B. Increase the cross sectional area of muscles uninvolved in the activity. C. Preload a muscle involved in the activity just before a concentric muscle action. D. Unload a muscle involved in the activity just before a concentric muscle action.

What are the time considerations for assessing local muscular endurance? a. 10 seconds to 120 seconds b. 60 seconds to 80 seconds c. 30 seconds to 40 seconds d. 180 seconds to 300 seconds

A: 10 seconds to 120 seconds. Tests of local muscular endurance can persist for a few seconds to several minutes at a time depending on the amount of resistance that is being used for the testing procedure. Movement selection will affect the time this test will require from an athlete, as a pull-up will require less time than a barbell lunge at 50 percent loading intensity, because the amount of work that is possible with each movement is significantly different.

What is the correct staff-to-athlete ratio for a secondary school? a. 1:15 b. 1:20 c. 1:10 d. 1:30

A: 1:15 The correct ratio of strength and conditioning staff members, e.g., strength and conditioning director, assistant strength and conditioning coaches, and graduate assistants, in a secondary education setting is 1:15. This is established primarily due to the age of the participants, as they will be between 14 and 19 years of age, and the type of training in which the athletes will engage. The ratio for younger athletes to strength staff members at the middle school level is 1:10, while the ratio for university-aged athletes is 1:20, as the trend is for older athletes to require less supervision, as they will be of a higher training age and better suited to training independently due to familiarity with facility rules and avoiding possibly dangerous behaviors.

-1 For bench press: What percentage of the 1RM would facilitate developing an athlete's ability to accelerate and increase speed? a. 50-60 percent b. 40-50 percent c. 60-70 percent d. 30-40 percent

A: 50-60 percent An athlete using 50-60 percent of his 1RM will be able to accelerate the barbell at the desired speeds of approximately 0.08m/s in order to facilitate an increase in speed. This percentage of the 1RM is sufficiently heavy enough to require a high force output from the athlete without risking muscular failure, and also allows for sufficient training volumes to develop the neurological consistency needed to increase the rate of signaling to the muscles to facilitate the increase in bar speed and over time speed in competition.

-1 What is an impulse with regard to speed and agility training, and how is this measured? a. A shift in momentum as a result of a force, (Impulse = Force x Time) b. A shift in momentum as a result of force, (Impulse = Force/Time) c. The rate of directional change as a result of a force, (Impulse = Force x Time) d. The rate of directional change as a result of a force, (Impulse = Force/Time)

A: A shift in momentum as a result of a force, (Impulse = Force x Time) An impulse changes the momentum of an object as a result of a force and is required to achieve a predetermined momentum is less time, or greater momentum in a set period of time. This essentially outlines the necessity of high rates of force production to generate the requisite momentum to move an object, e.g., an athlete sprinting down the track from a dead start in a set time.

-1 What is the primary limitation of trunk plyometrics? a. Limited stretch-reflex response b. Too many muscles groups involved c. Hip flexors overtaking the abdominals d. Overactive stretch-reflex response

A: Limited stretch-reflex response Trunk plyometrics do not necessarily function the exact same way as upper- and lower-body plyometrics, and this is due to limited stretch-reflex response. The muscles of the trunk do not effectively store elastic energy, which limits the capacity of the trunk musculature to generate reactive force. Research findings suggest that slow response times and lower movement velocities result from the distance between the trunk musculature and the spinal cord.

During the inflammatory phase, what kind of training can be undertaken by the athlete? a. Maintain strength and endurance in adjacent muscles b. Isometric contraction of injured area c. Lightly stretch the injured area d. Train non-affected muscle using normal processes

A: Maintain strength and endurance in adjacent muscles. Training during the inflammatory phase is not a forbidden activity, but the training should be limited to the healthy joints and muscles. This may require using a body part split to avoid excessive loading in the injured area, e.g., squatting with a leg or hip injury. The key is to work to maintain strength and endurance at sufficient levels such that once the athlete is cleared to return to training or competitive activities, the athlete will not be as far away from being in the required shaped as he would be if he were not to engage in any training at all.

When opening a new strength and conditioning facility, the hiring phase for qualified staff begins during which phase? a. Pre-operation phase b. Design phase c. Construction phase d. Predesign phase

A: Pre-operation phase The pre-operation phase, also known as the start-up phase, of facility planning is the three- to four-month period of time prior to opening the facility when the selection and hiring for qualified staff members begins. This is also the time frame when staff development, in-service, and advanced credentialing standards should be put in place. This is the final stage in the facility planning process.

When designing training programs for children, what area of adaptation to resistance training is a concern? a. Skeletal adaptations b. Muscular adaptations c. Cardiovascular adaptations d. Neuromuscular adaptations

A: Skeletal adaptations During childhood and adolescence, when undertaking resistance training exercises, protecting the diaphysis of the long bones and the growth cartilage is extremely important in preventing injury to these areas by emphasizing loading intensity over skill and technique acquisition. AN adult will be able to handle higher training loads without risk to these areas, as these growth areas will cease growing and solidify between 17 and 22 years of age.

-1 A strength and conditioning coach is using a sequenced training model. What should the next training block emphasize if an athlete has just completed a block that emphasizes agility? a. Strength b. Stretch-shortening cycle c. Power d. Speed Bonus: Which block of Sequenced Training is this?

A: Strength Bonus: Restitution block (emphasizes SPEED and AGILITY) Rotating the sequenced training blocks for an athlete who has just completed an agility-focused training block to begin to develop strength qualities addresses the physical quality that was trained at maintenance levels and will necessarily need to be trained in the next training block. This will also allow the progress made during the agility training block to manifest and continue to improve via enhanced neural connections, but increases in strength from the current training block will also play a role. Sequenced training is intended to develop multiple characteristics separately while also relying on the relationships between characteristics to develop the athlete's capacities.

Which of the bone injuries listed below occurs most frequently? a. Stress fracture b. Displaced fracture c. Comminuted fracture d. Compound fracture

A: Stress fracture. Stress fractures are the most commonly occurring type of fracture among athletes, and this is due to the high forces generated in a repetitive fashion during practices, training sessions, and competition. Stress fractures will also most often occur when training volume suddenly increases or an athlete accumulates significant training stress on hard training or competitive surfaces.

_____ is the energy source for high and low speed muscular strength tests

ATP

C 54

ATP used during the 400-m dash would be primarily supplied from what energy system? a. Phosphagen. b. Slow glycolysis. c. Fast glycolysis. d. Oxidative.

enzymes associated with ____ resynthesis capacity and ____-_____ interconversion are key determinants of sprinting speed

ATP, pyruvate-lactate

Agility

Ability to stop, start, and change direction of body/body parts rapidly in a controlled manner

stimulus-fatigue-recovery-adaptation theory

According to the ______ as an athlete recovers from an adapts to a training stimuli, fatigue will dissipate and preparedness and performance increase

3 min - 24 hrs

Acute effects of stretching on ROM range from __ min to __ hrs

120 to 140 contacts per session

Advanced volume for plyo

1. stride length (shorter) 2. greater stride frequency

Aerobic Endurance Exercise Training (CH 18): In running, better exercise economy is correlated with what 2 factors?

30-90 sec

Aerobic capacity is defined as the maximal power output achieved during activity lasting how long?

5, intensity, frequency, 2

Aerobic fitness does NOT decrease for up to ___ weeks when ___ is maintained and ___ decreases; to as few as ___ times a week.

B 48

After an intense exercise session involving resistance training one method lactate can be cleared from the blood involves transport to which of the following? A. Pancreas where it is converted to glucose. B. Liver where it is converted to glucose. C. Pancreas where it is converted to sodium. D. Liver where it is converted to sodium.

b

All of following procedures should be followed when testing cardiovascular fitness in heat EXCEPT: a. use indoor facility b. use salt tablets to retain water c. schedule test in morning d. drink fluids during test

B 80

All of the following are important signal mechanisms for IGF release EXCEPT? A. Growth Hormone. B. Testosterone. C. Nutritional Status. D. Insulin Levels.

phase 2, transition. Alpha motor neurons transmit signals to agonist muscles. Must be kept short or energy lost as heat.

Amortization phase

Power clean, back squat, hip sled, leg (knee) curl

An American football lineman has difficult driving into defensive linemen and believes he has lost his explosive ability. Which of the following is the BEST exercise order to help this athlete improve his performance?

A 36

An athlete is utilizing a cycle ergometer and in order to increase the intensity she turns the knob which controls the brake pad, this type of resistance is referred to as? a. Friction b. Fluid Resistance c. Elasticity d. Inertia

A 451

An athlete performs 10 repetitions of a standing barbell curl, then immediately switches to dumbbells and performs 10 repetitions of hammer curl exercises. This represents what type of set? a) Compound. b) Super . c) Drop. d) Circuit.

cycling at 75% of vo2max for 70 minutes

An athlete who typically runs for 70 minutes at 65% to 75% of her vo2max is looking to maintain a minimal level of conditioning. Which of the following workouts would provide the best stimulus for cross-training?

Open Kinetic Chain exercise

An exercise that uses a combination of successively arranged joints in which the terminal joint is free to move; allows for greater concentration on an isolated joint or muscle

maximal aerobic power (VO₂ max), lactate threshold

An improvement in exercise economy can enhance ___ and ___.

30 to 90 seconds

Anaerobic capacity is quantified as the maximal power output achieved during activity lasting

20

Approximately how many METs is equal to a vo2max of 70ml-kg-min?

frequency, duration, intensity

At higher levels of fitness, where increasing ___ or ___ is not feasable, progression in training will only occur through increasing ___.

training (and injury) status, variety of tests (max strength), evaluate results, determine primary goal of training

Athlete profile elements (4)

Offseason: 4-6 Preseason: 3-4 In-season: 1-3 Postseason: 0-3

Athletes may train with how many sessions/week during the following times of the season: Offseason, preseason, in-season, postseason

220, volume , intensity, 18

Athletes weighing more than ___ lbs are at a greater risk of injury. These athletes should avoid high-___ and high-___ plyo ex's; and should not perform depth jumps over __ inches

D 481

Athletes weighing over 220 lbs should not perform depth jumps from heights greater than a) 10 inches. b) 6 inches. c) 42 inches. d) 18 inches.

10

Athletes who arrive at a relatively high altitude after living near sea level should be given ___ days to acclimate before undergoing aerobic endurance tests

1. Which of the following physical competency screens is most appropriate for assessing mobility of the hips and upper back? A. sit-and-reach test B. overhead squat C. star-excursion balance test

B

11. An athlete is scheduled to perform the following assessments: • 40-yd (37 m) sprint • 300-yd (274 m) shuttle • Pro agility • 1.5-mile (2.4 km) run • Skinfold measurements Which assessment should be administered on a separate day? A. 300-yd (274 m) shuttle B. 1.5 mile (2.4 km) run C. 40-yd (37 m) sprint

B

11. Which of the following best represents a required procedure, or standard, for the Strength and Conditioning professional? A. the Strength & Conditioning practitioner should acquire a bachelor's or master's degree B. Strength & Conditioning programs must provide adequate and appropriate supervision C. Strength & Conditioning professionals should develop and maintain various records

B

13. Which of the following is a structural exercise that requires free weights to be performed? A. front squat B. power snatch C. bent-over row

B

15. An American collegiate rugby player is participating in a pre-season strength and conditioning program. He is transitioning between phases in his program. Phase A Sets Repetitions %1RM 3-6 10-20 50-75 Phase B Sets Repetitions %1RM 3-5 4-8 80-90 Which of the following BEST describes the change in phases? A. basic strength to strength/power B. hypertrophy to basic strength C. strength/power to peaking

B

16. An athlete is scheduled to perform 12 repetitions in the incline bench press exercise. Which of the following percentages of his 1RM is MOST appropriate to assign? A. 60% B. 70% C. 80%

B

16. Which of the following tests requires the greatest amount of time to administer to ensure reliable results? A. 1RM deadlift B. 12-min run C. 300-yd (274 m) shuttle

B

17. Which of the following protocols is MOST appropriate to develop muscular hypertrophy? Repetitions Sets A. 6 2 B. 10 4 C. 16 3

B

18. A strength and conditioning professional is testing a female athlete using the Jackson-Pollock 3-site body composition formula. Which of the following skinfold sites should be used? A. abdomen, triceps, and suprailium B. suprailium, triceps, and thigh C. thigh, abdomen, and suprailium

B

18. A strength and conditioning professional is working with an athletic trainer to recondition a cross-country runner who has an injured ankle. During which of the following phases is it appropriate to introduce rotations on a wobble board? A. inflammation B. repair C. remodeling

B

21. An athlete's trial on the T-test is disqualified for which of the following reasons? A. touching the base of the cones B. crossing the feet when moving C. facing forward the entire time

B

22. Which of the following resistance training exercises MOST closely mimics the movement pattern of dribbling a basketball? A. Lat Pulldown B. Close Grip Bench Press C. Flat Dumb bell Fly D. Bent Over Row

B

27. A spotter is NOT indicated in which of the following exercises? A. Barbell Bench Press B. Snatch C. Overhead Dumb bell triceps extension D. Step Up

B

29. A strength and conditioning professional is redesigning a high school strength and conditioning facility. In order to ensure traffic flow and access, which of the following is the recommended space between resistance training machines? A. 22 inches B. 36 inches C. 54 inches D. 60 inches

B

3. An athlete initiates the T-test by performing which of the following movements? A. diagonal hop B. forward sprint C. lateral shuffle

B

31. An athlete has recurring hamstrings injuries. He currently performs the following exercises: Back squat Bench press Dumbbell lunge Pull-up Step-up Seated row Which of the following exercises should be included in the athlete's program? A. leg (knee) extension and good morning B. stiff-leg deadlift and leg curl C. push jerk and power clean

B

33. During the performance of the deadlift, which of the following muscles acts isometrically? A. Vastus Lateralis B. Triceps Brachii C. Semitendinosus D. Iliocostalis Lumborum

B

42. Which of the following plyometric drills has the LOWEST level of intensity? A. Split Squat Jump B. Jump to Box C. SingleLeg Hop D. Depth Jump

B

8. Which of the following tests is the MOST appropriate for assessing a soccer goalie? A. 300-yd (274-m) shuttle B. Margaria-Kalamen C. 1.5-mile (2.4 km) run

B

For the t-test, what cone is touched 1rst, 2nd & 3rd and then how does he/she get back to cone A?

B (center/top), C (left/top), D (right/top), back-pedal

51. A high school junior 1600-m runner has been aerobically training for 2 years. She improves her performance time throughout the course of her first season on the team. Which of the following is PRIMARILY responsible for her performance increases? A. decrease in lean body mass B. improvement in VO2max C. increase in running economy

B 120/124 Most adaptations in Vo2max can be achieved within 6 - 12 months.

1. A 165-lb (75-kg) athlete has an average daily intake of 450 g of carbohydrate, 75 g of protein, and 100 g of fat. What percent of the total kilocalorie intake is carbohydrate? A. 50% B. 60% C. 70%

B 188

57.Which of the following muscles acts as an agonist during the second pull of the power clean exercise? A. latissimus dorsi B. trapezius C. tricep brachii

B 20/405

17. What is the recommended length of the sides for the hexagon test? A. 12 in. (30 cm) B. 24 in. (60 cm) C. 36 in. (90 cm)

B 281

A 6'4‖ 190 lb. Division I basketball player is 21 years old and had the following test . 1RM Bench Press: 230 lbs. 1RM Squat: 280 lbs. 1RM Power Clean: 180 lbs. T-Test: 8.8 secons. Which of the following needs improvement? A. Agility. B. Power. C. Lower Body Strength. D. Upper Body Strength.

B 297 Power Clean 50% = 215lbs

14. A 23-year-old Division I college baseball player has the following test results: 1RM bench press: 245 lb (111 kg) 1RM back squat: 275 lb (125 kg) 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run: 10:16 (min:sec) Which of the following needs improvement? A. upper body strength B. lower body strength C. aerobic endurance

B 297/305

43. Which of the following BEST describes the hamstrings during the contract-relax PNF technique? Initial pre-stretch Duration A. active 10 sec B. passive 10 sec C. passive 30 sec

B 323-328

50. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate when performing the forward walking lunge stretch? A. planting the heel of the front foot into the floor B. moving the hips forward and downward C. keeping the knee of the forward leg behind the foot

B 335

During which of the following exercises should a spotter's hands be placed on the athlete's wrists? a) bench press. b) dumbbell incline bench press. c) overhead triceps extension . d) biceps curl.

B 355

While spotting a basketball player during the incline bench press you should provide assistance when? a) When the athlete looks tired. b) When the designated sound or signal is performed. c) When the athlete inhales. d) When the athlete exhales.

B 355

When compared to a barbell squat performance of a squat on a Smith Machine reduces the activity of the back stabilizers by what percentage? A. 10%. B. 30%. C. 60% . D. 90%.

B 412

38. A strength and conditioning professional is working with a novice sprinter. In order to improve their sprint speed, which of the following is the MOST critical component to improving their speed? A. increasing stride frequency while decreasing stride length B. increasing vertical force application C. increasing ground contact time

B 527-333

From the list of plyometric drills listed below, determine the correct order they should be in from least demanding to most demanding. I. Jumps over an object II. Depth jump III. Box jumps IV. Vertical jump a. I, II, III, IV b. IV, I, III, II c. IV, III, I, II d. I, III, IV, II

B: IV, I, III, II Lower-body plyometric intensity levels are established by assessing the METABOLIC and NEURAL demands placed on the athlete's body. Jumps that require lower force levels to generate the movement are considered to be of lowest impact, while jumps that require higher force levels are considered to be of higher impact.

-1 What periodization model would be most effect for an athlete who has multiple event during a competitive season? a. Linear periodization b. Non-linear periodization c. Matveyev periodization d. Strategic periodization

B: Non-linear periodization. Using a non-linear periodization model allows the strength and conditioning coach to vary training load intensities and training volumes according to the competition schedule; as there may be significant gaps between events that allow an athlete to increase intensity and training volume (for a two- to three-week period in a peaking strategy of sorts) in order to perform above previous competitions. This could also be used in a sport with weekly competitions, (e.g. a collegiate football or gymnastics program) as this would allow the strength and conditioning coach to evaluate the needs of the athlete based on the difficulty of the upcoming meet or game and prescribe training volumes and training load intensities accordingly. This approach also allows for significant variation during each training week, as training loads intensity and training volume can be altered day to day if desired.

What energy system is most active during brief intense muscular contractions? a. Anaerobic glycolysis b. Phosphagen system c. Aerobic glycolysis d. Gluconeogenesis

B: Phosphagen system The phosphagen system relies on the hydrolysis of ATP from local muscle stores, as well as on the breakdown of creatine phosphate. This system is active during bouts of intense, brief exercise that includes heavy resistance exercises and short intense sprints. This system is active during all activities at eh outset, but is active for a short time before other systems become the predominant energy resource depending on duration of exercise.

? = + Which of the training phases below is an alteration to the Matveyev model of periodization? a. Preparatory phase b. Strength/power phase c. Transition phase d. competition phase

B: Strength/power phase. In the provided list, the strength/ power phase is representative of one of the alterations that have been made to the Matveyev's model of periodization. The three alterations to the Matveyev model occur during the preparation phase, and they are the hypertrophy/endurance phase, the base strength phase, and the strength/power phase. Each training phase builds into the next phase, and is defined by specific training load intensities and training volumes, with intensity increasing and training volume decreasing, generally, as the athlete moves from hypertrophy/endurance to strength/power.

Which of the movements listed below is an example of neuromuscular control? a. Jumping in a basketball game b. Swimming in the ocean c. Running on a soccer field d. Changing directions on a tennis court

B: Swimming in the ocean. Swimming in the ocean is the best example of which activity exemplifies neuromuscular control. Of the options listed, this is the most significantly changing environment with which the individual's ability to stabilize the body in the water and maintain a set directional heading, while also requiring varying levels of force to move through the water.

plyometrics, aerobic

Because aerobic ex's may have a negative effect on power production, perfrom ___ before ___ exercises

impulse, power

Because of time and velocity constraints, a technique can be characterized in terms of task-specific ___ and ___.

1. VO₂ max 2. LT 3. economy 4. Fuel

Benefits of Fartlek Training 1. Enhanced ___ 2. Increased ___ 3. Improve running ___ 4. ___ utilization

Osteoporosis

Bone mineral density below -2.5

Osteopenia

Bone mineral density between -1 and -2.5

Inferential

Branch of stats that allows one to draw general conclusions about a population from info collected in a population sample (ex: 7th grade boys = "scores represent all of 7th grade")

Descriptive

Branch of stats that summarize or describe a large group of data, when all info about a population is known (ex: every player on team)

14. An athlete is performing three sets of the bench press exercise. What is the volume load of the workout shown below? SET 1 SET 2 SET 3 load reps load reps load reps 100 lb (45 kg) 6 115 lb (52 kg) 4 125 lb (57 kg) 2 A. 4080 lb (1581 kg) B. 3930 lb (1783 kg) C. 1310 lb (594 kg)

C

19. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate order when rest periods need to be minimized and training time is limited? A. bench press, shoulder press, hang clean, lunge B. lunge, hang clean, shoulder press, bench press C. hang clean, bench press, lunge, shoulder press

C

20. Which of the following tests are MOST appropriate for women's collegiate field hockey? A. 1.5 mile (2.4 km) run and 1RM power clean B. 1RM deadlift and 300-yd (274 m) shuttle C. 40-yd (37-m) sprint and 20-m beep test

C

23. A high school baseball player has a 1RM bench press of 220 lbs. How much weight should he lift in this exercise to allow him to perform 6 repetitions before failure? A. 205 lbs. B. 200 lbs. C. 185 lbs. D. 175 lbs.

C

24. Which of the following BEST describes the upward movement phase of the deadlift? A. Hips and knee flex and the gluteus maximus and rectus femoris are antagonists B. Hips flex and the gluteus maximus is an antagonist, knees extend and the rectus femoris is an agonist C. Hips and knees extend and the gluteus maximus and rectus femoris are agonists D. Hips extend and the gluteus maximus is an agonist, knees flex and the rectus femoris is an antagonist

C

28. A volleyball player is in a pre-season preparatory period and currently performing a resistance training program at a moderate intensity 4 times per week. Which of the following modifications is MOST appropriate when progressing to an in-season training program? Intensity Frequency A. increase increase B. decrease increase C. increase decrease

C

28. Which of the following is a technique error during the performance of the upward movement phase of the step up that needs correcting? A. Torso kept erect B. Entire foot of the lead leg placed on the box C. Pushed off with the trailing leg D. At highest position paused before beginning the downward phase

C

29. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate to include in the hypertrophy phase for a professional basketball player? A. push jerk with 85% of 1RM for 3 sets of 3 repetitions B. hang clean with 95% of the 1RM for 5 sets of 2 repetitions C. front squat with 65% of the 1RM for 4 sets of 12 repetitions

C

37. A field hockey player has a running pace of 6.5 mph (10.5 km/h). She now must run indoors due to inclement weather. The strength and conditioning professional observes the athlete set the treadmill to 6.5 mph (10.5 km/h) at a 3% grade. Which of the following treadmill adjustments is MOST appropriate to mimic her outdoor pace? Speed Grade A. increase decrease B. increase maintain C. maintain decrease Do Online

C

4. Which of the following instructions are appropriate to give to an athlete who is preparing to perform the T-test? A. Keep your head slightly tilted down and focus your eyes on each cone. B. Keep your head in a neutral position and focus your eyes on each cone. C. Keep your head in a neutral position and focus your eyes straight ahead.

C

43. When administering a battery of tests to a male basketball player, which of the following sequences will produce the most reliable results? A. Partial Curl Up, 300 yard shuttle, 1RM Squat, 40 yard sprint B. 1RM Bench Press, 300 yard shuttle, 40 yard sprint, Partial Curl Up C. T- Test, 1RM Squat, 40 yard Sprint, Partial Curl Up D. Partial Curl Up, 40 Yard Sprint, 1 RM Bench Press, T-Test

C

6. A strength and conditioning professional is designing a reconditioning program for an athlete who has undergone physical therapy after ACL reconstruction surgery. The athletic trainer indicates that joint movement is CONTRAINDICATED. Which of the following types of exercise is MOST appropriate? A. isokinetic B. isotonic C. isometric DO ONLINE

C

8. Which of the following exercises requires the longest recovery time after a training session if performed using 90% of 1RM? A. bench press B. leg press C. front squat

C

9. Which of the following are the MOST sport-specific exercises for a sprinter? A. triceps pushdowns and leg (knee) extensions B. barbell back squats and lat pulldowns C. seated arm swings and dumbbell lunges

C

During the upward movement phase of a barbell bench press, which of the following muscles acts as an antagonist? A. Deltoid. B. Pectoralis Major. C. Biceps Brachii. D. Serratus Anterior.

C

You are observing an athlete perform the Bent-over row and notice which of the following technique flaws that needs correction? a) Pronated closed grip. b) Grip wider than should width. c) Torso flexed so it is slightly below parallel to floor. d) Bar hangs with the elbows fully extended.

C

When selecting a test for use all of the following should be taken into account EXCEPT? a) Energy System Used. b) Temperature. c) Height of Athlete. d) Sex of Athlete.

C 253

All of the following would represent tests of local muscular endurance EXCEPT? a) Maximum number of chin-ups in 1 minute. b) Maximum number of chin-ups in 30 seconds. c) Maximum number of chin-ups in 1 minute with 5 seconds rest every 10 seconds. d) Maximum number of sit-ups in 30 seconds.

C 261

Which of the following represents a correct procedure during the application of the Sit- and-Reach-Test? a) Wear shoes. b) Use Ballistic stretches to warm up the low back and hamstrings. c) The tester may hold the athlete's kneed down if necessary. d) Reach forward as fast as possible.

C 286

You are assisting a freshmen football player during his workout and provide spotting during the execution of all of the following exercises EXCEPT? a) Back squat. b) Seated Dumbbell Shoulder Press. c) Power Clean. d) Flat Bench Press.

C 355

Two spotters are utilized for the? a) incline dumbbell fly. b) snatch. c) front squat. d) step-up.

C 382

You are observing a group of football players performing the deadlift, which of the following is a common error? a) slowly flexing the hips and knees during the downward movement. b) keeping the elbows extended. c) extending the knees before the hips during the upward movement. d) keeping the bar as close to the shins as possible.

C 389

central, window

CSCS office should be located ___? With larger than average ___?

1

CSCS should focus on how many outcomes per training season?

heavy day. (light days: use 90% of heavy day only)

Can use the ______ concept to limit max effort loads in a given training period

Potentiation

Change in force-velocity characteristic of the muscle's contractile components caused by a stretch

B 610

Collagen fiber production, decreased collagen fiber organization, and decreased number of inflammatory cells describe events that occur during what phase of tissue healing? a) Inflammation. b) Repair. c) Remodeling. d) Regenerating.

3 min

Common rest period for max strength gains on back squat

high intensity R & P, not heavy R or R & P combined, ex. squat jump w/30% 1RM

Complex training for plyo

depth jumps and other high intensity lower body drills

Contradicted for plyo items for youth?

26. Which of the following would disqualify an athlete during the administration of a T-Test? A. The athlete touches a cone with her hand B. The athlete shuffles her feet C. The athlete keeps her head forward the entire time D. The athlete crosses her feet

D

32. Which of the following are closed kinetic chain exercises? I.Push-ups II. Pull-ups III. Barbell Bent Over Row IV. Dips A. I, II only B. I,II,III only C. III, IV only D. I, II, IV only

D

35. Which of the following should be considered when scheduling athletes in the strength and conditioning facility? I. Seasonal Priority II. Gender of Athletes III. Training Status of Athletes IV. Staff to Athlete Supervision Ratios A. I, II, III B. I,II C. II, III, IV D. I, IV

D

41. A soccer player has a knee extension to knee flexion strength ratio of 5:1. Which of the following exercises should be added to her program to reduce the potential for injury? A. Front Squats B. Plyometric Depth Jumps C. Power Cleans D. Lying Leg Curl

D

An athlete performs a vertical jump height test followed by a 1 RM test of his back squat. What is the primary energy source utilized during these tests? a) Oxygen. b) Glucose. c) Fat. d) ATP.

D

Which of the following is an example of an accommodating load? A. Free Weights. B. Chains. C. Resistance Bands. D. A device that controls the speed of movement throughout a range of motion.

D 413

which of the following elements of agility technical skills requires spatial and temporal control of body movements: a) differentiation; b) rhythm; c) balance; d) orientation?

D) orientation

When designing a training program, a strength and conditioning coach uses both structural movements and core movements. How are these movements similar and different? a. Both affect multiple joints and large muscle groups, with core movements requiring higher force outputs as these are speed and power movements b. Both affect large muscle groups, but core movements are primarily considered assistance exercises. c. Both affect large muscle groups, but structural movements are always high-force movements and should be placed first in a training program. d. Both affect multiple joints and muscle groups, but structural movements load the spine either directly or indirectly.

D: Both affect multiple joints and muscle groups, but structural movements load the spine either directly or indirectly. Multi-joint movements are compound movements that affect multiple joints and affect large muscle areas across the body. Structural movements are also multiple joint exercises and affect large muscle areas, but are specifically movements that load the spine directly, e.g., a back squat, or indirectly, e.g., a power clean.

When spotting the bench press, where are the hands placed in the event of a missed repetition? a. Outside the athlete's hands in an overhand grip b. Center of the barbell using a pronated grip c. Outside the athlete's hands in a pronated grip d. Center of the barbell using an alternated grip

D: Center of the barbell using an alternated grip Spotting a barbell bench press in this fashion ensures that the spotter will not lose grip suddenly if the athlete is struggling to complete a set or has missed a maximum intensity load attempt. The alternated grip is the best approach to spotting the bench press.

6in

Designing a strength and conditioning facility: How far should equipment be placed from mirrors?

Indications

Diagnosis of injury: Written forms of treatment required to treat injury?

Contraindications

Diagnosis of injury: Written forms stating what activity or practice is prohibited due to injury

power

Drills are _________ training, not cardio-respiratory for plyo

1 & 3

During ground support phase of linear sprinting, which of the following are responsible for storing and recovering elastic energy? 1. gastrocnemius 2. hamstrings 3. quadriceps 4. ant. tibialis

C 85

During resistance training which of the following increases serum testosterone concentrations the MOST? A. Isolating Specific Muscles. B. 2 minute Rest Intervals. C. Multiple Sets and Multiple Exercises. D. Lifting 70% of the 1RM.

D 618

During the remodeling phase of biceps tendinitis rehabilitation, what exercise repetition range is most appropriate for improving endurance of the biceps muscle? a) 3-5. b) 6-8. c) 8-12. d) 12-20.

Remodeling phase

During this phase the treatment goal is to optimize tissue function by continuing and progressing the activities performed during the repair phase and adding more advanced, sport specific exercises

Inflammation phase

During this phase the treatment goal is to prevent disruption of new tissue

Repair phase

During this phase the treatment goal is to prevent excessive muscle atrophy and joint deterioration in the injured area; maintaining muscular and cardiovascular function in uninjured areas

C 591

During which of the following periods are sport-specific activities performed in the greatest volume? a. preparatory. b. first transition. c. competition. d. second transition.

C 585

During which stage of the General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS) does the body lose its ability to adapt to the stressor? a) Alarm. b) Resistance. c) Exhaustion. d) Extinction.

B 585

During which stage of the General Adaptation Syndrome does the body physiologically adapt to heavier training loads? a. alarm. b. resistance. c. exhaustion. d. restoration.

4, several

Eccentric GRF during sprinting can approach ___x the BW of the athlete. Achilles tension/forces can be ___ greater.

C 527

Elite sprinters produce ____forces in a ____ ground contact time as compared to their novice counterparts. a. larger, longer. b. similar, shorter. c. larger, shorter. d. smaller, longer.

Resting oxygen uptake

Estimated at 3.5ml of oxygen per kilogram of body weight per minute

scale weight - fat mass = lean body mass

Example of a formula that correctly calculates lean body mass?

back squats and chin ups

Example of a superset would allow for the greatest amount of recovery between sets?

1. 1.5-mile run 2. 12-minute run 7th of 7* *day in between 2 of these if possible

Example(s) of aerobic capacity tests and when should this be done in the consecutive order of testing (out of 7 tests)

1. T-test 2. pro-agility test 2nd of 7

Example(s) of agility tests and when should this be done in the consecutive order of testing (out of 7 tests)

1. 400 m run 2. 300-yard shuttle 6th of 7

Example(s) of fatiguing anaerobic capacity tests and when should this be done in the consecutive order of testing (out of 7 tests)

1. 40-yard sprint 4th of 7

Example(s) of sprint tests and when should this be done in the consecutive order of testing (out of 7 tests)

on the sit and reach, it is ok for one hand to be in front of the other, T/F, and the tester may hold the knees down, T/F?

F, T

Verbal warning

Facility rules and guidelines for 1st offense

Dismissal from the facility for one day

Facility rules and guidelines for 2nd offense

Dismissal from the facility for one week

Facility rules and guidelines for 3rd offense

Dismissal from the facility for the remainder of the year

Facility rules and guidelines for 4th offense

Permanent dismissal from the facility

Facility rules and guidelines for 5th offense

points of contact, speed, height of drill, body weight

Factors affecting intensity

1:3-1:5

Fast Glycolysis Work to rest period ratios

1. Joint structure 2. Age 3. Sex 4. Connective tissue 5. Resistance training w/ limited ROM 6. Muscle bulk

Flexibility is limited by? (7)

quality of movement

Focus on what for plyo

B 131

Following detraining, a marathon runner will first notice a decline in maximal? a. Power. b. Oxygen consumption. c. Strength. d. Blood Pressure.

D 88

Following resistance training, augmented neural drive to the working musculature is the result of. I. increased agonist muscle recruitment. II. muscle hypertrophy. III. improved firing rate. IV. greater synchronization. a. all of the above. b. I and IV only. c. I, II, and III only. d. I, III, and IV only.

core

For RMs, choose _____ exercises

1, 3

For RT, ____ rest day between sessions but not more than _____

3, 7

For RT, _____ days a week is traditionally recommended can go up to ____ days though

a demanding occupation

For RT, ___________ is another factor to consider

split

For RT, a _____ routine can be used to train consecutive days but not over train a body part

B 162

For a high school American football team, if any player squats two times his body weight, his name is placed on the wall. This is an example of. a. negative reinforcement. b. positive reinforcement. c. negative punishment. d. positive punishment.

A 561

For cyclists, which of the following would result in a decrease in exercise economy? a) Increased cycling velocity. b) Decrease in body mass. c) Improved aerodynamic positioning. d) Decreased weight of the bike frame.

1. Alternate leg bounding 2. Double-leg hops

For masters athletes w/o surgery hx, single-leg and depth jump plyometrics may still be unwarranted. What are 2 good alternatives to these?

3-4

For masters athletes, plyo programs should have __ to __ days recovery between sessions

5, foot contacts

For masters athletes, plyo programs should have no more than __ low-mod intensity ex's, include fewer ___ than a standard plyo program

30

For single-joint max power exercise, ____% of 1RM should be used

training cycle (macrocycle)

For sports requiring quick, powerful movements, it is beneficial to perform plyo ex's throughout the ___.

Power

Force and velocity at whatever speed

48-72 hours

Frequency - Recovery time for plyo?

power output and aerobic endurance: must account for repeated spikes in _____

GRF

A 138

Growth cartliage in children is located at all of the following EXCEPT the. a. diaphysis. b. epiphyseal plate. c. joint surface. d. apophyseal insertion.

B 78

Growth hormone is secreted by which of the following? A. Testes. B. Anterior Pituitary. C. Liver. D. Posterior Pituitary.

C 78

Growth hormone stimulates what organ to secrete Insulin-Like Growth Factors? A. Pituitary gland B. Adrenal gland C. Liver D. Pancreas

a _____ tape is ideal for girth measurements

Gulich

C 103

Heavy resistance exercise has what effect on cardiac output? a. Increases rapidly. b. Decreases. c. No change. d. Decreases rapidly.

12 to 14

Height of ceiling (range in feet)

Fist to shoulder measurement

How do you measure bar width for power exercises (Snatch)

B 157

How does an athlete's optimal arousal change with limited skill and ability to perform the activity? a. It increases. b. It decreases. c. It has no effect. d. It is not related to the activity.

49 sq ft

How much spacing is needed for stretching and warm-up area per athlete?

6-12, 3-6

Hypertrophy: ____reps & ______sets

have the athlete demonstrate it.

If there's a question about exercise technique....

momentum, force, time

Impulse is the change in ___ resulting from a force measured as the product of ___ x ___.

1. Contractile component (CC) (actin/myosin, cross-bridges) -major portion of concentric action 2. Parallel elastic component (PEC) (epimysium, perimysium, endomysium, sarcolemma) -passive force w/ unstimulated muscle stretch

In addition to SEC, what other 2 components contribute to the mechanical model?

2

In off-season football, a plyo program may be performed __ times a week

2, 5

In order to have longer effects of stretching, one must stretch __ times per week, for __ weeks

A 147

In order to help prevent injuries in female athletes it is important to stress which of the following? a) Optimize dietary intake. b) Decrease body fat. c) Provide a longer off-season to increase recovery. d) Increase resistance of exercises often.

Preseason Mesocycle

In this mesocycle plyometrics and anaerobic training is a high priority

100 to 120 contacts per session

Intermediate volume for plyo

Minimal Essential strain

Is the threshold stimulus that initiates new bone formation

Age-predicted max heart rate 220 - age* *must be given

Karvonen Method: APMHR, how to calculate

Heart rate reserve APMHR - RHR* *must be given

Karvonen Method: HRR, how to calculate

Target heart rate (HRR x intensity*) + RHR* *must be given

Karvonen Method: THR, how to calc

Target heart rate range: 1. Lowest number of THRR = Take lower exercise intensity (%) and multiply by HRR then add RHR back in 2. Highest number of THRR = Take higher exercise intensity (%) and multiply by HRR then add RHR back in This is your range (THRR).

Karvonen Method: THRR, how to calc

70-80

Lactate threshold begins at what percentage of maximal oxygen uptake in trained individuals

foot (one/both), distance

Lower body plyometric volume is normally given as a # of ___ contacts per workout, or as a ___.

pre-existing ortho conditions, joint degredation

Masters - contradictions for plyo?

intensity, production, clearance

Maximal lactate steady state is the exercise ___ at which max lactate ___ is equal to max lactate ___.

intermediate, moderate

Maximal power is produced at __ velocities w/ lifting of __ , not maximal loads

1 RM is an example of....

Maximum muscular strength (low-speed)

50, 3-5, 1-5 min *About 2-4 sec to complete rep

Maximum muscular strength usually involves low-speed strength. When testing for 1RM, first set should be __% of estimated 1RM. Within __ to __ attempts (post warmup), athlete should be at 1RM (w/ __ to __ min of rest between sets)

myokinase (MK), creatine phosphokinase (CPK), lactacte dehydrogenase (LDH)

Maximum running velocity is directly related to muscle ___ and ___, and inversely related to total ___.

low, moderate, intensity

Most plyo programs should be of __ to __ volumes and increase from low to high ___ over time

shorter, frequent

Motor skill learning generally improves w/ ___ , more ___ practice sessions

Erector Spinae

Muscles Involved with Spinal Extensors

Pre-operation Phase

New facility design: This phase usually requires 15% (about 4 months)

Preloading

Occurs when a load is lifted, since sufficient force must be developed to overcome the inertia of the load

Detraining

Occurs when the athlete reduces the training duration or intensity or stops training altogether due to a break in the training program, injury, or illness.

36

Olympic bars should be placed ___ inchs between ends

frontal and sagittal plane

Olympic lifts are functional closed chain exercises and stability occurs in all three planes. what are the two main movement planes for the Olympic lift techniques?

3-4

One free weight station area holds __ to __ people

criterion-referenced validity

PERCENTILE RANKS of performance variables vary greatly; which of the following types of VALIDITY would these results question?

B 57

Performance in which of the following events has been shown to be MOST enhanced by creatine supplementation? A. Marathon. B.100-m sprint. C. 5-km race. D.10-km race.

Eccentric -elastic energy is stored in SEC -muscle spindles are stimulated

Phase 1 of stretch-shortening cycle w/ physiological events

Amortization -Type Ia afferent nerves synapse w/ alpha motor neurons -Alpha motor neurons transmit signals to agonist muscle group

Phase 2 of stretch-shortening cycle w/ physiological events

Concentric -elastic energy is released from SEC -alpha motor neurons stimulate agonist muscle group

Phase 3 of stretch-shortening cycle w/ physiological events

lower Resistance w/upper Plyo & visa versa, etc.

Plyo & strength Training

Range: 16 - 42 in. Norm: 30 - 32 in. >220 lbs: Less than 18 in.

Plyo depth jump height conditions: Range? Norm (avg.)? Athletes over 220 lbs?

amount of stress placed on involved muscles, connective tissues, and joints; controlled by type of drill

Plyo intensity

C 124

Primary training adaptations of elite aerobically trained athletes include which of the following? A. increased maximal oxygen uptake. B. decreased blood lactate concentration. C. increased running economy. D. decreased capillary density.

1. Magnitude of the load (intensity) 2. Rate (speed) of loading 3. Direction of forces 4. Volume of loading (# of reps)

Principles of training to increase bone strength

1. competition 2. weaknesses 3. strengths

Priority of in-season training: 1. Otherwise known as ___ season 2. Improving ___ 3. Maintaining ___

Develop base of cardiorespiratory fitness

Priority of off-season (base) training

Mechanical Work

Product of force + displacement (distance)

reactive ability vs. reaction time

RA can be trained, RT is innate

single

RMs are based on a _______ set

Flexibility

ROM about a joint

1. Connective tissue 2. Activity level 3. Age 4. Sex

ROM of a particular joint is determined by (4)?

speed-endurance vs. speed agility training:

SET is to push back onset of fatigue, SAT is for skill attainment

the ability to maintain maximal velocity for longer than 6 seconds is referred to as which of the following types of endurance?

SPEED

______ actions fullfill all of these criteria and can be _____ response or _____ response

SSC or stretch-shortening cycle, long (larger angle), short (small angle)

Open

Seated knee extension is an example of a open or closed kinetic chain exercise?

Inflammation phase

Soft tissue injury response exercise strategy: during this phase the athlete should train using general aerobic and anaerobic training and resistance training of uninjured extremities

Repair phase

Soft tissue injury response exercise strategy: during this phase the athlete should train with exercises that improve neuromuscular control

Remodeling phase

Soft tissue injury response exercise strategy: during this phase the athlete should transition form general exercises to sport specific exercises

1. hypertrophy (especially in fast-twitch) 2. increased development of SR 3. shifts on myosin-heavy chains (MHC) w/ both types I + IIx shifting to IIa fibers. *4. enhanced muscle Na/K pump activity *5. nerve conduction velocity

Sprint training tends to modify muscle contractile characteristics via 3 mechanisms (+2 limited evidence-based*)

phosphagen, glycolytic, oxidative

Sprint-type training has greatest effects on ___ pathways, with lesser effects on ___ or ___ metabolism.

1. evaluation of the requirements and characteristics of the sport 2. assessment of the athlete

Stages of needs analysis

1. sport -movement (body) analysis -physiological analysis (strength, power, hypertrophy, muscular endurance) -injury analysis (joint/muscle, causative factors) 2. athlete -training status (injury evaluation/exercise history/experience) -physical testing & evaluation (strength, flexibility, power, speed, muscular endurance, body composition) -primary RT goal (improve strength, power, hypertrophy, muscular endurance)

Step 1 of RT Program Design Variables (2 stages) 1. Evaluation of ___ 2. Assessment of ___ (profile)

1RM test, estimate 1RM from RM, multiple RM based on # reps planned for exercise

Testing options (3)

related to athlete's sport, at athlete's skill level, based on equipment available

Tests should... (3)

Power and other core first then assistance (can pre-exhaust too), upper and lower alternated (can circuit train too), alternate push and pull, super and compound sets

The 4 methods for exercise order:

A 46

The Creatine Kinase reaction provides energy by catalyzing the synthesis of ATP from which of the following? A. Adenosine Diphosphate and Creatine Phosphate. B. Adenosine Diphosphate and Glucose. C. Creatine Phosphate and Glucose. D. Adenosine Monophosphate and Creatine Phosphate.

Flexibility

The ROM about a body joint

RFD (rate of force development), force, power

The ability to achieve high movement velocities and accelerations involves high ___ and ___ application across a range of ___ outputs and muscle actions.

Speed-endurance

The ability to maintain maximal movement velocities or repeatedly achieve maximal accelerations and velocities

Strength

The capacity to exert force at any given speed

Validity

The degree to which a test or test item measures what it is supposed to measure

Shortening, velocity

The force-velocity curve shows the greater the amount of concentric muscle force generated, the slower the muscle ___ & corresponding movement ___ (and vice versa)

Hip Flexors: Trailing leg Calf Muscles: Leading leg

The forward step lunge stresses the muscles of which leg

Maximal oxygen uptake

The greatest amount of oxygen the can be used at the cellular level for the entire body

1. 5-10 min of slow activity 2. Jogging, skipping, dribbling ball 3. Used to increase body temp, HR, BF, deep muscle temp, RR, perspiration, & viscosity of joint fluids

The guidelines/purpose for general warm-ups: 1. How long? 2. Examples? 3. Purpose?

1. 8-12 min 2. Walking knee lift -> sprint, bounding, jumping (sport specific)

The guidelines/purpose for specific warm-ups: 1. Length? 2. Examples?

80%, power

There is a 5-10% increase in power output as load decreases from 1RM -> 90% 1RM. Therefore, __% of 1RM will greatly improve max ___ production

Lactate threshold

This is often a marker for anaerobic threshold

In season (competition)

This training season program should be designed around competition, with low intensity and short duration training just before race days

>85% of 1RM, 6

To increase strength a load of >__% of 1RM must be lifted up to __ reps

85

To increase strength, must handle loads of ____% of 1RM

1. technique 2. strength 3. speed 4. balance

To reduce risk of injury and facilitate performance of plyo ex's, athletes must possess a sufficient base of? (4)

Rep-volume

Total # of reps performed in a workout session

Load-volume Example: 2 sets of 10 reps of 50 lbs (2 x 10 x 50 = 1000 lbs)

Total # of sets, but multiplied by # of reps/set, times weight lifted per rep

>12 reps 2-3 sets

Training for endurance requires a minimum of how many reps? How many sets?

6, 2-6

Training for strength requires reps of __ or less and sets of __ to __.

C 564

Using the Karvonen method, what is the target heart rate of a 65 year old male who will be working out at 50-60% of his functional capacity? He is 6 foot tall and weighs 175 lbs with a resting heart rate of 80 beats per min. a) 88-95 b) 100-110 c) 118-125 d) 148-155.

general, stretch, specific

Warm up sequence for plyo

frequency

What training factor primarily depends on the specific sport's season?

A

Which is best for work-to-rest ratio for plyo programs? A. 1:5 B. 1:4 C. 1:3 D. 1:2

A 55

Which of the following has the greatest influence on the energy system used for a given exercise? a. Intensity. b. Duration. c. Mode. d. Frequency.

1:5 to 1:10

Work-to-rest ratio for plyo

Ellipsoidal (oval-shaped condolence fits into elliptical cavity), sagittal, frontal

Wrist is a ___ joint, allowing movement in ___ & ___ planes

C 54

You are about to conduct a training session for a college 800m runner. During this session the dominant energy system used will depend primarily on which of the following? A. Session intensity and athlete's age. B. Session duration and athlete's age. C. Session intensity and session duration. D. Session intensity and athlete's training status.

C 433

You are instructing a female volleyball player on the Two Arm Kettlebell swing. At what level should she forcefully swing the kettlebell to? A. Umbilicus. B. Nipple. C. Eye. D. Full arm extension above the cranium.

C 417

You have decided to use tire flips as part of the offseason conditioning program for a college football offensive lineman. Which of the following are suggested guidelines for tire selection and exercise setup? I. The tire should not be shorter than the athlete. II. The exercise surface should be hard. III. Tires with good tread are easier to grip . IV. Narrow tires are easier to flip for tall athletes. A. I, II only. B. II, III, IV only. C. II,III only. D. I, II, III only.

A 458

You observe an athlete performing 10 repetitions of an exercise, based on the number of repetitions performed this athlete is most likely trying to increase? a) Muscle hypertrophy. b) Muscle strength. c) Muscle endurance. d) Muscle power.

C 476

You would like to increase the intensity of plyometric drills for a volleyball player, changing all of the following would result in an increase in intensity EXCEPT? a) Using a single leg. b) Adding a weight vest to the athlete. c) Decreasing jump height. d) Increasing the speed of the drill.

5 minutes

Your athletes are performing their attempts at the 1RM bench press; what is the minimum amount of time that should be given between attempts?

36

__ inches between barbells and dumbbells between bar ends and spotter areas

Local muscular endurance Example: Max # of chin-ups, parallel bar dip, push-ups, exercise using a fixed load (% of 1RM/BW)

___ is the ability of certain muscles/muscle groups to perform repeated contractions against a sub-maximal resistance (4 examples)

Anaerobic capacity, phosphagen, 30-90 sec (upper/lower body testing)

___ is the maximal rate of energy production by combined ___ & lactic acid energy systems for moderate-duration activities (__ to __ sec)

2.5, 10

____% to ____% increase in load is advised

assistance, single-joint

_____ exercises involve 1 primary joint, also known as ______ exercise

core, multi-joint

_____ exercises involve 2 or more primary joints, also known as ______ exercise

heavy, moderate, light

_____ loads for strength or power, ______ for hypertrophy and _____ loads for muscular endurance

archimedes principle

a client is using under water technique to assess overall % body fat. this technique is based on which of the following methods?

Test

a procedure for assessing ability in a particular endeavor

three (1:15 ratio of coaches:athletes for High School)

a strength training session for 45 high school aged athletes should contain how many strength and condition professionals at a minimum?

complex training

a superset that involves a back squat immediately followed by cycling split squats is an example of what type of training?

Agility

ability to start, stop and change direction rapidly and under control

middle

after completion of the catch of the power snatch where should the weight be on the feet?

what is contrast training?

after loading the athlete, you remove the training aid and repeat the drill. The muscle will fire explosively like it still has the resistance

8 to 12

air exchanges per hour optimal 12 to 15

back squat at 90% 1RM

an athlete performing which of the following workouts has the greatest need for a weight belt

Thigh: taken between hip and knee on_____ aspect

anterior

On the standing long jump, tape/mark is placed ______

back of the athlete's rear-most heal

wood

best flooring material for olympic lifts

movement analysis

body and limb movement patterns and muscular involvement

Refer to population-specific calculation table (12.19 p. 288) for equation on ______ ___________

body density

cscs director

both practitioner and administrator, responsible for the overall strength and conditioning program, facility, equipment, staff, and administrative tasks, paid salary by institution, responsible for developing presenting and enforcing written policies and procedures of the staff

test scores

can be used in goal setting

Category of budget that covers new construction or purchases

capital outlay

Girth measurement sites (7)

chest, right upper arm, right forearm, waist, hips, right thigh, right calf

continuous vs. discrete vs. serial skills:

continuous have no defined start or end discrete skills have a defined start and end serial are discrete tasks in a sequence

structural

core exercise that emphasizes loading the spine directly (back squat) or indirectly (power clean) are referred to as a ___ exercise?

isometric or low velocity strength is a function of _______________

cross sectional area

the ______ test is used for measuring local muscular endurance of the abdominals

curl-up

variability

degree of dispersion of scores in a group

Chest (men): _____ fold half distance between nipple and anterior axillary line

diagonal

farther from the center of gravity

during the first five yards of the forty yard dash where must the base of support be in relation to the center of gravity

competition period

during what period of time is the goal to attain peak strength and power via additional INCREASE in training INTENSITY with further DECREASING training VOLUME?

preparatory period

during which period is the highest volume of resistance training possible?

the more explosively athletes change velocities, the greater the need for __________ and _____________

eccentric strength; reactive ability

For a test to be valid, it must emulate the ___ and ___ of the sport for it which ability is being tested

energy requirements, important movements

measurement

event of collecting data

Convergent Validity

evidenced by high positive correlation between results of the test being assessed and those of the recognized measure of the construct (GOLD STANDARD)

primary method:

execution of sound movement technique in a specific task

refers to the sequence of resistance exercises performed during one training session

exercise order

circuit training

exercises performed with minimal rest periods (20 to 30 seconds) training exercise then going right to the next exercise typically switching from upper body to lower body, improves cardiorespiratory endurance

Speed is the result of applying ___________________ to a ______________________________.

explosive force; specific movement or technique

double door

facility must have this with a removable middle post to move large equipment

negligence

failure to act as a reasonable and prudent person would act

overspeed training requires the ____________________ to fire harder and ____________________

fast twitch fibers you have; new fibers to be activated

short-term planning considerations: (2)

fatigue management: can interfere w/skill acquisition and performance task specificity:

Examples of introductions of error:

fatigue, deficient coordination or physical abilities, improper coaching, misunderstanding Be aware and don't repeat

determine the unique characteristics of the sport

first step in needs analysis

8

for testing on goal reps, should not seek more than ____ reps for assistive exercises

3

for untrained athletes, can use a ___RM max

athletic movements involve ____ ____ and _____ through the kinetic chain rather than isolated muscle groups

force transmission, summation

impulse =

force x time

power =

force x velocity

tests and measurements

form the objective core of the evaluation process

mobility is _____ ______ and need to look at optimal _______ needed to perform specific tasks

functional flexibility, ROMs

during the ground support phase of linear sprinting, which muscles are responsible for storing and recovering elastic energy?

gastrocnemius; quads

general vs. special skills:

general develops one or more basic abilities special unifies them into a skill-specific manner (utilizing practice specificity principle)

interval methods tend to increase ______ as well as ______enzyme activiteis, acid-base buffering capability, and various indices of lactic power capacity

glycolytic, oxidative

_____ measures the joint angle

goniometer

leg action:

greater decceleration on a turn, greater need for subsequent high stride rate and length to reaccelerate

an athlete must be more explosive in order to execute a technique if: (3)

greater mass to accelerate, briefer time of execution, or higher velocity of movement

how should the body position be in the first 8 yards (start and initial acceleration) of sprints?

head forward, hips low to the ground, straight line. head is in relaxed, neutral position, eyes ahead.

Maximum Muscle Power

high-speed strength - 1RM Olympic movement, vertical jump, Wingate cycling test

__________________ is a key aspect of improving stride length and the ability to move laterally. This is best achieved through activities like ________________

hip mobility; hurdle walks

5 to 10 lbs (5-10%)

how much should an athlete (completing their 3rd week of training and no previous training experience) increase their back squat above a previous training load of 100lbs?

once the upper limit for specific uscle tension has been developed, ___________ is required in order to increase force and speed production

hypertrophy

Test Selection is based on which 5 factors?

in no particular order: Sex, Energy System, Biomechanics, Environment, training status (experience)

to ACT not only in the EVENT of a inury but also to PREVENT injury

in terms of liability, what is the legal responsibility of cscs to the athletes they serve?

49 square feet (4.6 square meters)

in terms of stretching and stationary warm up drills, what size area should be allotted per athlete?

contact the athletic medicine department; if there is no answer, campus security. Follow all given instructions and provide all requested information

in the case of a non-life-threatening situation what procedures should be implemented?

off-season

in which season is the priority LOW for sports practice and HIGH for resistance training?

increase in stride length

increasing speed over the first ten meters of a short distance race is primarily due to what factor?

quality of work, rep-volume

intensity

exercise selection

involves choosing exercises for a resistance training program

compound set

involves sequentially performing two different exercises for the same muscle group recruitment of same muscle fibers of cross-sectional area

intrarater variability

is the lack of consistent scores by a given tester

assumption of risk

knowing that an inherent risk exists with participation in an activity and voluntarily deciding to participate anyways

Intrasubject Variability

lack of consistent performance by person tested, resulting in different test outcomes-questions reliabilty

Intrarater Variability

lack of consistent scores by a given tester-caused by bias, inadequate training, etc.

Maximum Muscular Strength

low-speed strength-1RM bench or squat

Anaerobic Capacity

maximal rate of energy production by the combined phosphagen and lactic acid energy systems 30-90 second tests

Standard deviation is a measure of a group of scores about the ______

mean

Reliability

measures the degree of consistency of a test

force x distance (displacement)

mechanical work

calf: along the ____ side of the calf at the level of _______ calf circumfrance

medial, maximal

the YMCA uses a ______ to demand ____ reps per minute

metronome, 30

midaxilla: ______ line at the level of the xiphoid process of the _____

midaxillary, sternum

load

most critical aspect of weight training:

poured rubber

most expensive floor choice plyometric drills

improve athletic performance

most foundational goal of cscs programs, basic program goal

30 seconds or less

muscular endurance rest sessions length

There is no greater priority when designing a facility than completing a ___.

needs analysis (assessment)

describe the 10% rule.

never add more than 10% of bodyweight to a sled. Never slow the movement down for a particular distance more than 10% slower than the athlete's best time

second in training session

non-power core exercises performed when?

knee flexors

over striding due to poor running style and technique can cause injures in which major muscle group?

feasibility study

part of predesign phase and is conducted to determine costs facility location programs of interest to each athletic group and projected use, an analysis of strength weaknesses opportunity and threats

use that to calculate the _____ ___ _______ from table 12.20 p. 289

percentage of body fat

high power output capabilities are largely determined by ______________________________________________________

percentage of fast twitch motor units and the ability to optimally activate and coordinate them

technique training focuses on: (2)

perfecting form, correcting faults

slower movement velocities

performing high load muscular strength training is typically involves what type of movement velocity?

sequenced training

performing one or two sets of hypertrophy variables for EACH muscle group during a MAX STRENGTH phase is an example of which of the following?

reliability

performing warm up sets prior to performing a 1 rm bench test will increase which of the following characteristics

1. strength 2. flexibility 3. power 4. speed 5. muscular endurance 6. body composition 7. cardiovascular endurance

physical evaluation involves conducting assessments of? (7 factors)

what are the proper braking mechanics, regarding the foot?

position the ankle such taht contact occurs on a full foot, thereby maximzing the interface with the ground and engaging the entire lower extremity in eccentric force reduction

in a strength development program designed to improve speed, address _________________ needs first and foremost

postural

evaluation

process of analyzing measurements produce by tests for the purpose of decision making. AKA is the training helping the athlete improve?

Evaluation

process of analyzing test results for the purpose of making decisions

mission statement

provides focus, direction and a sense of purpose

load volume volume load

quantity is highly related to mechanical work and is associated metabolic energy demands and physiological stress and also is distinguished from repetition volume does not include distance value

______ is the interval from lowest to highest

range

Flexibility

range of motion about a body joint

60%

relative humidity

total # of reps

rep-volume

local muscular endurance

repeated muscle actions (several seconds to minutes w/no rest) w/submaximal resistance

muscular endurance

reps greater than 12 (2-3 sets)

___________ methods are appropriate for speed and agility training. ________________ and ____________are appropriate for speed-endurance training

reptition; competitive trial and interval

what is the method for training to increase the athlete's speed via increasing the stride length?

resistance (position specific work)

can quantify volume-load in terms of ____ _____ and _____

running speeds, distances

2 factors that are top priority when decisions are made regarding equipment placement

safety & function

inferential statistics assumes....

sample is representative of the population

1. non-fatiguing tests 2. agility tests 3. maximum power and strength tests 4. sprint tests 5. local muscular endurance tests 6. fatiguing anaerobic capacity tests 7. aerobic capacity tests

sequence of testing from 1st to last (7)

group of reps sequentially performed before the athlete stops to rest

set

movement techniques involve:

skillful application of these forces to specific motor tasks

what is velocity specificity?

the final movement velocity targeted when a mass is being accelerated

exercise technique experience

the knowledge and skill to perform resistance training exercises properly

training intensity

the load of an exercise in comparison to one maximum ability is a measure of which training variable

cross-training

the loss of physiological adaptations upon the cessation of training is an example of

1. first pull 2. transition 3. second pull 4. catch 5. downward movement

the phases of a power clean occur in what order? (5)

measurement

the process of collecting data

Measurement

the process of collecting test data

define speed

the skills and abilities needed to ahieve high movement velocities

define agility

the skills and abilities needed to explosively change movement velocities or modes

exercises selected

these for the specific demands of the sport should maintain a balance of muscular strength across joints and between oppossing muscle groups

tallest machines

these machines should be arranged along the walls of the weight room

needs analysis

two stage process that includes an evaluation of the requirements and charateristis of the sport and an assessment of the athlete

first steps in risk management

understand integral key terms and identify the areas of potential libility exposure that could cause injuries and lead to litigation

single

untrained individuals can use _____ set programs

aster

upper body muscles faster or slower?

2.5 to 5

upper body progression (less-trained athletes)

5 to 10 plus

upper body progression (trained athletes)

how should the body position be for sprinting at max velocity?

upright

inferential statistics

used to gather information about a specific subset of a population

assistance exercises

usually recruit smaller muscle areas involve only one primary joint and considered less important in exercises selection

intensity

value for resistance exercise and indicate the quality of work performed

velocity is a ________________ quantity characterized by _____________ and ____________

vector; speed; direction

maximal lactate steady state

which exercise INTENSITY is the MAXIMUM possible for a duration of longer than 30 sec?

snatch

which exercise involves a quick and forcefull pull of the bar from the floor to over the head in one movement?

students in a PE class or athletes

which groups or individuals are typically allowed the use of a strength and conditioning facility at an institution? (2)

standard deviation

which is defined as a measure of the variability of a group of scores that are distributed around an average score?

deadlift

which is most appropriate to be utilized as a core exercise for an off-season** volleyball player?

lower body muscles

which muscle group typically requries the most recovery time

in trained athletes who are rehabilitating from an injury

with regard to core training, when is instability exercise best applied?

3

workouts per week recommended

emergency care plan

written document that details the proper procedure for caring for injuries

Catch

(Snatch) Bar moves to an overhead position, arms and body are fully extended

C

-1 Even though only one athlete at a time performs an exercise in the Olympic lifting area, the space should accommodate at least? a) 1-2 people. b) 2-3 people. c) 3-4 people. d) 4-5 people.

C 318

-1 Which of the following is a nontemperature-related effect of a warm-up? a. enhanced neural function. b. disruption of transient connective tissue bonds. c. elevation of baseline oxygen consumption. d. increase in muscle temperature.

A 413

-1 Which of the following is a rationale for using variable-resistance training methods? a. to accommodate the changing mechanical advantage associated with constant-loaded exercises. b. to minimize force application throughout the full range of motion. c. to increase the time spent decelerating during a lifting motion. d. to keep the applied resistance constant during changes in joint angle.

C 60 5 - 10 s = 1:12 to 1:20 15 - 30 s = 1:3 to 1:5 1-3 min = 1:3 to 1:4 > 3 min = 1:1 to 1:3

-1 Which of the following is an approximate rest interval for a sprinter performing 200m sprint intervals in 25 seconds? A. 50 seconds. B. 1 minute 40 seconds. C. 2 minutes 5 seconds. D. 6 minutes 15 seconds.

A 568

-1 Which of the following types of training is conducted at an intensity equal to the lactate threshold? a. pace/tempo. b. interval. c. high-intensity interval training (HIIT). d. Fartlek.

A

-1 You will be administering the 300 yard shuttle to the women's soccer team and need to setup the testing area by placing cones for the athletes to run between. How far should these cones be spaced apart? A. 25 yards. B. 50 yards. C. 75 yards. D. 100 yards.

C 652

-1. All of the following would be responsibilities of the Facility Supervisor EXCEPT a) Assist in testing of athletes. b) Enforce facility policies and rules. c) Develop the annual budget. d) Maintain and clean the facility.

Ex. of important muscle groups:

1. recovery leg forward: eccentric knee flexor 2. ground support: high moment at ankle joint, plantarflexors

C

48. What is the TOP priority when determining placement of equipment in the strength and conditioning facility? I. Safety. II. Appearance. III. Cost. IV Function. A. I, II, III only. B. II, IV only. C. I, IV only. D. I, III only.

B

56. When looking at the results from the baseball team's 1 RM back squat testing, the strength and conditioning coach notices that 3 results are significantly lower than the rest, while the remaining scores are fairly similar. Which of the following measures of central tendency is most appropriate for these results? A. Mean. B. Median. C. Mode. D. Standard Deviation.

A 24 year old professional male tennis player was administered a battery of tests and had the following results. 1RM Bench Press:220 lbs. 1RM Squat: 265 lbs. T-Test: 9.2 seconds. 1.5 Mile Run: 15.53. Sit and Reach: 20.5 inches. His strength and conditioning program should focus on improving which of the following? A. Aerobic Endurance. B. Flexibility. C. Agility. D. Muscular Strength.

A 305

2x/week

At least how many times per week should one train to increase VO₂ Max?

Which of the following tests would be the best to measure a basketball player's ability to start, stop, and change direction of her body rapidly? a) 40 yard sprint. b) T-test. c) 1 RM power clean. d) Sit and Reach.

B 261

80 to 100 contacts per session

Beginner volume for plyo

20

Bottom of windows need to be __ inches above the floor

10. Which of the following relies predominantly on the phosphagen energy system? A. 200-m swim B. 3K race C. 5RM push press

C 54/89

1:3-1:4

Fast Glycolysis and Oxidative Work to rest period ratios

In season mesocycle

In this mesocycle the majority of the athlete's time is spent on skill and strategy development

Postseason mesocycle (active rest period)

In this mesocycle there are no formal or structured workouts & activities are at a low intensity and volume

1. Age-predicted max heart rate = 220 - age* 2. Heart rate reserve = APMHR - RHR* 3. Target heart rate = (HRR x intensity*) + RHR* 4. Target heart rate range (lowest and highest range) = (HRR x lower intensity) + RHR and = (HRR x higher intensity) + RHR 5. To calc THRR per 10 sec interval = THRR / 6 *must be given

Karvonen Method: How to calculate THR & THRR

equal or greater than 12, 2-3

Muscular endurance: _____r & _______s

structural

Power is a ___ exercise that is performed very quickly or explosively

creatine phosphate (CP)

Several seconds of intense activity can virtually deplete ___, this being highly correlated muscle fatigue.

80%-90% of 1RM for 1 or 2 reps

Single-effort power event training (shot-put) should use:

Power, 30

Single-joint exercises: Peak ___ is reached w/ lifting of very light loads ( ___% of 1RM)

5-10

Stretching should be done __ to __ min following activity

B 404

The primary movement during the second pull phase of the power clean exercise is. a. hip flexion. b. hip extension. c. knee flexion. d. dorsiflexion.

type of training, length in recent/regular programs, level of intensity, exercise technique experience

Training background elements (4)

6-12 reps 3-6 sets 3 min rest between sets

Training for hypertrophy requires a rep range of? How many sets? How much rest between sets?

day, week

Training frequency is number of sessions per ___ or ___.

eval by sports med on any current or past injuries that might be a factor, training background, exercise history

Training status elements (3)

C 252

When measuring maximal strength of a soccer player, which of the following could potentially adversely affect the test-retest reliability of the results? I. using multiple testers. II. retesting at a different time of day. III. an athlete's inexperience with the tested exercise. IV. using an established testing protocol. a. I and III only. b. II and IV only. c. I, II, and III only. d. II, III, and IV only.

Stretched muscle by its own contraction

When stimulated during PNF stretching, GTOs allow relaxation of?

The ________ anaerobic test involves a cycle ergometer

Wingate

B 561

You instruct a cross country runner to perform 4 training sessions per week; this represented what aerobic endurance training variable? a) Mode. b) Frequency. c) Duration . d) Intensity.

Agility

ability to stop, start, and change direction of the body rapidly and in control

30 seconds to 1.5 minutes

hypertrophy rest sessions length

100

if not on ground floor, how much weight per squared foot

5 to 10

lower body progression (less-trained athletes)

10 to 15 plus

lower body trained progression (trained athletes)

formative evaluation

periodic reevaluation based on midtests administered during the training: -usually at regular intervals, enables monitoring of the athlete's progress and adjustment of the training program for the athlete's individual needs. -allows for evaluation of different training methods and collection of normative data -regular modification of the training program based on this keeps the training program fresh and interesting and helps avoid physical and mental staleness

Formative Evaluation

periodic reevaluation based on midtests administered-enables monitoring of progress and adjustment of program

measurement

process of collecting data from test

construct validity

refers to overall validity, or the extent to which the test actually measures what it was designed to measure

validity

refers to the degree to which test or test item measures what it's supposed to measure and is the most important characteristic of testing

key to speed & agility methods is:

skillful combination rather than exclusivity

90

sound levels should not exceed this many decibels

program goals

the desired end products of a cscs program

dynamic stretches

when desigining a warm up which type of stretches should be performed last

Step-up

which of the following exercises requires a spotter?

1:1-1:3

Oxidative Work to rest period ratios

1. Calculate APMHR (Age Predicted Max Heart Rate) = Age - 220 2. Calculate THR (Target Heart Range) = APMHR x intensity 3. Can calculate THRR (if needed) by taking lowest/highest intensity % and multiplying that by APMHR 4. Divide THRR by 6 to get 10 sec interval HR

Percentage of Maximal Heart Rate Method - Calculate

Macrocycle

Periodization cycle: This cycle usually last and entire year but may also be a period of many months up to four years

Microcycles

Periodization cycle: This cycle usually last one week or for up to four weeks

Mesocycles

Periodization cycle: This cycle usually last several weeks to several months

First transition period

Periodization periods: between the preparatory and competitive periods to denote the break between high volume training and high intensity training

Preparatory period

Periodization periods: the initial period is usually the longest and occurs during the time of the year what there are no competitions

Second transition period (active rest)

Periodization periods: this period consist of recreational activity that may not involve resistance training

1:12-1:20

Phosphagen Work to rest period ratios

depth jumps, high-intensity

Plyometric ___ and ___ lower body plyometrics are contraindicated for prepubescent adolescents

Intensity (as intensity increases, volume should decrease)

Plyometric ___ refers to amount of stress placed on involved muscle, connective tissue, joints, and is controlled primarily by the type of drill performed

33 (30 m) - 109 (100 m)

Plyometric bounding/running drills require anywhere from __ to __ yards

reps, sets

Plyometric volume is typically expressed as # of ___ and ___ performed during a given training session

change in the force-velocity characteristics of the muscle's contractile components caused by stretch of the concentric muscle action by use of the stretch reflex

Potentiation

work, force, velocity

Power is the rate of doing ___, measured as the product of ___ and ___.

Force, velocity

Power output reflects both __ & __.

Force-speed Series-elastic component (SEC)

Power refers to what type of relationship of the mechanical model's many elements related to plyometrics? Which is the "work horse?"

similar to strength but for MAX power production should use 80% of 1RM & no more than 5 reps.

Power training %'s?

1-2 & 3-5, 3-5 & 3-5

Power: single-effort: ____reps & _____sets, multi-effort: ____reps & _____sets

periods of tests: PreTest MidTest PostTest

Pre:before (baseline) Mid:during (used to determine if progress is being made (often adjustments are made afterward)) Post:after (how much have they improved compared to baseline) Test: a procedure for assess a particular ability etc.

3-4

Preoperation phase lasts roughly how many months?

1. recovery 2. CV 3. Lean

Priority of postseason training: 1. Focus on ___ 2. Maintain ___ fitness and ___ 3. ___ body mass

1. intensity 2. duration 3. strengths, weaknesses

Priority of preseason training: 1. Increasing ___ 2. Maintaining or reducing ___ 3. Incorporating all types of training into program, based on ___ & ___

no more than 5 low to moderate intensity excercises, lower volume, 3-4 day recovery time

Program changes for plyo

D 648

Proper documentation is essential to the strength and conditioning facility. Which of the following is NOT part of the records that should be kept on file in the strength and conditioning facility? a. manufacturer's user's manual. b. participant training logs. c. written emergency plan. d. medical health history.

Muscles spindles (intrafusal muscle fibers)

Proprioceptive organs that are sensitive to rate & magnitude of stretch; when a quick stretch is detected, muscular activity reflexively increases

Pre-exhaustion Example: leg curl -> back squat (pre-exhausting hamstring)

Purposely fatiguing large a muscle group as a result of performing a single-joint exercise prior to a multi-joint exercise involving the same muscle

Reciprocal inhibition

Relaxation that occurs in the opposing muscle experiencing the increased tension

Autogenic inhibition

Relaxation that occurs in the same muscle that is experiencing the increased tension

5, 60, 5

Required speed for lower body plyometrics: Perform __ reps of squats w/ __% of BW in __ seconds or less

5, 60, 5

Required speed for upper body plyometrics: Perform __ reps of bench press w/ __% of BW in __ seconds or less

1.5

Required strength for lower body plyometrics: 1RM squat should be __ x BW

1.0, 1.5 Perform 5 clap-pushups in a row

Required strength for upper body plyometrics: 1RM bench press should be __ x BW for larger athletes (>220 lbs) and __ x BW for smaller athletes (<220 lbs). What is an alternative to this?

30 - 90 sec

Rest period length for hypertrophy

30 sec or less

Rest period length for muscular endurance

2-5 min

Rest period length for strength & power

30 s - 1.5m

Rest periods for Hypertrophy

2-5 m

Rest periods for Power (single & multiple effort)

2-5m

Rest periods for Strength

less than or equal to 30s

Rest periods for muscular endurance

C 527

Running speed is the interaction between? a) Acceleration and stride length. b) Acceleration and velocity. c) Stride length and stride frequency. d) Velocity and stride length.

maximal, maximal, competition, relief

Special endurance is the ability to repeatedly perform ___ or near-___ efforts in ___-specific exercise: ___ patterns (commonly called work:rest ratios)

2-3

Speed and agility training sessions require __ to __ min. rest periods

lactate threshold

Speed of movement or % of VO₂ max @ which a specific blood lactate concentration is observed or point at which blood lactate begins to increase above resting levels.

coordinative, acceleration, max-velocity, multidirectional

Speed, Agility, and Speed-Endurance Development - Agility: An expression of an athlete's c___ abilities, which is the basis of a___, m___, and m___ skills.

1. Closed a. Programmed, predictable b. action, motor patterns, consistent performances c. agility drills and T-test 2. Open a. programmed, unpredictable b. respond, adapt c. team practice

Speed, Agility, and Speed-Endurance Development - Closed vs. Open Skills: 1. Closed: a. ___ assignment and ___ or stable environments. b. Athlete determines variables of ___, with objective being optimization of ___ and achieving ___. c. 2 examples 2. Open: a. Non-___ assignments and ___ or unstable environments. b. Objective is to rapidly ___ and ___ to unforeseen stimuli and situations. c. Example

1. Continuous: a. start, finish b. low-moderate 2. Discrete: a. start, finish b. non-cyclical, faster 3. Serial: a. discrete, sequence, subtask b. 100 m sprint (while brief, contains serial subtasks) ***most athletic skills belong to this category***

Speed, Agility, and Speed-Endurance Development - Continuous vs. Discrete vs. Serial Skills: 1. Continuous: a. No identifiable ___ or ___. b. Performed at ___ speeds due to ongoing/cyclical nature. 2. Discrete: a. Definite ___ and ___. b. Brief ___ nature allows for ___ execution of skills. 3. Serial: a. Composed of ___ skills performed in ___; with successful execution of each ___ determining overall outcome. b. Example

1. basic coordinative 2. skill, sensorimotor, processing, contextual, acquisition, retention, transfer

Speed, Agility, and Speed-Endurance Development - General vs. Special Movement Skills: 1. General: Development of one or more ___ abilities. 2. Special: Unifies abilities in a ___-specific manner (practice specificity with regards to s___, p___, and c___ effects on a___, r___, and t___.

untrainable, time, explosive

Speed, Agility, and Speed-Endurance Development - Reaction Time: Relatively ___ characteristic of reaction that correlates poorly with movement action ___ or performance in many ___ events (ie. baseball hitting and goal saving)

explosive strength, SSC (stretch-shortening cycle), reactive-explosive

Speed, Agility, and Speed-Endurance Development - Reactive Ability: A characteristic of ___ exhibited in ___ actions that can be improved through ___ training.

1. eccentric strength, eccentric 2. reactive strength, concentric

Speed, Agility, and Speed-Endurance Development: In addition to improving concentric power production capacity, 2 other training objectives include: 1. Develop ___ needed to tolerate extreme force and power absorption during ___ (braking) actions. 2. Develop ___ needed to rapidly recoil into ___ (propulsive) actions.

Example: Running. One method of locomotion, different modes of movement (fwd, backward, diagonal, lateral, or any combo of these)

Speed, Agility, and Speed-Endurance Development: What is "locomotion mode" of agility and tasks related to this?

speed, agility, 6

Speed-endurance training supports running ___ and ___ over extended periods of time ( __ seconds or more)

off-season (4-6), preseason (3-4), in-season (1-3), postseason (active rest) (0-3)

Sport seasons (4)

Exercise Selection: 1. Exercise type (core & assistance exercises/structural & power exercises) 2. Movement analysis of sport (sport specific exercises/muscle balance) 3. Exercise technique experience 4. Availability of RT equipment 5. Availability of training time per session

Step 2 of RT Program Design Variables

Training frequency 1. Training status (level of preparedness) 2. Sport season 3. Training load & exercise type (maximal & sub-maximal loads & recovery) 4. Other concurrent training or activity

Step 3 of RT Program Design Variables (and factors)

Exercise Order 1. Power (snatch, hang clean, power clean, push-jerk) 2. Other core (squat, deadlift) 3. Assistance (curls or single-joint) Others include: 1. Upper/lower body (alternated)(circuit) 2. Push/pull (alternated) 3. Superset/compound set

Step 4 of RT Program Design Variable (and factors)

Circuit (cardiovascular fitness increases, but not as much as conventional aerobic training)

Step 5 of RT Program Design Variables (and factors)

Volume 1. Multiple vs single sets 2. Training status 3. Primary RT goal -strength & power -hypertrophy -muscular endurance

Step 7 of RT Program Design Variables (and factors)

contraction of the stretched muscle

Stimulation of muscle spindles induces a

ROM, stretch-shortening cycle

Strength & conditioning specialists should look at sport-specific ___ (gymnastics & ice skating) and ___ (jogging vs football RB) requirements when forming a warm-up routine

equal or less than 6, 2-6

Strength: ____reps and _____sets

stride frequency appears to be easier to train than stride length, T/F?

T

What are the trends for both college men and women T-Test, Vertical test, and 40-yard dash?

T-Test: X < 10 sec Vertical test: X >21 in 40-yard dash: X < or = to 5.35 sec

T

The athlete should focus on only 1 strength & conditioning goal at a time/per season, T/F?

A 444

The barbell biceps curl would be classified as what type of exercise? a) Assistance exercise. b) Core exercise. c) Sport Specific exercise. d) Multi-joint exercise.

D 253

The bench press, vertical jump, and 10 m (11-yard) sprint are the MOST valid tests for which of the following American football positions? a. quarterback. b. defensive back. c. wide receiver. d. defensive lineman.

Defensive Lineman

The bench press, vertical jump, and 10m (11-yard) sprint are the MOST valid tests for which of the following American football positions?

intensity

The effort in which a repetition is executed

mode

The exercise ___ refers to the specific activity performed by the athlete (cycling, swimming, running. etc)

Velocity specificity

The final movement velocity targeted when a mass is being accelerated.

D 642

The main goal of a strength and conditioning program is to a) Improve strength and power. b) Improve quickness and agility. c) Improve flexibility. d) Improve athletic performance.

Preparatory period

The major emphasis of this period is establishing a base level of conditioning to increase the athlete's tolerance for more intense training

B 587

The meditum-size training cycle that lasts two to six weeks in duration is referred to as a. I. block of training. II. macrocycle. III. microcycle. IV. mesocycle. a. II and III only. b. I and IV only. c. I, II, and IV only. d. III and IV only.

A 482

The minimum landing surface dimensions for a plyometric box is a) 18 x 24 inches. b) 16 x 18 inches . c) 24 x 32 inches. d) 10 x 12 inches.

Body region (lower, upper, trunk)

The mode of plyometric training is determined by ___ performing the given exercise

A 54/57

The phosphagen energy system would primarily supply ATP for which of the following activities? a. 100-m dash. b. 400-m dash. c. 1600 meters. d. Marathon.

volume-load

The product of work volume and intensity

D

The rotator cuff muscle act as stabilizers to the shoulder joint. During the maturation-remodeling phase of rotator cuff (supraspinatus muscle ) tedinitis rehabilitation of a basketball player, what exercise repetition range is MOST appropriate for improving the muscular endurance of the rotator cuff muscles? a. 3-5. b. 5-8. c. 8-12. d. 12-20.

Speed

The skills and abilities needed to achieve high movement velocities

Agility

The skills and abilities needed to explosively change movement velocities or modes

C

The soccer team is transitioning from off-season to preseason training. How should the team's resistance training frequency be altered? a. Increase frequency to improve muscular endurance. b. Do not change frequency and add plyometrics. c. Decrease frequency to allow increased sport skill practice. d. Design a split routine with three days on and one day off.

C 646

The strength and conditioning professional's knowledge and skill development includes competencies in all of the following EXCEPT. a. exercise and sport science. b. administration and management. c. financial appraisal. d. teaching and coaching.

Tapering

The systematic reduction of training duration and intensity combined with an increased emphasis on technique work and nutritional intervention

B 418

The upward movement phase of the tire flip is initiated by which of the following motions? A. Hip extension, knee extension, triceps extension. B. Hip extension, knee extension, ankle plantarflexion. C. Hip extension, knee extension, biceps flexion. D. Hip flexion, knee extension, biceps flexion.

dumbbell racks

These are placed along the walls with tallest equipment

Feasibility Study

This is conducted to determine costs, facility location, programs of interest to each athletic group, and projected usage

Off season (base training)

This training season begins with long duration and low intensity, gradually increasing intensity and, to a lesser extent, duration

Preseason

This training season focus on increasing intensity, maintaining or reducing duration, and incorporating all types of training

Post season (active rest)

This training season focus on recovering from the competitive season while maintaining sufficient fitness

Core

This type of exercise: 1. recruits one or more large muscle areas (chest, shoulder, back, hip, thigh) or 2. involving 2 or more primary joints (multi-joint) Type of exercise receives priority when selecting due to direct application to sport

Open kinetic chain

This type of kinetic chain exercise allows for greater concentration on an isolated joint or muscle.

posttest

This type of testing is administered after the training period to determine the success of the training program in achieving the training objective

Inflammation, Repair, Remodeling

Tissue healing cycle

C 481

To assess an athlete's preparedness to participate in an advanced plyometric training program the athlete must maintain the single leg half squat for how many seconds? a) 20 seconds. b) 5 seconds. c) 30 seconds. d) 60 seconds.

D 33

To compare performance of Olympic weightlifters of different body weights, the classic formula divides the load lifted by the athlete's a. body weight. b. body weight squared. c. lean body weight. d. body weight to the two-thrids power.

Volume

Total amount of weight lifted in a training session

Linear

Traditional resistance training periodization model with gradually progressive mesocycle increases in intensity over time

certain % of 1RM is lifted for Rx reps

Training goal reached when:

1. Steady, lactacte threshold, 20-30 min 2. Intermittent, steady training, recovery, more than prescribed pace

Two types of Pace/Tempo Training (Aka "Threshold" or "Aerobic/Anaerobic" Training: 1. "Continuous training at intensity equal to ___ for durations of ___ min." 2. "Consists of shorter intervals and intensity is equal to ___, combined with ___ sessions. Avoid intensity that is ___.

smaller pieces of equipment

Type of equipment found in middle of the weight room

carpet

Type of flooring material typically under resistance training machines

complex training

Type of training involves a combination of high-intensity RT followed by plyo

Microtrauma

Types of injury: a repeated, abnormal stresses applied to a tissue by continuous training or training with too little recovery time

Macrotrauma

Types of injury: a specific, sudden episode of overload injury to a tissue, resulting in disrupted tissue integrity

10

Typically, exercise frequency, intensity, or duration should not increase more than ___% a week.

B 421

Unilateral training methods may be beneficial for which of the following individuals? I. Trained. II. Strong. III. Weak. IV. Injured. V. Untrained. A. I, II, IV only. B. III, IV, V only. C. I,II only. D. III, V only.

throws, catches

Upper body plyometric volume is normally given as a # of ___ or ___ per workout.

# or reps and sets in a training session

Volume (contacts per session)

training status, sport season, exercise loads, types, other concurrent training or activities

W/ training frequency, should consider... (5)

bilateral deficits

Walker individuals often display ________ and may benefit from the use of unilateral training methods

Higher temps facilitate oxygen release from hemoglobin & myoglobin

Warmups increase the Bohr effect. What is the Bohr effect?

single-leg and depth jump plyometrics

What 2 plyo ex's are contraindicated for masters athletes w/ a surgery hx?

1. Concentric muscle action does not happen immediately following eccentric action 2. Eccentric phase is too long 3. Eccentric phase requires too great a motion about a given joint Stored elastic energy dissipates as heat

What 3 factors cause a loss of elastic energy when performing a stretch-shortening cycle? What happens to that stored elastic energy?

1. General 2. Specific

What are 2 components of warm-ups?

1. Flight - recovery - ground preparation 2. Support - braking (eccentric) - propulsion (concentric)

What are 2 phases of max-velocity running? Subphases of each.

straddle and butterfly

What are appropriate stretches for the adductor brevis adductor longus and adductor magnus? (2)

Alarm, Resistance, Exhaustion

What are the stage of the General Adaptation Syndrome

grip width and catch position

What differentiates the clean and snatch when pulled from the floor?

Daily Adjustable Progressive Resistive Exercise

What does DAPRE stand for?

the relationship between force and time

What does the term impulse refer to?

D 524

What does the term impulse refer to? a. the relationship between power and velocity. b. the relationship between acceleration and velocity. c. the relationship between force and velocity. d. the relationship between force and time.

Planning for today and not 10 years from now

What is a common mistake made in the predesign phase

Needs analysis or Assessment

What is of the upmost priority when designing a facility within the predesign phase of planning

evaluation and treatment of injury

What is outside the scope of practice for a cscs?

ATP (stored in muscles)

What is primary metabolic energy source for maximal muscle strength and anaerobic power tests? (Low & high speed strength)

C 564

What is the age-predicted maximum heart rate of a 50 year old male who is 6 foot tall and weighs 180 lbs with a resting heart rate of 70 beats per min? a) 100. b) 110. c) 170. d) 180.

Forming a committee of professionals

What is the first step in planning and designing a new strength and conditioning facility

A 433

What is the initial motion during the backward movement phase of the two arm kettlebell swing? A. Hip Flexion. B. Knee extension. C. Shoulder Flexion. D. Ankle plantar flexion.

3 minutes

What is the minimum length of the rest period recommended between trails that are close to an athlete's maximum?

Validity

What is the most important characteristics of testing

D 624

What is the order of the four phases involved in designing a new strength and conditioning facility? a. construction, predesgin, design, preoperation. b. preoperation, design, construction, predesign. c. predesign, construction, design. d. predesign, design, construction, preoperation.

C 652

What is the recommended coach-to-participant ratio during peak weight room usage time in a collegiate setting? a. 1:10. b. 1:15. c. 1:20. d. 1:25.

C 628

What is the recommended minimum distance between the floor and the bottom of mirrors on the walls? a. 16 inches. b. 18 inches. c. 20 inches. d. 22 inches.

JR= 1:10 High= 1:15 College= 1:20

What is the staff to athlete ratio for: Junior high school, high school, and colleges?

stretch-shorten cycle

What phase of plyometrics involves using elastic energy and a reflexive action to increase force output following an eccentric action?

C 143

What should be the INITIAL focus when incorporating the clean and jerk into the conditioning program of a 12 year old boy? A. Developing Power. B. Developing Strength. C. Developing Proper Technique. D. Assessing the 1RM.

D 531

What stage of sprinting consists of eccentric hip flexion, concentric knee extension and concentric plantar flexion? a) Early flight. b) Mid flight. c) Early support. d) Late support.

A 75

What type of resistance training workout promotes the highest growth hormone increases following the exercise session? Rest. Volume. Sets. a. 30 seconds. High. 3. b. 30 seconds . Low. 1. c. 3 minutes. High. 1. d. 3 minutes. Low. 3.

Interval

What type of training is conducted at an intensity = LT?

C 57/60

What would be the primary energy system used for a male athlete running the 400m hurdles in the Olympics? A. Phosphagen. B. Phophagen and Fast Glycolysis. C. Fast Glycolysis. D. Oxidative.

D 416

When applying resistance bands to the barbell bench press, where is the highest resistance encountered? A. At the bottom of the pressing movement. B. Slightly before the mid-range of the pressing movement. C. Slightly after the mid-range of the pressing movement. D. At the top of the pressing movement.

C 145

When comparing absolute strength between men and women, which of the following statements is true? a) Muscle quality is sex specific. b) When comparing relative to muscle cross sectional area men are stronger than women. c) In terms of absolute strength women are generally weaker than men. d) Men have lower quantity of muscle.

C 563

When deciding to use heart rate as a method of prescribing exercise intensity, you must keep in mind that age contributes what percentage to the variability of heart rate? a) 25%. b) 50%. c) 75%. d) 100%.

needs analysis

When developing a resistance training program which of the following program design variables should be addressed first?

B 418

When initiating the tire flip, placing the feet too close to the tire often results in which of the following? A. An arched back. B. A rounded back. C. Knees too far from the athletes chest. D. Inability to place the chin on the tire.

D 425

When observing the ending position of a stability ball rollout, the strength and conditioning professional would need to correct which of the following? A. Knee and toes on the floor. B. Arms parallel to each other. C. Top of ball very close to the face. D. Hips sagging toward the floor.

A

When one is performing a box-to-box plyometric drop jump, in order to generate sufficient force in a limited amount of time (<200 ms), which muscle fibers are bypassed through the principle of selective recruitment? a. I. b. IIa. c. IIx. d. IIc.

B 418

When performing the tire flip, an athlete strikes the tire with his leg when the tire is halfway vertical, at this point the strength and conditioning professional would instruct the athlete to take which of the following grips on the tire? A. Supinated. B. Pronated. C. Neutral. D. Alternated.

forming a committee of professionals who represent various areas of expertise

When planning and designing a NEW CSCS facility which the FIRST step that should be completed?

Off-season

When relating the season terminology to prioritization periods which season corresponds to eh prepatory period of training?

A 653

When scheduling training sessions in the strength and conditioning facility, priority is given to which teams? a) Those that are in-season. b) Those that are in the off-season. c) Men's teams. d) Women's teams.

Tasks that are highly complex, low in organization

When should "part practice" be utilized?

Tasks that are low in complexity, high in organization

When should "whole practice" be utilized?

D 323

When stimulated during PNF stretching, Golgi tendon organs allow the relaxation of the. a. stretched muscle by contracting the reciprocal muscle. b. reciprocal muscle by contracting the stretched muscle. c. reciprocal muscle by its own contraction. d. stretched muscle by its own contraction.

Less

When the moment arm is shorter there is _____ mechanical advantage

C 610

Which does not occur during the inflammation phase of tissue healing? a) Pain. b) Swelling. c) Increased collagen synthesis. d) Increased number of inflammatory cells.

C 46

Which energy system results in the formation of the organic end product lactic acid? a. Phophagen. b. Slow glycolysis. c. Fast glycolysis. d. Oxidative.

stride frequency

Which is most influential for sprinting at max velocity?

d.

Which is most influential on sprinter's max velocity? a. reaction time b. stride length c. leg length d. stride frequency

C 126

Which of the following adaptations occur as an outcome of an aerobic endurance program? I. increased oxygen delivery to working tissues. II. higher rate of aerobic energy production. III. greater utilization of fat as a fuel source. IV. increased disturbance of the acid-base balance. a. I and III only. b. II and IV only. c. I, II, and III only. d. II, III, and IV only.

B 127

Which of the following adjustments occur during prolonged altitude exposure? a. Decreased cardiac output. b. Increased blood viscosity. c. Decreased red blood cells. d. Hypoventilation.

A 136

Which of the following ages would be used when comparing children based on sexual maturation? A. Biological Age. B. Training Age. C. Chronological Age. D. Psychological Age.

inferential statistics

Which of the following allows for someone to draw conclusions about a population form the information collected in a population sample?

C 54

Which of the following are the primary and secondary factors that MOST determine which energy system an athlete will predominantly rely on during an exercise session? A. exercise mode - available energy stores. B. exercise duration - exercise intensity. C. exercise intensity - exercise duration. D. available energy stores- exercise mode.

C 143

Which of the following can be utilized to reduce the risk of overuse injuries in youth athletes? I. Have them evaluated by a sports medicine physician prior to participating. II. Encourage them to participate in a single sport. III. Encourage them to participate in physical activity only during the sport season. IV. Monitor their nutritional status to ensure their diets are adequate. A. I, III, IV only. B. I,III only. C. I, IV only. D. I, II, IV only.

A 57

Which of the following energy sources when depleted would have the greatest impact on the performance of a male shot putter? A. ATP and Creatine Phosphate. B. Muscle Glycogen. C. Liver Glycogen. D. Fat Stores.

A 46

Which of the following energy systems produces ATP at the quickest rate? a. phosphagen. b. aerobic glycolysis. c. fat oxidation. d. fast glycolysis.

B 627 Humidity < 60%

Which of the following environmental conditions would be appropriate inside the strength and conditioning facility? I. Temperature: 74° F II. Humidity: 68% III. Air Exchange: 8-12 times per hour IV. Sound Level: 80 dB A. I and II only. B. I, III, IV only. C. I and III only. D. I, II, and IV only.

B 85

Which of the following exercise combinations will lead to the greatest increases in serum testosterone concentrations in a 16 year old male baseball player? A. Back barbell squats with 50% of 1 RM for 3 sets. B. Back barbell squats with 90% of 1 RM for 3 sets. C. Lat pulldowns with 50% of 1 RM for 3 sets. D. Lat pulldowns 90% of 1 RM for 3 sets.

D 386

Which of the following exercise requires a spotter? a. lat pulldown. b. wrist curl. c. power clean. d. step-up.

lateral raise

Which of the following exercises requires the least amount of recovery time between training sessions?

B 445

Which of the following exercises would be related to ball dribbling and passing for a female college basketball player? a) Bent-over lateral raise. b) Close-grip bench press. c) Pullover. d) Dumbbell fly.

C

Which of the following exercises would closely mimic the resistance encountered while swimming the breast stroke? A. Triceps Pushdown. B. Seated Shoulder Press. C. Lat Pulldown. D. Biceps Curl.

B 85

Which of the following exercises would promote the highest increase in serum testosterone concentrations? A. 1 set of deadlifts at 60% of one-repetition maximum. B. 3 sets of deadlifts at 90% of one-repetition maximum. C. 1 set of barbell curls at 60% of one-repetition maximum. D. 3 sets of barbell curls at 90% of one-repetition maximum.

lower potentiation

Which of the following explains why a static squat jump results in a lower jump height than a countermovement jump?

External load

Which of the following factors is held constant during a traditional resistance training exercise?

lower center of mass height

Which of the following has been shown to improve change-of-direction ability?

D 532

Which of the following has the greatest impact on a wide receiver's maximum velocity during the 40 yard dash? a) Reaction time. b) Leg length. c) Stride length. d) Stride frequency.

C

Which of the following identifies the starting position for the front plank? A. Prone, Biped. B. Supine, Biped. C. Prone, Quadruped. D. Supine, Quadruped.

C 644

Which of the following individuals is responsible for allowing an athlete to begin formal involvement in a strength and conditioning program? a. athletic director. b. athlete's parent or guardian. c. team's certified athletic trainer. d. strength and conditioning professional.

A 653

Which of the following is NOT a component of an emergency plan? a. emergency medicine. b. emergency communication. c. emergency equipment. d. emergency personnel.

D 626

Which of the following is NOT a key consideration when determining the space requirements of a college strength and conditioning facility? a. accessibility for the athletes. b. amount and type of equipment. c. number of athletes using the facility. d. number of athletic teams desiring to use the facility.

B 610

Which of the following is NOT one of the phases of healing following an injury? a. inflammatory response. b. reconditioning hypertrophy. c. maturation-remodeling. d. fibroblastic repair.

Rectus femoris

Which of the following is a major muscle involved with the leg extension exercise?

B 131

Which of the following is a marker of aerobic overtraining? I. Increased Percentage Body Fat. II. Decreased Lactate. III. Increased Total Testosterone Concentration. IV. Decreased Muscle Glycogen. A. I, II only. B. II, IV only. C. III, IV only. D. I, II, III only.

suspended floor

Which of the following is a recommended landing surface for performing plyometrics?

D 430

Which of the following is a technique error during the first pull of the log clean and press? A. Hip and Knee extension. B. Elbow extension. C. Shoulders over the log. D. Hips rise before the shoulders.

Fartlek

Which of the following is a type of aerobic endurance training that involves easy running (70%) combined with short, fast bursts of running (80-90%) for short time periods?

enhanced ability to target specific muscle groups

Which of the following is an advantage of machine-based training?

Bench press 1RM

Which of the following is an example of a low-speed muscular strength test?

hypertrophy, strength, power

Which of the following is the accepted order of training periodization blocks to develop power?

C 414

Which of the following is the aim of using chains when performing the back barbell squat? A. Reduce resistance at the bottom of the squatting motion and reduce resistance as the athlete ascends from the bottom position. B. Increase resistance at the bottom of the squatting motion and reduce resistance as the athlete ascends from the bottom position. C. Reduce resistance at the bottom of the squatting motion and increase resistance as the athlete ascends from the bottom posit. D. Increase resistance at the bottom of the squatting motion and increase resistance as the athlete ascends from the bottom position.

B 386

Which of the following is the correct foot pattern in the step-up exercise? a. step up left foot, step up right foot, step down left foot, step down right foot. b. step up right foot, step up left foot, step down left foot, step down right foot. c. step up left foot, step down left foot, step up right foot, step down right foot. d. step up right foot, step up left foot, step down right foot, step down left foot.

A 416

Which of the following is the equation for the tension generated by a resistance band? A. Stiffness (k) X Deformation (d) B. Stiffness (k) / Deformation (d) C. Deformation (d) / Stiffness (k) D. Force (N) X Time (s)

18 inches (46 cm)

Which of the following is the maximum recommended depth jump box height for an athlete who weighs over 220 pounds (100 kg)?

10%

Which of the following is the maximum recommended weekly increase in training duration for an off-season athlete?

D 51

Which of the following is the primary energy system at work when the body is at rest? a. Phosphagen. b. Slow glycolysis. c. Fast glycolysis. d. Oxidative.

C 75

Which of the following locations produce testosterone in women? A. Testes and Ovaries. B. Anterior Pituitary and Adrenal Gland. C. Ovaries and Adrenal Gland. D. Anterior Pituitary and Ovaries.

A 47

Which of the following nutrients can be metabolized without the presence of oxygen? A. Carbohydrates. B. Proteins. C. Fats. D. Lipids.

D 54/55

Which of the following pathways/systems has the highest capacity for energy production? a. Phosphagen. b. Slow glycolysis. c. Oxidation of carbohydrates. d. Oxidation of fats and proteins.

C 107

Which of the following performance or physiological characteristics is NOT usually observed in a state of nonfunctional overreaching (NFOR) within athlete populations? a. stagnation and a decrease in performance. b. hormonal disturbances. c. mood disturbances and depression. d. increased levels of fatigue.

D 447

Which of the following refers to the number of training sessions completed in a given time period? a) Training volume. b) Training load. c) Training intensity. d) Training frequency.

D 419

Which of the following relates to kettlebell training as a strength and conditioning tool? I. Kettlebell swings are superior to traditional weightlifting in terms of increasing vertical jump height. II. Kettlebell training increases muscular strength compared to no training. III. Kettlebell swings offer the same level of cardiovascular benefit as treadmill training. IV. Kettlebell goblet squats are inferior to back barbell squats in terms of developing muscular strength. A. I, II only. B. I, II, IV only. C. II, III, IV only. D. II, IV only.

balance, strength, training history

Which of the following should be assessed before beginning a lower body plyometric training program?

C 481

Which of the following should be assessed before beginning a lower body plyometric training program? I. balance. II. strength. III. training history. IV. lean body mass. a. I and III only. b. II and IV only. c. I, II, and III only. d. I, II, III, and IV.

D 151

Which of the following should be evaluated FIRST when one is designing a training program for a 68-year-old competitive female tennis player? a. cardiovascular fitness. b. lower body strength. c. balance and agility. d. medical history.

Static

Which of the following stretching techniques decreases muscle spindle stimulation?

C 323

Which of the following stretching techniques decreases muscle spindle stimulation? a. dynamic. b. ballistic. c. static. d. passive.

40-yard (37m) sprint

Which of the following tests is NOT used to measure maximum muscular power?

A

Which of the following types of activity is inappropriate during the inflammatory response phase of a medial collateral ligament sprain? a. lower extremity plyometrics. b. submaximal isometric quadriceps strengthening. c. hip joint stretching. d. upper extremity ergometry.

C 482

Which of the following types of plyometric drills is generally considered to be the MOST intense? a. jumps in place. b. bounds. c. depth jumps. d. box jumps.

Pace/tempo

Which of the following types of training is conducted at an intensity equal to the lactate threshold?

A 517

Which of the following upper body plyometric drills is generally considered the most intense? a) Power Drop. b) Depth Push-Up. c) Two Hand Side to Side Throw. d) Single Arm Throw.

D 85

Which of the following variables would promote the greatest increased serum testosterone levels? A. Small muscle exercises (bicep curls, calf raises). B. Light resistance (50-60% of 1 RM). C. One set of each exercise. D. Short rest intervals (30 sec to 1 min).

A 463

Which of the following volumes has the potential to increase muscular strength the MOST? a. 5 sets of 5 reps. b. 1 set of 5 reps. c. 5 sets of 15 reps. d. 1 set of 15 reps.

B 629

Which of the following will provide free and unobstructed access to the strength and conditioning facility? A. Hallways with a width of 50 inches. B. Doorways with a width of 36 inches. C. Maintaining a 30 inch pathway inside the facility at all times. D. Spacing resistance training machines at least 20 inches apart.

A 477 1:5 to 1:10

Which of the following work-to-rest ratios is the MOST appropriate to assign to a plyometric training work? a. 1:5. b. 1:4. c. 1:3. d. 1:2.

B 627

Which of the following would represent a recommended temperature range for the strength and conditioning facility? a) 64-68°. b) 72-78°. c) 78-82° . d) 78-84°.

Push Press

Which power exercise requires the following: The hip and knee thrust drives the bar one-half to one-third the distance overhead; press bar overhead with hips and knees extended

D

Which stretching technique does NOT decrease subsequent performance? A. Static B. PNF C. Ballistic D. Dynamic

1. lactate threshold 2. exercise economy 3. fat 4. Type I fibers

While VO₂ max is successful for aerobic endurance performance, these factors are equally important: 1. High ___ 2. Good ___ 3. High ability to use ___ as a fuel source 4. High percentage of ___

mode-specific (sport-specific) training

While cross-training can elicit adaptations to respiratory, CV, MS systems, it will not improve SINGLE-event performance to the same magnitude as ___ training only.

Anaerobic/maximal muscle power (high-speed strength)

Winglets allow testing of ___ (hint: category of exercise) for non-weight bearing athletes

1. over the head 2. back 3. shoulders 4. face

With the exception of power exercises, free weight exercises performed with the following require 1 or more spotters: 1. bar moving ___ 2. bar positioned on ___ 3. bar racked on front of ___ 4. bar/weight passing over ___

B 485

You are instructing a volleyball player on the proper execution of the jump and reach drill. During this lower body plyometric drill, arm action would be described as? a) Single. b) Double. c) Reciprocal. d) None.

C 448

You are instructing an athlete on exercise order during her training session, which of the following would represent the proper sequence of exercises? a) Squat, Power clean, Leg extension. b) Leg extension, Squat, Power Clean. c) Power clean, Squat, Leg extension. d) Squat, Leg extension, Power Clean.

C 652

You are scheduling a high school football team's use of the strength and conditioning facility, the staff to athlete ratio should be? a) 1:10. b) 1:12. c) 1:15. d) 1:20.

D 482

You are setting up a series of plyometric drills for the women's basketball team, which of the following surfaces is best suited for this type of training? a) Concrete. b) Tile. c) Astro Turf. d) Suspended Wood Floor.

A 60

You decide to use interval training to stress the phosphagen energy system, which of the following would be an appropriate work to rest period ratio? a. 1:15. b. 1:10. c. 1:5. d. 1:3.

A 624

You have been approached by administration to begin planning for a new strength and conditioning facility on the college campus and begin conducting a feasibility study, this would occur during which phase of new facility design? a) Predesign. b) Design. c) Construction. d) Preoperation.

A 417

You have decided to include tire flips as part of the offseason conditioning program for the offensive lineman on the college football team. All of the following are true with regards to tire selection and exercise setup EXCEPT? a) The tire should not be shorter than the athlete. b) The exercise surface should be hard. c) Tires with good tread are easier to grip. d) The exercise surface should allow good traction of the athlete's shoes.

D 144

Youth resistance training guidelines include all of the following EXCEPT? a) Stretching exercises should be performed before resistance training. b) Children should be encouraged to drink plenty of water. c) Increase resistance 5-10% as strength improves. d) 3 consecutive training sessions per week are recommended.

36

__ inches between olympic barbell ends

36

__ inches between weight trees and weight equipment

6

__ inches equipment should be from mirrors

24 or 36

__ or __ inches between resistance training machines

49

__ square foot area for each athlete during stretch up and warm up

3 to 4

__ to __ feet for perimeter walk ways around platform areas in olympic lifting areas

General, specific

___ and ____ warmups performed before testing can increase reliability

Upper, single, lower, multi

___ body muscles and/or ___-joint exercises recover faster than ___ body muscles and/or ___-joint exercises

tall

___ equipment may need to be bolted to the floor for increased stability and safety

Speed, 500

___ is movement distance per unit time & is typically quantified as time taken to cover a fixed distance. Usually not conducted over ___ meters

Frequency

___ is the # of plyometric training sessions per week & typically ranges from 1-3, depending on sport and time of year

Aerobic capacity (aerobic power), oxygen, BW (ml x kg x min)

___ is the maximum rate at which an athlete can produce energy thru oxidation of energy resources (carbs, fats, proteins) and is usually expressed as a volume of ___ consumed per kg of ___ per min

Anthropometry (height, weight, girth)

___ is the science of measurement applied to the human body. Measurements include:

Body composition

___ usually refers to the relative proportions by weight of fat & lean tissue

structural

______ exercise is a core exercise that directly or indirectly loads the spine

3

______ or more exercises per body part is optimal for muscle size gains

80

______% of all court cases dealing with athletic injuries deal with some aspect of supervision

what is an alternative method of measuring maximum power beside olympic lifts, vertical jump, or stair case is unavailable?

a cycle ergometer (Wingate test (lower body power test))

300 yard shuttle

a hockey coach suspects that the athletes lack endurance during a game, which of the following tests would provide the most insight into this suspicion?

liability

a legal responsibility duty or obligation, duty to the athletes they serve by virtue of employment not only to act when an injury occurs but to prevent injury

lumbar region of the spine

a limited range of shoulder flexion due to tightness in the lats during the snatch and jerk technique can lead to injuries. which areas of the body would specifically be affected by injuries during this scenario

high reps and a low load

a personal trainer should facilitate a proper lifting posture with a client. which of the following would be the best training strategy to activate the neuromuscular system for this techique

aerobic energy system capabilties

a previously untrained female has the following testing results: partial curl up = 15 push up = 4 sit and reach = 15 cm 1.5 mile run in 7 minutes. which of the following parameters will not** need to be addressed in her training program?

test

a procedure for assessing ability in a particular endeavor

Test

a procedure for assessing ability of a particular skill/ability/endeavor

Field Test

a simple test done outside the lab requiring minimal equipment. IE: T-Test, sit and reach, push up

pretest

a test administered before the beginning of training to determine the athlete's initial basic ability levels, allows the coach to design the training program in keeping with the athletes initial training level and the overall program objective

midtest

a test administered one or more times during the training period to assess progress and modify the program as needed to maximize benefit

field test

a test used to assess ability that is performed away from the laboratory and does not require extensive training or expensive equipment

Discriminant Validity

ability of a test to distinguish between two different constructs

Construct Validity

ability of a test to represent the underlying construct (overall validity)

Local Muscle Endurance

ability of certain muscles to perform repeated contractions against a submaximal resistance (body weight/1RM percentage) push ups, pull ups, curl ups

special endurance

ability to repeatedly perform maximal or near-maximal efforts in comp-specific exercise relief patterns or work-rest ratios

forces are expressed in terms of ____________, ______________________, or _____________________

acceleration; time or rate of application; velocity

what are the basic elements of coordinative abilities?

adaptive ability, balance, combinatory ability (coordination fo body movements into a given action), differentitation-adjustment of movemetns and mechanics; orientation; reactiveness; rhythm

test retest reliability

administering the same test twice to the same athlete to test reliability

it does not require the same amount of leg strength and is more conducive for SPEED development

advantage of power cleans (vs. clean and jerk)

usually measured in aerobic endurance activiteis such as the 1 mile run

aerobic capacity or aerobic power

alarm

after a hard training session, an athlete observes a decrease in their vertical jump which phase of the adaptive process is the athlete experiencing?

Right hand

all of the following are points of contact with the bench or the floor when an athlete is in the five-point body contact position EXCEPT

alternate upper and lower body

alternating these exercises allows more ability for recovery

alternate pushing and pulling

alternating these exercises along with upper body and lower body exercises increases recovery and recruitment between exercises

what is special endurance?

an application of seed-endurance for activities with exercise-relief patterns specific to practice or competition

increase

an athlete has increased the weight during a 3RM back squat (pre-test) after a training program. what will happen to the accuracy** of the 1RM estimation compared to the pre-test?

speed (40 yd dash)

an athlete has the following rankings in a group of tests: 50th percentile in vertical jump 58th percentile in 1rm back squat 60th percentile in pro agility 42nd percentile in 40-yard dash which attribute should be addressed first in their training program?

1. drive 2. recovery 3. support

an athlete has three distinct phases of the stride cycle when running. which of the following answers represents the three phases of the stride cycle?

100

an athlete has trained with multiple methods including plyo for the last 6 months how many foot contacts are appropriate for this athlete per session

perform A skips and B-cycle skips

an athlete is over-striding when performing a linear speed drill. what adjustments would you make to the athlete's technique?

strength

an athlete is performing the bench press 4x4 which is the following goal?

speed endurance

an athlete is unable to maintain top speed for more than a second or two, what attribute are they lacking?

compound sets

an athlete performing a set of bench presses followed immediately by a set of pushups is performing which of the following types of resistance training sets?

40 seconds

an athlete sprints up the stairs with maximum effort for six seconds how long will it take for three-quarters of the energy stores just lost to recover?

Stability

an athlete struggles to return to a "ready" stance after jumping for a ball This deficiency demonstrates a need for improve which of the following components of athletic performance?

define stretch-shortening cycle

an eccentric-concentric coupling phenomenon in which muscle-tendon complexes are rapidly and focibly lengthened, or stretch loaded, and immediately shortened in a reactive or elastic manner.

Vertical jump and power clean are examples of....

anaerobic, max muscle power or high-speed strength

_____ is the science of measurement applied to the human body

anthropometry

An example of a high velocity or maximum power test is what?

any Olympic move (snatch, Clean, Jerk), vertical jump test, sprint stair case test

Face Validity

appearance to the athlete and other observers that the test measures what it is supposed to measure

policies

are essentially a facility's rules and regulations they reflect the goals and objective of the program

Content Validity

assessment by experts that the testing covers all relevant subtopics/component abilities in appropriate proportions-testing includes all components needed in particular sport

1. type of training program, 2. length of recent regular participation in previous training program 3. level of intensity 4. degree of exercise technique experience

assessment of athletes training background should include? (4 factors)

injury prevention and rehab

assistance exercises are good for....

last in training session

assistance exercises are performed when?

what is a training method for increasing the frequency of the athlete's speed via increasing stride frequency?

assistance or Overspeed training--overspeed cord, downhill running, high speed treadmill, elastic rubber cords

training status

athletes current condition or level of preparedness to begin a new or revised program

maximal or near maximal loads

athletes who train with this or this need more recovery time

regular flexibility training generally seems to have beneficial effects on ___________and equivocal effects in terms of _________________.

athletic performance; injury prevention

load-volume/rep-volume

average weight lifted per rep per workout or true intensity

a ______ scale is the gold standard

balance

orientation meeting

beginning of school year or sport season, held for athletes and coaches before they first use the cscs facility, director provides phone numbers of facility and staff and explains the services of the staff the training schedule and program rules disciplinary actions award system and emergency procedures

architect selection

begins with the acceptance of a number of bids from professionals who are credentialed in their field and who have positioned references from previous work

what is the 60% percentile of bench, squat, clean (if all applicable) of [women in basketball]?

bench: 112 squat: 135 Clean: 112

what is the 60% percentile of bench, squat, clean (if all applicable) of [men in football]?

bench: 315 Squat:405 Clean:261

what is the 60% percentile of bench, squat, clean (if all applicable) of [women in softball]?

bench: 99 Squat:100 Clean:139

what is the 60% percentile of bench, squat, clean (if all applicable) of [women in swimming]?

bench:101 Squat: 153

what is the 60% percentile of bench, squat, clean (if all applicable) of [ men baseball]?

bench:239 Squat:293 Clean:219

stopping is ___________ knee/ankle/hip

bending

baseline measurements

can be used to establish starting points against which achievable goals can be set and testing at regular intervals help track an athletes progress in reaching those goals

ground contact time of 0.25 seconds and amount of angular displacement

categorizing plyo drills in short response and long response contact times is based on which two factors

On vertical jump test, can use _______ to mark when arm overhead (on ground) and then at top of reach (on jump)

chalk on the athlete's fingers on the dominant hand

the term agility is commonly used in two contexts: ______________________________________ and _____________________________

changing movement velocity; performing locomotion modes other than linear sprinting

closed vs. open:

closed, athlete determines response, open, environment does

_____ chain movements of the ____ body would be a good start for improving sprint performance

closed, lower

what are the classic endurance training methods?

competitive/trial methods (supramaximal, maximal, submax); distance/duration methods (continuous, variable, fartlek); interval methods (extensive/intensive training); repitition methods (intensity veryhigh, very short duration, volume small, low density

capital outlay

complete list of new equipment that will be needed

2 that stress same muscle group

compound

resistance training should involve a variety of ______________, ________________, and ____________________

concentric loads; eccentric loads; velocities

2 for 2 rule

conservative method used to increase athletes training loads, perform two or more reps over assigned repetition goal

annual plan

cscs foresees upcoming projects before it is too late to meet demands, list projects 12 months in advance, include special events and list of to does for each month, identify which staff member should handle which project, prioritize the list, discuss or cover the list with the staff, review the month when its over, update the list for next year

Validity

degree to which a test or test item measures what it is supposed to measure

procedures

describe how policies are met or carried out

____ ______ summarizes a large group of data. 3 groups:

descriptive statics, 1. central tendency 2. variability and 3. percentile rank

2 years

designing and building a new facility takes how long

master plan

details the project goals and the procedures for meeting those goals are developed and referred to by all contributing experts throughout the project, attention must be paid not only to present needs but also to future needs

the demands of athletic movements dictate two or more training objectives i addition to improving concentric power production capability:

developing the eccentric strength needed to tolerate extreme force and power absorption during eccentric (braking) actions and the reactive strength needed to rapidly recoil into concentric (propulsive) actions

Suprailium: _____ fold above the crest of the ______

diagonal, illium

subscapula: ____ fold 0.5 - 1 in from the ________ of the scapula

diagonal, inferior angle

Validity

did the test measure what it says it will measure. IE: vertical jump tests maximum jump height.

can utilize a _______ ________ to look at before and after

difference score

split routine

different muscle groups are trained on different days

assistant cscs

directly responsible for a limited number of teams not the full staff

muscle balance

does not always mean equal strength, just a proper ratio of strength, power or muscular endurance of one muscle or musle group relative to another muscle or muscle groupq

superset

doing one set then immediately with no rest completing another exercise

SA provides assistance w/ _____ _______ (3-7 degree slope) or _____-______ ______ (harness and stretch cord). Assistance should not exceed _____% of maximum velocity.

downgrade sprinting, high-speed towing, 10

Until thighs just break parallel with the ground

during a traditional barbell squat what is the recommended depth for the majority of the population?

lactate THRESHOLD

during a training run, an athlete begins to breathe more heavily and feels a burning sensation in the legs; what level of their endurance ability have they reached?

hypertrophy

during a training session, an athlete is working at an intensity of 8 to 12 reps at 70-85% of his 1RM. what specific adaptations will the athlete achieve from training at this intensity?

Improve: 1. strength 2. power 3. hypertrophy (or) 4. muscular endurance

during the preparatory period, what are the typical goals of a resistance training program? (4)

pre-operation

during which phase should staff be selected and a plan for continued professional development devised?

should use _____ ______ with the target activity as the driver for strength training tasks

dynamic correspondence

SSC or stretch-shortening cycle:

eccentric-concentric coupling where muscle/tendon complexes are rapidly and forcibly lengthened or stretch loaded and immediately shortened in a reactive or elastic manner

convergent validity

evidenced by high positive correlation between results of the test being assessed and those of the recognized measure of the construct, type of concurrent validity that field tests used by cscs should exhibit gold standard

what is the primary method for speed and agility development?

execution of sound movement technique in a specific task--learn at submax speed to establish proper mechanics

starting the run is _____________ knee/ankle/hip

extending

Criterion-Referenced Validity

extent to which test scores are associated with some other measure of the same ability

Concurrent Validity

extent to which test scores are associated with those of other accepted tests that measure the same ability

Predictive Validity

extent to which the test score corresponds with future behavior or performance

predictive validity

extent to which the test score corresponds with future behavior or performance

establish a _____ training ______ and then manipulate simple workload parameters such as ___ and _____

fixed frequency, intensity, volume

4 sub-phases of running

flight - recovery and ground preparation support - eccentric braking and concentric propulsion

running has 2 phases:

flight and single-leg support (walking, there is no flight and stance alternates between single and double support)

acceleration and maximum velocity running are both characterized by two phases:

flight, which includes recovery and ground preparation, and support, which includes eccentric braking and concentric propulsion

impulse = ______________ X __________

force; time

power = _____________X ________________

force; velocity

first step in planning and designing a new cscs facility

form a committee of professionals who represent various areas of expertise, administrator, architect, contractor, lawyer, student athlete, sport coach, instructors who will use the facility, various sport conditioning experts and other professionals

construction phase

greatest precentage of time 50% 12 months construction of building is begun and completed, master plan must be continually conslted to ensure that the project goals and objective set in the predesign phase are achieved, deadlines must be set and adhered to or a default penaty may have to be paid by the architect or contractors, the cscs professional and planning committee should be presen on the job site as often as possible during this phase to make sure the design features are being adhrered to

what are some methods of resistance speed training?

harness, parachute, sled or weighted vest

Anthropometric measurements measure what on the athlete?

height, weight, BMI, waist

testing

helps athletes and coaches assess athletic talent and identify physical abilities and areas in need of improvement

effective stride length refers to _____________

horizontal projection of the athelete's center of mass, rather than foot to foot touchdown distance

reps 6-12 sets 3-6

hypertrophy reps and sets

needs analysis

identifies the unique requirements and characteristics of the sport (step 1)

the exercise mode

if an athlete is a competitive swimmer, swimming is known as what in relation to the athlete?

mobility restrictions come from: (2)

imbalanced training, adaptive shortening

closed pronated grip

in a bent over row, the athlete should use what type of grip that is wider than shoulder width?

60

inches of hallways and circulating pasageways

what is our recipe for increasing running speed?

increase fast twitch fibers, train fast, run properly

agility tasks involving changes in velocity can be characterized by what criteria?

initial speed and direction; decrease or increase in speed (or both) and redirection of movement; final speed and direction

intrasubject variability

is a lack of consistent performance by a person tested

reliability

is a measure of the degree of consistency or repeatability of a test

load

is most simply referred to as the amount of weight assigned to an exercise set and if often characterized as the most critical aspect of a resistance training program

discriminant validity

is the ability of a test to distinguish between two different constructs and is evidenced by a low correlation between the results of the test and those of tests of a different construct

construct validity

is the ability of a test to represent the underlying construct (the theory developed to organize and explain some aspects of existing knowledge and observations)

face validity

is the appearance to the athlete and other casual observers that the test measures what it is supposed to measure, informal and non-quantitative

content validity

is the assessment by experts that the testing covers all relevant subtopics or component abilities in appropriate proportions

interrater reliability

is the degree to which different raters agree

risk management

is the employment of strategies to decrease and control the risk of injury from athletic participation and therefore the risk of liability exposure

criterion-referenced validity

is the extent to which test scores are associated with some other measure of the same ability 3 types concurrent predictive and discriminant

concurrent validity

is the extent to which test scores are associated with those of other accepted test that measure the same ability

why should distance running be eliminated from the program when training for speed?

it reduces explosiveness

when do you focus on speed development?

it should be at a time when your body is in a non-fatigued state. Plan your speed emphasis at the start of the workout, following an easy day or day of rest

single joint exercises

joint exercises that recover faster

weight x # times lifted summed over a season (does not take into account distance)

load-volume or volume-load

depending upon the nature of the sport, use ___-____, ____-_____ with discretion

low-intensity, speed-endurance

F

lower body can recovery more quickly than upper body from heavy training, T/F?

force =

mass x acceleration

anaerobic capacity

maximal rate of energy production by the combined phosphagen and lactic acid systems for moderate duration activities

___________ and acceleration are strongly related. Therefore, if you want to develop speed, spend time developing _____________ through methods like ___________

maximal strength; maximal strength, squatting

speed-endurance allows for the maintenance of _________________ over a(n)__________________________ and the abiliy to repeatedly reach ___________________________ in multiple bouts

maximal velocity; an extended period of time; maximal acceleration or speed

Aerobic Capacity

maximum rate at which an athlete can produce energy through oxidation of energy resources-distance runs

can be defined as the product of force and displacement

mechanical work

what are some fundametnal training objectives regarding performance enhancement and injury prevention in sprinting?

minimize braking forces at ground contact by maximizing the backward velocity of the leg and foot at touchdown and by planting the foot directly beneath the center of gravity; emphasize brief ground suuprt times (high level explosive strength); emphasize functional training of the hamstring group (eccentric knee flexor strength)

36 in

minimum width of doors

what are the tertiary methods of speed training?

mobility, strength and endurance training

tertiary methods include: (3) and target development of ______ skills

mobility, strength, endurance training, general

measure the relative humidity and air temperature before testing

most important when planning to administer an aerobic endurance test in the heat?

speed is a _____________ task. You can learn to run faster through ____________________ and _____________

motor; correct mechanics; situational awareness

direction in selecting tests

movement analysis provides?..

Speed

movement distance per unit of time-time taken to cover a fixed distance

SR provides resistance w/out arresting _____ _______ and is meant to improve ____ ______ and ______ ______. Resistance should not exceed _____% in movement resistance.

movement mechanics, stride length, 10

stride length refers to ___ vs. foot to foot length

movement of center of mass forward

test battery

multiple tests given in a row

75%-85% of 1RM for 3-5 reps

multiple-effort power events (volleyball blocker/jumping):

50

number of foot candles at floor level

facility supervisor

observing activities within cscs program and facility and cleaning and maintaining equipment assists the director and assistant cscs

need analysis

part of predesign phase can be based on internal demand as highlighted by future facility users or by industry driven needs

reps 3-5 sets 3-5

power multiple effort event (reps + sets)

reps 1-2 sets 3-5

power single effort event (reps + sets)

arm action:

powerful action should facilitate leg drive

________ is considered a key developmental period for coordinative abilities

preadolescence (adolescence should start focusing on specific skills and abilities)

four phases of designing a cscs facility

predesign phase, design phase, construction phase, and preoperation phase

under 10 reps and closer to the 1RM

predictive equations are more accurate....

evaluation

process of analyzing test results for the purpose of making decisions

Agility, in this case the ability to change direction and speed, requires ____________________ and ______________, as well as the ability to efficently couple ___________ and __________________ in ballistic movements

rapid force development; high power output; eccentric; concentric actions

very important criteria: (2) and secondary considerations: (3)

rate & time of peak force production, dynamics of effort amplitude and direction of movement, accentuated region of force application, regime of muscular work

RFD

rate of force development; want to move curve up and to left

product liability

refers to the legal responsibilities of those who manufacture of sell products if a person sustains injury or damage as a a result of using the product

total number of repetitions

repetition volume

preexhaustion

reverse exercise arrangement viable ordering method that purposely fatigues a large muscle group as a result of single joint exercises prior to a multijoint exercise involving the same muscle

medium-term planning: ______ training or alternating blocks of accumulation and restitution, each w/1 objective.

sequenced understand principle of dynamic correspondence, residual or delayed training responses and limit duration to about 4 weeks.

mission statement criteria

short and sharply focused, clear and easily understood, defines why we do what we do why the organization exists, does not prescribe means, sufficiently broad, provides direction for doing things right, addresses our opportunities, matches our competence, inspires our commitment, says what in the end we want to be remembered for

which describe how maximal backward sprinting is different from maximal forward sprinting

shorter stride length, greater stride frequency, longer ground support time

power exercises

should be placed away from windows mirrors exits and entrances

_______measures flexibility of low back and hips

sit and reach

25

skin calipers are used to measure the thickness of an athletes subcutaneous fat at specific anatomical sites, what is margin of error?

the ______ measures body composition

skin-fold

program objectives

specific means of attaining program goals encompass all areas of the program to ensure that the goals are attained

vary speed training methods and intensity to avoid building a ________________

speed barrier

in your session, develop ______________ before __________________ (microcycle and macrocycle)

speed; speed endurance

what are the secondary methods of speed and agility training?

sprint resistance and sprint assitance

secondary methods: (2)

sprint resistance, sprint assistance

40

square feet for rowers

6

square feet for skiing machines

45

square feet for treadmills

24

squared feet of aerobic equipment area for bikes and stair equipment

long response affect: short response affect:

start and acceleration max-velocity running

preoperation phase

start up phase. 15% of facility development process. focus on staffing considerations, a process of selecting staff that meets standard hiring guidelines is created, qualifed staff are hired, for each position the staff should have an appropriate level of education employment experience and certification, a plan for continued staff development, including CEUs in service training and advanced credentialing is developed

For the 1.5 mile run, maintain a ____pace that is________

steady, barely maintainable

functional movement speed is a manifestation of an athlete's ______

strength

reps less than 6 sets 2-6

strength (reps + sets)

as resistance increases, so does the role of _____ in determining movement velocity and acceleration

strength (velocity specificity)

2-5 minutes

strength and power rest sessions length

physiological analysis

strength power hypertrophy and muscular endurance properties

which is the most influential factor to determine a sprinter's maximum velocity?

stride frequency

running speed is the interaction of _____ ______ and ______ ________

stride frequency, stride length

speed = _______________ X ________________

stride length; stride frequency

power exercise

structural exercise performed at high-velocity sport specific training exercise selection

2 sequential exercises that stress opposing muscles

superset

effective speed-endurance work then is often ____ ______ training, or calculated rest/work

tactical metabolic

speed-endurance or, ____ _____ training, involves training for specific exercise relife patterns in certain sports

tactical metabolic

These elements of testing should not change:

temp & humidity, ground surface, racks, equipment, time of day, warm up

72 to 78 degrees

temperature range of weight room

Post-test

test administered after training period to determine success of program

Pre-test

test administered before the beginning of training-determines athlete's initial basic ability levels

Mid-test

test administered one or more times during training period to assess progress and modify the program as needed

Field Test

test used to assess ability that is performed away from the laboratory and does not require extensive training or expensive equipment

1. biceps 2. triceps 3. subscapular 4. iliac crest

the Durnin formula for calculating body fat measures where? (4)

basketball

the Wingate bike test would be a valid test for which of the following sports?

define speed-endurance

the ability to maintain maximal movement velocities or repeatedly achieve maximal accelerations and velocities

athletic performance

the ability to respond effectively to various physical challenges

the definition of Agility is?

the ability to start, stop, and change directions in a controlled manor and in rapid succession

A 445

the basketball coach says his starting center needs to jump higher. In addition to beginning a plyometric program, which of the following resistance training exercise are MOST specific to this goal? I. power clean. II. leg (knee) curl. III. front squat. IV. seated calf (heel) raise. a. I and III only. b. II and IV only. c. I, II, and III only. d. II, III, and IV only.

what is reactive ability?

the characteristic of explosive strength exhibited in SSC actions that can be improved through reactive-explosive training

Reliability

the degree of consistency (repeatability) of a test.

rest period

time dedicated to recovery between sets and exercises (inter-set rest)

statue of limations

time period which one can file a law suit

less

time spent in the weight room during sport season is less or more?

1. training experience 2. age 3. number of athletes

to assess existing facility equipment the CSCS does need to consider what 3 components of the athlete(s) involved? "TAN"

rep volume

total number of reps performed during a workout session

load volume

total number of seets multiplied by the number of reps per set then multipled by he weight lifted per repetition

training background

training that occurred before he or she began a new or revised program

split

training the upper body on one training day and the lower body on another training day is an example of ___ routines

Abdomen: ____ fold _____ in to R of umbilicus (navel)

vertical, 1

Triceps: ____ fold halfway between ____ and the _____ processes

vertical, acromion & olecranon

developing agility technique involves:

visual focus: head neutral,eyes forward; arm action: explosie arm action increases stride rate and length; plyometric training: the ability to decelerate from a given velocity is requisite for changing directions

mission statement

vital to the success of any organization and is the foundation of effective administration

What is the average (60% percentile) of women 20-29 years old for; VO2, 1.5 mile test, sit & reach, and body composition?

vo2: 37 1.5m: 14.24 S&R: 20.5 BC: 20.6

What is the average (60% percentile) of men 20-29 years old for; VO2, 1.5 mile test, sit & reach, and body composition?

vo2: 44 1.5m: 11:41 S&R: 18.5 BC: 14.1

relates to the total amount of weight lifted in a training session

volume

total amount of wight lifted in a training session

volume

what is the formula unit for aerobic power?

volume of oxygen per kg of body weight per minute

75 to 100

weight room should be lit by this many of foot candles

standard of care

what a reasonable and prudent person would do under similar circumstances, expected to act according to his or her education level of training and certification status

captial outlay

what are considered to be the funds spent to acquire maintain repair or upgrade capital assets?

improve joint stability

what benefit will a powerlifting athlete gain from performing exercises such as chin-ups and bent-over row?

Utilizing two exercises, performed in rapid succession

what best characterizes supersetting?

intensity value

what component of resistance work also considers the quality (of the work) done by an athlete?

intensity

what factor (the amount of stress placed on involved muscles connective tissues and joints) should be considered when choosing a plyo exercise for a given population?

range of movement

what is defined as the degree of movement that occurs at a joint and is influenced by skeletal structure, activity level, age, and sex?

wood

what is the best flooring option for olympic platforms for performing such exercises as the power clean and power snatch?

four, 3-4 ft

what is the maximum number of Olympic lifting platforms can be placed side by side along the wall of a facility that is 35 feet in length? How much space is needed for perimeter walkways around platform?

validity

what is the most important factor to be considered when evaluating the quality of a test

to analyize strength, weaknesses, opportunities and threats. SWOT

what is the primary task of a feasibility study when designing a new weight room

to determine an athlete's progress and if necessary, to modify the program to maximize its benefits

what is the purpose of administering a test in the middle of a training program?

inabilty to lift the weght from a failed squat off the lifter

what main disadvantage to single-person spotting?

eccentric

what phase of the chin up exercise is best for inhalation?

intermediate

what resistance training status level would be considered for an athlete who has been training 2-3 days a week, for 2-6 months?

strength and conditioning director**

what staff member is responsible for the program facility its staff and equipment and for administrative duties such as budget and proposal preparation, and purchase of equipment?

assistance exercises

what type of exercises most frequently recruit smaller muscle areas involve only one primary joint and are thought to be of less importance in sport performance improvement?

functional mobility

when an athlete has the range of motion necessary to complete an assigned movement what level of mobility do they possess?

intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability and movment efficiceny

when designing a core training program, the sequence of core training is critical to its sucess. what sequence would you use (3)? "ILE"

36 inches

when designing a strength and conditioning facility, how much space needs to be allotted between the bar tips of adjacent free weight stations?

power clean

when designing resistance training programs which of the following exercise should be performed first during a training session

-Using multiple testers, -retesting at a different time of day -an athlete's inexperience with the tested exercise

when measuring maximal strength of a soccer player, which of the following could potentially adversely affect the test-retest reliability of the results?

slightly in front

when pulling weight from the floor, where should the SHOULDERS be in relation to the BAR?

80 to 85 percent Example: 220 - 25 = 195 bpm 160 bpm / 195 bpm = 82%

when using the age-adjusted heart rate technique (220-age), what heart rate percentage range best corresponds to a 25-year-old athlete exercising with a heart rate of 160 bpm?

reactive ability

which ability is improved by training, using the stretch-shortening cycle?

field test, aerobic energy system, and reliable

which of the following characteristics applies to a 1.5 mile test? (3)

Hip and knee extension thrust is only forceful enough to drive the bar one-half to to-thirds the distance overhead

which of the following describes the difference between the upward movement phase of the push press compared to the push jerk?

low-intensity general exercise

which of the following describes the most appropriate activity during the FIRST transition period for a collegiate basketball player?

measure of central tendency

which of the following is a measure when data tends to cluster?

training status

which of the following is defined as an athlete's current condition or degree of preparedness to begin a new or revised program?

exercise order

which of the following is defined as the sequence in which resistance exercises are performed during one training session?

maximal aerobic power

which of the following is most imporatant factor of aerobic endurance performance

proper landing technique

which of the following is one of the most important training considerations for lower body plyometrics

volume load

which of the following is the MOST ACCURATE method for an athlete to measure their TRAINING STRESS?

Gluteus maximus

which of the following muscles are primarily trained during the single-leg Romanian deadlift exercise?

push press, bench press, tricep press down

which of the following ordering of exercises is considered ideal when designing resistance training programs? (3)

0-30%

which of the following percentages of an athlete's 1RM should be assigned for a non-weightlifting multijoint exercise to maximize power output

needs analysis

which of the following requires an evaluation of both the requirements of the sport and the assessment of the athlete

vertical jump, 1 rm bench, wingate test, 12 minute run

which of the following sequences produces the most reliable results of these tests. a. Wingate b. 12 min run c. vertical jump d. 1RM bench

maximal strength tests

which of the following tests are designed to measure low-velocity force production

1 and 2

which of the following tests are the most sport specific to women's field hockey? 1. T-test 2. 40-yard sprint 3. 1RM back squat 4. 1RM bench press

1RM back squat

which of the following tests would be the LEAST VALID for an athlete with no training experience?

resistance training

which of the following types of training requires moving a load implemented through a range of motion?

1. location of first aid supplies 2. address of facility 3. list of name and numbers of emergency response teams and other important individuals

which of the following would be included in a comprehensive emergency care plan? (3) "ALL"

general warm ups

which pre workout routtine is performed first and consists of 5 o 10 minutes of slow or low intensity activities

1.5 mile run

which test (example) should be completed last during a testing battery?

medical records of athletes

which would NOT be included in a comprehensive emergency care plan?

bar moves shorter distance w/ power clean

why is the muscular force needed to hang clean a given load higher than that for the power clean?

10 to 12 bpm off actual heart beat

why is using the age estimated maximum heart rate an inaccurate method of assigning heart rate training zones?

1 to 20

# of supervising CSCS individuals in college or pro

1 to 10

# of supervising CSCS individuals in middle school

1 to 15

# of supervising CSCS individuals in secondary school

percentile rank

% of test takers below that individual

Catch

(Power Clean) Bar is caught on the anterior Deltoids and clavicles

Transition or Scoop

(Power Clean) Knees and thighs move forward under the bar

First Pull

(Power Clean) Liftoff to just above the knee

Second Pull or Power Phase

(Power Clean) Upward movement to where the lower body joints are fully extended

a reapid eccentric muscle action stimulates the stretch reflex and storage of elastic energy, increasing force on the concentric action

(SSC) Stretch-shortening cycle

Transition or Scoop

(Snatch) Knees and thighs move forward under the bar

First Pull

(Snatch) Liftoff to just above the knees

Second Pull or Power Phase

(Snatch) Upward movement to where the lower body joints are fully extended

B 456

** An athlete is performing the standing military press exercise with 75% of his 1 RM. How many repetitions can typically be performed with this load? A. 15. B. 10. C. 7. D. 5.

B 418

** If during the tire flip the athlete's hip rise faster than the shoulders during the initial pushing motion, what is an effective correction to give the athlete? a. Start with a higher hip position. b. Keep the hip slightly below the shoulders in this position. c. Lift the tire upward instead of driving it forward. d. Push with the arms first.

D 570

** The longest aerobic endurance training sessions should be performed during which of the following sport seasons? a. postseason. b. preseason. c. in-season. d. off-season.

C 412

** Training on instability devices can reduce the overall agonist force production capacity and power output of the athlete to less than _____ of what can be achieved in a stable condition. a. 20%. b. 50%. c. 70%. d. 90%.

D

** When administering a battery of tests, which of the following tests should be completed prior to performing 1 RM testing of the back barbell squat? A. 40 yard dash. B. Curl-up. C. 300 yard shuttle. D. T-Test.

C 592

** When relating the season terminology to periodization periods, which season corresponds to the preparatory period of training? a. in-season. b. preseason. c. off-season. d. postseason.

C 280

** Which of the following is a reason for a trial of the T-test to be disqualified (see figure 13.18)? a. touching the base of cone D. b. shuffling from cone C to cone D. c. crossing the feet from cone B to cone C. d. running forward from cone A to cone B.

A 590

** Which of the following phases is (are) commonly used to vary workouts during the preparatory period? I. hypertrophy. II. cardiovascular. III. basic strength. IV. supercompensation. a. I and III only. b. II and IV only. c. I, II, and III only. d. II, III, and IV only.

D 614

-1 A female cross country runner is rehabbing her left knee and is now in the remodeling phase of tissue healing. Which of the following is not a goal or strategy during this stage of her rehabilitation? a) Optimization of her tissue function. b) Sport specific exercise. c) Joint angle specific strengthening. d) Prevent new tissue disruption.

A 536

-1 A high school running back approaches you and asks how he can improve his maximum velocity sprinting. Which of the following has the greatest impact on maximum velocity sprinting? a) Maximum Velocity Sprinting. b) Assisted sprinting. c) Resisted sprinting. d) Speed-endurance training.

B 447

-1 A junior high soccer player is just beginning a resistance training program, based on his beginner training status, what is the recommended number of resistance training sessions per week he should train? a) 1-2. b) 2-3. c) 4-5 . d) 5-7.

B 463

-1 A male cross country runner is working on improving his upper body muscular endurance, which of the following number of sets of a given exercise would help maximize his goal? a) 1. b) 3. c) 5 . d) 6.

A 616

-1 A softball player is rehabilitating her shoulder and utilizing the De Lorme resistance training program. She is ready for her third and final set of the standing dumbbell lateral raise exercise. Which of the following repetition and load schemes should she choose? a) 10 repetitions at 100% of the 10 RM. b) 5 repetitions at 75% of the 10 RM. c) 10 repetitions at 50% of the 10 RM. d) 5 repetitions at 100% of the 10 RM.

D 590

-1 A sprinter is spending the next 3 weeks after his competitive season to rest physically and mentally by performing swimming and light resistance training, what period of his training is he likely in? a) Preparatory period. b) First transition period. c) Competition period. d) Second transition period.

D 568

-1 All of the following aerobic endurance training methods have the correct associated exercise intensity EXCEPT? a) Long, slow distance ~70% of VO2 max. b) Pace/Temp- at the lactate threshold, at or slightly above race pace. c) High Intensity Intervals - greater than VO2 max. d) Interval - ~40% of V02 max.

B 256

-1 All of the following procedures should be followed when testing an athlete's cardiovascular fitness in the heat EXCEPT a. performing the test in an indoor facility. b. using salt tablets to retain water. c. scheduling the test in the morning. d. drinking fluids during the test.

A 624

-1 An operational plan should be created in which of the following phases? a. predesign phase. b. design phase. c. construction phase. d. preoperation phase.

B 261

-1 Anaerobic capacity is quantified as the maximal power output achieved during activity lasting. a. less than 10 seconds. b. 30 to 90 seconds. c. 2 to 3 minutes. d. longer than 5 minutes.

C 533

-1 Drills or tests that require the athlete to move rapidly in response to a stimulus such as a whistle, arrow, or opponent are best for measuring which of the following? a. change of direction. b. maneuverability. c. agility. d. acceleration.

A

-1 During the competitive season the men's soccer team has limited training time, which of the following arrangement of exercises minimizes the length of rest periods and decreases overall training time? A. Deadlift, Dumbbell Shoulder Press, Leg Curl, Bench Press. B. Bench Press, Deadlift, Leg Curl, Dumbbell Shoulder Press. C. Bench Press, Dumbbell Shoulder Press, Leg Curl, Deadlift. D. Deadlift, Bench Press, Dumbbell Shoulder Press, Leg Curl.

A 531

-1 During the early support phase of the sprint cycle which movement helps absorb shock and control forward rotation of the tibia over the ankle? a) Eccentric plantar flexion. b) Concentric plantar flexion. c) Eccentric dorsiflexion. d) Concentric dorsiflexion.

A

-1 Flexibility of which of these muscle groups or body areas is assessed during the sit-and-reach test? I. hamstrings. II. erector spinae. III. lumbar spine. IV. hip flexors. a. I and III only. b. II and IV only. c. I, II, and III only. d. II, III, and IV only.

C 95/96

-1 Following a period of chronic high-intensity resistance training, a variety of physiological adaptations take place in a number of systems within the body that promote improved athletic performance in strength/power activities. If an elite athlete were to undergo 12 weeks of heavy strength training, which of the following adaptations would NOT be expected consequent to this type of anaerobic exercise? a. a transition from Type IIx to Type IIa muscle fiber. b. increased pennation angle in certain muscle groups. c. reduced sarcoplasmic reticulum and T-tubule density. d. elevated sodium-potassium ATPase activity.

B 590

-1 For a high school soccer player, which of the following best describes the relationship between resistance exercise intensity and volume at the end of the preparatory period? a) High intensity, High volume. b) High intensity, Low volume. c) Low intensity, High volume. d) Low intensity, Low volume.

C 650

-1 For the second time this week a member of the football team was observed squatting outside the rack. He was reminded of the facility rules and guidelines during the last incident. What is the strength and conditioning director's most appropriate action at this time? a) Permanent dismissal from the facility. b) Dismissal from the facility for one week. c) Dismissal from the facility for one day. d) A verbal warning.

D 571

-1 Improving weaknesses and maintaining strengths of the athlete typically occur during which sport season? a) Post-Season. b) Off-Season . c) Pre-Season . d) In-Season.

D 533

-1 In addition to change of direction ability, agility requires which of the following? A) The ability to change velocity. B) The ability to change mode of travel. C) The ability to decelerate. D) The use of perceptual cognitive ability

C 170

-1 In teaching the push press, which of the following is an example of segmentation with pure-part training integration? a. Practice the push press without any equipment, progress to practice with a PVC pipe, and end with and unloaded bar. b. Practice dip, followed by the dip with the drive, and end with practice of the entire push press. c. Practice dip, the drive and the catch independently before practicing the entire push press. d. Practice the dip and the drive independently, followed by practice of the dip with the drive; then practice the catch independently and end with practice of the entire push press.

A 527

-1 In upright sprinting, an athlete's stride length is largely dependent on ____ a. the amount of vertical force produced during the stance phase. b. the athlete's flexibility. c. the athlete's stride rate. d. the amount of horizontal force produced during the toe-off of the stance phase.

B 535

-1 Select the aspect of training that requires additional emphasis when the aim is to improve change-of-direction ability. a. strength. b. eccentric strength. c. reactive strength. d. rate of force development.

C 148

-1 The condition characterized by a bone mineral density more than 2.5 SD below the young adult mean is called. a. sarcopenia. b. osteopenia. c. osteoporosis. d. scoliosis.

B 519

-1 The force used to return the ball to the partner during the 45 degree sit-up should come primarily from the a) Triceps. b) Abdominals. c) Iliopsoas. d) Pectoralis Major.

B 523

-1 The relationship between force and time refers to which of the following A. Velocity. B. Impulse. C. Acceleration. D. Momentum.

C 628

-1 What is recommended minimum distance between the floor and the bottom of the mirrors on the walls in the strength and conditioning facility? a) 16 inches. b) 18 inches. c) 20 inches. d) 22 inches.

C 629

-1 What is the minimum recommended space between the ends of racks to provide room for spotters. a. 1 foot. b. 2 feet. c. 3 feet. d. 4 feet.

C 452

-1 What percentage of the 1RM allows an athlete to perform 6 repetitions of a given exercise? a) 70. b) 75. c) 85. d) 95.

B 571

-1 What represents a mode of training that can be used to maintain general conditioning in athletes during periods of reduced training due to injury or during recovery from a training cycle? a) Tapering. b) Cross Training. c) Detraining. d) ResistanceTraining.

B 291

-1 When compiling results from the volleyball team's vertical jump testing, the strength and conditioning professional notices that most scores are similar, but there are three scores that are much higher than the rest. Which of the following measures of central tendency is most appropriate for this group? a. mean. b. median. c. mode. d. variance.

C 631

-1 When designing strength and conditioning facility, how many square feet should be dedicated to a rack where athletes will be performing squats and standing shoulder presses with a 7 foot Olympic bar? A. 49 square feet. B. 70 square feet. C. 130 square feet. D. 170 square feet.

C 591

-1 Which of the following best describes appropriate activity during the competition period for a college football wide receiver? a) Low intensity recreational exercise. b) High volume, low intensity resistance training. c) Sprinting specific plyometric drills. d) High volume, high intensity resistance training.

C

-1 Which of the following guidelines should be followed when designing a strength training and conditioning facility? I. An unobstructed pathway of 24 inches should be maintained in the facility at all times. II. Mirrors should be placed a minimum of 2 inches above the floor. III. Barbells should be placed a minimum of 36 inches between bar ends. IV. Drinking fountains should be placed close to entrances. A. I, II, III only. B. I,III only. C. III, IV only. D. I, III, IV only.

B

-1 Which of the following sequences of exercises is most appropriate for a college football tight end during the strength phase of his training program? A. Knee curl, Back Barbell Squat, Deadlift, Power clean. B. Hang Clean, Push Jerk, Bench Press, Shoulder Shrug. C. Deadlift, Abdominal Crunch, Snatch, Bench Press. D. Bent Over Row, Triceps Pushdown, Bench Press, Snatch.

B 256

-1 Which of the following sequences will produce the MOST reliable results? a. 1RM power clean, T-test, 1.5 mile (2.4 km) run, 1RM bench press. b. T-test, 1RM power clean, 1RM bench press, 1.5 mile (2.4 km) run. c. 1.5 mile (2.4 km) run, 1RM bench press, T-test, 1RM power clean. d. 1RM bench press, 1RM power clean, T-test, 1.5 mile (2.4 km) run.

B 413

-1 With regard to core training, when is instability exercise best applied? a. with untrained athletes who are relatively weak. b. in trained athletes who are rehabilitating from an injury. c. with trained athletes who are trying to optimize strength and power. d. with untrained athletes who are new to the exercise.

B

-1 You are watching a video of a sprinter at maximum velocity. During the early flight phase which of the following decelerates backward rotation of the thigh? A. Concentric Hip Flexion. B. Eccentric Hip Flexion. C. Concentric Knee Extension. D. Eccentric Knee Flexion.

training activities aimed at improving SSC performance should fulfill two criteria:

-they should involve skillful, multijoint movements that transmit forces through the kinetic chain and exploit elastic-reflexive mechanisms -in order to manage fatigue and emphasize work quality and technique, they should be structured around brief work bouts or clusters separated by frequent rest pauses

3. 5 ml x kg ⁻¹ x min ⁻¹, at rest

1 MET is equivalent to ___ and is considered the amount of O₂ required by body ___.

An example of a Maximum low speed test is?

1 RM bench, squat, etc.

the goal of sprinting is to achieve high stride frequency and optimal stride length by: 1) 2) 3) 4)

1) maximizing the backward velocity of the lower leg and foot at ground contact; 2) minimizing vertical imulse and horizontal braking forces; 3) emphasizing brief ground support time, explosive force production and rapid stride rate; 4) developing eccentric knee flexion strength (slow eccentric squats)

long-term planning: 5 deliniations

1-2 yr, fundamental: deliberate play 3-4, learning to train: starting development of motor abilities 5-6, training to train: deliberate practice on competancy-based and performance-based tasks 7-8, training to compete: specific techniques and abilities to complex tactics and competative situations 9-10, training to win: mastery of specific strategies, skills and abilities

1. 85%, 20-30 min 2. 70%, several

1. Exercise conducted at intensity above max lactate steady state (___% VO₂ max) will have a relatively short duration of ___ minutes. 2. Conversely, exercises performed at a lower intensity (___% VO₂ max), may be performed for ___ hours.

1. Progress w/ weight increase if athlete can perform 2 or more reps over the assigned rep goal in last set -- in 2 consecutive workouts 2. +2.5-10% depending on type/muscle group

1. What is 2-for-2 rule? 2. How much increase, relatively (%)?

forces are expressed in terms of: (3)

1. acceleration 2. time or rate of application 3. velocity

braking mechanics: (4)

1. achieve 2nd gear (1/2 speed), stop within 3 steps 2. 3rd gear, stop within 5 3. 4th (full speed), 7 4. braking contact occurs w/full foot rather than heel to forefoot "crashing"

Coordinative abilities or agility: (7)

1. adaptive ability- modification of sequence if needed 2. balance- static and dynamic 3. combinatory ability- body movements into a given action 4. differentiation- accurate and economical adjustment 5. orientation- spatial and temporal control 6. reactiveness- quick, well-directed response 7. rhythm- dynamic motion pattern, timing and variation

training plan factors:

1. alternating accumulation & restitution cycles 3-4 weeks in duration 2. ideal and/or real approach based on desired goal(s) 3. focus on one goal for metabolic conditioning per microcycle

agility needs analysis: (2)

1. categorize skills rationally 2. address 2 fronts - change in velocity & mode of locomotion

A feasibility study is conducted to determine 5 things "CLIPS"

1. cost 2. location 3. programs of INTEREST to athletes 4. PROJECTED usage 5. SWOT analysis

limitations:

1. doesn't provide direct measure of workload intensity. must establish target training paces for the assigned intervals 2. may not account for total volume of work performed

SAT, practical implications: (3)

1. early in training session (high neuromuscular & motor coordination demands) 2. brief work bouts w/2-3 min intervals for repititions 3. if possible, separate daily sessions into modules separated by recovery breaks or subdivide workloads into small clusters w/frequent rest, pause or both

2 more important training objectives:

1. eccentric strength needed to tolerate extreme force and power absorbtion during eccentric braking 2. reactive strength needed to rapidly recoil into concentric (propulsive) actions

variables are: (10)

1. exercise interval: duration or distance 2. exercise order: sequence 3. exercise relief: work/rest ratio 4. frequency: sessions in a given period 5. intensity: effort of a rep 6. relief or recovery interval: time between reps/sets 7. repetition: specific work load or movement technique 8. series: group of sets and recovery intervals 9. set: group of reps and relief intervals 10. volume: reps x sets in a session

considerations: (3)

1. explosive decceleration 2. role of SSC 3. plyo principles

visual focus: (3)

1. head neautral, eyes directly ahead 2. focus on point running to, user peripheral if going laterally (exceptions if there's a target, i.e. ball, teammate, opponant, tacticle, etc.) 3. w/directional change or transition, specific footwork is accompanied by quick redirection of focus

goals of sprinting: (3)

1. high stride frequency 2. optimal stride length 3. explosive horizontal trajectory (push-off) and minimal vertical impulse

keys to optimal transfer are: (3)

1. identify the target activity's mechanics w/task-specific needs analysis 2. choose training movements accordingly 3. distinguish between specificity and simulation of a task's outward appearance

agility tasks involving changes in velocity can be evaluated by looking at: (3)

1. initial speed and direction 2. decrease/increase in speed and redirection of movement 3. final speed and direction

body position: (3)

1. lean must increase as decceleration does 2. reacceleration, progressively get to vertical as get to max velocity 3. achieve a power-line position when redirecting

3 most common measures of central tendency are

1. mean (average) 2. median (middlemost score) 3. mode (score appearing most)

fundamental training objectives: (3)

1. minimize braking force at ground contact: backward velocity of leg and foot and keep foot directly below center of gravity 2. brief ground support times 3. emphasize hamstring training w/ focus on simultaneous concentric hip extension and eccentric knee flexion)

teaching movement skills:

1. physical vs. mental practice: physical generally superior but key objectives are information processing, decision making, and focused attention 2. amount of practice: 10-year rule 3. whole vs. part practice: part for complex/low organization, whole for not as complex but highly organized 4. augmented feedback/instruction: proper performance and error correction, qualitative to quantitative, gradually decrease. 5. practice distribution: typically shorter more frequent 6. practice variation: blocked practice, one version until mastery and then move on

5 steps for evaluation for an athletic profile

1. select tests that measure sport-specific movements 2. choose valid and reliable tests 3. administer to as many athletes as possible 4. calculate percentile ranks to make a visual profile 5. evaluate athlete on percentile against group and individual's previous years

training aimed at improving SSC should incorporate: (2)

1. skillfull, multi-joint movements that transmit forces through the kinetic chain and exploit elastic-reflexive mechanisms (heavy resistance or Olympic & plyo = complex training) 2. should be structured around brief work bouts or clusters separated by frequent rest pauses

evaluation of changes in locomotion: (2)

1. specific mode performed and technique used to execute discretely 2. specific sequence performed and technique used to transition serially

characteristics of linear sprinting that are adapted to agility: (2)

1. velocity - maximum acceleration over a given distance w/minimal decceleration or redirection 2. mode - execute a series of discrete subtasks

design phase

10% of time (3 months) design and planning committe comprisng a variety of qualified professsionals is finalized, the planning committee work with the architect to finalize facility blueprints, equipment specifications for allocated facility spaces are included in the project design, facility spacing is designed to be user friendly, taking into consideration health codes, safety codes legal codes and traffic flow while maintaining an aesthetically pleasing environment, the facility is designed to provide easy access to all athletes who may use it

similar but small % jumps (use table, 15.8, on p. 397)

10RM test protocol

For the hexagon test, there are a total of ____ jumps and the athlete faces the ______ direction

18, same

Staff-to-Athlete ratio for college level

1:20

Staff-to-Athlete ratio should NOT exceed this ratio for ANY facility

1:50

Slower, maximum, power

1RM involves __ movement velocities, and while __ force is generated, __ output is reduced

1. 5-10 rep warm up 2. 1 m rest 3. 3-5 rep (+5%-10% upper, 10%-20% lower) 4. 2 m rest 5. 2-3 rep (" ") 6. 2-4 m rest 7. 1 RM (" "), success 8. 2-4 m rest, repeat 7; (unsuccessful? Go to #9) 9. 1 RM (- 2.5%-5% upper, 5%-10% lower)

1RM test protocol

1. 15 Point Borg Scale (6 = No exertion at all, 15 = Max) 2. Category-Ratio Scale (0 = Nothing at all, 11 = Absolute Maximum)

2 RPE Scales and their ratings

For the push up test, army standard is as many as possible in ___ min. ACSM is as many as possible _____

2, until failure

rest periods for speed and agility training should be __________-_____________ ______

2-3 minutes

2 or more reps over on last set in 2 consecutive workouts, add weight

2-for-2 rule

On the 40 yd sprint, _____ yards must be at the end for deceleration

20

D

20. The use of a weight belt may improve safety during the performance of which of the following exercises? A. Dumbbell curls performed with 75% of 10 RM. B. Dumbbell curls performed with 100% of 6 RM. C. Back Barbell Squat performed with 75% of 10 RM. D. Back Barbell Squat performed with 100% of 6 RM.

Tests of speed don't usually go past _____meters, starts becoming aerobic

200

Speed is not conducted over distances longer then what? and why?

200 meters, longer distances require a different energy system and transition out of anaerobic to aerobic state.

What is the humidity and temperature at which Vo2 becomes limited?

21-50% humidity and 85 F ( 29 C) and above limit aerobic capacity.

D 20

22. Which of the following upper arm muscle groups and types of muscle actions are associated with the standing triceps pressdown? Primary Muscle Group. Primary Muscle Action. I. Flexors. Eccentric. II. Flexors. Concentric. III. Extensors. Eccentric. IV. Extensors. Concentric. A. I and II only. B. II and III only. C. III and IV only. D. I and IV only.

predesign phase

25% of project time (6 months) committee selected needs analysis feasibility study, master plan, architect selection

D 90

25. A 21 year old golfer has been performing 3 sets of 8-10RM loads per body part for the last 6 months. All of the following are associated with this type of training EXCEPT? A. Increased fat free mass. B. Increased Type II fiber area. C. Increased swinging velocity. D. Increased capillary density.

D

27. The greatest muscle force in the biceps brachii can be generated during which of the following actions? A. Isometrically holding the barbell perpendicular to the floor during a biceps curl exercise. B. Slowly performing a concentric muscle action during a biceps curl. C. Rapidly performing a concentric muscle action during a biceps curl. D. Slowly lowering the barbell during a biceps curl with a load that is greater than the 1RM.

1. Central tendency (mean, median, mode) 2. Variability (range, SD) 3. Percentile rank (% of test takers scoring below that individual)

3 categories of numerical measurement in descriptive stats

1. Explosive exercises (power clean, snatch, push-jerk, "explosive 1RM") 2. Height of vertical jump 3. Time to sprint up staircase

3 examples of anaerobic or maximum muscle power testing

snatch, hang clean, power clean and push jerk should be performed first in a training session

3 examples of power exercises are performed when in training session?

1. Primary 2. Secondary a. Sprint resistance* (upgrade/stairs, sled, parachute, vest) *10% change in movement resistance has detrimental effects on proper running technique b. Sprint assistance (downgrade sprinting, high-speed towing) 3. Tertiary a. mobility b. strength c. speed-endurance (tactical metabolic training)

3 methods associated w/ development of speed and agility: 1. Learning young, play sports, improve on basics 2. Modified performance conditions (examples) 3. Target the development of general skills and abilities (examples)

1. Movement analysis: body and limb movement patterns and muscles involved 2. Physiological analysis: strength, power, hypertrophy and muscular endurance priorities 3. Injury analysis: common sites for joint & muscle injury and the causes

3 sport attributes to consider:

On the 1RM bench, want within ____ attempts.

3-5

A

30. Which of the following is a characteristic of a seated vertical shoulder press machine versus a seated barbell shoulder press? A. Less skill is required to perform the machine exercise. B. The machine produces greater simulation of real world activities. C. The machine allows more variation in exercise range of motion. D. The machine allows more muscle groups to be trained simultaneously.

B

35. Which of the following motion and exercise combinations is most specific to spiking a volleyball in the sagittal plane? Motion Exercise I. Shoulder Abduction Bent over lateral raise II. Shoulder Extension Straight Arm Cable Pulldown III. Elbow Extension Triceps Pushdown IV. Elbow Flexion Biceps Curl A. I and II. B. II and III. C. II and IV. D. I and III.

B 60

36. Which of the following is an appropriate rest interval for a 10k runner performing 1 km intervals at race pace in 3 minutes and 30 seconds? A. 1 minute 15 seconds. B. 3 minutes 30 seconds. C. 7 minutes. D. 10 minutes 30 seconds.

B 482

37. Which of the following would be an appropriate depth jump box height for a male shot putter who is 6'5‖ and weighs 340 lbs.? A. 1 inch. B. 12 inches. C. 24 inches. D. 36 inches.

D 456 80% of 1RM

38. A female tennis player has a 145 lb. 1 RM in the bench press. Which of the following loads would allow her to perform 8 repetitions in that exercise? A. 130 lbs. B. 125 lbs. C. 120 lbs. D. 115 lbs.

B

39. For increased safety and stability in the strength and conditioning facility, which of the following pieces of equipment should be bolted to the floor? A. Weight Trees. B. Squat Racks. C. Incline Bench Press. D. Dumbbell Racks.

1. duty 2. breach of said duty 3. proximate cause 4. damages

4 elements of negligence

C

40. A college basketball player is spending most of his training program focusing on his ball handling and defensive skills. He is likely in what period of his training cycle? A. Preparatory. B. First Transition. C. Competition. D. Active Rest.

the 12 minute run is performed on a ______m loop

400

B

42. Which of the following periodization periods within a macrocycle would occur during spring training for a professional baseball player? A. Competition. B. Preparatory and First Transition. C. Competition and Active Rest. D. Active Rest.

A

43. An Olympic lifting platform can accommodate 3-4 people. When performing power exercises, how many athletes should be on the platform? A. 1. B. 2. C. 3. D. 4.

A

43. In order to provide excellent footing, what is the best type of flooring for Olympic platforms? A. Wood. B. Carpet. C. Rubber. D. Concrete.

C

44. During the second pull phase of the snatch, what is the primary movement? A. Knee flexion. B. Shoulder flexion. C. Hip extension. D. Hip flexion.

A

45. When administering tests to athletes in high temperature and humidity, which of the following measures of performance would be MOST impaired? A. Aerobic Endurance. B. Maximum Strength. C. Maximum Power. D. Agility.

B

46. You have just been hired to run the strength and conditioning facility at a high school and need to determine the number of staff you must hire in order to ensure proper supervision. It is recommended that the staff to athlete ratio in this type of facility not exceed which of the following? A. 1:10. B. 1:15. C. 1:20. D. 1:50.

A 528

47. Which of the following occurs during the acceleration phase of sprinting? A. The thigh of the swing leg is perpendicular to the trunk. B. Forward body lean progressively increases. C. Stride length decreases. D. Stride frequency decreases.

A

47. Which of the following program design variables leads to the HIGHEST serum growth hormone concentrations after an anaerobic training session? A. Performing an exercise at a 10RM intensity with a 1 minute rest between sets. B. Performing an exercise at a 10RM intensity with a 3 minute rest between sets. C. Performing an exercise at a 5RM intensity with a 1 minute rest between sets. D. Performing an exercise at a 5RM intensity with a 3 minute rest between sets.

C

48. Which of the following plyometric jump drills has the HIGHEST intensity? A. Split Squat Jump. B. Jump to Box. C. Single Leg Vertical Jump. D. Jump over Barrier.

C

49. Which of the following describes the proper way to grasp a dumbbell during the performance of a hammer curl? A. Closed Pronated Grip. B. Closed Supinated Grip. C. Closed Neutral Grip. D. Open Supinated Grip.

C 250

49. Which of the following refers to the degree to which a test or test item measures what it is supposed to measure? A. Objectivity. B. Reliability. C. Validity. D. Evaluation.

Time of rest between each testing procedure should be how long?

5 minutes to provide ample rest to prevent the effects of fatigue for power and at least 1 hour for aerobic tests for metabolic/lactic acid build up to be flushed out.

There is ____ min of rest between ___ trials. The average is the score

5, 2

A 463/465

50. A cross country runner is lifting 65% of her 1 RM for 15 repetitions at various stations in the strength and conditioning facility. Approximately how much time should she rest between stations in order to get the maximum benefit from this type of training A. 30 seconds. B. 1 minutes. C. 3 minutes. D. 5 minutes.

C 305 50% = 16.6%

50. During spring training a baseball player is administered a physical and underwent a battery of strength tests. Based upon the results below, his training program should emphasize improvement in which of the following areas? Height: 6'1‖. Weight: 240 lbs. % Body Fat: 28%. 1 RM Bench Press: 315 lbs. 1 RM Squat: 390 lbs. A. Upper body strength. B. Lower body strength. C. Body composition. D. Aerobic endurance.

C 535

51. When changing direction in response to movements by a wide receiver a defensive back is instructed to focus on which of the following body parts of the wide receiver? A. Head. B. Arms. C. Hips. D. Legs.

B

51. Which of the following is a technique error that should be corrected when sprinting? A. Eyes focused ahead during maximum velocity. B. Eyes focused ahead during the start. C. Arms at shoulder width during the start. D. 90° knee angle of front leg during the start.

A

52. When performing contract-relax PNF stretching of the pectoralis major with a partner, which of the following describes the contraction against resistance and how long it should be maintained? Contraction Anatomical Movement Duration A. Concentric Shoulder Horizontal Adduction 6 seconds B. Eccentric Shoulder Horizontal Adduction 6 seconds C. Concentric Shoulder Horizontal Abduction 30 seconds D. Concentric Shoulder Horizontal Adduction 30 seconds

D

52. Which of the following exercises is the most sport specific for a high school tennis player? A. Upright row. B. Lat Pulldown. C. Overhead Triceps Extension. D. Bent-Over Lateral Raise.

C

53. Of the following people, who is MOST responsible for preparing a budget and selecting equipment for the strength and conditioning facility? A. Facility Supervisor. B. Individual Sport Coaches. C. Strength and Conditioning Director. D. Assistant Strength and Conditioning Coach.

D

53. When obtaining skinfold measurements all of the following should be adhered to EXCEPT? A. Measurements should be made on dry skin. B. Measurements should be taken at least 2 times. C. Measurements should be taken prior to exercise. D. The caliper prongs should be parallel to the folds of skin.

A

54. Which of the following represents the correct starting position of the bar during the performance of the deadlift? A. Over the balls of the feet. B. Over the toes of the feet. C. 3 inches in front of the shins. D. 1 inch in front of the toes of the feet.

A

54. Which of the following structural exercises would be performed very quickly and explosively? A. Hang Clean. B. Back Barbell Squat. C. Deadlift. D. Bench Press.

A 295

55. An 18 year old college soccer player achieved the following test results during the first week of summer conditioning: 1 RM Back Squat: 130 lbs. 1 RM Bench Press: 120 lbs. 1 Mile Run: 6:08 (min:sec). Sit and Reach: 22.5 inches. When designing her training program the focus should be on improving which of the following? A. Lower body strength. B. Upper Body Strength. C. Aerobic endurance. D. Flexibility.

C 382

55. During the downward movement phase of a front squat, all of the following would indicate a need to initiate the upward movement phase EXCEPT? A. The trunk begins to flex forward. B. The trunk begins to round. C. The knees reach a ROM of 90° flexion. D. The heels rise off the ground.

D 264

56. Which of the following are tests of maximum muscular power? I. Vertical Jump. II. Margaria-Kalamen Test. III.1 RM Back Squat. IV.1 RM Power Clean. A. II, III only. B. I, IV only. C. III, IV only. D. I, II, IV only.

A 441

57. What should be determined FIRST when designing a training program for a male golfer? A. A movement analysis of golf. B. Evaluate training status of the athlete. C. Test athlete's strength, flexibility, power. D. The athlete's training goal.

D

57. Which of the following will have the greatest effect on reducing the risk of liability from athletic injuries in the strength and conditioning facility? A. Pre-participation physical examination by a licensed physician. B. Proper instruction of safe and effective strength and conditioning techniques. C. A certified strength and conditioning specialist on staff. D. Qualified and appropriate supervision of athletes at all times.

B

58. A high school wrestler is entering the pre-season. Which of the following training goals holds the lowest priority? A. Increasing muscle strength. B. Increasing aerobic endurance. C. Increasing joint flexibility. D. Improving technical skill.

C

58. The tests below should be administered in which order to ensure reliability? I. 1 RM Deadlift. II. Hexagon Test. III. Flexibility. IV. 400 m Run. A. II, I, IV, III. B. II,IV,I,III. C. III, II, I, IV. D. I, II, IV, III.

D

59. When arranging equipment in the strength training facility, what is the minimum recommended distance between the ends of 2 adjacent Olympic barbells? A. 24 inches. B. 28 inches. C. 32 inches. D. 36 inches.

D 519

59. When performing a plyometric sit-up, which of the following describes the starting position? A. Athlete lays flat on the ground holding the medicine ball. B. Athlete lays flat on the ground while their partner is in front of them holding the medicine ball. C. Athlete sits on the ground with the trunk at a 45° angle and holds the medicine ball. D. Athlete sits on the ground with the trunk at a 45° angle while their partner is in front of them holding the medicine ball.

For the 300 yard (274 M) shuttle, there are ___ sprints of ____ yards (2 _____ yard trips, down & back)

6, 50, 25

C

6. Rebounding the ball in basketball is most closely mimicked by which of the following exercises? A. Back Squat. B. Bent Over Row. C. PushJerk. D. Deadlift.

D

60. A softball player was lifting 67% of her back squat 1RM; this load would typically allow her to perform how many repetitions? A. 6. B. 8. C. 10. D. 12.

C

60. Before a female cheerleader participates in a strength and conditioning program, which of the following is recommended? I. Nutritional Analysis. II. Physical Examination by a Physician. III. 1 RM testing. IV. Signed form indicating assumption of risk. A. I, II, III, IV. B. I,II. C. II, IV. D. I, III, IV.

B 564

62. Using the Karvonen method, which of the following is the target heart rate range for a 55 year old athlete aerobically exercising at 70-80% of her functional capacity if her resting heart rate is 71 bpm? A. 115-132 bpm. B. 137-146 bpm. C. 149-158 bpm. D. 149-165 bpm.

C 567 3-5 min HIIT = 30-90 s (work:rest 1:5)

63. A 10 km runner is using interval training to improve his speed. Which of the following describes this type of training? I. Intensity close to VO2max II. Work bout duration 30-90 seconds III. Frequency 1-2 times per week IV. Work:Rest Ratio 1:1 A. I and II only B. I,II,III only C. I, III, IV only D. I, III only

B

64. Which of the following goal repetitions, sets, and rest periods MOST effectively promotes muscular strength? Goal Repetitions Sets Rest Periods A. 8 2 1 minute B. 5 3 4 minutes C. 5 4 1 minute D. 8 4 1 minute

D 406

64. Which of the following would represent a technique error during the performance of the power clean that would need correcting? I. Grasping the bar with a closed pronated grip. II. Placing the hands on the bar outside of the knees. III. Squatting down with the hips at the level of the shoulders. IV. Positioning the bar over the toes of the feet. A. I, II, III only. B. I, IV only. C. II,IV only. D. III, IV only.

C

67. In order to minimize the health risks associated with aerobic endurance testing in the heat, which of the following guidelines should be followed? I. Utilize salt tablets. II. Encourage athletes to drink. III. Wear dark colored clothing. IV. Test in the morning or evening hours. A. I,II,IV. B. I,IV. C. II, IV. D. I, II, III.

B 371

68. Which of the following describes the correct way to spot Bench Press? A. Grasp the bar with an alternated grip wider than the athlete's grip. B. Grasp the bar with an alternated grip narrower than the athlete's grip. C. Grasp the bar with a supinated grip wider than the athlete's grip. D. Grasp the bar with a supinated grip narrower than the athlete's grip.

A

69. During the upward motion of Incline DB Chest Press, which of the following identifies the PRIMARY motion occurring at the shoulder joint? A. Adduction in the transverse plane. B. Abduction in the sagittal plane. C. Flexion in the transverse plan. D. Flexion in the frontal plane.

1. Needs analysis 2. Exercise selection 3. training frequency 4. Exercise order 5. Training load and repetitions 6. Volume 7. Rest periods

7 program design variables

1. needs analysis 2. exercise selection 3. training frequency 4. exercise order 5. training load and repetitions 6. volume 7. rest periods

7 training design variables

C

70. During the slow downward motion of Incline DB chest Press, all of the following muscles act eccentrically EXCEPT? A. Pectoralis Major. B. Triceps Brachii. C. Biceps Brachii. D. Deltoid.

D

71. During the upward movement phase of Incline DB chest Press, the strength and conditioning professional should instruct the athlete to do which of the following? A. Keep the wrists loose. B. Keep the forearms parallel to the floor. C. Arch the back. D. Push the dumbbells upward until the elbows are fully extended.

A

72. When performing Incline DB chest Press, the strength and conditioning professional would like to de-emphasize the perctoralis major and have the deltoids perform more of the work, which of the following modifications would BEST achieve that? A. Grasp the dumbbells with a neutral grip, place the elbows parallel to the torso, and have the athlete flex the shoulders in the sagittal plane B. Grasp the dumbbells with a supinated grip, place the elbows perpendicular to the torso, and have the athlete adduct the shoulders in the sagittal plane C. Grasp the dumbbells with a neutral grip, place the elbows perpendicular to the torso and have the athlete adduct the shoulders in the transverse plane. D. Grasp the dumbbells with a supinated grip, place the elbows parallel to the torso, and have the athlete flex the shoulder in the transverse plane.

C

74. During the downward movement phase of lying triceps extension, which of the following substitution patterns may be present when the triceps brachii fatigues? A. Shoulder Flexion. B. Wrist extension. C. Shoulder Extension. D. Shoulder Abduction.

A

75. Which of the following reasons BEST explains why Hammer Curl should not be utilized for 1 RM testing? A. Valid and reliable results cannot be obtained. B. Only one muscle group is involved. C. The exercise is a single-joint exercise. D. The elbow flexors are a small muscle group.

1. ems activation procedures 2. names and telephone numbers of primary secondary and tertiary individuals to contact 3. specific address of cscs facility 4. location of the telephones 5. location of nearest exits 6. designated personal qualified to care for injuries 7. ambulance access 8. location of emergency supplies and first aid kit 9. plan of action

8 components of an emergency care plan

10. Which of the following methods of assessment measures max strength? A. 1RM back squat B. 1RM clean C. YMCA Bench Press

A

30. A nutritionist is testing a 19 year old male soccer player using the Jackson Pollock 7 site body composition formula. Which of the following skinfold sites should be used? A. Chest, Abdomen, Triceps, Subscapular, Suprailiac, Midaxilla, Thigh B. Chest, Abdomen, Triceps, Subscapular, Suprailiac, Midaxilla, Calf C. Chest, Abdomen, Biceps, Subscapular, Suprailiac, Midaxilla, Thigh D. Chest, Abdomen, Biceps, Subscapular, Suprailiac, Midaxilla, Calf

A

47. Which of the following sequences of exercises is most appropriate for a female college basketball player entering the preseason? A. Hang Clean, Front Squat, Incline Bench Press, Triceps Pushdown B. Incline Bench Press, Triceps Pushdown, Front Squat, Hang Clean C. Front Squat, Seated Row, Incline Bench Press, Push Jerk D. Incline Bench Press, Seated Row, Push Jerk, Hang Clean

A

49. Training for sport and movement specific strength is given HIGHEST priority during which of the following sport seasons? A. Pre-season B. In-Season C. Post-Season D. Off-Season

A

A test that reflects low-speed muscular strength and utilizes relatively low movement speeds would be which of the following? a) Maximum Muscular Strength. b) Local Muscular Endurance. c) Aerobic Capacity. d) Maximum Muscular Power.

A

C 140

A 10 year old boy is beginning a resistance training program, all of the following are likely benefits EXCEPT? a) Increased 1 RM strength. b) Increased bone density. c) Increased muscle hypertrophy. d) Increased resistance to injury.

48. Which of the following is a marker of aerobic overtraining? A. decreased total testosterone concentration B. increased muscle glycogen stores C. increased resting catecholamine level

A 131 catecholamines(84): epinephrine, norepinephrine and dopamine

D 122

A 17-year-old high school cross-country runner has been training aerobically for six months in preparation for the upcoming season. Which of the following adaptations will occur in the muscle during that time? a. increased concentration of glycolytic enzyme. b. hyperplasia of Type II fibers. c. transformation from Type I to Type II fibers. d. hypertrophy of Type I fibers.

D

A 22 year old field hockey player is running intervals in preparation for her upcoming season, which of the following DOES NOT affect her blood lactate concentration? A. The duration of her exercise session. B. Her state of training. C. Her initial glycogen levels. D. Female gender.

55. Which of the following will DECREASE the power output of an athlete performing the snatch exercise? A. increasing the load from 90 to 95% of the athlete's 1RM B. increasing the speed at which the athlete performs the exercise C. lengthening the rest period between sets of the exercise

A 25-30

Which of the following tests is MOST appropriate for assessing a professional football offensive lineman? A. 1 RM Bench Press. B. 40 yard sprint. C. Sit and Reach. D. 1.5 mile run.

A 253

Anthropometry is the science of measurement applied to the human body, and measurements generally include all of the following EXCEPT? a) Flexibility. b) Height. c) Weight. d) Limb Girths.

A 262

How is the athlete instructed to grasp the barbell when performing the 1RM Bench Pull? A. Closed Pronated Grip. B. Closed Supinated Grip. C. Open Supinated Grip. D. Open Neutral Grip.

A 265

When administering the 300 yard shuttle, how far are the parallel lines placed apart? A. 25 yards B. 50 yards C. 75 yards D. 100 yards

A 273

When setting up the course for the Yo-Yo Intermittent Recovery Test, how far is the cone placed behind the start line in order for the athletes to jog for recovery? A. 5 m. B. 10 m. C. 15 m . D. 20 m.

A 278

All of the following are reasons for disqualification of a T-Test EXCEPT? A. During the initial movement, the athlete sprints forward only 10 yards. B. The athlete crosses one foot in front of the other. C. The athlete fails to touch a cone. D. The athlete turns to the right.

A 280

Which of the following identifies the correct way to stand during the Balance Error Scoring System? A. Eyes closed, hands on hips. B. Eyes closed, arms folded across chest. C. Eyes open, hands on hips. D. Eyes open, arms folded across chest.

A 284

9. A 145-lb (59-kg), 6 ft., 3 in. female college volleyball player has the following test profile: 1RM bench press: 110 lb (50 kg) 1RM back squat: 130 lb (59 kg) VO2 max: 49 ml/kg/min Body fat percentage: 18% Vertical jump: 21 in. (53 cm) Which of the following needs improvement? A. lower body strength B. lower body power C. upper body strength

A 295 50% = 143 LBS

22. A Division I collegiate defensive tackle (American football) had the following testing results two months before the competitive season: Bodyweight: 319 lb (145 kg) Height: 6 ft, 3 in. (191 cm) Standing long jump: 7 ft, 10 in. (2.4 m) 1RM bench press: 400 lb (181 kg) 40-yard (37-m) sprint: 4.84 sec Which of the following should this athlete focus on during training? A. lower body power b. upper body strength C. sprint speed

A 300 50% = 110" (279 cm)

12. A 315-lb (143-kg) male collegiate American football offensive lineman has the following test results: 40-yd (37-m) sprint: 5.9 sec Body fat percentage: 20% 1RM bench press: 405 lb (184 kg) 1RM back squat: 530 lb (241 kg) Which of the following areas should his training program emphasize? A. sprint speed B. body composition C. upper body strength

A 312-313

A college long jumper utilizes low-intensity bounding prior to his event. This type of warm-up would be considered? a) Specific. b) General. c) PNF. d) Static.

A 318

Which of the following is the least likely to invoke the stretch reflex by avoiding stimulation of the muscle spindles? a) Static Stretch. b) Ballistic Stretch. c) Dynamic Stretch. d) Rapid Stretch.

A 323

Instruction for breathing during the dumbbell bench press should include? a) exhale through the sticking point. b) inhale through the sticking point. c) exhale as weight is lowered. d) exhale at the top of the movement.

A 353

45. Which of the following is MOST appropriate for performing the wrist extension exercise? A. grasping the bar with a pronated grip B. allowing the wrists to extend toward the floor C. extending the wrists to the neutral position

A 377

Performing a dumbbell bench press on a physio ball leads to which of the following? A. Increased core muscle activation, reduced force generation by the pectoralis major. B. Increased core muscle activation, increased force generation by the pectoralis major. C. Reduced core muscle activation, reduced force generation by the pectoralis major. D. Reduced core muscle activation, increased force generation by the pectoralis major.

A 412

59. Which of the following contributes MOST to shock absorption while running? A. eccentric plantar flexion B. concentric hip extension C. eccentric knee flexion

A 531

40. An athlete is transitioning from a backpedal into a forward sprint. Which of the following body parts initiates the movement? A. head B. hips C. feet

A 533-536

27. A high school cross-country runner wants to improve her speed-endurance. Which of the following types of training is MOST appropriate? A. interval B. pace/tempo C. fartlek

A 568

30. A collegiate softball player is participating in an in-season strength and conditioning program. She is transitioning between phases in the program. Phase A Sets Repetitions %1RM 1-3 1-3 95 Phase B Sets Repetitions %1RM 2-3 6-8 80 Which of the following BEST describes the change in phases? A. peaking to maintenance B. strength/power to peaking C. basic strength to hypertrophy

A 590

25. An athlete is using interval training to increase the capacity of the oxidative energy system. Which of the following work-to-rest ratios is MOST appropriate? A. 1:3 B. 1:4 C. 1:5

A 60

C

A college football player decides to add 30 minutes of intense stationary cycling every other day to his current resistance training program. Which of the following best describes the effect the stationary cycling will have on his performance? a. No effect on strength gains. b. Strength gains enhanced. c. Strength gains compromised. d. Number of muscle fibers increased.

D 60

A college soccer player is taking part in an interval training session using 1:1 work to rest ratios at 25% maximal power. She runs for 4 minutes then rests for 4 minutes. This type of training primarily stresses what system? A. Phosphagen. B. Fast Glycolysis. C. Fast Glycolysis and Oxidative. D. Oxidative.

A 447

A collegiate softball player trains her back and biceps one day and her chest and triceps the next day. What type of training program is she utilizing? a) Split routine. b) Power routine. c) Circuit training. d) Cross training.

D 465

A female triathlete needs to improve the muscular endurance of her upper body. Using three sets of 15 reps per exercise, which of the following rest period lengths will MAXIMIZE her goal? a. 3 minutes. b. 1.5 minutes. c. 45 seconds. d. 30 seconds.

B

A female volleyball player is performing the single leg squat with her left leg on the floor and the foot of her right leg atop a bench. During the downward movement phase which of the following occurs? A. Left gluteus maximus acts concentrically. B. Left biceps femoris acts eccentrically. C. Left psoas major acts eccentrically. D. Right psoas major acts concentrically.

D 57

A female weightlifter is only able to complete 8 repetitions of a 10 RM set of power cleans. Which of the following factors is the least likely to have contributed to her missed repetitions? a. ATP and Creatine Phosphate. b. Muscle Glycogen. c. Lower pH. d. Fat Stores.

C 571

A high school wrestler injured his right shoulder and stopped his training regimen over the last 3 weeks, what has occurred? a) Tapering. b) Cross Training. c) Detraining. d) ResistanceTraining.

Third class: Bicep curl

A lever for which the muscle force and resistive force act on the same side of the fulcrum

Which of the following exercises does not require a spotter? a. Barbell row b. Step-up c. DB incline press d. Barbell triceps extension

A: Barbell row The barbell row is the correct answer because this movement occurs in a prone position, the bar does not move overhead, and the spine is not directly loaded by the barbell. The athlete can safely execute the lift on the platform and abandon the lift if necessary without fear of injury or being unable to complete the lift.

-1 A 200-meter hurdler is about to begin his competitive training season. What training approach would the strength and conditioning coach use to maintain the athlete's explosive and work capacities? a. Complex training b. Push/pull split c. Circuit training d. Compound sets

A: Complex training An athlete who requires a high work capacity coupled with the ability to be explosive for brief periods of time will benefit most from using a complex training approach, as this will allow the athlete to use low-moderate plyometric activity during the in-season program to maintain explosive capacities and resistance train at sufficient levels to maintain strength. This type of training does not need to be high intensity to be effective, and can allow an athlete to sustain a high level of performance throughout a training season as long as the strength and conditioning coach closely monitor training volume and intensity.

-1 When transitioning to a pre-season training period, what modifications will the strength and conditioning coach make to the training parameters for the athletes? a. Decrease training load intensity b. Increase training load intensity c. Decrease training volume d. Increase training volume

A: Decrease training load intensity When preparing to start the pre-season training phase, the strength and conditioning coach does not need to alter his training program significantly from the off-season program. The primary consideration for transitioning into the pre-season phase of the training program is to decrease the training load intensity, as this will allow the athlete to begin to put more energy into sport- and practice-related activities and not negatively affect recovery rates. This change will also reduce the risk of injury heading into the period of time when the athlete is preparing most heavily for the competitive season, which generally about six to eight weeks away when the pre-season is initiated.

-1 When planning training programs for two distinct types of athlete, a marathon runner and a football player, how should a strength and conditioning coach track training volumes (respectively)? a. Duration and load-volume b. Time and training intensity c. Total distance and load-volume d. Duration and work

A: Duration and load-volume The method for assessing training volume for an aerobic athlete is to track the duration of his training sessions as a measure of time. To correctly track training volume for a football player, a strength and conditioning coach must keep track of load-volume, which is the quantification of the amount of mechanical work performed by the athlete combined with the metabolic demands associated with that work.

Which of the listed training volumes will affect muscular hypertrophy the most? a. Five sets of 10 repetitions b. Five sets of 5 repetitions c. Three sets of 8 repetitions d. One set of 15 repetitions

A: Five sets of 10 repetitions When training for muscular hypertrophy, the outlined criteria call for as few repetitions as 6 per set and as many as 12. The suggested number of sets falls between 3 and 6 total sets. An athlete who performs 5 sets of 10 repetitions will perform 50 total repetitions of a given movement, which will result in the highest training volume of the options listed and will cause the greatest change in muscular hypertrophy over time.

What sport skill and movement pairing below best exemplifies the specific adaptations to imposed demands (SAID) principle? a. Free throw shooting; overhead press b. Throwing a baseball; squat c. 100-meter sprinting; barbell row d. Freestyle swimming; power clean

A: Free throw shooting; overhead press A basketball player who is shooting a free throw must use the primary movers for the upper body, which include the triceps, the pectoral muscles, the deltoids, and the biceps, along with the forearm flexors and extensors. Using an overhead pressing movement for strength development in a basketball player meets the specific needs of the athlete's sport by targeting and training the specific muscle groups involved in the action.

In the off-season program for a Premier League soccer player, training volume and intensity are characterized by what during the strength/power phase? a. High intensity; low Volume b. Low intensity; high Volume c. Low intensity; low Volume d. High intensity; high Volume

A: High intensity; low volume. The strength/power phase is the final stage in the preparation phase and is characterized by high-intensity, lower-volume training activities. Activities that take place in this training phase include high-intensity plyometric activity, sprinting against resistance, and resistance training that includes power/explosive exercises with heavy training loads and low training volumes.

Other than adding additional training load to an athlete, what other mechanisms that utilize the progressive overload principle are acceptable for athlete progression? I. Increasing repetitions performed at specific loading parameters II. Increasing work density III. Increasing number of sets performed at specific loading parameters IV. Reducing rest periods a. I, II, III, IV b. I and III c. II and IV d. I, II, and III

A: I, II, III, IV The principle of progressive overload refers to gradually increasing the amount of external resistance an athlete must work against during training-related activities. The overload can be achieved by increasing the number of repetitions per set with a specific resistance, increasing the volume of work performed in a training session or set period of time (supersets, compound sets, etc.), increasing the total number of sets performed at a specific loading parameter, and reducing rest periods, which is another form of increasing work density. This is not an exhaustive list of possible applications of the overload principle other than simply adding resistance to the selected movements.

? = + When preparing an athlete for competition, what is considered to be the best-practice procedure for stretching, listed in the order in which the exercises should be performed? I. Sport skill II. Dynamic stretching III. Jogging IV. Bounding a. III, I, II, IV b. IV, II, I, III c. III, II, I, IV d. I, III, II, IV

A: III, I, II, IV The suggested best practice for competition warm-up begins with movements of a general or lower-intensity sport-specific activity, which include jogging, skipping, dribbling a basketball, or throwing a football. After the general warm-up period, the specific warm-up activities begin and will include dynamic stretching activities that mimic the movements of the sporting event, and can gradually increase in intensity up to jumping and bounding activities to prepare the nervous system for competition, but not sufficient to induce metabolic or neural fatigue.

If a training program called for three upper-body training sessions that emphasized upper-body pressing exercises, how would the strength and conditioning coach best create muscle balance in these training sessions? a. Include horizontal and vertical pulling exercises in all three training sessions b. Include three lower-body training sessions c. Perform rotator cuff assistance exercises at the end of each session d. Include overhead pressing and vertical pulling in one of the training sessions

A: Include horizontal and vertical pulling exercises in all three training sessions For the strength and conditioning coach to achieve training balance when performing specific movement patterns, the opposite muscles must be trained at sufficient training volumes. This does not require a one-to-one ratio, but in the provided example performing upper- and middle-back exercises during each session will only serve as a positive for developing the strength and joint stability for the athlete to reach the primary resistance goal.

What is one of the primary adaptations to energy production due to chronic aerobic exercise? a. Increased mitochondria density in muscle tissue b. Increased oxygen-carrying capacity of hemoglobin c. Increased phosphate availability for ATP replenishment d. Increased glycogen storage capacity

A: Increased mitochondria density in muscle tissue A physiological adaptation that allows for greater ATP production is the increased number of mitochondria in the muscle tissue. This alteration occurs because of the increased energy demands placed on the muscles due to the continuous aerobic endurance exercise or training; this change increases the availability of ATP in closest proximity to the working muscle tissues, which is a result of increased oxidation in the tissues.

Which neuromuscular structure is responsible for initiating the stretch reflex? a. Muscle spindle b. Golgi tendon organ c. Pacinian corpuscle d. Extrafusal muscle fiber

A: Muscle spindle The muscle spindle is the primary proprioceptive feedback structure in the muscle and the most important component in the stretch reflex response. The muscle spindle senses when rapid strength is applied to a muscle and reflexively contracts, which serves to potentiate the force-generating capacity of the muscle as well.

When training for strength and power, which adaptations will occur most quickly? a. Neural b. Muscular c. Body composition d. Cardiovascular

A: Neural When training for strength and power, the neural adaptations will occur most quickly due to, in large part, the size principle. The nervous system will recruit all motor units in order to facilitate maximal force generation, in the order of from weakest and slowest firing to strongest and most rapidly firing. During strength and power training phases, the high-threshold units are depended on heavily to perform the required work, but also become more easily recruited due to a lowered recruitment threshold. This change allows for these motor units to be recruited more effectively and with greater speed.

Tapering is an important component of competition preparation. What is NOT a primary benefit to a tapering strategy prior to competition? a. Neurological recovery b. Rehydration c. Increased glycogen stores d. Joint/muscle recovery

A: Neurological recovery Neurological recovery is not a primary emphasis in tapering methods, as tapering involves planned technique work and gradually reducing the training duration and intensities. The nervous system, due to the repetitive nature of aerobic endurance training, is not taxed as heavily as it is for anaerobic power athletes, and neurological fatigue will not play a significant role in the success or failure of an aerobic athlete's competitive season. Allowing for joint/muscle recovery, rehydrating, and increasing glycogen stores are of greater importance to the aerobic endurance athlete.

When evaluating areas that an athlete can improve significantly over time, which of the areas listed below is most unlikely to be impacted? a. Reaction time b. Stretch-shortening cycle c. Reactive time d. Speed-endurance

A: Reaction time Reaction time is specific to an athlete's ability to respond to external stimuli, e.g., visual or auditory, and to respond in an appropriate manner. This element of athletic competency is not easily trained because much of this response is governed by how quickly information is relayed to the CNS and then translated to a response, and this will vary from individual to individual. Reactive time can be altered via manipulation of the stretch-shortening cycle by performing reactive-explosive movements as part of a training program.

Using the Valsalva maneuver is helpful when transitioning from eccentric to concentric lifting phases. What is the name for this in-between transition? a. Sticking point b. Turnaround point c. Transition point d. Isokinetic point

A: Sticking point The sticking point is the transition point between the eccentric and concentric movements. This point can occur exactly at this moment of transition or slightly above or below this transition depending on the movement pattern or an athlete's specific muscular weaknesses.

What role, if any, does strength play with regard to an athlete achieving maximal sprint velocity? a. Strength allows an athlete to overcome increased resistance generated on the body as acceleration occurs. b. Strength is what propels an athlete forward when attempting to accelerate the body. c. Strength is essential for the initial takeoff in order to propel the body forward and sustain the sprint effort. d. No role

A: Strength allows an athlete to overcome increased resistance generated on the body as acceleration occurs. An athlete's ability to overcome the force of gravity as her movement velocity increases via producing greater force through muscular contraction is essential for developing maximal linear speed, but also significant for decelerating, changing directions, or leaping.

-1 When considering the needs of an athlete, the sport needs of the athlete are most important. Which athlete listed below would benefit most from a moderate-volume, moderate-intensity training program in the off-season? a. Swimmer b. Discus thrower c. Golfer d. Football player

A: Swimmer Swimming is not considered a power sport, but the athlete will still need to be explosive in the pool at the starting position and will also need significant strength levels to move through the water as quickly as possible. This type of athlete would not need to train near maximal loading intensities and will not require large training volumes to be successful in his sport. The athlete will need moderate training intensity and volumes to develop the sufficient strength and resiliency needed to be successful in his sport.

-1 If training an athlete to improve work capacity, or a specific characteristic such as speed-endurance, what type of resistance training split and method could be used to enhance the anaerobic conditioning activities the athlete would necessarily undertake? a. Total body training b. Circuit training c. Upper/lower split d. body part split

A: Total body training An athlete who is trying to improve her speed endurance or anaerobic training capacity would benefit most from engaging in a total body training routine that requires the athlete to train using big compound movements at every training session, most effectively using a superset model, and training frequently throughout the week. This approach would develop the resiliency needed for competition, and with proper movement and training load selection, explosive power and strength will also increase significantly.

For an athlete who has been in a training program for two years and needed to gain significant muscle mass in the upper torso, quadriceps, and hamstrings, what type of training split would the strength and conditioning coach use? a. Upper/lower training split b. Body part split c. Total body training d. Leg power/upper hypertrophy

A: Upper/lower training split An upper/lower split training approach will allow the athlete to gain the necessary lean mass in the upper torso and in the hamstring and quadriceps because each session will have significantly higher volumes than if the athlete were to train using a total body approach. This body part split will also allow the athlete to use big compound movements, both structural and power movements, without interfering with the recovery of other muscle groups that may be involved in these exercises, as would be the case with a whole body approach.

How can the strength and conditioning coach structure a training session to account for when the athlete is not performing at or near his normal capacities? a. Use goal repetitions b. Increase rest periods c. Reduce training loads d. Reduce number of exercises

A: Use goal repetitions Setting goal repetitions for a training session, e.g., 3-5 repetitions for 3-6 sets, will allow an athlete to train slightly below her maximal capacities without the athlete fretting about a poor performance when she is not at her peak abilities. This approach serves as a form of auto-regulation, as training intensity and volume are modulated based on the athlete's day-to-day capacities instead of strict adherence to a rigid set and rep scheme that would force the athlete to attempt to work beyond her capacity, leading to poor performance and possibly compromising a training block or program.

speed endurance

Aerobic Endurance Exercise Training (CH 18): The ability to maintain max velocity for longer than 6 seconds is referred to as what type of endurance?

80°, 50%

Aerobic endurance may be impaired when temp approaches ___°F, especially if humidity exceeds ___%

High (High-force/high-speed = roughly 1 sec to complete rep)

Aerobic or maximum muscular power is also called ___-speed strength (maximal anaerobic power test)

C 61

Aerobic training added to the training of anaerobic athletes (Combination Training) can lead to all of the following EXCEPT? a. Reduced anaerobic energy production. b. Reduced gain in muscle girth. c. Increased speed. d. Reduced power.

Perceptual-cognitive ability

Agility is simillar to speed, except that agility also includes which of the following components that is not part of speed?

1. speed, direction 2. speed, re-direction 3. speed, direction

Agility tasks involving a change in velocity can be characterized by: 1. Initial ___ and ___. 2. Decrease or increase (or both) in ___ and ___ of movement. 3. Final ___ and ___.

1. mode(s), discretely 2. sequence(s), serially

Agility tasks involving changes in locomotion mode are characterized by: 1. The specific locomotion ___ performed and movement techniques used to execute them ___. 2. The specific ___ in which they are performed and the techniques used to transition between them ___.

strengthen the hip and/or shoulder stabilizers

All of the following EXCEPT __________ are strategies for corrective exercise and fundamental movement patterns

D 34

All of the following are advantages of weight stack machines EXCEPT? a. Safety b. Design flexibility c. Ease of use d. Simulation of real life activities

C 449

All of the following are examples of a push and pull arrangement EXCEPT? a) Bench press, Lat pulldown. b) Shoulder press, Bent over row. c) Triceps extension, Bench press. d) Triceps extension, Biceps curl.

repetition and set scheme

All of the following influence an athlete's volume-load for a resistance training program EXCEPT

B 644

All of the following should be required of the Strength and Conditioning Director EXCEPT? a) CSCS designation. b) Personal workouts. c) Budget Preparation. d) Staff supervision.

D 149

All of the following show decreases with the normal aging process EXCEPT? a) Muscle mass. b) Bone mineral density. c) Resting metabolic rate. d) Body fat.

D 655

An 18 year old college running back scrapes his shin while performing deadlifts and begins to bleed. Which of the following is the IMMEDIATE responsibility of the facility supervisor? A. Call 911. B. Contact the Strength and Conditioning Director. C. Wash and apply a triple antibiotic ointment to the injured area. D. Compress the injured area to stop the bleeding.

D 141

An 8-year-old boy dramatically increased his upper body strength after following a six-month resistance training program. Which of the following is MOST likely responsible for this gain? a. increased number of muscle fibers. b. enhanced -cross-sectional area. c. greater muscle density. d. improved neuromuscular functioning.

B 448

An American football lineman has difficulty driving into defensive linemen and believes he has lost his explosive ability. Which of the following is the BEST exercise order to help this athlete improve his performance? a. back squat, hip sled, leg (knee) curl, power clean. b. power clean, back squat, hip sled, leg (knee) curl. c. leg (knee) curl, back squat, power clean, hip sled. d. hip sled, power clean, leg (knee) curl, back squat.

A 127

An Olympic middle distance runner has been training in Colorado Springs for the last 6 months. Which of the following represents a long term adjustment to high altitude? A. Decreased plasma volume. B. Decreased blood viscosity. C. Decreased use of free fatty acids in favor of muscle glycogen. D. Decreased red blood cell production.

D 39

An athlete could benefit from the use of a weight belt during the performance of which of the following sets? A. 10 Reps of the Bench Press with 75% of the 1 RM. B. 4 Reps of the Bench Press with 90% of the 1 RM. C. 10 Reps of the Standing Shoulder Press with 75% of the 1 RM. D. 4 Reps of the Standing Shoulder Press with 90% of the 1 RM.

competitive

An athlete has dramatically increased time spent practicing sport-specific skills and tactics and decreased over training volume. This best describes an athlete who has entered which of the following periods of training?

Face validity

An athlete is able to identify that they back squat 1RM test is being used to test her maximal lower body strength. This is an example of which of the following?

C 21/22

An athlete is performing a concentric isokinetic elbow flexion and extension exercise. Which of the following type(s) of levers occur(s) at the elbow during this exercise? I. first class. II. second class. III. third class. a. I only. b. II only. c. I and III only. d. II and III only.

Basic strength

An athlete is performing back squats at 95% of her 1RM for six sets of two repetitions. This is most consistent with which phase of training?

C 441

An evaluation of the requirements and characteristics of the sport and an athlete assessment is known as? a) Exercise selection. b) Strength assessment. c) Needs analysis. d) Conditioning analysis.

Closed Kinetic Chain exercise

An exercise in which the terminal joint meets with considerable resistance that prohibits or restrains its free motion; that is the distal joint segment is stationary

injury analysis

Analysis that can reveal common sites for joint and muscle injury and causative factors

What is the order of tests? List all in proper order.

Anthropometric agility (T-Test) maximum power (1 RM) sprint (40 yrds) local muscular endurance (partial curl ups) fatiguing anaerobic capacity test (400m run) (300 yard shuttle) aerobic capacity ( 1.5 mile run) (*if performed same day one 1 hour rest before starting)

10. A strongman competitor is performing a standing barbell shoulder press using a load of 85% of his 1RM. Approximately how many repetitions can he expect to perform? A. 8 B. 6 C. 4

B

19. A 120-lb (55-kg) female field hockey player has the following test results: 1RM bench press: 155 lb (70 kg) 1RM back squat: 190 lb (86 kg) Vertical jump: 15 in. (38 cm) 1-minute sit-up test: 65 She is currently performing the following program: Back squat 3x5 @ 95% 5RM Leg (knee) curl 3x6 @10RM Incline bench press 3x5 @ 95% 5RM Upright row 2x8 @ 10RM Abdominal crunch 3x30 Which of the following exercises is the MOST important to introduce into her training program? A. goblet squat B. hang clean C. front plank

B

2. A national rugby player has completed his first resistance training macrocycle. Pre- and post-tests are as follows: Pretest Post-test Body Weight 190 lbs (86.4 kg) 210 lbs (95.45 kg) Bench Press 295 lbs (134.1 kg) 335 lbs (152.3 kg) Squat 310 lbs (140.9 kg) 360 lbs (163.6 kg) 40 m Sprint 5.18 s 5.16 s Vertical Jump 20.0 in (50.7 cm) 20.0 in (50.7 cm) Which of the following is the most appropriate explanation for a lack of change in the vertical jump? A. Lack of effort B. Increased body weight C. Inefficient training program

B

36. A 19 year old college baseball player was administered a battery of tests 2 months before the start of the season. Here are the results. Height: 5'10" Weight:190 lbs. 1RM Bench Press: 205 lbs. 1RM Squat: 285 lbs. Vertical Jump: 24 inches 40 yard Sprint: 4.9 seconds Sit and Reach: 20 inches Which of the following needs improvement? A. Speed and Flexibility B. Upper Body Strength only C. Upper Body Strength and Flexibility D. Flexibility only

B

7. Which of the following sequences will produce the MOST reliable results when testing? A. 1RM power clean, 1RM incline bench press, T-Test, 1-min sit-up test B. T-Test, 1RM power clean, 1RM incline bench press, 1-min sit-up test C. 1RM incline bench press, 1RM power clean, 1-min sit-up test, T-Test

B

All of the following are examples of Anaerobic Power/Maximum Muscular Power (High Speed Strength) tests EXCEPT? a) 1 RM Power Clean. b) 1 RM Bench Press. c) Vertical Jump Height. d) Time to sprint up a staircase.

B

7. Which of the following will improve the MOST with creatine monohydrate supplementation? A. 100-m sprint time B. squat strength C. volleyball jump performance

B 241-242

Which of the following refers to the degree of consistency or repeatability of a test? a) Measurement. b) Reliability. c) Variability. d) Validity.

B 252

All of the following tests would have good predictive validity for a potential soccer player EXCEPT? a) Sprinting speed. b) Muscular strength of the arms. c) Agility. d) Kicking power.

B 253

Which of the following tests is MOST appropriate for assessing a female volleyball player? A. 1 RM Bench Press. B. Vertical Jump. C. Sit and Reach. D. 40 yard sprint.

B 253

12. During an intense outdoor summer soccer practice, a player is seen to be sweating heavily and performing poorly. A coach identifies that the athlete has cold, clammy skin. Which of the following is the MOST likely condition? A. heat stroke B. heat exhaustion C. fatigue

B 256

A strength and conditioning professional is going to administer the following tests to a professional basketball player. 40 yard sprint. 1RM Bench Press. 1RM Squat. Vertical Jump. Hexagon Test. Skinfold Measurement. Sit and Reach. 12 minute Run. Which test should be administered on a separate day? A. Skinfold Measurement B. 12 minute run C. 40 yard sprint D. 1RM Squat"

B 257

You want to provide a measure of a running back's speed, tests of speed are usually not conducted over distances greater than which of the following? a) 50 m. b) 100 m. c) 800 m. d) 1600 m.

B 261

Which of the following is utilized to calculate the Reactive Strength Index? A. Jump Height X Contact Time. B. Jump Height / Contact Time. C. (Box Height -Jump Height) x Contact Time. D. (Box Height - Jump Height) / Contact Time.

B 271

A strength and conditioning professional is conducting the T-Test on high school running backs. The initial movement is a forward sprint and touch of a cone. Which of the following represents the next movement in the testing sequence? A. Turn and sprint to the left. B. Continue to face forward and shuffle to the left. C. Run backward to the starting point. D. Continue to face forward and shuffle to the right.

B 280

When performing the pro agility test the athlete initially sprints 5 yards to the line on the left. Which of the following maneuvers occurs next? A. Sprints 5 yards to the right. B. Sprints 10 yards to the right. C. Springs 5 yards forward. D. Sprints 10 yards forward.

B 282

Which of the following identifies the correct location and limb position to take right upper arm girth measurements? A. At the point of maximal circumference with the elbow fully flexed and arm abducted to parallel to the floor. B. At the point of maximal circumference with the elbow fully extended and arm abducted to parallel to the foor. C. At the point midway between the olecranon and acromion process with the elbow fully extended and arm abducted to parallel to the floor. D. At the point midway between the olecranon and acromion process with the elbow fully extended and arm perpendicular to the floor.

B 290

A college softball player was administered a battery of test 12 weeks before the start of the season. Here are the results Height: 5'6"" Weight: 120 lbs Percent Body Fat: 18.5% 1 RM Bench Press: 90 lbs 1 RM Squat: 150 lbs Vertical Jump: 19 inches Sit and Reach: 22.5 inches Which of the following should her program focus on?" A. Body Composition. B. Upper Body Strength. C. Muscular Power. D. Upper Body Strength and Body Composition.

B 295

48. A 20 year old collegiate female tennis player had the following test results. Height: 5"8" Weight: 126 lbs. 1RM Bench Press: 110 lbs. 1RM Squat: 120 lbs. Vertical Jump: 19 inches T-Test: 10.9 seconds 1.5 Mile Run: 14:20 Sit and Reach: 16.5 inches Which of the following exercises would be MOST beneficial to add to her training program? A. Dumbbell Bench Press and Power Clean B. Back Barbell Squat and Contract Relax PNF Stretching of her Hamstrings C. Back Barbell Squat and a 45 minute interval run with a work rest ratio of 1:1 D. Power Clean and Contract Relax PNF Stretching of her Hamstrings

B 295/306 Back Barbel 50 % = 126LBS Sit and Reach 50 % = 19" 1.5 Mile Run 50% = 14:04

47. Which of the following BEST identifies the joint actions during the upward phase of the push press exercise? A. rapidly flex the hips, knees and ankles while extending the arms to push the bar overhead B. rapidly extend the hips, knees and ankles and then the arms to push the bar overhead C. rapidly extend the arms overhead while a slightly flexed position at the hip and knees

B 400

38. Which of the following would represent a technique error during the performance of the snatch that would need correcting? I. Feet are placed shoulder width apart II. Shoulders behind the bar with eyes focused straight ahead III. Squatting down with the hips higher than the shoulders IV. Back flat, chest held up and out A. I and II only B. II and III only C. II, III, and IV only D. I, III, IV only

B 406

Which of the following are benefits of bodyweight training? I. Develops absolute strength. II. Often includes open chain based exercises. III. Is specific to each individuals anthropometrics. IV. Improves body control. A. I and II only. B. III and IV only. C. II, III, IV only. D. I, III, IV only.

B 411

32. A basketball player needs to increase his muscular strength. Which of the following protocols is MOST appropriate for him to use while performing the deadlift exercise? Load (%1RM) Goal repetitions Sets A. 80 8 3 B. 90 4 4 C. 95 4 3

B 452

32. Which of the following factors determine the primary energy system used during exercise? A. exercise intensity and exercise mode B. exercise intensity and exercise duration C. exercise duration and exercise mode

B 53-55

50. During a single exercise session, which of the following training variables should be decreased to produce a greater adenosine triphosphate (ATP) production capacity? A. duration B. intensity C. rest

B 53-55

44. Which of the following backpedaling techniques is the MOST appropriate? A. greater range of motion at the knee joint B. smaller range of motion at the hip joint C. initiate arm movement at the elbows

B 535,545

21. A 30-year old male athlete has a resting heart rate of 60 bpm. He wants to work at 80% to 90% of his maximal heart rate. Using the percentage of maximal heart rate method, what is his target heart rate range? A. 104-117 bpm B. 152-171 bpm C. 164-177 bpm

B 564

26. A 40-year-old female athlete has a resting heart rate of 80 bpm. She wants to exercise at an intensity of 60%. What is her target heart rate using the Karvonen method? A. 108 beats per minute B. 140 beats per minute C. 188 beats per minute

B 564

31. Using the Karvonen method, which of the following is the 10 second target heart rate range for a 37 year old male aerobically exercising at an intensity of 65-75% of his functional capacity if his resting heart rate is 58 bpm? A. 20-23 B. 30-33 C. 119-137 D. 177-195

B 564

24. A professional basketball player is in the middle of postseason competition. A game has been rescheduled due to inclement weather. Adjustments to his strength training program will affect which of the following? A. macrocycle B. microcycle C. mesocycle

B 587

5. While performing a squat under moderate loads, an athlete loses balance. The spotter is then injured when the weights slide off the end of the bar due to ill-fitting collars. The potential legal ramification of this incident is most likely which of the following? A. negligence on the part of the spotter B. negligence on the part of the strength and conditioning coach C. no one is at fault, it was an accident

B 647

7. Which of the following will MOST likely have the greatest impact on reducing the risk of litigation in a strength and conditioning facility? A. proper exercise technique instruction for athletes B. supervision of athletes by a qualified strength and conditioning professional C. a copy of strength and conditioning programs on file

B 652

all of the following actions during the ground support phase contribute to optimal stride length and frequency except: A) minimizing the horizongtal braking force; B) contacting the ground ahead of the center of gravity; C) maximzing the backward velocity of the leg; D) limiting the range of motion at the ankle

B) contacting the ground ahead of the center of gravity (should be directly beneath)

What is the correct distance for placement of weight trees from lifting equipment? a. 42 inches b. 36 inches c. 54 inches d. 28 inches

B: 36 inches. Weight trees should be limited to a distance of 36 inches from the lifting area. This will allow space between the equipment area and the plate storage area so that the loading and unloading of plates will not be hindered by limited space, and will also help to expedite the loading and unloading process by having the necessary space to move the necessary tonnage to and from the training area. This will ensure the safety of the athletes when loading and unloading plates during training

From the prescribed repetition schemes listed below, which will cause the greatest metabolic stress? a. 3x8 at 70 percent b. 6x6 at 85 percent c. 4x4 at 90 percent d. 4x8 at 70 percent

B: 6x6 at 85 percent In the examples provided, the greatest metabolic stress would occur when the athlete performs 6x6 at 85 percent training load intensity. The total training volume is higher than the other possible selections, but is also trained with a higher training load intensity than the other options, which will require significantly more recovery time before training again. Understanding the relationship between physiological responses and the impact of training load intensity and volume is the key to resistance training programs.

-1 When preparing for a training session or athletic event, what type of stretching should be avoided? a. Dynamic stretch b. Ballistic stretch c. Static stretch d. Active stretch

B: Ballistic stretch Ballistic stretching requires an athlete to be moving or producing muscular force/movement, and requires a rhythmic bouncing action at the end position. This is dangerous practice due to the activation of the stretch reflex generated by the bouncing action at the end position, as this extends the range of motion after each repetition and can result in damage to the connective and soft tissues of the joint and muscle. Activating the stretch reflex during stretching activities negates the purpose of stretching the tissues to facilitate increased range of motion, as the stretch reflex will increase muscular tension in response to the bouncing action.

When wanting to bring up a lagging body part either to overcome a muscular weakness or increase muscular size, what approach could the strength and conditioning coach insert into the training program for a four- to six-week period? a. Pre-exhaustion b. Compound set c. Circuit training d. Complex training

B: Compound set An athlete needing to improve a muscular weakness or increase the size of a particular muscle group would benefit significantly in a brief period of time from using a compound set approach for the affected muscle. Performing multiple movements in sequence to target the muscle group will now require the body to respond to significantly greater stresses to the body, as this method is primarily oriented to forcing the muscle to work for longer periods of time (under limited recovery conditions between movements) in order to increase nutrient delivery to the training muscle. This increase in blood flow to the muscle will promote growth via increased local protein synthesis, and when coupled with heavier training methods in the early part of the training session, this will allow the athlete to meet the training goal within the four- to six-week training block.

When adjusting a cam-, pulley-, or lever-based exercise machine, what is the most important consideration for the athlete's body position? a. Making sure the athlete is aligned with the angle of push or pull b. Ensuring the primary joint involved in an exercise is aligned with the axis of resistance c. Being sure to reduce injury possibilities by aligning the body correctly and reducing the weights lifted d. Discussing optimal body position and demonstrating proper movement execution

B: Ensuring the primary joint involved in an exercise is aligned with the axis of resistance The athlete must be in proper alignment in order for the desired joint to be loaded correctly with utmost safety and for optimal movement execution. To achieve this when using a machine or pulley system, a seat, ankle, arm, chest, or back pad may need to be adjusted.

-1 The preparatory phase is the longest training phase in a yearly macro-cycle. What is the primary emphasis for this training phase? a. Develop basic strength levels b. Establishing a baseline of conditioning c. Preparation for higher-intensity loading d. Initiation of higher training volumes

B: Establishing a baseline of conditioning. The primary focus of the preparation phase is to establish an initial level of conditioning for the athlete, as this will prepare the athlete for upcoming training phases that require higher intensity loading and higher training volumes. The preparatory phase is highlighted by LOWER training load INTENSITIES and HIGHER training VOLUMES, and NO sport-specific or skill training. This phase is strictly intended as a developmental stage for future training phases.

When attempting to develop speed-endurance, what component of the training program must be taken into account in order to improve this specifically? a. Total training time b. Exercise relief patterns c. Training volume d. Training frequency

B: Exercise relief patterns Properly administering exercise relief patterns during speed-endurance training sessions is very important because the work-to-rest ratio needs to be adequate to facilitate proper neurological patterns and to avoid premature fatigue, but also needs to challenge the athlete's metabolic responses in order to become fatigue resistant. To achieve proper work-to-rest ratios, the coach should monitor an athlete's technique when he engages in the training activity and tack the training volume from session to session.

-1 What factor should most heavily influence the type of progression method a strength and conditioning coach uses across the different sport seasons throughout the training program? a. Increasing training loads quickly b. Gradual training load increases c. Reducing injury d. Controlling training stress

B: Gradual training load increases Having a gradual and highly structured approach to training load increases throughout a training program will ensure consistent results and allow athletes to achieve their primary resistance training goals in each sport season. Using an approach such as the two-for-two rule provides structure for gradual training load increases by requiring the athlete perform two additional repetitions at an assigned training load above the prescribed repetitions on the final set and being able to achieve this result in two consecutive training sessions. Once this has been achieved, the training load will increase.

An athlete has been tested in a laboratory in order to assess her specific heart rate and training intensities. What approach would be best for determining the athlete's training intensities? a. Fick equation b. Heart-rate reserve c. Karvonen method d. Age-predicted maximal heart rate

B: Heart-rate reserve Heart rate reserve is the difference between an athlete's maximal heart rate, measured in a laboratory during exercise testing, and the resting heart rate. Because this process requires an athlete to undergo laboratory testing procedures to assess his actual maximal heart rate, this will allow the strength and conditioning coach to more accurately assign the training intensities for the athlete. This method is superior to age-predicted and Karvonen methods for estimating aerobic training intensities.

A track and field coach is designing a training program for one of his broad jumpers. In what order should the selected exercises be performed in this program? I. Power clean II. Hamstring curl III. Reverse hyper extension IV. Deadlift a. IV, I, III, II b. I, IV, III, II c. IV, III, I, II d. I, III, IV, II

B: I, IV, III, II The strength and conditioning coach must first take into account the needs of the athlete, and in this case the athlete is a broad jumper and will rely most heavily on the posterior chain to propel the body forward and to spring into action out and across the ground. The selected movements will develop the posterior chain sufficiently and will facilitate improvements in jumping distance. The proper training order must be from most demanding and complex to the least demanding and complex. The correct order for the selection given is power clean, deadlift, reverse hyperextension, and hamstring curl.

Which testing procedure represents the BEST layout for a test battery? I. 1-RM squat II. Pro-agility III. Pull-up test IV. 110-meter sprint test a. I, II, III, IV b. II, I, IV, III c. II, III, I, IV d. III, I, IV, II

B: II, I, IV, III. The proper order in the example provided is to do the pro-agility test first, as this test relies on coordinated movement and therefore should occur first prior to the accumulation of excessive fatigue due to the other testing procedures such as the 110-meter sprint. The 1-RM squat test would occur next, as this is a maximum strength and power test, and likewise must not occur after a test that accumulates excessive fatigue like the 110-meter sprint test. The 110-meter sprint test would occur next in the battery because this test requires the athlete to achieve maximal velocity; this test should not be placed after a test of local endurance, as fatigue accumulation would affect the testing procedure. The final test in the battery would be the local endurance test, as this test will accrue the highest localized muscular fatigue and would affect the other testing procedures if placed prior to any of the options listed. Proper testing order in a battery of tests is important, as activities that utilize differing energy systems or require significant levels of movement coordination create different types of fatigue that will limit performance on other test when not sequenced correctly.

When assessing a basketball player's one-legged jumping ability, the strength and conditioning coach notices the athlete does not jump very well off his left leg. What movement pattern and training strategy would the coach select to begin the process of correcting this issue? a. Include instability training using unstable surfaces b. Include unilateral lower-body movements c. Include partner stretching in the warm-up d. Include additional bilateral lower-body movements

B: Include unilateral lower-body movements Addressing a weakness that occurs on one side of the body is generally most effectively done by training that side of the body. In this example, adding in additional unilateral training volume will be sufficient to help improve the athlete's one-leg jumping ability. This will not create deficiency in the right side, as both sides will be trained using this approach. Using a unilateral approach does not movement patterns. The strength and conditioning coach may simply add the unilateral training to the program or reduce the bilateral training volume to compensate for the added training volume from the unilateral movements.

Balance between muscle groups is important when designing a training program. What possible negative outcomes are associated with poor muscle balance over the long term for an athlete? a. Reduction in total body power b. Increased injury rate c. Poor work capacity d. Decrease in athletic performance

B: Increased injury rate Without proper programming balance, the body will alter movement patterns in order to produce the necessary force needed to perform the lifts and perform in competition. These alterations, over time, will lead to increased injury rates. In order to prevent this from occurring, the strength and conditioning coach must build balance between the muscle groups at intersecting joints. This does not necessarily mean equalizing strength in antagonist muscle groups, but improving the strength ratios, e.g., hamstring to quadriceps strength at 3:4, which will prevent significant injuries and joint breakdown over time.

What is the primary role of the athletic trainer? a. Assigning training protocols to injured athletes b. Management and rehabilitation of injuries c. Performing anthropometric measurements d. Discussing injuries with strength and conditioning coach

B: Management and rehabilitation injuries. The primary role of the athletic trainer is to manage and rehabilitate injuries resulting from training, competition or other physical activity. The athletic trainer can also assign sport-specific exercises intended to prevent injuries, as well as apply prophylactic equipment for practice and competition in order to prevent injury or provide stability to an injured muscle or joint via bracing or taping.

When designing a training program, the first step for this process is to undertake what two-step task? a. Injury analysis b. Needs analysis c. Movement analysis d. Physiological analysis

B: Needs analysis Performing a needs analysis is a two-step process that requires the strength and conditioning coach to evaluate the movements and physiological requirements for a specific sport as well as evaluating the specific needs of the individual athlete. This process ensures accuracy in addressing the essential needs of competition, while also taking into account the specific needs of an individual athlete based on her injury history, training status, and physiological status.

Which of the terms listed below represent an area of legal concern that can be mitigated by a clearly outlined emergency care plan for a new strength and conditioning facility? a. Tort b. Negligence c. Statute of limitations d. Eligibility criteria

B: Negligence. Negligence refers to the failure of an individual to respond in a situation in an expected, logical manner as a person with similar training and background would respond under proximal circumstances. The importance of clearly outlining the emergency care plan is to establish the responsibilities and expectations of the staff members in the training facility. This can significantly mitigate problems that could arise regarding negligence or violating the standard-of-care expectations for people who should have the essential knowledge and understanding of how to handle challenging emergency situations.

When programming power and structural movements in the same session, what repetition ranges and training intensities will the strength and conditioning coach most likely assign? a. Power, 1-5 repetitions at 80-90 percent intensity; structural, 3-5 repetitions at 70-80 percent. b. Power, 3-5 repetitions at 75-85 percent; structural, 4-6 repetitions at 80-90 percent c. Power, 3-8 repetitions at 85-90 percent; structural, 10-12 repetitions at 75-85 percent d. Power, 1-5 repetitions at 70-80 percent; structural, 8-10 repetitions at 80-90 percent

B: Power, 3-5 repetitions at 75-85 percent; structural, 4-6 repetitions at 80-90 percent. When considering using both power and structural movements in a training session, training block, or throughout a training program, the key consideration is neurological fatigue. Power movements are extremely demanding on the nervous and metabolic systems due to technical and ballistic nature of these movements. This means programming the power movements in the program first is paramount, but also limiting the athletes to a training intensity that will allow multiple repetitions per set will generate the greatest performance benefit without risking excessive fatigue accumulation in the long term. Programming the structural movements for moderate loading intensities and training volume will cause significant performance increases as will, due to improving technical skill and developing the muscular strength without pushing the boundaries of neural and metabolic recovery.

During a pro-agility test, what must occur for the attempt to count? a. The athlete's hand must touch the cone b. The athlete's foot must touch each line c. The athlete must touch the base of each cone d. The athlete must run past each line

B: The athlete's foot must touch each line. During the pro-agility test, the athlete's foot must touch each line for the testing procedure to count. During this test, the athlete makes three separate changes in direction after a brief sprint. When attempting to run quickly, the athlete may stop short of the line, which means the strength and conditioning coach must be very attentive to the athlete's feet touching each line to qualify the time.

-1 What is the most important element to consider when determining the training frequency for an athlete? a. Sport season b. Training status c. Training split d. Exercise selection

B: Training status Determining an athlete's training status is the key element for determining training frequency. An athlete who does not have a significant training background will require fewer training sessions per week in order to facilitate improvements, while a more experienced and conditioned athlete will require greater frequency to stimulate progress.

When an athlete is lifting maximal or near-maximal loads throughout a training cycle, what is the most effective method for maintaining progress and balancing training stress? a. Alternating training loads b. Varied training load intensity c. Block training d. Varied training volume

B: Varied training load intensity The purpose of altering training loads and volumes over the course of a training program is to allow for adequate recovery of the muscles and central nervous system in order to avoid entering into an overtrained state. The strength and conditioning coach can avoid overtraining the athlete or athletes by reducing and rotating training loads of other training sessions after a "heavy" training session, i.e., "light" and "moderate," in order to facilitate recovery while sustaining training frequency and volumes. Rotating the loading parameters between light, heavy, and moderate can be used for a variety of training goals and frequencies, while also serving as a method for addressing the physical stress of practice or competition by applying this concept.

If equipment limitations are an issue at a training facility, what test could be used most effectively for determining maximum muscular power? a. Deadlift b. Vertical jump c. Pro-agility d. Margaria-Kalamen test

B: Vertical jump. If equipment limitations are an issue when wanting to test maximal anaerobic power, the vertical jump is the most cost-effective method. To test the vertical jump, you need a wall, a measuring tape or stick, and chalk. To perform the test, the athlete will stand flat-footed next to the testing wall and reach to mark, in chalk, the highest point possible with the dominant arm. Once this has been completed, the athlete will set her feet and jump as high as possible and set her chalk mark. After the two marks have been set the measurement can be taken to assess the height of the jump.

speed, agility

Because of high NM and motor coordination demands, ___ and ___ tasks should be completed early in training sessions.

speed, agility, 2-3

Because of high NM and motor coordination demands, ___ and ___ tasks should be completed early in training sessions. These tasks require __ to __ minute rest periods.

decreases

Being in sport season _______ the time in the gym

what is the 60% percentile of bench, squat, clean (if all applicable) of [men in basketball]?

Bench:230 squat:280 clean:220

D 631

Benches should be spaced so that there is a minimum of how many inches between barbell ends? a) 18 inches. b) 24 inches. c) 30 inches. d) 36 inches.

1. CV, thermoregulatory 2. mitochondrial energy, oxidative 3. fat, muscle glycogen 4. Type IIx → Type I 5. lactate, lactate threshold

Benefits from Long, Slow Distance (LSD) Training: 1. Enhanced ___ and ___ function. 2. Improved ___ production and ___ capacity of skeletal muscle. 3. Increased utilization of ___ as fuel source, sparing ___. 4. Eventual shift of Type ___ → Type ___ fibers. 5. All of the above changes increase ability to clear ___ or increasing ___.

1. running 2. anaerobic metabolism, aerobic training

Benefits of Pace/Tempo Training (Aka "Threshold" or "Aerobic/Anaerobic" Training: 1. Improved ___ economy 2. Enhanced ___, although it should not be used until a firm base of ___ is established.

1. VO₂ max 2. anaerobic, aerobic training

Benefits of interval training: 1. Increased ___ 2. Enhanced ___ metabolism, although it should not be used until a firm base of ___ is established.

1. speed, economy 2. anaerobic 3. kick/push (ex: sprint at finish line)

Benefits of repetition training (REPS) 1. Improved running ___ and ___ 2. Increased capacity for tolerance of ___ metabolism 3. Good for ___ of aerobic endurance race

1. Faster recovery 2. overuse 3. imbalances

Benefits that aerobic athletes will get from resistance training: 1. ___ from injury 2. Prevention of ___ injuries 3. Reduction of muscle ___

power clean, structural and explosive

Best exercise for jumping? hip sled, back squat or power clean

rubberized flooring

Best flooring material under free weights

A 421

Bilateral facilitation during the performance of a front barbell squat leads to which of the following? A. Increased voluntary activation of the agonist muscle group. B. Decreased voluntary activation of the agonist muscle group. C. Asymmetries in force production between the quadriceps muscle group. D. Increased voluntary activation of the antagonist muscle group.

1. Knee 2. Hip 3. Trunk 4. Shoulder 5. Ankle joints

Both static & PNF stretching has shown to increase flexibility in what joints? (5)

44. A running back is performing the barbell bench press when the bar slips out of his right hand and comes crushing down on his throat. He begins coughing up blood and loses consciousness. Luckily, the strength and conditioning director was spotting him. Which of the following actions should IMMEDIATELY be taken? I. Call the head football coach II. Call 911 III. Move him to the locker room IV. Administer CPR if he is not breathing A. I, II, III B. II,III C. II, IV D. I, II, III, IV

C

A strength and conditioning professional will be administering a 3 mile run to the lacrosse team in 91° heat. Which of the following guidelines should be followed in order to minimize the health risks associated with these conditions? A. Allow the athletes 1 day to acclimatize to the heat. B. Make sure the athletes are well hydrated 8 hours before the test. C. Measure the relative humidity. D. Instruct the athletes to wear tight fitting dark clothing.

C 253

You are about to perform a sequence of tests on a male basketball player. The tests are vertical jump, skinfold measurements, 1 RM back squat, and T-Test. What should be the proper sequence of these tests? a) T-Test, 1 RM back squat, Vertical jump, Skinfold measurements b) Skinfold measurements, T-Test, 1 RM back squat, Vertical jump c) Skinfold measurements, Vertical jump, T-Test, 1 RM back squat d) T-Test, 1 RM back squat, Skinfold measurements, Vertical jump"

C 256

In order to test the aerobic capacity of the members of the women's soccer team, a collegiate strength and conditioning specialist could utilize which of the following tests? A. 300 yard shuttle. B. Hexagon Test. C. Yo-Yo Intermittent Recovery Test. D. Margaria-Kalamen Test.

C 278

When is the Yo-Yo Intermittent Recovery Test Terminated? A. The first time the start line is not reached. B. After 15 minutes. C. Inability of an athlete to maintain the required pace for two trials. D. After 400 m.

C 278

Which of the following would cause a trial of the Star Excursion Balance Test to be discarded? I. Athlete remains facing in the beginning direction. II. Athlete maintains start and return position for 1 second. III. Athlete rests 30 seconds between reaches. IV. Athlete does not touch the line. A. I, II, IV only B. II, IV only C. III, IV only D. II, III, IV only"

C 285

What measure of central tendency is represented by the score that occurs with the greatest frequency? a) Mean. b) Median. c) Mode. d) Average.

C 291

6. A female collegiate basketball forward in her junior year is administered a battery of tests. The results are shown below: Height: 69 in. (175 cm) Weight: 150 lb (68 kg) Percent body fat: 20% 1RM bench press: 100 lb (45 kg) 1RM squat: 215 lb (98 kg) Vertical jump: 19 in. (48 cm) Which of the following needs improvement? A. body composition B. anaerobic power C. upper body strength

C 295 average male 16 - 20 average female 12 - 16

A high school soccer player was tested during the offseason and here are the results Height: 5'9" Weight: 158 lbs 1 RM Bench Press: 190 lbs 1 RM Squat: 245 lbs T-Test: 12 seconds Sit and Reach: 15 inches Vertical Jump: 25 inches 40 yard Sprint: 4.7 seconds Which of the following needs improvement? A. Muscular strength and power. B. Muscular power and speed. C. Agility and Flexibility. D. Flexibility and Speed.

C 305/311

5. A college baseball player was tested ten weeks before the start of the season with these results: Height: 6 ft, 0 in. (182 cm) Weight: 212 lb (96 kg) 1 RM bench press: 275 lb (125 kg) 1 RM squat: 325 lb (147 kg) Vertical jump: 24 in. (61 cm) T-Test: 11.6 sec 40-yard (37-m) sprint: 4.8 sec 1-minute sit-up: 37 Which of the following need improvement? A. agility and muscular strength B. power and local muscular endurance C. agility and local muscular endurance

C 311 Recreational athletes =10.31 1 minute sit-up: 35-38 = average

A nutritionist is testing a male basketball player using the Jackson Pollack 3 site body composition formula. Which of the following skinfold sites should be used? A. Triceps, suprailiac, thigh. B. Triceps, abdomen, thigh. C. Chest, abdomen, thigh. D. Abdomen, subscapular, calf.

C 314

A punter is utilizing static stretches to increase his hamstring length, how long should this type of stretching be held at the point of minor discomfort? a) 15 sec. b) 20 sec. c) 30 sec. d) 1 minute.

C 322

A track sprinter performing long walking strides that emphasize hip extension would be utilizing what type of stretching? a) Static. b) Ballistic. c) Dynamic. d) PNF.

C 324

All of the following are types of basic PNF stretching EXCEPT? a) Hold-Relax. b) Contract-Relax. c) Hold-Relax with Antagonist Contraction. d) Hold-Relax with Agonist Contraction.

C 327

Which of the following exercises would the valsalva maneuver be most useful to an athlete trying to maintain proper vertebral alignment and support? a) wrist curl. b) knee extension. c) standing shoulder press. d) triceps pressdown.

C 353

You are spotting an athlete during the bench press and move the bar from the upright supports to a position in which the athlete can begin the exercise. This is called? a) scoop. b) pull. c) liftoff. d) dip.

C 356

Which of the following activities would be classified as bodyweight training? I. Gymnastics. II. Sit-Ups . III. Tire Flip. IV. Yoga. A. I and II only. B. II and III only. C. I, II, and IV only. D. II, III, and IV only.

C 410

The strength and conditioning professional is selecting exercises to target the core of a 20 year old female basketball player. Performance of which of the following exercises will also improve sports performance? I. Plank. II. Deadlift. III. Push-Up. IV. Push-Press. A. I, II, and IV only. B. I and III only. C. II and IV only. D. I, II, and III only.

C 411

11. Which of the following factors should be determined FIRST when designing a training program for a rugby team? A. exercise order B. goal repetitions C. metabolic demands

C 441

2. A male collegiate volleyball player is performing lower-body plyometric drills that are of high intensity in the strength and conditioning facility. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate surface? A. carpet B. turf C. rubber floor

C 482/627

47. An athlete is trying to determine the correct seat height on a stationary cycle. Which of the following is MOST appropriate with the pedal in the bottom position? A. placing the toes on the pedal with no bend in the knee B. placing the heel on the pedal with a 10° bend in the knee C. placing the heel on the pedal with no bend in the knee

C 576

25. Which of the following is an appropriate rest interval for a 1600m runner performing 400m high-intensity intervals at greater than V02 max in 53 seconds? A. 53 seconds B. 1 minute 46 seconds C. 4 minutes 25 seconds D. 8 minutes 50 seconds

C 60

3. Which of the following rest periods is MOST appropriate for a middle distance runner performing 800-m running intervals in 2 min? A. 2 min B. 4 min C. 6 min

C 60

30. An athlete wants to train the glycolytic and aerobic energy systems. Which of the following rest periods is the MOST appropriate if she performs work intervals of 60 sec in duration? A. 1 min B. 2 min C. 3 min

C 60 (1:3 work:rest)

4. Which of the following will optimize traffic flow in a strength and conditioning facility? A. pathways with a width of 24 in (61 cm) B. spacing equipment at least 36 in (91 cm) apart C. arrangement of the equipment

C 629

40. Which of the following responsibilities would be MOST important for the Strength and Conditioning Director? A. Assist in cleaning of the facility B. Enforce facility rules C. Stay updated on the latest strength and conditioning research D. Assist with spotting

C 644

8. Which of the following is given FIRST priority when setting up a weight room schedule? A. off-season athletes B. pre-season athletes C. in-season athletes

C 653

56. Which of the following adaptations results from heavy resistance training? A. increased capillary density B. decreased triglyceride storage capacity C. increased Type II fiber cross-sectional area

C 90

18. A female, college-age athlete began a strength and conditioning program 8 weeks ago. In the weeks following, she continues to see gains in her strength. Which of the following MOST likely contributes to this change? A. improved neuromuscular efficiency B. conversion of Type I to Type II muscle fibers C. increased size of muscle fibers

C 93

When performing power cleans, the bar is caught in what position? a. Full squat b. Legs straight c. 1/4 squat d. 1/2 squat

C: 1/4 squat After reaching triple extension and completing the second pull, the athlete pulls the body under the bar and rotates the arms under and around the bar. At this point, the hips and knees are flexed to a quarter squat position. Once the bar reaches the clavicle and is stopped, the athlete stands from the quarter squat position, thus completing the lift. The quarter squat is preferred over the full catch position because of the inherent injury risks of performing a highly skilled movement pattern with athletes not required to perform this skill often or with significant benefit over the quarter squat catch position.

-1 What percentage of the one-repetition maximum will generally allow an athlete to complete eight repetitions per work set? a. 86 percent b. 78 percent c. 82 percent d. 90 percent

C: 82 percent An athlete training in the 80 percent loading intensity range should generally be able to perform eight repetitions. Using a percentage of the 1-repetition maximum chart will provide significant guidance for assigning training load intensities when working in specific repetition ranges. For example, an athlete can be assigned to use a training load intensity prescription of 75-83 percent when assigned 7-10 repetitions per set, according to the 1- repetition maximum chart.

What is the prescribed push-up testing standard from the American College of Sports Medicine? a. As many repetitions as possible in a two-minute period b. As many repetitions as possible in a 60-second period c. As many repetitions as possible, performed continuously, until failure d. As many repetitions as possible, resting at peak when necessary, for two minutes

C: As many repetitions as possible, performed continuously, until failure. The American College of Sports Medicine standard for the push-up assessment is for the participant to perform as many repetitions as possible in a continuous fashion until failure. There is no time consideration for the testing procedure, and it is simply a test of local muscle endurance in the chest, shoulders, and triceps.

When outlining professional responsibilities in the strength and conditioning facility, what position is responsible for supervising the training sessions for the athletes? a. Athletic trainer b. Graduate assistant strength and conditioning coach c. Assistant strength and conditioning coach d. Head coach of athlete's sport

C: Assistant strength and conditioning coach. The assistant strength and conditioning coach will possess many of the same responsibilities as the strength and conditioning director, but may not directly oversee the training and development of as many athletic teams. The assistant strength and conditioning coach should achieve and maintain the necessary certification credentials, as there is no differentiation from the facility or university professional standards and guidelines from those expected of the strength and conditioning director.

A triple jumper is completing training preparations for the World Championships in four weeks. what phase of preparation is the triple jumper in at this point in the training program? a. Competition; maintenance b. Competition; end preparation c. Competition; peaking d. Competition; transition preparation

C: Competition; peaking. When preparing an athlete for a single competitive event, the proper approach is to engage in a peaking strategy that will push the athlete's performance to the highest level possible for a three-week period. The peaking strategy differs from a maintenance approach of moderate intensity and moderate volumes, as this period calls for very high intensity and very low training volumes to maximize the necessary characteristics for competition.

If a marathon runner uses a four- to six-week training block to swim and cycle, this is considered to be what kind of training? a. Alternative training b. Neural reprogramming c. Cross-training d. General endurance training

C: Cross-training An endurance athlete engaging in alternate methods from event-specific training is considered cross-training. Cross-training for brief training segments in a competition year can assist with the recovery from injury or with general recovery during intense periods of competition preparation. This approach to breaking up training segments allows for the muscles to be trained in a different manner and provides relief to joints that may be overexposed to stress from preparation for competition.

-1 Which of the athletes listed below would benefit MOST from a circuit training approach? a. In-season basketball player b. Marathon runner c. Deconditioned football player d. Off-season golfer

C: Deconditioned football player In this example, the deconditioned football player would benefit the most from circuit training, as this will allow him to perform a high volume of work with minimum rest periods, which will contribute to improving muscular endurance and work capacity in the upper and lower body, while also enhancing cardiorespiratory fitness. If the athlete is overweight, this approach will also contribute to shedding the excess body fat.

When an athlete drops from the top of a box and first makes contact with the ground, what are the phases of the stretch-shortening cycle after ground contact has occurred? a. Reactive, transition, and concentric b. Eccentric, transition, rebound c. Eccentric, amortization, concentric d. Reactive, amortization, rebound

C: Eccentric, amortization, concentric After an athlete contacts the ground, the agonist muscles are preloaded, storing elastic energy, and stimulate the muscle spindle (eccentric). After the muscles are preloaded and the energy has been stored, there is a momentary pause in muscle action (amortization). If the amortization phase is brief, then the greater the stored energy release will be, but if this phase is too long, then the energy will be significantly less. The final phase (concentric) occurs when the stored energy is released at the same time as the contraction of the affected muscles, which increases the force of the movement or is dissipated as heat.

The feasibility study establishes what essential element for the strength and conditioning facility? a. Determines facility demographics b. Outlines services to be provided c. Establishes total cost d. Assesses existing locations for facility

C: Establishes total cost. The feasibility study is primarily intended to assess the costs of building and establishing the necessary components of a strength and conditioning facility. The feasibility study also serves to assess the conceptual strengths and weaknesses of a facility as a secondary focus in order to determine its practical viability and to make changes to the initial business plan and concept.

After performing the essential assessments of an athlete's strength, balance, and speed, what is the next step in the process a plyometric program evaluation? a. Perform a vertical jump test to establish a vertical jump baseline b. Assess movement and flexibility of the athlete c. Evaluate the athlete's jumping technique d. Perform multiple jumps in place to assess athlete's elasticity

C: Evaluate the athlete's jumping technique After the completion of an evaluation of an athlete's balance, strength , and speed, the coach should proceed to evaluating the athlete's jumping technique, as this would be necessary first step in attempting to develop a plyometric program. If the coach is not aware of movement errors in the athlete's jump, then the training program will not be successful.

Which of the listed options below is representative of steps an athlete should take to return to normal training processes during the remodeling phase after an injury? a. Isotonic strengthening to dynamic stretching b. Concentric strength to eccentric strength c. Flexibility to eccentric strength d. Rapid isotonic strengthening to dynamic stretching

C: Flexibility to eccentric strength. correctly developing the necessary flexibility and strength capacities to return to training and competition is essential during the remodeling phase of injury recovery. The proper procedure for returning an athlete to normal training includes transitioning from an emphasis on flexibility to developing eccentric strength in the affected muscle to ensure the injured muscle's ability to load without creating too much stress in the injured tissues.

Under what conditions is using the Valsalva maneuver appropriate and inappropriate? I. Experienced and properly resistance-trained athletes II. Under maximal loading during structural exercise III. Under heavy loading during assistance exercises IV. When performing heavy-resistance abdominal exercises a. I and IV b. II and III c. I and II d. II and IV

C: I and II The Valsalva maneuver is appropriate to use with athletes who have been properly trained on movement skill and execution, and those who have substantial training experience. Secondarily, structural exercises that load the spine will require use of the Valsalva maneuver in some cases in order to properly stabilize the spine when under heavy training loads.

-1 When determining the methods to include in a sprint training program, where do sprinting, sprint assistance, mobility, and endurance training fall in order of importance? I. Sprinting II. Endurance training III. Sprint assistance IV. Mobility a. I, III, II, IV b. I, IV, III, II c. I, III, IV, II d. I, II, III, IV

C: I, III, IV, II The correct hierarchy for developing speed and agility is making sure to properly orient the methodology, which means establishing the primary, secondary, and tertiary methods for inclusion in the program. This would place primary methods first, which consist of sprint and agility training to acquire the correct technical skill and develop the basic patterns first in the training program. Secondary methods would include using specialized techniques to develop acceleration, maximal velocity, or other special skills, and utilizing sprint assistance or sprint resistance techniques to achieve this end. Tertiary methods for developing an athlete's sprint and agility capacities would include mobility, strength, and endurance training.

Using a superset approach to a training program can be most beneficial during what part of the sport season? a. Off-season b. Pre-season c. In-season d. Post-season

C: In-season Using a superset approach during the in-season training program is the best time of year to include this approach, as this increases the amount of work performed in a brief window of time. During the in-season training period, time is at a premium due to other obligations that include practice, film study, position and team meetings, etc. Using a superset approach will allow the athlete to train with great focus and intensity for a brief period of time, and this will benefit the athlete during the season by maintaining strength, stamina, and other work capacities that may decrease during the season.

What would be an appropriate primary resistance goal for a lacrosse player in the off-season, which is eight weeks in length? a. Adding 30 lbs. to overhead press b. Increasing bench press from 315 lbs. to 385 lbs. c. Increasing deadlift from 405 lbs. to 415 lbs. d. Increasing power clean from 265 lbs. to 300 lbs.

C: Increasing deadlift from 405 lbs. to 415 lbs. When setting resistance training goals, the most important factor is ensuring that the final resistance training goal is attainable in the current sport season. In the example provided, the desire to add 15 lbs. to the deadlift is a reasonable goal in the allotted time frame for the off-season training period. This goal, unlike the others provided, will not require the athlete to engage in any special behaviors or to access substances or specialized training methods in order to obtain it.

When setting up for the bench press, which of the body positions below is NOT one of the five points of body contact? a. Right foot is flat on the floor b. Shoulders and upper back are on bench c. Lower back is highly arched to increase spinal stability d. buttocks are firmly and evenly placed on bench

C: Lower back is highly arched to increase spinal stability The lower back is highly arched, which suggests there is no contact with the bench or back pad and is not considered to be part of the five points of body contact in the supine position. The five points of body contact when performing supine resistance exercises start with the head being firmly in place on the bench or back pad, the buttocks place evenly on the bench or seat and under the hips, with the right and left foot placed firmly and flatly on the floor.

If a strength and conditioning coach wants to improve sprint speed, what type of plyometric drills would be most effective over a six-week plyometric program? a. Lower-body plyometrics; jumps in place; box jumps for height b. Lower-body plyometrics; jumps over an object; standing jumps c. Lower-body plyometrics; horizontal bounding; single-leg jumps d. Lower-body plyometrics; single-leg jumps in place; single-leg jumps for height

C: Lower-body plyometrics; horizontal bounding; single-leg jumps Developing sprint speed, which is considered a form of horizontal single-leg bounding, can be achieved effectively using a combination of horizontal bounding and single-leg jumps. These exercises can also be included in a sprinting program prior to sprint technique and speed work.

-1 When evaluating the work performed by an athlete during a training session, what essential factor must be most accurately assessed? a. Mechanical loading b. External loading c. Metabolic energy d. Time

C: Metabolic energy Physical work is simply the force needed to move an object one meter (work= force x displacement). When assessing the work performed by an athlete, the amount of energy, via metabolic energy, required to perform the work prescribed is absolutely necessary because the metabolic stress on the athlete will require sufficient time for recovery and regeneration across multiple physiological systems.

Which muscle structure is responsible for providing reflex responses to sudden changes in muscle tension? a. Extrafusal muscle fiber b. Golgi tendon organ c. Muscle spindle d. Pacinian corpuscle

C: Muscle spindle A muscle spindle is responsible for providing feedback to motor neurons of the spine when a sudden stretching action occurs. After the signal is sent from the muscle spindle to the motor neuron of the spine, the motor neuron then generates a muscular action of the stretched muscle. This is a response arch that occurs as part of the stretch reflex.

When assigning training volumes during periods of maximal or near-maximal lifting intensities, a coach must consider what specific element when completing a program outline? a. Increasing total training volumes for the week b. Current strength levels of the athletes c. Need for increased recovery time d. Decreasing rest periods

C: Need for increased recovery time Athletes who train with maximal or near-maximal lifting intensities will require longer recovery times between training sessions. This is necessary because of the neural and muscular fatigue that occurs when lifting a heavy training intensities.

-1 During warm-ups, a lacrosse player notices that his right hamstring is a bit tighter than normal, so he spends an extra five minutes of the warm-up period performing light static and dynamic stretching. He is able to play and presents with little to no evidence of having any remaining hamstring stiffness. The athlete has taken advantage of what muscle quality? a. Tension b. Autogenic inhibition c. Plasticity d. Elasticity

C: Plasticity Muscular plasticity is the capacity of a muscle to be gradually stretched in order to achieve a new and greater length after passive or static stretching action. This allows for the stiffness in the athlete's hamstring to be reduced to manageable levels in order to facilitate a high level of performance and reduce apprehensions of sustaining an injury. Elasticity is the ability to return to a specific resting length after a passive stretching

What is the primary reason for including an unloading week in a training program? a. Acclimate to higher training loads during the current training phase b. Allow the body to recuperate during a week off c. Prepare the athlete for demands of next training phase d. Provide a break from training during a competitive season

C: Prepare the athlete for demands of next training phase. An unloading week is intended to reduce overall training stress on the athlete prior to engaging in the next phase of the training period. This is generally intended to allow the athlete to recuperate sufficiently and begin to express some, if not all, of the trained capacities of the prior phase. This concept serves as a means for one phase to build on top of another and to avoid overreaching in the short term and overtraining in the long term. An unloading week can be very useful for athletes moving: 1. From a hypertrophy phase (with significant volumes) to a combination strength/hypertrophy phase (with higher loading and increased training volumes) or 2. From a strength phase heading into a competition period

What determines the energy systems used during a training session? a. Loading intensity b. Injury history c. Session duration d. Athlete's training capacity

C: Session duration The duration, or total training time, will determine the energy systems utilized during a training session. The body's ability to use multiple energy systems to meet the specific needs of an individual fall within a finite time frame for each system, e.g., the phosphagen system persists for approximately six to eight seconds, while aerobic glycolysis can produce energy for several hours.

When designing a plyometric training program for younger athletes, what should focus of the program be? a. Increased power b. Increased horizontal jumping distance c. Skill acquisition and neuromuscular control d. Skill acquisition and movement-specific strength

C: Skill acquisition and neuromuscular control Considerations for younger athletes include emphasizing development of proper technical movement patterns, neuromuscular control, and anaerobic skills necessary to participate in athletic endeavors. Younger athletes will require progression from simple movement skills to more complex skills over time, and consideration for development in the areas of power, strength, and other measurable elements will benefit from the time spent developing proper movement skill and technique execution.

When evaluating athlete readiness for engaging in a plyometric program, what are the primary considerations? a. Balance, strength, flexibility, speed b. Balance, technique, flexibility, strength c. Strength, technique, balance, speed d. Flexibility, technique, strength, speed

C: Strength, technique, balance, speed Prior to initiating a plyometric training program, an athlete must be assessed for sufficient balance, strength, and speed while also possessing an understanding of proper plyometric technique. These are mandatory elements that must be present prior to initiating a plyometric training program to reduce the risk of injury, as plyometric movements are high-force, high-velocity movements that carry significant risk if performed incorrectly or with athletes who are not adequately prepared to perform these exercises.

What is the primary factor for achieving maximal sprint velocities? a. Stride length b. Arm swing c. Stride frequency d. Length of recovery phase

C: Stride frequency Stride frequency is the primary determinant of an athlete's maximal velocity due to greater change in stride frequency as speed reaches maximal velocity, as stride length is relatively unchanged at maximal velocity.

When establishing baseline testing values, what is the key element for accurately tracking changes over time? a. Testing frequency b. Regimented time periods between testing procedures c. Testing in similar conditions d. Duration of the testing process

C: Testing in similar conditions. To accurately collect testing data over a period of time, testing conditions must be similar to the original testing period. Adverse testing conditions will affect the athlete being tested, e.g., extreme hot/cold or rainy weather, as will testing on different ground surfaces. Another element for testing is to make sure that the athlete is properly hydrated and properly fed, i.e., not fasted or recently fed. Testing conditions should closely resemble each other as much as possible.

When performing a data analysis on the effectiveness of the strength and conditioning program for three similar female sports - Volleyball, basketball, and sprinter and jumpers - the strength and conditioning director should use what statistical approach to the data? a. Central tendency b. Difference score c. Variability d. Descriptive statistics

C: Variability Using variability to assess a large statistical sample is the best approach to evaluating the effectiveness of the program for the total group sample. Standard deviation will separate the data, if the data is normal, which is most probable, according to the best and least responsible in the training program. This will clearly provide insight into the global effectiveness of the program, but not on an individual basis. A program may have some very poor performers, e.g., college freshman with little training experience, who make substantial progress but are still considered below average according to a variability analysis.

A 149

Compared to young adults, older adults display which of the following? A. Less muscle mass and a higher proportion of Type I muscle fibers. B. More muscle mass and a higher proportion of Type I muscle fibers. C. More muscle mass and a higher proportion of Type II muscle fibers. D. Less muscle mass and a higher proportion of Type II muscle fibers.

3 to 5 8 minutes

Complete resynthesis of ATP appears to occur within _____ minutes and complete creatine phosphate resynthesis can occur within ___ minutes

1. previous injury 2. abnormalities of spine* 3. abnormalities of lower extremity** 4. abnormalities of upper extremity** *vertebral disk dysfunction **hx of muscle strains, pathological joint laxity

Conditions or abnormalities to consider when prescribing a plyo program (4)

B 416

Correctly applying resistance bands to the back barbell squat achieves which of the following? A. Tension at bottom of the squat. B. No Tension at the bottom of the squat. C. No Tension at the top of the squat. D. Greatest Tension during the mid-range of the squat.

37. Which of the following goal repetitions and rest periods would BEST promote muscular hypertrophy? A. 5 repetitions and 3 minute rest periods B. 5 repetitions and 1 minute rest periods C. 8 repetitions and 3 minute rest periods D. 10 repetitions and 1 minute rest periods

D

Which of the following refers to the degree to which a test or test item measures what it is supposed to measure? a) Measurement. b) Reliability. c) Variability. d) Validity.

D 250

Which of the following would be the most valid test for measuring a volleyball player's muscular power? a) 1 RM Bench Press. b) 100-m Sprint. c) 1 mile run. d) Vertical Jump.

D 253

When administering a battery of tests to a high school quarterback, which of the following sequences will produce the most reliable results? A. 300 yard shuttle, T-Test, 1RM Bench Press, 1RM Power Clean. B. 1RM Bench Press, 1RM Power Clean, T-Test, 300 yard shuttle. C. 1RM Power Clean, 1 RM Bench Press, 300 yard shuttle, T-Test. D. T-Test, 1RM Power Clean, 1RM Bench Press, 300 yard shuttle.

D 256

You would like to test a freshmen soccer player's aerobic capacity, which of the following activities would be the best measure? a) 100 meter dash. b) 200 meter dash. c) 400 meter dash. d)1600 meter dash.

D 261

Which of the following is a measure of high speed strength? A. 1 RM Back Squat. B. T-Test. C. Straight-Line Sprint Test. D. Standing Long Jump.

D 267

When administering the partial curl up test, the strength and conditioning professional should set the metronome to how many beats per minute? A. 10. B. 20. C. 30. D. 40.

D 274

When taking skinfolds of an athlete the midaxilla measurement is represented by which of the following? a) Diagonal fold on the midaxillary line at the level of the nipples. b) Vertical fold on the midaxillary line at the level of the nipples. c) Diagonal fold on the midaxillary line at the level of the xiphoid process. d) Vertical fold on the midaxillary line at the level of the xiphoid process.

D 288

A female collegiate soccer player was administered a battery of tests, and here are the results. Height: 5'8" Weight: 137 lbs. 1RM Bench Press: 110 lbs . 1RM Squat: 155 lbs. Vertical Jump: 18 inches. T-Test: 10.6 seconds. V02 Max: 33ml/kg/min. Which of the following needs improvement? A. Muscular Power. B. Upper Body Strength. C. Agility. D. Aerobic Capacity.

D 295 VO2 Max 50% = 37.8

A 5'10‖ 187 lb. college football defensive back was administered a battery of tests and had the following results. 1RM Bench Press: 265 lbs 1RM Squat: 320 lbs T-Test: 8.6 seconds Standing Long Jump: 65 inches Sit and Reach Test: 21.5 inches 1.5 mile run: 9:59 seconds A. Barbell Bench Press. B. Contract Relax PNF Stretching of his hamstrings. C. Long Slow Distance Training of 5 kilometers. D. Power Clean.

D 296/300 Standing Long Jump 50% = 110"

A 16 year old female basketball player had a standing long jump of 66 inches? How would this performance be classified in comparison to other girls her age competing in sports? A. Poor. B. Below Average. C. Average. D. Excellent.

D 300 50% = 57" Male 50% = 69"

All of the following affect flexibility EXCEPT? a) Age and Sex. b) Joint Structure and Muscle Bulk. c) Age and Activity Level. d) Race and Height.

D 321

Contracting the hamstrings muscle group while it is passively being stretched stimulates the Golgi Tendon Organ and allows which of the following? a) Relaxation of the hamstrings muscle group by relaxing the hip flexors. b) Relaxation of the hip flexors by contracting the hamstrings. c) Relaxation of the hip flexors by the contraction of the hip flexors. d) Relaxation of the hamstrings by contraction of the hamstrings.

D 325

In order to stretch her hamstring muscle group a college soccer player asks a partner to passively move her hip into flexion, after a 10 s stretch the partner continues to move the leg further into hip flexion while the soccer player resists the movement, after 6 s she relaxes and the partner further moves her leg into hip flexion. This type of stretching is referred to as? a) Static. b) Ballistic. c) Dynamic. d) PNF.

D 325

A golfer would like to incorporate PNF stretching into his program to improve his flexibility, and asks you what the most effective PNF stretching technique is? a) Hold-Relax. b) Contract-Relax. c) Hold-Relax with Antagonist Contraction. d) Hold-Relax with Agonist Contraction.

D 327

A softball player elects to use the vertical (machine) chest press, in order to ensure proper alignment for the exercise the handles should be at the level of what anatomical landmark? a) Clavicle. b) Elbows. c) Belly Button. d) Nipples.

D 375

46. Which of the following is a technique error during the performance of the barbell upright row? A. Grasp the bar with a closed pronated grip B. Rest the bar on the front of the thighs with the elbows extended C. Pull the bar along the abdomen D. As the bar rises keep the elbows tucked to the sides

D 396

When are instability devices best utilized for core training? A. With trained athletes to maximize movement velocity. B. With trained athletes to maximize force production. C. With trained athletes to maximize rate of force production. D. With trained athletes to rehabilitate from injury.

D 413

an athlete just completed a training cycle that focused on speed training. When applying the sequenced training strategy, which of the following training goals or exercise modes is the most appropriate to choose or prioritize for the NEXT training cycle: a) agility; b) plyometrics; c) SSC; d) strength

D) strength

Which testing procedure would be the BEST option for assessing an athlete's speed? a. 400-meter sprint b. T-test c. Pro-agility test d. 150-meter sprint

D: 150-meter sprint The best test to assess an athlete's speed is the 150-meter sprint. When assessing an athlete's maximal speed, the testing procedure requires a straight line on a flat surface, with the final distance not surpassing the 200-meter mark. The reasoning behind limiting the distance of the testing procedure is because going beyond 200 meters becomes a test of anaerobic capacity and not straight-line maximal velocity. The additional distance violates the purpose and focus of the testing procedure.

-1 Rest periods are extremely important for allowing muscular and neural recovery between sets. What is the suggested rest period for an athlete performing four sets of 12 repetitions in the squat? a. 2-5 minutes b. 1-2 minutes c. 45 seconds d. 20 seconds

D: 20 seconds The recommended rest period for athletes training to enhance muscular endurance is less than or equal to 30 seconds. This is intentional in order to perform large amounts of work in a brief period of time, which will enhance an athlete's ability to sustain effort over time. This is also a result of the percentage of 1RM that is recommended, as lighter training loads (<70 percent) can be lifted for a higher total number of repetitions per set than heavier training loads.

When performing a PNF hamstring stretching exercise, an athlete contracts the hamstring and then relaxes the muscle in order to facilitate the passive stretch. How long should the stretch be applied by the partner? a. 5 seconds b. 60 seconds c. 20 seconds d. 30 seconds

D: 30 seconds The correct time frame for PNF stretching techniques is 30 seconds. This is primarily to allow for an increased range of motion to be sustained for a period of time long enough to increase the range of motion but not enough to elicit a negative response by increasing muscular tension due to stretching the muscle too far and for too long.

-1 In the off-season training program, how often should the athlete resistance train? a. 2-3 training sessions per week b. 5-7 training sessions per week c. 3-4 training sessions per week d. 4-6 training sessions per week

D: 4-6 training sessions per week During the off-season training program, an athlete should be training as frequently as possible, with four sessions per week being the bare minimum. More experienced athletes should train more frequently in order to stimulate progress, as training program as the athlete matures in training age and experience. The other aspect in consideration is the lack of other activities to distract from the training program, as there are no sport-specific activities the athlete is engaging in and recovery from session to session can be maximized because energy is solely directed to the training program.

What is the suggested square-footage recommendation for the stretching area, per athlete? a. 36-square-foot area b. 58-square-foot area c. 40-square-foot area d. 49-square-foot area

D: 49-square-foot area. The suggested square footage allotment for each athlete in the stretching and warm-up area is 49 square feet. This is to allow for dynamic and static stretching exercises. Each athlete should have ample room to move in the space and to eliminate the possibility of injury due to being too close in proximity to one another. If partner stretching is an emphasis in the training program, a large stretching and warm-up area is necessary.

-1 When working with an athlete with very little training experience what is the most appropriate way to assess strength levels? a. 15-20 repetition maximum b. 1-3 repetition maximum c. 10-12 repetition maximum d. 6-8 repetition maximum

D: 6-8 repetition maximum When training individuals with limited training experience, the most important component for testing is to ensure maximal safety and to perform the test in a way such that the result is useful for multiple loading intensities. This would require the strength and conditioning coach to use a repetition maximum that would be useful for moderate loading intensities while also being light enough to ensure technique and joint health are not compromised. In the provided example, using a 6-8 repetition maximum is the most effective and safest option for an athlete with limited training experience.

Which situation requires multiple spotters to assist an athlete should they miss a lift? a. An athlete performing 225 lbs. maximum repetitions test b. An athlete performing barbell step-ups. c. An athlete overhead pressing 185 lbs. d. An athlete squatting 450 lbs. in a work-set.

D: An athlete squatting 450 lbs. in a work-set. An athlete performing a squat with 450 lbs. is sufficient loading and carries sufficient risks to the athlete should a lift be missed that multiple spotters should be utilized. While a 225-lbs. maximum repetition test could require multiple spotters, the loading is not sufficient to command multiple spotters.

-1 Addressing a muscular weakness, primarily as a contributor to a compound movement, would require the inclusion of what kind of movements? a. Power b. Isolation c. Structural d. Assistance

D: Assistance Assistance exercises are movements that recruit smaller muscle groups, generally involve one primary joint, and serve to balance out muscular imbalances. Exercises that fit into this category can be added to a training program without the strength and conditioning coach being concerned with overtraining or adding substantial training volume to an athlete's program, as these movements are not neutrally demanding and do not require significant loading to elicit the desired training effect.

In the modified Matveyev model, in which phase do sport-specific activities begin? a. Hypertrophy/endurance phase b. Strength/power phase c. Peaking phase d. Basic strength phase

D: Basic strength phase. The basic strength phase is the first phase when sport-specific and practice activities occur. This training phase is part of the preparation phase and occurs after the hypertrophy and endurance phase, and is highlighted by high-intensity training loads and moderate training volumes. The emphasis of this training phase is to improve muscular strength for the primary muscles involved in the sport-specific movements the athlete will need in order to perform at the highest level possible.

-1 When designing a resistance training program for a rugby player, what should NOT be part of a coach's assessment? a. Training status b. Health history c. Movement analysis d. Comparative strength analysis

D: Comparative strength analysis A comparative strength analysis is not necessary or essential when initiating a training program, as a comparison of strength levels between two athletes does not provide important information when attempting to establish the core needs of an athlete prior to developing a training program. When performing an assessment on an individual athlete, the key elements to include are the needs analysis, movement and injury analysis, and evaluating training status and background, along with physiological assessments (strength, endurance, etc.).

Utilizing heavy resistance exercises and movements that utilize the stretch-shortening cycle is considered what type of training? a. Neural manipulation training b. Combination training c. Contrast training d. Complex training

D: Complex training Complex training is combining a reactive stretch-shortening cycle exercise, such as a depth jump for height, and a traditional strength exercise in a similar movement pattern, such as the squat. Utilizing a complex training method, the athlete will benefit from the manipulation of the stretch-shortening cycle by increasing power via elastic energy recovery, increased movement efficiency, and rate of neural signaling through feedback and impulse strength.

During the second transition phase, a collegiate baseball player should engage in which of the following activities? a. Motocross b. High-intensity interval training c. Lounging on the beach d. Free swimming

D: Free swimming. An athlete who has completed his competitive season should engage in some light activity that is not related to his sport skill. This activity should be a low-intensity, non-baseball sport activity, and free swimming is the selected option as this best meets the core criteria of the second transition phase. The other activities listed are not excellent choices. Motocross is a dangerous activity for an athlete to engage in during the off-season. High-intensity intervals are too demanding and do not fit into the second transition paradigm. Lounging on the beach, while leisurely in nature, does not require any activity; while an athlete should rest, light-to-moderate general activity should be engaged in every day.

What areas of the body are most significantly affected by sarcopenia? I. Lower limb extensors II. Lower limb flexors III. Upper limb extensors IV. Trunk extensors a. II and III b. I and III c. III and IV d. I and IV

D: I and IV Sarcopenia is a reduction of the skeletal muscle in older adults, and results as part of the aging process and a sedentary lifestyle. The most pronounced reduction in muscular function in adults experiencing sarcopenia is found in the lower limb and trunk extensors.

During the starting position, what coaching cue should be given to an athlete who starts with his chest over the barbell and hips higher than the shoulder? I. Squat down with the hips lower than the shoulders II. Eyes focused straight ahead or slightly downward III. Shoulders over or slightly in front of the bar IV. Chest held up and out a. I and III b. I and IV c. II and III d. I, III, and IV

D: I, III, and IV The proper starting position for the snatch exercise requires the athlete to have feet either hip or shoulder width apart, the hips down below the shoulders, a grip that is wider than the snatch rings, elbows fully extended, and feet flat on the floor. The body is positioned with the back flat or slightly arched, chest held up and out, head in line with the vertebral column, heels on the floor, shoulders over or slightly in front of the bar, and eyes focused straight ahead or slightly UPWARD.

Which of the following movements are open-chain movements? I. Bench press II. Lunge III. Leg curl IV. Lying triceps exercise a. I and II only b. I and III only c. I, II, and IV only d. I, III, and IV only

D: I, III, and IV only. Differentiating between open- and closed-chain movements is important when assigning exercises to injured individuals. This is because exercise selection should follow a natural development path as the athlete heals and is able to produce greater force through a joint. It should begin with an open-chain movement, which can typically be performed on a machine or with dumbbells in order to allow free joint movement but also control the amount of resistance being used to promote the desired training effect. Closed-chain movements tend to be big compound movements that allow for large forces to be produced using fee weights, e.g., squats, deadlifts, or overhead presses. The key is understanding when to use a closed- or open-chain movement in an injured player's programming to the greatest benefit for the athlete

Counterconditioning is a combination of two techniques that are utilized to overcome performance anxiety. What are these two techniques? I. Hypnosis techniques II. Reciprocal inhibition III. Cognitive techniques IV. Somatic techniques a. I and IV b. I and II c. II and III d. III and IV

D: III and IV - Cognitive and Somatic techniques Counterconditioning uses a combination of somatic and cognitive responses in order to reduce an athlete's performance-related anxiety. This is achieved through systematic desensitization that requires an athlete to engage in visualization of a stressful competitive situation; in order to counter the stress response, the athlete engages in progressive muscle relaxation to induce a relaxed mental and physical state.

If a 100-meter sprinter has a problem with pulling her hamstring frequently, what would be a prescription for her in an off-season program to help eliminate this issue? a. Increase conditioning work b. Increase training frequency c. Focus on developing weaknesses d. Improve strength ratios at the affected joints

D: Improve strength ratios at the affected joints Improving the strength ratio at the affected joint where frequent injuries occur is a basic step in programming to correct a structural weakness. Addressing the issue after proper rehabilitative steps have been completed would consist of addressing the underlying deficiency through properly programming the resistance training for the athlete. In this example, the athlete would be required to focus on developing posterior strength and resiliency, and this could be achieved through movement patterns that directly engage this area, e.g., deadlift, glute-ham raise, reverse hyper extension, step-ups, hip thrusts, etc., with a wide range of repetitions from which to choose, including strength emphasis work, e.g., 4-12 repetitions per set. This phase would also see a maintenance level or quad-dominant training prescribed, and for a period of four to six weeks could be eliminated to allow all training energies to be directed to correcting the imbalance.

-1 When training an athlete with a weakness in a small muscle group, what type of movement will the strength coach prescribe? a. Auxiliary movement b. Assistance movement c. Core movement d. Isolation movement

D: Isolation movement When addressing structural weaknesses or a size deficiency in smaller muscle groups, using isolation movements will address the weakness directly. Generally, a smaller muscle group will need direct training stimulus to improve neural integration and recruitment patterns, and isolation work will allow the athlete to focus on contracting the weak muscle group and developing the ability to contract the muscle group maximally when using compound movements.

-1 Which of the terms listed is NOT considered a part of the general adaptation syndrome? a. Reaction b. Super-compensation c. Alarm d. Overtraining

D: Overtraining. Overtraining is not considered part of the general adaptation syndrome. The general adaptation syndrome consists of three stages: alarm, resistance, and exhaustion. A fourth component can be identified as super-compensation, which can be included after the resistance phase. Overtraining can be considered a symptom of the exhaustion phase of the general adaptation syndrome

When designing a training program, a strength coach includes a box jump for maximum height in a superset with front squats. The coach is attempting to utilize what neurological phenomenon? a. Stretch-shortening cycle b. Myotatic stretch reflex c. Series elastic component d. Potentiation

D: Potentiation Potentiation is a neurophysiological response that increases the contractile capacity of muscles via alteration of the force-velocity curve due to stretch, which also increases neural drive to the working muscles. Potentiation functions to increase the muscles' capacity for force production by generating a reflexive response form the nervous system that can be used to decrease recruitment thresholds for fast-twitch muscle fibers that are necessary to perform strength exercises at or above maximal intensity levels. Using this combined training approach can result in immediate strength increases for a training session and significantly affect strength progression over the course of several weeks.

-1 An athlete needs to develop specific movement patterns in order to gain mastery in his sport. What is the guiding principle for this type of training and what skill type needs to be trained? a. Skill specificity; closed movement skill b. Practice specificity; open movement skill c. Skill specificity; open movement skill d. Practice specificity; closed movement skill

D: Practice specificity; closed movement skill Athletic development for sports requires that general and specific tasks be performed in order to develop coordination, retain movement patterns, and transfer skills to the sport, along with the sensorimotor elements needed to perform in the athletic environment, which fall under the overarching principle of practice specificity. The athlete in the example needs to develop closed movements skills in order to enhance technique and execution of the required skills for his sport.

What is the primary goal for the competition period? a. Increase strength and power gradually b. Maintain conditioning levels for competition c. Increase training intensity in preparation for competition d. Preserve strength and performance levels

D: Preserve strength and performance levels. The primary focus of the competition period is to maintain the strength and performance levels attained throughout the training program and carry them through the competitive season. Performing a maintenance schedule, as opposed to a peaking schedule, requires the athlete to train using structural and power exercises with moderate training loads and training volumes in order to sustain performance.

During the repair phase, what is the primary objective of treatment? a. Optimizing joint function b. Maintain joint mobility and increase muscular elasticity c. Prevent disruption of tissue healing d. Prevent muscle atrophy and joint deterioration

D: Prevent muscle atrophy and joint deterioration. During the repair phase of tissue healing, the treatment focus is on preventing muscle atrophy and joint deterioration. This phase must be handled delicately, as the newly regenerated tissues, primarily collagen , are still vulnerable to stress, so a low-load stress process must be undertaken while still working to prevent the joint from losing range of motion. This process will allow the joint to stabilize and the tissues to heal sufficiently to begin the next phase in healing, the remodeling phase.

-1 When would using a body-part training split be appropriate for an athlete in an off-season training program? a. Correcting muscular imbalance b. Increasing muscle size c. Reducing body fat d. Recovering from an injury

D: Recovering from an injury Using a body part split in an athletic training program is usually not the most effective method for developing an athlete, because this will limit training frequency and to a degree the movements used; as power and structural movements require large muscle groups to work together and are difficult to segment according to predominant muscle activity in X or Y selected movement. An athlete who is returning from an injury, or is currently rehabilitating an injury, can benefit from training the body parts, as this will allow the athlete to train around an injured area and still train non-affected muscles and joints. This will allow the athlete to sustain or even reach a higher level of fitness than if he were to simply rehabilitate only or avoid training altogether.

-1 If an aerobic athlete wanted to improve his anaerobic metabolism while enhancing his finishing strength at the end of a race, which of the selected methods below would provide this most effectively? a. Pace/tempo training b. Interval training c. Fartlek training d. Repetition training

D: Repetition training Repetition training is a training approach that requires an athlete to train above her VO2max using an interval approach, with each interval lasting between 30 and 90 seconds. Repetition training relies heavily on anaerobic metabolism, which will benefit the athlete's running economy, faster running speeds, and increased working capacity at higher intensity levels. Training in this manner will allow the athlete to finish races more effectively or with a better finishing kick.

Who will the strength and condition coach have direct and most frequent contact with on the sports medicine team? a. Team physician b. Nutritionist c. Exercise physiologist d. Sports physical therapist

D: Sports physical therapist. The strength and conditioning coach will have most frequent contact with the sports physical therapist or the athletic trainer. Communication between members of the medical team is essential, and the strength and conditioning coach must stay in frequent contact with the sports physical therapist or athletic trainer. Players of nay sport will have injuries, and communicating the athlete's needs is of greatest importance, not just to be able to play in the next game, but also for the athlete to effectively heal and strengthen the affected joint or muscle.

When determining what equipment to purchase for a new strength and conditioning facility, this decision should be most heavily influenced by which person? a. Athletic director b. Director of business operation c. Facility manager d. Strength and conditioning director

D: Strength and conditioning director The strength and conditioning director is responsible for the selection of the equipment for purchase. This is due to the strength and conditioning director's expertise and understanding of the athletic needs of the program participants. Of the options listed, he is the only one who will have this unique qualification and authority. This does not mean, however, that he has the final word on whether or not the equipment is purchased; budgetary constraints may limit the strength and conditioning director's options, but this is an area where communication between staff members is essential.

When evaluating high-school-aged female athletes' body composition using a skin-fold measurement procedure, what sites are tested? a. Thigh, subscapular b. Suprailiac, biceps c. Thigh, abdomen d. Suprailiac, triceps

D: Suprailiac, triceps. When testing body composition in high-school-aged female athletes, the test requires that the measurement be taken at the suprailiac and triceps sites. For high-school-aged male athletes, the testing procedure calls for the measurement to be taken at the thigh and subscapular sites. These sites allow for consistent measurement and fall in line with where young men and women from an athletic population will typically store fat.

20in

Designing a strength and conditioning facility: How high should mirrors be placed from the floor?

Safety and function

Designing a strength and conditioning facility: What are the top priorities when deciding on placement of equipment

Doors 36in, Hallways 60 in

Designing a strength and conditioning facility: What is the min width for doors and hallways?

12-14 ft.

Designing a strength and conditioning facility: What is the recommended ceiling height?

72-78 degrees

Designing a strength and conditioning facility: What is the recommended temp?

False

Diaphragmatic breathing increases sympathetic nervous system activation

heart rate reserve (HRR)

Difference between athlete's maximal HR and RHR

C 430

During the catch phase of the log clean and press, where is the athlete instructed to rack the log? A. Overhead in full elbow extension. B. Overhead in slight elbow flexion. C. Across the clavicles and anterior deltoids. D. Across the mid-biceps brachii.

partial curl-up test, 1-minute sit-up test 5th of 7

Example(s) of local muscle endurance tests and when should this be done in the consecutive order of testing (out of 7 tests)

1. 1RM power clean/bench press (if given the choice between these 2, power BEFORE strength) 3rd of 7

Example(s) of maximum power and strength tests and when should this be done in the consecutive order of testing (out of 7 tests)

1. height 2. weight 3. flexibility 4. skinfold/girth measurement 5. vertical jump First of 7

Example(s) of non-fatiguing tests and when should this be done in the consecutive order of testing (out of 7 tests)

marching, jogging, skipping, footwork, lunging

Examples of warm ups for plyo

overreaching

Excessive training on short term basis

energy, velocity (ex: running speed)

Exercise economy is the measure of the ___ cost of activity at a given exercise ___.

Assistance

Exercise type that 1. recruits smaller muscle areas: upper arms, abs, calves, neck, forearms, low back, anterior low legs 2. involves one primary joint (single-joint), and are considered LESS important to improving sport performance

1. power, effort 2. capacity

Exercise: Relief Pattern (work:rest ratio) - Skills/qualities required: 1. Metabolic ___ to execute specific techniques at targeted ___ level. 2. Metabolic ___ to do so repeatedly

core exercises

Exercises that recruit one or more large muscle areas, involve two or more primary joints, and receive priority in exercise selection

mass, acceleration (F=MA)

Force is the product of ___ x ___.

Should Salt tablets be taken to retain water on a hot day?

General never and should be avoided.

how do you run properly? (What are th ecorrect force applications?

High stride frequency and optimal stride length. trajectory characterized by explosive horizontal push off and minimal vertical impulses

Push Jerk

Hip and knee thrust more forceful; bar thrown or jerked upward; catch bar overhead with extended elbows and hips and knees flexed

traditional peridization

IN what method of periodization might an athlete perform five set of four repetitions at 85% of 1RM on the first day of the week, five sets of four repetitions at 80% of 1RM on the next training day, and five sets of four repetitions at 70% of 1RM on the last training day of the week?

1. HR 2. Metabolic equivalents 3. RPE 4. Exercise velocity

If VO₂ max testing is not available, what other methods can be used? (4)

A bilateral facilitation will occur

If a strong athlete incorporates only unilateral into his or her program, what might the strength and conditioning professional expect to happen?

A 421

If a strong athlete incorporates only unilateral training into his or her program, what might the strength and conditioning professional expect to happen? a. A bilateral facilitation will occur. b. A bilateral deficit will be developed. c. A reduction in bilateral asymmetries will occur. d. Only unilateral strength will increase.

B 531

In order to achieve high stride frequency and optimal stride length an athlete should do all of the following EXCEPT? a) Maximize the backward velocity of the lower leg and foot at ground contact. b) Maximize the vertical impulse and horizontal braking forces. c) Emphasize brief ground support time. d) Develop eccentric knee flexion strength to improve leg recovery mechanics.

A

In order to increase absolute leg strength, which of the following training methods should a professional football defensive back with a 1 RM of 450 lbs. in the back squat utilize? I. Back Squat. II. Lunges. III. Single-Leg Squat. IV. Step-Ups. A. I only. B. I,III only. C. II, III, IV only. D. III only.

Off season mesocycle

In this mesocycle resistance training is a higher priority (example progresses to a four days per week split program)

undulating periodiczation

In what method of periodization might an athlete perform four sets with a 6RM laod on the first day of the week, three sets with a 10 RM on the next training day, and five sets with a 3RM load on the last training day of the week?

on the 20 yard pro-agility test, the athlete goes 5 yards to the _____ and then 10 yards to the _____ and then 5 yards back to the_____

L, R, L

50-60

Lactate threshold begins at what percentage of maximal oxygen uptake in untrained individuals

A 49

Lactate will NOT be produced if which of the following is present in sufficient quantities? A. Oxygen. B. Glucose. C. Glycogen. D. Sodium.

1RM, RM (the most weight lifted for a specified # of reps)

Load is commonly described as either a % of ___ or ___.

concentric

Load volume is directly proportional to _______ work.

Off-season

Longest aerobic endurance training sessions should be performed during which part of season?

another test measure of high speed strength (bounding up steps for time)

Margaria-Kalamen test

36 inches

Minimum amount of space between free weight station during a circuit training session (safety space cushion)

Cross-training

Mode of training used to maintain general conditioning during periods of reduced training due to injury or recovery from a training cycle?

4-6, 4

Most plyometric programs range from __ to __ weeks. However, vertical jump height improves as soon as __ weeks

8

Multiple RM testing for assistance exercises should be at or above __RM to minimize isolation stress on the involved joint & connective tissue

Hamstrings & Glut. Max

Muscles Involved with hip extensors

Predesign Phase

New facility design: This phase usually requires 25% of the total project time (about 6 months)

Construction Phase

New facility design: This phase usually requires 50% (12 months) The Most time!

Design Phase

New facility design: This phase usually requires about 10% of the total project time (about 3 months)

training goal

Once decided on, the _____ can be applied to determine load and rep scheme.

cardiovascular endurance, speed, agility, and flexability

Other (non anaerobic) considerations?

Gymnastics

Outside the sport of ___, where increased ROM increases performance, static stretching is unwarranted before activity