Cybersecurity Principles

TEMPEST

A U.S. government program designed to protect computers from electronic remote eavesdropping by reducing EMR emissions.

padded cell system

A protected honeypot that cannot be easily compromised.

Secure Electronic Transaction (SET)

A protocol developed by credit card companies to protect against electronic payment fraud.

known vulnerability

A published weakness or fault in an information asset or its protective systems that may be exploited and result in loss.

service level agreement (SLA)

A document or part of a document that specifies the expected level of service from a service provider. An SLA usually contains provisions for minimum acceptable availability and penalties or remediation procedures for downtime.

alert roster

A document that contains contact information for people to be notified in the event of an incident

threats-vulnerabilities-assets (TVA) worksheet

A document that shows a comparative ranking of prioritized assets against prioritized threats, with an indication of any vulnerabilities in the asset/threat pairings

ionization sensor

A fire detection sensor that works by exposing the ambient air to a small amount of a harmless radioactive material within a detection chamber; an alarm is triggered when the level of electrical conductivity changes within the chamber.

screened subnet architecture

A firewall architectural model that consists of one or more internal bastion hosts located behind a packet filtering router on a dedicated network segment, with each hose performing a role in protecting the trusted network.

media access control layer firewall

A firewall designed to operate at the media access control sublayer of the network's data link layer (Layer 2)

Dynamic packet-filtering firewall

A firewall type that can react to network traffic and create or modify configuration rules to adapt.

governance

"The set of responsibilities and practices exercised by the board and executive management with the goal of providing strategic direction, ensuring that objectives are achieved, ascertaining that risks are managed appropriately and verifying that the enterprise's resources are used responsibly

TCP hijacking

A form of man-in-the-middle attack whereby the attacker inserts himself into TCP/IP-based communications. TCP/IP is short for Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol.

cyberterrorist

A hacker who attacks systems to conduct terrorist activities via networks or Internet pathways.

attack protocol

A logical sequence of steps or processes used by an attacker to launch an attack against a target system or network.

bull's-eye model

A method for prioritizing a program of complex change; it requires that issues be addressed from the general to the specific and focuses on systematic solutions instead of individual problems.

change control

A method of regulating the modification of systems within the organization by requiring formal review and approval for each change.

Software Assurance (SA)

A methodological approach to the development of software that seeks to build security into the development life cycle rather than address it at later stages. SA attempts to intentionally create software free of vulnerabilities and provide effective, efficient software that users can deploy with confidence.

Systems Development Life Cycle (SDLC)

A methodology for the design and implementation of an information system. The SDLC contains different phases depending on the methodology deployed, but generally the phases address the investigation, analysis, design, implementation, and maintenance of an information system.

hacker

A person who accesses systems and information without authorization and ofter illegally.

technology governance

A process organizations use to manage the effects and costs of technology implementation, innovation, and obsolescence.

Mandatory Access Control (MAC)

A required, structured data classification scheme that rates each collection of information as well as each user. These ratings are often referred to as sensitivity or classification levels.

monitoring port

Also known as a switched port analysis (SPAN) port or mirror port, a specially configured connection on a network device that can view all the traffic that moves through the device.

Configuration and Change Management (CCM)

An approach to implementing system change that uses policies, procedures, techniques, and tools to manage and evaluate proposed changes, track changes through completion, and maintain systems inventory and supporting documentation.

intranet vulnerability assessment

An assessment approach designed to find and document selected vulnerabilities that are likely to be present on the organization's internal network.

qualitative assessment

An asset valuation approach that uses categorical or non-numeric values rather than absolute numerical measures

mail bomb

An attack designed to overwhelm the receiver with excessive quantities of e-mail.

log file monitor (LFM)

An attack detection method that reviews the log files generated by computer systems, looking for patterns and signatures that may indicate an attack or intrusion is in process or has already occurred.

badge

An identification card typically worn in a visible location to quickly verify an authorized member. The badge may or may not show the wearer's name.

DEP

Data Execution Prevention

DLP

Data Loss Prevention

DSU

Data Service Unit

information

Data that has been organized, structured, and presented to provide additional insight into its context, worth, and usefulness. For example, a student's class average can be presented in the context of its value, as in "90 = A."

DHE

Data-Handling Electronics

DBA

Database Administrator

DMZ

Demilitarized Zone

DoS

Denial of Service

Least Privilege (principle f, Saltzer and Schroeder)

Every program and every user of the system should operate using the least set of privileges necessary to complete the job.

XOR

Exclusive Or

corporate governance

Executive management's responsibility to provide strategic direction, ensure the accomplishment of objectives, oversee that risks are appropriately managed, and validate responsible resource use.

In project planning, the tasks or action steps that come before the specific task at hand are commonly referred to as prerequisites.

False

Syntax errors in firewall policies are usually difficult to identify.

False

The Grahm-Leach-Bliley Act is a critical piece of legislation that affects the executive management of publicly traded corporations and public accounting firms.

False

The key difference between laws and ethics is that ethics carry the authority of a governing body and laws do not.

False

The popular use for tunnel mode VPNs is the end-to-end transport of encrypted data. _________________________

False

The work breakdown structure (WBS) can only be prepared with a complex, specialized desktop PC application.

False

Unethical and illegal behavior is generally caused by ignorance (of policy and/or the law), by accident, and by inadequate protection mechanisms

False

Using an application firewall means the associated Web server must be exposed to a higher level of risk by placing it in the DMZ.

False

WLAN stands for wide local area network.

False

GPG

Gnu Privacy Guard

GPU

Graphic Processing Unit

GPO

Group Policy Object

HOTP

HMAC-based One-Time Password

HVAC

Heating, Ventilation and Air Conditioning

HA

High Availability

The ______________ is a professional association that focuses on auditing, control, and security and whose membership comprises both technical and managerial professionals.

Information Systems Audit and Control Association

__________ are decoy systems designed to lure potential attackers away from critical systems.

Honeypots

HIDS

Host-based Intrusion Detection System

HIPS

Host-based Intrusion Prevention System

application header (AP) protocol

In IPSec, a protocol that provides system-to-system authentication and data integrity verification, but does not provide secrecy for the content of a network communication

transport mode

In IPSec, an encryption method in which only a packet's IP data is encrypted, not the IP headers themselves; this method allows intermediate nodes to read the source and destination addresses.

MDF

Main Distribution Frame

polymorphic threat

Malware (a virus or worm) that over time changes the way it appears to antivirus software programs, making it undetectable by techniques that look for preconfigured signatures.

MSP

Managed Service Provider

MFA

Multi-Factor Authentication

MFD

Multi-function Device

MPLS

Multi-protocol Label Switching

MIME

Multipurpose Internet Mail Exchange

If the task is to write firewall specifications for the preparation of a(n) ____, the planner would note that the deliverable is a specification document suitable for distribution to vendors.

RFP

RAS

Remote Access Server

RAT

Remote Access Trojan

RADIUS

Remote Authentication Dial-in User Server

RDP

Remote Desktop Protocol

RTBH

Remotely Triggered Black Hole

REST

Representational State Transfer

ROI

Return on Investment

RMF

Risk Management Framework

RC4

Rivest Cipher version 4

RSA

Rivest, Shamir, & Adleman

RBAC

Role-based Access Control

SMB

Server Message Block

SLA

Service Level Agreement

SSID

Service Set Identifier

SIP

Session Initiation Protocol

SIPS

Session Initiation Protocol Secure

STP

Shielded Twisted Pair

PEAP

Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol

Authentication

Protocol

PKI

Public Key Infrastructure

digital certificates

Public-key container files that allow PKI system components and end users to validate a public key and identify its owner.

entrapment

The act of luring a person into committing a crime in order to get a conviction.

tactical planning

The actions taken by management to specify the intermediate goals and objectives of the organization in order to obtain specified strategic goals, followed by estimates and schedules for the allocation of resources necessary to achieve those goals and objectives

business resumption planning (BRP)

The actions taken by senior management to develop and implement a combined DR and BC policy, plan, and set of recovery teams.

incident response planning (IRP)

The actions taken by senior management to develop and implement the IR policy, plan, and computer security incident response team.

Disaster recovery planning (DRP)

The actions taken by senior management to specify the organization's efforts in preparation for and recovery from a disaster.

Intellectual property (IP)

The creation, ownership, and control of original ideas as well as the representation of those ideas.

least privilege

The data access principle that ensures no unnecessary access to data exists by regulating members so they can perform only the minimum data manipulation needed. Least privilege implies a need to know.

chain of evidence

The detailed documentation of the collection, storage, transfer, and ownership of evidence from the crime scene through its presentation in court.

performance gap

The difference between an organization's observed and desired performance

gap analysis

The process of comparing measured results against expected results, then using the resulting "gap" as a measure of project success and as feedback for project management.

Incident classification

The process of examining an incident candidate and determining whether it constitutes an actual incident.

protocol stack verification

The process of examining and verifying network traffic for invalid data packets—that is, packets that are malformed under the rules of the TCP/IP protocol.

application protocol verification

The process of examining and verifying the higher-order protocols (HTTP, FTP, and Telnet) in network traffic for unexpected packet behavior or improper use.

nonrepudiation

The process of reversing public-key encryption to verify that a message was sent by the sender and thus cannot be refuted.

blacklist

a list of systems, users, files, or addresses that have been associated with malicious activity; it is commonly used to block those entities from systems or network access.

back door

a malware payload that provides access to a system by bypassing normal access controls. A back door may also be an intentional access control bypass left y a system designer to facilitate development.

virus hoax

a message that reports the presence of a nonexistent virus or worm and wastes valuable time as employees share the message

message digest

a value representing the application of a hash algorithm on a message that is transmitted with the message so it can be compared with the recipient's locally calculated hash of the same message. If both hashes are identical after transmission, the message has arrived without modification. Also known as a hash value.

threshold

a value that sets the limit between normal and abnormal behavior. See also clipping level

Telecommuting

a work arrangement in which employees work from an off-site location and connect to an organization's equipment electronically. Also known as telework.

Wireless Networking Security *Which of the following 802.11 standards provides for bandwidths of up to 300 Mbps?* a. 802.11n b. 802.11i c. 802.11g d. 802.11b

a. *802.11n* The 802.11n standard provides for bandwidths of up to 300Mbps.

Cryptography Basics *Which of the following is similar to Blowfish but works on 128-bit blocks?* a. Twofish b. IDEA c. CCITT d. AES

a. *Twofish* Twofish was created by the same creator of Blowfish. It performs a similar function on 128-bit blocks instead of 64-bit blocks.

During the __________ phase of the systems life cycle, the process begins by examining the event or plan that initiated the process. During this phase, the objectives, constraints, and scope of the project are specified.

investigation

Detailed ______ on the highest risk warning can include identifying which vendor updates apply to which vulnerabilities as well as which types of defenses have been found to work against the specific vulnerabilities reported.

monitoring

The ongoing activity from alarm events that are accurate and noteworthy but not necessarily significant as potentially successful attacks is called ____.

noice

____ is the requirement that every employee be able to perform the work of another employee.

task rotation

enticement

the act of attracting attention to a system by placing tantalizing information in key locations.

humidity

the amount of moisture in the air

The ________ control strategy attempts to shift risk to other assets, other processes, or other organizations.

transference

Disaster recovery personnel must know their roles without supporting documentation, which is a function of preparation, training, and rehearsal.

True

Establishing competitive business model, method, or technique enables an organization to provide a product or service that is superior and creates a(n) competitive advantage

True

Good firewall rules include denying all data that is not verifiably authentic.

True

Guards can evaluate each situation as it arises and make reasoned responses. _________________________

True

Some firewalls can filter packets by protocol name.

True

Steganography is a data hiding method that involves embedding information within other files, such as digital pictures or other images. A) True B) False

True

The Computer Security Resource Center at NIST provides several useful documents free of charges in its special publications area.

True

The DMZ can be a dedicated port on the firewall device linking a single bastion host.

True

The Department of Homeland Security works with academic campuses nationally, focusing on resilience, recruitment, and internationalization, growing academic maturity, and academic research.

True

VPN

Virtual Private Network

VoIP

Voice over IP

VLSM

Variable Length Subnet Masking

VTC

Video Teleconferencing

VDE

Virtual Desktop Environment

VDI

Virtual Desktop Infrastructure

VLAN

Virtual Local Area Network

VM

Virtual Machine

deliverable

A completed document or program module that can either serve as the beginning point for a later task or become an element in the finished project.

virtual organization

A group of people brought together for a specific task, usually from different organizations, divisions, or departments

configuration item

A hardware or software item that will be modified and revised throughout its life cycle.

brownout

A long-term decrease in electrical power availability.

data loss prevention

A strategy to gain assurance that the users of a network do not send high value information or other critical information outside the network

war game

A type of rehearsal that seeks to realistically simulate the circumstances needed to thoroughly test a plan.

ACL

Access Control List

discretionary access controls (DACs)

Access controls that are implemented at the discretion or option of the data user.

zero-day attack

An attack that makes use of malware that is not yet known by the anti-malware software companies.

Substituion Cipher

An encryption method in which one value is substituted for another.

attack

An intentional or unintentional act that can damage or otherwise compromise information and the systems that support it. Attacks can be active or passive and direct or indirect.

Clean desk policy

An organizational policy that specifies employees must inspect their work areas and ensure that all classified information, documents, and materials are secured at the end of every work day.

Civil law addresses activities and conduct harmful to society and is actively enforced by the state.

False

Class C fires are those fueled by combustible metals, such as magnesium, lithium, and sodium.

False

CompTIA offers a vendor-specific certification program called the Security+ certification.

False

Cost mitigation is the process of preventing the financial impact of an incident by implementing a control.

False

Cost-benefit analyses (CBA) cannot be calculated after controls have been functioning for a time, as observation over time prevents precision in evaluating the benefits of the safeguard and determining whether it is functioning as intended.

False

MULTICS stands for Multiple Information and Computing Service.

False

The Department of Homeland Security is the only U.S. federal agency charged with the protection of American information resources and the investigation of threats to, or attacks on, those resources.

False

GIAC stands for Global Information Architecture Certification.

Fasle (assurance)

GRE

Generic Routing Encapsulation

GPS

Global Positioning System

HDD

Hard Disk Drive

HSM

Hardware Security Module

strong authentication

In access control, the use of at least two different authentication mechanisms drawn from two different factors of authentication.

information security blueprint

In information security, a framework or security model customized to an organization, including implementation details.

ISSO

Information Systems Security Officer

technical controls

Information security safeguards that focus on the application of modern technologies, systems, and processes to protect information assets. These safeguards include firewalls, virtual private networks, and IDPSs.

IaaS

Infrastructure as a Service

IV

Initialization Vector

Network behavior analysis system _____ sensors are typically intended for network perimeter used, so they are deployed in close proximity to the perimeter firewalls, often between the firewall and the Internet border router to limit incoming attacks that could overwhelm the firewall.

Inline

IM

Instant Messaging

ISA

Interconnection Security Agreement

IDS

Intrusion Detection System

Psychological acceptability (principle h, Saltzer and Schroeder)

It is essential that the human interface be designed for ease of use, so that users routinely and automatically apply the protection mechanisms correctly.

Economy of Mechanism (principle a, Saltzer and Schroeder)

Keep the design as simple and small as possible

KDC

Key Distribution Center

A _______ is a key-dependent, one-way hash function that allows only specific recipients (symmetric key holders) to access the message digest .

MAC

Adware

Malware intended to provide undesired marketing and advertising, including popups and banners on a user's screen

MITM

Man-in-the-Middle

NIDS

Network-based Intrusion Detection System

process-based measures

Performance measures or metrics based on intangible activities

information aggregation

Pieces of nonprivate data that, when combined, may create information that violates privacy. Not to be confused with aggregate information.

SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol)

Port: TCP 22 Secure version of FTP. (Based off of SSH)

iSCSI

Port: TCP 860 Links data storage facilities over IP. (Usually in a SAN)

PSK

Pre-shared Key

RA

Recovery Agent

FTPS

Secured File Transfer Protocol

revision date

The date associated with a particular version or build.

theft

The illegal taking of another's property, which can be physical, electronic, or intellectual.

vulnerability assessment (VA)

The process of identifying and documenting specific and provable flaws in the organization's information asset environment.

electrostatic discharge (ESD)

The release of ambient static electricity into a ground.

auditing

The review of a system's use to determine if misuse or malfeasance has occurred.

Acceptance Risk Control Strategy

The risk control strategy that indicates the organization is willing to accept the current level of risk. As a result, the organization makes a conscious decision to do nothing to protect an information asset from risk and to accept the outcome from any resulting exploitation.

TCP/IP

Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol

TLS

Transport Layer Security

3DES

Triple Digital Encryption Standard

In some instances, risk is acknowledged as being part of an organization's business process.

True

The recover point objective (RPO) is the point in time prior to a disruption or system outage to which mission/business process data can be recovered after an outage.

True

Though not used as much in Windows environments, terminal emulation is still useful to systems administrators on Unix/Linux systems.

True

Tracking compliance involves assessing the status of the program as indicated by the database information and mapping it to goals established by the agency.

True

US-CERT is generally viewed as the definitive authority for computer emergency response teams.

True

When a collection of honeypots connects several honeypot systems on a subnet, it may be called a(n) honeynet. _________________________

True

When possible, major incident response plan elements should be rehearsed.

True

With the removal of copyright protection mechanisms, software can be easily distributed and installed.

True

Media as a subset of information assets are the systems and networks that store, process, and transmit information.

True.

TPM

Trusted Platform Module

UTM

Unified Threat Management

smoke detection system

a category of fire detection systems that focuses on detecting the smoke from a fire

cracker

a hacker who intentionally removes or bypasses software copyright protection designed to prevent unauthorized duplication or use

packet monkey

a script kiddie who uses automated exploits to engage in denial-of-service attacks.

Personally Identifiable Information (PII)

a set of information that could uniquely identify an individual

Secure Hash Standard (SHS)

a standard issued by the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) that specifies secure algorithms, such as SHA-1, for computing a condensed representation of a message or data file.

Measuring and Weighing Risk *Refer to the scenario in question 2. Which of the following is the ARO for this scenario?* a. 0.0167 b. 1 c. 5 d. 16.7 e. 60

a. *0.0167* ARO (annualized rate of occurrence) is the frequency (in number of years) the event can be expected to happen. In this case, ARO is 1/60 or 0.0167.

line-interactive UPS

A UPS in which a pair of inverters and converters draw power from the outside source both to charge the battery and provide power to the internal protected device.

Screened host architecture

A firewall architectural model that combines the packet filtering router with a second, dedicated device such as a proxy server or proxy firewall.

methodology

A formal approach to solving a problem based on a structured sequence of procedures.

build list

A list of the versions of components that make up a build.

packet-filtering firewall

A networking device that examines the header information of data packets that come into a network and determines whether to drop them (deny) or forward them to the next network connection (allow), based on its configuration rules.

secure facility

A physical location that has controls in place to minimize the risk of attacks from physical threats.

Access Control List (ACL)

A specification of an organization's information asset, the users who may access and use it, and their rights and privileges for using the asset. ACLs include user access lists, matrices, and capabilities tables.

Access control list (ACL)

A specification of an organization's information asset, the users who may access and use it, and their rights and privileges for using the asset. ACLs include user access lists, matrices, and capabilities tables.

AP

Access Point

honeypot

An application that entices people who are illegally perusing the internal areas of a network by providing simulated rich content while the software notifies the administrator of the intrusion.

pen register

An application that records information about outbound communications.

security domain

An area of trust within which information assets share the same level of protection. Each trusted network within an organization is a security domain. Communication between security domains requires evaluation of communications traffic

Quantitative Assessment

An asset valuation approach that attempts to assign absolute numerical measures.

Access Control Matrix

An integration of access control lists (focusing on assets) and capability tables (focusing on users) that results in a matrix with organizational assets listed in the column headings and users listed in the row headings. The matrix contains ACLs in columns for a particular device or asset and capability tables in rows for a particular user.

Demilitarized Zone (DMZ)

An intermediate area between two networks designed to provide servers and firewall filtering between a trusted internal network and the outside, untrusted network. Traffic on the outside network carries a higher level of risk.

standby or offline UPS

An offline battery backup that detects the interruption of power to equipment and activates a transfer switch that provides power from batteries through a DC to AC converter until normal power is restored or the computer is shut down.

zero day vulnerability

An unknown or undisclosed vulnerability in an information asset or its protection systems that may be exploited and result in loss. This vulnerability is also referred to as zero day (or zero hour) because once it is discovered, the technology owners have zero days to identify, mitigate, and resolve the vulnerability

DER

Distinguished Encoding Rules

"Shoulder spying" is used in public or semi-public settings when individuals gather information they are not authorized to have by looking over another individual's shoulder or viewing the information from a distance ________________.

False

A badge is an identification card that is typically carried concealed

False

A cryptovariable is a value representing the application of a hash algorithm on a message

False

A wet-pipe system is usually considered appropriate in computer rooms

False

An intranet vulnerability scan starts with the scan of the organization's default Internet search engine.

False

Each for-profit organization determines its capital budget and the rules for managing capital spending and expenses the same way.

False

Ethics are the moral attitudes or customs of a particular group.

False

Task-based controls are associated with the assigned role a user performs in an organization, such as a position or temporary assignment like project manager.

False

_______ is a protocol that can be used to secure communications across any IP-based network such as LANs, WANs, and the Internet.

IPSec

tunnel mode

In IPSec, an encryption method in which the entire IP packet is encrypted and inserted as the payload in another IP packet. This requires other systems at the beginning and end of the tunnel to act as proxies to send and receive the encrypted packets and then transmit the packets to their ultimate destination.

Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO)

In a cost-benefit analysis, the expected frequency of an attack, expressed on a per-year basis

Exposure Factor (EF)

In a cost-benefit analysis, the expected percentage of loss that would occur from a particular attack

operational controls

Information security safeguards focusing on lower-level planning that deals with the functionality of the organization's security. These safeguards include disaster recovery and incident response planning.

IRC

Internet Relay Chat

PED

Personal Electronic Device

NetBIOS (Network Basic Input/Output System)

Port: TCP/UDP 137, 138, and 139 Conducts name querying, sending of data, and other functions over a NetBIOS connection.

SNMPTRAP (Simple Network Management Protocol Trap)

Port: TCP/UDP 162 Sends Trap and InformRequests to the SNMP Manager on a network.

PPTP (Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol)

Port: TCP/UDP 1723 An underlying VPN protocol with built-in security.

FCIP (Fibre Channel over IP)

Port: TCP/UDP 3225 Encapsulates Fibre Channel frames within TCP/IP packets.

RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol)

Port: UDP 3389 Remotely views and controls other Windows systems via a Graphical User Interface (GUI). (Better than Telnet)

Syslog

Port: UDP 514 Conducts computer message logging, especially for routers and firewalls.

SIEM

Security Information and Event Management

session hijacking

See TCP hijacking.

auditability

See accountability.

incident candidate

See adverse event.

mean time to diagnose (MTTD)

The average amount of time a computer repair technician needs to determine the cause of a failure.

security perimeter

The boundary in the network within which an organization attempts to maintain security controls for securing information from threats from untrusted network areas. The advent of mobile and cloud information technologies makes the security perimeter increasingly difficult to define and secure.

Separation of Duties

The information security principle that requires significant tasks to be split up so that more than one individual is required to complete them.

Recovery Time Objective (RTO)

The maximum amount of time that a system resource can remain unavailable before there is an unacceptable impact on other system resources, supported mission/business processes, and the MTD.

tailgating

The process of gaining unauthorized entry into a facility by closely following another person through an entrance and using the credentials of the authorized person to bypass a control point.

A mail bomb is a form of DoS attack.

True

A(n) distinguished name uniquely identifies a certificate entity to a user's public key.

True

The FTC recommends that people place an initial fraud alert (among other thigns) when they suspect they are victims of identity theft.

True

UTP

Unshielded Twisted Pair

Security-Related Policies and Procedures *Which process inspects procedures and verifies that they're working?* a. Audit b. Business continuity plan c. Security review d. Group privilege management

a. *Audit* An audit is used to inspect and test procedures within an organization to verify that those procedures are working and up-to-date. The result of an audit is a report to management.

*Kerberos is used to perform what security service?* a. Authentication protection b. File encryption c. Secure communications d. Protected data transfer

a. *Authentication protection* Kerberos is a third-party authentication service; thus it provides authentication protection. Kerberos can't be used to encrypt files, secure non-authentication communications, or protect data transfer.

Cryptography Basics *What document describes how a CA issues certificates and what they are used for?* a. Certificate policies b. Certificate practices c. Revocation authority d. CRL

a. *Certificate policies* The certificate policies document defines what certificates can be used for.

*When a certificate authority revokes a certificate, notice of the revocation is distributed via what?* a. Certificate revocation list b. Certificate policy c. Digital signature d. Certificate practice statement

a. *Certificate revocation list* Certificate revocation lists are used to identify revoked certificates; however, the Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP), which provides certificate status in real time, has been created as an alternative to CRLs. Answers B and D are both incorrect because these terms relate to the policies and practices of certificates and the issuing authorities. Answer C is incorrect because a digital signature is an electronic signature used for identity authentication.

Physical and Hardware-Based Security *Which of the following is an example of perimeter security?* a. Chain link fence b. Video camera c. Elevator d. Locked computer room

a. *Chain link fence* Perimeter security involves creating a perimeter or outer boundary for a physical space. Video surveillance systems wouldn't be considered a part of perimeter security, but they can be used to enhance physical security monitoring.

Educating and Protecting the User *Which of the following is the best description of tailgating?* a. Following someone through a door they just unlocked b. Figuring out how to unlock a secured area c. Sitting close to someone in a meeting d. Stealing information from someone's desk

a. *Following someone through a door they just unlocked* Tailgating is best defined as following someone through a door they just unlocked.

Threats and Vulnerabilities *Your system log files report an ongoing attempt to gain access to a single account. This attempt has been unsuccessful to this point. What type of attack are you most likely experiencing?* a. Password-guessing attack b. Backdoor attack c. Worm attack d. TCP/IP hijacking

a. *Password-guessing attack* A password-guessing attack occurs when a user account is repeatedly attacked using a variety of different passwords.

Cryptography Basics *What is the process of deriving an encrypted value from a mathematical process called?* a. Hashing b. Asymmetric c. Symmetric d. Social engineering

a. *Hashing* Hashing algorithms are used to derive an encrypted value from a message or word.

*Which term describes the concept of using a data based IP network to add digital voice clients and new voice applications onto the IP network?* a. IP telephony b. Virtualization c. Loop protection d. Captive portals

a. *IP telephony* Using Internet Protocol (IP), various services such as voice, video, and data can be combined (multiplexed) and transported under a universal format. IP telephony is using a data based IP network to add digital voice clients and new voice applications onto the IP network.

Infrastructure and Connectivity *You've been given notice that you'll soon be transferred to another site. Before you leave, you're to audit the network and document everything in use and the reason why it's in use. The next administrator will use this documentation to keep the network running. Which of the following protocols isn't a tunneling protocol but is probably used at your site by tunneling protocols for network security?* a. IPSec b. PPTP c. L2TP d. L2F

a. *IPSec* IPSec provides network security for tunneling protocols. IPSec can be used with many different protocols besides TCP/IP, and it has two modes of security.

Security and Vulnerability in the Network *Which Windows workstation feature is accused of—sometimes inadvertently—making network bridging possible and introducing security concerns?* a. Internet Connection Sharing b. Windows Firewall c. Network Address Translation d. Dynamic Naming Service

a. *Internet Connection Sharing* ICS—Internet Connection Sharing—is accused of (sometimes inadvertently) making network bridging possible and introducing security concerns.

*_______________ limits the amount of time that individuals have to manipulate security configurations.* a. Job rotation b. Mandatory vacation c. Separation of duties d. Least privilege

a. *Job rotation* Job rotation limits the amount of time that individuals are in a position to manipulate security configurations.

Access Control and Identity Management *Which technology allows a connection to be made between two networks using a secure protocol?* a. Tunneling b. VLAN c. Internet d. Extranet

a. *Tunneling* Tunneling allows a network to make a secure connection to another network through the Internet or other network. Tunnels are usually secure and present themselves as extensions of both networks.

*Which one of the following is not considered a physical security component?* a. VPN tunnel b. Mantrap c. Fence d. CCTV

a. *VPN tunnel* A VPN tunnel is an example of data security, not physical security. Mantrap, fence, and CCTV are all components of physical security; therefore, answers B, C, and D are incorrect.

Network Security *What term refers to a technology that enables authorized users to use an unsecured public network, such as the Internet, as if it were a secure private network?* a. Virtual private network (VPN) b. Gateway c. Intrusion detection system (IDS) d. Port mirroring

a. *Virtual private network (VPN)* A virtual private network (VPN) is a technology that enables authorized users to use an unsecured public network, such as the Internet, as if it were a secure private network.

*One way to provide network separation is to physically separate users by connecting them to different _______________.* a. switches and routers b. hubs c. mirrored ports d. operating systems

a. *switches and routers* One way to provide network separation is to physically separate users by connecting them to different switches and routers. This prevents bridging and even prevents a reconfigured device from allowing that connection to occur.

Utility

an attribute of information that describes how data has value or usefulness for an end purpose.

spyware

any technology that aids in gathering information about people or organizations without their knowledge.

*Which port does NetBIOS use?* a. 80 b. 139 c. 143 d. 443

b. *139* NetBIOS uses port 139.

*You want to be sure that the FTP ports that are required for a contract worker's functionality have been properly secured. Which of the following ports would you check?* a. 25/110/143 b. 20/21 c.137/138/139 d. 53

b. *20/21* Ports 20 and 21 are used for FTP. Answer A is incorrect because these ports are used for email. Answer C is incorrect because these NetBIOS ports are required for certain Windows network functions such as file sharing. Answer D is incorrect because this port is used for DNS.

*Which of the following provides a clear record of the path evidence takes from acquisition to disposal?* a. Video capture b. Chain of custody c. Hashes d. Witness statements

b. *Chain of custody* The chain of custody provides a clear record of the path evidence takes from acquisition to disposal. Answer A is incorrect because videotaping the actual entrance of a forensics team into the area helps refute claims that evidence was planted at the scene. Answer C is incorrect because hashes allow validation that the forensic analysis itself has not produced unexpected modifications of evidentiary data. Answer D is incorrect because witnesses provide statements about what they saw, when, where, and how.

*Firewalls provide security through what mechanism?* a. Watching for intrusions b. Controlling traffic entering and leaving a network c. Requiring strong passwords d.

b. *Controlling traffic entering and leaving a network* Firewalls provide protection by controlling traffic entering and leaving a network.

*_______________ switches reside at the top of the hierarchy and carry traffic between switches, while _______________ switches are connected directly to the devices on the network.* a. Workgroup; core b. Core; workgroup c. Public; private d. Private; public

b. *Core; workgroup* Core switches reside at the top of the hierarchy and carry traffic between switches, while workgroup switches are connected directly to the devices on the network.

*What are the two major security areas of WLANs addressed by WPA2?* a. Access and integrity b. Encryption and authentication c. Encryption and access d. Authentication and access

b. *Encryption and authentication* WPA2 addresses the two major security areas of WLANs, namely, encryption and authentication.

Protecting Networks *Which of the following is the process in which a law enforcement officer or a government agent encourages or induces a person to commit a crime when the potential criminal expresses a desire not to go ahead?* a. Enticement b. Entrapment c. Deceit d. Sting

b. *Entrapment* Entrapment is the process in which a law enforcement officer or a government agent encourages or induces a person to commit a crime when the potential criminal expresses a desire not to go ahead.

Physical and Hardware-Based Security *Which of the following won't reduce EMI?* a. Physical shielding b. Humidity control c. Physical location d. Overhauling worn motors

b. *Humidity control* Electrical devices, such as motors, that generate magnetic fields cause EMI. Humidity control won't address EMI.

Infrastructure and Connectivity *IPv6, in addition to having more bits allocated for each host address, also has mandatory requirements built in for which security protocol?* a. TFTP b. IPSec c. SFTP d. L2TP

b. *IPSec* The implementation of IPSec is mandatory with IPv6. While it is widely implemented with IPv4, it is not a requirement.

Physical and Hardware-Based Security *You're the administrator for MTS. You're creating a team that will report to you, and you're attempting to divide the responsibilities for security among individual members. Similarly, which of the following access methods breaks a large area into smaller areas that can be monitored individually?* a. Zone b. Partition c. Perimeter d. Floor

b. *Partition* Partitioning is the process of breaking a network into smaller components that can each be individually protected. This is analogous to building walls in an office building.

Operating System and Application Security *Your company is growing at a tremendous rate, and the need to hire specialists in various areas of IT is becoming apparent. You're helping to write the newspaper ads that will be used to recruit new employees, and you want to make certain that applicants possess the skills you need. One knowledge area in which your organization is weak is database intelligence. What is the primary type of database used in applications today that you can mention in the ads?* a. Hierarchical b. Relational c. Network d. Archival

b. *Relational* Relational database systems are the most frequently installed database environments in use today.

Cryptography Basics *Due to a breach, a certificate must be permanently revoked, and you don't want it to ever be used again. What is often used to revoke a certificate?* a. CRA b. CYA c. CRL d. PKI

c. *CRL* A Certificate Revocation List (CRL) is created and distributed to all CAs to revoke a certificate or key.

Disaster Recovery and Incident Response *Which backup system backs up all the files that have changed since the last full backup?* a. Full backup b. Incremental backup c. Differential backup d. Archival backup

c. *Differential backup* A differential backup backs up all the files that have changed since the last full backup.

Disaster Recovery and Incident Response *Which site best provides limited capabilities for the restoration of services in a disaster?* a. Hot site b. Warm site c. Cold site d. Backup site

b. *Warm site* Warm sites provide some capabilities in the event of a recovery. The organization that wants to use a warm site will need to install, configure, and reestablish operations on systems that may already exist at the warm site.

*Which of the following is not a way to prevent or protect against XSS?* a. Input validation b. Defensive coding c. Allowing script input d. Escaping metacharacters

c. *Allowing script input* A programmer can implement the most effective way to prevent XSS by validating input, coding defensively, escaping metacharacters, and rejecting all script-like input.

*Which of the following describes a simple form of social engineering in which an unauthorized individual follows closely behind someone who has authorized physical access to an environment?* a. Tailgating b. Piggybacking c. Answers A and B d. None of the above

c. *Answers A and B* Both tailgating and piggybacking describe a simple method to gain unauthorized access to an environment by closely following behind someone with authorized access. Neither answer A nor B alone is correct. Answer D is incorrect.

Physical and Hardware-Based Security *RFI is the byproduct of electrical processes, similar to EMI. The major difference is that RFI is usually projected across which of the following?* a. Network medium b. Electrical wiring c. Radio spectrum d. Portable media

c. *Radio spectrum* RFI is the byproduct of electrical processes, similar to EMI. The major difference is that RFI is usually projected across a radio spectrum. Motors with defective brushes can generate RFI, as can a number of other devices.

Threats and Vulnerabilities *You've discovered that an expired certificate is being used repeatedly to gain logon privileges. Which type of attack is this most likely to be?* a. Man-in-the-middle attack b. Backdoor attack c. Replay attack d. TCP/IP hijacking

c. *Replay attack* A replay attack attempts to replay the results of a previously successful session to gain access.

Educating and Protecting the User *Which of the following is another name for social engineering?* a. Social disguise b. Social hacking c. Wetware d. Wetfire

c. *Wetware* Wetware is another name for social engineering.

Cryptography Implementation *A registration authority (RA) can do all the following except:* a. Distribute keys b. Accept registrations for the CA c. Validate identities d. Give recommendations

d. *Give recommendations* A registration authority (RA) can distribute keys, accept registrations for the CA, and validate identities. It cannot give recommendations.

*What type of virus is able to regenerate itself if a single element of its infection is not removed from a compromised system?* a. Polymorphic b. Armored c. Retro d. Phage

d. *Phage* A phage virus is able to regenerate itself from any of its remaining parts.

*Which cloud computing service model allows the consumer to install and run their own specialized applications on the cloud computing network without requiring the consumer to manage or configure any of the underlying cloud infrastructure?* a. Application as a Service (AaaS) b. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) c. Software as a Service (SaaS) d. Platform as a Service (PaaS)

d. *Platform as a Service (PaaS)* Unlike Software as a Service (SaaS), in which the application software belonging to the cloud computing vendor is used, in Platform as a Service (PaaS), consumers can install and run their own specialized applications on the cloud computing network.

*_______________ is an IEEE 802.11 security protocol designed to ensure that only authorized parties can view transmitted wireless information.* a. PSK2-mixed mode b. Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) c. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) d. Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)

c. *Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)* Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) is an IEEE 802.11 security protocol designed to ensure that only authorized parties can view transmitted wireless information.

*Risk _______________ simply means that the risk is acknowledged but that no steps are taken to address it.* a. deterrence b. mitigation c. acceptance d. avoidance

c. *acceptance* Acceptance simply means that the risk is acknowledged but no steps are taken to address it.

Electronic monitoring includes ________ systems

closed-circuit television

Security and Vulnerability in the Network *Which IEEE standard is often referred to as EAP over LAN?* a. 802.1E b. 802.1Z c. 802.1Y d. 802.1X

d. *802.1X* The IEEE standard 802.1X is often referred to as EAP over LAN. It defines port-based security for wireless network access control.

BCP

Business Continuity Planning

CYOD

Choose Your Own Device

Standby ferroresonant UPS

A UPS in which the outside power source directly feeds the internal protected device. The UPS serves as a battery backup, incorporating a ferroresonant transformer instead of a converter switch, providing line filtering and reducing the effect of some power problems, and reducing noise that may be present in the power as it is delivered.

double conversion online UPS

A UPS in which the protected device draws power from an output inverter. The inverter is powered by the UPS battery, which is constantly recharged from the outside power.

secure VPN

A VPN implementation that uses security protocols to encrypt traffic transmitted across unsecured public networks.

Electronic Valuting

A backup method that uses bulk batch transfer of data to an off-site facility; this transfer is usually conducted via leased lines or secure Internet connections.

database shadowing

A backup strategy to store duplicate online transaction data along with duplicate databases at the remote site on a redundant server. This server combines electronic vaulting with remote journaling by writing multiple copies of the database simultaneously to two locations.

attribute

A characteristic of a subject (user or system) that can be used to restrict access to an object. Also known as a subject attribute.

integer bug

A class of computational error caused by methods that computers use to store and manipulate integer numbers; this bug can be exploited by attackers.

configuration

A collection of components that make up a configuration item.

software library

A collection of configuration items that is usually controlled and that developers use to construct revisions and issue new configuration items.

database

A collection of related data stored in a structured form and usually managed by a database management system.

hybrid VPN

A combination of trusted and secure VPN implementations

Sunset Clause

A component of policy or law that defines an expected end date for its applicability.

Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS)

A computer connection system that centralizes the management of user authentication by placing the responsibility for authentication each user on a central authentication server.

Service Bureau

A continuity strategy in which an organization contracts with a service agency to provide a BC facility for a fee.

mutual agreement

A continuity strategy in which two organizations sign a contract to assist the other in a disaster by providing BC facilities, resources, and services until the organization in need can recover from the disaster.

Symmetric encryption

A cryptographic method in which the same algorithm and secret key are used both to encipher and decipher the message.

asymmetric encryption

A cryptographic method that incorporates mathematical operations involving both a public key and a private key to encipher or decipher a message. Either key can be used to encrypt a message, but then the other key is required to decrypt it.

Transposition Cipher

A cryptographic operation that involves simply rearranging the values within a block based on an established pattern. Also known as a permutation cipher.

Vernam cipher

A cryptographic technique developed at AT&T and known as the "one-time pad," this cipher uses a set of characters for encryption operations only one time and then discards it.

project scope

A description of a project's features, capabilities, functions, and quality level, used as the basis of a project plan.

after-action review

A detailed examination and discussion of the events that occurred, from first detection to final recovery

standard

A detailed statement of what must be done to comply with policy, sometimes viewed as the rules governing policy compliance. If the Policy states that employees must "use strong passwords, frequently changed," the standard might specify that the password "must be at least 8 characters, with at least one number, one letter, and one special character."

risk assessment

A determination of the extent to which an organization's information assets are exposed to risk

application layer proxy firewall

A device capable of functioning both as a firewall and an application layer proxy server.

Bastion Host

A device placed between an external , untrusted network and an internal, trusted network. Also known as a sacrificial host, a bastion host serves as the sole target for attack and should therefore be thoroughly secured.

request for proposal (RFP)

A document specifying the requirements of a project, provided to solicit bids from internal or external contractors.

identification (ID) card

A document used to verify the identity of a member of an organization, group, or domain.

warm site

A facility that provides many of the same services and options as a hot site, but typically without installed and configured software applications. Warm sites are used for BC operations.

cold site

A facility that provides only rudimentary services, with no computer hardware or peripherals. Cold sites are used for BC operations.

rate-of-rise sensor

A fire detection sensor that works by detecting an unusually rapid increase in the area temperature within a relatively short period of time.

photoelectric sensor

A fire detection sensor that works by projecting an infrared beam across an area. If the beam is interrupted, presumably by smoke, the alarm or suppression system is activated.

air-aspirating detector

A fire detection sensor used in high-sensitivity areas that works by taking in air, filtering it, and passing it through a chamber that contains a laser beam. The alarm triggers if the beam is broken.

clean agent

A fire suppression agent that does not leave any residue after use or interfere with the operation of electrical or electronic equipment.

pre-action system

A fire suppression sprinkler system that employs a two-phase response to a fire. When a fire is detected anywhere in the facility, the system will first flood all pipes, then activate only the sprinkler heads in the area of the fire.

dry-pipe system

A fire suppression sprinkler system that has pressurized air in all pipes. The air is released in the event of a fire, allowing water to flow from a central area.

deluge system

A fire suppression sprinkler system that keeps all individual sprinkler heads open and applies water to all areas when activated.

stateful packet inspection (SPI) firewall

A firewall type that keeps track of each network connection between internal and external systems using a state table and that expedites the filtering of those communications. Also known as a stateful inspection firewall.

pretexting

A form of social engineering in which the attacker pretends to be an authority figure who needs information to confirm the target's identity, but the real object is to trick the target into revealing confidential information. Pretexting is commonly performed by telephone.

advance-fee fraud (AFF)

A form of social engineering, typically conducted via e-mail, in which an organization or some third party indicates that the recipient is due an exorbitant amount of money and needs only a small advance fee or personal banking information to facilitate the transfer.

data classification scheme

A formal access control methodology used to assign a level of confidentiality to an information asset and thus restrict the number of people who can access it

hot site

A fully configured facility that includes all services, communications links, and physical plant operations. Hot sites are used for BC operations.

McCumber Cude

A graphical representation of the architectural approach widely used in computer and information security; commonly shown as a cube composed of 3x3x3 cells, similar to a Rubik's Cube.

man-in-the-middle

A group of attacks whereby a person intercepts a communications stream and inserts himself in the conversation to convince each of the legitimate parties that he is the other communications partner. Some man-in-the-middle attacks involve encryption functions.

community of interest

A group of people who are united by similar interests or values within an organization and who share a common goal of helping the organization to meet its objectives.

script kiddie

A hacker of limited skill who uses expertly written software to attack a system. Also known as skids, skiddies, or script bunnies.

hacktivist

A hacker who seeks to interfere with or disrupt systems to protest the operations, policies, or actions of an organization or government agency.

expert hacker

A hacker who uses extensive knowledge of the inner workings of computer hardware and software to gain unauthorized access to systems and information. Also known as elite hackers, expert hackers often create automated exploits, scripts, and tools used by other hackers.

sensor

A hardware and/or software component deployed on a remote computer or network segment and designed to monitor network or system traffic for suspicious activities and report back to the host application. For example, IDPS sensors report to an IDPS application.

Diffie-Hellman key exchange

A hybrid cryptosystem that facilitates exchanging private keys using public-key encryption.

Message Authentication Code (MAC)

A key-dependent, one-way hash function that allows only specific recipients (symmetric key holders) to access the message digest.

whitelist

A list of systems, users, files, or addresses that are known to be benign; it is commonly used to expedite those entities' access to systems or networks.

Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

A list of the task to be accomplished in the project, the skill sets or individual employees needed to perform the tasks, the start and end dates for tasks, the estimated resources required, and the dependencies among tasks

electromechanical lock

A lock that can accept a variety of inputs as keys, including magnetic strips on ID cards, radio signals from name badges, personal identification numbers (PINs) typed into a keypad, or some combination of these to activate an electrically powered locking mechanism.

biometric lock

A lock that reads a unique biological attribute such as a fingerprint, iris, retina, or palm and then uses that input as a key.

surge

A long-term increase in electrical power availability.

blackout

A long-term interruption (outage) in electrical power availability.

Trojan horse

A malware program that hides its true nature and reveals its designed behavior only when activated.

Security education, training, and awareness (SETA)

A managerial program designed to improve the security of information assets by providing targeted knowledge, skills, and guidance for an organization's employees.

exit interview

A meeting with an employee who is leaving the organization to remind the employee of contractual obligations, such as nondisclosure agreements, and to obtain feedback about the employee's tenure.

top-down approach

A methodology of establishing security policies that is initiated by upper management.

honeynet

A monitored network or network segment that contains multiple honeypot systems.

security clearance

A personnel security structure in which each user of an information asset is assigned an authorization level that identifies the level of classified information he or she is "cleared" to access.

mechanical lock

A physical lock that may rely on either a key or numerical combination to rotate tumblers and release the hasp. Also known as a manual lock.

evidence

A physical object or documented information entered into a legal proceeding that proves and action occurred or identifies the intent of a perpetrator

Passphrase

A plain-language phrase, typically longer than a password, from which a virtual password is derived.

vulnerability

A potential weakness in an asset or its defensive control system(s).

difference analysis

A procedure that compares the current state of a network segment against a known previous state of the same network segment (the baseline of systems and services).

project wrap-up

A process of bringing a project to a conclusion, addressing any pending issues and the overall project effort, and identifying ways to improve the process in the future.

Next Generation Firewall (NextGen or NGFW)

A security appliance that delivers unified threat management capabilities in a single appliance.

Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)

A security protocol developed by Netscape to use public-key encryption to secure a channel over the internet.

extranet

A segment of the DMZ where additional authentication and authorization controls are put into place to provide services that are not available to the general public.

proxy server

A server that exists to intercept requests for information form external users and provide the requested information by retrieving it from an internal server, thus protecting and minimizing the demand on internal servers. Some proxy servers are also cache servers.

penetration testing

A set of security tests and evaluations that simulate attacks by a hacker or other malicious external source.

mantrap

A small room or enclosure with separate entry and exit points, designed to restrain a person who fails an access authorization attempt.

Privacy Enhanced Mail (PEM)

A standard proposed by the Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) that uses 3DES symmetric key encryption and RSA for key exchanges and digital signatures.

nondiscretionary access controls (NDACs)

Access controls that are implemented by a central authority.

task-based access control (TBAC)

An example of a nondiscretionary control where privileges are tied to a task a user performs in an organization and are inherited when a user is assigned to that task. Tasks are considered more temporary than roles. TBAC is an example of an LDAC.

static electricity

An imbalance of electrical charges in the atmosphere or on the surface of a material, caused by triboelectrification

dumpster diving

An information attack that involves searching through a target organization's trash and recycling bins for sensitive information.

penetration tester

An information security professional with authorization to attempt to gain system access in an effort to identify and recommend resolutions for vulnerabilities in those systems.

public key infrastructure (PKI)

An integrated system of software, encryption methodologies, protocols, legal agreements, and third-party services that enables users to communicate securely through the use of digital certificates.

access control matrix

An integration of access control lists (focusing on assets) and capability tables (focusing on users) that results in a matrix with organizational assets listed in the column headings and users listed in the row headings. The matrix contains ACLs in columns for a particular device or asset and capability tables in rows for a particular user.

availability disruption

An interruption in service, usually from a service provider, which causes an adverse event within an organization.

business impact analysis (BIA)

An investigation and assessment of the various adverse events that can affect the organization, conducted as a preliminary phase of the contingency planning process, which includes a determination of how critical a system or set of information is to the organization's core processes and recovery priorities.

Issue-specific security policy (ISSP)

An organizational policy that provides detailed, targeted guidance to instruct all members of the organization in the use of a resource, such as one of its processes or technologies.

AV

Antivirus

spear phishing

Any highly targeted phishing attack.

rooting

Escalating privileges to gain administrator-level control over a computer system (including smartphones). Typically associated with Android OS smartphones. See also jailbreaking.

API

Application Programming Interface

ASP

Application Service Provider

A hard drive feature known has "hot swap" is a RAID implementation (typically referred to as RAID Level 1) in which the computer records all data to twin drives simultaneously, providing a backup if the primary drive fails.

False

A worm requires that another program is running before it can begin functioning.

False

A(n) alarming event is an event with negative consequences that could threaten the organization's information assets or operations.

False

A(n) monitoring vulnerability scanner is one that listens in on the network and determines vulnerable versions of both server and client software.

False

ACLs are more specific to the operation of a system than rule-based policies and they may or may not deal with users directly.

False

Asymmetric encryption systems use a single key to both encrypt and decrypt a message.

False

Documenting information system changes and assessing their potential impact on system security is an important and consequential part of digital forensics.

False

Each of the threats faced by an organization must be evaluated, including the threat's potential to endanger the organization, which is known as a threat prioritization

False

Employees are not deterred by the potential loss of certification or professional accreditation resulting from a breach of a code of conduct, because this loss has not effect on employees' marketability and earning power

False

Encryption is the process of converting the ciphertext message back into plaintext so that it can be readily understood

False

Even if Kerberos servers are subjected to denial-of-service attacks, a client can still request additional services. A) True B) False

False

In some organizations, facilities management is the identification, inventory, and documentation of the current information system's status --- hardware, software, and networking configuration.

False

Information security's primary mission is to ensure that systems and their contents retain their confidentiality at any cost.

False

Intrusion detection consists of procedures and systems that identify system intrusions and take action when an intrusion is detected.

False

Operational feasibility is an assessment of whether the organization can acquire the technology necessary to implement and support the proposed control

False

Organizations are not required by law to protect employee information that is sensitive or personal

False

Packet munchkins use automated exploits to engage in distributed denial-of-service attacks.

False

Residual risk is the risk that has not been removed, shifted, or planned for after vulnerabilities have been completely resolved

False

Risk mitigation is the process of assigning a risk rating or score to each information asset.

False

The NIST SP 800- 100 Information Security Handbook provides technical guidance for the establishment and implementation of an information security program.

False

The RFP determines the impact that a specific technology or approach can have on the organization's information assets and what it may cost.

False

The defense control strategy is the risk control strategy that attempts to eliminate or reduce any remaining uncontrolled risk through the application of additional controls and safeguards, but it is not the preferred approach to control risk.

False

The final process in the vulnerability assessment and remediation domain is the exit phase.

False

The most common credential for a CISO-level position is the Security+ certification.

False

The networks layers of the bull's eye is the outermost ring of the bull's eye.

False

The security model is the basis fro the design, selection, and implementation of all security program elements, including policy implementation and ongoing policy and program management.

False

The term phreaker is now commonly associated with an individual who cracks or removes software protection that is designed to prevent unauthorized duplication.

False

To encipher means to decrypt, decode, or convert ciphertext into the equivalent plaintext.

False

Usually, as the length of a crytpovariable increases, the number of random guesses that have to be made in order to break the code is reduced. A) True B) False

False

Videoconferencing is off-site computing that uses Internet connections, dial-up connections, connections over leased point-to-point links between offices, and other mechanisms.

False

When using trap-and-trace, the trace usually consists of a honeypot or padded cell and an alarm. _________________________ A) True B) False

False

Within a data classification scheme, "comprehensive" means that an information asset should fit in only one category.

False

A padded cell is a hardened honeynet

False (honeypot)

Baselining is the comparison of past security activities and events against the organization's current performance.

False (not true)

The water-ski model is a type of SDLC in which each phase of the process flows from the information gained in the previous phase, with multiple opportunities to return to previous phases and make adjustments.

False (water fall model)

The computed value for he ALE compares the costs and benefits of a particular control alternative to determine whether the control is worth its cost.

False - CBA determines

A(n) differential backup only archives the files that have been modified that day, and thus requires less space and time than a full backup.

False.

"Builders" in the field of information security provide dat-to-day systems monitoring and use to support an organization's goals and objectives.

Fasle

Within organizations, the most important feasibility is technical feasibility, which defines what can and cannot occur based on the consensus and relationship between the communities of interest.

Fasle

media

As a subset of information assets, the systems and networks that store, process, and transmit information.

ABAC

Attribute-based Access Control

The Remote _____________ Dial-In User Service system centralizes the management of user authentication by placing the responsibility for authenticating each user int eh central RADIUS server

Authentication

AH

Authentication Header

AAA

Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting

_________ of information is the quality or state of being genuine or original.

Authenticity

Phase 1:

Initiation • Initial delineation of business requirements in terms of confidentiality, integrity, and availability; • Determination of information categorization and identification of known special handling requirements to transmit, store, or create information such as personally identifiable information; and • Determination of any privacy requirements.

IEEE

Institute of Electrical and Electronic Engineers

Some information gathering techniques are quite legal -- for example, using a Web browser to perform market research. These legal techniques are called, collectively, competitive ______________.

Intelligence

HIDPSs are also known as system ________ verifiers.

Intergrity

IDF

Intermediate Distribution Frame

data users

Internal and external stakeholders (customers, suppliers, and employees) who interact with information in support of their organization's planning and operations.

IDEA

International Data Encryption Algorithm

The ____ vulnerability assessment is designed to find and document vulnerabilities that may be present in the organization's public network.

Internet

ICMP

Internet Control Message Protocol

IIS

Internet Information System

IKE

Internet Key Exchange

IMAP4

Internet Message Access Protocol v4

IP

Internet Protocol

IPSec

Internet Protocol Security

ISP

Internet Service Provider

IoT

Internet of Things

LAN

Local Area Network

Common Law, Case Law, and Precedent

Originates from a judicial branch or oversight board and involves the interpretation of law based on the actions of a previous and/or higher court or board

Statutory Law

Originates from a legislative branch specifically tasked with the creation and publication of laws and statutes

regulatory or administrative law

Originates from an executive branch or authorized regulatory agency, and includes executive orders and regulations.

Metrics-based measures

Performance measures or metrics based on observed numerical data

search warrant

Permission to search for evidentiary material at a specified location and/or to seize items to return to an investigator's lab for examination. An affidavit becomes a search warrant when signed by an approving authority.

PFX

Personal Exchange Format

PHI

Personal Health Information

PIV

Personal Identity Verification

PII

Personally Identifiable Information

_________ sensors project and detect an infrared beam across an area.

Photoelectric

POTS

Plain Old Telephone Service

PaaS

Platform as a Service

PAM

Pluggable Authentication Modules

PPP

Point-to-Point Protocol

PPTP

Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol

The _______ level of the bull's-eye model establishes the ground rules for the use of all systems and describes what is appropriate and what is appropriate; and what is inappropriate, it enables all other information security components to function correctly.

Policies

PAT

Port Address Translation

IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol)

Port: TCP 143 Receives email from a mail server with more features than POP3.

Ms-sql-s - Microsoft SQL Server

Port: TCP 1443 Receives SQL database queries from clients.

FTP (File Transfer Protocol)

Port: TCP 20 & 21 Transfers files from host to host.

SSH (Secure Shell)

Port: TCP 22 Remotely administers network devices and systems.

SCP (Secure Copy Protocol)

Port: TCP 22 Securely Copies.

SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol)

Port: TCP 25 Sends mail over the internet.

iSCSI Target

Port: TCP 3260 A listening port for an iSCSI targeted devices when linking data storage facilities over IP.

Diameter

Port: TCP 3868 A more advanced AAA protocol that is a replacement for RADIUS.

HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure)

Port: TCP 443 Trasmits web page data to a client over an SSL/TLS encryption connection.

SMB (Server Message Block)

Port: TCP 445 Provides shared access to files and other resources on a network.

SMTP with SSL/TLS

Port: TCP 465 or 587 Sends email over the internet with an SSL and TLS secured connection.

Syslog over TLS

Port: TCP 6514 Conducts computer message logging, especially for routers and firewall logs, over a TLS encrypted connection.

HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol)

Port: TCP 80 Transmits web page data to a client for unsecured web browsing.

FTPS (File Transfer Protocol Secure)

Port: TCP 989 or 990 Transfers files from host to host over an encrypted connection.

IMAP with SSL/TLS

Port: TCP 993 Receives email from a mail server over an SSL/TLS encrypted connection.

POP3 with SSL/TLS

Port: TCP 995 Receives (downloads) email from a mail server using an SSL/TLS encrypted connection.

RPC/DCOM-scm (Remote Procedure Call)

Port: TCP/UDP 135 Locates DCom ports to request a service from a program on another computer on the network.

LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol)

Port: TCP/UDP 389 Maintains directories of users and other objects. (Active Directory in Windows)

DNS (Domain Name System/Service)

Port: TCP/UDP 53 Resolves hostnames to IPs and IPs to hostnames.

LDAP with SSL/TLS

Port: TCP/UDP 636 Maintains directories of users and other objects over an encrypted SSL/TLS connection.

Kerberos

Port: TCP/UDP 88 Network authentication using a system of tickets within a Windows domain.

SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol)

Port: UDP 161 Remotely monitors network devices.

RADIUS (Alternative) (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service)

Port: UDP 1645 or 1646 Authenticates, Authorizes, and Accounts.

L2TP (Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol)

Port: UDP 1701 An underlying VPN protocol but has not inherent security. (Use IPSec to secure the connection)

RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service)

Port: UDP 1812 or 1813 Authenticates, Authorizes, and Accounts.

Telnet

Port: UDP 23 Unencrypted method to remotely administer network devices. (Deprecated)

TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol)

Port: UDP 69 Simplified version of FTP. Puts a file on a remote host, or gets a file from a remote host. (Unsecure)

POP

Post Office Protocol

PEM

Privacy-enhanced Electronic Mail

SRTP

Secure Real-Time Protocol

SSH

Secure Shell

SSL

Secure Sockets Layer

S/MIME

Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions

SFTP

Secured File Transfer Protocol

SCAP

Security Content Automation Protocol

____ are the technically qualified individuals tasked to configure firewalls, deploy IDSs, implement security software, diagnose and troubleshoot problems, and coordinate with systems and network administrators to ensure that an organization's security technology is properly implemented.

Security technicians

behavior-based detection

See anomaly-based detection

public-key encryption

See asymmetric encryption.

subject attribute

See attribute.

chain of custody

See chain of evidence.

configuration management (CM)

See configuration and change management (CCM)

SDK

Software Development Kit

SDLC

Software Development Life Cycle

SDLM

Software Development Life Cycle Methodology

SaaS

Software as a Service

SSD

Solid State Drive

long-arm jurisdiction

The ability of a legal entity to exercise its influence beyond its normal boundaries by asserting a connection between an out-of-jurisdiction entity and a local legal case.

accountability

The access control mechanism that ensures all actions on a system--authorized or unauthorized--can be attributed to an authenticated identity. Also known as auditability.

authorization

The access control mechanism that represents the matching of an authenticated entity to a list of information assets and corresponding access levels.

information extortion

The act of an attacker or trusted insider who steals information from a computer system and demands compensation for its return or for an agreement not to disclose the information.

operational planning

The actions taken by management to specify the short term goals and objectives of the organization in order to obtain specified tactical goals, followed by estimates and schedules for the allocation of resources necessary to achieve those goals and objectives

Business Continuity Planning (BCP)

The actions taken by senior management to development and implement the BC policy, plan, and continuity teams.

contingency planning (CP)

The actions taken by senior management to specify the organization's efforts and actions if an adverse event becomes an incident or disaster. This planning includes incident response, disaster recovery, and business continuity efforts, as well as preparatory business impact analysis.

work recovery time (WRT)

The amount of effort (expressed as elapsed time) necessary to make the business function operational after the technology element is recovered (as identified with RTO). Tasks include testing and validation of the system.

risk control

The application of controls that reduce the risks to an organization's information assets to an acceptable level

information security governance

The application of the principles of corporate governance to the information security function

facilities management

The aspect of organizational management focused on the development and maintenance of its buildings and physical infrastructure

Mean Time to Repair (MTTR)

The average amount of time a computer repair technician needs to resolve the cause of a failure through replacement or repair of a faulty unit.

Mean time to failure (MTTF)

The average amount of time until the next hardware failure.

remote journaling

The backup of data to an off-site facility in close to real time based on transactions as they occur.

loss frequency

The calculation of the likelihood of an attack coupled with the attack frequency to determine the expected number of losses within a specified time range.

planning and risk assessment domain

The component of the maintenance model that focuses on identifying and planning ongoing information security activities and identifying and managing risks introduced through IT information security projects.

internal monitoring domain

The component of the maintenance model that focuses on identifying, assessing, and managing the configuration and status of information assets in an organization.

phased implementation

The conversion strategy that involves a measured rollout of the planned system; only part of the system is brought out and disseminated across an organization before the next piece is implemented.

pilot implementation

The conversion strategy that involves implementing the entire system into a single office, department, or division, and dealing with issues that arise before expanding to the rest of the organization.

parallel operations

The conversion strategy that involves running the new system concurrently with the old system.

direct changeover

The conversion strategy that involves stopping the old system and starting the new one without any overlap.

due care

Measures that an organization takes to ensure every employee knows what is acceptable and what is not.

Behavioral feasibility is also known as _________________________.

Operational feasibility

disaster recovery plan (DR plan)

The documented product of disaster recovery planning; a plan that shows the organization's intended efforts in the event of a disaster.

incident response plan (IR Plan)

The documented product of incident response planning; a plan that shows the organization's intended efforts in the event of an incident.

operational plan

The documented product of operational planning; a plan for the organization's intended operational efforts on a day-to-day basis for the next several months.

tactical plan

The documented product of tactical planning; a plan for the organization's intended tactical efforts over the next few years.

information system (IS)

The entire set of software, hardware, data, people, procedures, and networks that enable the use of information resources in the organization. -Software -Hardware -Data -People -Procedures -Networks

triboelectrification

The exchange of electrons between two materials when they make contact, resulting in one object becoming more positively charged and the other more negatively charged.

enterprise information security policy (EISP)

The high-level security policy that is based on and directly supports the mission, vision, and direction of the organization and sets the strategic direction, scope, and tone for all security efforts. An EISP is also known as a security program policy, general security policy, IT security policy, high-level InfoSec policy, or simply and InfoSec policy.

C.I.A. triad

The industry standard for computer security since the development of the mainframe. The standard is based on three characteristics that describe the utility of information: confidentiality, integrity, and availability. -Is a standard based on confidentiality, integrity, and availability, now viewed as inadequate. -Expanded model consists of a list of critical characteristics of information.

configuration rules

The instructions a system administrator codes into a server, networking device, or security device to specify how it operates.

Domain Name System (DNS) cache poisoning

The intentional hacking and modification of a DNS database to redirect legitimate traffic to illegitimate Internet locations. Also known as DNS spoofing.

false accept rate

The rate at which fraudulent users or nonusers are allowed access to systems or areas as a result of a failure in the biometric device. This failure is also known as a Type II error or a false positive.

version

The recorded state of a particular revision of a software or hardware configuration item. The version number is often noted in a specific formate, such as "M.N.b." In this notation, "M" is the major release number and "N.b." can represent various minor releases or builds within the major release.

pharming

The redirection of legitimate user Web traffic to illegitimate Web sites with the intent to collect personal information.

task rotation

The requirement that all critical tasks can be performed by multiple individuals.

Defense risk control strategy

The risk control strategy that attempts to eliminate or reduce any remaining uncontrolled risk through the application of additional controls and safeguards. Also known as the avoidance strategy.

Mitigation Risk Control Strategy

The risk control strategy that attempts to reduce the impact of the loss caused by a realized incident, disaster, or attack through effective contingency planning and preparation.

transference risk control strategy

The risk control strategy that attempts to shift risk to other assets, other processes, or other organizations.

Termination Risk Control Strategy

The risk control strategy that eliminates all risk associated with an information asset by removing it from service

A background check must always be conducted to determine the level of trust the business can place in a candidate for an information security position.

True

A chain of custody is the detailed documentation of the collection, storage, transfer, and ownership of evidence from the crime scene through its presentation in court.

True

A common DMZ arrangement is a subnet firewall that consists of two or more internal bastion hosts behind a packet-filtering router, with each host protecting the trusted network.

True

A maintenance ticket is opened when a user calls about an issue

True

A proven method for prioritizing a program of complex change is the bull's-eye method.

True

A task or subtask becomes an action step when it can be completed by one individual or skill set and when it includes a single deliverable.

True

A wireless security toolkit should include the ability to sniff wireless traffic, scan wireless hosts, and assess the level of privacy or confidentiality afforded on the wireless network.

True

A worm may be able to deposit copies of itself onto all Web servers that the infected system can reach, so that users who subsequently visit sites become infected.

True

A(n) capability table specifies which subjects and objects users or groups can access.

True

Access control is achieved by means of a combination of policies, programs, and technologies

True

Best practices in firewall rule set configuration state that the firewall device never allows administrative access directly from the public network.

True

Firewalls can be categorized by processing mode, development era, or structure.

True

Firewalls operate by examining a data packet and performing a comparison with some predetermined logical rules.

True

For configuration management (CM) and control, it is important to document the proposed or actual changes in the system security plan.

True

Forces of nature, sometimes called acts of God, can present some of the most dangerous threats because they usually occur with very little warning and are beyond the control of people.

True

In DNS cache poisoning, valid packets exploit poorly configured DNS serves to inject false information and corrupt the server's answers to routine DNS queries from other operating systems on the network.

True

In addition to being credited with inventing a substitution cipher, Julius Caesar was associated with an early version of the transposition cipher

True

In most cases, organizations look for a technically qualified information security generalist who has a solid understanding of how an organization operates.

True

Intellectual property is defined as "the creation, ownership, and control of ideas as well as the representation of those ideas."

True

Keycard readers based on smart cards are often used to secure computer rooms, communications closets, and other restricted areas. A) True B) False

True

Likelihood is the probability that a specific vulnerability within an organization will be the target of an attack.

True

Major planning components should be reviewed on a periodic basis to ensure that they are current, accurate, and appropriate.

True

Manual fire detection systems, include human responses, such as calling the fire department and manually activated alarms. _________________________

True

Once a project is underway, it is managed using a process known as gap analysis, which ensures that progress is measured periodically.

True

Organizations should have a carefully planned and fully populated inventory of all their network devices, communication channels, and computing devices.

True

Planners need to estimate the effort required to complete each task, subtask, or action step.

True

Planning for the implementation phase of a security project requires the creation of a detailed project plan.

True

Policy needs to be reviewed and refreshed from time to time to ensure that it's providing a current foundation for the information security program.

True

Pretty Good Privacy (PGP) uses freeware ZIP algorithm to compress the message after it has been digitally signed but before it is encrypted.

True

Rehearsal adds value by exercising the procedures, identifying shortcomings, and providing security personnel the opportunity to improve the security plan before it is needed.

True

Security efforts that seek to provide a superior level of performance in the protection of information are referred to as best business practices.

True

The Digital Millennium Copyright Act is the American law created in response to Directive 95/46/EC, adopted in 1995 by the European Union

True

The Economic Espionage Act of 1996 protects American ingenuity, intellectual property, and competitive advantage.

True

The Federal Bureau of Investigation's National InfraGard Program serves its member sin four basic ways: Maintains an intrusion alert network using encrypted e-mail; maintains a secure Web site for communication about suspicious activity or intrusions; sponsors local chapter activities; and operates a help desk for questions.

True

The International Society of Forensic Computer Examiners (ISFCE) offers two levels of certification: the Certified Computer Examiner (CCE) and the Master Certified Computer Examiner (MCCE)

True

The most common hybrid system is based on the Diffie-Hellman key exchange, which is a method for exchanging private keys using public key encryption. A) True B) False

True

The policy administrator is responsible for the creation, revision, distribution, and storage of the policy.

True

The primary drawback to the direct changeover approach is that if the new system fails or need modification, users may be without service while the system's bugs are worked out.

True

The threats-vulnerabilities-assets (TVA) worksheet is a document that shows a comparative ranking or prioritized assets against prioritized threats, with an indication of any vulnerabilities in the asset /threat pairings.

True

A variation of the dry-pipe system is the pre-action system, which has a two-phase response to a fire.

Ture

URI

Uniform Resource Identifier

UPS

Uninterruptable Power Supply

URL

Universal Resource Locator

USB

Universal Serial Bus

UAV

Unmanned Aerial Vehicle

UAT

User Acceptance Testing

UDP

User Datagram Protocol

time-share

a continuity strategy in which an organization co-leases facilities with a business partner or sister organization. A time-share allows the organization to have a BC option while reducing its overall costs.

digital malfeasance

a crime against or using digital media, computer technology, or related components; in other words, a computer is the source of the crime or the object of it

fixed-temperature sensor

a fire detection sensor that works by detecting the point at which the ambient temperature in an area reaches a predetermined level

Flame detector

a fire detection system that works by detecting the infrared or ultraviolet light produced by an open flame

wet-pipe system

a fire suppression sprinkler system that contains pressurized water in all pipes and has some form of valve in each protected area.

water mist sprinkler

a fire suppression sprinkler system that relies on ultra-fine mists to reduce the ambient temperature below that needed to sustain a flame

sprinkler system

a fire suppression system designed to apply a liquid, usually water, to all areas in which a fire has been detected

Static Packet Filtering Firewall

a firewall type that requires the configuration rules to be manually created, sequenced, and modified within the firewall.

distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack

a form of Dos attack in which a coordinated stream of requests is launched against a target from many locations at the same time using bots or zombies.

buttom-up approach

a method of establishing security policies and/or practices that begins as a grassroots effort in which systems administrators attempt to improve the security of theirs systems. •Key advantage: technical expertise of individual administrators •Seldom works, as it lacks a number of critical features: -Participant support -Organizational staying power

threats-vulnerabilities-assets (TVA) triples

a pairing of an asset with a threat and an identification of vulnerabilities that exist between the two. This paring is often expressed in the format TxVyAz, where there may be one or more vulnerabilities between Threat X and Asset Z. For example, T1V1A2 would represent Threat 1 to Vulnerability 1 on Asset 2.

clipping level

a predefined assessment level that triggers a predetermined response when surpassed. Typically, the response is to write the event to a log file and/or notify an administrator.

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

a private, secure network operated over a public and insecure network. A VPN keeps the contents of the network messages hidden from observers who may have access to public traffic.

risk management

a process of identifying risk, assessing its relative magnitude, and taking steps to reduce it to an acceptable level

Disaster Recovery and Incident Response *Which redundancy strategy has one spare part for every component in use?* a. 1+1 b. JWDO c. JIT d. Rollovers

a. *1+1* The redundancy strategy 1+1 has one spare part for every component in use.

*An Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) address is _______________ in length.* a. 128 bits b. 64 bytes c. 32 bytes d. 32 bits

a. *128 bits* IPv6 expands the length of source and destination IP addresses from IPv4's 32 bits to 128 bits.

Wireless Networking Security *What is the size of the wrapper TKIP places around the WEP encryption with a key that is based on such things as the MAC address of your machine and the serial number of the packet?* a. 128-bit b. 64-bit c. 56-bit d. 12-bit

a. *128-bit* TKIP places a 128-bit wrapper around the WEP encryption with a key that is based on such things as the MAC address of your machine and the serial number of the packet.

Infrastructure and Connectivity *Which ports are, by default, reserved for use by FTP? (Choose all that apply.)* a. 20 and 21 TCP b. 20 and 21 UDP c. 22 and 23 TCP d. 22 and 23 UDP

a. *20 and 21 TCP* FTP uses TCP ports 20 and 21. FTP does not use UDP ports.

*Which port does the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) use?* a. 25 b. 53 c. 110 d. 143

a. *25* The Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) uses port 25.

Security-Related Policies and Procedures *Which ISO standard states: "Privileges should be allocated to individuals on a need-to-use basis and on an event-by-event basis, i.e. the minimum requirement for their functional role when needed"?* a. 27002 b. 27102 c. 20102 d. 20112

a. *27002* The ISO standard 27002 (which updates 17799) states: "Privileges should be allocated to individuals on a need-to-use basis and on an event-by-event basis, i.e. the minimum requirement for their functional role when needed."

Infrastructure and Connectivity *How many bits are used for addressing with IPv4 and IPv6, respectively?* a. 32, 128 b. 16, 64 c. 8, 32 d. 4, 16

a. *32, 128* IPv4 uses 32 bits for the host address, while IPv6 uses 128 bits for this.

Protecting Networks *It is suspected that some recent network compromises are originating from the use of RDP. Which of the following TCP port traffic should be monitored?* a. 3389 b. 139 c. 138 d. 443

a. *3389* TCP port 3389 is used by RDP. Answer B is incorrect because UDP uses port 139 for network sharing. Answer C is incorrect because port 138 is used to allow NetBIOS traffic for name resolution. Answer D is incorrect because port 443 is used for HTTPS.

*LDAP operates over what TCP ports?* a. 636 and 389 b. 110 and 25 c. 443 and 80 d. 20 and 21

a. *636 and 389* LDAP operates over TCP ports 636 and 389. POP3 and SMTP operate over TCP ports 110 and 25, respectively. TLS operates over TCP ports 443 and 80 (SSL operates only over TCP port 443; HTTP operates over TCP port 80). FTP operates over TCP ports 20 and 21.

Wireless Networking Security *Which protocol operates on 2.4GHz and has a bandwidth of 1 Mbps or 2 Mbps?* a. 802.11 b. 802.11a c. 802.11b d. 802.11g

a. *802.11* 802.11 operates on 2.4GHZ. This standard allows for bandwidths of 1 Mbps or 2 Mbps.

Operating System and Application Security *LDAP is an example of which of the following?* a. Directory access protocol b. IDS c. Tiered model application development environment d. File server

a. *Directory access protocol* Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) is a directory access protocol used to publish information about users. This is the computer equivalent of a phone book.

Disaster Recovery and Incident Response *Which plan or policy helps an organization determine how to relocate to an emergency site?* a. Disaster-recovery plan b. Backup site plan c. Privilege management policy d. Privacy plan

a. *Disaster-recovery plan* The disaster-recovery plan deals with site relocation in the event of an emergency, natural disaster, or service outage.

*Which one of the following best describes the type of attack designed to bring a network to a halt by flooding the systems with useless traffic?* a. DoS b. Ping of death c. Teardrop d. Social engineering

a. *DoS* A DoS attack is designed to bring down a network by flooding the system with an overabundance of useless traffic. Although answers B and C are both types of DoS attacks, they are incorrect because DoS more accurately describes "a type of attack." Answer D is incorrect because social engineering describes the nontechnical means of obtaining information.

Threats and Vulnerabilities *Which type of attack denies authorized users access to network resources?* a. DoS b. Worm c. Logic bomb d. Social engineering

a. *DoS* A DoS attack is intended to prevent access to network resources by overwhelming or flooding a service or network.

*Which of the following is the most useful when you're dealing with machines that are being taken on the road by traveling executives, sales managers, or insurance agents?* a. Full disk encryption b. File-level encryption c. Media-level encryption d. Application-level encryption

a. *Full disk encryption* Full disk encryption is most useful when you're dealing with machines that are being taken on the road by traveling executives, sales managers, or insurance agents. Answer B is incorrect because in file- or folder-level encryption, individual files or folders are encrypted by the file system itself. Answer C is incorrect because media encryption is used for USB flash drives, iPods, and other portable storage devices. Answer D is incorrect because application-level encryption does not protect the data stored on the machines.

*Which of the following is true of Pretty Good Privacy (PGP)? (Select the two best answers.)* a. It uses a web of trust. b. It uses a hierarchical structure. c. It uses public key encryption. d. It uses private key encryption.

a. *It uses a web of trust.* c. *It uses public key encryption.* PGP uses a web of trust rather than the hierarchical structure. It also uses public key encryption. Based on this, answers B and D are incorrect.

Cryptography Basics *After returning from a conference in Jamaica, your manager informs you that he has learned that law enforcement has the right, under subpoena, to conduct investigations using keys. He wants you to implement measures to make such an event run smoothly should it ever happen. What is the process of storing keys for use by law enforcement called?* a. Key escrow b. Key archival c. Key renewal d. Certificate rollover

a. *Key escrow* Key escrow is the process of storing keys or certificates for use by law enforcement. Law enforcement has the right, under subpoena, to conduct investigations using these keys.

Protecting Networks *Which of the following copies the traffic from all ports to a single port and disallows bidirectional traffic on that port?* a. Port spanning b. Socket blending c. Straddling d. Amalgamation

a. *Port spanning* Port spanning (also known as port mirroring) copies the traffic from all ports to a single port and disallows bidirectional traffic on that port.

Protecting Networks *Sockets are a combination of the IP address and which of the following?* a. Port b. MAC address c. NIC setting d. NetBIOS ID

a. *Port* Sockets are a combination of the IP address and the port.

A(n) __________ is a detailed examination of the events that occurred rom first detection to final recovery.

after action review

*Which protocol is used to manage network equipment and is supported by most network equipment manufacturers?* a. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) b. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) c. Secure Copy Protocol (SCP) d. Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP)

a. *Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)* The Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a popular protocol used to manage network equipment and is supported by most network equipment manufacturers.

Protecting Networks *Which device monitors network traffic in a passive manner?* a. Sniffer b. IDS c. Firewall d. Web browser

a. *Sniffer* Sniffers monitor network traffic and display traffic in real time. Sniffers, also called network monitors, were originally designed for network maintenance and troubleshooting.

Security and Vulnerability in the Network *You want to implement MAC filtering on a small network but do not know the MAC address of a Linux-based workstation. Which command-line tool can you run on the workstation to find the MAC address?* a. ifconfig b. ifconfig /show c. ipconfig d. ipconfig /all

a. *ifconfig* The command ifconfig will show the MAC address on the Linux or Unix-based workstation.

*An advantage of _______________ is that it helps to expose any potential avenues for fraud by having multiple individuals with different perspectives learn about the job and uncover vulnerabilities that someone else may have overlooked.* a. job rotation b. mandatory vacation c. separation of duties d. least privilege

a. *job rotation* An advantage of job rotation is that it helps to expose any potential avenues for fraud by having multiple individuals with different perspectives learn about the job and uncover vulnerabilities that someone else may have overlooked.

*Ports can be secured through disabling unused interfaces, using _______________, and through IEEE 802.1x.* a. media access control (MAC) limiting and filtering b. virtual private network (VPN) tunneling c. packet sniffers d. virtual local area networks (VLANs)

a. *media access control (MAC) limiting and filtering* Ports can be secured through disabling unused interfaces, using MAC limiting and filtering, and through IEEE 802.1x.

*A weakness of FTPS is that although the control port commands are encrypted, the data port (_______________) may or may not be encrypted.* a. port 20 b. port 21 c. port 25 d. port 80

a. *port 20* A weakness of FTPS is that although the control port commands are encrypted, the data port (port 20) may or may not be encrypted.

*By using _______________, instead of giving each outgoing packet a different IP address, each packet is given the same IP address but a different TCP port number.* a. port address translation (PAT) b. network access control (NAC) c. network address translation (NAT) d. port mirroring

a. *port address translation (PAT)* A variation of NAT is port address translation (PAT). Instead of giving each outgoing packet a different IP address, each packet is given the same IP address but a different TCP port number. This allows a single public IP address to be used by several users.

Network Security *A(n) _______________ captures packets to decode and analyzes their contents.* a. protocol analyzer b. load balancer c. Internet content filter d. spam filter

a. *protocol analyzer* A protocol analyzer captures packets to decode and analyzes their contents.

Network Security *A(n) _______________ is a computer or an application program that intercepts user requests from the internal secure network and then processes that request on behalf of the user.* a. proxy server b. load balancer c. network tap d. Internet content filter

a. *proxy server* A proxy server is a computer or an application program that intercepts user requests from the internal secure network and then processes that request on behalf of the user.

*Within a firewall rule, the _______________ describes the TCP/IP port number being used to send packets of data through.* a. source port b. destination port c. source address d. destination address

a. *source port* The source port is the TCP/IP port number being used to send packets of data through. Options for setting the source port often include a specific port number, a range of numbers, or Any (port).

*Transferring files can be performed using the File Transfer Protocol (FTP), which is a(n) _______________ TCP/IP protocol.* a. unsecure b. secure c. open d. closed

a. *unsecure* Transferring files can be performed using the File Transfer Protocol (FTP), which is an unsecure TCP/IP protocol. FTP is used to connect to an FTP server, much in the same way that HTTP links to a web server.

Fully distributed IDPS control strategy

an IDPS implementation approach in which all control functions are applied at the physical location of each IDPS component

Centralized IDPS control strategy

an IDPS implementation approach in which all control functions are implemented and managed in a central location

partially distributed IDPS control strategy

an IDPS implementation approach that combines the best aspects of the centralized and fully distributed strategies

cracking

attempting to reverse-engineer, remove, or bypass a password or other access control protection, such as the copyright protection on software. See cracker.

Cryptography Implementation *Which of the following is responsible for issuing certificates?* a. Registration authority (RA) b. Certificate authority (CA) c. Document authority (DA) d. Local registration authority (LRA)

b. *Certificate authority (CA)* The certificate authority (CA) is responsible for issuing certificates.

*The _______________ is the expected monetary loss every time a risk occurs.* a. Annualized Loss Expectancy b. Single Loss Expectancy c. Annualized Rate of Occurrence d. Multiple Loss Expectancy

b. *Single Loss Expectancy* The Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) is the expected monetary loss every time a risk occurs.

*Which of the following is not a benefit of single sign-on?* a. The ability to browse multiple systems b. Fewer usernames and passwords to memorize c. More granular access control d. Stronger passwords

c. *More granular access control* Single sign-on doesn't address access control and therefore doesn't provide granular or nongranular access control. Single sign-on provides the benefits of the ability to browse multiple systems, fewer credentials to memorize, and the use of stronger passwords.

Security-Related Policies and Procedures *People in an organization can withhold classified or sensitive information from others in the company when governed by what type of policy?* a. Nondisclosure b. Suppression c. Need-to-know d. Revelation

c. *Need-to-know* People in an organization can withhold classified or sensitive information from others in the company when governed by need-to-know policies.

Infrastructure and Connectivity *What protocol, running on top of TCP/IP, is often used for name registration and resolution with Windows-based clients?* a. Telnet b. SSL c. NetBIOS d. TLS

c. *NetBIOS* NetBIOS is used for name resolution and registration in Windows-based environments. It runs on top of TCP/IP.

Tasks or actions steps that come after the task at hand are called

successors

*A situation in which a program or process attempts to store more data in a temporary data storage area than it was intended to hold is known as which of the following?* a. Buffer overflow b. Denial of service c. Distributed denial of service d. Storage overrun

a. *Buffer overflow* A buffer overflow occurs when a program or process attempts to store more data in a buffer than the buffer was intended to hold. The overflow of data can flow over into other buffers, overwriting or deleting data. A denial of service is a type of attack in which too much traffic is sent to a host, preventing it from responding to legitimate traffic. A distributed denial of service is similar, but it is initiated through multiple hosts; therefore, answers B and C are incorrect. Although answer D sounds correct, it is not.

*Which of the following is widely used as a controlled access measure in businesses that offer free Wi-Fi hotspots to Internet users such as hotels and restaurants?* a. Captive portal b. Site survey c. VPN (over open wireless) d. Omnidirectional antenna

a. *Captive portal* Captive portals are widely used in businesses that offer free Wi-Fi hotspots to Internet users such as hotels and restaurants. Answer B is incorrect because a site survey is conducted before implementing any WLAN solution to optimize network layout within each unique location. Answer C is incorrect because VPNs over open wireless are commonly used to securely connect employees to corporate networks when they are not in the office by using an Internet connection. Answer D is incorrect. Omnidirectional antennas provide a 360° radial pattern to provide the widest possible signal coverage for a wireless network.

Access Control and Identity Management *In a decentralized key management system, the user is responsible for which one of the following functions?* a. Creation of the private and public key b. Creation of the digital certificate c. Creation of the CRL d. Revocation of the digital certificate

a. *Creation of the private and public key* In a decentralized key system, the end user generates his or her own key pair. The other functions, such as creation of the certificate, CRL, and the revocation of the certificate, are still handled by the certificate authority; therefore, answers B, C, and D are incorrect.

Cryptography Implementation *The most popular certificate used is version 3 of:* a. X.509 b. B.102 c. C.409 d. Z.602

a. *X.509* The most popular certificate used is version 3 of X.509.

Physical and Hardware-Based Security *You're the administrator for MTS. You're creating a team that will report to you, and you're attempting to divide the responsibilities for security among individual members. Similarly, which of the following access methods breaks a large area into smaller areas that can be monitored individually?* a. Zone b. Partition c. Perimeter d. Floor

a. *Zone* A security zone is a smaller part of a larger area. Security zones can be monitored individually if needed. Answers B, C, and D are examples of security zones.

Vigenere Cipher

an advanced type of substitution cipher that uses a simple polyalphabetic code

incident

an adverse event that could result in loss of an information asset or assets, but does not currently threaten the viability of the entire organization.

brute force password attack

an attempt to guess a password by attempting every possible combination of characters and numbers in it.

operational feasibility

an examination of how well a particular solution fits within the organization's culture and the extent to which users are expected to accept the solution. Also known as behavioral feasibility.

crisis management

an organization's set of planning and preparation efforts for dealing with potential human injury, emotional trauma, or loss of life as a result of a disaster.

A(n) _____________ is an act against an asset that could result in loss.

attack

*Which port does the File Transfer Protocol (FTP) use for commands?* a. 20 b. 21 c. 22 d. 25

b. *21* The File Transfer Protocol (FTP) uses port 21 for commands.

Wireless Networking Security *What is the size of the initialization vector (IV) that WEP uses for encryption?* a. 6-bit b. 24-bit c. 56-bit d. 128-bit

b. *24-bit* The initialization vector (IV) that WEP uses for encryption is 24-bit.

*What is the proper humidity level or range for IT environments?* a. Below 40 percent b. 40 percent to 60 percent c. Above 60 percent d. 20 percent to 80 percent

b. *40 percent to 60 percent* The proper humidity level or range for IT environments is 40% RH to 60% RH.

*Which port does the Domain Name System (DNS) protocol use?* a. 25 b. 53 c. 80 d. 443

b. *53* The Domain Name System (DNS) protocol uses port 53.

Educating and Protecting the User *You have recently had security breaches in the network. You suspect they might be coming from a telecommuter's home network. Which of the following devices would you use to require a secure method for employees to access corporate resources while working from home?* a. A router b. A VPN concentrator c. A firewall d. A network-based IDS

b. *A VPN concentrator* A VPN concentrator is used to allow multiple users to access network resources using secure features that are built in to the device and are deployed where the requirement is for a single device to handle a very large number of VPN tunnels. Answer A is incorrect because a router forwards information to its destination on the network or the Internet. A firewall protects computers and networks from undesired access by the outside world; therefore, answer C is incorrect. Answer D is incorrect because network-based intrusion-detection systems monitor the packet flow and try to locate packets that are not allowed for one reason or another and might have gotten through the firewall.

Threats and Vulnerabilities *You're working late one night, and you notice that the hard disk on your new computer is very active even though you aren't doing anything on the computer and it isn't connected to the Internet. What is the most likely suspect?* a. A disk failure is imminent. b. A virus is spreading in your system. c. Your system is under a DoS attack. d. TCP/IP hijacking is being attempted.

b. *A virus is spreading in your system.* A symptom of many viruses is unusual activity on the system disk. This is caused by the virus spreading to other files on your system.

Security and Vulnerability in the Network *Which of the following is a protection feature built into many firewalls that allow the administrator to tweak the tolerance for unanswered login attacks?* a. MAC filter b. Flood guard c. MAC limiter d. Security posture

b. *Flood guard* A flood guard is a protection feature built into many firewalls that allow the administrator to tweak the tolerance for unanswered login attacks. By reducing this tolerance, it is possible to reduce the likelihood of a successful DoS attack.

Cryptography Implementation *Which of the following refers to the ability to manage individual resources in the CA network?* a. Regulation b. Granularity c. Management d. Restricting

b. *Granularity* Granularity refers to the ability to manage individual resources in the CA network.

*An organization has had a rash of malware infections. Which of the following can help mitigate the number of successful attacks?* a. Application baselining b. Patch management c. Network monitoring d. Input validation

b. *Patch management* Proactive patch management is necessary to keep your technology environment secure and reliable. Answer A is incorrect because application baselining is similar to operating system baselining in that it provides a reference point for normal and abnormal activity. Answer C is incorrect because network monitoring is used to check network activity. Answer D is incorrect because input validation errors are a result of improper field checking in the code.

Cryptography Implementation *In a bridge trust model, a ______ to ______ relationship exists between the root CAs.* a. Parent, child b. Peer, peer c. Father, daughter d. Sister, parent

b. *Peer, peer* In a bridge trust model, a peer-to-peer relationship exists between the root CAs.

Threats and Vulnerabilities *You are the senior administrator for a bank. A user calls you on the telephone and says they were notified to contact you but couldn't find your information on the company website. Two days ago, an email told them there was something wrong with their account and they needed to click a link in the email to fix the problem. They clicked the link and filled in the information, but now their account is showing a large number of transactions that they did not authorize. They were likely the victims of what type of attack?* a. Spimming b. Phishing c. Pharming d. Escalating

b. *Phishing* Sending an email with a misleading link to collect information is a phishing attack.

Physical and Hardware-Based Security *A new switch has been implemented in areas where there is very little physical access control. Which of the following would the organization implement as a method for additional checks to prevent unauthorized access?* a. Loop protection b. Flood guard c. Implicit deny d. Port security

d. *Port security* Port security is a Layer 2 traffic control feature on Cisco Catalyst switches. It enables individual switch ports to be configured to allow only a specified number of source MAC addresses coming in through the port. Answer A is incorrect because the loop guard feature makes additional checks in Layer 2 switched networks. Answer B is incorrect because a flood guard is a firewall feature used to control network activity associated with denial-of-service (DoS) attacks. Answer C is incorrect because implicit deny is an access control practice wherein resource availability is restricted to only those logons explicitly granted access.

Infrastructure and Connectivity *Which device stores information about destinations in a network?* a. Hub b. Modem c. Firewall d. Router

d. *Router* Routers store information about network destinations in routing tables. Routing tables contain information about known hosts on both sides of the router.

Protecting Networks *Which of the following implies ignoring an attack and is a common response?* a. Eschewing b. Spurning c. Shirking d. Shunning

d. *Shunning* Shunning, or ignoring an attack, is a common response.

Wireless Networking Security *Which of the following is a primary vulnerability of a wireless environment?* a. Decryption software b. IP spoofing c. A gap in the WAP d. Site survey

d. *Site survey* A site survey is the process of monitoring a wireless network using a computer, wireless controller, and analysis software. Site surveys are easily accomplished and hard to detect.

Threats and Vulnerabilities *A junior administrator comes to you in a panic. After looking at the log files, he has become convinced that an attacker is attempting to use an IP address to replace another system in the network to gain access. Which type of attack is this?* a. Man-in-the-middle attack b. Backdoor attack c. Worm d. TCP/IP hijacking

d. *TCP/IP hijacking* TCP/IP hijacking is an attempt to steal a valid IP address and use it to gain authorization or information from a network.

Cryptography Basics *Which of the following best describes the process of encrypting and decrypting data using an asymmetric encryption algorithm?* a. Only the public key is used to encrypt, and only the private key is used to decrypt. b. The public key is used to either encrypt or decrypt. c. Only the private key is used to encrypt, and only the public key is used to decrypt. d. The private key is used to decrypt data encrypted with the public key.

d. *The private key is used to decrypt data encrypted with the public key.* When encrypting and decrypting data using an asymmetric encryption algorithm, you use only the private key to decrypt data encrypted with the public key. Answers A and B are both incorrect because in public key encryption, if one key is used to encrypt, you can use the other to decrypt the data. Answer C is incorrect because the public key is not used to decrypt the same data it encrypted.

*You manage a network on which there are mixed vendor devices and are required to implement a strong authentication solution for wireless communications. Which of the following would best meet your requirements? (Select two correct answers.)* a. EAP b. WEP c. LEAP d. PEAP

a. *EAP* d. *PEAP* The IEEE and IETF specify 802.1X and EAP as the standard for secure wireless networking, and Protected EAP (PEAP) is standards based. PEAP was jointly developed by Microsoft, RSA Security, and Cisco Systems. It is an IETF open standard. PEAP provides mutual authentication and uses a certificate for server authentication by the client, and users have the convenience of entering password-based credentials. Answer B is incorrect because WEP is the most basic form of encryption that can be used on 802.11-based wireless networks to provide privacy of data sent between a wireless client and its access point. Answer C is incorrect because LEAP is a Cisco-proprietary protocol.

*Which statement concerning virtualized environments is correct?* a. Existing security tools, such as antivirus, antispam, and IDS, are designed for single physical servers and do not always adapt well to multiple virtual machines. b. All hypervisors have the necessary security controls to keep out determined attackers. c. In a network with virtual machines, external devices such as firewalls and IDS reside between servers and can help prevent one from infecting another. d. A guest operating system that has remained dormant for a period of time can contain the latest patches and other security updates.

a. *Existing security tools, such as antivirus, antispam, and IDS, are designed for single physical servers and do not always adapt well to multiple virtual machines.* Existing security tools, such as antivirus, antispam, and IDS, were designed for single physical servers and do not always adapt well to multiple virtual machines.

Disaster Recovery and Incident Response *With high availability, the goal is to have key services available 99.999 percent of the time. What is this availability also known as?* a. Five nines b. Three nines c. Perfecta d. Trifecta

a. *Five nines* With high availability, the goal is to have key services available 99.999 percent of the time (also known as five nines availability).

Educating and Protecting the User *When you combine phishing with Voice over IP, it is known as:* a. Spoofing b. Spooning c. Whaling d. Vishing

d. *Vishing* Vishing involves combining phishing with Voice over IP.

*When is business continuity needed?* a. When new software is distributed b. When business processes are interrupted c. When a user steals company data d. When business processes are threatened

d. *When business processes are threatened* Business continuity is used when business processes are threatened. Security policy is used when new software is distributed. Disaster recovery is used when business processes are interrupted. Incident response is used when a user steals company data.

Operating System and Application Security *Which of the following involves unauthorized commands coming from a trusted user to the website?* a. ZDT b. HSM c. TT3 d. XSRF

d. *XSRF* XSRF involves unauthorized commands coming from a trusted user to the website. This is often done without the user's knowledge and employs some type of social networking to pull it off.

Cryptography Basics *Which authorization protocol is generally compatible with TACACS?* a. LDAP b. RADIUS c. TACACS+ d. XTACACS

d. *XTACACS* The Extended Terminal Access Controller Access Control System (XTACACS) protocol is a proprietary form of the TACACS protocol developed by Cisco and is compatible in many cases. Neither LDAP nor RADIUS is affiliated with the TACACS protocol, making answers A and B incorrect. Answer C is incorrect because the newer TACACS+ is not backward compatible with its legacy equivalent.

*Limiting access to rooms in a building is a model of the information technology security principle of _______________.* a. job rotation b. mandatory vacations c. separation of duties d. least privilege

d. *least privilege* Limiting access to rooms in a building is a model of the information technology security principle of least privilege.

*With subnetting, rather than simply having networks and hosts, networks can effectively be divided into three parts: _______________.* a. network, subnet, and port b. port, subnet, and IP address c. network, port, and host d. network, subnet, and host

d. *network, subnet, and host* Improved addressing techniques introduced in 1985 allowed an IP address to be split anywhere within its 32 bits. This is known as subnetting or subnet addressing. Instead of just having networks and hosts, with subnetting, networks essentially can be divided into three parts: network, subnet, and host.

Standards may be published, scrutinized, and ratified by a group, as in formal or ____ standards.

de jure

The expert hacker sometimes is called ____________________ hacker.

elite

When information gathers employ techniques that CROSS a legal or ethical threshold, they are conducting ______________.

industrial espionage

Script ____________________ are hackers of limited skill who use expertly written software to attack a system.

kiddie

Overriding an employee's security clearance requires that the employee meet the ______ standard.

need-to-know

agent

see sensor

Task or actions steps that come after the task at hand are called ______.

successors

virtual password

the derivative of a passphrase. See passphrase.

noice

the presence of additional and disruptive signals in network communications or electrical power delivery

electromagnetic radiation (EMR)

the transmission of radiant energy through space, commonly referred to as radio waves

Security as a Social Science

•Social science examines the behavior of individuals interacting with systems. •Security begins and ends with the people that interact with the system, intentionally or otherwise. •Security administrators can greatly reduce the levels of risk caused by end users and create more acceptable and supportable security profiles.

Infrastructure and Connectivity *At which layer of the OSI model does the Internet Protocol Security protocol function?* a. Network layer b. Presentation layer c. Session layer d. Application layer

a. *Network layer* IPsec validation and encryption function at the network layer of the OSI model. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because IPsec functions at a lower level of the OSI model.

*_______________ is designed to simplify the deployment of 802.1x by using Microsoft Windows logins and passwords.* a. Protected EAP (PEAP) b. Lightweight EAP (LEAP) c. Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) d. PSK2-mixed mode

a. *Protected EAP (PEAP)* Protected EAP (PEAP) is designed to simplify the deployment of 802.1x by using Microsoft Windows logins and passwords. PEAP is considered a more flexible PEAP scheme because it creates an encrypted channel between the client and the authentication server, and the channel then protects the subsequent user authentication exchange.

Operating System and Application Security *Which of the following terms refers to the process of establishing a standard for security?* a. Baselining b. Security evaluation c. Hardening d. Methods research

a. *Baselining* Baselining is the process of establishing a standard for security.

Operating System and Application Security *What tool is used in Windows to encrypt an entire volume?* a. BitLocker b. SysLock c. Drive Defender d. NLock

a. *BitLocker* BitLocker provides drive encryption and is available with Windows 7 and Windows Vista.

*Why do experts recommend that access points (APs) be mounted as high as possible?* a. Antennas must hang upside down for best performance. b. The radio frequency (RF) signal may experience fewer obstructions. c. The air is "heavier" as it rises, providing better transmission of the radio frequency (RF) signal. d. Warm air rises and provides a better conductor for the radio frequency (RF) signal.

b. *The radio frequency (RF) signal may experience fewer obstructions.* Generally the AP can be secured to the ceiling or high on a wall. It is recommended that APs be mounted as high as possible for two reasons: there may be fewer obstructions for the RF signal, and to prevent thieves from stealing the device.

*Which of the following symmetric-encryption algorithms offers the strength of 168-bit keys?* a. Data Encryption Standard b. Triple DES c. Advanced Encryption Standard d. IDEA

b. *Triple DES* Triple DES (3DES) offers the strength of 168-bit keys. The Data Encryption Standard (DES) offers the strength of 56-bit keys. The Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) offers the strength of 128-, 192-, or 256-bit keys. The International Data Encryption Algorithm (IDEA) offers the strength of 128-bit keys.

*The new biometric authentication system has been identified as having a high FAR. What does this mean?* a. Authorized users are being allowed access. b. Unauthorized users are being allowed access. c. Authorized users are being denied access. d. Unauthorized users are being denied access.

b. *Unauthorized users are being allowed access.* The false acceptance rate (FAR) is a measure of unauthorized biometric signatures being accepted as valid. Answers A and D are incorrect because they represent valid biometric operations. Answer C is incorrect because denial of authorized signatures is measured as the false rejection rate (FRR).

*Which term describes a means of managing and presenting computer resources by function without regard to their physical layout or location?* a. Port mirroring b. Virtualization c. Cloud computing d. Virtual LAN (VLAN) management

b. *Virtualization* Virtualization is a means of managing and presenting computer resources by function without regard to their physical layout or location.

*The IEEE 802.1x standard provides the highest degree of port security by implementing port-based _______________.* a. encryption b. authentication c. auditing d. integrity

b. *authentication* The IEEE 802.1x standard provides the highest degree of port security by implementing port-based authentication.

Network Security *VPN transmissions are achieved through communicating with _______________.* a. network taps b. endpoints c. Internet content filters d. proxy servers

b. *endpoints* VPN transmissions are achieved through communicating with endpoints. An endpoint is the end of the tunnel between VPN devices. An endpoint can be software on a local computer, a dedicated hardware device such as a VPN concentrator (which aggregates hundreds or thousands of VPN connections), or integrated into another networking device such as a firewall.

*Risk _______________ is the attempt to address risks by making risk less serious.* a. deterrence b. mitigation c. acceptance d. avoidance

b. *mitigation* Risk mitigation is the attempt to address the risks by making risk less serious.

*A(n) _______________ policy outlines how the organization uses the personal information it collects.* a. acceptable use b. privacy c. data acquisition d. data storage

b. *privacy* A privacy policy outlines how the organization uses personal information it collects.

Security Artisan Idea

based on the way individuals perceive system technologists and their abilities.

A performance ____________________ is an expected level of performance against which all subsequent levels of performance are compared.

baseline

Measuring and Weighing Risk *The risk-assessment component, in conjunction with the ________, provides the organization with an accurate picture of the situation facing it.* a. RAC b. ALE c. BIA d. RMG

c. *BIA* The risk-assessment component, in conjunction with the BIA (Business Impact Analysis), provides the organization with an accurate picture of the situation facing it.

Protecting Networks *You're the administrator for Acme Widgets. After attending a conference on buzzwords for management, your boss informs you that an IDS should be up and running on the network by the end of the week. Which of the following systems should be installed on a host to provide IDS capabilities?* a. Network sniffer b. NIDS c. HIDS d. VPN

c. *HIDS* A host-based IDS (HIDS) is installed on each host that needs IDS capabilities.

Infrastructure and Connectivity *Which of the following can be implemented as a software or hardware solution and is usually associated with a device—a router, a firewall, NAT, and so on—and used to shift a load from one device to another?* a. Proxy b. Hub c. Load balancer d. Switch

c. *Load balancer* A load balancer can be implemented as a software or hardware solution, and is usually associated with a device—a router, a firewall, NAT, and so on. As the name implies, it is used to shift a load from one device to another.

Physical and Hardware-Based Security *Which of the following methods would be the most effective method to physically secure computers that are used in a lab environment that operates on a part-time basis?* a. Security cables b. Server cages c. Locked cabinet d. Hardware dongle

c. *Locked cabinet* A locked cabinet is an alternative for equipment that is not used or does not have to be physically accessed on a regular, daily basis. Vendors provide solutions such as a security cabinet locker that secures CPU towers. The housing is made of durable, heavy-duty steel for strength. Answer A is incorrect because security cables with combination locks can provide such security and are easy to use but are used mostly to secure laptops and leave the equipment exposed. Answer B is incorrect because PC Safe tower and server cages are designed to bolt to the floor and are meant to be in an environment that is static. Answer D is incorrect because a hardware dongle is used for license enforcement.

Educating and Protecting the User *Which of the following is the best description of shoulder surfing?* a. Following someone through a door they just unlocked b. Figuring out how to unlock a secured area c. Watching someone enter important information d. Stealing information from someone's desk

c. *Watching someone enter important information* Shoulder surfing is best defined as watching someone enter important information.

*Which of the following types of cloud computing is designed to meet industry-specific needs such as healthcare, public sector, or energy?* a. Public b. Private c. Hybrid d. Community

d. *Community* Community clouds are designed to accommodate the mutual needs of a particular business community. This is generally industry-specific such as healthcare, public sector, or energy. Answer A is incorrect because a public cloud is an environment where the services and infrastructure are hosted at a service provider's offsite facility and accessed over the Internet based on a monthly or yearly usage fee. Answer B is incorrect because a private cloud is a hosted infrastructure on a private platform and can sometimes be referred to as an internal, corporate, or enterprise cloud. Answer C is incorrect. A hybrid cloud is a combination of public and private clouds where control of data is kept using a private cloud while other functions are hosted using a public cloud.

Network Security *Which type of Internet content filtering restricts unapproved websites from being displayed by searching for and matching keywords?* a. Uniform resource locator (URL filtering) b. Profiling c. Malware inspection d. Content inspection

d. *Content inspection* Internet content filters monitor Internet traffic and block access to preselected websites and files. A requested webpage is displayed only if it complies with the specified filters. Unapproved websites can be restricted based on the Uniform Resource Locator or URL (URL filtering) or by searching for and matching keywords such as sex or hate (content inspection) as well as looking for malware (malware inspection).

Cryptography Implementation *Certificate revocation is the process of revoking a certificate before it:* a. Is renewed b. Becomes public c. Reuses a value d. Expires

d. *Expires* Certificate revocation is the process of revoking a certificate before it expires.

Threats and Vulnerabilities *A smurf attack attempts to use a broadcast ping on a network; the return address of the ping may be a valid system in your network. Which protocol does a smurf attack use to conduct the attack?* a. TCP b. IP c. UDP d. ICMP

d. *ICMP* A smurf attack attempts to use a broadcast ping (ICMP) on a network. The return address of the ping may be a valid system in your network. This system will be flooded with responses in a large network.

*Loop protection uses the _______________ standard spanning-tree algorithm (STA).* a. IEEE 801.2d b. IEEE 802.3 c. IEEE 802.11n d. IEEE 802.1d

d. *IEEE 802.1d* Broadcast storms can be prevented with loop protection, which uses the IEEE 802.1d standard spanning-tree algorithm (STA).

Infrastructure and Connectivity *A socket is a combination of which components?* a. TCP and port number b. UDP and port number c. IP and session number d. IP and port number

d. *IP and port number* A socket is a combination of IP address and port number. The socket identifies which application will respond to the network request.

*Which of the following methods of cloud computing enables the client to literally outsource everything that would normally be in a typical IT department?* a. SaaS b. DaaS c. PaaS d. IaaS

d. *IaaS* Infrastructure-as-a-service (IaaS) is the delivery of computer infrastructure in a hosted service model over the Internet. This method of cloud computing enables the client to literally outsource everything that would normally be in a typical IT department. Answer A is incorrect because software-as-a-service (SaaS) is the delivery of a licensed application to customers over the Internet for use as a service on demand. Answer B is incorrect because desktop-as-a-service (DaaS), also called virtual desktop or hosted desktop services, is the outsourcing of a virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) to a third-party service provider. Answer C is incorrect. Platform-as-a-service (PaaS) is the delivery of a computing platform, often an operating system with associated services, that is delivered over the Internet without downloads or installation.

*Which cloud computing service model provides the customer the highest level of control?* a. Application as a Service (AaaS) b. Software as a Service (SaaS) c. Platform as a Service (PaaS) d. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

d. *Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)* In the Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) model, the customer has the highest level of control. The cloud computing vendor allows customers to deploy and run their own software, including operating systems and applications. Consumers have some control over the operating systems, storage, and their installed applications, but do not manage or control the underlying cloud infrastructure.

Educating and Protecting the User *Which classification of information designates that information can be released on a restricted basis to outside organizations?* a. Private information b. Full distribution c. Restricted information d. Limited distribution

d. *Limited distribution* Limited distribution information can be released to select individuals and organizations, such as financial institutions, governmental agencies, and creditors.

*Which of the following is more formal than a handshake agreement but not a legal binding contract?* a. SLA b. BIA c. DLP d. MOU

d. *MOU* A memorandum of understanding (MOU) is an expression of agreement or aligned intent, will, or purpose between two entities. An MOU is not typically a legal agreement or commitment, but rather a more formal form of a reciprocal agreement or gentleman's handshake (neither of which is typically written down). An SLA is a formal control. BIA is business impact assessment. DLP is data loss prevention.

Cryptography Basics *The CRL takes time to be fully disseminated. Which protocol allows a certificate's authenticity to be immediately verified?* a. CA b. CP c. CRC d. OCSP

d. *OCSP* Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) can be used to immediately verify a certificate's authenticity.

*Which type of risk control may include using video surveillance systems and barricades to limit access to secure sites?* a. Technical b. System c. Management d. Operational

d. *Operational* Operational risk control types may include using video surveillance systems and barricades to limit access to secure sites.

Network Security *What is the primary role of a firewall?* a. To forward packets across different network computer networks b. To intercept user requests from the internal secure network and then process that request on behalf of the user c. To connect networks together so that they function as a single network segment d. To inspect packets and either accept or deny entry

d. *To inspect packets and either accept or deny entry* Although a host-based application software firewall that runs as a program on one client is different from a hardware-based network firewall designed to protect an entire network, their functions are essentially the same: to inspect packets and either accept or deny entry.

*Due to organizational requirements strong encryption cannot be used. Which of the following is the most basic form of encryption that can be used on 802.11-based wireless networks to provide privacy of data sent between a wireless client and its access point?* a. Wireless Application Environment (WAE) b. Wireless Session Layer (WSL) c. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) d. Wireless Transport Layer Security (WTLS)

c. *Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)* WEP is the most basic form of encryption that can be used on 802.11-based wireless networks to provide privacy of data sent between a wireless client and its access point. Answer A is incorrect. Wireless Application Environment (WAE) specifies the framework used to develop applications for mobile devices, including cell phones, data pagers, tablets, and laptops. Answers B and D are incorrect. Wireless Session Layer (WSL), Wireless Transport Layer (WTL), and Wireless Transport Layer Security (WTLS) are the specifications that are included in the WAP standard.

Threats and Vulnerabilities *A user calls you in a panic. He is receiving emails from people indicating that he is inadvertently sending viruses to them. Over 200 such emails have arrived today. Which type of attack has most likely occurred?* a. SAINT b. Backdoor attack c. Worm d. TCP/IP hijacking

c. *Worm* A worm is a type of malicious code that attempts to replicate using whatever means are available. The worm may not have come from the user's system; rather, a system with the user's name in the address book has attacked these people.

Network Security *When a modern firewall receives a packet, it tends to use a(n) _______________ method to determine the action to be taken.* a. rule-based b. role-based c. application-based d. authentication-based

c. *application-based* Traditional firewalls are rule-based while more modern firewalls are application-based.

Network Security *A load balancer is typically located _______________ in a network configuration.* a. in front of a server b. in front of a router c. between a router and a server d. between a router and a switch

c. *between a router and a server* Because load balancers generally are located between routers and servers, they can detect and stop attacks directed at a server or application.

*A _______________ is an event that does not appear to be a risk but actually turns out to be one.* a. false positive b. negative-positive c. false negative d. positive-negative

c. *false negative* A false negative is an event that does not appear to be a risk but actually turns out to be one.

*The term _______________ refers to the average (mean) amount of time until a component fails, cannot be repaired, and must be replaced.* a. mean time to recovery b. failure in time c. mean time between failures d. mean time to failure

c. *mean time between failures* The term mean time between failures refers to the average (mean) amount of time until a component fails, cannot be repaired, and must be replaced.

*A _______________ cloud offers the highest level of security and control.* a. public b. community c. private d. hybrid

c. *private* A private cloud is created and maintained on a private network. Although this type offers the highest level of security and control (because the company must purchase and maintain all the software and hardware), it also reduces any cost savings.

*Allowing an IP address to be split anywhere within its 32 bits is known as _______________.* a. splitting b. spanning c. subnetting d. IP spraying

c. *subnetting* Allowing an IP address to be split anywhere within its 32 bits. This is known as subnetting or subnet addressing.

malware

computer software specifically designed to perform malicious or unwanted actions.

Sometimes, contracted employees are self-employed or are employees of an organization hired for a specific, one-time purpose. These people are typically referred to as _____.

consultants.

The concept of competitive ________ refers to falling behind the compeition.

disadvantage

Measuring and Weighing Risk *Which of the following strategies involves sharing some of the burden of the risk with someone else such as an insurance company?* a. Risk acceptance b. Risk avoidance c. Risk deterrence d. Risk mitigation e. Risk transference

e. *Risk transference* Risk transference involves sharing some of the burden of the risk with someone else such as an insurance company.

The CISSP certification requires both the successful completion of the examination and an ____ by a qualified third party, typically another similarly certified professional, the candidate's employer, or a licensed, certified, or commissioned professional.

endorsement

jailbreaking

escalating privileges to gain administrator-level or root access control over a smartphone operating system (typically associated with Apple iOS smartphones). See also rooting.

policy

guidelines that dictate certain behavior within the organization

A(n) ______ system contains pseudo-serivces that emulate well-known services, but is configured in ways that make it look vulnerable to attacks

honeypot

______ is the amount of moisture in the air.

humidity

Certificate Authority (CA)

in PKI, a third party that manages users' digital certificates.

annualized cost of a safeguard (ACS)

in a cost-benefit analysis, the total cost of a control or safeguard, including all purchase, maintenance, subscription, personnel, and support fees, divided by the total number of expected years of use.

A specialized type of keycard reader is the _________ reader, which allows people to simply place their cards within the reader's randge

proximity

application firewall

see application layer proxy firewall.

war driving

the use of mobile scanning techniques to identify open wireless access points

Federal agencies such as the NSA, FBI, CIA, use speciality classification schemes, For materials that are not considered "National Security Information," ________ data is the lowest-level classification.

unclassified

spam

undesired e-mail, typically commercial advertising transmitted in bulk.

A _______ is the recorded state of a particular revision of a software or hardware configuration item.

version

PGP

Pretty Good Privacy

successors

Tasks or action steps that come after the specific task at hand.

predecessors

Tasks or action steps that come before the specific task at hand.

OTA

Over The Air

P12

PKCS #12

PBX

Private Branch Exchange

build

A snapshot of a particular version of software assembled or linked from its component modules.

SAML

Security Assertions Markup Language

best business practices

Security efforts that are considered among the best in the industry.

information security model

See information security framework.

hash value

See message digest.

knowledge-based detection

See signature-based detection.

misuse detection

See signature-based detection.

private-key encryption

See symmetric encryption.

Permutation cipher

See transposition cipher.

SED

Self-encrypting Drive

SPF

Sender Policy Framework

timing channels

TCSEC-defined covert channels that communicate by managing the relative timing of events

buffer overrun (or buffer overflow)

An application error that occurs when more data is sent to a program buffer than it is designed to handle.

storage channels

TCSEC-defined covert channels that communicate by modifying a stored object, such as in steganography.

TACACS+

Terminal Access Controller Access

The International Society of Forensic Computer Examiners (ISFCE) offers which certification?

Certified Computer Examiner (CCE)

CSU

Channel Service Unit

digital signatures

encrypted message components that can be mathematically proven as authentic

intrusion detection system (IDS)

A system capable of automatically detecting an intrusion into an organization's networks or host systems and notifying a designated authority.

NIST (National Institute of Standards and Technology)

(5 Phases) •NIST Special Publication 800-64, rev. 2, maintains that early integration of security in the SDLC enables agencies to maximize return on investment through: -Early identification and mitigation of security vulnerabilities and misconfigurations -Awareness of potential engineering challenges -Identification of shared security services and reuse of security strategies and tools -Facilitation of informed executive decision making

minor release

(update or patch) a minor revision of a version from its previous state

*Which of the following allows the deployment of a publicly accessible web server without compromising the security of the private network?* a. Intranet b. DMZ c. Extranet d. Switch

*DMZ* A DMZ provides a network segment where publicly accessible servers can be deployed without compromising the security of the private network.

*A network-based IDS is not suitable for detecting or protecting against which of the following?* a. Email spoofing b. Denial-of-service attacks c. Attacks against the network d. Attacks against an environment that produces significant traffic

*Email spoofing* Network-based IDSs aren't suitable for protecting against email spoofing.

CIO

Chief Information Officer

CSO

Chief Security Officer

UPS devices typically have capacities that may run up to __________ VA.

1,000

The Ten Commandments of Computer Ethics from the Computer Ethics Institute

1. Thou shalt not use a computer to harm other people. 2. Thou shalt not interfere with other people's computer work. 3. Thou shalt not snoop around in other people's computer files. 4. Thou shalt not use a computer to steal. 5. Thou shalt not us a computer to bear false witness. 6. Thou shalt not copy or use proprietary software for which you have not paid. 7. Thou shalt not use other people's computer resources without authorization or proper compensation. 8. Thou shalt not appropriate other people's intellectual output. 9. Thou shalt think about the social consequences of the program you are writing or the system you are designing. 10. Thou shalt always use a compute in ways that ensure consideration and respect for your fellow humans.

CTO

Chief Technology Officer

DES uses a(n) ______ -bit block size.

64

Which of the following ports is commonly used for the HTTP protocol?

80

CBC

Cipher Block Chaining

CFB

Cipher Feedback

Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)

A Web application fault that occurs when an application running on a Web server inserts commands into a user's browser session and causes information to be sent to a hostile server.

project team

A small functional team of people who are experienced in one or multiple facets of the required technical and nontechnical areas for the project to which they are assigned. -Champion -Team leader -Security policy developers -Risk assessment specialists -Security professionals -Systems administrators -End users

sag

A short-term decrease in electrical power availability

spike

A short-term increase in electrical power availability, also known as a swell.

Passive vulnerability scanner

A scanner that listens in on a network and identifies vulnerable versions of both server and client software.

alert message

A scripted description of the incident that usually contains just enough information so that each person knows what portion of the IR plan to implement without slowing down the notification process

password

A secret word or combination of characters that only the user should know; a password is used to authenticate the user.

fault

A short-term interruption electrical power availability

major release

A significant revision of a version from its previous state.

Projectitis

A situation in project planning in which the project manager spends more time documenting project tasks, collecting performance measurements, recording project task information, and updating project completion forecasts in the project management software than accomplishing meaningful project work.

managerial guidance SysSp

A systems-specific security policy that expresses management's intent for the acquisition, implementation, configuration, and management of a particular technology, written from a business perspective.

state table

A tabular record of the state and context of each packet in a conversation between an internal and external user or system. A state table is used to expedite traffic filtering.

packet sniffer

A software program or hardware appliance that can intercept, copy, and interpret network traffic.

content filter

A software program or hardware/software appliance that allows administrators to restrict content that comes into or leaves a network—for example, restricting user access to Web sites from material that is not related to business, such as pornography or entertainment.

Security Information and Event Management (SIEM)

A software-enabled approach to aggregating, filtering, and managing the reaction to events, many of which are collected by logging activities of IDPSs and network management devices.

milestone

A specific point in the project plan when a task that has a noticeable impact on the plan's progress is complete.

spoofing

A technique for gaining unauthorized access to computers using a forged or modified source IP address to give the perception that messages are coming from a trusted host.

exploit

A technique used to compromise a system.

Port Address Translation (PAT)

A technology in which multiple real, routable external IP addresses are converted to special ranges of internal IP addresses, usually on a one-to-many basis; that is, one external valid address is mapped dynamically to a range of internal addresses by adding a unique port number to the address when traffic leaves the private network and is placed on the public network.

Network Address Translation (NAT)

A technology in which multiple real, routable external IP addresses are converted to special ranges of internal IP addresses, usually on a one-to-one basis; that is, one external valid address directly maps to one assigned internal address.

non-memory-resident virus

A virus that terminates after it has been activated, infected its host system, and replicated itself. NMR viruses do not reside in an operating system or memory after executing. Also known as a non-resident virus.

ARP

Address Resolution Protocol

Project managers can reduce resistance to change by involving employees in the project plan. In the systems development parts of a project, this is referred to as ______

AD [joint application development]

AUP

Acceptable Use Policy

ASLR

Address Space Layout Randomization

AES

Advanced Encryption Standard

APT

Advanced Persistent Threat

___________ information is a form of collective data that relates to a group or category of people and that has been altered to remove characteristics or components that make it possible to identify individuals within the group.

Aggregate

crossover error rate (CER)

Also called the equal error rate, the point at which the rate of false rejections equals the rate of false acceptances.

evidentiary material (EM)

Also known as "items of potential evidentiary value," any information that could potentially support an organization's legal or policy-based case against a suspect

Fingerprinting is the organized research of the Internet addresses owned or controlled by a target organization. _________________________

False

boot virus

Also known as a boot sector virus, a type of virus that targets the boot sector or Master Boot Record (MBR) of a computer system's hard drive or removable storage media.

trusted VPN

Also known as a legacy VPN, a VPN implementation that uses leased circuits from a service provider who gives contractual assurance that no one else is allowed to use these circuits and that they are properly maintained and protected.

For policy to become enforceable it only needs to be distributed, read, understood, and agreed to.

False

inline sensor

An IDPS sensor intended for network perimeter use and deployed in close proximity to a perimeter firewall to detect incoming attacks that could overwhelm the firewall.

network-based IDPS (NIDPS)

An IDPS that resides on a computer or appliance connected to a segment of an organization's network and monitors traffic on that segment, looking for indications of ongoing or successful attacks.

host-based IDPS (HIDPS)

An IDPS that resides on a particular computer or server, known as the host, and monitors activity only on that system. Also known as a system integrity verifier.

command injection

An application error that occurs when user input is passed directly to a compiler or interpreter without screening for content that may disrupt or compromise the intended function.

trap-and-trace application

An application that combines the function of honeypots or honeynets with the capability to track the attacker back through the network.

Guidelines are detailed statements of what must be done to comply with policy.

False

Attribute-based access control (ABAC)

An access control approach whereby the organization specifies the use of objects based on some attribute of the user or system.

thermal detector

An alarm sensor designed to detect a defined rate of change in the ambient temperature within a defined space.

contact and weight sensor

An alarm sensor designed to detect increased pressure or contact at a specific location, such as a floor pad or a window.

vibration sensor

An alarm sensor designed to detect movement of the sensor rather than movement in the environment.

motion detector

An alarm sensor designed to detect movement within a defined space.

sequential roster

An alert roster in which a single contact person calls each person on the roster

active vulnerability scanner

An application that scans networks to identify exposed usernames and groups, open network shares, configuration problems, and other vulnerabilities in servers.

ISACA touts the CISA certification as being appropriate for accounting, networking, and security professionals.

False

Chief information officer (CIO)

An executive-level position that oversees the organization's computing technology and strives to create efficiency in the processing and access of the organization's information. -Senior technology officer -Primarily responsible for advising the senior executives on strategic planning

authenticity

An attribute of information that describes how data is genuine or original rather than reproduced or fabricated.

policy administrator

An employee responsible for the creation, revision, distribution, and storage of a policy in an organization.

ISSMP stands for Information Systems Security Monitoring Professional. _________________________

False

10.4 password rule

An industry recommendation for password structure and strength that specifics passwords should be at least 10 characters long and contain at least one uppercase letter, one lowercase letter, one number, and one special character.

delta conversion online UPS

An uninterruptible power supply (UPS) that is similar to a double conversion online UPS except that it incorporates a delta transformer, which assists in powering the inverter while outside power is available.

ALE

Annualized Loss Expectancy

ARO

Annualized Rate of Occurrence

CA

Certificate Authority

AV

Asset Value

Security-Related Policies and Procedures *Which audits help ensure that procedures and communications methods are working properly in the event of a problem or issue?* a. Communication b. Escalation c. Selection d. Preference

B. *Escalation* Escalation audits help ensure that procedures and communications methods are working properly in the event of a problem or issue.

Fail-Safe Defaults (principle b, Saltzer and Schroeder)

Base access decisions on permission rather than exclusion

BIOS

Basic Input/Output System

BPDU

Bridge Protocol Data Unit

BYOD

Bring Your Own Device

BAC

Business Availability Center

BIA

Business Impact Analysis

BPA

Business Partners Agreement

In 1953, Giovan Batista Bellaso introduced the idea of the passphrase (password) as a key for encryption

False

The formal decision making process used when considering the economic feasibility of implementing information security controls and safeguards is called a(n) ____.

CBA

The _______ is a center of Internet security expertise and is located at the Software Engineering Institute, a federally funded research and development center operated by Carnegie Mellon University

CERT/CC

ISACA offers the CGEIT as well as the CISA and ________ cerificaitons.

CISM

The ____ acts as the spokesperson for the information security team.

CISO

The _____ is typically considered the top information security officer in the organization.

CISO

The ______ certification program has added a number of concentrations that can be demonstrate advanced knowledge beyond the basic certification's CBK.

CISSP

ransomware

Computer software specifically designed to identify and encrypt valuable information in a victim's system in order to extort payment for the key needed to unlock the encryption

CCTV

Closed-circuit Television

CASB

Cloud Access Security Broker

CSP

Cloud Service Provider

Aggregate Information

Collective data that relates to a group or category of people and that has been altered to remove characteristics or components that make it possible to identify individuals within the group. Not to be confused with information aggregation.

Because the goals and objectives of CIOs and CISOs tend to contradict each other, InformationWeek recommends: "The people who do and the people who watch shouldn't report to a ____________________ manager."

Common

CMS

Content Management System

CP

Contingency Planning

COOP

Continuity of Operations Plan

CAN

Controller Area Network

COPE

Corporate Owned, Personally Enabled

CAR

Corrective Action Report

CTR

Counter

DNAT

Destination Network Address Transaction

ARPANET (Advanced Research Projects Agency Network)

Developed by Dr. Larry Roberts in 1968. Feasibility of a redundant, networked communications system to support the military's exchange of information.

fire suppression systems

Devices that are installed and maintained to detect and respond to a fire, potential fire, or combustion danger.

DHE

Diffie-Hellman Ephemeral

EMP

Electro Magnetic Pulse

EMI

Electromagnetic Interference

________ locks can be integrated into alarm systems and combined with other building management systems.

Electronic

ECB

Electronic Code Book

ESN

Electronic Serial Number

DHCP

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol

DLL

Dynamic Link Library

The Enigma

Earlier verisons of the German code machine Enigma were first broken by the Poles in the 1930s. The British and Americans managed to break later, more complex versions during World War II. The increasingly complex versions of the Enigma, especially the submarine or Unterseeboot version of the Enigma, caused considerable anguish to Allied forces before finally being cracked. The information gained from decrypted transmissions was used to anticipate the actions of German armed forces. "Some ask why, if we were reading the Enigma, we did not win the war earlier. One might ask, instead, when, if ever, we would have won the war if we hadn't read it."

The __________ Act of 1996 attempts to prevent trade secrets from being illegally shared.

Economic Espionage

Complete Mediation (principle c, Saltzer and Schroeder)

Every access to every object must be checked for authority

ECC

Elliptic Curve Cryptography

ECDHE

Elliptic Curve Diffie-Hellman Ephemeral

ECDSA

Elliptic Curve Digital Signature Algorithm

ESP

Encapsulated Security Payload

EFS

Encrypted File System

EULA

End User License Agreement

EOL

End of Life

ERP

Enterprise Resource Planning

__________ is the action of luring an individual into committing a crime to get a conviction.

Entrapment

EF

Exposure Factor

EAP

Extensible Authentication Protocol

XML

Extensible Markup Language

FAR

FALSE Acceptance Rate

FRR

FALSE Rejection Rate

Every organization needs to develop an information security department or program of its own.

False

Existing information security-related certifications are typically well understood by those responsible for hiring in the organizations.

False

FACL

File System Access Control List

FTP

File Transfer Protocol

_______ is a systematic survey of all of the target organization's Internet addresses.

Fingerprinting

Address restrictions

Firewall rules designed to prohibit packets with certain addresses or partial addresses from passing through the device.

Building codes require that each floor have a number of _______. or walls that limit the spread of damage should a fire break out in an office.

Firewalls

cyberwarfare

Formally sanctioned offensive operations conducted by a government or state against information or systems of another government or state. Sometimes called information warfare.

________ departures include resignation, retirement, promotion, or relocation.

Friendly

FDE

Full Disk Encryption

GCM

Galois Counter Mode

HTML

Hypertext Markup Language

HTTP

Hypertext Transfer Protocol

ITCP

IT Contingency Plan

ID

Identification

IdP

Identity Provider

_______ is the unauthorized taking or personally identifiable information with the intent of committing fraud or another illegal or unethical purpose.

Identity theft

Phase 3:

Implementation/Assessment • Integrate the information system into its environment; • Plan and conduct system certification activities in synchronization with testing of security controls; and • Complete system accreditation activities. [...]

information security framework

In information security, a specification of a model to be followed during the design, selection, and initial and ongoing implementation of all subsequent security controls, including information security policies, security education and training programs, and technological controls. Also known as security model.

certificate revocation list (CRL)

In PKI, a published list of revoked or terminated digital certificates.

Registration Authority (RA)

In PKI, a third party that operates under the trusted collaboration of the certificate authority and handles day-to-day certification functions.

Single Loss Expectancy (SLE)

In a cost-benefit analysis, the calculated value associated with the most likely loss from an attack. The SLE is the product of the asset's value and the exposure factor

data owners

Individuals who control (and are therefore responsible for) the security and use of a particular set of information. Data owners may rely on custodians for the practical aspects of protecting their information, specifying which users are authorized to access it, but they are ultimately responsible for it.

Data Custodian

Individuals who work directly with date owners and are responsible for storage, maintenance, and protection of information

privacy

In the context of information security, the right of individuals or groups to protect themselves and their information from unauthorized access, providing confidentiality.

Computer Security

In the early days of computers, this term specified the need to secure the physical location of computer technology from outside threats. This term later came to represent all actions taken to preserve computer systems from losses. It has evolved into the current concept of information security as the scope of protecting information in an organization has expanded.

IR

Incident Response

IRP

Incident Response Plan

ICS

Industrial Control Systems

L2TP

Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol

The process of ensuring that no unnecessary access to data exists and that employees are able to perform only the minimum operations necessary on a set of data is referred to as the principle of

Least privilege

____________________ is the legal obligation of an entity that extends beyond criminal or contract law.

Liability

LDAP

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol

LEAP

Lightweight Extensible Authentication Protocol

session keys

Limited-use symmetric keys for temporary communications during an online session.

MBR

Master Boot Record

MTU

Maximum Transmission Unit

MTBF

Mean Time Between Failures

MTTF

Mean Time to Failure

MTTR

Mean Time to Recover or Mean Time to Repair

MAC

Media Access Control

NIST

National Institute of Standards & Technology

NFC

Near Field Communication

NAC

Network Access Control

NAT

Network Address Translation

NTP

Network Time Protocol

_______ is used to respond to network change requests and network architectural design proposals.

Network connectivity RA

OID

Object Identifier

OCSP

Online Certificate Status Protocol

OAUTH

Open Authorization

OVAL

Open Vulnerability Assessment Language

OS

Operating System

The ability to detect a target computer's _____ is very valuable to an attacker.

Operating system

_______ controls address personnel security, physical security, and the protection of production inputs and outputs.

Operational

PCAP

Packet Capture

POODLE

Padding Oracle on Downgrade Legacy Encryption

PTZ

Pan-Tilt-Zoom

PAP

Password Authentication Protocol

PBKDF2

Password-based Key Derivation Function 2

signatures

Patterns that correspond to a known attack.

P2P

Peer to Peer

______, a level beyond vulnerability testing, is a set of security tests and evaluations that simulate attacks by a malicious external source (hacker).

Penetration testing

POP3 (Post Office Protocol version 3)

Port: TCP 110 Receives (downloads) email from a mail server.

NNTP (Network News Transfer Protocol)

Port: TCP 119 Transports Usenet articles.

RFID

Radio Frequency Identifier

Which of the following is not a major processing mode category for firewalls?

Router passthru

RBAC

Rule-based Access Control

The ________________________ data files contains the hashed representation of the user's password

SAM

Most guards have clear ____ that help them to act decisively in unfamiliar situations.

SOPs

The __________ is responsible for the fragmentation, compression, encryption, and attachment of an SSL header to the cleartext prior to transmission.

SSL Record Protocol

SCP

Secure Copy

SHA

Secure Hashing Algorithm

SHTTP

Secure Hypertext Transfer Protocol

malicious code

See Malware.

______ occurs when an authorized person opens a door, and other people, who may or may not be authorized, also enter.

Tailgating

SMS

Short Message Service

SCEP

Simple Certificate Enrollment Protocol

SMTP

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol

SMTPS

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol Secure

SNMP

Simple Network Management Protocol

SOAP

Simple Object Access Protocol

SLE

Single Loss Expectancy

SPoF

Single Point of Failure

SSO

Single Sign-on

SCSI

Small Computer System Interface

SDN

Software Defined Network

SPIM

Spam over Internet Messaging

SAN

Storage Area Network

SEH

Structured Exception Handler

SQL

Structured Query Language

SAN

Subject Alternative Name

SIM

Subscriber Identity Module

affidavit

Sworn testimony that certain facts are in the possession of an investigating officer and that they warrant the examination of specific items located at a specific place. The facts, the items, and the place must be specified in the affidavit.

SCADA

System Control and Data Acquisition

Control

System Plus

SSP

System Security Plan

SoC

System on Chip

Digital Signature Standard (DSS)

The NIST standard for digital signature algorithm usage by federal information systems. DSS is based on a variant of the ElGamal signature scheme.

Avoidance of competitive disadvantage

The adoption and implementation of a business model, method, technique, resource, or technology to prevent being outperformed by a competing organization; working to keep pace with the competition through innovation, rather than falling behind.

competitive advantage

The adoption and implementation of an innovative business model, method, technique, resource, or technology in order to outperform the competition.

Information Assurance

The affirmation or guarantee of the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information in storage, processing, and transmission. This term is often used synonymously with information security.

competitive intelligence

The collection and analysis of information about an organization's business competitors through legal and ethical means to gain business intelligence and competitive advantage.

industrial espionage

The collection and analysis of information about an organization's business competitors, often through illegal or unethical means, to gain an unfair competitive advantage. Also known as corporate spying, which is distinguished from espionage for national security reasons.

Signals intelligence

The collection, analysis, and distribution of information from foreign communications networks for intelligence and counterintelligence purposes and in support of military operations. In recent years, the debate around the collection and use of signals intelligence has grappled with the integration of domestic intelligence gathering.

Stateful protocol analysis (SPA)

The comparison of vendor-supplied profiles of protocol use and behavior against observed data and network patterns in an effort to detect misuse and attacks.

vulnerability assessment and remediation domain

The component of the maintenance model focused on identifying specific, documented vulnerabilities and remediating them in a timely fashion.

Open Design (principle d, Saltzer and Schroeder)

The design should not be secret, but rather depend on the possession of keys or passwords

shoulder surfing

The direct, covert observation of individual information or system use.

project plan

The documented instructions for participants and stakeholders of a project that provide details on goals, objectives, tasks, scheduling, and resource management.

business continuity plan (BC plan)

The documented product of business continuity planning; a plan that shows the organization's intended efforts to continue critical functions when operations at the primary site are not feasible

contingency plan

The documented product of contingency planning; a plan that shows the organization's intended efforts in reaction to adverse events

Cryptology

The field of science that encompasses cryptography and cryptanalysis

cost avoidance

The financial savings from using the defense risk control strategy to implement a control and eliminate the financial ramifications of an incident.

information asset

The focus of information security; information that has value to the organization, and the systems that store, process, and transmit the information.

attack surface

The functions and features that a system exposes to unauthenticated users.

intrusion detection and prevention system (IDPS)

The general term for a system that can both detect and modify its configuration and environment to prevent intrusions. An IDPS encompasses the functions of both intrusion detection systems and intrusion prevention technology.

contingency planning management team (CPMT)

The group of senior managers and project members organized to conduct and lead all CP efforts.

attack success probability

The number of successful attacks that are expected to occur within a specified time period.

two-person control

The organization of a task or process so that at least two individuals must work together to complete it. Also known as dual control.

Recovery Point Objective (RPO)

The point in time, prior to a disruption or system outage, to which mission/business process data can be recovered (given the most recent backup copy of the data) after an outage.

noise

The presence of additional and disruptive signals in network communications or electrical power delivery

IP Security (IPsec)

The primary and now dominant cryptographic authentication and encryption product of the IETF's IP Protocol Security Working Group. A framework for security development within the TCP/IP family of protocol standards, IPSec provides application support for all uses within TCP/IP, including virtual private networks.

need to know

The principle of limiting users' access privileges to only the specific information required to perform their assigned tasks.

likelihood

The probability that a specific vulnerability within an organization will be the target of an attack

Asset valuation

The process of assigning financial value or worth to each information asset.

computer forensics

The process of collecting, analyzing, and preserving computer-related evidence.

An organization should integrate security awareness education into a new hire's ongoing job orientation and make it a part of every employee's on-the-job security training.

True

accreditation

The process that authorizes an IT system to process, store, or transmit information.

Communications security

The protection of all communications media, technology, and content.

Physical security

The protection of physical items, objects, or areas from unauthorized access and misuse.

physical security

The protection of physical items, objects, or areas from unauthorized access and misuse.

risk appetite

The quantity and nature of risk that organizations are willing to accept as they evaluate the trade-offs between perfect security and unlimited accessibility.

Incident damage assessment

The rapid determination of how seriously a breach of confidentiality, integrity, and availability affected information and information assets during an incident or just following one.

Access Control

The selective method by which systems specify who may use a particular resource and how they may use it.

trusted network

The system of networks inside the organization that contains its information assets and is under the organization's control.

fingerprinting

The systematic survey of a targeted organization's Internet addresses collected during the footprinting phase to identify the network services offered by the hosts in that range.

Maximum Tolerable Downtime (MTD)

The total amount of the system owners or authorizing official is willing to accept for a mission/business process outage or disruption, including all impact considerations.

As an organization grows, it must often use more robust technology to replace the security technologies it may have outgrown.

True

authentication factors

Three mechanisms that provide authentication based on something an unauthenticated entity knows, something an unauthenticated entity has, and something an unauthenticated entity is.

Benchmarking is the process of comparing other organizations' activities against the practices used in one's own organization to produce results it would like to duplicate.

True

software piracy

The unauthorized duplication, installation, or distribution of copyrighted computer software, which is a violation of intellectual property.

privilege escalation

The unauthorized modification of an authorized or unauthorized system user account to gain advanced access and control over system resources.

identity theft

The unauthorized use of personally identifiable information with the intent of committing fraud and abuse of a person's financial and personal reputation, purchasing goods and services without authorization, and generally impersonating the victim for illegal or unethical purposes.

____ are a component of the security triple

Threats Assets Vulnerabilities All of the above

Best business practices are often called recommended practices.

True

TGT

Ticket Granting Ticket

TOTP

Time-based One-time Password

port scanners

Tools used both by attackers and defenders to identify or fingerprint active computers on a network, the active ports and services on those computers, the functions and roles of the machines, and other useful information.

TCO

Total Cost of Ownership

Microsoft's SDL

Training Requirements Design Implementation Verification Release Response

TSIG

Transaction Signature

The online UPS can deliver a constant, smooth, conditioned power stream to computing systems.

True

Chief Information Security Officer (CISO)

Typically considered the top information security officer in an organization. The CISO is usually not an executive-level position, and frequently the person in this role reports to the CIO. -Has primary responsibility for assessment, management, and implementation of IS in the organization -Usually reports directly to the CIO

trespass

Unauthorized entry into the real or virtual property of another party.

Covert channels

Unauthorized or unintended methods of communications hidden inside a computer system

Trusted Computing Base (TCB)

Under the Trusted Computer System Evaluation Criteria (TCSEC), the combination of all hardware, firmware, and software responsible for enforcing the security policy.

UEFI

Unified Extensible Firmware Interface

Which of the following is not one of the categories of positions defined by Schwartz, Erwin, Weafer, and Briney?

User

availablity

an attribute of information that describes how data is accessible and correctly formatted for use without interference or obstruction.

WAF

Web Application Firewall

accuracy

an attribute of information that describes how data is free of errors and has the value that the user expects.

Separation of Privilege (principle e, Saltzer and Schroeder)

Where feasible, a protection mechanism should require two keys to unlock, rather than one

WPA

WiFi Protected Access

WPA2

WiFi Protected Access 2

WPS

WiFi Protected Setup

WEP

Wired Equivalent Privacy

WAP

Wireless Access Point

WIDS

Wireless Intrusion Detection System

WIPS

Wireless Intrusion Prevention System

WTLS

Wireless TLS

reference monitor

Within TCB, a conceptual piece of the system that manages access controls—in other words, it mediates all access to objects by subjects.

WORM

Write Once Read Many

information security policy

Written instructions provided by management that inform employees and others in the workplace about proper behavior regarding the use of information and information assets.

restitution

a legal requirement to make compensation or payment resulting from a loss or injury

thermal detection system

a category of fire detection systems that focuses on detecting the heat from a fire

*If an asset is valued at 100,000, the threat exposure factor of a risk affecting that asset is 25%, and the annualized rate of occurrence is 20%, what is the ALE?* a. $5,000 b. $20,000 c. $25,000 d. $45,000

a. *$5,000* The annualized loss expectancy (ALE) is the product of the SLE (value times exposure factor) and the ARO or $20% of 100,000 × 25% = $5,000. Answer B is incorrect because $20,000 represents the asset value times ARO. Answer C is incorrect because the value times the exposure factor represents the single loss expectancy (SLE) rather than the annual loss expectancy (ALE). Answer D is simply an incorrectly calculated value.

Measuring and Weighing Risk *If you calculate SLE to be $25,000 and that there will be one occurrence every four years (ARO), then what is the ALE?* a. $6,250 b. $12,500 c. $25,000 d. $100,000

a. *$6,250* If you calculate SLE to be $25,000 and that there will be one occurrence every four years (ARO), then the ALE is $6,250 ($25,000 × .25).

Security-Related Policies and Procedures *Which rule of evidence within the United States involves Fourth Amendment protections?* a. Admissible b. Complete c. Reliable d. Believable

a. *Admissible* Admissibility involves collecting data in a manner that ensures its viability in court, including legal requirements such as the Fourth Amendment protections against unlawful search and seizure. Answers B and C are incorrect because data must be collected completely and protected against modification to ensure reliability, but these are not concerns of the Fourth Amendment. Answer D is incorrect because believability focuses on evidence being understandable, documented, and not subject to modification during transition.

Threats and Vulnerabilities *You're explaining the basics of security to upper management in an attempt to obtain an increase in the networking budget. One of the members of the management team mentions that they've heard of a threat from a virus that attempts to mask itself by hiding code from antivirus software. What type of virus is he referring to?* a. Armored virus b. Polymorphic virus c. Worm d. Stealth virus

a. *Armored virus* An armored virus is designed to hide the signature of the virus behind code that confuses the antivirus software or blocks it from detecting the virus.

*Diffie-Hellman is what type of cryptographic system?* a. Asymmetric b. Symmetric c. Hashing d. Certificate authority

a. *Asymmetric* Diffie-Hellman is an asymmetric cryptographic system. The Data Encryption Standard (DES) and the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) are examples of symmetric cryptography. Message Digest 5 (MD5) and Secure Hash Algorithm version 1 (SHA-1) are examples of hashing. Certificate authorities issue certificates based on an implemented Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) solution.

*You are conducting a penetration test on an application for a client. The client provides you with no details about the source code and development process. What type of test will you likely be conducting?* a. Black box b. White box c. Vulnerability d. Answers A and C

a. *Black box* Black box testing does not provide any information about the environment. Answer B is incorrect as white box testing is more transparent and would provide details around the particular application. A vulnerability test and penetration test are separate items, thus answer C is incorrect. Answer D is also incorrect.

Security and Vulnerability in the Network *In which type of testing do you begin with the premise that the attacker has no knowledge of the network?* a. Black box b. White box c. Gray box d. Green box

a. *Black box* With black box testing, you begin with the premise that the attacker has no knowledge of the network.

Security-Related Policies and Procedures *Most CAs require what to define certificate issue processes, record keeping, and subscribers' legal acceptance of terms?* a. CPS b. DAC c. SRC d. GPM

a. *CPS* Most CAs require a Certificate Practice Statement (CPS), which defines certificate issue processes, record keeping, and subscribers' legal acceptance of the terms of the CPS.

Access Control and Identity Management *The present method of requiring access to be strictly defined on every object is proving too cumbersome for your environment. The edict has come down from upper management that access requirements should be reduced slightly. Which access model allows users some flexibility for information-sharing purposes?* a. DAC b. MAC c. RBAC d. MLAC

a. *DAC* DAC allows some flexibility in information-sharing capabilities within the network.

Access Control and Identity Management *LDAP is an example of which of the following?* a. Directory access protocol b. IDS c. Tiered model application development environment d. File server

a. *Directory access protocol* Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) is a directory access protocol used to publish information about users. This is the computer equivalent of a phone book.

Cryptography Basics *As the head of IT for MTS, you're explaining some security concerns to a junior administrator who has just been hired. You're trying to emphasize the need to know what is important and what isn't. Which of the following is not a consideration in key storage?* a. Environmental controls b. Physical security c. Hardened servers d. Administrative controls

a. *Environmental controls* Proper key storage requires that the keys be physically stored in a secure environment. This may include using locked cabinets, hardened servers, and effective physical and administrative controls.

*Which of the following methods can be used to locate a device in the event it is lost or stolen?* a. GPS tracking b. Voice encryption c. Remote wipe d. Passcode policy

a. *GPS tracking* If a mobile device is lost, GPS tracking can be used to find the location. Answer B is incorrect because voice encryption can allow executives and employees alike to discuss sensitive information without having to travel to secure company locations. Answer C is incorrect because remote wipe allows the handheld's data to be remotely deleted if the device is lost or stolen. Answer D is incorrect because a screen lock or passcode is used to prevent access to the phone.

Protecting Networks *What is a system that is intended or designed to be broken into by an attacker called?* a. Honeypot b. Honeybucket c. Decoy d. Spoofing system

a. *Honeypot* A honeypot is a system that is intended to be sacrificed in the name of knowledge. Honeypot systems allow investigators to evaluate and analyze the attack strategies used. Law enforcement agencies use honeypots to gather evidence for prosecution.

*Which of the following are types of updates applied to systems? (Select all correct answers.) * a. Hotfix b. Service packs c. Patches d. Coldfix

a. *Hotfix* b. *Service packs* c. *Patches* Each of these describes types of updates that can be applied to a system. Answer D is incorrect.

Access Control and Identity Management *What is invoked when a person claims they are the user but cannot be authenticated—such as when they lose their password?* a. Identity proofing b. Social engineering c. Directory traversal d. Cross-site requesting

a. *Identity proofing* Identity proofing is invoked when a person claims they are the user but cannot be authenticated, such as when they lose their password.

*_______________ is an IP-based storage networking standard for linking data storage facilities.* a. Internet Small Computer System Interface (iSCSI) b. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) c. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) d. Network Basic Input/Output System (NetBIOS)

a. *Internet Small Computer System Interface (iSCSI)* iSCSI (Internet Small Computer System Interface) is an IP-based storage networking standard for linking data storage facilities. Because it works over a standard IP network, iSCSI can transmit data over LANs, wide area networks (WANs), and the Internet.

Cryptography Implementation *Key destruction is the process of destroying keys that have become:* a. Invalid b. Expired c. Ruined d. Outdated

a. *Invalid* Key destruction is the process of destroying keys that have become invalid.

Physical and Hardware-Based Security *In a hot and cold aisle system, what is the typical method of handling cold air?* a. It is pumped in from below raised floor tiles. b. It is pumped in from above through the ceiling tiles. c. Only hot air is extracted and cold air is the natural result. d. Cold air exists in each aisle.

a. *It is pumped in from below raised floor tiles.* With hot and cold aisles, cold air is pumped in from below raised floor tiles.

*NetBIOS (Network Basic Input/Output System) is a transport protocol used by _______________ systems to allow applications on separate computers to communicate over a LAN.* a. Microsoft Windows b. Linux c. Apple d. Unix

a. *Microsoft Windows* NetBIOS (Network Basic Input/Output System) is a transport protocol used by Microsoft Windows systems to allow applications on separate computers to communicate over a LAN.

*Which of the following is a denial-of-service attack that uses network packets that have been spoofed so that the source and destination address are that of the victim?* a. Land b. Teardrop c. Smurf d. Fraggle

a. *Land* A land DoS attack uses network packets that have been spoofed so that the source and destination address are that of the victim. A teardrop attack uses fragmented IP packets. Smurf and fraggle attacks use spoofed ICMP and UDP packets, respectively, against an amplification network.

*_______________ is a proprietary EAP method developed by Cisco Systems and is based on the Microsoft implementation of Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP).* a. Lightweight EAP (LEAP) b. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) c. Protected EAP (PEAP) d. Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP)

a. *Lightweight EAP (LEAP)* Lightweight EAP (LEAP) is a proprietary EAP method developed by Cisco Systems and is based on the Microsoft implementation of CHAP. It requires mutual authentication used for WLAN encryption using Cisco client software (there is no native support for LEAP in Microsoft Windows operating systems).

Security and Vulnerability in the Network *What is the name given to the activity that consists of collecting information that will be later used for monitoring and review purposes?* a. Logging b. Auditing c. Inspecting d. Vetting

a. *Logging* Logging is the process of collecting data to be used for monitoring and auditing purposes. Auditing is the process of verification that normally involves going through log files; therefore, answer B is incorrect. Typically, the log files are frequently inspected, and inspection is not the process of collecting the data; therefore, answer C is incorrect. Vetting is the process of thorough examination or evaluation; therefore, answer D is incorrect.

Threats and Vulnerabilities *Your system has just stopped responding to keyboard commands. You noticed that this occurred when a spreadsheet was open and you dialed in to the Internet. Which kind of attack has probably occurred?* a. Logic bomb b. Worm c. Virus d. ACK attack

a. *Logic bomb* A logic bomb notifies an attacker when a certain set of circumstances has occurred. This may in turn trigger an attack on your system.

*Which of the following is not an example of multifactor authentication?* a. Logon and password b. Smart card and PIN c. RFID chip and thumbprint d. Gait and iris recognition e. Location and CAC

a. *Logon and password* Both logon and password represent a form of "what you know" authentication. Answers B, C, D, and E are all incorrect because they represent paired multifactor forms of authentication. A smart card and PIN represent what you have and know, and an RFID chip and thumbprint link what you have with what you are. Gait is a measure of what you do, and iris details are an example of what you are. Somewhere you are is a location, which could be based on GPS coordinates or IP address, and a common access card (CAC) is something you have.

*After a new switch was implemented, some sporadic connectivity issues on the network have occurred. The issues are suspected to be device related. Which of the following would the organization implement as a method for additional checks in order to prevent issues?* a. Loop protection b. Flood guard c. Implicit deny d. Port security

a. *Loop protection* The loop protection feature makes additional checks in Layer 2 switched networks. Answer B is incorrect because a flood guard is a firewall feature to control network activity associated with denial-of-service (DoS) attacks. Answer C is incorrect because implicit deny is an access control practice wherein resource availability is restricted to only those logons explicitly granted access. Answer D is incorrect because port security is a Layer 2 traffic control feature on Cisco Catalyst switches. It enables individual switch ports to be configured to allow only a specified number of source MAC addresses coming in through the port.

Access Control and Identity Management *Upper management has suddenly become concerned about security. As the senior network administrator, you are asked to suggest changes that should be implemented. Which of the following access methods should you recommend if the method is to be one that is primarily based on preestablished access and can't be changed by users?* a. MAC b. DAC c. RBAC d. Kerberos

a. *MAC* Mandatory Access Control (MAC) is oriented toward preestablished access. This access is typically established by network administrators and can't be changed by users.

*Which form of access control relies on labels for access control management?* a. MAC b. DAC c. Role-based (RBAC) d. Rule-based (RBAC)

a. *MAC* Mandatory access control (MAC) systems require assignment of labels such as Public, Secret, and Sensitive to provide resource access. Answer B is incorrect because discretionary access control (DAC) systems allow data owners to extend access rights to other logons based on explicit assignments or inherited group membership. Answers C and D are incorrect because both RBAC access control forms rely on conditional assignment of access rules either inherited (role based) or by environmental factors such as time of day or secured terminal location (rule based).

Protecting Networks *A junior administrator bursts into your office with a report in his hand. He claims that he has found documentation proving that an intruder has been entering the network on a regular basis. Which of the following implementations of IDS detects intrusions based on previously established rules that are in place on your network?* a. MD-IDS b. AD-IDS c. HIDS d. NIDS

a. *MD-IDS* By comparing attack signatures and audit trails, a misuse-detection IDS determines whether an attack is occurring.

Protecting Networks *The IDS console is known as what?* a. Manager b. Window c. Dashboard d. Screen

a. *Manager* The IDS console is known as the manager.

*Which one of the following controls are physical security measures? (Select all correct answers.)* a. Motion detector b. Antivirus software c. CCTV d. Fence

a. *Motion detector* c. *CCTV* d. *Fence* Motion detectors, CCTV, and fencing are all controls used for physical security. Antivirus is not a physical security control, but a control used to protect computer systems from malware, and therefore Answer B is incorrect.

Access Control and Identity Management *After a careful risk analysis, the value of your company's data has been increased. Accordingly, you're expected to implement authentication solutions that reflect the increased value of the data. Which of the following authentication methods uses more than one authentication process for a logon?* a. Multifactor b. Biometrics c. Smart card d. Kerberos

a. *Multifactor* A multifactor authentication method uses two or more processes for logon. A two-factor method might use smart cards and biometrics for logon.

*The sender of data is provided with proof of delivery, and neither the sender nor receiver can deny either having sent or received the data. What is this called?* a. Nonrepudiation b. Repetition c. Nonrepetition d. Repudiation

a. *Nonrepudiation* Nonrepudiation means that neither party can deny either having sent or received the data in question. Both answers B and C are incorrect. And repudiation is defined as the act of refusal; therefore, answer D is incorrect.

*Which of the following are used to verify the status of a certificate? (Select two correct answers.)* a. OCSP b. CRL c. OSPF d. ACL

a. *OCSP* b. *CRL* The Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) and the certificate revocation list (CRL) are used to verify the status of digital certificates. OSPF is a routing protocol; therefore, answer C is incorrect. An ACL is used to define access control; therefore, answer D is incorrect.

Infrastructure and Connectivity *Which protocol is unsuitable for WAN VPN connections?* a. PPP b. PPTP c. L2TP d. IPSec

a. *PPP* PPP provides no security, and all activities are unsecure. PPP is primarily intended for dial-up connections and should never be used for VPN connections.

Disaster Recovery and Incident Response *You've been brought in as a temporary for FRS, Inc. The head of IT assigns you the task of evaluating all servers and their disks and making a list of any data not stored redundantly. Which disk technology isn't fault tolerant?* a. RAID 0 b. RAID 1 c. RAID 3 d. RAID 5

a. *RAID 0* RAID 0 is a method of spreading data from a single disk over a number of disk drives. It's used primarily for performance purposes.

Operating System and Application Security *The flexibility of relational databases in use today is a result of which of the following?* a. SQL b. Hard-coded queries c. Forward projection d. Mixed model access

a. *SQL* SQL is a powerful database access language used by most relational database systems.

*In order to ensure that whole-drive encryption provides the best security possible, which of the following should not be performed?* a. Screen lock the system overnight. b. Require a boot password to unlock the drive. c. Lock the system in a safe when it is not in use. d. Power down the system after use.

a. *Screen lock the system overnight.* An attack can steal the encryption key from memory, so systems with whole-drive encryption that are only screen-locked are vulnerable. Requiring a boot password, locking the system, and powering down ensure the protection of whole drive encryption.

Physical and Hardware-Based Security *Which of the following methods is the most effective way to physically secure laptops that are used in an environment such as an office?* a. Security cables b. Server cages c. Locked cabinet d. Hardware dongle

a. *Security cables* Security cables with combination locks can provide such security and are easy to use. They are used mostly to secure laptops and leave the equipment exposed. Answer B is incorrect because PC Safe tower and server cages are designed to bolt to the floor and are meant to be in an environment that is static. Answer C is incorrect because a locked cabinet is an alternative for equipment that is not used or does not have to be physically accessed on a regular, daily basis. Vendors provide solutions such as a security cabinet locker that secures CPU towers. The housing is made of durable, heavy-duty steel for strength. Answer D is incorrect because a hardware dongle is used for license enforcement.

Educating and Protecting the User *As part of your training program, you're trying to educate users on the importance of security. You explain to them that not every attack depends on implementing advanced technological methods. Some attacks, you explain, take advantage of human shortcomings to gain access that should otherwise be denied. What term do you use to describe attacks of this type?* a. Social engineering b. IDS system c. Perimeter security d. Biometrics

a. *Social engineering* Social engineering uses the inherent trust in the human species, as opposed to technology, to gain access to your environment.

Disaster Recovery and Incident Response *Which of the following outlines those internal to the organization who have the ability to step into positions when they open?* a. Succession planning b. Progression planning c. Emergency planning d. Eventuality planning

a. *Succession planning* Succession planning outlines those internal to the organization who have the ability to step into positions when they open.

Infrastructure and Connectivity *Which of the following are multiport devices that improve network efficiency?* a. Switches b. Modems c. Gateways d. Concentrators

a. *Switches* Switches are multiport devices that improve network efficiency. A switch typically has a small amount of information about systems in a network.

*Which term describes both an older TCP/IP protocol for text-based communication and a terminal emulation program?* a. Telnet b. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) c. Network Basic Input/Output System (NetBIOS) d. Secure Network Management Protocol (SNMP)

a. *Telnet* Telnet is an older TCP/IP protocol for text-based communication. In addition, Telnet is also an application. This application is a terminal emulation program that runs on a local computer that connects to a server on the network. Commands can be entered using the Telnet application to the remote server as if the user was at the server itself.

*The heart and soul of WPA is a newer encryption technology called _______________.* a. Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) b. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) c. Triple DES d. Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol (CCMP)

a. *Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP)* The heart and soul of WPA is a newer encryption technology called Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP). TKIP functions as a "wrapper" around WEP by adding an additional layer of security but still preserving WEP's basic functionality.

Educating and Protecting the User *Which of the following is the highest classification level in the government?* a. Top Secret b. Secret c. Classified d. Confidential

a. *Top Secret* Top Secret is the highest classification level in the government.

Access Control and Identity Management *You're the administrator for Mercury Technical. Due to several expansions, the network has grown exponentially in size within the past two years. Which of the following is a popular method for breaking a network into smaller private networks that can coexist on the same wiring and yet be unaware of each other?* a. VLAN b. NAT c. MAC d. Security zone

a. *VLAN* Virtual local area networks (VLANs) break a large network into smaller networks. These networks can coexist on the same wiring and be unaware of each other. A router or other routing-type device would be needed to connect these VLANs.

*You are setting up an FTP server that needs to be accessed by both the employees and external contractors. What type of architecture should you implement?* a. VLAN b. DMZ c. NAT d. VPN

a. *VLAN* b. *DMZ* c. *NAT* All except answers D and E are advantages of honeypots and honeynets. Currently, the legal implications of using such systems are not that well defined, and the use of these systems typically requires more administrative resources.

*There are two modes for Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA): _______________.* a. WPA Personal and WPA Enterprise b. WPA Private and WPA Public c. WPA Open and WPA Closed d. WPA Shortwave and WPA Longwave

a. *WPA Personal and WPA Enterprise* There are two modes of WPA. WPA Personal was designed for individuals or small office/home office (SOHO) settings, which typically have 10 or fewer employees. A more robust WPA Enterprise was intended for larger enterprises, schools, and government agencies. WPA addresses both encryption and authentication.

Wireless Networking Security *Which of the following manages the session information and connection between wireless devices?* a. WSP b. WPD c. WPT d. WMD

a. *WSP* WSP (Wireless Session Protocol) manages the session information and connection between wireless devices.

Cryptography Implementation *The mesh trust model is also known as what?* a. Web structure b. Car model c. Web redemption d. Corrupt system

a. *Web structure* The mesh trust model is also known as a web structure.

*A(n) _______________ access point (AP) uses a standard web browser to provide information, and gives the wireless user the opportunity to agree to a policy or present valid login credentials, providing a higher degree of security.* a. captive portal b. open portal c. closed portal d. Internet portal

a. *captive portal* A captive portal AP uses a standard web browser to provide information, and gives the wireless user the opportunity to agree to a policy or present valid login credentials, providing a higher degree of security.

*A _______________ cloud is a cloud that is open only to specific organizations that have common concerns.* a. community b. public c. hybrid d. private

a. *community* A community cloud is a cloud that is open only to specific organizations that have common concerns.

*Risk _______________ involves understanding something about the attacker and then informing him of the harm that may come his way if he attacks an asset.* a. deterrence b. mitigation c. transference d. avoidance

a. *deterrence* Risk deterrence involves understanding something about the attacker and then informing him of the harm that may come his way if he attacks an asset.

Network Security *Using _______________, filters can assess if a webpage contains any malicious elements or exhibits any malicious behavior, and then flag questionable pages with a warning message.* a. malware inspection and filtering b. content inspection c. uniform resource locator (URL) filtering d. detailed reporting

a. *malware inspection and filtering* With malware inspection and filtering, filters can assess if a webpage contains any malicious elements or exhibits any malicious behavior, and then flag questionable pages with a warning message.

*In redundancy and fault tolerance, the term _______________ describes the average amount of time that it will take a device to recover from a failure that is not a terminal failure.* a. mean time to recovery b. failure In Time c. mean time between failures d. mean time to failure

a. *mean time to recovery* Mean time to recovery (MTTR) is the average amount of time that it will take a device to recover from a failure that is not a terminal failure.

*The goal of _______________ is to prevent computers with suboptimal security from potentially infecting other computers through the network.* a. network access control (NAC) b. virtualization c. captive portals d. port security

a. *network access control (NAC)* The goal of NAC is to prevent computers with suboptimal security from potentially infecting other computers through the network.

A subject or object's ability to use, manipulate, modify, or affect another subject or object is know as _________________.

access

passive mode

an IDPS sensor setting in which the device simply monitors and analyzes observed network traffic

Asynchronous token

an authentication component in the form of a token—a card or key fob that contains a computer chip and a liquid crystal display and shows a computer-generated number used to support remote login authentication. This token does not require calibration of the central authentication server; instead, it uses a challenge/response system.

*An asset is valued at $12,000, the threat exposure factor of a risk affecting that asset is 25%, and the annualized rate of occurrence is 50%. What is the SLE?* a. $1,500 b. $3,000 c. $4,000 d. $6,000

b. *$3,000* The single loss expectancy (SLE) is the product of the value ($12,000) and the threat exposure (.25), or $3,000. Answer A is incorrect because $1,500 represents the annualized loss expectancy (ALE), which is the product of the SLE and the annualized rate of occurrence (ARO). Answers C and D are incorrect calculated values.

Disaster Recovery and Incident Response *What is the maximum number of drive failures a RAID 5 array can survive from and still be able to function?* a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. More than 2

b. *1* A RAID 5 array can survive the failure of any one drive and still be able to function. It can't survive the failure of multiple drives.

Network Security *What feature distinguishes a network intrusion prevention system (NIPS) from a network intrusion detection system (NIDS)?* a. A NIPS has sensors that monitor the traffic entering and leaving a firewall, and reports back to the central device for analysis. b. A NIPS is located "in line" on the firewall itself. c. A NIPS is designed to integrate with existing antivirus, antispyware, and firewalls that are installed on the local host computer. d. A NIPS can use a protocol stack verification technique.

b. *A NIPS is located "in line" on the firewall itself.* One of the major differences between a NIDS and a NIPS is its location. A NIDS has sensors that monitor the traffic entering and leaving a firewall, and reports back to the central device for analysis. A NIPS, on the other hand, would be located "in line" on the firewall itself. This can allow the NIPS to more quickly take action to block an attack.

*Which of the following statements best describes nonrepudiation?* a. A set of mathematical rules used in encryption b. A means of proving that a transaction occurred c. A method of hiding data in another message d. A drive technology used for redundancy and performance improvement

b. *A means of proving that a transaction occurred* Nonrepudiation means that neither a sender nor a receiver can deny sending or receiving a message or data. Answer A is incorrect because it describes an algorithm. Answer C is incorrect because it describes steganography. Answer D is incorrect because it describes RAID.

*Which of the following best describes why a requesting device might believe that incoming ARP replies are from the correct devices?* a. ARP requires validation. b. ARP does not require validation. c. ARP is connection oriented. d. ARP is connectionless.

b. *ARP does not require validation.* ARP is a protocol used for mapping IP addresses to MAC addresses. It does not require validation, thus answer A is incorrect. Answers C and D are incorrect because connection oriented and connectionless are used to describe communications between two endpoints in which a message is sent with or without prior arrangement.

Measuring and Weighing Risk *Which of the following policies describes how the employees in an organization can use company systems and resources, both software and hardware?* a. Separation of duties b. Acceptable use c. Least privilege d. Physical access control

b. *Acceptable use* The acceptable use policies describe how the employees in an organization can use company systems and resources, both software and hardware.

Physical and Hardware-Based Security *After a number of minor incidents at your company, physical security has suddenly increased in priority. No unauthorized personnel should be allowed access to the servers or workstations. The process of preventing access to computer systems in a building is called what?* a. Perimeter security b. Access control c. Security zones d. IDS systems

b. *Access control* Access control is the primary process of preventing access to physical systems.

Protecting Networks *In intrusion detection system parlance, which account is responsible for setting the security policy for an organization?* a. Supervisor b. Administrator c. Root d. Director

b. *Administrator* The administrator is the person/account responsible for setting the security policy for an organization.

Disaster Recovery and Incident Response *Your organization is exploring data-loss prevention (DLP) solutions. The proposed solution is a software storage solution that monitors how confidential data is stored. This solution is targeting which of the following data states?* a. In-transit b. At-rest c. In-use d. In-service

b. *At-rest* Protection of data at-rest is considered to be a storage solution and is generally a software solution that monitors how confidential data is stored. Answer A is incorrect because protection of data in-transit is considered to be a network solution and either a hardware or software solution is installed near the network perimeter to monitor for and flag policy violations. Answer C is incorrect because protection of data in-use is considered to be an endpoint solution and the application is run on end-user workstations or servers in the organization. Answer D is incorrect because there is no such data state.

*Bluejacking and bluesnarfing make use of which wireless technology?* a. Wi-Fi b. Bluetooth c. Blu-Fi d. All of the above

b. *Bluetooth* Both bluejacking and bluesnarfing refer to types of attacks over short-range Bluetooth technology. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect.

Threats and Vulnerabilities *A collection of compromised computers running software installed by a Trojan horse or a worm is referred to as which of the following?* a. Zombie b. Botnet c. Herder d. Virus

b. *Botnet* Answers A and C are incorrect but are related to a botnet in that a zombie is one of many computer systems that make up a botnet, whereas a bot herder is the controller of the botnet. Answer D is incorrect. A virus is a program that infects a computer without the knowledge of the user.

*Which of the following makes it difficult for an eavesdropper to spot patterns and contains a message integrity method to ensure that messages have not been tampered with?* a. ICMP b. CCMP c. WEP d. LEAP

b. *CCMP* CCMP makes it difficult for an eavesdropper to spot patterns, and the CBC-MAC message integrity method ensures that messages have not been tampered with. Answer A is incorrect because ICMP is a network troubleshooting protocol. Answer C is incorrect because WEP is the most basic form of encryption that can be used on 802.11-based wireless networks. Answer D is incorrect because LEAP uses unencrypted challenges and responses and is vulnerable to dictionary attacks.

*What mechanism of wireless security is based on AES?* a. TKIP b. CCMP c. LEAP d. WEP

b. *CCMP* Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol (CCMP) is based on the AES encryption scheme.

*Which term refers to a pay-per-use computing model in which customers pay only for the online computing resources they need?* a. Host computing b. Cloud computing c. Patch computing d. Server computing

b. *Cloud computing* Cloud computing, which is a pay-per-use computing model in which customers pay only for the online computing resources they need, has emerged as a revolutionary concept that can dramatically impact all areas of IT, including network design, applications, procedures, and even personnel.

Security-Related Policies and Procedures *The process of establishing boundaries for information sharing is called:* a. Disassociation b. Compartmentalization c. Isolation d. Segregation

b. *Compartmentalization* The process of establishing boundaries for information sharing is called compartmentalization.

Cryptography Implementation *The process of requiring interoperability is called:* a. Cross examination b. Cross certification c. Cross scoping d. Cross marking

b. *Cross certification* The process of requiring interoperability is called cross certification.

Security and Vulnerability in the Network *Adding a token for every POST or GET request that is initiated from the browser to the server can be used to mitigate which of the following attacks?* a. Buffer overflow b. Cross-site request forgery (XSRF) c. Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) d. Input validation error

b. *Cross-site request forgery (XSRF)* To mitigate cross-site request forgery (XSRF) attacks, the most common solution is to add a token for every POST or GET request that is initiated from the browser to the server. Answer A is incorrect because buffer overflows are associated with input validation. Answer C is incorrect because setting the HTTPOnly flag on the session cookie is used to mitigate XSS attacks. Answer D is incorrect because input validation tests whether an application properly handles input from a source outside the application destined for internal processing.

*Which of the following is the formal process of assessing risk involved in discarding particular information?* a. Sanitization b. Declassification c. Degaussing d. Overwriting

b. *Declassification* Declassification is a formal process of assessing the risk involved in discarding particular information. Answer A is incorrect because sanitization is the process of removing the contents from the media as fully as possible, making it extremely difficult to restore. Answer C is incorrect because degaussing uses an electrical device to reduce the magnetic flux density of the storage media to zero. Answer D is incorrect because overwriting is applicable to magnetic storage devices and writes over all data on the media, destroying what was originally recorded.

Physical and Hardware-Based Security *If RF levels become too high, it can cause the receivers in wireless units to become deaf. This process is called:* a. Clipping b. Desensitizing c. Distorting d. Crackling

b. *Desensitizing* If RF levels become too high, it can cause the receivers in wireless units to become deaf and is known as desensitizing. This occurs because of the volume of RF energy present.

*Which element of business continuity planning (BCP) is most concerned with hot-site/cold-site planning?* a. Network connectivity b. Facilities c. Clustering d. Fault tolerance

b. *Facilities* Facilities continuity planning is focused around alternative site management, hardware, and service contracts. Network connectivity BCP involves establishing alternative network access paths and dedicated recovery administrative connections, making answer A incorrect. High-availability clustered servers ensure that automatic failover occurs in the event that the primary service nodes are unable to perform normal service functions, making answer C incorrect. Fault tolerance, particularly in the area of storage devices, supports individual server operational continuity in the face of hardware device failure, making answer D incorrect. In SAN storage systems, redundant storage network connections similarly ensure continuous resource access for devices in the storage-area network.

Security and Vulnerability in the Network *What are the two states that an application can fail in?* a. Dependable b. Failsafe c. Failopen d. Assured

b. *Failsafe* c. *Failopen* There are two states that an application can fail in. In a failsafe mode, the crash leaves the system secure. In a failopen state, the crash leaves the system exposed (not secure).

*Which of the following is commonly used in the banking sector to secure numerous large bulk transactions?* a. Full disk encryption b. HSM c. TPM d. File-level encryption

b. *HSM* Traditionally, hardware security modules (HSMs) have been used in the banking sector to secure numerous large bulk transactions. Answer A is incorrect because full disk encryption is most useful when you're dealing with a machine that is being taken on the road by people such as traveling executives, sales managers, or insurance agents. Answer C is incorrect because trusted platform module (TPM) refers to a secure crypto-processor used to authenticate hardware devices such as PC or laptop. Answer D is incorrect because in file- or folder-level encryption, individual files or folders are encrypted by the file system itself.

*Which of the following describes a network of systems designed to lure an attacker away from another critical system?* a. Bastion host b. Honeynet c. Vulnerability system d. Intrusion-detection system

b. *Honeynet* Honeynets are collections of honeypot systems interconnected to create networks that appear to be functional and that can be used to study an attacker's behavior within the network. A bastion host is the first line of security that a company allows to be addressed directly from the Internet; therefore, answer A is incorrect. Answer C is incorrect because it is a made-up term. Answer D is incorrect because an IDS is used for intrusion detection.

Measuring and Weighing Risk *What is the first step in performing a basic forensic analysis?* a. Ensure that the evidence is acceptable in a court of law b. Identify the evidence c. Extract, process, and interpret the evidence d. Determine how to preserve the evidence

b. *Identify the evidence* It is necessary to first identify the evidence that is available to be collected. Answer A is incorrect because protecting data's value as evidence must come after the type and form of evidence is known. Extraction, preservation, processing, and interpretation of evidence also follow the identification of data types and storage that must be collected, making answers C and D incorrect.

Disaster Recovery and Incident Response *You're trying to rearrange your backup procedures to reduce the amount of time they take each evening. You want the backups to finish as quickly as possible during the week. Which backup system backs up only the files that have changed since the last backup?* a. Full backup b. Incremental backup c. Differential backup d. Backup server

b. *Incremental backup* An incremental backup backs up files that have changed since the last full or partial backup.

Cryptography Implementation *Which of the following is one of the biggest challenges associated with database encryption?* a. Multitenancy b. Key management c. Weak authentication components d. Platform support

b. *Key management* One of the biggest challenges associated with database encryption is key management. Answer A is incorrect because multitenancy is a security issue related to cloud computing implementations. Answer C is incorrect because lack of management software and weak authentication components are associated with hardware hard drive encryption. Answer D is incorrect because cost and platform support are concerns with smartphone encryption products.

Cryptography Basics *You've been brought in as a security consultant for a small bicycle manufacturing firm. Immediately you notice that it's using a centralized key-generating process, and you make a note to dissuade them from that without delay. What problem is created by using a centralized key-generating process?* a. Network security b. Key transmission c. Certificate revocation d. Private key security

b. *Key transmission* Key transmission is the largest problem from among the choices given. Transmitting private keys is a major concern. Private keys are typically transported using out-of-band methods to ensure security.

Cryptography Basics *Which organization can be used to identify an individual for certificate issue in a PKI environment?* a. RA b. LRA c. PKE d. SHA

b. *LRA* A local registration authority (LRA) can establish an applicant's identity and verify that the applicant for a certificate is valid. The LRA sends verification to the CA that issues the certificate.

due diligence

reasonable steps taken by people or organizations to meet the obligations imposed by laws or regulations

Physical and Hardware-Based Security *For physical security, what should you do with rack-mounted servers?* a. Run a cable from them to a desk. b. Lock each of them into the cabinet. c. Install them in safes. d. Use only Type D, which incorporates its own security.

b. *Lock each of them into the cabinet.* Server racks should lock the rack-mounted servers into the cabinets to prevent someone from simply pulling one and walking out the front door with it.

*Which of the following is not one of the vulnerabilities of LDAP authentication services?* a. Buffer overflow vulnerabilities can be used to enact arbitrary commands on the LDAP server. b. Loss of time synchronization between the service, client, and KDC prevents communication. c. Format string vulnerabilities might result in unauthorized access to enact commands on the LDAP server or impair its normal operation. d. Improperly formatted requests might be used to create an effective denial-of-service (DoS) attack against the LDAP server.

b. *Loss of time synchronization between the service, client, and KDC prevents communication.* Kerberos is a time-synchronized protocol that relies on a common time base for session ticket lifetime verification. LDAP is not a ticket-based or a lifetime-based protocol. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect because all three are vulnerabilities of some LDAP service variations.

*What is the most common type of wireless access control?* a. Electronic Access Control (EAC) b. Media Access Control (MAC) address filtering c. Extensible Authentication Protocol-Transport Layer Security (EAP/TLS) d. Port Based Access Control (PBAC)

b. *Media Access Control (MAC) address filtering* The most common type of wireless access control is Media Access Control (MAC) address filtering. The MAC address is a hardware address that uniquely identifies each node of a network.

*In a MAC environment, when a user has clearance for assets but is still unable to access those assets, what other security feature is in force?* a. Principle of least privilege b. Need to know c. Privacy d. Service-level agreement

b. *Need to know* Need to know is the MAC environment's granular access-control method. The principle of least privilege is the DAC environment's concept of granular access control. Privacy and SLAs aren't forms of access control.

*Which of the following is a term describing the process of registering an asset and provisioning the asset so it can be used to access the corporate network?* a. Mobile application management b. Onboarding c. Mobile device management d. Device access controls

b. *Onboarding* On-boarding is a term describing the process of registering an asset and provisioning the asset so it can be used to access the corporate network. Answer A is incorrect because mobile application management (MAM) focuses on application management. Answer C is incorrect. Mobile device management (MDM) allows the enrollment of enterprise devices for management functions such as provisioning devices, tracking inventory, configuration changes, updates, managing applications, and enforcing policies. Answer D is incorrect because device access controls are used to control network access not manage devices.

*In which of the following types of fuzzing are forged packets sent to the tested application and then replayed?* a. Application fuzzing b. Protocol fuzzing c. File format fuzzing d. Web page fuzzing

b. *Protocol fuzzing* In protocol fuzzing, forged packets are sent to the tested application, which can act as a proxy and modify requests on the fly and then replay them. Answer A is incorrect because in an application fuzzing attack vectors are within its I/O, such as the user interface, the command-line options, URLs, forms, user-generated content, and RPC requests. Answer C is incorrect because in file format fuzzing, multiple malformed samples are generated and then opened sequentially. Answer D is incorrect because web page fuzzing is not a real term.

*Which of the following are steps that can be taken to harden DHCP services?* a. Anonymous access to share files of questionable or undesirable content should be limited. b. Regular review of networks for unauthorized or rogue servers. c. Technologies that allow dynamic updates must also include access control and authentication. d. Unauthorized zone transfers should also be restricted.

b. *Regular review of networks for unauthorized or rogue servers.* Regular review of networks for unauthorized or rogue servers is a practice used to harden DHCP services. Answer A is incorrect because anonymous access to share files of questionable or undesirable content should be limited for proper FTP server security. Answers C and D are incorrect because they are associated with hardening DNS servers.

*A certificate authority discovers it has issued a digital certificate to the wrong person. What needs to be completed?* a. Certificate practice statement (CPS) b. Revocation c. Private key compromise d. Fraudulent practices statement (FPS)

b. *Revocation* A certificate might need to be revoked (including a certificate being issued to the incorrect person) for any number of reasons. A CPS is a published document from the CA describing their policies and procedures for issuing and revoking certificates; therefore, answer A is incorrect. A private key compromise is actually another reason to perform revocation of a certificate; therefore, answer C is incorrect. Answer D is incorrect because this is a bogus term.

Measuring and Weighing Risk *Which of the following strategies involves identifying a risk and making the decision to no longer engage in the action?* a. Risk acceptance b. Risk avoidance c. Risk deterrence d. Risk mitigation e. Risk transference

b. *Risk avoidance* Risk avoidance involves identifying a risk and making the decision to no longer engage in the actions associated with that risk.

Threats and Vulnerabilities *What kind of virus could attach itself to the boot sector of your disk to avoid detection and report false information about file sizes?* a. Trojan horse virus b. Stealth virus c. Worm d. Polymorphic virus

b. *Stealth virus* A stealth virus reports false information to hide itself from antivirus software. Stealth viruses often attach themselves to the boot sector of an operating system.

*Which of the following is not a certificate trust model for the arranging of certificate authorities?* a. Bridge CA architecture b. Sub-CA architecture c. Single-CA architecture d. Hierarchical CA architecture

b. *Sub-CA architecture* Sub-CA architecture does not represent a valid trust model. Answers A, C, and D, however, all represent legitimate trust models. Another common model also exists, called cross-certification; however, it usually makes more sense to implement a bridge architecture over this type of model.

Threats and Vulnerabilities *A user has downloaded trial software and subsequently downloads a key generator in order to unlock the trial software. The user's antivirus detection software now alerts the user that the system is infected. Which one of the following best describes the type of malware infecting the system?* a. Logic bomb b. Trojan c. Adware d. Worm

b. *Trojan* Trojans are programs disguised as something useful. In this instance, the user was likely illegally trying to crack software, and in the process infected the system with malware. Although answers A, C, and D are types of malware, they are not the best choices.

Cryptography Implementation *PKI (Public Key Infrastructure) is a key-asymmetric system utilizing how many keys?* a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four

b. *Two* PKI (Public Key Infrastructure) is a key-asymmetric system utilizing two keys.

*What is the minimal level of alternative site that includes live networking?* a. Cold b. Warm c. Hot d. Remote

b. *Warm* A warm site generally includes power, phone, and networking. It might include computers that are not yet set up or kept fully up to date. Cold sites generally have little more than space, restrooms, and electricity until activated, making answer A incorrect. Hot sites are locations that are fully operational and include all aspects of operational requirements, making answer C incorrect. Alternate sites (hot, warm, or cold) should be remote enough to be outside of the zone of involvement during a disaster event, making answer D incorrect.

Security and Vulnerability in the Network *In which type of testing do you begin with the premise that the attacker has inside knowledge of the network?* a. Black box b. White box c. Gray box d. Green box

b. *White box* With white box testing, you begin with the premise that the attacker has inside knowledge of the network.

Network Security *A more "intelligent" firewall is a(n) _______________ firewall, sometimes called a next-generation firewall (NGFW).* a. rule-based b. application-aware c. hardware-based d. host-based

b. *application-aware* A more "intelligent" firewall is an application-aware firewall, sometimes called a next-generation firewall (NGFW).

Educating and Protecting the User *There are two types of implicit denies. One of these can be configured so that only users specifically named can use the service and is known as:* a. at.deny b. at.allow c. at.open d. at.closed

b. *at.allow* at.allow configurations allow only users specifically named to use the service.

*A _______________ cloud is a combination of public and private clouds.* a. community b. hybrid c. mixed d. connected

b. *hybrid* A hybrid cloud is a combination of public and private clouds.

*A _______________ cloud is one in which the services and infrastructure are offered to all users with access provided remotely through the Internet.* a. private b. public c. hybrid d. community

b. *public* A public cloud is one in which the services and infrastructure are offered to all users with access provided remotely through the Internet.

*The _______________ approach to calculating risk uses an "educated guess" based on observation.* a. cumulative b. qualitative c. technical d. quantitative

b. *qualitative* The qualitative approach to calculating risk uses an "educated guess" based on observation.

*_______________ business partners refers to the start-up relationship between partners.* a. Enrolling b. On-boarding c. Unrolling d. Off-boarding

b.* On-boarding* On-boarding business partners refers to the start-up relationship between partners

Infrastructure and Connectivity *What is the recommended range of humidity level according to the ASHRAE?* a. 10% to 20% b. 30% to 40% c. 40% to 55% d. 55% to 65%

c. *40% to 55%* The American Society of Heating, Refrigerating and Air-Conditioning Engineers (ASHRAE) recommends optimal humidity levels in the 40% to 55% range, making answers A, B, and D incorrect. Very low levels of humidity can promote the buildup of electrostatic charges that can harm sensitive electronic components. Very high levels of humidity can promote condensation on chilled surfaces and introduce liquid into operating equipment.

*Which port does the Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS) use?* a. 53 b. 143 c. 443 d. 3389

c. *443* The Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS) uses port 443.

*The _______________ is the expected monetary loss that can be expected for an asset due to a risk over a one-year period.* a. Single Loss Expectancy b. Annualized Rate of Occurrence c. Annualized Loss Expectancy d. Multiple Loss Expectancy

c. *Annualized Loss Expectancy* The Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) is the expected monetary loss that can be expected for an asset due to a risk over a one-year period.

Protecting Networks *Which of the following IDS types looks for things outside of the ordinary?* a. Incongruity-based b. Variance-based c. Anomaly-based d. Difference-based

c. *Anomaly-based* An anomaly-detection IDS (AD-IDS) looks for anomalies, meaning it looks for things outside of the ordinary.

Implementing multiple types of technology and thereby precluding that the failure of one system will compromise the security of information is referred to as ____________________.

redundancy

Threats and Vulnerabilities *An alert signals you that a server in your network has a program running on it that bypasses authorization. Which type of attack has occurred?* a. DoS b. DDoS c. Backdoor d. Social engineering

c. *Backdoor* In a backdoor attack, a program or service is placed on a server to bypass normal security procedures.

Security and Vulnerability in the Network *During what process do you look at all custom written applications for holes that may exist (in the form of the finished application, configuration files, libraries, and so on)?* a. Network bridging b. Design review c. Code review d. Remediation

c. *Code review* During a code review, you look at all custom written applications for holes that may exist (in the form of the finished application, configuration files, libraries, and the like).

Measuring and Weighing Risk *Separation of duties helps prevent an individual from embezzling money from a company. To successfully embezzle funds, an individual would need to recruit others to commit an act of ________ (an agreement between two or more parties established for the purpose of committing deception or fraud).* a. Misappropriation b. Misuse c. Collusion d. Fraud

c. *Collusion* Collusion is an agreement between two or more parties established for the purpose of committing deception or fraud. Collusion, when part of a crime, is also a criminal act in and of itself.

*Which of the following types of attacks is characterized by client-side vulnerabilities presented by ActiveX or JavaScript code running within the client's browser?* a. Buffer overflow b. Cross-site request forgery (XSRF) c. Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) d. Input validation error

c. *Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)* Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) attacks take advantage of vulnerabilities in ActiveX or JavaScript code running within the client's browser. The attack hijacks the user's session or to cause the user accessing malware-tainted Site A to unknowingly attack Site B on behalf of the attacker who planted code on Site A. Answer A is incorrect because a buffer overflow is a direct result of poor or incorrect input validation or mishandled exceptions. Answer B is incorrect. The key element to understanding XSRF is that attackers are betting that users have a validated login cookie for the website already stored in their browsers. Answer D is incorrect because input validation errors are a result of improper field checking in the code.

*Which form of media sanitization might be required for flash-based solid state drives to be considered fully sanitized?* a. Declassification b. Degaussing c. Destruction d. Overwriting

c. *Destruction* In some forms of nonferric solid-state storage devices, only destruction may provide full data sanitization. Answer A is incorrect because declassification is a formal process for assessing the risk associated with discarding information, rather than a sanitization process itself. Answer B is incorrect because nonferric solid-state data storage might not react to powerful magnetic fields used during degaussing. Answer D is incorrect because overwriting in a solid state device operates differently than in magnetic storage media and might not completely wipe all data.

Operating System and Application Security *Which filesystem was primarily intended for desktop system use and offers limited security?* a. NTFS b. NFS c. FAT d. AFS

c. *FAT* FAT technology offers limited security options.

Measuring and Weighing Risk *You're the chief security contact for MTS. One of your primary tasks is to document everything related to security and create a manual that can be used to manage the company in your absence. Which documents should be referenced in your manual as the ones that identify the methods used to accomplish a given task?* a. Policies b. Standards c. Guidelines d. BIA

c. *Guidelines* Guidelines help clarify processes to maintain standards. Guidelines tend to be less formal than policies or standards.

Protecting Networks *Which IDS system uses algorithms to analyze the traffic passing through the network?* a. Arithmetical b. Algebraic c. Statistical d. Heuristic

d. *Heuristic* A heuristic system uses algorithms to analyze the traffic passing through the network.

Operating System and Application Security *Your company does electronic monitoring of individuals under house arrest around the world. Because of the sensitive nature of the business, you can't afford any unnecessary downtime. What is the process of applying a repair to an operating system while the system stays in operation called?* a. Upgrading b. Service pack installation c. Hotfix d. File update

c. *Hotfix* A hotfix is done while a system is operating. This reduces the necessity of taking a system out of service to fix a problem.

*Each firewall rule is essentially a separate instruction with a(n) _______________ construction.* a. FOR-EACH b. DO-UNTIL c. IF-THEN d. WHILE-DO

c. *IF-THEN* Firewall rules are essentially an IF-THEN construction. IF these rule conditions are met, THEN the action occurs.

*_______________ is a protocol suite for securing Internet Protocol (IP) communications.* a. Internet Small Computer System Interface (iSCSI) b. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) c. Internet Protocol Security (IPsec) d. Hypertext Transport Protocol Secure (HTTPS)

c. *Internet Protocol Security (IPsec)* Internet Protocol Security (IPsec) is a protocol suite for securing Internet Protocol (IP) communications.

*An organization has agreed to collaborate on a business project with another organization. Which of the following documents would outline the terms and details of an agreement between parties, including each party's requirements and responsibilities?* a. SLA b. BPA c. MOU d. ISA

c. *MOU* A memorandum of understanding (MOU) is a document that outlines the terms and details of an agreement between parties, including each party's requirements and responsibilities. Answer A is incorrect because a service level agreement (SLA) is a contract between a service provider and a customer that specifies the nature of the service to be provided and the level of service that the provider will offer to the customer. Answer B is incorrect because a business partners agreement (BPA) is a contract that establishes partner profit percentages, partner responsibilities, and exit strategies for partners. Answer D is incorrect because an interconnection security agreement (ISA) is an agreement between organizations that have connected IT systems.

*Which of the following would best mitigate the risks associated with allowing organizational network access required by the terms of a joint project with a business partner?* a. Captive portal b. Access control lists c. Network segmentation d. Log analysis

c. *Network segmentation* With interconnected networks, the potential for damage greatly increases because one compromised system on one network can easily spread to other networks. Networks that are shared by partners, vendors, or departments should have clear separation boundaries. Answer A is incorrect because a captive portal is used to block Internet access for users until some action is taken. Answer B is incorrect because access control generally refers to the process of making resources available to accounts that should have access, while limiting that access to only what is required. Answer D is incorrect because logging is the process of collecting data to be used for monitoring and auditing purposes.

Disaster Recovery and Incident Response *Which of the following designates the amount of data loss that is sustainable and up to what point in time data recovery could happen before business is disrupted?* a. RTO b. MTBF c. RPO d. MTTF

c. *RPO* Recovery point objective (RPO) is the amount of time that can elapse during a disruption before the quantity of data lost during that period exceeds the BCP's maximum allowable threshold. Simply put, RPO specifies the allowable data loss. It determines up to what point in time data recovery could happen before business is disrupted. Answer A is incorrect because recovery time objective (RTO) is the amount of time within which a process must be restored after a disaster to meet business continuity. It defines how much time it takes to recover after notification of process disruption. Answer B is incorrect because mean time between failures (MTBF) is the average amount of time that passes between hardware component failures excluding time spent waiting for or being repaired. Answer D is incorrect because mean time to failure (MTTF) is the length of time a device or product is expected to last in operation.

Protecting Networks *Which of the following is an active response in an IDS?* a. Sending an alert to a console b. Shunning c. Reconfiguring a router to block an IP address d. Making an entry in the security audit file

c. *Reconfiguring a router to block an IP address* Dynamically changing the system's configuration to protect the network or a system is an active response.

*Which type of biometric authentication involves identification of the unique patterns of blood-vessels at the back of the eye?* a. Facial recognition b. Iris c. Retina d. Signature

c. *Retina* Retinal biometric systems identify unique patterns of blood vessels in the back of the eye. Facial recognition systems identify fixed spacing of key features of the face such as bones, eyes, and chin shape, making answer A incorrect. Answer B is incorrect because iris scanning involves identification of unique patterns in the outer colored part of the eye. Answer D is incorrect because signature analysis is a form of what you do biometric authentication recording the speed, shape, and unique kinematics of a personal written signature.

*A security template can be used to perform all but which of the following tasks?* a. Capture the security configuration of a master system b. Apply security settings to a target system c. Return a target system to its precompromised state d. Evaluate compliance with security of a target system

c. *Return a target system to its precompromised state* A security template alone cannot return a system to its precompromised state.

Measuring and Weighing Risk *Which of the following strategies involves understanding something about the enemy and letting them know the harm that can come their way if they cause harm to you?* a. Risk acceptance b. Risk avoidance c. Risk deterrence d. Risk mitigation e. Risk transference

c. *Risk deterrence* Risk deterrence involves understanding something about the enemy and letting them know the harm that can come their way if they cause harm to you.

*Which of the following models is useful for individuals and businesses that want to have the right to access a certain application without having to purchase a full license?* a. PaaS b. IaaS c. SaaS d. DaaS

c. *SaaS* Software-as-a-service (SaaS) is the delivery of a licensed application to customers over the Internet for use as a service on demand. Answer A is incorrect. Platform-as-a-service (PaaS) is the delivery of a computing platform, often an operating system with associated services, that is delivered over the Internet without downloads or installation. Answer B is incorrect because infrastructure-as-a-service (IaaS) is the delivery of computer infrastructure in a hosted service model over the Internet. Answer D is incorrect because desktop-as-a-service (DaaS), also called virtual desktop or hosted desktop services, is the outsourcing of a virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) to a third-party service provider.

Physical and Hardware-Based Security *You're the leader of the security committee at ACME. After a move to a new facility, you're installing a new security monitoring system throughout. Which of the following best describes a motion detector mounted in the corner of a hallway?* a. Perimeter security b. Partitioning c. Security zone d. IDS system

c. *Security zone* A security zone is an area that is a smaller component of the entire facility. Security zones allow intrusions to be detected in specific parts of the building.

*Which of the following provides the output for an example of banner grabbing?* a. http://www.example.com/index.htm b. This is a government computer system. Authorized access only. c. Server Apache 2.0.46 (Red Hat Linux) d. Welcome to our FTP site

c. *Server Apache 2.0.46 (Red Hat Linux)* Banner grabbing is a technique used to discover information about a computer system. This information is used to further understand the underlying system. In this example, a vulnerability scanner can narrow down which vulnerabilities to test for. However, an attacker knows which exploits the system may be susceptible to. Answer A is simply a URL and is incorrect. Answers B and D are incorrect, and although they may be referred to as a "login banner," do not confuse these with banner grabbing.

Operating System and Application Security *Which of the following is the name assigned to a chip that can store cryptographic keys, passwords, or certificates?* a. ODI b. TLC c. TPM d. RDP

c. *TPM* TPM is the name assigned to a chip that can store cryptographic keys, passwords, or certificates. TPM can be used to protect cell phones and devices other than PCs as well.

Security-Related Policies and Procedures *You're giving hypothetical examples during a required security training session when the subject of certificates comes up. A member of the audience wants to know how a party is verified as genuine. Which party in a transaction is responsible for verifying the identity of a certificate holder?* a. Subscriber b. Relying party c. Third party d. Omni registrar

c. *Third party* The third party is responsible for assuring the relying party that the subscriber is genuine.

Operating System and Application Security *You're redesigning your network in preparation for putting the company up for sale. The network, like all aspects of the company, needs to perform the best that it possibly can in order to be an asset to the sale. Which model is used to provide an intermediary server between the end user and the database?* a. One-tiered b. Two-tiered c. Three-tiered d. Relational database

c. *Three-tiered* A three-tiered model puts a server between the client and the database.

Security and Vulnerability in the Network *Which of the following is a software application that checks your network for any known security holes?* a. Logic bomb b. Log analyzer c. Vulnerability scanner d. Design reviewer

c. *Vulnerability scanner* A vulnerability scanner is a software application that checks your network for any known security holes.

Wireless Networking Security *Which protocol is mainly used to enable access to the Internet from a mobile phone or PDA?* a. WEP b. WTLS c. WAP d. WOP

c. *WAP* Wireless Application Protocol (WAP) is an open international standard for applications that use wireless communication.

Wireless Networking Security *WAP uses a smaller version of HTML for Internet displays. This is known as:* a. DSL b. HSL c. WML d. OFML

c. *WML* WAP uses a smaller version of HTML called Wireless Markup Language (WML) for Internet displays.

Wireless Networking Security *Which of the following provides services similar to TCP and UDP for WAP?* a. WTLS b. WDP c. WTP d. WFMD

c. *WTP* The Wireless Transaction Protocol (WTP) provides services similar to TCP and UDP for WAP.

*Due to organizational requirements, strong encryption cannot be used. Which of the following is the most basic form of encryption that can be used on 802.11-based wireless networks to provide privacy of data sent between a wireless client and its access point?* a. Wireless Application Environment (WAE) b. Wireless Session Layer (WSL) c. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) d. Wireless Transport Layer Security (WTLS)

c. *Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)* WEP is the most basic form of encryption that can be used on 802.11-based wireless networks to provide privacy of data sent between a wireless client and its access point. Answer A is incorrect. Wireless Application Environment (WAE) specifies the framework used to develop applications for mobile devices, including cell phones, data pagers, tablets, and laptops. Answers B and D are incorrect. Wireless Session Layer (WSL), Wireless Transport Layer (WTL), and Wireless Transport Layer Security (WTLS) are the specifications that are included in the WAP standard.

Security-Related Policies and Procedures *Which of the following is one of the most common certificates in use today?* a. X.733 b. X.50 c. X.509 d. X.500

c. *X.509* One of the most common certificates in use today is the X.509 certificate. It includes encryption, authentication, and a reasonable level of validity.

*All wireless network interface card (NIC) adapters have _______________ antennas.* a. external b. peripheral c. embedded d. focused

c. *embedded* Although all wireless network interface card (NIC) adapters have embedded antennas, attaching an external antenna will significantly increase the ability to detect a wireless signal.

When the measured activity is outside the baseline parameters, it is said to exceed the ____________________ level.

clipping

*Consider a building with a value of $10,000,000 (AV) of which 75 percent of it is likely to be destroyed by a tornado (EF). The SLE is _______________.* a. $7,500 b. $75,000 c. $750,000 d. $7,500,000

d. *$7,500,000* Consider a building with a value of $10,000,000 (AV) of which 75 percent of it is likely to be destroyed by a tornado (EF). The SLE would be calculated as follows: $7,500,000 = $10,000,000 x 0.75

*Which port does the Post Office Protocol v3 (POP3) use?* a. 22 b. 25 c. 80 d. 110

d. *110* The Post Office Protocol v3 (POP3) uses port 110.

*An Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) address is _______________ in length.* a. 64 bits b. 64 bytes c. 32 bytes d. 32 bits

d. *32 bits* An Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) address is 32 bits in length, providing about 4.3 billion possible IP address combinations. This no longer is sufficient for the number of devices that are being connected to the Internet.

*Which port does the Microsoft Terminal Server use?* a. 53 b. 143 c. 443 d. 3389

d. *3389* The Microsoft Terminal Server uses port 3389.

Disaster Recovery and Incident Response *With five nines availability, the total amount of downtime allowed per year is:* a. 4.38 hours b. 526 minutes c. 52.65 minutes d. 5.26 minutes

d. *5.26 minutes* With five nines availability, the total amount of downtime allowed per year is 5.26 minutes.

*Which of the following risk-assessment formulas represents the total potential loss a company may experience within a single year due to a specific risk to an asset?* a. EF b. SLE c. ARO d. ALE

d. *ALE* The annualized loss expectancy (ALE) represents the total potential loss a company may experience within a single year due to a specific risk to an asset. EF is the percentage of asset value loss that would occur if a risk was realized. SLE is the potential dollar value loss from a single risk-realization incident. ARO is the statistical probability that a specific risk may be realized a certain number of times in a year.

*Historical data can be used to determine the likelihood of a risk occurring within a year. This is known as the _______________.* a. Annualized Loss Expectancy b. Single Loss Expectancy c. Multiple Loss Expectancy d. Annualized Rate of Occurrence

d. *Annualized Rate of Occurrence* Historical data can be used to determine the likelihood of a risk occurring within a year. This is known as the Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO).

Network Security *Which statement concerning anomaly-based monitoring is correct?* a. Anomaly-based monitoring is founded on experience based techniques. b. Anomaly-based monitoring looks for well-known patterns. c. Anomaly-based monitoring operates by being adaptive and proactive. d. Anomaly-based monitoring is designed for detecting statistical anomalies.

d. *Anomaly-based monitoring is designed for detecting statistical anomalies.* Anomaly-based monitoring is designed for detecting statistical anomalies.

Wireless Networking Security *Which of the following authentication levels with WAP allows virtually anyone to connect to the wireless portal?* a. Relaxed b. Two-way c. Server d. Anonymous

d. *Anonymous* Anonymous authentication allows virtually anyone to connect to the wireless portal.

*Which statement accurately describes a weakness in disabling SSID broadcasts?* a. Turning off the SSID broadcast may allow users to freely roam from one AP coverage area to another. b. For most hardware routers, the effect is temporary and the disabling actions must be repeated frequently. c. Disabling SSID broadcasts may disable the entire network. d. Attackers with protocol analyzers can still detect the SSID.

d. *Attackers with protocol analyzers can still detect the SSID.* The SSID can be easily discovered even when it is not contained in beacon frames because it is transmitted in other management frames sent by the AP. Attackers with protocol analyzers can still detect the SSID.

*Which of the following is not focused on recovering after loss of function?* a. RTO b. DRP c. RPO d. BCP

d. *BCP* Business continuity planning (BCP) / continuity of operations (COO) is focused on maintaining continued service availability even if in a limited form. Recovery time objectives (RTOs) and recovery point objectives (RPOs) are components of disaster recovery planning (DRP) focusing on recovery after a loss of function, making answers A, B, and C incorrect.

*_______________ can be prevented with loop protection.* a. IP address spoofing b. Man-in-the-middle attacks c. Denial of service (DoS) attacks d. Broadcast storms

d. *Broadcast storms* Broadcast storms can be prevented with loop protection, which uses the IEEE 802.1d standard spanning-tree algorithm (STA).

*Which of the following is a commonly applied principle for fault tolerance against accidental faults designed into critical facilities planning?* a. Firmware version control b. Wrappers c. Manual updates d. Control redundancy

d. *Control redundancy* Control redundancy is replication of a component in identical copies to compensate for random hardware failures. Redundancy is usually dispersed geographically as well as through backup equipment and databases, or hot sparing of system components. Answer A is incorrect because firmware version control is important in systems like gaming consoles because many vulnerabilities cannot be fixed via firmware updates, leaving a system vulnerable until a new console is released. Answer B is incorrect because wrappers are used in several types of implementations such as smart grids, integration of legacy systems, and reducing the risk of web-based attacks. Answer C is incorrect because manual updates, although inconvenient, may also be necessary when the system contains sensitive data and is segmented.

Security-Related Policies and Procedures *Which policy defines what constitutes sensitive data and applies protection to it?* a. Classification b. BCP c. Data review d. Data theft

d. *Data theft* A data theft policy defines what constitutes sensitive data and applies protection to it.

Measuring and Weighing Risk *What is the term used for events that mistakenly were flagged and aren't truly events to be concerned with?* a. Fool's gold b. Non-incidents c. Error flags d. False positives

d. *False positives* False positives are events that mistakenly were flagged and aren't truly events to be concerned with.

Security-Related Policies and Procedures *Which policies define how individuals are brought into an organization?* a. Service policies b. Continuity policies c. Pay policies d. Hiring policies

d. *Hiring policies* Hiring policies define how individuals are brought into an organization. They also establish the process used to screen prospective employees for openings.

*What tool is used to lure or retain intruders in order to gather sufficient evidence without compromising the security of the private network?* a. Firewall b. IDS c. Router d. Honeypot

d. *Honeypot* A honeypot is used to lure or retain intruders in order to gather sufficient evidence without compromising the security of the private network.

*Which term refers to the expansion and contraction of random access memory (RAM) or hard drive space as needed?* a. On-demand computing b. Host computing c. Host availability d. Host elasticity

d. *Host elasticity* Virtualization has several advantages. First, new virtual server machines can be quickly made available (host availability), and resources such as the amount of Random Access Memory (RAM) or hard drive space can easily be expanded or contracted as needed (host elasticity).

Security-Related Policies and Procedures *An organization is partnering with another organization which requires shared systems. Which of the following documents would outline how the shared systems interface?* a. SLA b. BPA c. MOU d. ISA

d. *ISA* An interconnection security agreement (ISA) is an agreement between organizations that have connected IT systems. Answer A is incorrect because a service level agreement (SLA) is a contract between a service provider and a customer that specifies the nature of the service to be provided and the level of service that the provider will offer to the customer. Answer B is incorrect because a business partners agreement (BPA) is a contract that establishes partner profit percentages, partner responsibilities, and exit strategies for partners. Answer C is incorrect because a memorandum of understanding (MOU) is a document that outlines the terms and details of an agreement between parties, including each party's requirements and responsibilities.

Cryptography Implementation *The primary difference between an RA and _____ is that the latter can be used to identify or establish the identity of an individual.* a. MLA b. STR c. BSO d. LRA

d. *LRA* The primary difference between an RA and LRA is that the LRA can be used to identify or establish the identity of an individual.

*What is the average amount of time expected until the first failure of a piece of equipment?* a. Mean Time to Recovery b. Failure In Time c. Mean Time Between Failures d. Mean Time To Failure

d. *Mean Time To Failure* Mean Time To Failure (MTTF) is the average amount of time expected until the first failure of a piece of equipment.

Security-Related Policies and Procedures *Which Windows Firewall events are logged by default in Windows 7?* a. Dropped packets b. Successful connections c. Both dropped packets and successful connections d. Neither dropped packets nor successful connections

d. *Neither dropped packets nor successful connections* By default, Windows Firewall in Windows 7 logs neither dropped packets nor successful connections. Logging occurs only when one or both of these are turned on.

Cryptography Basics *Mary claims that she didn't make a phone call from her office to a competitor and tell them about developments her company is working on. Telephone logs, however, show that such a call was placed from her phone, and time clock records show she was the only person working at the time. What do these records provide?* a. Integrity b. Confidentiality c. Authentication d. Non-repudiation

d. *Non-repudiation* Non-repudiation offers undisputable proof that a party was involved in an action.

Educating and Protecting the User *What is the form of social engineering in which you simply ask someone for a piece of information that you want by making it look as if it is a legitimate request?* a. Hoaxing b. Swimming c. Spamming d. Phishing

d. *Phishing* Phishing is the form of social engineering in which you simply ask someone for a piece of information that you want by making it look as if it is a legitimate request.

*A video surveillance system is a form of which type of access control?* a. Quantitative b. Management c. Technical d. Physical

d. *Physical* Physical controls include facility design details such as layout, door, locks, guards, and electronic surveillance systems. Quantitative risk analysis involved the use of numerical metrics and is used to identify and sort risks rather than to control risk, making answer A incorrect. Answer B is incorrect because management controls include policies and procedures. Answer C is incorrect because technical controls include access control systems, encryption, and data classification solutions.

*Which one of the following best identifies the system of digital certificates and certification authorities used in public key technology?* a. Certificate practice system (CPS) b. Public key exchange (PKE) c. Certificate practice statement (CPS) d. Public key infrastructure (PKI)

d. *Public key infrastructure (PKI)* PKI represents the system of digital certificates and certificate authorities. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect. A CPS is a document created and published by a CA that provides for the general practices followed by the CA. Answers A and B are fictitious terms.

* _______________ refers to any combination of hardware and software that enables remote users to access a local internal network.* a. Virtual LAN (VLAN) management b. Cloud computing c. Unified threat management (UTM) d. Remote access

d. *Remote access* Remote access refers to any combination of hardware and software that enables remote users to access a local internal network.

*What two encryption modes are supported by Internet Protocol Security (IPsec)?* a. Electronic code book (ECB) and cipher block chaining (CBC) b. Kerberos and Secure Shell (SSH) c. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) and Transport Layer Security (TLS) d. Transport and tunnel

d. *Transport and tunnel* IPsec supports two encryption modes: transport and tunnel.

Human error or failure often can be prevented with training, ongoing awareness activities, and ____________________.

education

Network Security *What is the role of a switch?* a. To inspect packets and either accept or deny entry b. To forward packets across different network computer networks c. To intercept user requests from the internal secure network and then process that request on behalf of the user d. To connect networks together so that they function as a single network segment

d. *To connect networks together so that they function as a single network segment* Early local area networks (LANs) used a hub, which is a standard network device for connecting multiple network devices together so that they function as a single network segment. A network switch is a device that connects network devices together. However, unlike a hub, a switch has a degree of "intelligence."

Security-Related Policies and Procedures *Which of the following occurs under the security policy administered by a trusted security domain?* a. Positive inspection b. Confident poll c. Voucher session d. Trusted transaction

d. *Trusted transaction* A trusted transaction occurs under the security policy administered by a trusted security domain. Your organization may decide that it can serve as its own trusted security domain and that it can use third-party CAs, thus allowing for additional flexibility.

Protecting Networks *Which Linux utility can show if there is more than one set of documentation on the system for a command you are trying to find information on?* a. Lookaround b. Howmany c. Whereall d. Whatis

d. *Whatis* In Linux, the whatis utility can show if there is more than one set of documentation on the system for a command you are trying to find information on.

Security and Vulnerability in the Network *You want to implement MAC filtering on a small network but do not know the MAC address of a Windows-based workstation. Which command-line tool can you run on the workstation to find the MAC address?* a. ifconfig b. ifconfig /show c. ipconfig d. ipconfig /all

d. *ipconfig /all* The command ipconfig /all will show the MAC address as the physical address.

The process of maintaining the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data managed by DMBS is known as _________ security.

database

data

items of fact collected by an organization. Data includes raw numbers, facts, and words. Student quiz scores are a simple example of data.

As each project nears completion, a(n) _______ risk assessment group reviews the impact of the project on the organization's risk profile.

operational

When new employees are introduced into the organization's culture and workflow, they should receive an extensive information security briefing as part of their employee _____.

orientation

Constitutional Law

originates with the U.S. Constitution, a state constitution, or local constitution, bylaws, or charter

________ involves three major undertakings: risk identification, risk assessment, and risk control.

risk management

Job____ can greatly increase the chance that an employee's misuse of the system or abuse of information will detected by another employee.

rotation

laws

rules that mandate or prohibit certain behavior and are enforced by the state

Becuase the bastion host stands as a sole defender on the network perimeter, it is commonly referred to as the _______ host

sacrificial

Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF)

the average amount of time between hardware failures, calculated as the total amount of operation time for a specified number of units divided by the total number fo failures.

ethics

the branch of philosophy that considers nature, criteria, sources, logic, and the validity of moral judgement

Forensics

the coherent application of methodical investigatory techniques to resent evidence of crimes in a court or similar setting. Forensics allows investigators to determine what happened by examining the results of an event -- criminal, natural, intentional, or accidental.

external monitoring domain

the component of the maintenance model that focuses on evaluating external threats to the organization's information assets

*What is an asset?* a. An item costing more than $10,000 b. Anything used in a work task c. A threat to the security of an organization d. An intangible resource

b. *Anything used in a work task* An asset is anything used in a work task.

* _______________ is an encrypted alternative to the Telnet protocol that is used to access remote computers.* a. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) b. Internet Small Computer System Interface (iSCSI) c. Secure Shell (SSH) d. Secure Network Management Protocol (SNMP)

c. *Secure Shell (SSH)* Secure Shell (SSH) is an encrypted alternative to the Telnet protocol that is used to access remote computers.

Measuring and Weighing Risk *Which of the following policy statements may include an escalation contact, in the event that the person dealing with a situation needs to know whom to contact?* a. Scope b. Exception c. Overview d. Accountability

b. *Exception* The exception policy statement may include an escalation contact, in the event that the person dealing with a situation needs to know whom to contact.

*Communications between different IP devices on a network is handled by one of the core protocols of TCP/IP, namely, _______________.* a. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) b. Network Basic Input/Output System (NetBIOS) c. Telnet d. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)

a. *Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)* Different IP devices on a network often need to share between them specific information. However, IP does not have the capability for devices to exchange these low-level control messages. The communications between devices is handled by one of the core protocols of TCP/IP, namely, Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP).

A gaseous system is designed to apply a liquid, usually water, to all areas in which a fire has been detected.

False

HTTPS

Hypertext Transfer Protocol over SSL/TLS

de jure standard

A standard that has been formally evaluated, approved, and ratified by a formal standards organization. Contrast with a de facto standard.

de facto standard

A standard that has been widely adopted or accepted by a public group rather than a formal standards organization. Contrast with de jure standard.

defense in depth

A strategy for the protection of information assets that uses multiple layers and different types of controls (managerial, operational, and technical) to provide optimal protection.

Network Security

A subset of communications security; the protection of voice and data networking components, connections, and content.

database security

A subset of information security that focuses on the assessment and protection of information stored in data repositories like database management systems and storage media.

waterfall model

A type of SDLC in which each phase of the process "flows from" the information gained in the previous phase, with multiple opportunities to return to previous phases and make adjustments. 1. investigation 2. analysis 3. logical design 4. physical design 5. implementation 6. maintenance and change

technical specifications SysSp

A type of systems-specific security policy that expressed technical details for the acquisition, implementation, configuration, and management of a particular technology, written from a technical perspectives. Typically the policy includes details on configuration rules, systems policies, and access control.

Macro virus

A type of virus written in a specific macro language to target applications that use the language.The virus is activated when the application's product is opened. A macro virus typically affects documents, slideshows, e-mails, or spreadsheets created office suite applications

Lattice-based access control (LBAC)

A variation on the MAC form of access control, which assigns users a matrix of authorizations for particular areas of access, incorporating the information assets of subjects such as users and objects.

closed circuit television (CCTV)

A video capture and recording system used to monitor a facility.

memory-resident virus

A virus that is capable of installing itself in a computer's operating system, starting when the computer is activated, and residing in the system's memory even after the host application is terminated. Also known as a resident virus.

Cost-Benefit Analysis (CBA)

Also known as an economic feasibility study, the formal assessment and presentation of the economic expenditures needed for a particular security control, contrasted with its projected value to the organization.

anomaly-based detection

Also known as behavior-based detection, an IDPS detection method that compares current data and traffic patterns to an established baseline of normalcy.

loss magnitude

Also known as event loss magnitude, the combination of an asset's value and the percentage of it that might be lost in an attack

Signature-based detection

Also known as knowledge-based detection or misuse detection, the examination of system or network data in search of patterns that match known attack signatures.

Hierarchical roster

An alert roster in which the first person calls a few other people on the roster, who in turn call others. This method typically uses the organizational chart as a structure.

platform security validation (PSV)

An assessment approach designed to find and document vulnerabilities that may be present because misconfigured systems are used within the organization.

internet vulnerability assessment

An assessment approach designed to find and document vulnerabilities that may be present in the organization's public network.

wireless vulnerability assessment

An assessment approach designed to find and document vulnerabilities that may be present in the organization's wireless local area networks.

denial-of-service (Dos) attack

An attack that attempts to overwhelm a computer target's ability to handle incoming communications, prohibiting legitimate users from accessing those systems.

smart card

An authentication component similar to a dumb card that contains a computer chip to verify and validate several pieces of information instead of just a PIN.

Kerberos

An authentication system that uses symmetric key encryption to validate an individual user's access to various network resources by keeping a database containing the private keys of clients and servers that are in the authentication domain it supervises.

war dialer

An automatic phone-dialing program that dials every number in a configured range (for example, 555-1000 to 555-2000) and checks whether a person, answering machine, or modem picks up.

fail-safe lock

An electromechanical device that automatically releases the lock protecting a control point if a power outage occurs. This type of lock is used for fire safety locations.

fail-secure lock

An electromechanical device that stays locked and maintains the security of the control point if a power outage occurs.

proximity reader

An electronic signal receiver used with an electromechanical lock that allows users to place their cards within the reader's range and release the locking mechanism.

threat assessment

An evaluation of the threats to information assets, including a determination of their potential to endanger the organization.

adverse event

An event with negative consequences that could threaten the organization's information assets or operations. Sometimes referred to as an incident candidate.

political feasibility

An examination of how well a particular solution fits within the organization's political environment—for example, the working relationship within the organization's communities of interest or between the organization and its external environment.

organizational feasibility

An examination of how well a particular solution fits within the organization's strategic planning objectives and goals.

In PKI, the CA periodically distributes a(n) ______ to all users that identifies all revoked certifcates.

CRL (certificate revocation list)

CRL

Certificate Revocation List

CSR

Certificate Signing Request

CHAP

Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol

CAC

Common Access Card

data security

Commonly used as a surrogate for information security, data security is the focus of protecting data or information in its various states—at rest (in storage), in processing, and in transmission (over networks).

CAPTCHA

Completely Automated Public Turing

resources

Components required for the completion of a project, which could include skills, personnel, time, money, and material

CERT

Computer Emergency Response Team

The National Information Infrastructure Protection Act of 1996 modified which act?

Computer Fraud and Abuse Act

CIRT

Computer Incident Response Team

CSIRT

Computer Security Incident Response Team

DNS

Domain Name Service (Server)

CTM

Counter-Mode

CCMP

Counter-Mode/CBC-Mac Protocol

CER

Cross-over Error Rate

CSRF

Cross-site Request Forgery

XSRF

Cross-site Request Forgery

XSS

Cross-site Scripting

The science of encryption is known as _________.

Cryptology

CRC

Cyclical Redundancy Check

DDoS

Distributed Denial of Service

Phase 2:

Development/Acquisition • Conduct the risk assessment and use the results to supplement the baseline security controls; • Analyze security requirements; • Perform functional and security testing; • Prepare initial documents for system certification and accreditation; and • Design security architecture.

DES

Digital Encryption Standard

DFIR

Digital Forensics and Investigation Response

DSA

Digital Signature Algorithm

DSL

Digital Subscriber Line

DRP

Disaster Recovery Plan

DAC

Discretionary Access Control

Phase 5:

Disposal • Building and executing a disposal/transition plan; • archival of critical information; • Sanitization of media; and • Disposal of hardware and software

A device (or a software program on a computer) that can monitor data traveling on a network is known as a socket sniffer.

False

A brute force function is a mathematical algorithm that generates a message summary or digest (sometimes called a fingerprint) to confirm message identity and integrity.

False

MULTICS (Multiple Information and Computing Service)

First operating system was created with security integrated into core functions. Mainframe, time-sharing operating system was developed in the mid-1960s by General Electric (GE), Bell Labs, and Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT). Several MULTICS key players created UNIX. -Primary purpose of UNIX was text processing. Late 1970s: The microprocessor expanded computing capabilities and security threats.

HMAC

Hashed Message Authentication Code

encapsulating security payload (ESP) protocol

In IPSec, a protocol that provides secrecy for the contents of network communications as well as system-to-system authentication and data integrity verification

Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE)

In a cost-benefit analysis, the product of the annualized rate of occurrence and single loss expectancy

Capabilities table

In a lattice-based access control, the row of attributes associated with a particular subject (such as a user).

capabilities table

In a lattice-based access control, the row of attributes associated with a particular subject (such as a user).

certification

In information security, the comprehensive evaluation of an IT system's technical and nontechnical security controls that establishes the extent to which a particular design and implementation meets a set of predefined security requirements, usually in support of an accreditation process.

Personally Identifiable Information (PII)

Information about a person's history, background, and attributes that can be used to commit identity theft. This information typically includes a person's name, address, Social Security number, family information, employment history, and financial information.

IR

Infrared

KEK

Key Encryption Key

Security ____________________ are accountable for the day-to-day operation of the information security program.

Manager

MAC

Mandatory Access Control

MOA

Memorandum of Agreement

MOU

Memorandum of Understanding

MAC

Message Authentication Code

Evaluation

Message Digest

MD5

Message Digest 5

MOTD

Message of the Day

MAN

Metropolitan Area Network

MSCHAP

Microsoft Challenge Handshake

MDM

Mobile Device Management

MaaS

Monitoring as a Service

MMS

Multimedia Message Service

NIPS

Network-based Intrusion Prevention System

Unified Threat Management (UTM)

Networking devices categorized by their ability to perform the work of multiple devices, such as stateful packet inspection firewalls, network intrusion detection and prevention systems, content filters, spam filters, and malware scanners and filters.

NTFS

New Technology File System

NTLM

New Technology LAN Manager

NGAC

Next Generation Access Control

NDA

Non-disclosure Agreement

Phase 4:

Operations and Maintenance • Conduct an operational readiness review; • Manage the configuration of the system; • Institute processes and procedures for assured operations and continuous monitoring of the information system's security controls; and • Perform reauthorization as required. [...] These activities and their related outputs are illustrated

Systems-Specific Security Policies (SysSPs)

Organizational policies that often function as standards or procedures to be used when configuring or maintaining system. SysSPs can be separated into two general groups- managerial guidance and technical specifications- but may be written as a single unified SysSP document.

RA

Registration Authority

PFS

Perfect Forward Secrecy

Information Security

Protection of the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information assets, whether in storage, processing, or transmission, via the application of policy, education, training and awareness, and technology.

PAC

Proxy Auto Configuration

RIPEMD

RACE Integrity Primitives

The ________ algorithm, developed in 1977, was the first public-key encryption algorithm published for commercial use.

RSA

RAD

Rapid Application Development

RTOS

Real-time Operating System

RTP

Real-time Transport Protocol

RPO

Recovery Point Objective

RTO

Recovery Time Objective

__________ is a strategy of using multiple types of technology that prevent the failure of one system from compromising the security of information.

Redundancy

RAID

Redundant Array of Inexpensive Disks

TKIP

Temporal Key Integrity Protocol

steganography

The process of hiding message; for example, hiding a message within the digital encoding of a picture or graphic so that it is almost impossible to detect that the hidden message even exists.

project management

The process of identifying and controlling the resources applied to a project as well as measuring progress and adjusting the process as progress is made towards the goal.

Cryptanalysis

The process of obtaining the plaintext message from a ciphertext message without knowing the keys used to perform the encryption.

false reject rate

The rate at which authentic users are denied or prevented access to authorized areas as a result of a failure in the biometric device. This failure is also known as a Type I error or a false negative.

phishing

a from of social engineering in which the attacker provides what appears to be a legitimate communication (usually e-mail), but it contains hidden or embedded code that redirects the reply to a third-party site in an effort to extract personal or confidential information.

exclusive OR operation (XOR)

a function within Boolean algebra used as an encryption function in which two bits are compared. If the two bits are identical, the result is a binary 0; otherwise, the result is a binary 1.

professional hacker

a hacker who conducts attacks for personal financial benefit or for a crime organization or foreign government. Not to be confused with a penetration tester.

phreaker

a hacker who manipulates the public telephone system to make free calls or disrupt services.

secret key

a key that can be used in symmetric encryption both to encipher and decipher the message

dictionary password attack

a variation of the brute force password attack that attempts to narrow the range of possible passwords guessed by using a list of common passwords and possibly including attempts based on the target's personal information

reverse proxy

a proxy server that most commonly retrieves information from inside an organization and provides it to a requesting user or system outside the organization

novice hacker

a relatively unskilled hacker who uses the work of expert hackers to perform attacks. Also known as a neophyte, n00b, or newbie. This category of hackers includes script kiddies and packet monkeys.

Secure Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions (S/MIME)

a security protocol that builds on the encoding format of the Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions(MIME) protocol and uses digital signatures based on public-key cryptosystems to ensure e-mail.

plenum

a space between the ceiling in one level of a commercial building and the floor of the level above. The plenum is used for air return.

Ground Fault Circuit interruption

a special circuit device designed to immediately disconnect a power supply when a sudden discharge (ground fault) is detected

security

a state of being secure and free from danger or harm. Also, the actions taken to make someone or something secure. "Security is protection."

polyalphabetic substitution

a substitution cipher that incorporates two or more alphabets in the encryption process

Monoalphabetic substitution

a substitution cipher that only incorporates a single alphabet in the encryption process

rainbow table

a table of hash values and their corresponding plaintext values that can be sued to look up password values if an attacker is able to steal a system's encrypted password file.

virus

a type of malware that is attached to other executable programs. When activated, it replicates and propagates itself to multiple systems, spreading by multiple communications vectors. For example, a virus might send copies of itself to all users in the infected system's e-,ail program.

worm

a type of malware that is capable of activation and replication without being attached to an existing program

Threats and Vulnerabilities *Internal users are reporting repeated attempts to infect their systems as reported to them by pop-up messages from their virus-scanning software. According to the pop-up messages, the virus seems to be the same in every case. What is the most likely culprit?* a. A server is acting as a carrier for a virus. b. You have a worm virus. c. Your antivirus software has malfunctioned. d. A DoS attack is under way.

a. *A server is acting as a carrier for a virus.* Some viruses won't damage a system in an attempt to spread into all the other systems in a network. These viruses use that system as the carrier of the virus.

Access Control and Identity Management *A newly hired junior administrator will assume your position temporarily while you attend a conference. You're trying to explain the basics of security to her in as short a period of time as possible. Which of the following best describes an ACL?* a. ACLs provide individual access control to resources. b. ACLs aren't used in modern systems. c. The ACL process is dynamic in nature. d. ACLs are used to authenticate users.

a. *ACLs provide individual access control to resources.* Access control lists allow individual and highly controllable access to resources in a network. An ACL can also be used to exclude a particular system, IP address, or user.

Cryptography Implementation *In a bridge trust model, each intermediate CA trusts only those CAs that are:* a. Above and below it b. Above it c. Below it d. On the same level

a. *Above and below it* In a bridge trust model, each intermediate CA trusts those CAs that are above and below it.

*When a user signs a(n) _____, it's a form of consent to the monitoring and auditing processes used by the organization.* a. Acceptable use policy b. Privacy policy c. Separation of duties policy d. Code of ethics policy

a. *Acceptable use policy* When a user signs an acceptable use policy, it's a form of consent to the monitoring and auditing processes used by the organization. A privacy policy usually explains that there is no privacy on company systems. A separation of duties policy indicates that administrative functions are divided among several people. The code of ethics policy describes decision-making processes to use when faced with ethical dilemmas.

*Which of the following are steps that can be taken to harden FTP services?* a. Anonymous access to shared files of questionable or undesirable content should be limited. b. Regular review of networks for unauthorized or rogue servers. c. Technologies that allow dynamic updates must also include access control and authentication. d. Unauthorized zone transfers should also be restricted.

a. *Anonymous access to shared files of questionable or undesirable content should be limited.* Anonymous access to shared files of questionable or undesirable content should be limited for proper FTP server security. Answer B is incorrect because it is a hardening practice for DHCP services. Answers C and D are incorrect because they are associated with hardening DNS service.

Access Control and Identity Management *Which type of authorization provides no mechanism for unique logon identification?* a. Anonymous b. Kerberos c. TACACS d. TACACS+

a. *Anonymous* During anonymous access, such as requests to a public FTP server, unique identify of the requester is not determined and so cannot be used for personalized logon identification. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because authorization services such as Kerberos, TACACS, and its replacement TACACS+ all verify access requests against a list of authorized credentials and so can log individual visits and identify access request logons.

*Which of the following applications should be used to properly protect a host from malware? (Select two correct answers.)* a. Antispam software b. Antivirus software c. Content-filtering software d. Web-tracking software

a. *Antispam software* b. *Antivirus software* All host devices must have some type of malware protection. A necessary software program for protecting the user environment is antivirus software. Antivirus software is used to scan for malicious code in email and downloaded files. Antispam, antispyware software can add another layer of defense to the infrastructure. Answer C is incorrect because content filtering is done at the server level to keep host machines from accessing certain content. Answer D is incorrect because web tracking software merely tracks the sites a person visited.

*Which of the following is the preferred type of encryption used in SaaS platforms?* a. Application level b. Database level c. Media level d. HSM level

a. *Application level* In a software-as-a-service (SaaS) environment, application-level encryption is preferred because the data is encrypted by the application before being stored in the database or file system. The advantage is that it protects the data from the user all the way to storage. Answer B is incorrect because in cloud implementations data should be encrypted at the application layer rather than within a database due to the complexity involved, and media encryption is managed at the storage layer. Answer C is incorrect because encryption of a complete virtual machine on infrastructure-as-a-service (IaaS) could be considered media encryption. Answer D is incorrect because a hardware security module (HSM) solution is mainly found in private datacenters that manage and offload cryptography with dedicated hardware appliances.

Security and Vulnerability in the Network *What checks to make sure that things are operating status quo and that change detection is used to alert when modifications are made?* a. Baseline reporting b. Code review c. Attack surfacing d. Risk analysis

a. *Baseline reporting* Baseline reporting checks to make sure that things are operating status quo and that change detection is used to alert when modifications are made.

Educating and Protecting the User *You've recently been hired by ACME to do a security audit. The managers of this company feel that their current security measures are inadequate. Which information access control model prevents users from writing information down to a lower level of security and prevents users from reading above their level of security?* a. Bell-LaPadula model b. Biba model c. Clark-Wilson model d. Noninterference model

a. *Bell-LaPadula model* The Bell-LaPadula model is intended to protect confidentiality of information. This is accomplished by prohibiting users from reading above their security level and preventing them from writing below their security level.

Physical and Hardware-Based Security *Which technology uses a physical characteristic to establish identity?* a. Biometrics b. Surveillance c. Smart card d. CHAP authenticator

a. *Biometrics* Biometrics is a technology that uses personal characteristics, such as a retinal pattern or fingerprint, to establish identity.

*Never inserting untrusted data except in allowed locations can be used to mitigate which of the following attacks? (Select two answers.)* a. Buffer overflow b. Cross-site request forgery (XSRF) c. Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) d. Input validation error

a. *Buffer overflow* d. *Input validation error* A buffer overflow is a direct result of poor or incorrect input validation or mishandled exceptions, and input validation errors are a result of improper field checking in the code. Answer B is incorrect because Cross-site request forgery (XSRF) is an attack in which the end user executes unwanted actions on a web application while they are currently authenticated. Answer C is incorrect because Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) vulnerabilities can be used to hijack the user's session or to cause the user accessing malware-tainted Site A to unknowingly attack Site B on behalf of the attacker who planted code on Site A.

Cryptography Implementation *Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) is a first attempt to provide all the aspects of security to messages and transactions that have been previously discussed. It contains four components including:* a. Certificate Authority (CA), Registration Authority (RA), RSA, and digital certificates b. Certificate Authority (CA), RSA, Document Authority (DA), and digital certificates c. Document Authority (DA), Certificate Authority (CA), and RSA d. Registration Authority (RA), RSA, and digital certificates

a. *Certificate Authority (CA), Registration Authority (RA), RSA, and digital certificates* Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) contains four components: certificate authority (CA), registration authority (RA), RSA, and digital certificates.

Security-Related Policies and Procedures *Which policy dictates how an organization manages certificates and certificate acceptance?* a. Certificate policy b. Certificate access list c. CA accreditation d. CRL rule

a. *Certificate policy* A certificate policy dictates how an organization uses, manages, and validates certificates.

*Evidence is inadmissible in court if which of the following is violated or mismanaged?* a. Chain of custody b. Service-level agreement c. Privacy policy d. Change management

a. *Chain of custody* If the chain of custody is violated or mismanaged, evidence is inadmissible in court. Service-level agreements (SLAs), privacy policies, and change management aren't associated with evidence gathering or forensics.

Disaster Recovery and Incident Response *Your company is about to invest heavily in an application written by a new startup. Because it is such a sizable investment, you express your concerns about the longevity of the new company and the risk this organization is taking. You propose that the new company agree to store its source code for use by customers in the event that it ceases business. What is this model called?* a. Code escrow b. SLA c. BCP d. CA

a. *Code escrow* Code escrow allows customers to access the source code of installed systems under specific conditions, such as the bankruptcy of a vendor.

Access Control and Identity Management *Which of the three principles of security is supported by an iris biometric system?* a. Confidentiality b. Integrity c. Availability d. Vulnerability

a. *Confidentiality* Confidentiality involves protecting against unauthorized access, which biometric authentication systems support. Integrity is concerned with preventing unauthorized modification, making answer B incorrect. Answer C is not correct because availability is concerned with ensuring that access to services and data is protected against disruption. Answer D is incorrect because a vulnerability is a failure in one or more of the C-I-A principles.

*Which of the following should be implemented if the organization wants to monitor unauthorized transfers of confidential information?* a. Content inspection b. Proxy server c. Protocol analyzer d. Packet-filtering firewall

a. *Content inspection* Content inspection appliances use access control filtering software on a dedicated filtering appliance. The device monitors every packet of traffic that passes over a network. Answer B is incorrect. When a proxy server receives a request for an Internet service, it passes through filtering requirements and checks its local cache of previously downloaded web pages. Because web pages are stored locally, response times for web pages are faster and traffic to the Internet is substantially reduced. Answer C is incorrect. Protocol analyzers help you troubleshoot network issues by gathering packet-level information across the network. These applications capture packets and decode the information into readable data for analysis. Answer D is incorrect; a packet-filtering firewall filters packets based on IP addresses, ports, or protocols and is a simple, good first line of defense.

Operating System and Application Security *Which systems monitor the contents of systems (workstations, servers, networks) to make sure key content is not deleted or removed?* a. DLP b. PKM c. XML d. GSP

a. *DLP* DLP systems monitor the contents of systems (workstations, servers, networks) to make sure key content is not deleted or removed. They also monitor who is using the data (looking for unauthorized access) and transmitting the data.

*In which of the following types of architecture is the user responsible for the creation of the private and public key?* a. Decentralized key management b. Centralized key management c. Revocation key management d. Multilevel key management

a. *Decentralized key management* In a decentralized key-management scheme, the user creates both the private and public key and then submits the public key to the CA to allow it to apply its digital signature after it has authenticated the user. Answer B is incorrect because centralized key management allows the organization to have complete control over the creation, distribution, modification, and revocation of the electronic credentials that it issues. Answers C and D are incorrect because they are nonexistent terms.

*A physical security plan should include which of the following? (Select all correct answers.)* a. Description of the physical assets being protected b. The threats from which you are protecting against and their likelihood c. Location of a hard disk's physical blocks d. Description of the physical areas where assets are located

a. *Description of the physical assets being protected* b. *The threats from which you are protecting against and their likelihood* d. *Description of the physical areas where assets are located* A physical security plan should be a written plan that addresses your current physical security needs and future direction. With the exception of answer C, all the answers are correct and should be addressed in a physical security plan. A hard disk's physical blocks pertain to the file system.

Physical and Hardware-Based Security *The process of reducing or eliminating susceptibility to outside interference is called what?* a. Shielding b. EMI c. TEMPEST d. Desensitization

a. *Shielding* Shielding keeps external electronic signals from disrupting operations.

Security-Related Policies and Procedures *The organization is concerned about vulnerabilities in commercial off-the-shelf (COTS) software. Which of the following might be the only means of reviewing the security quality of the program?* a. Fuzzing b. Cross-Site Scripting c. Input validation d. Cross-site request forgery

a. *Fuzzing* In some closed application instances, fuzzing might be the only means of reviewing the security quality of the program. Answer B is incorrect because Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) vulnerabilities can be used to hijack the user's session or to cause the user accessing malware-tainted Site A to unknowingly attack Site B on behalf of the attacker who planted code on Site A. Answer C is incorrect because input validation tests whether an application properly handles input from a source outside the application destined for internal processing. Answer D, Cross-site request forgery (XSRF), is an attack in which the end user executes unwanted actions on a web application while she is currently authenticated.

Physical and Hardware-Based Security *Due to growth beyond current capacity, a new server room is being built. As a manager, you want to make certain that all the necessary safety elements exist in the room when it's finished. Which fire-suppression system works best when used in an enclosed area by displacing the air around a fire?* a. Gas based b. Water based c. Fixed system d. Overhead sprinklers

a. *Gas based* Gas-based systems work by displacing the air around a fire. This eliminates one of the three necessary components of a fire: oxygen.

Disaster Recovery and Incident Response *You're a consultant brought in to advise MTS on its backup procedures. One of the first problems you notice is that the company doesn't utilize a good tape-rotation scheme. Which backup method uses a rotating schedule of backup media to ensure long-term information storage?* a. Grandfather, Father, Son method b. Full Archival method c. Backup Server method d. Differential Backup method

a. *Grandfather, Father, Son method* The Grandfather, Father, Son backup method is designed to provide a rotating schedule of backup processes. It allows for a minimum usage of backup media, and it still allows for long-term archiving.

Security and Vulnerability in the Network *Which of the following serves the purpose of trying to lure a malicious attacker into a system?* a. Honeypot b. Pot of gold c. DMZ d. Bear trap

a. *Honeypot* A honeypot is used to serve as a decoy and lure a malicious attacker. Answers B and D are incorrect answers and are not legitimate terms for testing purposes. Answer C is incorrect because a demilitarized zone (DMZ) is an area between the Internet and the internal network.

Infrastructure and Connectivity *Which protocol is primarily used for network maintenance and destination information?* a. ICMP b. SMTP c. IGMP d. Router

a. *ICMP* ICMP is used for destination and error reporting functions in TCP/IP. ICMP is routable and is used by programs such as Ping and Traceroute.

Protecting Networks *Security has become the utmost priority at your organization. You're no longer content to act reactively to incidents when they occur—you want to start acting more proactively. Which system performs active network monitoring and analysis and can take proactive steps to protect a network?* a. IDS b. Sniffer c. Router d. Switch

a. *IDS* An IDS is used to protect and report network abnormalities to a network administrator or system. It works with audit files and rule-based processing to determine how to act in the event of an unusual situation on the network.

Access Control and Identity Management *You've been given notice that you'll soon be transferred to another site. Before you leave, you're to audit the network and document everything in use and the reason why it's in use. The next administrator will use this documentation to keep the network running. Which of the following protocols isn't a tunneling protocol but is probably used at your site by tunneling protocols for network security?* a. IPSec b. PPTP c. L2TP d. L2F

a. *IPSec* IPSec provides network security for tunneling protocols. IPSec can be used with many different protocols besides TCP/IP, and it has two modes of security.

Cryptography Implementation *A Certificate Practice Statement (CPS) is a detailed statement the CA uses to issue certificates and ______ of the CA.* a. Implement policies b. Control processes c. Regulate actions d. Complete processes

a. *Implement policies* A Certificate Practice Statement (CPS) is a detailed statement the CA uses to issue certificates and implement policies of the CA.

*Which is the best access control constraint to protect against accidental unauthorized access?* a. Implicit denial b. Least privilege c. Separation of duties d. Account expiration

a. *Implicit denial* The default assignment of an implicit denial, overridden by explicit grants of access aids in protecting resources against accidental access during normal network operations. Answer B is incorrect because least privilege is a principle of assigning only those rights necessary to perform assigned tasks. Answer C is incorrect because separation of duties is focused on ensuring that action and validation practices are performed separately. Answer D is incorrect because account expiration protocols ensure that individual accounts do not remain active past their designated lifespan, but they do nothing to protect against accidental resource availability for currently enabled accounts.

Disaster Recovery and Incident Response *Your organization is exploring data-loss prevention (DLP) solutions. The proposed solution is a software network solution that would be installed near the network perimeter to monitor for and flag policy violations. This solution is targeting which of the following data states?* a. In-transit b. At-rest c. In-use d. In-arrival

a. *In-transit* Protection of data in-transit is considered to be a network solution and either a hardware or software solution is installed near the network perimeter to monitor for and flag policy violations. Answer B is incorrect because protection of data at-rest is considered to be a storage solution and is generally a software solution that monitors how confidential data is stored. Answer C is incorrect because protection of data in-use is considered to be an endpoint solution and the application is run on end-user workstations or servers in the organization. Answer D is incorrect because there is no such data state.

Educating and Protecting the User *at.allow is an access control that allows only specific users to use the service. What is at.deny?* a. It does not allow users named in the file to access the system. b. It ensures that no one will ever be able to use that part of your system. c. It opens up the server only to intranet users. d. It blocks access to Internet users.

a. *It does not allow users named in the file to access the system.* The at.deny file does not allow users named in the file to access the system.

Threats and Vulnerabilities *An administrator at a sister company calls to report a new threat that is making the rounds. According to him, the latest danger is an attack that attempts to intervene in a communications session by inserting a computer between the two systems that are communicating. Which of the following types of attacks does this constitute?* a. Man-in-the-middle attack b. Backdoor attack c. Worm d. TCP/IP hijacking

a. *Man-in-the-middle attack* A man-in-the-middle attack attempts to fool both ends of a communications session into believing the system in the middle is the other end.

*Which one of the following is a holding area between two entry points that gives security personnel time to view a person before allowing him into the internal building?* a. Mantrap b. Biometric c. Honeypot d. Honeynet

a. *Mantrap* A mantrap is a physical security control that is a holding area between two entry points that gives security personnel time to view a person before allowing him into the internal building. Biometrics typically incorporate something about the person, such as retina scan or fingerprint, to allow access, and so Answer B is incorrect. Answers C and D are also incorrect as these describe controls not related to physical security.

Physical and Hardware-Based Security *Which of the following is a high-security installation that requires visual identification, as well as authentication, to gain access?* a. Mantrap b. Fencing c. Proximity reader d. Hot aisle

a. *Mantrap* High-security installations use a type of intermediate access control mechanism called a mantrap. Mantraps require visual identification, as well as authentication, to gain access. A mantrap makes it difficult for a facility to be accessed in number because it allows only one or two people into the facility at a time.

Educating and Protecting the User *For which U.S. organization was the Bell-LaPadula model designed?* a. Military b. Census Bureau c. Office of Management and Budget d. Executive Office of the President

a. *Military* The Bell-LaPadula model was originally designed for use by the military.

*TCP/IP uses its own four-layer architecture that includes _______________ layers.* a. Network Interface, Internet, Transport, and Application b. Network Interface, Network, Transport, and Application c. Network Interface, Internet, Transport, and Authentication d. Network Interface, Network, Transport, and Authentication

a. *Network Interface, Internet, Transport, and Application* TCP/IP uses its own four-layer architecture that includes Network Interface, Internet, Transport, and Application layers.

*Which term describes a technique that allows private IP addresses to be used on the public Internet?* a. Network address translation (NAT) b. Port address translation (PAT) c. Network access control (NAC) d. Loop protection

a. *Network address translation (NAT)* Network address translation (NAT) is a technique that allows private IP addresses to be used on the public Internet.

Operating System and Application Security *Users are complaining about name resolution problems suddenly occurring that were never an issue before. You suspect that an intruder has compromised the integrity of the DNS server on your network. What is one of the primary ways in which an attacker uses DNS?* a. Network footprinting b. Network sniffing c. Database server lookup d. Registration counterfeiting

a. *Network footprinting* DNS records in a DNS server provide insights into the nature and structure of a network. DNS records should be kept to a minimum in public DNS servers. Network footprinting involves the attacker collecting data about the network to devise methods of intrusion.

Protecting Networks *Which of the following can be used to monitor a network for unauthorized activity? (Choose two.)* a. Network sniffer b. NIDS c. HIDS d. VPN

a. *Network sniffer* b. *NIDS* Network sniffers and NIDSs are used to monitor network traffic. Network sniffers are manually oriented, whereas an NIDS can be automated.

Network Security *Which type of switch network monitoring is best suited for high-speed networks that have a large volume of traffic?* a. Network tapping b. Port mirroring c. Load balancing d. Packet filtering

a. *Network tapping* A network tap is generally best for high-speed networks that have a large volume of traffic, while port mirroring is better for networks with light traffic.

*What is a significant difference between vulnerability scanners and penetration testing?* a. One tests both the infrastructure and personnel. b. One only tests internal weaknesses. c. One only tests for configuration errors. d. One is used to find problems before hackers do.

a. *One tests both the infrastructure and personnel.* The primary difference between vulnerability assessment and penetration testing is that penetration testing tests both the infrastructure and the personnel. Vulnerability assessment is performed by a security administrator using an automated tool that is designed solely to test the configuration of target systems

Access Control and Identity Management *Which one of the following defines APIs for devices such as smart cards that contain cryptographic information?* a. PKCS #11 b. PKCS #13 c. PKCS #4 d. PKCS #2

a. *PKCS #11* PKCS #11, the Cryptographic Token Interface Standards, defines an API named Cryptoki for devices holding cryptographic information. Answer B is incorrect because PKCS #13 is the Elliptic Curve Cryptography (ECC) standard. Both answers C and D are incorrect because PKCS #4 and PKCS #2 no longer exist and have been integrated into PKCS #1, RSA Cryptography Standard.

Access Control and Identity Management *Which protocol is unsuitable for WAN VPN connections?* a. PPP b. PPTP c. L2TP d. IPSec

a. *PPP* PPP provides no security, and all activities are unsecure. PPP is primarily intended for remote connections and should never be used for VPN connections.

Wireless Networking Security *If the interconnection between the WAP server and the Internet isn't encrypted, packets between the devices may be intercepted. What is this vulnerability known as?* a. Packet sniffing b. Minding the gap c. Middle man d. Broken promise

a. *Packet sniffing* If the interconnection between the WAP server and the Internet isn't encrypted, packets between the devices may be intercepted and this is known as packet sniffing.

Physical and Hardware-Based Security *Which component of physical security addresses outer-level access control?* a. Perimeter security b. Mantraps c. Security zones d. Locked doors

a. *Perimeter security* The first layer of access control is perimeter security. Perimeter security is intended to delay or deter entrance into a facility.

Infrastructure and Connectivity *Upper management has decreed that a firewall must be put in place immediately, before your site suffers an attack similar to one that struck a sister company. Responding to this order, your boss instructs you to implement a packet filter by the end of the week. A packet filter performs which function?* a. Prevents unauthorized packets from entering the network b. Allows all packets to leave the network c. Allows all packets to enter the network d. Eliminates collisions in the network

a. *Prevents unauthorized packets from entering the network* Packet filters prevent unauthorized packets from entering or leaving a network. Packet filters are a type of firewall that blocks specified port traffic.

*When a subject or end user requests a certificate, they must provide which of the following items? (Choose all that apply.)* a. Proof of identity b. A hardware storage device c. A public key d. A private key

a. *Proof of identity* c. *A public key* Proof of identity and the subject's public key must be provided to the CA when the subject requests a certificate. The private key should never be revealed to anyone, not even the CA. A hardware storage device is used after a key or certificate has been issued, not as part of the requesting process.

Disaster Recovery and Incident Response *There have been some sporadic connectivity issues on the network. Which of the following is the best choice to investigate these issues?* a. Protocol analyzer b. Circuit-level gateway logs c. Spam filter appliance d. Web application firewall logs

a. *Protocol analyzer* Protocol analyzers help you troubleshoot network issues by gathering packet-level information across the network. These applications capture packets and can conduct protocol decoding, putting the information into readable data for analysis. Answer B is incorrect because a circuit-level gateway filters based on source and destination addresses. Answer C is incorrect because all-in-one spam filter appliances allow for checksum technology, which tracks the number of times a particular message has appeared, and message authenticity checking, which uses multiple algorithms to verify authenticity of a message. Answer D is incorrect because a web application firewall is software or a hardware appliance used to protect the organization's web server from attack.

*Certificates have what single purpose?* a. Proving identity b. Proving quality c. Providing encryption security d. Exchanging encryption keys

a. *Proving identity* Certificates have the single purpose of proving identity. They don't prove quality or provide encryption security, and they aren't used to exchange encryption keys.

*A rootkit has been discovered on your mission-critical database server. What is the best step to take to return this system to production?* a. Reconstitute it. b. Run an antivirus tool. c. Install an HIDS. d. Apply vendor patches.

a. *Reconstitute it.* The only real option to return a system to a secure state after a rootkit is reconstitution.

*Which of the following algorithms is now known as the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)?* a. Rijndael b. 3DES c. RC6 d. Twofish e. CAST

a. *Rijndael* Rijndael was the winner of the new AES standard. Although RC6 and Twofish competed for selection, they were not chosen. 3DES and CAST did not participate; therefore, answers B, C, D, and E are incorrect.

Measuring and Weighing Risk *Which of the following strategies necessitates an identified risk that those involved understand the potential cost/damage and agree to accept?* a. Risk acceptance b. Risk avoidance c. Risk deterrence d. Risk mitigation e. Risk transference

a. *Risk acceptance* Risk acceptance necessitates an identified risk that those involved understand the potential cost/damage and agree to accept.

Protecting Networks *Which of the following protocols supports DES, 3DES, RC2, and RSA2 encryption along with CHAP authentication, but was not widely adopted?* a. S-HTTP b. S/MIME c. HTTP d. PPTP

a. *S-HTTP* An alternative to HTTPS is the Secure Hypertext Transport Protocol (S-HTTP), which was developed to support connectivity for banking transactions and other secure web communications. S-HTTP was not adopted by the early web browser developers (for example, Netscape and Microsoft) and so remains less common than the HTTPS standard. Additionally, S-HTTP encrypts individual messages so it cannot be used for VPN security. Answer B is incorrect. S/MIME is used to encrypt electronic mail transmissions over public networks. Answer C is incorrect because HTTP is used for unsecured web-based communications. Answer D is incorrect because Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP) is a network protocol that enables the secure transfer of data from a remote client to a private enterprise server by creating a virtual private network (VPN) across TCP/IP-based data networks.

Protecting Networks *Which of the following is most likely to use network segmentation as an alternate security method?* a. SCADA systems b. Mainframes c. Android d. Gaming consoles

a. *SCADA systems* Network segmentation is one of the most effective controls an organization can implement in order to mitigate the effect of a network intrusion. Due to the sensitive nature of supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) systems, they would most likely use network segmentation. Answer B is incorrect because mainframes would most likely use security layers. Answer C is incorrect because Android would most likely use security layers. Answer D is incorrect. Most gaming consoles use firmware version control as an alternative security method.

Security-Related Policies and Procedures *MTS is in the process of increasing all security for all resources. No longer will the legacy method of assigning rights to users as they're needed be accepted. From now on, all rights must be obtained for the network or system through group membership. Which of the following groups is used to manage access in a network?* a. Security group b. Single sign-on group c. Resource sharing group d. AD group

a. *Security group* A security group is used to manage user access to a network or system.

Measuring and Weighing Risk *Which of the following policies are designed to reduce the risk of fraud and prevent other losses in an organization?* a. Separation of duties b. Acceptable use c. Least privilege d. Physical access control

a. *Separation of duties* The separation of duties policies are designed to reduce the risk of fraud and prevent other losses in an organization.

Operating System and Application Security *The administrator at MTS was recently fired, and it has come to light that he didn't install updates and fixes as they were released. As the newly hired administrator, your first priority is to bring all networked clients and servers up-to-date. What is a bundle of one or more system fixes in a single product called?* a. Service pack b. Hotfix c. Patch d. System install

a. *Service pack* A service pack is one or more repairs to system problems bundled into a single process or function.

Threats and Vulnerabilities *You're the administrator for a large bottling company. At the end of each month, you routinely view all logs and look for discrepancies. This month, your email system error log reports a large number of unsuccessful attempts to log on. It's apparent that the email server is being targeted. Which type of attack is most likely occurring?* a. Software exploitation attack b. Backdoor attack c. Worm d. TCP/IP hijacking

a. *Software exploitation attack* A software exploitation attack attempts to exploit weaknesses in software. A common attack attempts to communicate with an established port to gain unauthorized access. Most email servers use port 25 for email connections using SMTP.

*An authentication system relies on an RFID chip embedded in a plastic key together with the pattern of blood vessels in the back of an authorized user's hand. What types of authentication are being employed in this system?* a. Something you have and something you are b. Something you do and something you know c. Something you know and something you are d. Somewhere you are and something you have

a. *Something you have and something you are* The RFID-enabled key is a form of "something you have," and the blood vessel biometric signature is a form of "something you are." Answers B and C are incorrect because there are no "something you know" requirements, such as the input of a personal identification number (PIN) or password. Answer D is incorrect because the "somewhere you are," also known as geolocation, authentication factor is not mentioned in the question.

*Which of the following is an example of a Type 2 authentication factor?* a. Something you have, such as a smart card, an ATM card, a token device, or a memory card b. Something you are, such as fingerprints, voice print, retina pattern, iris pattern, face shape, palm topology, or hand geometry c. Something you do, such as type a passphrase, sign your name, or speak a sentence d. Something you know, such as a password, personal identification number (PIN), lock combination, passphrase, mother's maiden name, or favorite color

a. *Something you have, such as a smart card, an ATM card, a token device, or a memory card* A Type 2 authentication factor is something you have. This could be a smart card, an ATM card, a token device, or a memory card.

Network Security *Which type of firewall packet filtering looks at the incoming packet and permits or denies it based on the conditions that have been set by the administrator?* a. Stateless packet filtering b. Stateful packet filtering c. Switched packet filtering d. Secure packet filtering

a. *Stateless packet filtering* Packets can be filtered by a firewall in one of two ways. Stateless packet filtering looks at the incoming packet and permits or denies it based on the conditions that have been set by the administrator. Stateful packet filtering keeps a record of the state of a connection between an internal computer and an external device and then makes decisions based on the connection as well as the conditions.

*Which of the following is a non-proprietary protocol that provides authentication and authorization as well as accounting of access requests against a centralized service for authorization of access requests?* a. TACACS+ b. SAML c. Secure LDAP d. XTACACS

a. *TACACS+* TACACS+, released as an open standard, is a protocol that provides authentication and authorization as well as accounting of access requests against a centralized service for authorization of access requests. TACACS+ is similar to RADIUS but uses TCP instead of RADIUS's UDP transport. Answer B is incorrect because SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language) is an Extensible Markup Language (XML) framework for creating and exchanging security information between online partners. Answer C is incorrect because secure LDAP is a way to make LDAP traffic confidential and secure by using Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) / Transport Layer Security (TLS) technology. Answer D is incorrect because XTACACS is a proprietary version of the original TACACS protocol that was developed by Cisco.

Threats and Vulnerabilities *A server on your network will no longer accept connections using TCP. The server indicates that it has exceeded its session limit. Which type of attack is probably occurring?* a. TCP ACK attack b. Smurf attack c. Virus attack d. TCP/IP hijacking

a. *TCP ACK attack* A TCP ACK attack creates multiple incomplete sessions. Eventually, the TCP protocol hits a limit and refuses additional connections.

*A man-in-the-middle attack takes advantage of which of the following?* a. TCP handshake b. UDP handshake c. Juggernaut d. All of the above

a. *TCP handshake* TCP is a connection-oriented protocol, which uses a three-way handshake to establish and close a connection. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect. A man-in-the-middle attack takes advantage of this handshake by inserting itself in the middle. UDP is a connectionless protocol and does not use a handshake to establish a connection. Juggernaut describes a program that helps make man-in-the-middle attacks easier.

Wireless Networking Security *Which encryption technology is associated with WPA?* a. TKIP b. CCMP c. WEP d. LDAP

a. *TKIP* The encryption technology associated with WPA is TKIP.

Cryptography Basics *Mercury Technical Solutions has been using SSL in a business-to-business environment for a number of years. Despite the fact that there have been no compromises in security, the new IT manager wants to use stronger security than SSL can offer. Which of the following protocols is similar to SSL but offers the ability to use additional security protocols?* a. TLS b. SSH c. RSH d. X.509

a. *TLS* TLS is a security protocol that uses SSL, and it allows the use of other security protocols.

*Which type of risk control involves enforcing technology to control risk, such as antivirus software, firewalls, and encryption?* a. Technical b. System c. Management d. Operational

a. *Technical* Technical risk control types involve enforcing technology to control risk, such as antivirus software, firewalls, and encryption.

Security-Related Policies and Procedures *A policy of mandatory vacations should be implemented in order to assist in:* a. The prevention of fraud b. Identifying employees no longer needed c. Reducing insurance expenses d. Enforcing privilege management

a. *The prevention of fraud* A policy of mandatory vacations should be implemented in order to assist in the prevention of fraud.

Access Control and Identity Management *Your company provides medical data to doctors from a worldwide database. Because of the sensitive nature of the data you work with, it's imperative that authentication be established on each session and be valid only for that session. Which of the following authentication methods provides credentials that are valid only during a single session?* a. Tokens b. Certificate c. Smart card d. Kerberos

a. *Tokens* Tokens are created when a user or system successfully authenticates. The token is destroyed when the session is over.

*What is the most common protocol used today for both local area networks (LANs) and the Internet?* a. Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) b. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) c. Hypertext Transport Protocol Secure (HTTPS) d. Domain Name System (DNS)

a. *Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP)* Computer networks also have protocols, or rules for communication. These protocols are essential for proper communication to take place between network devices. The most common protocol used today for both local area networks (LANs) and the Internet is Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP).

Threats and Vulnerabilities *A mobile user calls you from the road and informs you that his laptop is exhibiting erratic behavior. He reports that there were no problems until he downloaded a tic-tac-toe program from a site that he had never visited before. Which of the following terms describes a program that enters a system disguised in another program?* a. Trojan horse virus b. Polymorphic virus c. Worm d. Armored virus

a. *Trojan horse virus* A Trojan horse enters with a legitimate program to accomplish its nefarious deeds.

*What two key elements must be carefully balanced in an effective security policy?* a. Trust and control b. Due process and due care c. Due process and due diligence d. Privilege and threat

a. *Trust and control* An effective security policy must carefully balance two key elements: trust and control.

*Which of the following is a cloud-based security solution mainly found in private data centers?* a. VPC b. HSM c. TPM d. PKI

a. *VPC* The HSM and cloud machines can both live on the same virtual private network through the use of a virtual private cloud (VPC) environment. This type of solution is mainly found in private datacenters that manage and offload cryptography with dedicated hardware appliances. Answer B is incorrect because traditionally HSMs have been used in the banking sector to secure numerous large, bulk transactions. Answer C is incorrect because TPM refers to a secure crypto-processor used to authenticate hardware devices such as a PC or laptop. Answer D is incorrect because public key infrastructure (PKI) is a set of hardware, software, people, policies, and procedures needed to create, manage, distribute, use, store, and revoke digital certificates.

*Which of the following provide a "sandboxed" system that can be used to investigate malware?* a. Virtualization b. Network storage c. Host software baselining d. Application baselining

a. *Virtualization* A virtualized "sandboxed" guest system can help in computer-security research, which enables the study of the effects of some viruses or worms without the possibility of compromising the host system. Answer B is incorrect because network storage has nothing to do with desktop management. Answer C is incorrect because host software baselining can be done for a variety of reasons including malware monitoring and creating system images. Answer D is incorrect because application baselining is used to monitor changes in application behavior.

Security and Vulnerability in the Network *Nessus is a tool that performs which security function?* a. Vulnerability scanning b. Penetration testing c. Ethical hacking d. Loop protection

a. *Vulnerability scanning* Nessus is one of the better-known vulnerability scanners.

Wireless Networking Security *An IV attack is usually associated with which of the following wireless protocols?* a. WEP b. WAP c. WPA d. WPA2

a. *WEP* An IV attack is usually associated with the WEP wireless protocol.

*Which of the following provides government-grade security by implementing the AES encryption algorithm and 802.1X-based authentication?* a. WPA2 b. WEP c. WPA d. WAP

a. *WPA2* WPA2 is based on the IEEE 802.11i standard and provides government-grade security by implementing the AES encryption algorithm and 802.1X-based authentication. Answer B is incorrect because the WEP standard was proven to be unsecure and has been replaced by the newer WPA standards. Answer C is incorrect because the early WPA standard has been superseded by the WPA2 standard, implementing the full 802.11i-2004 amendment. Answer D is incorrect because a WAP refers to a wireless access point, which is the wireless network hardware that functions in the place of a wired switch.

Security-Related Policies and Procedures *Which of the following is not a principal concern for first responders to a hacking incident within a corporation operating in the United States?* a. Whether EMI shielding is intact b. Whether data is gathered properly c. Whether data is protected from modification d. Whether collected data is complete

a. *Whether EMI shielding is intact* EMI shielding is important to protecting data and services against unauthorized interception as well as interference but is not a principal concern for first responders following an incident. First responders must ensure that data is collected correctly and protect it from modification using proper controls ensuring a clear chain of evidence, making answers B and C incorrect. Answer D is incorrect because a first responder might be the only agent able to ensure that all data is collected before being lost due to volatility of storage.

Cryptography Basics *Which set of specifications is designed to allow XML-based programs access to PKI services?* a. XKMS b. XMLS c. PKXMS d. PKIXMLS

a. *XKMS* XML Key Management Specification (XKMS) is designed to allow XML-based programs access to PKI services.

*A _______________ is a feature that controls a device's tolerance for unanswered service requests and helps to prevent a denial of service (DoS) attack.* a. flood guard b. virtual local area network (VLAN) c. network intrusion detection system (NIDS) d. virtual private network (VPN) concentrator

a. *flood guard* One defense against DoS and DDoS SYN flood attacks is to use a flood guard. A flood guard is a feature that controls a device's tolerance for unanswered service requests and helps to prevent a DoS attack.

*In _______________ virtualization, an entire operating system environment is simulated.* a. host b. network c. application d. cloud

a. *host* One type of virtualization in which an entire operating system environment is simulated is known as host virtualization. Instead of using a physical computer, a virtual machine, which is a simulated software-based emulation of a computer, is created. The host system (the operating system installed on the computer's hardware) runs a hypervisor that manages the virtual machine operating systems and supports one or more guest systems (a foreign virtual operating system).

A(n) _______ vulnerability scanner is one that initiates traffic on the network in order to determine security holes.

active

Disaster Recovery and Incident Response *What is another name for working copies?* a. Functional copies b. Running copies c. Operating copies d. Shadow copies

d. *Shadow copies* Working copies are also known as shadow copies.

bot

an abbreviation of robot, an automated software program that executes certain commands when it receives a specific input. See also zombie.

intrusion

an adverse event in which an attacker attempts to gain entry into an information system or disrupt its normal operations, almost always with the intent to do harm.

disaster

an adverse event that could threaten the viability of the entire organization. A disaster may either escalate from an incident or be initially classified as a disaster.

Baseline

an assessment of the performance of some action or process against which future performance is assessed; the first measurement (benchmark) in benchmarking.

benchmarking

an attempt to improve information security practices by comparing an organization's efforts against practices of a similar organization or an industry-developed standard to produce results it would like to duplicate. Sometimes referred to as external benchmarking.

intergrity

an attribute of information that describes how data is whole, complete, and uncorrupted.

confidentiality

an attribute of information that describes how date is protected from disclosure or exposure to unauthorized individuals or systems. Information Classification secure document storage application of general security policies education of information custodians and end users

possession

an attribute of information that describes how the data's ownership or control is legitimate or authorized

dumb card

an authentication card that contains digital user data, such as a personal identification number (PIN), against which user input is compared

synchronous token

an authentication component in the form of a token—a card or key fob that contains a computer chip and a liquid crystal display and shows a computer-generated number used to support remote login authentication. This token must be calibrated with the corresponding software on the central authentication server.

liability

an entity's legal obligation or responsibility

technical feasibility

an examination of how well a particular solution is supportable given the organization's current technological infrastructure and resources, which include hardware, software, networking, and personnel.

Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)

an example of a nondiscretionary control where privileges are tied to the role a user performs in an organization, and are inherited when a user is assigned to that role. Roles are considered more persistent than tasks. RBAC is an example of an LDAC.

Secure HTTP (S-HTTP)

an extended version of Hypertext Transfer Protocol that provides for the encryption of protected Web pages transmitted via the Internet between a client and server

The _____ of (ISC)^2 program is geared toward those who want to take the CISSP or SSCP exam before obtaining the requisite experience of certification.

associate

Measuring and Weighing Risk *Consider the following scenario: The asset value of your company's primary servers is $2 million and they are housed in a single office building in Anderson, Indiana. You have field offices scattered throughout the United States, so the servers in the main office account for approximately half the business. Tornados in this part of the country are not uncommon, and it is estimated one will level the building every 60 years.* *Which of the following is the SLE for this scenario?* a. $2 million b. $1 million c. $500,000 d. $33,333.33 e. $16,666.67

b. *$1 million* SLE (single loss expectancy) is equal to asset value (AV) times exposure factor (EF). In this case, asset value is $2 million and exposure factor is 1/2.

*Which port does the Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) use?* a. 25 b. 143 c. 443 d. 3389

b. *143* The Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) uses port 143.

*If an organization takes a full backup every Sunday morning and a daily differential backup each morning, what is the fewest number of backups that must be restored following a disaster on Friday?* a. 1 b. 2 c. 5 d. 6

b. *2* With a differential backup scheme, only the last full and last differential backup need to be restored, making answer C incorrect as well. Daily full backups would require only the last full backup, making answer A incorrect in this configuration. Answer D would be correct in an incremental rather than a differential backup setting, where the last full and all intervening incremental backups must be restored for recovery.

*Which port does the Secure Shell (SSH) protocol use?* a. 21 b. 22 c. 139 d. 443

b. *22* The Secure Shell (SSH) protocol uses port 22.

*Which password standard provides the best opportunity to detect and react to a high-speed, brute-force password attack?* a. Password length b. Account lockout c. Password expiration d. Logon banner

b. *Account lockout* By locking an account after a limited number of failed attempts, administrative action is necessary to unlock the account and can raise awareness of repeated unauthorized access attempts while reducing the overall number of tests that can be attempted. Answers A and C are incorrect because both password length and password expiration can aid in complicating slow brute-force testing of sequential passwords if performed only a few times per day to avoid notice, but they provide only limited protection against high-bandwidth, brute-force attempts to guess passwords. Password complexity (including mixed-case letters, numbers, and symbols) provides more protection than length alone because the number of variations possible for each character rapidly expands the number of total tests that must be completed. Answer D is incorrect because logon banners detail legal repercussions following unauthorized access but provide no barrier against a brute-force attack.

*Which of the following are advantages of honeypots and honeynets? (Select all correct answers.)* a. Attackers are diverted to systems that they cannot damage. b. Administrators are allotted time to decide how to respond to an attack. c. Attackers' actions can more easily be monitored and resulting steps taken to improve system security. d. Well-defined legal implications. e. Provides a structure that requires fewer security administrators.

b. *Administrators are allotted time to decide how to respond to an attack.* On-boarding is a term describing the process of registering an asset and provisioning the asset so it can be used to access the corporate network. Answer A is incorrect because mobile application management (MAM) focuses on application management. Answer C is incorrect. Mobile device management (MDM) allows the enrollment of enterprise devices for management functions such as provisioning devices, tracking inventory, configuration changes, updates, managing applications, and enforcing policies. Answer D is incorrect because device access controls are used to control network access not manage devices.

Security and Vulnerability in the Network *Which of the following is the area of an application that is available to users—those who are authenticated and more importantly those who are not?* a. Exposed liability b. Attack surface c. Security weakness d. Susceptible claim

b. *Attack surface* The attack surface of an application is the area of an application that is available to users—those who are authenticated and more importantly those who are not.

Access Control and Identity Management *Which process involves verifying keys as being authentic?* a. Authorization b. Authentication c. Access control d. Verification

b. *Authentication* Authentication involves the presentation and verification of credentials of keys as being authentic. Answer A is incorrect because authorization involves checking authenticated credentials against a list of authorized security principles. Once checked, resource access is allowed or limited based on access control constraints, making Answer C incorrect. Answer D is incorrect because verification of credentials occurs during authentication (as being authentic) and authorization (as being authorized to request resource access) and is not a recognized access control process.

Security and Vulnerability in the Network *Your manager has purchased a program intended to be used to find problems during code review. The program will read the code and look for any possible bugs or holes. What type of assessment is this known as?* a. Mechanized b. Automated c. Programmed d. Manual

b. *Automated* Simply reading the code is known as manual assessment, while using tools to scan the code is known as automated assessment.

*Which risk management response is being implemented when a company decides to close a little-used legacy web application identified as vulnerable to SQL Injection?* a. Acceptance b. Avoidance c. Mitigation d. Transference

b. *Avoidance* Risk avoidance involves simply terminating the operation that produces the risk, such as when shutting down a vulnerable site. Answer A is incorrect because accepting a risk is to do nothing in response except document the risk-management decision and obtain senior management signoff. Answer C is not correct because mitigation applies a solution that results in a reduced level of risk or exposure. Answer D is incorrect because the liability or cost associated with a risk is transferred through insurance policies and other such legal means.

*From a private corporate perspective, which of the following is most secure?* a. Decentralized key management b. Centralized key management c. Individual key management d. Distributed key management

b. *Centralized key management* Centralized key management is more secure, or at least more desirable, from a private corporate perspective. From a public or individual perspective, decentralized key management is more secure. Individual and distributed key management are nonstandard terms that could be used to refer to decentralized key management.

Access Control and Identity Management *Which of the following is not true regarding expiration dates of certificates?* a. Certificates may be issued for a week. b. Certificates are issued only at yearly intervals. c. Certificates may be issued for 20 years. d. Certificates must always have an expiration date.

b. *Certificates are issued only at yearly intervals.* Digital certificates contain a field indicating the date to which the certificate is valid. This date is mandatory, and the validity period can vary from a short period of time up to a number of years; therefore, answers A, C, and D are incorrect.

Educating and Protecting the User *Users should be educated in the correct way to close pop-up ads in the workplace. That method is to:* a. Click the word Close b. Click the "X" in the top right c. Press Ctrl+Alt+Del d. Call IT

b. *Click the "X" in the top right* Pop-up ads should be closed by clicking the "X" in the top right.

*Which of the following best describes a host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS)?* a. Examines the information exchanged between machines b. Collects and analyzes data that originates on the local machine c. Controls the information coming in and out of the host machine d. Attempts to prevent network attacks in real time

b. *Collects and analyzes data that originates on the local machine* A host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) collects and analyzes data that originates on the local machine. Answer A is incorrect; a network-based intrusion detection system (NIDS) tries to locate packets not allowed on the network that the firewall missed and looks at the information exchanged between machines. Answer C is incorrect because firewalls control the information that gets in and out of the host machine. Answer D is incorrect; intrusion prevention differs from intrusion detection in that it actually prevents attacks in real time instead of only detecting the occurrence.

Threats and Vulnerabilities *Which of the following types of attacks can be done by either convincing the users to click on an HTML page the attacker has constructed or insert arbitrary HTML in a target website that the users visit?* a. Buffer overflow b. Cross-site request forgery (XSRF) c. Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) d. Input validation error

b. *Cross-site request forgery (XSRF)* The key element to understanding XSRF is that attackers are betting that users have a validated login cookie for the website already stored in their browsers. All they need to do is get the browsers to make a request to the website on their behalf. This can be done by either convincing the users to click on an HTML page the attacker has constructed or inserting arbitrary HTML in a target website that the users visit. Answer A is incorrect because a buffer overflow is a direct result of poor or incorrect input validation or mishandled exceptions. Answer C is incorrect because Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) vulnerabilities can be used to hijack the user's session or to cause the user accessing malware-tainted Site A to unknowingly attack Site B on behalf of the attacker who planted code on Site A. Answer D is incorrect because input validation errors are a result of improper field checking in the code.

Access Control and Identity Management *Which form of access control enables data owners to extend access rights to other logons?* a. MAC b. DAC c. Role-based (RBAC) d. Rule-based (RBAC)

b. *DAC* Discretionary access control (DAC) systems enable data owners to extend access rights to other logons. Mandatory access control (MAC) systems require assignment of labels to extend access, making answer A incorrect. Answers C and D are incorrect because both RBAC access control forms rely on conditional assignment of access rules either inherited (role-based) or by environmental factors such as time of day or secured terminal location (rule-based).

Threats and Vulnerabilities *As the security administrator for your organization, you must be aware of all types of attacks that can occur and plan for them. Which type of attack uses more than one computer to attack the victim?* a. DoS b. DDoS c. Worm d. UDP attack

b. *DDoS* A DDoS attack uses multiple computer systems to attack a server or host in the network.

*Which of the following is included in a BYOD policy?* a. Key management b. Data ownership c. Credential management d. Transitive trusts

b. *Data ownership* When formulating a bring-your-own-device (BYOD) policy, the organization should clearly state who owns the data stored on the device, specifically addressing what data belongs to the organization. Answer A is incorrect because key management is intended to provide a single point of management for keys, enable users to manage the lifecycle of keys and to store them securely, and make key distribution easier. Answer C is incorrect because the use of credentials is to validate the identities of users, applications, and devices. Answer D is incorrect because transitive trusts enable decentralized authentication through trusted agents.

*Which of the following is the most effective method that can be used to prevent data from being accessed in the event the device is lost or stolen?* a. GPS tracking b. Device encryption c. Remote wipe d. Passcode policy

b. *Device encryption* Just like the data on hard drives, the data on mobiles can be encrypted. Answer A is incorrect because in the event a mobile device is lost, GPS tracking can be used to find the location. Answer C is incorrect. A remote wipe allows the handheld's data to be remotely deleted in the event the device is lost or stolen. Answer D is incorrect because a screen lock or passcode is used to prevent access to the phone.

Cryptography Basics *Which of the following algorithms is not an example of a symmetric encryption algorithm?* a. Rijndael b. Diffie-Hellman c. RC6 d. AES

b. *Diffie-Hellman* Diffie-Hellman uses public and private keys, so it is considered an asymmetric encryption algorithm. Because Rijndael and Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) are now one in the same, they both can be called symmetric encryption algorithms; therefore, answers A and D are incorrect. Answer C is incorrect because RC6 is symmetric, too.

Operating System and Application Security *If an attacker is able to gain access to restricted directories (such as the root directory) through HTTP, it is known as:* a. Cross-site forgery b. Directory traversal c. Root hardening d. Trusted platform corruption

b. *Directory traversal* If an attacker is able to gain access to restricted directories (such as the root directory) through HTTP, it is known as directory traversal.

Infrastructure and Connectivity *Which device is used to connect voice, data, pagers, networks, and almost any other conceivable application into a single telecommunications system?* a. Router b. PBX c. Hub d. Server

b. *PBX* Many modern PBX (private branch exchange) systems integrate voice and data onto a single data connection to your phone service provider. In some cases, this allows an overall reduction in cost of operations. These connections are made using existing network connections such as a T1 or T3 network.

*What aspect of disaster recovery planning details training requirements for managers, administrators, and users?* a. Impact and risk assessment b. Disaster recovery plan c. Disaster recovery policies d. Service level agreements

b. *Disaster recovery plan* The disaster recovery plan documents how organizations will recover from a disaster. It includes risk evaluations, restoration procedures application, and training required. Answer A is incorrect because the impact and risk assessment details on recovery scope, priority, and order of restoration. Answer C is incorrect because the disaster recovery policies detail responsibilities and procedures to follow during disaster recovery events. Service level agreements are contracts with suppliers and vendors that detail minimum levels of support, making answer D incorrect.

Disaster Recovery and Incident Response *The only difference between mirroring and which of the following is the addition of one more controller card?* a. Additioning b. Duplexing c. Failing over d. Sanctifying

b. *Duplexing* The only difference between mirroring and duplexing is one more controller card.

*Which of the following is most directly associated with providing or supporting perfect forward secrecy?* a. PBKDF2 b. ECDHE c. HMAC d. OCSP

b. *ECDHE* Elliptic Curve Diffie-Hellman Ephemeral or Elliptic Curve Ephemeral Diffie-Hellman (ECDHE) implements perfect forward secrecy through the use of elliptic curve cryptography (ECC). PBKDF2 is an example of a key-stretching technology not directly supporting perfect forward secrecy. HMAC is a hashing function. OCSP is used to check for certificate revocation.

*TEMPEST deals with which of the following forms of environmental control?* a. HVAC b. EMI shielding c. Humidity d. Cold-aisle

b. *EMI shielding* TEMPEST protections involve the hardening of equipment against EMI broadcast and sensitivity. Answers A and C are incorrect because HVAC controls include temperature and humidity management techniques to manage evolved heat in the data center and to minimize static charge buildup. Answer D is incorrect because hot-aisle/cold-aisle schemes provide thermal management for data centers by grouping air intakes on cold aisles and air exhausts on designated hot aisles, making HVAC more effective.

Protecting Networks *Which of the following are not methods for minimizing a threat to a web server? (Choose the two best answers.)* a. Disable all nonweb services b. Ensure Telnet is running c. Disable nonessential services d. Enable logging

b. *Ensure Telnet is running* d. *Enable logging* Having Telnet enabled presents security issues and is not a primary method for minimizing threat. Logging is important for secure operations and is invaluable when recovering from a security incident. However, it is not a primary method for reducing threat. Answer A is incorrect because disabling all nonweb services might provide a secure solution for minimizing threats. Answer C is incorrect because each network service carries its own risks; therefore, it is important to disable all nonessential services.

*Which statement accurately describes a characteristic of FTP Secure (FTPS)?* a. FTPS is an entire protocol itself. b. FTPS is a combination of two technologies (FTP and SSL or TLS). c. FTPS uses a single TCP port. d. FTPS encrypts and compresses all data and commands.

b. *FTPS is a combination of two technologies (FTP and SSL or TLS).* There are several differences between SFTP and FTPS. First, FTPS is a combination of two technologies (FTP and SSL or TLS), whereas SFTP is an entire protocol itself and is not pieced together with multiple parts. Second, SFTP uses only a single TCP port instead of two ports like FTPS. Finally, SFTP encrypts and compresses all data and commands (FTPS may not encrypt data).

*What technique or method can be employed by hackers and researchers to discover unknown flaws or errors in software?* a. Dictionary attacks b. Fuzzing c. War dialing d. Cross-site request forgery

b. *Fuzzing* Fuzzing is a software-testing technique that generates input for targeted programs. The goal of fuzzing is to discover input sets that cause errors, failures, and crashes, or to discover other unknown defects in the targeted program.

Operating System and Application Security *Which of the following is the technique of providing unexpected values as input to an application to try to make it crash?* a. DLP b. Fuzzing c. TPM d. HSM

b. *Fuzzing* Fuzzing is the technique of providing unexpected values as input to an application to try to make it crash. Those values can be random, invalid, or just unexpected.

Educating and Protecting the User *The Cyberspace Security Enhancement Act gives law enforcement the right to:* a. Fine ISPs who host rogue sites b. Gain access to encryption keys c. Restrict information from public view d. Stop issuance of .gov domains

b. *Gain access to encryption keys* The Cyberspace Security Enhancement Act gives law enforcement the right to gain access to encryption keys.

Educating and Protecting the User *Which act mandates national standards and procedures for the storage, use, and transmission of personal medical information?* a. CFAA b. HIPAA c. GLBA d. FERPA

b. *HIPAA* HIPAA mandates national standards and procedures for the storage, use, and transmission of personal medical information.

Operating System and Application Security *You've been chosen to lead a team of administrators in an attempt to increase security. You're currently creating an outline of all the aspects of security that will need to be examined and acted upon. Which of the following terms describes the process of improving security in an NOS?* a. Common Criteria b. Hardening c. Encryption d. Networking

b. *Hardening* Hardening is the process of improving the security of an operating system or application. One of the primary methods of hardening an OS is to eliminate unneeded protocols.

*The process of making an operating system more secure by closing known vulnerabilities and addressing security issues is known as which of the following?* a. Handshaking b. Hardening c. Hotfixing d. All of the above

b. *Hardening* Hardening refers to the process of securing an operating system. Handshaking relates the agreement process before communication takes place; therefore, answer A is incorrect. A hotfix is just a security patch that gets applied to an operating system; therefore, answer C is incorrect. Hardening is the only correct answer; therefore, answer D is incorrect.

Security and Vulnerability in the Network *Which log visible in Event Viewer shows successful and unsuccessful login attempts in Windows 7?* a. System b. Security c. Audit d. Application

b. *Security* The Security log in Windows 7 (as well as in all versions of Windows) shows successful and unsuccessful login attempts and can be viewed with Event Viewer.

Cryptography Basics *Which of the following is the type of algorithm used by MD5?* a. Block cipher algorithm b. Hashing algorithm c. Asymmetric encryption algorithm d. Cryptographic algorithm

b. *Hashing algorithm* Although the message digest (MD) series of algorithms is classified globally as a symmetric key encryption algorithm, the correct answer is hashing algorithm, which is the method that the algorithm uses to encrypt data. Answer A in incorrect because a block cipher divides the message into blocks of bits. Answer C is incorrect because MD5 is a symmetric key algorithm, not an asymmetric encryption algorithm (examples of this include RC6, Twofish, and Rijndael). Answer D is incorrect because cryptographic algorithm is a bogus term.

Network Security *Which statement concerning heuristic monitoring is correct?* a. Heuristic monitoring operates by being adaptive and proactive. b. Heuristic monitoring is founded on experience-based techniques. c. Heuristic monitoring is designed for detecting statistical anomalies. d. Heuristic monitoring looks for well-known patterns.

b. *Heuristic monitoring is founded on experience-based techniques.* Heuristic monitoring is founded on experience-based techniques. It attempts to answer the question, "Will this do something harmful if it is allowed to execute?"

*A CA with multiple subordinate CAs would use which of the following PKI trust models?* a. Cross-certified b. Hierarchical c. Bridge d. Linked

b. *Hierarchical* A DMZ is a small network between the internal network and the Internet that provides a layer of security and privacy. Answer A is incorrect. The purpose of a VLAN is to unite network nodes logically into the same broadcast domain regardless of their physical attachment to the network. Answer C is incorrect because NAT acts as a liaison between an internal network and the Internet. Answer D is incorrect because a VPN is a network connection that allows you access via a secure tunnel created through an Internet connection.

*Which protocol is the standard protocol for Internet usage?* a. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) b. Hypertext Transport Protocol (HTTP) c. Network Basic Input/Output System (NetBIOS) d. Secure Network Management Protocol (SNMP)

b. *Hypertext Transport Protocol (HTTP)* Hypertext Transport Protocol (HTTP), which is the standard protocol for Internet usage.

Network Security *Load balancing that is used for distributing HTTP requests received is sometimes called _______________.* a. content filtering b. IP spraying c. content inspection d. port mirroring

b. *IP spraying* Load balancing that is used for distributing HTTP requests received is sometimes called IP spraying.

*Which statement accurately describes IP telephony?* a. IP telephony requires an increase in infrastructure requirements. b. IP telephony convergence provides the functionality of managing and supporting a single network for all applications. c. New IP telephony applications can take a long time to develop. d. The cost of convergence technologies is high in comparison to startup costs for new traditional telephone equipment.

b. *IP telephony convergence provides the functionality of managing and supporting a single network for all applications.* Instead of managing separate voice and data networks, convergence provides the functionality of managing and supporting a single network for all applications.

*Which of the fields included within a digital certificate identifies the directory name of the entity signing the certificate?* a. Signature algorithm identifier b. Issuer c. Subject name d. Subject public key information

b. *Issuer* The Issuer field identifies the name of the entity signing the certificate, which is usually a certificate authority. The Signature Algorithm Identifier identifies the cryptographic algorithm used by the CA to sign the certificate; therefore, answer A is incorrect. The Subject Name is the name of the end entity identified in the public key associated with the certificate; therefore, answer C is incorrect. The Subject Public Key Information field includes the public key of the entity named in the certificate, including a cryptographic algorithm identifier; therefore, answer D is incorrect.

*Which of the following is not true in regards to NoSQL?* a. Can support SQL expressions b. It is a relational database c. Supports hierarchies or multilevel nesting/referencing d. Does not support ACID

b. *It is a relational database* NoSQL is not a relational database structure. NoSQL can support SQL expressions, supports hierarchies or multilevel nesting/referencing, and does not support ACID.

*Which type of authorization provides a mechanism for validation of both sender and receiver?* a. Anonymous b. Kerberos c. TACACS d. RADIUS

b. *Kerberos* Kerberos authentication enables validation of both endpoints and can help protect against interception attacks such as the "man-in-the-middle." Anonymous connections do not even allow verification of the access requestor, making answer A incorrect. Answers C and D are incorrect because neither TACACS or RADIUS services provide mutual endpoint validation.

Access Control and Identity Management *You've been assigned to mentor a junior administrator and bring him up to speed quickly. The topic you're currently explaining is authentication. Which method uses a KDC to accomplish authentication for users, programs, or systems?* a. CHAP b. Kerberos c. Biometrics d. Smart cards

b. *Kerberos* Kerberos uses a key distribution center (KDC) to authenticate a principal. The KDC provides a credential that can be used by all Kerberos-enabled servers and applications.

*Which risk reduction policy does not aid in identifying internal fraud?* a. Mandatory vacations b. Least privilege c. Separation of duties d. Job rotation

b. *Least privilege* Although least privilege can aid in protecting against internal fraud, it does not particularly aid in identifying it if occurring. Mandatory vacations, job rotation, and separation of duties such as monetary processing and validation all provide cross-checks that can aid in the identification of ongoing fraudulent operations, making answers A, C, and D incorrect.

Infrastructure and Connectivity *Most of the sales force have been told that they should no longer report to the office on a daily basis. From now on, they're to spend the majority of their time on the road calling on customers. Each member of the sales force has been issued a laptop computer and told to connect to the network nightly through a dial-up connection. Which of the following protocols is widely used today as a transport protocol for Internet dial-up connections?* a. SMTP b. PPP c. PPTP d. L2TP

b. *PPP* PPP can pass multiple protocols and is widely used today as a transport protocol for dial-up connections.

*Lynn needs access to the Accounting order-entry application but keeps getting an error that indicates inadequate access permissions. Bob assigns Lynn's account to the Administrator's group to overcome the error until he can work on the problem. Which access control constraint was violated by this action?* a. Implicit denial b. Least privilege c. Separation of duties d. Account expiration

b. *Least privilege* Least privilege is a principle of assigning only those rights necessary to perform assigned tasks. By making Lynn a member of the Administrators group, Bob not only bypassed the application's access control protocols but may also have granted Lynn access to additional application features or administrative-only tools that often lack the same safeguards as user-level APIs. Answer A is incorrect because the default assignment of an implicit denial is overridden by explicit grants of access aids in protecting resources against accidental access and is not directly violated by this action because Lynn's account now has full administrator rights assigned. Answer C is incorrect because separation of duties is focused on ensuring that action and validation practices are performed separately. Answer D is incorrect because account expiration protocols ensure that individual accounts do not remain active past their designated lifespan, but Lynn's account is current and enabled so is unaffected.

*Which of the following is not a common quality of quantitative risk analysis?* a. Difficult for management to understand b. Less precise c. Labor intensive d. Time-consuming

b. *Less precise* Qualitative risk assessments tend to be less precise than quantitative assessments. Quantitative risk assessments tend to be more difficult for management to understand properly without additional explanation, require intensive labor to gather all of the necessary measurements, and are time-consuming to produce and keep up to date, making answers A, C, and D incorrect.

Security and Vulnerability in the Network *An organization is looking for a filtering solution that will help eliminate some of the recent problems it has had with viruses and worms. Which of the following best meets this requirement?* a. Intrusion detection b. Malware inspection c. Load balancing d. Internet content filtering

b. *Malware inspection* A malware inspection filter is basically a web filter applied to traffic that uses HTTP. The body of all HTTP requests and responses is inspected. Malicious content is blocked, but legitimate content passes through unaltered. Answer A is incorrect because intrusion-detection systems are designed to analyze data, identify attacks, and respond to the intrusion. Answer C is incorrect because load balancers are servers configured in a cluster to provide scalability and high availability. Answer D is incorrect because Internet content filters use a collection of terms, words, and phrases that are compared to content from browsers and applications.

Operating System and Application Security *Which of the following is needed to establish effective security baselines for host systems? (Select two correct answers.)* a. Cable locks b. Mandatory settings c. Standard application suites d. Decentralized administration

b. *Mandatory settings* c. *Standard application suites* To establish effective security baselines, enterprise network security management requires a measure of commonality between the systems. Mandatory settings, standard application suites, and initial setup configuration details all factor into the security stance of an enterprise network. Answer A is incorrect because cable locks have nothing to do with effective security baselines. Answer D is incorrect because decentralized management does not have anything to do with security baselines.

*The most effective means to reduce the risk of losing the data on a mobile device, such as a notebook computer, is _____.* a. Encrypt the hard drive. b. Minimize sensitive data stored on the mobile device. c. Use a cable lock. d. Define a strong logon password.

b. *Minimize sensitive data stored on the mobile device.* The risk of a lost or stolen notebook is the data loss, not the loss of the system itself. Thus, keeping minimal sensitive data on the system is the only way to reduce the risk. Hard-drive encryption, cable locks, and strong passwords, although good ideas, are preventative tools, not means of reducing risk. They don't keep intentional and malicious data compromise from occurring; instead, they encourage honest people to stay honest.

*What technology provides an organization with the best control over BYOD equipment?* a. Encrypted removable storage b. Mobile device management c. Geo-tagging d. Application whitelisting

b. *Mobile device management* Mobile device management (MDM) is a software solution to the challenging task of managing the myriad mobile devices that employees use to access company resources. The goals of MDM are to improve security, provide monitoring, enable remote management, and support troubleshooting. Not all mobile devices support removable storage, and even fewer support encrypted removable storage. Geotagging is used to mark photos and social network posts, not for BYOD management. Application whitelisting may be an element of BYOD management, but is only part of a full MBM solution.

Cryptography Basics *During a training session, you want to impress upon users how serious security and, in particular, cryptography is. To accomplish this, you want to give them as much of an overview about the topic as possible. Which government agency should you mention is primarily responsible for establishing government standards involving cryptography for general-purpose government use?* a. NSA b. NIST c. IEEE d. ITU

b. *NIST* NIST is responsible for establishing the standards for general-purpose government encryption. NIST is also becoming involved in private-sector cryptography.

Wireless Networking Security *Which of the following is synonymous with MAC filtering?* a. TKIP b. Network lock c. EAP-TTLS d. MAC secure

b. *Network lock* The term network lock is synonymous with MAC filtering.

*Which is the strongest form of password?* a. More than eight characters b. One-time use c. Static d. Different types of keyboard characters

b. *One-time use* A one-time password is always the strongest form of password. A static password is always the weakest form of password. Passwords with more than eight characters and those that use different types of keyboard characters are usually strong, but these factors alone are unable to indicate their strength.

Access Control and Identity Management *Which of the following security areas encompasses network access control (NAC)?* a. Physical security b. Operational security c. Management security d. Triad security

b. *Operational security* Operational security issues include network access control (NAC), authentication, and security topologies after the network installation is complete.

Access Control and Identity Management *Most of your client's sales force have been told that they should no longer report to the office on a daily basis. From now on, they're to spend the majority of their time on the road calling on customers. Each member of the sales force has been issued a laptop computer and told to connect to the network nightly through a remote connection. Which of the following protocols is widely used today as a transport protocol for remote Internet connections?* a. SMTP b. PPP c. PPTP d. L2TP

b. *PPP* PPP can pass multiple protocols and is widely used today as a transport protocol for remote connections.

Physical and Hardware-Based Security *Which of the following is equivalent to building walls in an office building from a network perspective?* a. Perimeter security b. Partitioning c. Security zones d. IDS systems

b. *Partitioning* Access control is the primary process of preventing access to physical systems.

Physical and Hardware-Based Security *Which of the following statements are true when discussing physical security? (Select all correct answers.)* a. Physical security attempts to control access to data from Internet users. b. Physical security attempts to control unwanted access to specified areas of a building. c. Physical security attempts to control the effect of natural disasters on facilities and equipment. d. Physical security attempts to control internal employee access into secure areas.

b. *Physical security attempts to control unwanted access to specified areas of a building.* c. *Physical security attempts to control the effect of natural disasters on facilities and equipment.* d. *Physical security attempts to control internal employee access into secure areas.* Natural disasters, unwanted access, and user restrictions are all physical security issues. Preventing Internet users from getting to data is data security, not physical security; therefore, answer A is incorrect.

Educating and Protecting the User *______ information is made available to either large public or specific individuals, while ______ information is intended for only those internal to the organization.* a. Private; Restricted b. Public; Private c. Limited distribution; Internal d. Public; Internal

b. *Public; Private* Public information is made available to either large public or specific individuals, while Private information is intended for only those internal to the organization.

*Which of the following technologies can be used to add an additional layer of protection between a directory services-based network and remote clients?* a. SMTP b. RADIUS c. PGP d. VLAN

b. *RADIUS* RADIUS is a centralized authentication solution that adds an additional layer of security between a network and remote clients. SMTP is the email-forwarding protocol used on the Internet and intranets. PGP is a security solution for email. VLANs are created by switches to logically divide a network into subnets.

*Which of the following should you deploy within your PKI to provide a method for initially verifying a user's identity so that a certificate may be issued?* a. Certificate authority (CA) b. Registration authority (RA) c. Certificate practice statement (CPS) d. Certificate registration list (CRL)

b. *Registration authority (RA)* A registration authority is used to first verify the user's identity before passing the request along to the certificate authority to issue a digital certificate. So, answer A is incorrect. Answer C is also incorrect because a CPS is a legal document created and published by the CA. Answer D is incorrect. A certificate registration list is a red herring. Within PKI, CRL refers to a certificate revocation list, which is a mechanism for disturbing information about revoked certificates.

*Which of the following is considered best practice when formulating minimum standards for developing password policies?* a. Password length set to 6 characters b. Require password change at 90 days c. Maximum password age set to zero d. Account lockout threshold set to zero

b. *Require password change at 90 days* Require users to change passwords every 90 to 180 days, depending on how secure the environment needs to be. Remember that the more often users are required to change passwords, the greater the chance that they will write them down, potentially exposing them to unauthorized use. Answer A is incorrect because making the password length at least eight characters and requiring the use of combinations of uppercase and lowercase letters, numbers, and special characters is good practice. Answer C is incorrect because good policy is to set the maximum password age to a value between 30 and 90 days. Answer D is incorrect because if the lockout threshold is set to zero, accounts will not be locked out due to invalid logon attempts.

*You run a full backup every Monday. You also run a differential backup every other day of the week. You experience a drive failure on Friday. Which of the following restoration procedures should you use to restore data to the replacement drive?* a. Restore the full backup and then each differential backup. b. Restore the full backup and then the last differential backup. c. Restore the differential backup. d. Restore the full backup.

b. *Restore the full backup and then the last differential backup.* The proper procedure is to restore the full backup, and then the last differential backup. The other three options are incorrect or incomplete.

Threats and Vulnerabilities *Your system has been acting strangely since you downloaded a file from a colleague. Upon examining your antivirus software, you notice that the virus definition file is missing. Which type of virus probably infected your system?* a. Polymorphic virus b. Retrovirus c. Worm d. Armored virus

b. *Retrovirus* Retroviruses are often referred to as anti-antiviruses. They can render your antivirus software unusable and leave you exposed to other, less-formidable viruses.

Infrastructure and Connectivity *Which service(s), by default, use TCP and UDP port 22? (Choose all that apply.)* a. SMTP b. SSH c. SCP d. IMAP

b. *SSH* c. *SCP* Port 22 is used by both SSH and SCP with TCP and UDP.

*Which of the following statements is true about SSL?* a. SSL provides security for both the connection and the data after it is received. b. SSL only provides security for the connection, not the data after it is received. c. SSL only provides security for the data when it is received, not the connection. d. SSL does not provide security for either the connection or the data after it is received.

b. *SSL only provides security for the connection, not the data after it is received.* Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) provides security only for the connection, not the data after it is received. The data is encrypted while it is being transmitted, but when received by the computer, it is no longer encrypted. Therefore, answers A, C, and D are incorrect.

cultural mores

fixed moral attitudes or customs of a particular group; ethics based on these

Access Control and Identity Management *Which category of authentication includes smart cards?* a. Something you know b. Something you have c. Something you are d. Something you do e. Somewhere you are

b. *Something you have* Something you have includes smart cards, tokens, and keys. Something you know includes account logons, passwords, and PINs, making answer A incorrect. Answers C and D are incorrect because both something you are and something you do involve measures of personal biological qualities and do not require an external device such as a smart card or key. Answer E is incorrect because somewhere you are is generally associated with either being in a trusted or less trusted location which could be based on GPS coordinates or IP address.

Educating and Protecting the User *The Clark-Wilson model must be accessed through applications that have predefined capabilities. This process prevents all except:* a. Modification b. Spam c. Errors d. Fraud

b. *Spam* The Clark-Wilson model must be accessed through applications that have predefined capabilities. This process prevents all the choices listed except spam.

Security-Related Policies and Procedures *On a NetWare-based system, which account is equivalent to the administrator account in Windows?* a. Auditor b. Supervisor c. Root d. Master

b. *Supervisor* The supervisor user in NetWare is equivalent to the administrator user in Windows.

Infrastructure and Connectivity *As more and more clients have been added to your network, the efficiency of the network has decreased significantly. You're preparing a budget for next year, and you specifically want to address this problem. Which of the following devices acts primarily as a tool to improve network efficiency?* a. Hub b. Switch c. Router d. PBX

b. *Switch* Switches create virtual circuits between systems in a network. These virtual circuits are somewhat private and reduce network traffic when used.

*Which of the following is the best choice for encrypting large amounts of data?* a. Asymmetric encryption b. Symmetric encryption c. Elliptical curve encryption d. RSA encryption

b. *Symmetric encryption* Public key encryption is not usually used to encrypt large amounts of data, but it is does provide an effective and efficient means of sending a secret key from which to do symmetric encryption thereafter, which provides the best method for efficiently encrypting large amounts of data. Therefore, answers A, C, and D are incorrect.

Access Control and Identity Management *Which of the following is a client-server-oriented environment that operates in a manner similar to RADIUS?* a. HSM b. TACACS c. TPM d. ACK

b. *TACACS* Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System (TACACS) is a client-server-oriented environment, and it operates in a manner similar to how RADIUS operates.

Access Control and Identity Management *Which of the following is true of digital signatures? (Choose the two best answers.)* a. They are the same as a hash function. b. They can be automatically time-stamped. c. They allow the sender to repudiate that the message was sent. d. They cannot be imitated by someone else.

b. *They can be automatically time-stamped.* d. *They cannot be imitated by someone else.* Digital signatures offer several features and capabilities. This includes being able to ensure the sender cannot repudiate that he or she used the signature. In addition, nonrepudiation schemes are capable of offering time stamps for the digital signature. Answer A is incorrect. Hashing algorithms are only used for integrity purposes and only confirm original content. Answer C is incorrect because a key feature of digital signatures is to provide for nonrepudiation.

*Your organization provides a secure web portal. You discover another portal that mimics your organization's portal look and feel. This portal has a similar URL but is different by one letter. Which of the following are most likely true? (Select two correct answers.)* a. This is an example of transitive access. b. This is typo squatting. c. The site is collecting usernames and passwords. d. The site is a result of a malicious insider.

b. *This is typo squatting.* c. *The site is collecting usernames and passwords.* Typo squatting takes advantage of mistyped domain names. Sometimes for advertising purposes, but it can also be for more malicious intent. The unauthorized site may be looking to collect usernames and passwords, then of course, allowing access. Transitive access describes a situation that can be exploited, but one that is normally by design that takes advantage of trust relationships, thus answer A is incorrect. Answer D is also incorrect. A malicious insider may have set up the rouge site, but there is no indication this was the case.

Network Security *What is the role of a router?* a. To inspect packets and either accept or deny entry b. To forward packets across different computer networks c. To intercept user requests from the internal secure network and then process that request on behalf of the user d. To connect networks together so that they function as a single network segment

b. *To forward packets across different computer networks* A router is a network device that can forward packets across different computer networks. When a router receives an incoming packet, it reads the destination address and then, using information in its routing table, sends the packet to the next network toward its destination.

*Your organization has organized a trade show in the United States. With the goal of increasing revenue, you decide to operate a Wi-Fi hotspot for a fee. Which of the following are reasons your organization could use wireless jamming? (Select all correct answers.)* a. To maximize revenue b. To prevent degraded service c. To prevent attendees from operating their own Wi-Fi hot spots d. To prevent attacks

b. *To prevent degraded service* d. *To prevent attacks* Wireless jamming may be a legal way to prevent degraded service or attacks. Answers A and C are incorrect. Wireless jamming may provide an effective means to ensure that no other Wi-Fi network may operating and may increase profits by interfering with the signal, but it is against FCC regulations and illegal to do this.

Wireless Networking Security *Which of the following authentication levels with WAP requires both ends of the connection to authenticate to confirm validity?* a. Relaxed b. Two-way c. Server d. Anonymous

b. *Two-way* Two-way authentication requires both ends of the connection to authenticate to confirm validity.

Physical and Hardware-Based Security *Type K fire extinguishers are intended for use on cooking oil fires. This type is a subset of which other type of fire extinguisher?* a. Type A b. Type B c. Type C d. Type D

b. *Type B* Type K fire extinguishers are a subset of Type B fire extinguishers.

*An organization is looking for a mobile solution that allows both executives and employees to discuss sensitive information without having to travel to secure company locations. Which of the following fulfills this requirement?* a. GPS tracking b. Voice encryption c. Remote wipe d. Passcode policy

b. *Voice encryption* Mobile voice encryption can allow executives and employees alike to discuss sensitive information without having to travel to secure company locations. Answer A is incorrect because in the event a mobile device is lost, GPS tracking can be used to find the location. answer C is incorrect because remote wipe allows a handheld's data to be remotely deleted in the event the device is lost or stolen. Answer D is incorrect because a screen lock or passcode is used to prevent access to the phone.

Security-Related Policies and Procedures *Which of the following is the basic premise of least privilege?* a. Always assign responsibilities to the administrator who has the minimum permissions required. b. When assigning permissions, give users only the permissions they need to do their work and no more. c. Regularly review user permissions and take away one that they currently have to see if they will complain or even notice that it is missing. d. Do not give management more permissions than users.

b. *When assigning permissions, give users only the permissions they need to do their work and no more.* The basic premise of least privilege is: When assigning permissions, give users only the permissions they need to do their work and no more.

*Which security stance will be most successful at preventing malicious software execution?* a. Deny by exception b. Whitelisting c. Allow by default d. Blacklisting

b. *Whitelisting* Whitelisting is a security option that prohibits unauthorized software from being able to execute. Whitelisting is also known as deny by default or implicit deny. Blacklisting, also known as deny by exception or allow by default, is the least successful means of preventing malware execution.

Protecting Networks *Which of the following are examples of protocol analyzers? (Check all correct answers.)* a. Metasploit b. Wireshark c. OVAL d. Microsoft Message Analyzer

b. *Wireshark* d. *Microsoft Message Analyzer* Windows Server operating systems come with a protocol analyzer called by Microsoft Message Analyzer. Third-party programs such as Wireshark can also be used for network monitoring. Metasploit is a framework used for penetration testing, and OVAL is intended as an international language for representing vulnerability information using an XML schema for expression; therefore, answers A and C are incorrect.

Disaster Recovery and Incident Response *Although you're talking to her on the phone, the sound of the administrative assistant's screams of despair can be heard down the hallway. She has inadvertently deleted a file that the boss desperately needs. Which type of backup is used for the immediate recovery of a lost file?* a. Onsite storage b. Working copies c. Incremental backup d. Differential backup

b. *Working copies* Working copies are backups that are usually kept in the computer room for immediate use in recovering a system or lost file.

Operating System and Application Security *Which of the following statements is not true?* a. You should never share the root directory of a disk. b. You should share the root directory of a disk. c. You should apply the most restrictive access necessary for a shared directory. d. Filesystems are frequently based on hierarchical models.

b. *You should share the root directory of a disk.* Never share the root directory of a disk if at all possible. Doing so opens the entire disk to potential exploitation.

Protecting Networks *Which of the following utilities can be used in Linux to view a list of users' failed authentication attempts?* a. badlog b. faillog c. wronglog d. killlog

b. *faillog* Use the faillog utility in Linux to view a list of users' failed authentication attempts.

*An event that, in the beginning, is considered to be a risk, yet turns out not to be one, is called a _______________.* a. false negative b. false positive c. negative-positive d. positive-negative

b. *false positive* An event that, in the beginning, is considered to be a risk yet turns out not to be one is called a false positive.

*In many fraud schemes, the perpetrator must be present every day in order to continue the fraud or keep it from being exposed. Many organizations require _______________ for all employees to counteract this.* a. job rotation b. mandatory vacations c. separation of duties d. least privilege

b. *mandatory vacations* In many fraud schemes, the perpetrator must be present every day in order to continue the fraud or keep it from being exposed. Many organizations require mandatory vacations for all employees to counteract this.

*The _______________ is the maximum length of time that an organization can tolerate between backups.* a. mean time to failure b. recovery point objective c. mean time to recovery d. recovery time objective

b. *recovery point objective* The recovery point objective (RPO) is the maximum length of time that an organization can tolerate between backups.

*A(n) _______________ is an in-depth examination and analysis of a wireless LAN site.* a. network log b. site survey c. captive portal d. threat vector

b. *site survey* Ensuring that a wireless LAN can provide its intended functionality and meet its required design goals can best be achieved through a site survey. A site survey is an in-depth examination and analysis of a wireless LAN site.

*An integrated device that combines several security functions is called a(n) _______________ security product.* a. demilitarized zone (DMZ) b. unified threat management (UTM) c. virtual private network (VPN) d. application-aware IPS

b. *unified threat management (UTM)* An integrated device that combines several security functions, called a Unified Threat Management (UTM) security product.

*Segmenting a network by separating devices into logical groups is known as creating a _______________.* a. cloud b. virtual LAN (VLAN) c. flood guard d. unified threat management (UTM) system

b. *virtual LAN (VLAN)* Segmenting a network by separating devices into logical groups is known as creating a virtual LAN (VLAN).

A virus or worm can have a payload that installs a(n) ____________________ door or trap door component in a system, which allows the attacker to access the system at will with special privileges.

back

Educating and Protecting the User *Which concept does the Bell-LaPadula model deal most accurately with?* a. Integrity b. Trustworthiness c. Confidentiality d. Accuracy

c. *Confidentiality* The Bell-LaPadula model deals most accurately with confidentiality.

A(n) _________ is a performance value or metric used to compare changes in the object being measured.

baseline

Infrastructure and Connectivity *Which of the following devices is the most capable of providing infrastructure security?* a. Hub b. Switch c. Router d. Modem

c. *Router* Routers can be configured in many instances to act as packet-filtering firewalls. When configured properly, they can prevent unauthorized ports from being opened.

A(n) ____________________________ is an application error that occurs when more data is sent to a program than it is designed to handle.

buffer overrun

Security and Vulnerability in the Network *In which type of testing do you begin with the premise that an outsider attacker is being fed some knowledge from someone inside the network?* a. Black box b. White box c. Gray box d. Green box

c. *Gray box* With gray box testing, you begin with the premise that an outsider attacker is being fed some knowledge from someone inside the network.

*What type of wireless antenna can be used to send or receive signals in any direction?* a. Cantenna b. Yagi c. Rubber duck d. Panel

c. *Rubber duck* A rubber duck antenna is an omnidirectional antenna.

Measuring and Weighing Risk *If you calculate SLE to be $4,000 and that there will be 10 occurrences a year (ARO), then the ALE is:* a. $400 b. $4,000 c. $40,000 d. $400,000

c. *$40,000* If you calculate SLE to be $4,000 and that there will be 10 occurrences a year (ARO), then the ALE is $40,000 ($4,000 × 10).

Cryptography Basics *Assuming asymmetric encryption, if data is encoded with a value of 5, what would be used to decode it?* a. 5 b. 1 c. 1/5 d. 0

c. *1/5* With asymmetric encryption, two keys are used—one to encode and the other to decode. The two keys are mathematical reciprocals of each other.

Physical and Hardware-Based Security *Proximity readers work with which of the following? (Choose all that apply.)* a. 15.75 fob card b. 14.32 surveillance card c. 13.56 MHZ smart card d. 125 kHz proximity card

c. *13.56 MHZ smart card* d. *125 kHz proximity card* Proximity readers work with 13.56 MHz smart card and 125 kHz proximity cards.

*Fiber channel (FC) is a high-speed storage network protocol that can transmit up to _______________ per second.* a. 16 bits b. 16 megabits c. 16 gigabits d. 16 terabits

c. *16 gigabits* Fibre Channel (FC) is a high-speed storage network protocol that can transmit up to 16 gigabits per second.

*What is the minimum number of drives necessary to provide a RAID 5 redundant with distributed parity disk array?* a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 5

c. *3* The minimum number of drives in a RAID 5 array is three, making answers B and D incorrect. A single drive does not provide fault tolerance, making Answer A incorrect.

*Which port does the Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) use?* a. 20 b. 21 c. 80 d. 443

c. *80* The Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) uses port 80.

Wireless Networking Security *Which of the following 802.11 standards is often referenced as WPA2?* a. 802.11a b. 802.11b c. 802.11i d. 802.11n

c. *802.11i* The WPA2 standard is also known as 802.11i.

Wireless Networking Security *Which type of encryption does CCMP use?* a. EAP b. DES c. AES d. IV

c. *AES* CCMP uses 128-bit AES encryption.

Security and Vulnerability in the Network *The goal of _____ is to minimize the possibility of exploitation by reducing the amount of code and limiting potential damage.* a. EAPOL b. EAP c. ASR d. 802.1X

c. *ASR* The goal of attack surface reduction (ASR) is to minimize the possibility of exploitation by reducing the amount of code and limiting potential damage.

Cryptography Basics *Which of the following terms refers to the prevention of unauthorized disclosure of keys?* a. Authentication b. Integrity c. Access control d. Non-repudiation

c. *Access control* Access control refers to the process of ensuring that sensitive keys aren't divulged to unauthorized personnel.

*Which of the following is an example of role-based access control criteria?* a. GPS coordinates b. Trusted OS c. Members of the Administrators group d. Time of day

c. *Members of the Administrators group* Role-based access control involves assignment of access rights to groups associated with specific roles, with accounts inheriting rights based on group membership. Answers A and B are incorrect, as requirements for access only from specific locations or only from systems running a trusted OS are examples of rule-based access controls. Time of day restrictions are also rule-based access controls, making answer D incorrect.

*Which of the following is a description of a key-stretching technique?* a. Salting input before hashing b. Generating a random number, and then using a trapdoor one-way function to derive a related key c. Adding iterative computations that increase the effort involved in creating the improved result d. Using a challenge-response dialogue

c. *Adding iterative computations that increase the effort involved in creating the improved result* Often, key stretching involves adding iterative computations that increase the effort involved in creating the improved key result, usually by several orders of magnitude. Salting input before hashing is a means to increase password security against brute-force attacks. Generating a random number and then using a trapdoor one-way function to derive a related key is the process of creating an asymmetric key pair set. Using a challenge-response dialogue is the basis of CHAP authentication.

*Which of the following is an example of a false negative result?* a. An authorized user is granted access to a resource. b. An unauthorized user is granted access to a resource. c. An authorized user is refused access to a resource. d. An unauthorized user is refused access to a resource.

c. *An authorized user is refused access to a resource.* A false negative result involves access refusal for an authorized user, which makes answer D incorrect. Answers A and B are incorrect because they represent granted resource access.

Infrastructure and Connectivity *When troubleshooting SSL, which two layers of the OSI model are of most value?* a. Application layer and presentation layer b. Presentation layer and session layer c. Application layer and transport layer d. Physical layer and data link layer

c. *Application layer and transport layer* SSL connections occur between the application and transport layers. Answer A is incorrect because SSL operates at a deeper level. Answer B is incorrect because the Secure Sockets Layer transport effectively fills the same role as these OSI model layers. Answer D is incorrect because the data has been abstracted beyond the level at which SSL operates.

*Which of the following would be used to detect unauthorized or unintentional access or escalation of privileges?* a. Change management b. Incident management c. Auditing d. Data-loss prevention

c. *Auditing* Auditing is used to detect unauthorized or unintentional access or escalation of privileges. Answer A is incorrect because change management provides specific details when system changes are made, such as the files being replaced, the configuration being changed, or the machines or operating systems affected. Answer B is incorrect because incident management includes preparation, roles, rules, and procedures for incident response and how to maintain business continuity while defending against further attacks. Answer D is incorrect because DLP is a way of detecting and preventing confidential data from being exfiltrated physically or logically from an organization by accident or on purpose. Auditing is used to prevent unauthorized or unintentional access or escalation of privileges.

*Which of the three principles of security is supported by an offsite tape backup system?* a. Confidentiality b. Integrity c. Availability d. Sanitization

c. *Availability* Availability is concerned with ensuring that access to services and data is protected against disruption, including disasters and other events that could require recovering from offsite backup media. Answer A is incorrect because confidentiality involves protecting against unauthorized access. Integrity is concerned with preventing unauthorized modification, making Answer B incorrect. Answer D is incorrect because sanitization involves the destruction or overwriting of data to protect confidentiality.

*What communications technique can a hacker use to identity the product that is running on an open port facing the Internet?* a. Credentialed penetration test b. Intrusive vulnerability scan c. Banner grabbing d. Port scanning

c. *Banner grabbing* Banner grabbing is the communications technique a hacker can use to identify the product that is running on an open port facing the Internet.

Educating and Protecting the User *An NDA (nondisclosure agreement) is typically signed by?* a. Alpha testers b. Customers c. Beta testers d. Focus groups

c. *Beta testers* An NDA (nondisclosure agreement) is typically signed by beta testers.

*Which of the following describes a type of algorithm where data is broken into several units of varying sizes (dependent on algorithm) and encryption is applied to those chunks of data?* a. Symmetric encryption algorithm b. Elliptic curve c. Block cipher d. All of the above

c. *Block cipher* When data that is going to be encrypted is broken into chunks of data and then encrypted, the type of encryption is called a block cipher. Although many symmetric algorithms use a block cipher, answer A is incorrect because block cipher is a more precise and accurate term for the given question. Answer B is incorrect because elliptic curve is a type of asymmetric encryption algorithm. Answer D is an incorrect choice because only one answer is correct.

*Which type of power variation includes short-term decreases in voltage levels?* a. Spikes b. Surges c. Brownouts d. Blackouts

c. *Brownouts* A brownout is a short-term decrease in voltage, often occurring when motors are started or due to provider faults. Both spikes and surges are increases of voltage, making answers A and B incorrect. Blackouts involve a complete loss of power rather than simply a reduction of voltage, making answer D incorrect.

Access Control and Identity Management *To check the validity of a digital certificate, which one of the following would be used?* a. Corporate security policy b. Certificate policy c. Certificate revocation list d. Expired domain names

c. *Certificate revocation list* A certificate revocation list (CRL) provides a detailed list of certificates that are no longer valid. A corporate security policy would not provide current information on the validity of issued certificates; therefore, answer A is incorrect. A certificate policy does not provide information on invalid issued certificates, either; therefore, answer B is incorrect. Finally, an expired domain name has no bearing on the validity of a digital certificate; therefore, answer D is incorrect.

Cryptography Implementation *A certificate authority (CA) is an organization that is responsible for issuing, revoking, and distributing:* a. Tokens b. Licenses c. Certificates d. Tickets

c. *Certificates* A certificate authority (CA) is an organization that is responsible for issuing, revoking, and distributing certificates.

Measuring and Weighing Risk *Which of the following is the structured approach that is followed to secure the company's assets?* a. Asset management b. Incident management c. Change management d. Skill management

c. *Change management* Change management is the structured approach that is followed to secure the company's assets.

*What statement accurately describes a best practice for managing a virtual LAN (VLAN)?* a. Configure empty switch ports to connect to a used VLAN. b. Keep all default VLAN names. c. Configure the ports on the switch that pass tagged VLAN packets to explicitly forward specific tags. d. Configure VLANs so that public devices are on a private VLAN.

c. *Configure the ports on the switch that pass tagged VLAN packets to explicitly forward specific tags.* Some general principles for managing VLANs are: (1) Configure empty switch ports to connect to an unused VLAN (2) Change any default VLAN names (3) Configure the ports on the switch that pass tagged VLAN packets to explicitly forward specific tags (4) Configure VLANs so that public devices, such as a web application server, are not on a private VLAN, forcing users to have access to that VLAN.

Disaster Recovery and Incident Response *Which of the following would normally not be part of an incident response policy?* a. Outside agencies (that require status) b. Outside experts (to resolve the incident) c. Contingency plans d. Evidence collection procedures

c. *Contingency plans* A contingency plan wouldn't normally be part of an incident response policy. It would be part of a disaster-recovery plan.

*What is a security risk of an embedded system that is not commonly found in a standard PC?* a. Power loss b. Access to the Internet c. Control of a mechanism in the physical world d. Software flaws

c. *Control of a mechanism in the physical world* Because an embedded system is in control of a mechanism in the physical world, a security breach could cause harm to people and property. This typically is not true of a standard PC. Power loss, Internet access, and software flaws are security risks of both embedded systems and standard PCs.

*The encryption protocol used for WPA2 is the _______________.* a. Triple DES b. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) c. Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol (CCMP) d. Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP)

c. *Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol (CCMP)* The encryption protocol used for WPA2 is the Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol (CCMP) and specifies the use of CCM (a general purpose cipher mode algorithm providing data privacy) with AES.

Threats and Vulnerabilities *Which of the following types of attacks is executed by placing malicious executable code on a website?* a. Buffer overflow b. Cross-site request forgery (XSRF) c. Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) d. Input validation error

c. *Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)* Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) vulnerabilities can be used to hijack the user's session or to cause the user accessing malware-tainted Site A to unknowingly attack Site B on behalf of the attacker who planted code on Site A. Answer A is incorrect because a buffer overflow is a direct result of poor or incorrect input validation or mishandled exceptions. Answer B is incorrect. The key element to understanding XSRF is that attackers are betting that users have a validated login cookie for the website already stored in their browsers. Answer D is incorrect because input validation errors are a result of improper field checking in the code.

Cryptography Implementation *Which of the following is not one of the four main types of trust models used with PKI?* a. Hierarchical b. Bridge c. Custom d. Mesh e. Hybrid

c. *Custom* The four main types of trust models used with PKI are hierarchical, bridge, mesh, and hybrid. Custom is not one of the main PKI trust models.

Threats and Vulnerabilities *Which of the following is a coordinated effort in which multiple machines attack a single victim or host with the intent to prevent legitimate service?* a. DoS b. Masquerading c. DDoS d. Trojan horse

c. *DDoS* A distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack is similar to a denial-of-service (DoS) attack in that they both try to prevent legitimate access to services. However, a DDoS attack is a coordinated effort among many computer systems; therefore, answer A is incorrect. Masquerading involves using someone else's identity to access resources; therefore, answer B is incorrect. A Trojan horse is a program used to perform hidden functions; therefore, answer D is incorrect.

*llegal or unauthorized zone transfers are a significant and direct threat to what type of network server?* a. Web b. DHCP c. DNS d. Database

c. *DNS* Illegal or unauthorized zone transfers are a significant and direct threat to DNS servers.

Protecting Networks *Which type of active response fools the attacker into thinking the attack is succeeding while the system monitors the activity and potentially redirects the attacker to a system that is designed to be broken?* a. Pretexting b. Shamming c. Deception d. Scamming

c. *Deception* A deception active response fools the attacker into thinking the attack is succeeding while the system monitors the activity and potentially redirects the attacker to a system that is designed to be broken.

*Which protocol is a TCP/IP protocol that resolves (maps) a symbolic name (www.cengage.com) with its corresponding IP address (69.32.133.11)?* a. Internet protocol (IP) b. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) c. Domain Name System (DNS) d. Hypertext Transport Protocol Secure (HTTPS)

c. *Domain Name System (DNS)* The Domain Name System (DNS) is a TCP/IP protocol that resolves (maps) a symbolic name (www.cengage.com) with its corresponding IP address (69.32.133.11).

Security-Related Policies and Procedures *Which type of policy would govern whether employees can engage in practices such as taking gifts from vendors?* a. Termination policy b. Endowment policy c. Ethics policy d. Benefit policy

c. *Ethics policy* An ethics policy is the written policy governing accepted organizational ethics.

*Which type of biometric authentication system is not subject to false rejection due to illness or minor injury?* a. Fingerprint b. Voiceprint c. Facial recognition d. Retina

c. *Facial recognition* Facial recognition systems measure relative spacing between underlying features such as the bone structure and eye placement, requiring more than a minor injury to modify this biometric signature. Fingerprint signatures can be modified by minor cuts, abrasions, and exposure to chemicals, making answer A incorrect. Both voiceprint and retinal signatures can be modified due to illness and injury, making answers B and D incorrect.

Disaster Recovery and Incident Response *The process of automatically switching from a malfunctioning system to another system is called what?* a. Fail safe b. Redundancy c. Fail-over d. Hot site

c. *Fail-over* Fail-over occurs when a system that is developing a malfunction automatically switches processes to another system to continue operations.

*What is a potential concern to weaker encryption algorithms as time goes on? (Select the best answer.)* a. Performance of the algorithm worsens over time b. Keys generated by users start to repeat on other users' systems c. Hackers using distributed computing might be able to finally crack algorithms. d. All options are correct.

c. *Hackers using distributed computing might be able to finally crack algorithms.* As computers get faster, so does the ability for hackers to use distributed computing as a method of breaking encryption algorithms. With computer performance, in some cases, increasing by 30% to 50% a year on average, this could become a concern for some older algorithms. Answer A is incorrect because weak keys exhibit regularities, and the weakness has nothing to do with performance. Answer B is incorrect because the weakness in keys comes from a block cipher regularity in the encryption of secret keys. The keys do not repeat themselves on other machines. Answer D is incorrect because there is only one correct answer.

*What type of algorithm is SHA-1?* a. Asymmetric encryption algorithm b. Digital signature c. Hashing algorithm d. Certificate authority

c. *Hashing algorithm* SHA-1 is a cryptographic hash function and is an updated version of the original Secure Hash Algorithm (SHA). Answer A is incorrect because this is an algorithm that uses a public and private key pair and is not associated with SHA-1. Answer B is incorrect because a digital signature is not an encryption algorithm. Answer D is incorrect because a certificate authority accepts or revokes certificates.

Operating System and Application Security *Which of the following will help track changes to the environment when an organization needs to keep legacy machines?* a. Virtualization b. Network storage policies c. Host software baselining d. Roaming profiles

c. *Host software baselining* Host software baselining can be done for a variety of reasons including malware monitoring and creating system images. Generally, the environment needs of an organization will fall into a legacy, enterprise, or high-security client. Answer A is incorrect because virtualization adds a layer of security as well as improves enterprise desktop management and control with faster deployment of desktops and fewer support calls due to application conflicts. Answer B is incorrect because network storage policies have nothing to do with desktop management. Answer D is incorrect because roaming profiles do not add a layer of security.

*Which protocol uses TLS and SSL to secure Hypertext Transport Protocol (HTTP) communications between a browser and a web server?* a. FTP Secure (FTPS) b. Secure Shell (SSH) c. Hypertext Transport Protocol Secure (HTTPS) d. Internet Protocol Security (IPsec)

c. *Hypertext Transport Protocol Secure (HTTPS)* One common use of TLS and SSL is to secure Hypertext Transport Protocol (HTTP) communications between a browser and a web server. This secure version is actually "plain" HTTP sent over SSL or TLS and is called Hypertext Transport Protocol Secure (HTTPS).

*In a(n) _______________ attack, an Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) redirect packet is sent to the victim that asks the host to send its packets to another "router," which is actually a malicious device.* a. network discovery b. smurf c. ICMP redirect d. ping of death

c. *ICMP redirect* In an Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) redirect attack, an ICMP redirect packet is sent to the victim that asks the host to send its packets to another "router," which is actually a malicious device.

Infrastructure and Connectivity *You're the administrator for Mercury Technical. A check of protocols in use on your server brings up one that you weren't aware was in use; you suspect that someone in HR is using it to send messages to multiple recipients. Which of the following protocols is used for group messages or multicast messaging?* a. SMTP b. SNMP c. IGMP d. L2TP

c. *IGMP* IGMP is used for group messaging and multicasting. IGMP maintains a list of systems that belong to a message group. When a message is sent to a particular group, each system receives an individual copy.

Infrastructure and Connectivity *You're explaining protocols to a junior administrator shortly before you leave for vacation. The topic of Internet mail applications comes up, and you explain how communications are done now as well as how you expect them to be done in the future. Which of the following protocols is becoming the newest standard for Internet mail applications?* a. SMTP b. POP c. IMAP d. IGMP

c. *IMAP* IMAP is becoming the most popular standard for email clients and is replacing POP protocols for mail systems. IMAP allows mail to be forwarded and stored in information areas called stores.

*You have been tasked with mitigating the risk of password-based attacks. Which of the following should you consider to provide a control beyond just what someone knows?* a. Enforce complex passwords b. Prevent the user from entering more than three incorrect passwords c. Implement use of a one-time use token d. A and B

c. *Implement use of a one-time use token* Although both A and B provide controls for passwords, they are still both based on something the user knows: a password. A one-time use token can be a dedicated hardware token or may be a software token or text message on a mobile device. This would be an example of something the user has (for example, a hardware token or registered mobile device). Answer D is incorrect.

Access Control and Identity Management *What is implied at the end of each access control list?* a. Least privilege b. Separation of duties c. Implicit deny d. Explicit allow

c. *Implicit deny* An implicit deny clause is implied at the end of each ACL, and it means that if the proviso in question has not been explicitly granted, then it is denied.

* _______________ in access control means that if a condition is not explicitly met, the request for access is rejected.* a. Static allow b. Explicit allow c. Implicit deny d. Dynamic deny

c. *Implicit deny* Implicit deny in access control means that if a condition is not explicitly met, the request for access is rejected. (Implicit means that something is implied or indicated but not actually expressed.)

Cryptography Basics *MAC is an acronym for what as it relates to cryptography?* a. Media access control b. Mandatory access control c. Message authentication code d. Multiple advisory committees

c. *Message authentication code* A MAC as it relates to cryptography is a method of verifying the integrity of an encrypted message. The MAC is derived from the message and the key.

*An organization has an access control list implemented on the border router, but it appears that unauthorized traffic is still being accepted. Which of the following would the organization implement to improve the blocking of unauthorized traffic?* a. Loop protection b. Flood guard c. Implicit deny d. Port security

c. *Implicit deny* Implicit deny is an access control practice wherein resource availability is restricted to only those logons explicitly granted access. Answer A is incorrect because the loop protection feature makes additional checks in Layer 2 switched networks. Answer B is incorrect because a flood guard is a firewall feature to control network activity associated with denial-of-service (DoS) attacks. Answer D is incorrect because port security is a Layer 2 traffic control feature on Cisco Catalyst switches. It enables individual switch ports to be configured to allow only a specified number of source MAC addresses coming in through the port.

Security and Vulnerability in the Network *Your organization is exploring endpoint data-loss prevention (DLP) solutions. This solution is targeting which of the following data states?* a. In-transit b. At-rest c. In-use d. In-flux

c. *In-use* Protection of data in-use is considered to be an endpoint solution and the application is run on end user workstations or servers in the organization. Answer A is incorrect because protection of data in-transit is considered to be a network solution and either a hardware or software solution is installed near the network perimeter to monitor for and flag policy violations. Answer B is incorrect because protection of data at-rest is considered to be a storage solution and is generally a software solution that monitors how confidential data is stored. Answer D is incorrect because there is no such data state.

*Buffer overflows, format string vulnerabilities, and utilization of shell-escape codes can be mitigated by which of the following practices?* a. Fuzzing b. Testing c. Input validation d. Browser initiated token request

c. *Input validation* Input validation tests whether an application properly handles input from a source outside the application destined for internal processing. Answer A is incorrect because fuzzing allows an attacker to inject random-looking data into a program to see if it can cause the program to crash. Answer B is incorrect because testing is too generic or a term. Answer D is incorrect because it is a method used to mitigate Cross-site request forgery (XSRF) attacks.

Network Security *Which option for installing a corporate spam filter is considered to be the most effective approach?* a. Install the spam filter on the Domain Name Server (DNS). b. Install the spam filter on the Post Office Protocol (POP3) server. c. Install the spam filter with the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) server. d. Contract with a third-party entity that filters out spam.

c. *Install the spam filter with the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) server.* Installing the spam filter with the SMTP serve is the simplest and most effective approach.

Network Security *Which statement concerning behavior-based monitoring is correct? * a. It is necessary to update signature files before monitoring can take place. b. It is necessary to compile a baseline of statistical behavior before monitoring can take place. c. It can more quickly stop new attacks as compared to anomaly- and behavior-based monitoring. d. Behavior-based monitoring operates in a reactive mode.

c. *It can more quickly stop new attacks as compared to anomaly- and behavior-based monitoring.* One of the advantages of behavior-based monitoring is that it is not necessary to update signature files or compile a baseline of statistical behavior before monitoring can take place. In addition, behavior-based monitoring can more quickly stop new attacks.

*When should a key or certificate be renewed?* a. Every year b. Every quarter c. Just before it expires d. Just after it expires

c. *Just before it expires* Keys and certificates should be renewed just before they expire. All the other choices are incorrect.

*Digital signatures can be created using all but which of the following?* a. Asymmetric cryptography b. Hashing c. Key escrow d. Symmetric cryptography

c. *Key escrow* Key escrow isn't used in digital signatures, but it's a fault-tolerance feature of certificate and key management. Asymmetric and symmetric cryptography along with hashing are used in digital signatures.

Cryptography Implementation *Key management includes all of the following stages/areas except:* a. Centralized versus decentralized key generation b. Key storage and distribution c. Key locking d. Key escrow e. Key expiration

c. *Key locking* Key management includes centralized versus decentralized key generation, key storage and distribution, key escrow, and key expiration. Key locking is not a part of key management.

Cryptography Basics *What is the primary organization for maintaining certificates called?* a. CA b. RA c. LRA d. CRL

c. *LRA* A Certificate Revocation List (CRL) is created and distributed to all CAs to revoke a certificate or key.

Measuring and Weighing Risk *Which of the following policies should be used when assigning permissions, giving users only the permissions they need to do their work and no more?* a. Separation of duties b. Acceptable use c. Least privilege d. Physical access control

c. *Least privilege* The principle of least privilege should be used when assigning permissions. Give users only the permissions they need to do their work and no more.

Disaster Recovery and Incident Response *Which of the following is the measure of the anticipated incidence of failure for a system or component?* a. CIBR b. AIFS c. MTBF d. MTTR

c. *MTBF* Mean time between failures (MTBF) is the measure of the anticipated incidence of failure for a system or component.

*Which type of risk control is administrative in nature and includes the laws, regulations, policies, practices, and guidelines that govern overall requirements and controls?* a. Technical b. System c. Management d. Operational

c. *Management* Management risk control types are administrative in their nature and are the laws, regulations, policies, practices, and guidelines that govern the overall requirements and controls.

Cryptography Implementation *Which of the following is an attack against the algorithm?* a. Birthday attack b. Weak key attack c. Mathematical attack d. Registration attack

c. *Mathematical attack* A mathematical attack is an attack against the algorithm.

Security-Related Policies and Procedures *On a Linux-based system, which account is equivalent to the administrator account in Windows?* a. Auditor b. Supervisor c. Root d. Master

c. *Root* The root user in Linux is equivalent to the administrator user in Windows.

*Which of the following is a security concern when implementing NoSQL databases?* a. NoSQL databases do not provide any authentication mechanisms. b. The NoSQL design uses server-side validation. c. NoSQL databases lack confidentiality and integrity. d. NoSQL databases are lacking in areas of scalability and performance.

c. *NoSQL databases lack confidentiality and integrity.* The NoSQL design does not place security as a high priority, lacking confidentiality and integrity. Answer A is incorrect because NoSQL databases such as MongoDB have added support for Kerberos authentication, more granular access controls, and SSL encryption. Answer B is incorrect because server-side validation helps protect against malicious attempts by a user to bypass validation or submit unsafe input and it is associated with web-based applications not databases. Answer D is incorrect because when compared to relational databases, NoSQL systems are more scalable and provide superior performance. Scalability and performance are not security concerns.

*The most commonly overlooked aspect of mobile phone eavesdropping is related to _____.* a. Wireless networking b. Storage device encryption c. Overhearing conversations d. Screen locks

c. *Overhearing conversations* The most commonly overlooked aspect of mobile phone eavesdropping is related to people in the vicinity overhearing conversations (at least one side of them). Organizations frequently consider and address issues of wireless networking, storage device encryption, and screen locks.

Cryptography Basics *What is the acronym for the de facto cryptographic message standards developed by RSA Laboratories?* a. PKIX b. X.509 c. PKCS d. Both A and C

c. *PKCS* The Public Key Cryptography Standards (PKCS) are the de facto cryptographic message standards developed and maintained by RSA Laboratories, the Security Division of EMC. PKIX describes the development of Internet standards for X.509-based digital certificates; therefore, answers A, B, and D are incorrect.

Operating System and Application Security *What is the process of applying manual changes to a program called?* a. Hotfix b. Service pack c. Patching d. Replacement

c. *Patching* A patch is a temporary workaround of a bug or problem in code that is applied manually. Complete programs usually replace patches at a later date.

*Security guards are a form of which specific type of control?* a. Management b. Technical c. Physical d. Access

c. *Physical* Physical controls include facility design details such as layout, door, locks, guards, and surveillance systems. Management controls include policies and procedures, whereas technical controls include access control systems, encryption, and data classification solutions, making answers A and B incorrect. Access controls include all three classifications (management, technical, and physical), making Answer D incorrect because the question asks for a specific type.

Protecting Networks *In order for network monitoring to work properly, you need a PC and a network card running in what mode?* a. Launch b. Exposed c. Promiscuous d. Sweep

c. *Promiscuous* In order for network monitoring to work properly, you need a PC and a network card running in promiscuous mode.

*Which of the following is the best measure to prevent divulging sensitive information through dumpster diving? (Select two correct answers.)* a. A firewall b. Antivirus software c. Proper disposal policy d. Training and awareness

c. *Proper disposal policy* d. *Training and awareness* Dumpster diving describes a physical means of acquiring sensitive data, often by digging through discarded material. A policy that clearly describes an organization's stance on proper disposal of data and equipment along with user training and awareness are key measures that should be taken to prevent the disclosure of sensitive data through dumpster diving. Answers A and B are incorrect and cannot prevent a physical attack on materials.

*Which utility allows the identification of all devices conducting network traffic both to and from a network segment?* a. Port scanner b. Vulnerability scanner c. Protocol analyzer d. Network mapper

c. *Protocol analyzer* Protocol analyzers examine network traffic and identify protocols and endpoint devices in the identified transactions. Port scanners check service ports on a single device, making answer A incorrect. Answer B is incorrect because vulnerability scanners look for vulnerabilities associated with particular versions of software or services. Answer D is incorrect because a network mapper identifies all devices within a network segment and would not identify endpoint devices beyond that address space.

Access Control and Identity Management *Your office administrator is being trained to perform server backups. Which authentication method would be ideal for this situation?* a. MAC b. DAC c. RBAC d. Security tokens

c. *RBAC* Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) allows specific people to be assigned to specific roles with specific privileges. A backup operator would need administrative privileges to back up a server. This privilege would be limited to the role and wouldn't be present during the employee's normal job functions.

*What method of access control is best suited for environments with a high rate of employee turnover?* a. MAC b DAC c. RBAC d. ACL

c. *RBAC* Role-based access control (RBAC) is best suited for environments with a high rate of employee turnover because access is defined against static job descriptions rather than transitive user accounts (DAC and ACL) or assigned clearances (MAC).

Cryptography Basics *You're a member of a consortium wanting to create a new standard that will effectively end all spam. After years of meeting, the group has finally come across a solution and now wants to propose it. The process of proposing a new standard or method on the Internet is referred to by which acronym?* a. WBS b. X.509 c. RFC d. IEEE

c. *RFC* The Request for Comments (RFC) process allows all users and interested parties to comment on proposed standards for the Internet. The RFC editor manages the RFC process. The editor is responsible for cataloging, updating, and tracking RFCs through the process.

*Which of the following is a method that can be used to prevent data from being accessed in the event the device is lost or stolen?* a. GPS tracking b. Voice encryption c. Remote wipe d. Asset tracking

c. *Remote wipe* A remote wipe allows the handheld's data to be remotely deleted in the event the device is lost or stolen. Answer A is incorrect because in the event a mobile device is lost, GPS tracking can be used to find the location. Answer B is incorrect because mobile voice encryption can allow executives and employees alike to discuss sensitive information without having to travel to secure company locations. Answer D is incorrect because asset tracking is used for management of assets in the field so that the device location is known at all times.

*An organization that relies heavily on cloud and SaaS service providers, such as Salesforce.com, WebEx, and Google, would have security concerns when implementing which of the following?* a. TACACS+ b. Secure LDAP c. SAML d. XTACACS

c. *SAML* SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language) is an Extensible Markup Language (XML) framework for creating and exchanging security information between online partners. The weakness in the SAML identity chain is the integrity of users. To mitigate risk, SAML systems need to use timed sessions, HTTPS, and SSL/TLS. Answer A is incorrect because TACACS+ protocol provides authentication and authorization in addition to accounting of access requests against a centralized service for authorization of access requests. Answer B is incorrect because secure LDAP is a way to make LDAP traffic confidential and secure by using Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) / Transport Layer Security (TLS) technology. Answer D is incorrect because XTACACS is a proprietary version of the original TACACS protocol that was developed by Cisco.

*What mechanism is used to support the exchange of authentication and authorization details between systems, services, and devices?* a. Biometric b. Two-factor authentication c. SAML d. LDAP

c. *SAML* SAML is an open standard data format based on XML for the purpose of supporting the exchange of authentication and authorization details between systems, services, and devices. A biometric is an authentication factor, not a means of exchanging authentication information. Two-factor authentication is the use of two authentication factors. LDAP is a protocol used by directory services, not directly related to authentication.

*Which statement accurately describes Secure FTP (SFTP)?* a. SFTP is a combination of two technologies (FTP and SSL or TLS). b. SFTP uses two ports. c. SFTP is an entire protocol itself. d. SFTP encrypts and compresses only data, not commands.

c. *SFTP is an entire protocol itself.* There are several differences between Secure FTP (SFTP) and FTP Secure (FTPS). First, FTPS is a combination of two technologies (FTP and SSL or TLS), whereas SFTP is an entire protocol itself and is not pieced together with multiple parts. Second, SFTP uses only a single TCP port instead of two ports like FTPS. Finally, SFTP encrypts and compresses all data and commands (FTPS may not encrypt data).

Disaster Recovery and Incident Response *Which agreement outlines performance requirements for a vendor?* a. MTBF b. MTTR c. SLA d. BCP

c. *SLA* A service-level agreement (SLA) specifies performance requirements for a vendor. This agreement may use MTBF and MTTR as performance measures in the SLA.

*Which of the following services/protocols operate on port 22?* a. DNS b. HTTPS c. SSH d. RDP

c. *SSH* Secure Shell (SSH) operates on port 22. Answer A is incorrect because Domain Name Service (DNS) uses port 53. Answer B is incorrect because HTTPS uses port 443. Answer D is incorrect because Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) uses port 3389.

*Which of the following would be implemented for secure communications when the organization is using an application that authenticates with Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) through simple BIND?* a. TACACS+ b. SAML c. Secure LDAP d. XTACACS

c. *Secure LDAP* Reasons for enabling Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) over Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) / Transport Layer Security (TLS) also known as LDAPS, include protection of the authentication session when an application authenticates with Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) through simple BIND. Answer A is incorrect because the TACACS+ protocol provides authentication and authorization as well as accounting of access requests against a centralized service for authorization of access requests. Answer B is incorrect because SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language) is an Extensible Markup Language (XML) framework for creating and exchanging security information between online partners. Answer D is incorrect because XTACACS is a proprietary version of the original TACACS protocol that was developed by Cisco.

*Which common cryptographic transport algorithm was developed by Netscape in 1994 in response to the growing concern over Internet security?* a. Hypertext Transport Protocol Secure (HTTPS) b. Secure Shell (SSH) c. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) d. Transport Layer Security (TLS)

c. *Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)* One of the most common cryptographic transport algorithms is Secure Sockets Layer (SSL). This protocol was developed by Netscape in 1994 in response to the growing concern over Internet security.

*What is a written document that states how an organization plans to protect the company's information technology assets?* a. Privacy notice b. Acceptable use c. Security policy d. Data insurance

c. *Security policy* A security policy is a written document that states how an organization plans to protect the company's information technology assets.

Security and Vulnerability in the Network *The approach a business takes to security is known as its:* a. Rule-based management b. Network bridging c. Security posture d. Assessment technique

c. *Security posture* The security posture is the approach a business takes to security.

Operating System and Application Security *What is the term used when the item used to validate a user's session, such as a cookie, is stolen and used by another to establish a session with a host that thinks it is still communicating with the first party?* a. Patch infiltration b. XML injection c. Session hijacking d. DTB exploitation

c. *Session hijacking* Session hijacking occurs when the item used to validate a user's session, such as a cookie, is stolen and used by another to establish a session with a host that thinks it is still communicating with the first party.

*An organization has a high-speed fiber Internet connection that it uses for most of its daily operations, as well as its offsite backup operations. This represents what security problem?* a. Single point of failure b. Redundant connections c. Backup generator d. Offsite backup storage

c. *Single point of failure* Having only a single high-speed fiber Internet connection represents the security problem of a single point of failure.

*Federation is a means to accomplish _____.* a. Accountability logging b. ACL verification c. Single sign-on d. Trusted OS hardening

c. *Single sign-on* Federation or federated identity is a means of linking a subject's accounts from several sites, services, or entities in a single account. Thus it is a means to accomplish single sign-on. Accountability logging is used to relate digital activities to humans. ACL verification is a means to verify that correct permissions are assigned to subjects. Trusted OS hardening is the removal of unneeded components and securing the remaining elements.

*In the _______________ model, the cloud computing vendor provides access to the vendor's software applications running on a cloud infrastructure.* a. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) b. Application as a Service (AaaS) c. Software as a Service (SaaS) d. Platform as a Service (PaaS)

c. *Software as a Service (SaaS)* In the Software as a Service (SaaS) model, the cloud computing vendor provides access to the vendor's software applications running on a cloud infrastructure. These applications, which can be accessed through a web browser, do not require any installation, configuration, upgrading, or management from the user.

Cryptography Basics *Kristin, from Payroll, has left the office on maternity leave and won't return for at least six weeks. You've been instructed to suspend her key. Which of the following statements is true?* a. In order to be used, suspended keys must be revoked. b. Suspended keys don't expire. c. Suspended keys can be reactivated. d. Suspending keys is a bad practice.

c. *Suspended keys can be reactivated.* Suspending keys is a good practice: It disables a key, making it unusable for a certain period of time. This can prevent the key from being used while someone is gone. The key can be reactivated when that person returns.

*Which of the following is a hardware solution typically attached to the circuit board of the system used for greater security protection for processes such as digital signing, mission-critical applications, and businesses where high security is required?* a. Full disk encryption b. HSM c. TPM d. File-level encryption

c. *TPM* At the most basic level, a trusted platform module (TPM) provides for the secure storage of keys, passwords, and digital certificates, and it is hardware based (typically attached to the circuit board of the system). Answer A is incorrect because full disk encryption is a software solution and is most useful when you're dealing with a machine that is being taken on the road by people such as traveling executives, sales managers, or insurance agents. Answer B is incorrect because a hardware security module (HSM) can be described as black box combination hardware and software/firmware that is attached or contained inside a computer used to provide cryptographic functions for tamper protection and increased performance. Answer D is incorrect because in file- or folder-level encryption, individual files or folders are encrypted by the file system itself.

*Which statement accurately describes an access control list characteristic?* a. Access control lists are efficient. b. Access control lists are simple to manage in an enterprise setting. c. The structure behind an access control list table can be complex. d. Access control lists are used extensively with UNIX systems but not on Windows operating systems.

c. *The structure behind an access control list table can be complex.* Although access control lists (ACLs) can be associated with any type of object, these lists are most often viewed in relation to files maintained by the operating system. ACLs have limitations. First, using ACLs is not efficient. Second, they can be difficult to manage in an enterprise setting where many users need to have different levels of access to many different resources. Note that the structure behind ACL tables can be complex.

Threats and Vulnerabilities *_________ describes the potential that a weakness in hardware, software, process, or people will be identified and taken advantage of.* a. Vulnerability b. Exploit c. Threat d. Risk

c. *Threat* A threat is the potential that a vulnerability will be identified and exploited. Answer A is incorrect because a vulnerability is the weakness itself and not the likelihood that it will be identified and exploited. Answer B is incorrect because an exploit is the mechanism of taking advantage of a vulnerability rather than its likelihood of occurrence. Answer D is incorrect because risk is the likelihood that a threat will occur and the measure of its effect.

*What mechanism of loop protection is based on an element in a protocol header?* a. Spanning Tree Protocol b. Ports c. Time to live d. Distance vector protocols

c. *Time to live* Time to live (TTL) is a value in the IP header used to prevent loops at Layer 3.

*Which of the following standards ensures privacy between communicating applications and clients on the Web and has been designed to replace SSL?* a. Secure Sockets Layer 4 b. Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol c. Transport Layer Security d. Internet Protocol Security

c. *Transport Layer Security* Transport Layer Security (TLS) is a network protocol that replaces Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) to provide communication security over networks. Answer A is incorrect, as such a thing was never developed. Answers B and D are incorrect as these describe methods for implementing VPNs and are were not designed to replace SSL.

Cryptography Implementation *A hierarchical trust model is also known as a:* a. Bush b. Branch c. Tree d. Limb

c. *Tree* A hierarchical trust model is also known as a tree.

*Which protocol is often used for the automated transfer of configuration files between devices?* a. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) b. Secure Copy Protocol (SCP) c. Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) d. Secure FTP (SFTP)

c. *Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)* A "light" version of File Transfer Protocol (FTP) known as Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) uses a small amount of memory but has limited functionality. It is often used for the automated transfer of configuration files between devices.

Physical and Hardware-Based Security *You've been drafted for the safety committee. One of your first tasks is to inventory all the fire extinguishers and make certain the correct types are in the correct locations throughout the building. Which of the following categories of fire extinguisher is intended for use on electrical fires?* a. Type A b. Type B c. Type C d. Type D

c. *Type C* Type C fire extinguishers are intended for use in electrical fires.

Security-Related Policies and Procedures *A periodic security audit of which of the following can help determine whether privilege-granting processes are appropriate and whether computer usage and escalation processes are in place and working?* a. Event logs b. User account and ldp settings c. User access and rights review d. System security log files

c. *User access and rights review* A periodic security audit of user access and rights review can help determine whether privilege-granting processes are appropriate and whether computer usage and escalation processes are in place and working.

Wireless Networking Security *Which of the following is not one of the three transmission technologies used to communicate in the 802.11 standard?* a. DSSS b. FHSS c. VITA d. OFDM

c. *VITA* The three technologies available for use with the 802.11 standard are DSSS (direct-sequence spread spectrum), FHSS (frequency-hopping spread spectrum), and OFDM (orthogonal frequency division multiplexing). VITA (Volunteer Income Tax Assistance) is not a wireless transmission technology.

*You are setting up a switched network in which each department requires a logical separation. Which of the following meets these requirements?* a. DMZ b. VPN c. VLAN d. NAT

c. *VLAN* The purpose of a VLAN is to unite network nodes logically into the same broadcast domain regardless of their physical attachment to the network. Answer A is incorrect because a DMZ is a small network between the internal network and the Internet that provides a layer of security and privacy. Answer B is incorrect because a virtual private network (VPN) is a network connection that allows you access via a secure tunnel created through an Internet connection. Answer D is incorrect because NAT acts as a liaison between an internal network and the Internet.

* A switch can be used to prevent broadcast storms between connected systems through the use of what?* a. SSL b. S/MIME c. VLANs d. LDAP

c. *VLANs* Switches can create VLANs. Broadcast storms aren't transmitted between one VLAN and another.

*If Bob wants to send a secure message to Val using public key encryption without sender validation, what does Val need?* a. Bob's private key b. Bob's public key c. Val's private key d. Val's public key

c. *Val's private key* Val needs her own private key to decrypt the message Bob encrypted with her public key. Neither of Bob's keys is needed because the originator does not need to be validated, making Answers A and B incorrect. Answer D is incorrect because Val's public key is used to encrypting the original message before transmission.

Wireless Networking Security *You're outlining your plans for implementing a wireless network to upper management. Suddenly, a paranoid vice president brings up the question of security. Which protocol was designed to provide security to a wireless network and can be considered equivalent to the security of a wired network?* a. WAP b. WTLS c. WPA2 d. IR

c. *WPA2* Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA2) was intended to provide security that's equivalent to the security on a wired network and implements elements of the 802.11i standard.

*A pirated movie-sharing service was discovered operating on company equipment. Administrators do not know who planted the service or who the users are. What technique could be used to attempt to trace the identity of the users?* a. Typo squatting b. Integer overflow c. Watering hole attack d. Ransomware

c. *Watering hole attack* A watering hole attack could be used to plant phone-home-to-identity malware on the systems of subsequent visitors.

*TCP/IP uses its own _______________ architecture that corresponds generally to the OSI reference model.* a. two-layer b. three-layer c. four-layer d. seven-layer

c. *four-layer* TCP/IP uses its own four-layer architecture that includes Network Interface, Internet, Transport, and Application layers. This corresponds generally to the OSI reference model.

*Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE) encapsulates Fibre Channel _______________ over Ethernet networks.* a. headers b. addresses c. frames d. packets

c. *frames* A variation of FC is Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE) that encapsulates Fibre Channel frames over Ethernet networks. This allows Fibre Channel to use fast Ethernet networks while preserving the Fibre Channel protocol.

*Which of the following is a common storage networking standard chosen by businesses for ease of installation, cost, and utilization of current Ethernet networks?* a. Fibre Channel b. FTP c. iSCSI d. HTTPS

c. *iSCSI* Businesses choose Internet Small Computer System Interface (iSCSI) due to ease of installation, cost, and utilization of current Ethernet networks. Answer A is incorrect. Fibre Channel infrastructure generally is more costly and complex to manage due to the separate network switching infrastructure. Answer B is incorrect. FTP servers provide user access to upload or download files between client systems and a networked FTP server. Answer D is incorrect because HTTPS is used for secured web-based communications.

*One of the best practices for access control is _______________, which requires that if the fraudulent application of a process might potentially result in a breach of security, the process should be divided between two or more individuals.* a. job rotation b. mandatory vacation c. separation of duties d. least privilege

c. *separation of duties* Separation of duties requires that if the fraudulent application of a process could potentially result in a breach of security, the process should be divided between two or more individuals.

*Networks are usually segmented by using _______________ to divide the network into a hierarchy.* a. hubs b. routers c. switches d. proxies

c. *switches* Networks are usually segmented by using switches to divide the network into a hierarchy.

*The term risk _______________ refers to the act of shifting risk to a third party.* a. deterrence b. mitigation c. transference d. avoidance

c. *transference* Risk transference is the act of transferring the risk to a third party.

In an organization, the value of ________________ of information is especially high when it involves personal information about employees, customers, or patient.

confidentiality

Protecting Networks *Which IDS function evaluates data collected from sensors?* a. Operator b. Manager c. Alert d. Analyzer

d. *Analyzer* The analyzer function uses data sources from sensors to analyze and determine whether an attack is under way.

A(n) _______ filter is a software filter---technically not a firewall---that allows administrators to restrict access to content from within a network.

content

__________ management is an organization's set of planning and preparation efforts for dealing with potential human injury, emotional trauma, or loss of life as a result of a disaster.

crisis

__________________ is the premeditated, politically motivated attacks against information, computer systems, computer programs, and data that result in violence against noncombatant targets by subnational groups or clandestine agents.

cyberterrorism

Network Security *Which statement concerning a network intrusion detection system (NIDS) is correct?* a. A NIDS knows such information as the applications that are running as well as the underlying operating systems so that it can provide a higher degree of accuracy regarding potential attacks. b. Compared to a network intrusion prevention system (NIPS), a NIDS can more quickly take action to block and attack. c. A NIDS attempts prevent malicious attacks by stopping the attack. d. A NIDS has sensors that monitor the traffic entering and leaving a firewall, and reports back to the central device for analysis.

d. *A NIDS has sensors that monitor the traffic entering and leaving a firewall, and reports back to the central device for analysis.* A network intrusion prevention system (NIPS) is similar to a NIDS in that it monitors network traffic to immediately react to block a malicious attack. One of the major differences between a NIDS and a NIPS is its location. A NIDS has sensors that monitor the traffic entering and leaving a firewall, and reports back to the central device for analysis. A NIPS, on the other hand, would be located "in line" on the firewall itself. This can allow the NIPS to more quickly take action to block an attack.

*Which statement describes a limitation of Secure Copy Protocol (SCP)?* a. SCP can only operate in the Windows environment. b. SCP cannot encrypt commands. c. SCP is being replaced by Remote Copy Protocol (RCP). d. A file transfer cannot be interrupted and then resumed in the same session.

d. *A file transfer cannot be interrupted and then resumed in the same session.* Secure Copy Protocol (SCP) encrypts files and commands, yet has limitations. For example, a file transfer cannot be interrupted and then resumed in the same session; the session must be completely terminated and then restarted.

*What is the last step in the access control process?* a. Identification b. Authentication c. Authorization d. Access control

d. *Access control* Only after credentials have been provided, authenticated, and authorized will access control list (ACL) values be assigned based on explicit and inherited grant and denial constraints. Answer A is incorrect because identification involves only the presentation of credentials and not the requirement for verifying those credentials as valid. Answers B and C are incorrect because both authentication and authorization must occur before access control constraints can be applied to an access request.

Measuring and Weighing Risk *Which of the following policy statements should address who is responsible for ensuring that it is enforced?* a. Scope b. Exception c. Overview d. Accountability

d. *Accountability* The accountability policy statement should address who is responsible for ensuring that it is enforced.

*Which of the following is a security control type that is not usually associated with or assigned to a security guard?* a. Preventive b. Detective c. Corrective d. Administrative

d. *Administrative* A security guard is not an administrative control. A security guard can be considered a preventive, detective, and/or corrective control.

*Which one of the following is an indication that a system might contain spyware?* a. The system is slow, especially when browsing the Internet. b. It takes a long time for the Windows desktop to come up. c. Clicking a link does nothing or goes to an unexpected website. d. All of the above.

d. *All of the above.* Each of these represents common symptoms of a computer that has had spyware installed.

*Which of the following is included in hardening a host operating system?* a. A policy for antivirus updates b. A policy for remote wipe c. An efficient method to connect to remote sites d. An effective system for file-level security

d. *An effective system for file-level security* Hardening of the operating system includes planning against both accidental and directed attacks, such as the use of fault-tolerant hardware and software solutions. In addition, it is important to implement an effective system for file-level security, including encrypted file support and secured file system selection that allows the proper level of access control. Answer A is incorrect because it is a host protection measure, not an OS hardening measure. Answer B is incorrect because this is a feature associated with data security, not host hardening. Answer C is incorrect because this is a secure communication measure.

*Which of the following is the most useful when you're dealing with data that is stored in a shared cloud environment?* a. Full disk encryption b. File-level encryption c. Media-level encryption d. Application-level encryption

d. *Application-level encryption* In a cloud environment, application-level encryption is preferred because the data is encrypted by the application before being stored in the database or file system. The advantage is that it protects the data from the user all the way to storage. Answer A is incorrect because full disk encryption is most useful when you're dealing with a machine that is being taken on the road by people such as traveling executives, sales managers, or insurance agents. Answer B is incorrect because in file- or folder-level encryption, individual files or folders are encrypted by the file system itself. Answer C is incorrect because media encryption is used for USB flash drives, iPods, and other portable storage devices.

*Which of the following is not an example of the principles of influence used in social engineering attacks?* a. Authority b. Intimidation c. Scarcity and urgency d. Authenticity and authorization e. Trust

d. *Authenticity and authorization* Authenticity and authorization both relate to identity and access control and are not principle reasons for effectiveness as related to social engineering. Answers, A, B, C, and E are all legitimate principles and so are incorrect answers.

Access Control and Identity Management *Which of the following is a type of smart card issued by the Department of Defense as a general identification/authentication card for military personnel, contractors, and non-DoD employees?* a. PIV b. POV c. DLP d. CAC

d. *CAC* One type of smart card is the Common Access Card (CAC). These cards are issued by the Department of Defense as a general identification/authentication card for military personnel, contractors, and non-DoD employees.

*The security service that protects the secrecy of data, information, or resources is known as what?* a. Integrity b. Authentication c. Non-repudiation d. Confidentiality

d. *Confidentiality* The security service that protects the secrecy of data, information, or resources is known as confidentiality. Integrity protects the reliability and correctness of data. Authentication verifies the identity of the sender or receiver of a message. Non-repudiation prevents the sender of a message or the perpetrator of an activity from being able to deny that they sent the message or performed the activity.

Threats and Vulnerabilities *Which of the following is an attack in which the end user executes unwanted actions on a web application while he is currently authenticated?* a. Buffer overflow b. Input validation error c. Cross-site scripting d. Cross-site request forgery

d. *Cross-site request forgery* Cross-site request forgery (XSRF) is an attack in which the end user executes unwanted actions on a web application while he is currently authenticated. Answer A is incorrect because a buffer overflow is a direct result of poor or incorrect input validation or mishandled exceptions. Answer B is incorrect because input validation errors are a result of improper field checking in the code. Answer C is incorrect because Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) vulnerabilities can be used to hijack the user's session or to cause the user accessing malware-tainted Site A to unknowingly attack Site B on behalf of the attacker who planted code on Site A.

*In which of the following phases should code security first be implemented?* a. Testing b. Review c. Implementation d. Design

d. *Design* It is important that security is implemented from the very beginning. In the early design phase, potential threats to the application must be identified and addressed. Ways to reduce the associated risks must also be taken into consideration. Therefore, answers A, B, and C are incorrect.

*What item is considered to be the biggest obstacle to log management?* a. Offsite storage accessibility b. Very large volume of data c. Multiple devices generating logs d. Different log formats

d. *Different log formats* Perhaps the biggest obstacle to log management is that different devices record log information in different formats and even with different data captured. Combining multiple logs, each with a different format, can be a major challenge.

*A newer secure version of DNS known as _______________ allows DNS information to be digitally signed so that an attacker cannot forge DNS information.* a. Domain Name System Security (DNSS) b. Advanced Domain Name System (ADNS) c. Domain Name System2 (DNS2) d. Domain Name System Security Extensions (DNSSEC)

d. *Domain Name System Security Extensions (DNSSEC)* A newer secure version of DNS known as Domain Name System Security Extensions (DNSSEC) allows DNS information to be digitally signed so that an attacker cannot forge DNS information.

*Which form of fire suppression functions best in an Alaskan fire of burning metals?* a. Dry-pipe sprinkler b. Wet-pipe sprinkler c. Carbon dioxide d. Dry powder

d. *Dry powder* Combustible metal fires (Class D) require sodium chloride and copper-based dry powder extinguishers. Although dry-pipe would be preferable to wet-pipe sprinklers in regions that experience very low temperatures such as Alaska, water is only appropriate for wood, paper, and trash fires (Class A), making answers A and B incorrect. Answer C is incorrect because carbon dioxide and Halon extinguishers are useful for fires involving live electric wiring (Class C) and would not be used for burning metals.

*_______________ was created as a more secure alternative than the weak Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) and Password Authentication Protocol (PAP).* a. Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) b. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) c. Protected EAP (PEAP) d. Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)

d. *Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)* A framework for transporting the authentication protocols is known as the Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP). EAP was created as a more secure alternative than the weak Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) and Password Authentication Protocol (PAP). Despite its name, EAP is a framework for transporting authentication protocols instead of the authentication protocol itself.

Security and Vulnerability in the Network *Which of the following involves trying to get access to your system from an attacker's perspective?* a. Loop recon b. Flood gating c. Vulnerability scanning d. Penetration testing

d. *Penetration testing* Penetration testing involves trying to get access to your system from an attacker's perspective.

A(n) ________ analysis is a procedure that compares the current state of a network segment (the systems and services it offers) against a known previous state of that same network segment (the baseline of systems and services).

difference

Physical and Hardware-Based Security *Which form of cabling is least susceptible to EM interference?* a. STP b. UTP c. Coaxial d. Fiber optic

d. *Fiber optic* Fiber-optic cabling is least subject to electromagnetic interference because its communications are conducted by transmitting pulses of light over glass, plastic, or sapphire transmission fibers. Twisted-pair (shielded STP as well as unshielded UTP) copper cables provide minimal shielding against interference but can function as antenna picking up nearby EM sources when extended over long cable runs, making answers A and B incorrect. Answer C is incorrect because although coaxial cables limit EM interference by encasing one conductor in a sheath of conductive material, they are still conductive and not as resistant as purely optical forms of communication.

*What form of storage or file-transfer technology was originally designed to be operated over an optical network but was adapted to run over a copper network as well?* a. FTP b. iSCSI c. SATA d. Fibre Channel

d. *Fibre Channel* Fibre Channel is a form of network data-storage solution (SAN or NAS) that allows for high-speed file transfers upwards of 16 Gbps. It was designed to be operated over fiber optic cables, but support for copper cables was added later to offer less expensive options.

Cryptography Basics *Which of the following is a hybrid cryptosystem?* a. PAP b. MD5 c. RSA d. GPG

d. *GPG* Privacy Guard (GnuPG or GPG) is a hybrid cryptosystem that uses combination of public key and private key encryption. The incorrect choices are A, B, and C: PAP is a basic form of authentication during which the username and password are transmitted unencrypted, RSA is an asymmetric cipher, and MD5 is a hash.

Educating and Protecting the User *Which of the following actions would not be allowed in the Bell-LaPadula model?* a. General with Top Secret clearance writing at the Top Secret level b. Corporal with Confidential clearance writing at the Confidential level c. General with Top Secret clearance reading at the Confidential level d. General with Top Secret clearance writing at the Confidential level

d. *General with Top Secret clearance writing at the Confidential level* The first three actions would be allowed since you can write to your level and read at your level (or below). The situation that would not be allowed is the General with Top Secret clearance writing at the Confidential level.

Physical and Hardware-Based Security *Which of the following is a method of cooling server racks in which hot air and cold are both handled in the server room?* a. Hot/cold vessels b. Hot and cold passages c. Hot/cold walkways d. Hot and cold aisles

d. *Hot and cold aisles* Hot and cold aisles is a method of cooling server racks in which hot air and cold are both handled in the server room.

*What form of recovery site requires the least amount of downtime before mission-critical business operations can resume?* a. Cold b. Warm c. Hot d. Offsite

d. *Hot* A hot site requires the least amount of downtime before mission-critical business operations can resume, because it is a real-time mirror of the primary site.

Cryptography Basics *A brainstorming session has been called. The moderator tells you to pull out a sheet of paper and write down your security concerns based on the technologies that your company uses. If your company uses public keys, what should you write as the primary security concern?* a. Privacy b. Authenticity c. Access control d. Integrity

d. *Integrity* Public keys are created to be distributed to a wide audience. The biggest security concern regarding their use is ensuring that the public keys maintain their integrity. This can be accomplished by using a thumbprint or a second encryption scheme in the certificate or key.

Cryptography Implementation *One disadvantage of decentralized key generation is:* a. It depends on key escrow. b. It is more vulnerable to single point attacks. c. There are more risks of attacks. d. It creates a storage and management issue.

d. *It creates a storage and management issue.* A disadvantage of decentralized key generation is the storage and management issue it creates.

Security and Vulnerability in the Network *Rule-based management defines conditions for access to objects and is also known as:* a. Distributed management b. Management by objective c. Role-based management d. Label-based management

d. *Label-based management* Rule-based management, also known as label-based management, defines conditions for access to objects.

*Which of the following is the length of time a device or product is expected to last in operation?* a. RTO b. MTBF c. RPO d. MTTF

d. *MTTF* Mean time to failure (MTTF) is the length of time a device or product is expected to last in operation. Answer A is incorrect because recovery time objective (RTO) is the amount of time within which a process must be restored after a disaster to meet business continuity. It defines how much time it takes to recover after notification of process disruption. Answer B is incorrect because mean time between failures (MTBF) is the average amount of time that passes between hardware component failures excluding time spent waiting for or being repaired. Answer C is incorrect because recovery point objective (RPO) is the amount of time that can elapse during a disruption before the quantity of data lost during that period exceeds the BCP's maximum allowable threshold. It determines up to what point in time data recovery could happen before business is disrupted.

Access Control and Identity Management *If Sally wants to send a secure message to Mark using public key encryption but is not worried about sender verification, what does she need in addition to her original message text?* a. Sally's private key b. Sally's public key c. Mark's private key d. Mark's public key

d. *Mark's public key* Sally needs Mark's public key to encrypt her original message in a form that only Mark can decrypt. Neither of Sally's keys is needed because the originator does not need to be validated, making answers A and B incorrect. Answer C is incorrect because Mark's private key is used for decrypting the encrypted message to reveal Sally's original message.

*An organization is looking for a basic mobile solution which will be used to prevent unauthorized access to users' phones. Which of the following fulfills this requirement?* a. GPS tracking b. Voice encryption c. Remote wipe d. Passcode policy

d. *Passcode policy* A screen lock or passcode is used to prevent access to the phone. Answer A is incorrect because if a mobile device is lost, GPS tracking can be used to find the location. Answer B is incorrect because mobile voice encryption can allow executives and employees alike to discuss sensitive information without having to travel to secure company locations. Answer C is incorrect because remote wipe allows the handheld's data to be remotely deleted in the event the device is lost or stolen.

*Which statement represents a best practice for securing router configurations?* a. Allow remote configuration for dynamic installation in case of an emergency. b. Store the router configuration on a public network for easy access in case of an emergency. c. Store the router configuration on a USB drive for compact storage. d. Perform changes in the router configuration from the console.

d. *Perform changes in the router configuration from the console.* The configuration of the router should be performed from the console and not a remote location. This configuration can then be stored on a secure network drive as a backup and not on a laptop or USB flash drive.

Measuring and Weighing Risk *Which of the following is information that is unlikely to result in a high-level financial loss or serious damage to the organization but still should be protected?* a. Public data b. Confidential data c. Sensitive data d. Private data

d. *Private data* Private data is information that is unlikely to result in a high-level financial loss or serious damage to the organization but still should be protected. Answer A is incorrect because the unauthorized disclosure, alteration, or destruction of public data would result in little or no risk to the organization. Answer B is incorrect because confidential data is internal information that defines the way in which the organization operates. Security should be high. Answer C is incorrect because sensitive data is considered confidential data.

Educating and Protecting the User *You are implementing network access for several internal business units that work with sensitive information on a small organizational network. Which of the following would best mitigate risk associated with users improperly accessing other segments of the network without adding additional switches?* a. Log analysis b. Access control lists c. Network segmentation d. Proper VLAN management

d. *Proper VLAN management* VLANs provide a way to limit broadcast traffic in a switched network. This creates a boundary and, in essence, creates multiple, isolated LANs on one switch. Answer A is incorrect because logging is the process of collecting data to be used for monitoring and auditing purposes. Answer B is incorrect because access control generally refers to the process of making resources available to accounts that should have access while limiting that access to only what is required. Answer C is incorrect because network segmentation is used for interconnected networks where a compromised system on one network can easily threaten machines on other network segments.

Access Control and Identity Management *What is the name given to the system of digital certificates and certificate authorities used for public key cryptography over networks?* a. Protocol key instructions (PKI) b. Public key extranet (PKE) c. Protocol key infrastructure (PKI) d. Public key infrastructure (PKI)

d. *Public key infrastructure (PKI)* Public key infrastructure describes the trust hierarchy system for implementing a secure public key cryptography system over TCP/IP networks. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect because these are bogus terms.

Disaster Recovery and Incident Response *You're the head of information technology for MTS and have a brother in a similar position for ABC. The companies are approximately the same size and are located several hundred miles apart. As a benefit to both companies, you want to implement an agreement that would allow either company to use resources at the other site should a disaster make a building unusable. What type of agreement between two organizations provides mutual use of their sites in the event of an emergency?* a. Backup-site agreement b. Warm-site agreement c. Hot-site agreement d. Reciprocal agreement

d. *Reciprocal agreement* A reciprocal agreement is between two organizations and allows one to use the other's site in an emergency.

*A goal of NAC is which of the following?* a. Reduce social engineering threats b. Map internal private addresses to external public addresses c. Distribute IP address configurations d. Reduce zero-day attacks

d. *Reduce zero-day attacks* The goals of Network Access Control (NAC) include preventing/reducing zero-day attacks, enforcing security policy throughout the network, and using identities to perform access control.

Measuring and Weighing Risk *Which of the following strategies is accomplished anytime you take steps to reduce the risk?* a. Risk acceptance b. Risk avoidance c. Risk deterrence d. Risk mitigation e. Risk transference

d. *Risk mitigation* Risk mitigation is accomplished anytime you take steps to reduce the risk.

Network Security *What type of firewall systems are static in nature and cannot do anything other than what they have been expressly configured to do?* a. Application-based b. Authentication-based c. Role-based d. Rule-based

d. *Rule-based* Rule-based systems are static in nature and cannot do anything other than what they have been expressly configured to do.

Operating System and Application Security *Which of the following is a network protocol that supports file transfers and is a combination of RCP and SSH?* a. HTTPS b. FTPS c. SFTP d. SCP

d. *SCP* The Secure Copy Protocol (SCP) is a network protocol that supports file transfers. SCP is a combination of RCP and SSH. It uses the BSD RCP protocol tunneled through the Secure Shell (SSH) protocol to provide encryption and authentication. Answer A is incorrect because HTTPS is used for secured web-based communications. Answer B is incorrect. FTPS, also known as FTP Secure and FTP-SSL, is an FTP extension that adds support for TLS and SSL. Answer C is incorrect because SFTP, or secure FTP, is a program that uses SSH to transfer files. Unlike standard FTP, it encrypts both commands and data, preventing passwords and sensitive information from being transmitted in the clear over the network.

Infrastructure and Connectivity *Which of the following services use only TCP ports and not UDP? (Choose all that apply.)* a. IMAP b. LDAP c. FTPS d. SFTP

d. *SFTP* SFTP uses only TCP ports. IMAP, LDAP, and FTPS all use both TCP and UDP ports.

Operating System and Application Security *What is it known as when an attacker manipulates the database code to take advantage of a weakness in it?* a. SQL tearing b. SQL manipulation c. SQL cracking d. SQL injection

d. *SQL injection* SQL injection occurs when an attacker manipulates the database code to take advantage of a weakness in it.

*Which protocol is used for file transfers?* a. Internet Small Computer System Interface (iSCSI) b. Network Basic Input/Output System (NetBIOS) c. Secure Network Management Protocol (SNMP) d. Secure Copy Protocol (SCP)

d. *Secure Copy Protocol (SCP)* Secure Copy Protocol (SCP) is used for file transfers. SCP is an enhanced version of Remote Copy Protocol (RCP). SCP encrypts files and commands.

Network Security *Which statement concerning signature-based monitoring is correct?* a. Signature-based monitoring is designed for detecting statistical anomalies. b. Signature-based monitoring uses an algorithm to determine if a threat exists. c. Signature-based monitoring operates by being adaptive and proactive. d. Signature-based monitoring looks for well-known patterns.

d. *Signature-based monitoring looks for well-known patterns.* A method for auditing usage is to examine network traffic, activity, transactions, or behavior and look for well-known patterns, much like antivirus scanning. This is known as signature-based monitoring because it compares activities against a predefined signature.

*If user awareness is overlooked, what attack is more likely to succeed?* a. Man-in-the-middle b. Reverse hash matching c. Physical intrusion d. Social engineering

d. *Social engineering* Social engineering is more likely to occur if users aren't properly trained to detect and prevent it. The lack of user awareness training won't have as much impact on man-in-the-middle, reverse hash-matching, or physical intrusion attacks.

*Which category of authentication includes your ATM card?* a. Something you are b. Something you do c. Somewhere you are d. Something you have

d. *Something you have* "Something you have" includes ATM cards, smart cards, and keys. "Somewhere you are" is a location, making answer C incorrect. Answers A and B are incorrect because both "something you are" and "something you do" are biometric measures present even without your ATM card.

Measuring and Weighing Risk *An executive from ABC Corp receives an email from a vice president of XYZ Corp, which is a prestigious partner organization of ABC Corp. This email was formatted using XYZ's corporate logo, images, and text from their website (checked by the executive before opening the included form). After clicking the provided link, the executive was asked to verify his credentials for access to a confidential report about ABC Corp, but after he filled out the form, the executive received only a referral to XYZ's site. What type of attack was used in this scenario?* a. Phishing b. Smishing c. Vishing d. Spear phishing

d. *Spear phishing* This is an example of a spear phishing attack, which uses fraudulent email to obtain access to data of value (here, the executive's credentials) from a targeted organization. Answer A is incorrect because while phishing attacks involve email, spear phishing attacks are targeted and customized to a selected target. The question's description of the images, links, and report all indicate a very targeted attack. Answer B is incorrect because smishing attacks are conducted using SMS messages. Answer C is similarly incorrect because vishing attacks employ telephone or VoIP audio communications.

*While performing regular security audits, you suspect that your company is under attack and someone is attempting to use resources on your network. The IP addresses in the log files belong to a trusted partner company, however. Assuming an attack, which of the following might be occurring?* a. Replay b. Authorization c. Social engineering d. Spoofing

d. *Spoofing* The most likely answer is spoofing because this enables an attacker to misrepresent the source of the requests. Answer A is incorrect because this type of attack records and replays previously sent valid messages. Answer B is incorrect because this is not a type of attack but is instead the granting of access rights based on authentication. Answer C is incorrect because social engineering involves nontechnical means of gaining information.

*Which of the following does not describe techniques for assessing threats and vulnerabilities?* a. Understanding attack surface b. Baseline reporting c. Reviews of architecture, design, and code d. System hardening

d. *System hardening* System hardening refers to reducing a system's security exposure and strengthening its defenses against unauthorized access attempts and other forms of malicious attention. Answers A, B, and C, in contrast, are specific techniques to assess for threats and vulnerabilities.

Threats and Vulnerabilities *A user reports that he is receiving an error indicating that his TCP/IP address is already in use when he turns on his computer. A static IP address has been assigned to this user's computer, and you're certain this address was not inadvertently assigned to another computer. Which type of attack is most likely underway?* a. Man-in-the-middle attack b. Backdoor attack c. Worm d. TCP/IP hijacking

d. *TCP/IP hijacking* One of the symptoms of a TCP/IP hijacking attack may be the unavailability of a TCP/IP address when the system is started.

Physical and Hardware-Based Security *You work for an electronics company that has just created a device that emits less RF than any competitor's product. Given the enormous importance of this invention and of the marketing benefits it could offer, you want to have the product certified. Which certification is used to indicate minimal electronic emissions?* a. EMI b. RFI c. CC EAL 4 d. TEMPEST

d. *TEMPEST* TEMPEST is the certification given to electronic devices that emit minimal RF. The TEMPEST certification is difficult to acquire, and it significantly increases the cost of systems.

*When a vendor releases a patch, which of the following is the most important?* a. Installing the patch immediately b. Setting up automatic patch installation c. Allowing users to apply patches d. Testing the patch before implementation

d. *Testing the patch before implementation* It is most important to test patches before installing them onto production systems. Otherwise, business tasks can be interrupted if the patch does not perform as expected. Never rush to install a patch, if that means skipping testing. Do not automatically roll out patches; be sure to test them first. Do not give users the power to install patches; this should be managed by administrators.

*What is the advantage of using an access point's (AP's) power level control?* a. The power can be adjusted to "jam" frequencies of sniffers used by potential hackers. b. The power can be adjusted to provide a cleaner signal with less interference. c. The power can be adjusted so that more of the signal leaves the premises and reaches outsiders. d. The power can be adjusted so that less of the signal leaves the premises and reaches outsiders.

d. *The power can be adjusted so that less of the signal leaves the premises and reaches outsiders.* A security feature on some APs is the ability to adjust the level of power at which the WLAN transmits. On devices with that feature, the power can be adjusted so that less of the signal leaves the premises and reaches outsiders.

*Users received a spam email from an unknown source and chose the option in the email to unsubscribe and are now getting more spam as a result. Which one of the following is most likely the reason?* a. The unsubscribe option does not actually do anything. b. The unsubscribe request was never received. c. Spam filters were automatically turned off when making the selection to unsubscribe. d. They confirmed that their addresses are "live."

d. *They confirmed that their addresses are "live."* Often an option to opt out of further email does not unsubscribe users; instead it means, "send me more spam" because it has been confirmed that the email address is not dormant. This is less likely to occur with email a user receives that he or she opted into in the first place, however. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect because these are less likely and not the best choices.

Access Control and Identity Management *Which is the best rule-based access control constraint to protect against unauthorized access when admins are off-duty?* a. Least privilege b. Separation of duties c. Account expiration d. Time of day

d. *Time of day* Time-of-day rules prevent administrative access requests during off-hours when local admins and security professionals are not on duty. Answer A is incorrect because least privilege is a principle of assigning only those rights necessary to perform assigned tasks. Answer B is incorrect because separation of duties aids in identification of fraudulent or incorrect processes by ensuring that action and validation practices are performed separately. Answer C is incorrect because account expiration policies ensure that individual accounts do not remain active past their designated lifespan but do nothing to ensure protections are enabled during admin downtime.

*Several organizational users are experiencing network and Internet connectivity issues. Which of the following would be most helpful in troubleshooting where the connectivity problems might exist?* a. SSL b. IPsec c. SNMP d. Traceroute

d. *Traceroute* Traceroute uses an ICMP echo request packet to find the path between two addresses. Answer A is incorrect because SSL is a public key-based security protocol that is used by Internet services and clients for authentication, message integrity, and confidentiality. Answer B is incorrect because the Internet Protocol Security (IPsec) authentication and encapsulation standard is widely used to establish secure VPN communications. Answer C is incorrect because SNMP is an application layer protocol whose purpose is to collect statistics from TCP/IP devices. SNMP is used for monitoring the health of network equipment, computer equipment, and devices such as uninterruptible power supplies (UPSs).

Disaster Recovery and Incident Response *Which risk management response is being implemented when a company purchases insurance to protect against service outage?* a. Acceptance b. Avoidance c. Mitigation d. Transference

d. *Transference* The liability of risk is transferred through insurance policies. Answer A is incorrect because accepting a risk is to do nothing in response. Risk avoidance involves simply terminating the operation that produces the risk, making answer B incorrect. Answer C is not correct because mitigation applies a solution that results in a reduced level of risk or exposure.

Access Control and Identity Management *You have added a new child domain to your network. As a result of this, the child has adopted all the trust relationships with other domains in the forest that existed for its parent domain. What is responsible for this?* a. LDAP access b. XML access c. Fuzzing access d. Transitive access

d. *Transitive access* Transitive access exists between the domains and creates this relationship.

*_______________ is a cryptographic transport algorithm.* a. Secure Shell (SSH) b. Data Encryption Standard (DES) c. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) d. Transport Layer Security (TLS)

d. *Transport Layer Security (TLS)* Transport Layer Security (TLS) is a cryptographic transport algorithm.

Cryptography Implementation *Which of the following uses a secure crypto-processor to authenticate hardware devices such as a PC or laptop?* a. Public key infrastructure b. Full disk encryption c. File-level encryption d. Trusted Platform Module

d. *Trusted Platform Module* Trusted Platform Module (TPM) refers to a secure crypto-processor used to authenticate hardware devices such as a PC or laptop. The idea behind TPM is to allow any encryption-enabled application to take advantage of the chip. Answer A is incorrect because public key infrastructure (PKI) is a set of hardware, software, people, policies, and procedures needed to create, manage, distribute, use, store, and revoke digital certificates. Answer B is incorrect because full-disk encryption involves encrypting the operating system partition on a computer and then booting and running with the system drive encrypted at all times. Answer C is incorrect because in file- or folder-level encryption, individual files or folders are encrypted by the file system itself.

Wireless Networking Security *Which of the following is a script language WAP-enabled devices can respond to?* a. WXML b. Winsock c. WIScript d. WMLScript

d. *WMLScript* WAP-enabled devices can respond to scripts using an environment called WMLScript.

Infrastructure and Connectivity *You want to implement a technology solution for a small organization that can function as a single point of policy control and management for access to Internet content. Which of the following should you choose?* a. Proxy gateway b. Circuit-level gateway c. Application-level gateway d. Web security gateway

d. *Web security gateway* Web security gateways offer a single point of policy control and management for web-based content access. Answer A is too generic to be a proper answer. Answer B is incorrect because a circuit-level gateway's decisions are based on source and destination addresses. Answer C is incorrect because an application-level gateway understands services and protocols.

*Which of the following best describes the difference between phishing and whaling?* a. They are the same. b. Whaling makes use of the voice channel, whereas phishing uses email. c. Whaling uses SMS, whereas phishing uses email. d. Whaling is similar to phishing but specifically targets high-profile individuals.

d. *Whaling is similar to phishing but specifically targets high-profile individuals.* Whaling specifically targets high-profile individuals. Phishing attempts to acquire sensitive information from anyone. Although they are very similar, they differ in the scope of the target, making answer A incorrect. Answer B is incorrect and refers to vishing, which is essentially phishing but using the phone. Answer C is incorrect as this describes smishing, which uses Short Message Service (SMS), or text messaging.

After identifying and performing the preliminary classification of an organizations's information assets, the analysis phase moves on the an examination of the ______ facing the organization.

threats

Operating System and Application Security *An organization is looking to add a layer of security and maintain strict control over the apps employees are approved to use. Which of the following fulfills this requirement?* a. Blacklisting b. Encryption c. Lockout d. Whitelisting

d. *Whitelisting* Application whitelisting only permits known good apps. When security is a concern, whitelisting applications is a better option because it allows organizations to maintain strict control over the apps employees are approved to use. Answer A is incorrect because although blacklisting is an option, it is not as effective as whitelisting. Answer B is incorrect because encryption has nothing to do with restricting application usage. Answer C is incorrect because lockout has to do with number of times a user can enter a passcode.

*A security _______________ log can provide details regarding requests for specific files on a system.* a. event b. administration c. audit d. access

d. *access* A security access log can provide details regarding requests for specific files on a system while an audit log is used to record which user performed an action and what that action was. System event logs document any unsuccessful events and the most significant successful events.

*Risk _______________ involves identifying the risk, but making a decision to not engage in the activity.* a. deterrence b. mitigation c. acceptance d. avoidance

d. *avoidance* Risk avoidance involves identifying the risk but making the decision to not engage in the activity.

*With _______________, the customer's data should be properly isolated from that of other customers, and the highest level of application availability and security must be maintained.* a. virtualization b. IP telephony c. Sandboxing d. cloud computing

d. *cloud computing* In cloud computing, the customer's data must be properly isolated from that of other customers, and the highest level of application availability and security must be maintained.

*Another name for layered security is _______________.* a. network separation b. VPN tunneling c. Unified threat management (UTM) d. defense in depth

d. *defense in depth* A basic level of security can be achieved through using the security features found in standard network hardware. And because networks typically contain multiple types of network hardware, this allows for layered security, also called defense in depth.

*A _______________ functions as a separate network that rests outside the secure network perimeter.* a. gateway b. segment c. virtual private network (VPN) d. demilitarized zone (DMZ)

d. *demilitarized zone (DMZ)* In order to allow untrusted outside users access to resources such as web servers, most networks employ a demilitarized zone (DMZ). The DMZ functions as a separate network that rests outside the secure network perimeter: untrusted outside users can access the DMZ but cannot enter the secure network.

*In a(n) _______________ attack, a malformed ICMP ping that exceeds the size of an IP packet is sent to the victim's computer potentially causing the host to crash.* a. network discovery b. smurf c. ICMP redirect d. ping of death

d. *ping of death* In a ping of death attack, a malformed ICMP ping that exceeds the size of an IP packet is sent to the victim's computer. This can cause the host to crash.

*The _______________ approach to calculating risk attempts to create "hard" numbers associated with the risk of an element in a system by using historical data.* a. cumulative b. qualitative c. technical d. quantitative

d. *quantitative* The quantitative approach to calculating risk attempts to create "hard" numbers associated with the risk of an element in a system by using historical data.

*The _______________ is the length of time it will take to recover the data that has been backed up.* a. mean time to recovery b. recovery point objective c. mean time to failure d. recovery time objective

d. *recovery time objective* The recovery time objective is the length of time it will take to recover the data that has been backed up.

*A(n) _______________ VPN, often used on mobile devices like laptops in which the VPN endpoint is actually software running on the device itself, offers the most flexibility in how network traffic is managed.* a. closed b. open c. hardware-based d. software-based

d. *software-based* Software-based VPNs, often used on mobile devices like laptops in which the VPN endpoint is actually software running on the device itself, offer the most flexibility in how network traffic is managed.

Network Security *A _______________ is a special type of firewall that looks at the applications using HTTP.* a. network intrusion detection system (NIDS) b. network intrusion prevention system (NIPS) c. spam filter d. web application firewall

d. *web application firewall* A Web application firewall is a special type of firewall that looks at the applications using HTTP.

Network Security *A(n) _______________ can block malicious content in real time as it appears.* a. uniform resource locator (URL) filter b. virtual private network (VPN) c. Internet content filter d. web security gateway

d. *web security gateway* A web security gateway can block malicious content in real time as it appears (without first knowing the URL of a dangerous site).

*A(n) _______________ policy is one that defines the actions users may perform while accessing systems and networking equipment.* a. data acquisition b. privacy c. data storage d. acceptable use

d.* acceptable use* An Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) is a policy that defines the actions users may perform while accessing systems and networking equipment.

A(n) ______ is a formal access control methodology used to assign a level of confidentiality to an information asset and thus restrict the number of people who can access it.

data classification scheme

Security ____ are the areas of trust within which users can freely communicate.

domains

Measuring and Weighing Risk *Refer to the scenario in question 2. Which of the following is the ALE for this scenario?* a. $2 million b.$1 million c. $500,000 d. $33,333.33 e. $16,666.67

e. *$16,666.67* ALE (annual loss expectancy) is equal to SLE times the annualized rate of occurrence. In this case, SLE is $1 million and the ARO is 1/60.

practices

examples of actions that illustrate compliance with policies. If the policy states to "use strong passwords, frequently changed," the practices might advise that "according to X, most organizations require employees to changes passwrods at least semi-annually."

A short-term interruption in electrical power availability is known as a(n)

fault

gaseous (or chemical gas) emission systems

fire suppression systems that operate through the delivery of gases rather than water

Technology ____ guides how frequently technical systems are updated, and how technical updates are approved and funded

goverance

minutiae

in biometric access controls, unique points of reference that are digitized and stored in an encrypted format when the user"s system access credential are created.

firewall

in information security, a combination of hardware and software that filers or prevents specific information form moving between the outside network and the inside network.

The model commonly used by large organizations places the information security department within the __________ department.

information security

The protection of the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information assets, whether in storage, processing, or transmission, via the application of policy, education, training and awareness, and technology is known as ___________________.

information security

managerial controls

information security safeguards that focus on administrative planning, organizing, leading, and controlling, and that are designed by strategic planners and implemented by the organization's security administration. These safeguards include governance and risk management.

The _____ Web site and list site seclists.org is home to the leading free network exploration tool, Nmap.

insecure.org

Management should coordinate the organization's information security vision and objectives with the communities of ______ involved in the execution of the plan

interest

Digital Forensics

investigations that involve the preservation, identification, extraction, documentation, & interpretation of computer media for evidentiary & root cause analysis. Like traditional forensics, digital forensics follows clear, well-defined methodologies but still tends to be as much an art as a science

IDPSs can help the organization protect its assets when its networks and systems are exposed to ________ vulnerabilities or are unable to respond to a rapidly changing threat environment.

known

hash functions

mathematical algorithms that generate a message summary or digest (sometimes called a fingerprint) to confirm message identity and integrity

A computer is the ____________________ of an attack when it is the target entity.

object

The average amount of time between hardware failures, calculated as the total amount of operation time for a specified number fo units divided by the total number of failures, is known as ______________.

mean time between failure (MTBF)

Hashing functions do not require the use of keys, but it is possible to attach a _____ code to allow only specified recipients to access the message digest

message authentication

Least common mechanism (principle g, Saltzer and Schroeder)

minimize mechanisms (or shared variables) common to more than one user and depended on by all users.

RAID Level 1 is commonly called disk ____________________.

mirroring

guidelines

non mandatory recommendations the employee may use as a reference in complying with a policy. If the policy states to "use strong passwords, frequently changed," the guidelines might advise that "we recommend you don't use family or pet names, or parts of your Social Security number, employee number , or phone number in your password."

The difference between an organization's observed and desired performance is often referred to as a ___________.

performance gap

Organizations should perform a(n) ____________________ assessment of their information security programs.

periodic

A(n) ___________________________ hacks the public telephone network to make free calls or disrupt services.

phreaker

During the _____________ phase, specific technologies are selected to support the alternatives identified and evaluated in the prior phases.

physical design

Duplication of software-based intellectual property is more commonly known as software ____________________.

piracy

The tasks or action steps that come before the specific task at hand are called

predecessors

Family law, commercial law, and labor law are all encompassed by ____________________ law.

private

hash algorithms

public functions that create a hash value, also known as a message digest, by converting variable-length messages into a single fixed-length value

The primary goal of the vulnerability assessment and ______ domain is to identify specific, documented vulnerabilities and remediate them in a timely fashion.

remediation

____ involves a wide variety of computing sites that are distant from the base organizational facility and includes all forms of telecommuting.

remote site computing

Cyberactivist

see Hacktivist.

sniffer

see Packet sniffer.

maintenance hook

see back door

trap door

see back door

single bastion host

see bastion host

sacrificial host

see bastion host.

zombie

see bot.

reverse firewall

see content filter

asset exposure

see loss magnitude

malicious software

see malware.

Switched Port Analysis (SPAN) port

see monitoring port

mirror port

see monitoring port.

behavioral feasibility

see operational feasibility.

risk tolerance

see risk appetite

telework

see telecommuting

objective

sometimes used synonymously with goals; the intermediate states obtained to achieve progress toward a goal or goals.

goals

sometimes used synonymously with objectives; the desired end of a planning cycle

______________________ is unsolicited commercial e-mail.

spam

procedures

step-by-step instructions designed to assist employees in following policies, standards, and guidelines. If the policy states to "use strong passwords, frequently changed," the procedure might advise that "in order to change your password, first click the Windows Start button, then..."

A(n) ______ plan is a plan for the organization's intended strategic efforts over the next several years.

strategic

authentication

the access control mechanism that requires the validation and verification of a supplicant's purported identity.

identification

the access control mechanism whereby unverified or unauthenticated entities who seek access to a resource provide a label by which they are known to the system.

strategic plan

the documented product of strategic planning; a plan for the organization's intended strategic efforts over the next several years

Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)

the current federal standard for the encryption of data, as specified by NIST. AES is based on the Rijndael algorithm, which was developed by Vincent Rijmen and Joan Daemen

footprinting

the organized research and investigation of internet addresses owned or controlled by a target organization

uptime

the percentage of time a particular service is available; the opposite of downtime.

downtime

the percentage of time a particular service is not available; the opposite of uptime.

jurisdiction

the power to make legal decisions and judgements; typically an area within which an entity such as a court or law enforcement agency is empowered to make legal decisions.

cryptography

the process making and using codes to secure information

baselining

the process of conducting a baseline. See also baseline.

strategic planning

the process of defining and specifying the long-term direction (strategy) to be taken by an organization, and the allocation and acquisition of resources needed to pursue this effort.

back hack

the process of illegally attempting to determine the source of an intrusion by tracing it and trying to gain access to the originating system.

remediation

the process of removing or repairing flaws in information assets that cause a vulnerability or removing the risk associated with the vulnerability

Social Engineering

the process of using social skills to convince people to reveal access credentials or other valuable information to an attacker

Risk Indentification

the recognition, enumeration, and documentation of risks to an organization's information assets

job rotation

the requirement that every employee be able to perform the work of another employee.

residual risk

the risk to information assets that remains even after current controls have been applied.

untrusted network

the system of networks outside the organization over which the organization has not control. The Internet is an example of an untrusted network.

redundancy

the use of multiple types and instances of technology that prevent the failure of one system from compromising the security of information

biometric access control

the use of physiological characteristics to provide authentication for a provided identification. Biometric means "life measurement" in Greek. Sometimes referred to as biometrics.

In Kerberos, a(n) ___________ is an identification card for a particular client that verifies to the server that the client is requesting services and that the client is a valid member of the Kerberos system and therefore authorized to receive services.

ticket

A(n) ________ private network is a secure network connection between systems that uses the data communication capability of an unsecured and public network.

virtual

A potential weakness in an asset or its defensive control system(s) is known as a(n)

vulnerability

Once the inventory and value assessment are complete, you can prioritize each asset using a straightforward process known as ____________________ analysis.

weighted factor

In a(n) __________, asset or threats can be prioritized by identifying criteria with differing levels of importance assigning a score for each of the criteria, and then summing and ranking those scores.

weighted factor analysis

Key Information Security Concepts

•Access •Asset •Attack •Control, safeguard, or countermeasure •Exploit •Exposure •Loss •Protection profile or security posture •Risk •Subjects and objects of attack •Threat •Threat agent •Threat event •Threat source •Vulnerability •A computer can be the subject of an attack and/or the object of an attack. -When it is the subject of an attack, the computer is used as an active tool to conduct attack. -When it is the object of an attack, the computer is the entity being attacked.

Security as Science

•Dealing with technology designed for rigorous performance levels. •Specific conditions cause virtually all actions in computer systems. •Almost every fault, security hole, and systems malfunction is a result of interaction of specific hardware and software. •If developers had sufficient time, they could resolve and eliminate faults.

Security as Art

•No hard and fast rules nor many universally accepted complete solutions •No manual for implementing security through entire system