DH 341: final
What other symptoms or organ involvement is involved with Raynaud's syndrome?
1) GI complications 2) GERD 3) cardiomyopathy 4) inflamed heart muscle (myocarditis) 5) abnormal heartbeat 6) kidney complications 7) lung complications 8) pulmonary fibrosis 9) pulmonary hypertension
What are three things you should do to prepare for a patient with myasthenia gravis at their appointment?
1) Have emergency cart ready and stocked. 2) Have stress reduction procedure ready. 3) Make sure patient has been taking their medication on schedule
The etiology of scleroderma is unknown, but what are some possible factors?
1) abnormal immune or inflammatory activity 2) genetic makeup 3) environmental triggers 4) hormones
What are the oral manifestations and complications associated with schizophrenia?
1) agranulocytosis 2) leukopenia 3) xerostomia 4) may develop musculus problems in the oral and facial regions 5) smooth-surface caries 6) oral candiasis 7) oral injuries
What medications will a person with scleroderma be taking?
1) antacids 2) proton pump inhibitors 3) calcium channel blockers 4) acetaminophen 5) NSAIDs 6) immune suppression therapy 7) antibiotic ointments 8) ACE inhibitors
What are the treatment options for a patient with sclerodactyly?
1) apply oil-based creams and lotions after bathing 2) apply sunscreen 3) use humidifiers 4) avoid hot baths or showers 5) avoid harsh soaps and household cleaners 6) exercise regularly
What are the types of medications and treatment options a person with myasthenia gravis will be taking?
1) cholinesterase inhibitors 2) corticosteroids 3) immunosuppressives 4) plasma exchange 5) intravascular immune globulin (IVIG) 6) thymectomy
What are ways to prevent scleroderma?
1) coping strategies to keep stress levels low 2) maintain health lifestyle 3) see rheumatalogist if disease is suspected 4) manage symptoms to prevent organ damage
What are the homecare considerations for a patient with myasthenia gravis?
1) diet analysis about dental caries and patients swallowing and chewing difficulties 2) power assisted brush 3) floss/interdental aids 4) instruction to caregiver
What are the characteristics of undifferentiated schizophrenia?
1) don't fall into any subtype 2) symptoms can fluctuate making it difficult to place in subtype 3) classified as mixed subtype
What are some oral manifestations associated with scleroderma?
1) dry mouth 2) tightening of skin around mouth 3) tooth mobility 4) telangiectasia 5) widening of the PDL space on radiographs
What are some oral manifestations and complications associated with myasthenia gravis?
1) dysphagia 2) may have trouble showing they are in distress 3) weak, tired, muffled voice 4) may need to support their chin while talking
What are the treatment options for scleroderma?
1) eat small frequent meals 2) stand or sit for at least 1 hour after eating 3) sleep with head raised 4) eat moist, soft foods 5) special diet to help absorb nutrients 6) medications for diarrhea, constipation and heartburn 7) proton pump inhibitors 8) antibiotics to stop bacterial overgrowth
How is myasthenia gravis diagnosed?
1) edrophonium chloride (tensilon) test 2) serum antibodies 3) electromyography
What factors may worsen symptoms of myasthenia gravis?
1) emotional upset 2) systemic illness 3) hyper/hypothyroidism 4) pregnancy 5) menstrual cycle 6) drugs affecting neuromuscluar transmission 7) increase in body temp
myasthenia gravis affects the muscles that control what?
1) eye and eyelid movement 2) facial expressions 3) chewing 4) talking 5) swallowing 6) breathing 7) neck and limb movements
What are risk factors for developing scleroderma?
1) female 2) Choctaw Native Americans and African Americans 3) predisposition in families with history of rheumatic disease
negative symptoms occur when capabilities are lost from that person's personality. What are some examples?
1) flat affect 2) reduced feelings of pleasure 3) reduced speaking
What are the side effects of cholinesterase inhibitors?
1) gastrointestinal problems 2) increased bronchial secretions 3) increased oral secretions
Positive symptoms are added to a person's personality.What are some examples positive symptoms of schizophrenia?
1) hallucinations 2) delusions 3) thought disorders 4) movement disorders
What are the side effects of IVIG?
1) headache 2) dermatitis 3) infection 4) pulmonary edema 5) renal failure 6) venous thrombosis
What are the symptoms to cholinergic crisis?
1) increased muscle weakness 2) excessive pulmonary secretions 3) cramps 4) diarhhea
When consulting with a physician or psychiatrist about a patient with schizophrenia, what should you ask?
1) know patient's status 2) medications 3) ability of patient to give consent
What are the two types of systemic scerloderma?
1) limited 2) diffuse
How should a cholinergic crisis be handled?
1) medical assistance needed promptly 2) ventilation is urgent
What are some dental treatment considerations with a patient with schizophrenia?
1) morning appointments 2) bite block 3) may be sensitive to light and noise 4) have family member/caregiver to ease patient comfort 5) 3 month recare 6) use same routine 7) sedation (consult with physician first) 8) if taking antipsychotics use caution with using epi 9) OHI may need to be given to caregiver
What are the two types of localized scleroderma?
1) morphea 2) linear
What are some dental considerations while treating a patient with scleroderma?
1) shorter appointments 2) patients may have joint discomfort 3) may need bite block to keep mouth open 4) need many breaks to rest face 5) allow breaks to drink water 6) semi-supine if patient has lung problems 7) Limit use of ultrasonic 8) Use Vaseline on lips to help skin 9) Be patient
What are some dental treatment considerations for a patient with myasthenia gravis?
1) should have more frequent appointments with short lengthss 2) have emergency cart out 3) use four handed dental hygiene technique 4) suction 5) rubber dam
What are some homecare recommendations for a patient with scleroderma?
1) specially made toothbrush handles 2) 2-3 month intervals 3) fluoride rinses or Rx toothpastes 4) consult with physician 5) keep mouth moist 6) saliva substitutes
What is the clinical presentation for a patient with myasthenia gravis?
1) specific muscle weakness 2) ocular motor disturbances 3) oropharyngeal muscle weakness 4) limb weakness
What are treatment options to help with scleroderma?
1) stretching exercises 2) exercise regularly 3) acetaminophen or NSAIDs 4) see an occupational therapist
What emergency care is need for myasthenia gravis?
1) suction 2) airway 3) medical assistance
What types of medications will a person with schizophrenia be taking?
1) tricyclic antidepressants 2) monoamine oxidase inhibitors 3) SSRIs 4) SNRIs 5) second generation antipsychotics 6) first generation antipsychotics
antitopoisomerase-1 or Anti-Scl-70 antibodies appear in the blood of up to ____% of people with ________ systemic scleroderma
30, diffuse
Which of the following is an example of a tricylclic antidepressant? A. amitriptyline B. phenelzine C. aripiprazole D. haloperidol
A. amitriptyline
What category of drug is mestinon? A. cholinesterase inhibitor B. corticosteroid C. immunosuppresant D. none of the above
A. cholinesterase inhibitor *another example is protigmin
Which of the following is the most common type of schizophrenia? A. paranoid B. disorganized C. catatonic D. undifferentiated
A. paranoid
Which of the following types of schizophrenia is when the person may have auditory hallucinations or delusional thoughts about conspiracy. These people may be able to live normal lives if their disorder is managed? A. paranoid B. disorganized C. catatonic D. undifferentiated
A. paranoid
[T:F] children are more likely to develop the localized form of scleroderma. Adults are more likely to develop the systemic form of scleroderma.
both statements true
an illness which a person's body becomes rigid and cannot be moved
catatonia
in Scleroderma, the immune system is thought to stimulate fibroblasts so they produce too much ______
collagen
double vision
diplopia
the ______ hypothesis for a genetic cause of schizophrenia states that symptoms are caused by disturbances in _______-mediated neuronal pathways in the brain
dopamine
group of disorders characteristics by chronic and recurrent proxysmal changes in neurologic function, altered consciousness, or involuntary movements caused by abnormal and spontaneous electrical activity in the brain
epilepsy
tightening of the mouth and esophageal progresses which may also cause GERD
esophageal dysmotility
[T:F] antipsychotic medications are effective at treating both the positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia
false: effective for positive symptoms, newer atypical antipsychotics are effective for both positive and negative symptoms
[T:F] myasthenia gravis is more common in men than women. When men are diagnosed with this disease, they are more likely to be older
first statement false: it is more common in women second statement true
[T:F] Myasthenia gravis is caused by a defect in the transmission of nerve impulses to muscles. It occurs when normal communication between the nerve and muscle is interrupted at the receptor site- the place where nerve cells connect with the muscles they control.
first statement true second statement false: interrupted at the neuromuscular junction not the receptor site
[T:F] internal organs are not affected by localized scleroderma. Once one is diagnosed with localized scleroderma, it is more likely to progress to systemic scleroderma.
first statement true second statement false: localized can never progress to the systemic form of the disease
[T:F] genes put certain people at risk for scleroderma. The disease is passed from the parent to child.
first statement true second statement false: not passed from parent to child
_______ scleroderma typically comes on gradually and affects the skin only in certain areas, the fingers, hands, face, lower arms, and legs
limited
anticentromere antibodies are found in the blood of many people with _______ systemic sclerosis
limited
What type of scleroderma is characterized by a single line or band of thickened or abnormally colored skin
linear scleroderma * this is a type of localized scleroderma
_______ scleroderma is limited to the skin and related tissues and, in some cases, the muscle below
localized
What type of scleroderma refers to localized or generalized patches on the skin
morphea *this is a type of localized scleroderma
chronic autoimmune neuromuscular disease that causes weakness of skeletal (voluntary) muscles of the body
myasthenia gravis
Your new patient presents to her dental appointment very excited to have her teeth cleaned. Her chief complaint is that her teeth are looking yellow and she thinks this is because she is having a difficult time with brushing. She reports she was recently diagnosed with scleroderma. During your extra oral exam you notice that she cannot open very wide while checking the TMJ, and she has several red patches on face and neck along with a dark line on her forehead. Are the patient's internal organs at risk of being affected with this type of scleroderma?
no *Internal organs are not affected by localized scleroderma, and localized scleroderma can never progress to the systemic form of the disease
weakness to the muscle that makes eye movement
ophthalmoparesis
What is a cholinergic crisis?
over-medication with anti-cholinesterase
What is treating scleroderma based on?
patient's symptoms and relieving limiting damage because there is no cure for this disease
treatment of emotional, behvioral, personality, and psychiatric disorders by means of individual or group verbal or nonverbal communication with the patient
psychotherapy
drooping of the eyelid
ptosis
thick and tight skin on the fingers, resulting from deposits of excess collagen with skin layers
scelerodactyly
chronic, severe mental disorder that affects how a person feels, acts, behaves, and thinks
schizophrenia
autoimmune disorder that is a localized or systemic, chronic connective tissue disease
scleroderma (CREST syndrome)
paroxysmal spell of transitory alteration in consciousness, motor activity, or sensory phenomenon
seizure (convulsion)
condition caused by the swelling of tiny blood vessels, in which small red spots appear on the hands and face
telangiectasia
seizures disorders are excessive focal neuronal discharge that spreads to the ______ and brain stem _______
thalamic, nuclei
Myasthenic crisis occurs when patient is [under/over] medicated and severe myasthenia gravis and a deficiency of ________ it is characterized the inability to _______, ______ or maintain a ________ ________
under, acetylcholine, swallow, speak, patent airway
What is the etiology of schizophrenia?
unknown, but there is an interaction between genetics and environmental factors
All of the following are true for disorganized schizphrenia except: A. disorganization of thought process B. hallucinations or delusions C. have trouble with daily activities including dressing, bathing, and brushing D. blunted or flat affect E. speech impairment
B. hallucinations and delusions *in disorganized schizophrenia, the person does not have hallucinations or delusions that much
Which medication that a patient with paranoid schizphrenia could be taking that has the most serious oral side effects? A. tranylcypromine B. haloperidol C. risperidone D. fluoxetine
B. haloperidol *this is a first generation antipsychotic and has the most serious oral side effect of tardive dyskinesia
What would be one sign that your patient is in myasthenic crisis? A. Abdominal cramping B. Inability to speak C. Drooping eyelid(s) D. Excessive pulmonary secretions E. All of the above
B. inability to speak
Which of the following is an example of a MAO inhibitors? A. amitriptyline B. phenelzine C. aripiprazole D. haloperidol
B. phenelzine
Which of the following is an example of a second generation antipsychotic? A. amitriptyline B. phenelzine C. aripiprazole D. haloperidol
C. aripiprazole
Which of the of the following types of sclerodermas shows Raynaud's phenomenon for years before skin thickening starts? A. morphea B. linear C. limited D. diffuse
C. limited
Active-phase symptoms of schizophrenia are: A. negative B. the absence of normal behavior C. positive or negative D. positive
C. positive or negative
What type of scleroderma typically comes on suddenly and skin thickening begins in the hands, face, upper arms, upper legs, chest, and stomach in a symmetrical fashion. There is also organ damage. A. morphea B. linear C. limited D. diffuse
D. diffuse
Which of the following is an example of a first generation antipsychotic to treat schizophrenia? A. amitriptyline B. phenelzine C. aripiprazole D. haloperidol
D. haloperidol
Which of the following would be the best dental consideration with a patient with tardive dyskinesia? A. give the patient local anesthesia B. having the patient scheduled in the morning C. OHI D. having a bite block
D. having a bite block *this will help with the symptoms of tardive dyskinesia
myasthenia gravis is caused by a defect in the transmission of nerve impulses to muscles by the neurotransmitter _________
acetylcholine (ACh)
poverty of speech; lack of additional unprompted content
alogia
warning sensation felt by some people immediately preceding a seizure; may be flashes of light, dizziness, peculiar taste, or a sensation of prickling or tingling
auro
lack of desire, drive, or motivation
avolition
What are some oral manifestations and complications seen in Alzheimer's patients?
1) increased risk for caries 2) lesions associated with cancer or injury 3) periodontal disease
What are the signs and symptoms of diabetes?
1) increased thirst and urination 2) increased hunger 3) fatigue 4) blurred vision 5) numbness or tingling in the feet or hands 6) sores that don't heal 7) unexplained weight loss 8) sweet-smelling breath and/or urine
What is the etiology of lymphyocytopenia?
1) infectious diseases 2) autoimmune disorders 3) steroid therapy 4) radiation 5) chemotherapy
What is the etiology of leukocytosis?
1) inflammatory and infectious states 2) trauma 3) overexertion 4) leukemia
What are the physical symptoms of MS?
1) intermittent, unilateral facial numbness, palsy , or spasms 2) involuntary motion of eyes 3) loss of speech 4) change in muscular coordination and gait 5) fatigue
What are some common red blood disease?
1) iron deficiency anemia 2) megaloblastic anemias 3) sickle cell disease 4) polycythemias
What are some medications for anemias?
1) iron tablets 2) vitamin C 3) folic acid 4) vitamin B12 injections
What are the medical considerations for a person with SCD?
1) jaundice 2) leg ulcers 3) cardiac failure 4) stroke 5) attacks of abdominal and bone pain
What are some dental treatment considerations for a patient with renal disease?
1) know hematocrit and hemoglobin count if later stage and invasive treatment is planned 2) if higher than stage 3 consult for physician for premed 3) check BP and use arm that doesn't have port in it 4) early in the day appointment and the day after hemodialysis 5) frequent recare intervals
The etiology of leukemia is unknown, but what put a person at an increased risk?
1) large doses of ionizing radiation 2) infections with specific viruses 3) smoking 4) exposure to benzene
Becker is similar to Duchenne, but what are the main differences?
1) later onset 2) slower progression 3) respiratory failure in mid 40's 4) abnormal or inadequate dystrophin
What are some common white blood disorders?
1) leukemia 2) leukopenia 3) leukocytosis 4) lymphocytopenia
What are examples of possible pre-cancerous oral lesions?
1) leukoplakia 2) erythroplakia 3) erythroleukoplakia
What triggers for seizures exist in the dental office?
1) lights 2) anxiety 3) sound 4) smells
What are two common rapid-acting insulins?
1) lispro 2) aspart
What are the advantages of the peritoneal dialysis?
1) low initial cost 2) ease of use 3) reduced likelihood of infection 4) no need for anticoagulant
what are the signs and symptoms of cerebral palsy in babies?
1) low muscle tone 2) unable to hold up their own head 3) muscles spasms 4) stiff feeling 5) poor reflexes 6) delayed development 7) feeding or swallowing difficulties 8) prefers to use one side of their body
What are the two types of lupus?
1) lupus erythematous discoid (DLE) 2) lupus erythematosus systemic (SLE)
what infectious diseases can trigger tourette syndrome?
1) lyme disease 2) strep
What are some dental treatment considerations while treating a patient with osteoporosis?
1) make sure patient is physically comfortable 2) aid patient to and from their car 3) frequent recall 4) diet analysis 5) check mobility 6) document 7) communicate with dentist and medical doctor 8) educate patient about their risks
What are the medical considerations of celiac disease if left untreated?
1) malnutrition 2) osteoporosis 3) infertility and msicarriage 4) lactose intolerance 5) cancer (intestinal lymphoma and small bowel cancer) 6) seizures or peripheral neuropathy
What are some medical considerations for a patient with MS?
1) management by a physician is crucial 2) consult with physician 3) refer to counselor if patient has psychological issues
What are the treatment options for a patient with stage 3 renal disease?
1) management of additional health conditions 2) management of anemia 3) management of bone disease
What are some dental treatment considerations for a patient that had a stroke?
1) may need to stop taking anticoaglant or anti-platelet before appointment 2) limit use of LA with vasoconstrictors 3) CHX irrigation 4) avoid prophy jet 5) make sure patient is comfy 6) dental care contraindicated within 6 months of strokes
what are the medical considerations for an ischemic stroke?
1) mechanical removal of clot 2) angioplasty and stents 3) carotid endarterectomy
What are the three most common types of skin cancer?
1) melanoma 2) basal cell carcinoma 3) squamous cell carcinoma
What are some homecare considerations for a patient with a blood disorder?
1) meticulous home care routine 2) low cariogenic foods 3) soft toothbrush 4) avoid products with alcohol 5) fluoride products 6) careful flossing
What are the homecare considerations for a patient with epilepsy?
1) meticulous oral hygiene 2) OHI at every appointment 3) brush twice daily 4) drink water 5) chew xylitol gum
What are the homecare considerations for HIV/AIDS patient?
1) meticulous oral hygiene 2) at least 6 month recare 3) Rx fluoride 4) salivary substitute 5) anti-fungals
What are 2 examples of antibiotics used to treat Crohn's disease?
1) metronidazole 2) ciproflaxin
What dental products may contain gluten in them?
1) mouth rinses 2) prophy paste 3) dentrifice 4) floss 5) fluoride 6) topical anesthetic 7) gloves 8) orthodontic retainers
What are the signs and symptoms of oral cancer?
1) mouth sores/sore throat 2) slow healing 3) persistent pain 4) red and/or white patches in the mouth 5) difficulty swallowing or chewing 6) difficulty and/or pain involving the jaw or tongue 7) lumps or thickening of the mucosa 8) hoarseness or change in voice 9) weight loss
What are the oral manifestations and complications of cancer due to chemotherapy and radiation?
1) mucositis 2) infection 3) xerostomia 4) abnormal dental development (before age 9) 5) bleeding 6) caries 7) candiasis 8) tissue sloughing
What are the characteristics of congential MD (floppy baby syndrome)
1) muscle weakness 2) joint deformities 3) spinal curvature 4) seizures in 20-30% 5) short life span
What are the disadvantages of the peritoneal dialysis?
1) need frequent sessions 2) risk of abdominal hernia 3) less effective than hemodialysis
What are the disease prevention strategies for Crohn's disease?
1) no smoking 2) adequate vitamin D levels
What are the dental treatment considerations for a patient with seizures?
1) provide good pain control 2) reduce stress 3) increased risk for bleeding 4) monitor BP 5) frequent appointments 6) premedication is not recommended
What are characteristics of oculopharyngeal MD?
1) ptosis 2) dysphagia 3) atrophy of the tongue
What are some ways to prevent COPD?
1) quit smoking 2) reduce exposure to indoor/outdoor pollutants 3) regular exercise 4) good nutrition 5) adequate hydration
What are the later symptoms of HIV?
1) rapid weight loss 2) recurring fever 3) fatigue 4) swelling of lymph nodes 5) diarrhea lasting over 1 week 6) sores in mouth and genitals 7) pneumonia 8) memory loss
What are some dental treatment considerations for a patient with a cleft lip or palate?
1) referral to oral surgeon 2) prosthesis 3) ortho 4) restorative dentistry 5) avoid using aerosols
What are some ways to prevent oral cancer?
1) regular visits to a physcian 2) limit smoking and drinking 3) avoid HPV infection 4) limit exposure to UV light 5) eat a healthy diet 6) wear properly fitted dentures 7) treat pre-cancerous growths 8) chemoprevention
What is the etiology of secondary polycythemia?
1) renal cell carcinoma 2) hypoxia
What are some medical considerations associated with Parkinson's disease?
1) respiratory abnormalities 2) aspiration pneumonia 3) COPD 4) cardiac arrhythmias 4) orthostatic hypotension
What environmental exposures and other injuries can increase a persons risk for parkinson's?
1) rural living 2) intake of well water 3) heavy metal and hydrocarbon exposure 4) stroke 5) brain tumor 6) head injury 7) exposure to mangenese 8) mercury 9) carbon disulfide 10) street heroin contaminated with meperidine analogue
What are the homecare considerations with a patient with spinal cord injury?
1) saliva substitute 2) fluoride 3) xyltiol 4) alcohol free mouthrinse 5) remineralization therapy 6) mechanical toothbrush 7) mouthstick hygiene and education
What are some homecare considerations for a patient with schizophrenia?
1) saliva substitutes 2) fluoride products 3) antimicorbials 4) thick handle toothbrush
What are some homecare recommendations for a patient with renal disease?
1) salivary substitutes 2) fluoride/xylitol 3) chlorhexidine/triclosan rinse 4) OHI 5) meticulous homecare
how is obstruction exacerbated in the airways in chronic bronchitis?
1) scarring 2) increased sputum production 3) mucous plugging 4) collapse of peripheral airways
What are the oral manifestations and complications of seizures?
1) scarring of oral tissue 2) fractured teeth 3) bruxism 4) gingival overgrowth
what are common oral manifestation seen with muscular dystrophy?
1) xerostomia 2) higher caries risk 3) TMJ issues 4) malocclusion
What are the ABCDEs of skin cancer?
A - asymmetry B - border C - color D - diameter E - evolving
Which of the following is not true about HIV transmission? A. HIV can survive for a long time outside the body B. cannot be transmitted through routine daily activites C. most common method of transmission is intercourse in men who have sex with men D. virus cannot be transmitted through animals/insects E. infected patient that is taking antiretroviral medication can still infect others
A. HIV can survive a long time outside of the body *HIV cannot survive long outside of body
What medications can be used to treat irritability in autism? A. Risperidone and aripiprazole B. Prozac C. Naltrexone
A. Risperidone and aripiprazole
Which of the following causes of Down syndrome is three copies of chromosome 21 in all cells caused by development of the egg or spermatozoa? A. Trisomy 21 B. Mosaic Down syndrome C. Translocation Down syndrome
A. Trisomy 21
a blood disorder that involves destruction of the bone marrow is known as: A. agranulocytosis B. hemophilia C. polycythemia D. leukocytosis
A. agranulocytosis
Which of the following is a short-acting bronchodilator? A. albuterol B. tiotropium C. Theophylline D. trihexyphenidyl E. memantine
A. albuterol
Which of the following are 1 st line medications to treat bipolar disorder? A. antidepressants B. mood stabilizers C. atypical antipsychotics D. none of the above
A. antidepressants *this includes selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
Which of the following types of drugs would be used to treat a mild form of lupus? A. aspirin and NSAIDS B. antimalarials C. glucocorticoids D. cytotoxic agents
A. aspirin and NSAIDS
All of the following are symptoms of hyperglycemia except: A. sweating B. dry mouth C. weakness D. headache E. blurred vision
A. sweating *this is a symptom of hypoglycemia
A measure of the physical condition of newborn. It is obtained by adding points (2, 1, 0) for heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, response to stimulation, and skin coloration. A score 10 is desired
Apgar score
What are treatment options for Reynaud's syndrome?
1) don't smoke 2) dress warmly 3) use biofeedback 4) calcium channel blockers in severe cases 5) prevent skin ulcers from getting infected
How do you prevent autism while pregnant?
1) don't take drugs 2) seek treatment for existing health conditions 3) get vaccinated 4) don't consume alcohol 5) see an OBGYN
What are the medications used to treat Lyme disease?
1) doxycycline 2) amoxicillin 3) IV antibiotics (cephalosporins, pen G, Chloramphenicol)
What are some environmental causes to schizophrenia?
1) drugs 2) medical illness 3) stressful psychological events 4) viral infection 5) family situations
What are the 4 types of cerebral palsy?
1) dyskinetic or athetoid palsy 2) ataxic palsy 3) spastic palsy 4) combined palsy
what are the disease prevention strategies for bipolar disorder?
1) early identification for those with high risk 2) early intervention of medication 3) psychotherapy
What are some examples of bisphosphanates that are used to treat osteoporosis?
1) fosamax 2) actonel 3) boniva 4) nerixia 5) aclasta
What are the signs and symptoms of of muscular dystrophy?
1) frequent falling 2) delayed first steps 3) large calf muscles 4) muscle pain, stiffness 5) lordosis 6) walking on toes 7) waddling gait
What are the early symptoms of renal disease?
1) general ill feeling 2) fatigue 3) headaches 4) nausea 5) loss of appetite 6) weight loss
What are the oral manifestations and complications associated with red blood disorders?
1) generalized pallor of tissues 2) increased risk for perio 3) bleeding/enlarged gums 4) infection 5) delayed eruption 6) malocclusion 7) dentin hypersensitivity 8) facial and dental pain 9) petechiae 10) hematoma 11) ecchymosis 12) atrophic glossitis with loss of filiform papillae 13) angular cheilitis 14) increased risk for candidiasis 15) burning tongue 16) pain with swallowing 17) atrophic gingiva 18) bone-loss/thinning of border of mandible
What factors can contribute to bipolar disorder?
1) genetics 2) brain structure/function 3) chemical imbalance of noradrenaline, serotonin, and dopamine
What causes type I diabetes?
1) genetics 2) environment 3) viral infections
What are some oral manifestations and complications associated with fibromyalgia
1) gingivitis 2) mouth sores 3) TMJ issues 4) enexplained toothache 5) bruxism 6) xerostomia 7) glossodynia 8) dysphagia 9) tissue irritation 10) edema 11) leukoplakia/erythroplakia
What are the homecare considerations for a patient with muscular dystrophy?
1) give info to caregiver 2) floss holders 3) 3-sided toothbrush 4) toothbrush grips
What are some oral manifestations and complications associated with COPD?
1) halitosis 2) extrinsic tooth stain 3) nicotine stomatitis 4) periodontal disease 5) premalignant mucosal lesions 6) increased risk for oral cancer 7) xerostomia
Where are oral erythematous erosions on SLE patients found?
1) hard palate 2) soft palate 3) buccal mucosa 4) vermillion border of the lips
What are the signs and symptoms of polycythemias?
1) headache 2) fatigue 3) blurred or double vision 4) problems breathing laying down 5) weakness 6) excessive sweating 7) weight loss
What are the three most common forms of hemophilia?
1) hemophilia A (classic) 2) Hemophilia B (Christmas Disease) 3) Von Willebrand's disease
What type of medications are used to treat fibromyalgia?
1) heterocyclic antidepressant agents (HCA) 2) muscle relaxants 3) hypnotics 4) analgesics 5) anticonvulsants 6) medical marijuana
What is the etiology of a stroke?
1) high blood pressure 2) atherosclerosis 3) atrial fibrillation 4) high cholesterol 5) aneurysms 6) head injuries 7) genetics
What are the signs and symptoms of manic episodes?
1) high, elated feeling 2) energetic 3) increased activity levels 4) feeling jumpy or wired 5) trouble sleeping 6) talking fast 7) agitated 8) does too many things at once 9) does risky things
While doing a medical history for a patient with epilepsy what should you ask them?
1) history type 2) age at onset 3) causes 4) current and regular use of medications 5) frequency of physician visits 6) quality of seizure 7) frequency of seizures 8) date of latest seizure 9) any precipitating factors
What are the two main types of lymphomas?
1) hodgkin lymphoma 2) non-hodgkin lymphoma
What are the three main factors that cause lupus?
1) hormones 2) genetics 3) environment
What are the oral manifestations and complications associated with cerebral palsy?
1) hyperactive bite and gag 2) abnormal function and of facial muscles 3) musculoskeletal abnormality 4) malocclusion 5) mouth breathing and tongue thrust 6) attrition 7) erosion 8) oral injury 9) caries 10) phenytoin-induced gingival overgrowth 11) heavy calculus 12) mechanical difficulty 13) mouthbreathing 14) ineffective self-cleaning 15) increased food retention
What are some other common symptoms associated with autism?
1) hyperactivity 2) impulsivity 3) short attention span 4) meltdowns 5) unusual sleeping habits 6) self-abusive behavior
What are the risk factors for renal disease?
1) hypertension 2) heredity 3) environmental factors 4) silica exposure 5) hyperlipidemia
What are medical considerations for Lyme disease?
1) identification of unusual symptoms in abscence of a clear medical condition 2) parotid gland involvement 3) facial and dental neuralgia 4) TMJ symptoms
What are some causes of Crohn's disease?
1) immune dysfunction 2) environmental factors 3) genetics
What are the potential secondary complications seen with a patient with a T6 or above spinal cord injury?
1) impaired respiratory function 2) pressure sores 3) spasticity 4) body temp 5) vulnerable to infection 6) cardiovascular instability 7) neurogenic bladder and bowel 8) autonomic dysreflexia
What are the signs and symptoms of chronic SCD?
1) increase fluid viscosity 2) blood stasis 3) thrombosis 4) infarction
What are the oral manifestations and complications seen with diabetic patients?
1) increased gingival inflammation 2) periodontitis 3) caries 4) angular cheilits 5) xerostomia 6) red mucosa 7) oral candidiasis 8) burning mouth 9) delayed wound healing 10) diminshed taste perception
All of the following are signs and symptoms of manic episodes except: A. energetic B. active C. trouble concentrating D. agitated, irritable, or touchy E. all of the above are true
C. trouble concentrating *this is true for depressive episodes
All of the following are signs of emphysema except: A. difficulty breathing on exertion B. barreld chest C. wet cough D. weight loss
C. wet cough *this wolud be true for chronic bronchitis, in emphysema patients experience a dry cough
scleroderma is also called CREST syndrome. What does CREST stand for?
C= calcinosis R= raynaud phenomenon E= esophageal dysfunction S= sclerodactyly T= telangiectasia
______ is the most commonly used peritoneal dialysis because it requires shorter exchange periods of ___-____ minutes
CAPD, 30-45
a glycoprotein found in helper T-cells
CD4+
Approximately 70% of patients with this disease require some form of surgery, and 40% have recurrent disease necessitating additional surgery
Crohn's disease
multisystemic inflammatory disease caused by the tickborne spirochete Borrelia burgdorferi
Lyme Disease
taking antiviral medicines after being potentially exposed to HIV to prevent becoming infected and must be taken within 72 hours after exposure
PEP (post-exposure prophylaxis)
brain position emission tomography scan that takes images of brain activity
PET scan
condition present at birth, in which the infant has a smaller-than-normal lower jaw, a tongue that falls back in the throat, and difficulty breathing
Pierre Robin Syndrome (Sequence)
The unit of heredity that is passed from the parent to their offspring's characteristics
Genes
What is the etiology of AIDS?
HIV attacks the immune system by destroying CD4+ cells. CD4+ is a lymphocyte that is vital for destroying pathogens. The destruction of CD4+ cells leaves AIDS patients vulnerable to other infections and diseases. AIDS mortality is usually due to opportunistic infections
the primary test used to determine long-term (6-8 weeks) blood glucose levels
HbA1c
Paralysis on one side of the body
Hemiplegia
Which of the following medications used to treat parkinson's disease is a MAO-B inhibitor which can cause accumlation of dopamine in nerve cells? A. levodopa B. apomorphine C. selegiline D. amantadine E. trihexyophenidyl
C. selegiline
What is the most common form of CP? A. dyskinetic (athetoid) palsy B. ataxic palsy C. spastic palsy D. combined palsy
C. spastic palsy
Which of the following types of CP is characterized by spasms, stiffness, and rigid muscles resistant to movement A. dyskinetic (athetoid) palsy B. ataxic palsy C. spastic palsy D. combined palsy
C. spastic palsy
Which of the following stages of renal disease is associated with a loss of 50% or more renal function and the GFR is is between 30-59? A. stage 1 B. stage 2 C. stage 3 D. stage 4 E. stage 5
C. stage 3
A patient undergoing dialysis should have the dental hygiene visit scheduled: A. immediately after dialysis B. within 12 hours of dialysis C. the day after dialysis D. 3 days after dialysis
C. the day after dialysis
Which of the following is blockage to one or more arteries supplying blood to the brain? A. lucunar infarction B. embolic stroke C. thrombotic stroke D. large vessel thrombosis
C. thrombotic stroke
Which of the following types of spinal cord injuries causes loss of sensation and movement in one arm and both legs? A. tetraplagia B. paraplegia C. triplegia D. quadriplegia
C. triplegia
an area of inflamed or demyelinated CNS tissue
plaque
cell in connective tissue converted from B lymphocyte
plasma cell
normal blood is composed of 55% _______ ______ and 45% _____ ________
plasma fluid, formed elements
collapsed lung
pneumothorax
red blood disorder of increase in number/concentration of RBCs above normal levels
polycythemias
anterior part of maxilla that contains the incisor teeth
premaxilla
surgical removal of all of the rectum and part of the colon
proctocolectomy
What are the goals for treatment for cleft lip or palate?
produce closures to aid in feeding, speech, growth and development, and reduction of infection
the principle marker of kidney damage is persistent _______ in the urine
protein
What is the very rare type II myotonic (steinert's disease) of muscular dystrophy
proximal myotonic myopathy
a significant major mental disorder that so greatly impairs perception, thinking, emotional response, and/or personal orientation that the individual loses touch with reality
psychosis
the use of high-energy rays, x-rays, to treat cancer
radiation therapy
frequent coughing or problems passing stools may cause rectal tissues from inside the anus to move out of your rectum
rectal prolapse
How is bipolar II disorder different than bipolar I?
recurrent depressive and hypomanic episodes not as full-blown manic episodes
lessening in the severity of symptoms, or a "return" to the level of health equal or similar to the experienced prior to the last attack
remission
This condition results from damage or deterioration of nephrons
renal disease
Your patient has: - enamel hypoplasia, - Oral signs of pallor, - red/orange discoloration What condition is this associated with?
renal disease
______ _______ is the leading cause of death in patients with type I diabetes
renal failure
immature red blood cells without a nucleus
reticulocyte
doctors who diagnose and treat diseases of the bones, joints, muscles, and tendons, including arthritis and collagen diseases
rhematologist
autoimmune disease of unknown origin that is characterized by symmetric inflammation of joints and occurs when the immune system attacks the synovium
rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
What type of specialist will primarily be involved in the care of scleroderma?
rheumatologist
secalin is a component of gluten found in _______
rye
The cause of this condition is unknown; collagen synthesis irregularities, immunologic disorders, and microvascular abnormalities have been implicated
scleroderma
an abnormal condition in which tissue has become hard, produced by overgrowth of fibrous tissue scars
sclerosis
What caution should the dental hygienist be aware of while administering local anesthesia to patient with hemophilia?
should avoid the administration of regional nerve blocks in which the risk of positive aspiration is great
hereditary form of hemolytic anemia from defective hemoglobin molecule that causes a crescent shape of the erythrocytes from being deoxygenated
sickle cell disease (SCD)
_______ tics are sudden, brief, repetitive tic that involves a limited amount of muscle groups
simple
What is the main goal for treating stages 1&2 renal disease?
slow disease process and preserve patient's quality of life
damage to the spinal cord that blocks communication between the brain and the body
spinal cord injury
a test used to test how well your lungs work, used for diagnosing COPD
spirometry
occurs randomly
sporadic
matter expectorated from the respiratory system composed mainly of mucous
sputum
Which stage of renal disease involved loss of at least 50% kidney function?
stage 3
when any surprising stimuli can trigger uncontrolled body movement
startle reflex
_______ ________ is continuous convulsions lasting more than 5 minutes
status epileptics
narrowed section of intestine due to thickening inflammation or scar tissue
strictures
blood supply to part of the brain is blocked or interrupted depriving the brain tissue from O2 and nutrients
stroke (cerebrovascular accident)
dopamine is a neurotransmitter that transmits signals between the _____ ______ and other regions of the brain
substantia nigra
What is the main area of the brain that affects movement and balance does Parkinson's affect?
substantia nigra of basal ganglion
reduces surface tension of fluid in the lungs
surfactant
What is the treatment for a cleft lip or palate?
surgery when child is 6 weeks and 9 months old and through teen years to complete long-term treatment plan and prosthetic devises (nasoalveolar molding appliance)
specialized connective tissue that lines the inner surface of capsules of synovial joints and tendon sheath
synovium
_______ scleroderma includes the skin and other organs
systemic
many of the drugs used to treat rheumatoid arthritis are also used in the treatment of what disease
systemic lupus erythematous
involuntary movements of the mouth, lips, tongue, and jaws
tardive dyskinesia
diverse group of genetic blood disorders characterized by absent or decreased production of normal hemoglobin
thalassemia
How do hormones impact lupus?
there is a correlation between lupus symptoms and high estrogen levels that occur during pregnancy and prior to menstrual period
a lowered number of platelets that may be caused by decreased production of in the bone marrow
thrombocytopenia
involunatry movement or vocalization
tic
What is the most common cause of COPD?
tobacco
What is the etiology of chronic bronchitis?
tobacco smoke and other irritants induce thickened bronchial walls with inflammatory cell infiltrate, increased size of the mucous glands, and goblet cell hyperplasia
state of continuous, unremitting action of muscular contractions; appears stiff
tonic
Abnormal electric activity throughout the brain; features a loss of consciousness and violent muscle contractions
tonic clonic seizure or grand mal seizure
when the neck is extended back, the extremities also extend and back is arched
tonic labyrinthine reflex
a seizure with sudden sharp tonic contraction of muscles followed by clonic convulsive movements
tonic-clonic (grand-mal)
neurodevelopmental disorder characterized by motor and vocal tics that becomes evident in early childhood adolescence
tourette syndrome
What is the main symptom of muscular dystrophy
trendelenburg gait
chronic condition that may cause acute pain in the face caused by demyelination of nerve fibers in the trigeminal nerve root
trigeminal neuralgia
[T:F] a patient with a seizure disorder, hypertension, and anxiety disorder and is taking Tegretol. This is used to treat the patient's seizure disorder
true
[T:F] estrogen from hormone therapy and birth control pills do not increase symptoms of lupus
true
[T:F] in parkinson's disease the loss of dopamine results in abnormal nerve-firing patterns causing impaired movement
true
[T:F] the majority of schizophrenics are not violent
true
[T:F] vaccinations lower your chance of infections that can lead to epilepsy
true
[T:F] you should always test blood sugar before treatment on a diabetic patient
true
[T:F] genes alone do not cause FM
true *the etiology is unknown, but there is probably a genetic component and the CNS as the underlying mechanism
[T:F] most dialysis patients receive hemodylasis
true: 80% of patients are on hemodialysis
This class of medication is used to treat schizophrenia and may cause serious extrapyramidal side effects
typical antipsychotics
An inflammatory bowel disease that causes long-lasting inflammation and ulcers in your digestive tract. It affects the innermost lining of your large intestine and rectum
ulcerative colitis
A cleft on one side of the lip that does not extend into the nose
unilateral incomplete
What is the etiology of primary polycythemia?
unknown
What should the chair position be if a patient is experiencing autonomic dysreflexia?
upright
clinical syndrome caused by renal failure. Retention of excretory products and interference with metabolic functions
uremia
What type of medication would a person with stage I COPD be taking?
a short acting inhaler as needed
Is a chronic skin disorder in which a red, raised rash appears on the face, scalp, or elsewhere. The raised areas may become thick and scaly and may cause scarring
discoid rash
What may be some causes of autism?
disruption during brain growth in early development defects in genes that control brain development and regulate how brain cells communicate with each other
What type of muscular dystrophy affects the limbs farthest from the body?
distal muscular dystrophy
What is the etiology of emphysema?
distension of the air spaces distal to terminal bronchioles due to destruction of alveolar walls. Smoke injures the alveolar epithelium destroying alveolar walls creating large air spaces
oculopharyngeal autosomal [recessive/dominant] is more common and the onset occurs after age ______
dominant, 40
When do symptoms usually start in cerebral palsy?
during the first year after birth
slurred or slowed speech
dysarthria
Duchenne MD occurs because of the absence of ________
dystrophin
rod-shaped, cytoplasmic protein, and a protein complex that connects the cytoskeleton of a muscle fiber to the surrounding extracellular matrix through the cell membrane
dystrophin
when an organ or tissue of the body wastes away
dystrophy
at what age is the peak of bone production?
early 20's
hemorrhagic spot larger than petichiae in the skin or mucous membranes; non elevated, blue or purplsih
ecchymosis
What are some home care considerations for Lyme disease?
electric tooth brush if patient suffers from Bell's Palsy and mouthrinse if patient experiences tooth pain
over inflation of alveoli/air sacs which impairs airflow out of the lungs
emphysema
when the kidneys have completely and permanently shut down
end-stage renal disease (ESRD)
rate at which red blood cells sediment in a period of one hour; a common hematology test to diagnose RA, and is non-specific measurement of inflammation
erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
group of steroid hormones that promote the development and maintenance of female characteristics of the body
estrogen
One of the two groups of proteins found in gluten, and it is the part of gluten that contains specific amino acids sequences that people react to if they have celiac disease or another form of gluten sensitivity
gliadin
GFR
glomerular filtration rate
What is the best measure for detecting and testing for renal disease?
glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
burning tongue
glossodynia
protein found in endosperm of wheat, rye, and barley
gluten
specialized epithelial cells that secrete mucous
goblet cell
volume percentage of red blood cells in whole blood
hematocrit
what type of dialysis is the method of choice when azotemia occurs and dialysis is needed on a long-term basis?
hemodialysis
protein in red blood cells that transport molecular oxygen to body cells
hemoglobin
rupture of red blood cells with the release of hemoglobin into the plasma
hemolysis
destruction of blood cells
hemolytic
oldest known hereditary bleeding disorders that are caused by low levels or complete absence of a blood protein essential for clotting
hemophililas
What is the most fatal stroke?
hemorrhagic stroke
bleeding into the soft tissue of joints (knees, ankles, and elbows) begins in the very young with severe hemopilias
hemorthoses
what medication is taken with hemodialysis?
heparin because it prevents clotting
diabetic coma resulting from too little insulin and an accumulation of ketone bodies in the blood
ketoacidosis
What type of diet works to reduce the frequency of seizures?
ketogenic (high fats and low in protein and carbs)
metabolic products of fat within the liver
ketone bodies
A diet high in ____________ is helpful for patients with seizure disorders
ketones
a prosthesis designed to close a congenital or acquired opening
obturator
bacterial or viral disease transmitted from a flea, mosquito, or tick
vector-borne illness
anatomic or functional deficiency in the soft palate or the muscle affecting closure of the opening between mouth and nose in speech
velopharyngeal insufficiency
tiny, hair-like projections lining the small intestine that absorbs vitamins, minerals, and nutrients
villi
What is the common age of onset of sceleroderma?
30-50 years old
a decline in mental abilities, memory, and thinking skills
cognitive degeneration
What type of toothpaste is shown to work best on diabetic patients?
colgate total
How long should CHX be used on a diabetic patient?
4-6 weeks
The standard medications used in the treatment of mild to moderate Alzheimer's disease
Cholinesterase inhibitors
Thread-like structures that make up DNA in a nucleus
Chromosomes
What are the environmental factors that can cause Crohn's?
1) foreign substances 2) bacteria 3) viruses 4) smoking 5) low vitamin D levels
What are common medications used to treat Alzheimer's disease and how do they work?
1) Aricept (Cholinesterase inhibitor) 2) memantine (N-methyl-D aspartate (NMDA) antagonist)
What types of medications would a person with cerebral palsy be taking?
1) BT-A 2) intrathecal badofen 3) seizure medications 4) gastroesophageal reflux 5) incontinence 6) opioids
What are the two types of inflammatory bowel disease
1) Crohn's disease 2) ulcerative colitis
What tests and measures are used to monitor or diagnoses renal disease?
1) GFR 2) urinalysis 3) BUN (blood, urea, nitrogen) 4) serum creatinine 5) creatinine clearance 6) electrolyte measures
What is the etiology of leukopenia?
1) HIV/AIDS 2) typhoid fever 3) flu 4) malaria 5) measles 6) rubella 7) disease/intoxification of bone marrow
What factors can cause type II diabetes?
1) Hispanic, Indian, and Asian American race 2) increased age 3) weight 4) high cholesterol 5) high blood pressure 6) smoking 7) diet 8) activity level 9) genetics
What are the medications one may take for spinal cord injury?
1) NSAIDS 2) antiseizure medications 3) antidepressants 4) narcotics 5) muscle relaxants 6) topical local anesthetics
What types of medications are used to treat RA?
1) NSAIDS 2) steroids 3) disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs) 4) biologics
What are the homecare considerations for a patient with bipolar disorder?
1) Power toothbrush w/ pressure sensor 2) Rx fluoride 3) Saliva substitute 4) Anticariogenic diet 5) Mouthrinse 6) Xylitol
What are the signs and symptoms of acute SCD?
1) Self- limited, reversible pain episodes of the extremities 2) Swelling 3) Fever 4) Dehydration 5) Infarctions of tissues and organs 6) Symptoms of seizure, stroke, or coma 7) Enlargement of heart 8) Damaged liver, lungs, spleen, & kidneys
What are common oral manifestations and complications seen in patients with RA?
1) TMJ issues 2) poor oral hygiene 3) xerostomia 4) anterior open bite 5) high incidence of periodontal disease 6) stomatitis
What can trigger a flare with Lupus?
1) UV light 2) infection 3) stress 4) pregnancy 5) changes in medication
What are the signs and symptoms of celiac disease in adults?
1) abdominal pain 2) chronic diarrhea 3) infertility or recurrent miscarriages 4) anemia 5) chronic fatigue 6) weight loss 7) irritable bowel 8) dermatitis herpetiformis 9) osteoporosis
What are the signs and symptoms of Crohn's Disease?
1) abdominal pain 2) cramping 3) diarhhea 4) weight loss/vitamin deficiencies 5) anemia 6) fatigue 7) fever 8) incontinence and urgency 9) growth retardation in children 10) anxiety 11) embarrassment 12) socially debilitating
What are some oral manifestations seen in children with autism?
1) abrasion 2) attrition 3) erosion 4) self-abusive behavior leading to intraoral trauma 5) caries 6) drooling
What are the early indicators of autism?
1) absence of babbling or pointing by age 1 2) no single words spoken by age 16 months or two-word phrases by age 2 3) lack of response to calling their name 4) loss of language or social skills previously acquired 5) poor eye contact 6) no smiling 7) socially unresponsive 8) excessive arrangement of toys
What is the three step approach to bipolar disorder medications?
1) acute manic phase 2) periods of moderate to severe depression 3) maintenance therapy
What are the leading causes of death in Lupus patients?
1) acute vascular neurologic events 2) renal failure 3) cardiovascular involvement 4) pulmonary involvement
What are the risk factors of dementia?
1) age 2) family history 3) presence of ApoE4 alleles
What are examples of chemotherapy drugs used to treat cancer?
1) alkylating agents 2) antimetabolites 3) anti-tumor antibiotics 4) topoisomer inhibitors 5) mitotic inhibitors 6) corticosteroids
What conditions does dementia include?
1) alzheimer's 2) huntington's 3) Parkinson's 4) frontotemporal dementia 5) vascular dementia
What are the later symptoms of renal disease?
1) anemia 2) leg cramps 3) insomnia 4) ground-glass appearance to the bone
What can cause CP while mother is pregnant?
1) anoxia during pregnancy or delivery 2) maternal infection such as rubella 3) blood type incompatibilty 4) severe nutritional lack during pregnancy 5) maternal diabetes or endocrine imbalance
What medications should be avoided during pregnancy to decrease the risk of cleft palate/lip?
1) anti-seizure 2) acne 3) phenytoin 4) vitamin A 5) corticosteroids
What are some appointment modifications that need to be done for down syndrome patients?
1) antibiotic premedication 2) avoid using ultrasonics and air polisher 3) more frequent appointments 4) communicate with caregiver 5) sedation 6) frequent breaks 7) show, tell, do 8) play background music
What types of drugs can increase a patient's risk in developing osteoporosis?
1) antiseizure 2) gastric reflux 3) cancer 4) transplant patients
What are some medications and treatments that a person with a white blood disorder will be taking?
1) antivirals 2) antibiotics 3) biologics 4) enzymes 5) steroids 6) gamma globulin 7) bone marrow transplant 8) chemotherapy 9) stem cell transplantation
What are some oral complications and manifestations of Crohn's disease?
1) apathous ulcers 2) edma/swelling of the lips 3) oral granulomatosis 4) dry mouth 5) inflammation or abscess in salivary ducts 6) erythema 7) gingivitis 8) cobblestone appearance 9) mucosal tags
What are some ways to prevent having a stroke?
1) attempt to reduce or eliminate risk factors 2) control high blood pressure 3) limit cholesterol and sat. fats 4) quit smoking 5) control diabetes 6) control atherosclerosis 7) maintain a healthy weight 8) limit alcohol intake 9) diet rich in fruits and veggies
What are the phases of a tonic-clonic seizure?
1) aura 2) the tonic (tense) phase and loss of consciousness 3) the clonic convulsions phase 4) postical sleep
What are some dental treatment considerations while treating a patient with a red blood disorder?
1) avoid causing SCD crisis 2) get clearance from physician 3) short appointments 4) medical history 5) reduce stress 6) antibiotics 7) supplemental oxygen 8) low dose vasoconstrictors 9) frequent recall 10) increase risk for CVA and MI 11) have blood test results for hemoglobin and hematocrit 12) prevenative services
What are the medications and treatment options for a person with polycythemia?
1) avoid iron supplements 2) avoid aspirin 3) chemotherapy 4) radiation 5) phelbotomy
What are some medical considerations for a patient with renal disease?
1) avoid medication that are metabolized in the kidneys 2) medical consult for stage 4 or above
What homecare instructions would you give to parent of a child with autism?
1) avoid using sugary foods as rewards 2) powerbrush 3) timer 4) make a schedule with pictures 5) suck on sugar free candy to teach child to swallow 6) practice moving their limb while child is brushing
what are the signs and symptoms of osteoporosis?
1) back pain 2) loss of height 3) stooped posture 4) bone fracture that occurs more easily
What are some dental treatment considerations while treating a patient with celiac?
1) beware of accidental gluten consumption 2) recognize signs and symptoms of celiac to refer to doctor 3) patient may need more bathroom breaks 4) know if patient is on corticosteroid diet 5) high caries risk
What are the different types of treatments for cancer?
1) biopsy 2) surgery 3) radiation 4) chemotherapy 5) photodynamic therapy 6) biologic therapy 7) targeted therapy
What are the 4 types of bipolar disorder?
1) bipolar I 2) bipolar II 3) cyclothymic disorder 4) bipolar not otherwise specified (NOS)
What is the etiology of anemias?
1) blood loss from trauma 2) blood loss from disease 3) internal lesion with constant slow bleeding 4) increased hemolysis 5) nutritional deficiency 6) bone marrow failure 7) low reticulocyte 8) genetics
What are the symptoms of fibromyalgia?
1) body aches 2) chronic facial muscle pain or aching 3) fatigue 4) irritable bowel syndrome 5) memory and cognitive difficulties 6) multiple tender areas 7) numbness and tingling 8) palpitations 9) reduced exercise tolerance 10) sleep disturbances 11) tension or migraine headaches
What are the symptoms of renal failure?
1) bone pain 2) anorexia 3) nausea 4) vomiting 5) malnutrition 6) diarrhea 7) psychotic behavior 8) convulsions
what are the late-stage or chronic signs and symptoms of lyme disease?
1) brain and nervous system 2) muscles and joints 3) heart and circulation 4) digestion 5) reproductive system 6) skin
What triggers bipolar disorder?
1) break-up 2) abuse 3) death of loved one 4) physical illness 5) sleep disturbances 6) overwhelming problems in everyday life
What are some homecare considerations for a down syndrome patient?
1) brush with assistance 2) flossing between teeth that dont touch 3) diet low in sugar and refined carbs 4) explain everything to caregiver
What are the signs and symptoms for lupus?
1) butterfly rash 2) arthritis 3) kidney disease 4) reduction in RBCs and WBCs 5) confusion 6) depression 7) seizures 8) chest pain 9) irregular heart beat
What are the medical considerations for diabetes?
1) cardiovascular disease 2) kidney damage 3) nerve damage 4) blurry vision 5) skin conditions 6) slow wound healing
What are some dental treatment consideration related to medications of Crohn's disease?
1) careful prescribing opioids because they may already be taking them 2) avoid NSAIDs 3) avoid antibiotics of penicillin or clindomycin because risk of C. Diff 4) dentists should provide adequate pain control 5) head and neck exam should be thorough
What are some oral manifestations of stroke?
1) caries 2) periodontal disease 3) facial paralysis 4) dexterity 5) dietary adjustments 6) xerostomia 7) oral ulcers 8) candidiasis
What are the treatment options for cystic fibrosis?
1) chest clapping or percussion 2) breathing techniques 3) aerobic exercise 4) pulmonary rehabilitation 5) A, D, E, and K supplements 6) high salt diet 7) feeding tube at night 8) well balanced diet rich in calories, fat and, proteins
What are the medical considerations for a patient with a cleft lip or palate?
1) congenital anomalies 2) facial deformities 3) infections 4) airway and breathing 5) speech 6) hearing loss 7) Pierre Robin Syndrome
What are the medical and dental considerations when treating a patient with lupus?
1) consult with physician for patient stability, extent of disease, and a hematologic profile 2) there may be increased bleeding 3) postoperative antibiotics 4) increased risk for infective endocarditis
What are the two types of peritoneal dialysis?
1) continous cyclic peritoneal dialysis (CCPD) 2) chronic ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD)
What are ways to prevent renal disease?
1) control blood glucose levels 2) control blood pressure 3) healthy diet 4) avoiding environmental triggers and silica
What type of medications will a person with muscular dystrophy be taking?
1) corticosteroids 2) ACE inhibitors 3) analgesics 4) anticonvulsants 5) antibiotics 6) immunosuppressants
What medications are used to treat celiac?
1) corticosteroids 2) vitamin and mineral supplements
What are homecare considerations for a diabetic patient?
1) daily meticulous homecare 2) Rx fluoride 3) alcohol-free mouthwash 4) encourage physical activity and healthy diet
What are some oral manifestations and complications seen in patients with osteoporosis?
1) damage to the jawbone 2) periodontal disease 3) loss of teeth 4) tooth mobility 5) difficulty retaining a denture
What are other medical considerations associated with bipolar disorder?
1) decline in renal function 2) hypothyroidism 3) hypercalcemia 4) psychosis 5) ADHD 6) anxiety 7) substance abuse 8) suicide
What are the types of treatment for a patient with stage 1 or 2 renal disease?
1) decrease retention of nitrogenous waste 2) control hypertension 3) control electrolyte imbalances 4) dietary modifications
What is the etiology of relative polycythemia?
1) dehydration 2) fluid loss from burns 3) smoking 4) hypertension 5) mildly overweight 6) stress
What are the oral signs of Celiac disease?
1) delayed tooth eruption 2) recurrent aphthpus ulcers 3) atrophic glossitis 4) oral lichen planus 5) angular cheilitis 6) enamel hypoplasia
What are some non motor signs an smyptoms of parkinson's?
1) dementia 2) Depression 3) Apathy 4) Fatigue 5) Pain in the shoulder and back 6) Paresthesias ("pins & needles") 7) Constipation 8) Urinary dysfunction 9) Sexual dysfunction 10) Weight loss
What are oral manifestations and complications seen with Lyme Disease?
1) dental neuralgia 2) TMJ problems
What are some homecare considerations for a patient with Alzheimer's disease?
1) determine their primary provider 2) write everything down 3) electric toothbrush 4) fluoride rinse and toothpaste 5) sugarfree candies
What are the four most common causes of ESRD?
1) diabetes mellitus 2) hypertension 3) chronic glomerulonephritis 4) polycystic disease
What are ways to prevent osteoporosis?
1) diet rich in calcium and vitamin D 2) weight-bearing exercises 3) bone density testing
What are some dental treatment considerations while treating a patient with MS?
1) dietary analysis 2) one-on-one relationship 3) some patients may be in wheelchairs so need you may need to accommodate for that
What are the signs and symptoms of chronic bronchitis?
1) difficulty breathing in and out 2) wet cough 3) sedentary 4) overweight 5) cyanotic 6) edematous 7) breathless
What are the signs and symptoms of emphysema?
1) difficulty breathing out 2) dry cough 3) barreled chest 4) weight loss 5) chest radiograph abnormalities 5) purses lips to expel air
What are some signs and symptoms of cleft?
1) difficulty feeding 2) talking from the nose 3) change in nose shape 4) poorly aligned teeth 5) problems gaining weight 6) frequent ear infections 7) difficulties with speech 8) flow of liquid into nasal passages 9) hearing problems
What are the later indicators of autism?
1) difficulty making friends 2) difficulty initiating conversation 3) absence or impairment of imaginative and social play 4) repetitive or unusual language 5) abnormally intense or focused interest 6) preoccupation with certain objects or subjects 7) inflexible adherence to specific routines or rituals
What are the oral manifestations and complications with a cleft lip or palate?
1) disturbance in tooth development and abnormalities 2) missing or supernumerary teeth 3) malocclusion 4) open palate 5) lack of muscle coordination 6) difficulty with speech 7) biofilm retention 8) coated and fissured tongue 9) early periodontal disease in children 10) high risk for dental caries 11) difficulty in mastication 12) halitosis 13) missing uvula
What types of medications may a down syndrome patient may be taking due to conditions associated with down syndrome?
1) diuretics 2) antidysrhythmias 3) analgesics
What are the complications after having a stroke?
1) edema 2) paralysis 3) aphasia (difficulty talking) 4) dysphagia 5) memory loss 6) depression 7) pain, numbness, tingling of affected body parts 8) seizures 9) pneumonia 10) self-care is affected
What are the homecare considerations for a patient with cancer?
1) education 2) avoid alcohol-based mouthrinses 3) soft bristle brush 4) daily fluoride gel applications before radiation treatments 5) saliva substitutes 6) tobacco cessation 7) nutritional counseling
What are the dental treatment considerations while treating a patient with bipolar disorder?
1) elective dental treatment is postponed until patient isn't experieincing manic or depressive episodes 2) Consult with physician/psychiatrist 3) Simplify surroundings 4) Be patient 5) 3-4 month recare 6) Direct, simple homecare instructions 7) Consider contraindications to medications - nitrous oxide may induce triggers 8) Motivation
What are some homecare considerations for a patient with fibromyalgia?
1) electric toothbrush (if noise isn't bothersome) 2) extended or large toothbrush handle 3) flossing device 4) oral irrigators 5) xerostomia treatment 6) xylitol mints
What are some homecare considerations for patients that had a stroke?
1) electric toothbrush 2) modified toothbrush handles 3) floss handles 4) CHX rinse 5) prescription fluoride 6) xerostomia rinses 7) avoid rinses with alcohol 8) saliva substitutes 9) drinking plenty of water 10) educate caregivers
What are some homecare considerations for a patient with MS?
1) electric toothbrush 2) xerostomia 3) stress reduction protocol
What are the homecare considerations for a patient with cystic fibrosis?
1) electric toothbrush 3) floss daily 4) fluoride toothpaste and mouthrinse 5) rinse with sodium bicarbonate after drinks or snacks with sugar and using inhaler
What are the dental considerations for a patient with cerebral palsy?
1) electric toothbrush for caregiver 2) show-tell-do 3) educate the caregiver 4) drink water after medications 5) floss holder 6) xerostomia treatment 7) mouthguard
What are some homecare considerations for a patient with RA?
1) electric toothbrush with a modified handle 2) cleaning aids 3) xerostomia treatment 4) detailed homecare instructions
What are the oral manifestations and complications associated with lupus?
1) erythematous erosions or ulcerations 2) desquamative appearance of the gingiva 3) lesions resembling lichen planus or leukoplakia 4) xerostomia 5) dysgeusia 6) glossodynia
What tests are used to diagnose RA and help prevent the disease from getting worse?
1) erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 2) anti-CCP
What are some ways to prevent Alzheimer's?
1) exercise 2) brain exercise 3) healthy diet 4) moderate alcohol consumption
What are the signs and symptoms of celiac disease in children?
1) failure to thrive 2) abdominal distension/bloating 3) chronic diarrhea 4) delayed puberty 5) stunted growth 6) poor appetite 7) vomiting
What are the early-stage signs and symptoms of cystic fibrosis?
1) failure to thrive as an infant 2) persisten cough and wheezing 3) recurrent pneumonia 4) excessive appetite but poor weight gain 5) salty skin or sweat 6) bulky, foul-smelling stools
What is a persons risk for getting Celiac disease?
1) family member with celiac 2) type I diabetes 3) down syndrome or turner syndrome 4) autoimmune thyroid disease 5) microscopic colitis 6) Addison's disease 7) rheumatoid arthritis
What are the signs and symptoms of leukemia?
1) fatigue 2) easy bruising 3) bone pain 4) abdominal pain 5) fever 6) weight loss
When can symptoms of FM get worse?
1) fatigue 2) tension 3) inactivity 4) changes in weather 5) overexertion 6) depression 7) hormonal fluctuations
What are the signs and symptoms depressive episodes?
1) feeling sad and down 2) little energy 3) trouble sleeping 4) can't enjoy anything 5) feeling worried 6) trouble concentrating 7) forgetful 8) eating too much or too little 9) slowed down
What are some common characteristics associated with down syndrome?
1) flattened facial features 2) protruding tongue 3) upward slanting eyes 4) poor muscle tone 5) short stature
What are the early symptoms of lyme disease?
1) flu-like illness 2) red expanding skin rash 3) Bell's palsy 4) lyme carditis 5) severe headaches and neck stiffness 6) pain and swelling in large joints
What are ways to prevent exacerbation of SCD?
1) folate supplements 2) pneumococcal polyvalent vaccine for children 3) allogenic stem-cell transplantation 4) daily penicillin until 6 years old
What are some dental treatment considerations while treating a patient with fibromyalgia?
1) not capable of enduring long appointments 2) use bite block 3) patient may not be comfortable in supine position 4) provide neck, back, or leg supports 5) light, noise, odor, heat, cold, and touch hypersensitivity 6) written instructions 7) educate difference between oral pain vs. chronic pain 8) frequent recare
What are the clinical manifestations of limb-girdle MD?
1) onset before middle or late childhood 2) affects muscles of hip and shoulder girdle 3) hypertrophy of calves 4) lordotic posture 5) weakness of flexors and extensons 6) diminshed tendon stretch reflexes 7) cardiac involvement
What are the oral complications related to spinal cord injury?
1) oral self-care due to lack of arm or hand function 2) mastication 3) swallowing 4) anxiety
What are common oral manifestations of HIV/AIDS patients?
1) oropharyngeal candidiasis 2) pseudomembranous candidiasis 3)angular cheilitis 4) linear gingival erythema 5) NUG/NUP 6) oral herpes 7) oral warts (HPV) 8)hairy leukoplakia 9) Kaposi's sarcoma 10) recurrent apthous ulcers 11) non-hodgkin's lymphoma
What are the medications and treatment options for a patient with SCD?
1) pain medications 2) antibiotics 3) hydroxyurea 4) penicillin 5) oxygen therapy 6) blood transfusions
What are the signs and symptoms of anemias?
1) pale thin skin 2) weakness 3) difficulty breathing upon exertion 4) headache 5) vertigo 6) ringing in the ears 7) dimness of vision 8) brittle and loss of convexity of nails 9) fatigue 10) palpitations 11) weight loss 12) syncope 13) hypotension 14) severe paresthesia
What are common oral manifestations seen with patients with renal disease?
1) pallor of oral mucosa 2) red/orange discoloration if cheeks and mucosa 3) diminished salivary flow 4) parotid gland infections 5) candidiasis 6) stomatitis 7) petechiae 8) enamel hypoplasia
What are the digestive system signs and symptoms with cystic fibrosis?
1) pancreatic enzymes can't reach intestines due to mucous 2) intestines can't fully absorb fats and protein 3) ongoing diarrhea 4) poor weight gain 5) pancreaitis 6) rectal prolapse 7) liver disease 8) diabetes 9) gallstones
What are the sign and symptoms of lymphoma of the skin?
1) papules, patches, plaques, nodules, or tumors 2) swollen/inflamed lymph nodes 3) ulcerated lesions 4) unexplained weight loss 5) fever 6) profuse sweating 7) severe itching 8) rashes
What are the medical considerations for a patient with leukemia?
1) patient is stressed from treatment and costs 2) poor healing 3) excessive bleeding 4) infection post surgery 5) anemia 6) hemorrhage 7) bone marrow failure
What are some dental treatment considerations for patients with blood disorders?
1) patients should be seen before chemotherapy 2) platelet count 3) bland mouthrinse 4) antibiotic prophylaxis 5) chlorhexidine for mucositis 6) antifungals
what are some dental considerations for a patient with muscular dystrophy?
1) patients stay in wheelchair during treatment 2) short appointment 3) morning appointments after medication 4) cheek retractors 5) bite blocks rubber dams 6) power of attorney
What are the two types of dialysis to treat renal disease?
1) peritoneal dialysis 2) hemodialysis
What are way to manage Crohn's Disase?
1) pharmacotherapy 2) surgery 3) diet and nutrition
What are the first line drugs to treat epilepsy?
1) phenytoin 2) carbamazepine 3) valproic acid
What are the signs and symptoms of skin cancer?
1) pink 2) red and swollen 3) peeling 4) bleeding/open sore 5) thick and crusty 6) slow or no healing 7) changes in sensation/surface 8) ABCDEs
The etiology of Alzheimer's is unknown, but what can it be related to?
1) plaque buildup in the brain 2) older age 3) family history 4) hypertension 5) APOE 4 genotype 6) chromosome 21 7) traumatic brain injury
What are common conditions seen in down syndrome patients?
1) poor immune system 2) periodontal disease 3) heart defects 4) risk for leukemia 5) risk for hypothyroidism 6) sleep apnea 7) alzheimers 8) narrowing of oropharynx and nasopharynx 9) stenotic ear canals 10) mitral valve prolapse
What are some oral manifestations and complications associated with parkinson's disease?
1) poor oral hygiene due to dexterity 2) difficulty swallowing 3) difficulty talking 4) difficulty chewing 5) increased chance of choking 6) xerostomia or excessive salivation (sialorrhea) 7) bruxism
What are some dental products that can help the Lupus patient with their symptoms?
1) powerbrush 2) hand-held flosser or waterpik 3) biotene 4) xylitol 5) fluoride
What are the dental treatment considerations for a patient with a spinal cord injury?
1) pre-appointment consult 2) tell-show-do technique 3) periodic rest breaks 4) proper airway position 5) wheelchair transfers/lift
What are some oral manifestations and complications associated with white blood disorders?
1) presence of infection 2) pallor of mucosa 3) lymphadenopathy 4) gingival enlargement 5) ulceration 6) gingival bleeding 7) granulocytic sarcoma/chloroma 8) candidiasis
In parkinson's disease there is a presence of Lewy bodies in brain cells. What are the 2 different hypothesis of how Lewy bodies work?
1) prevent cells from working properly 2) keep harmful proteins locked up so cells can function
What are some disease prevention strategies for seizures?
1) prevent traumatic brain injuries 2) lower risk of stroke and heart disease 3) get vaccinated 4) was your hands and prepare food safely 5) stay healthy during pregnancy
What are the stages of HIV infection?
1) primary infection 2) clinical latent infection 3) early symptomatic infection 4) progression to AIDS
What are the initial symptoms of MS?
1) problems with coordination 2) transient tingling in extremities 3) visual impairment 4) tremors 5) fatigue 6) weakness
What are the dental treatment considerations for a diabetic patient?
1) schedule appointment early in the day after breakfast 2) have glucose tablets readily available 3) check A1c levels 4) stress reduction 5) avoid tissue laceration 6) nutrition counseling 7) home fluoride 8) xerostomia protocol 9) frequent bathroom breaks
What are the medical considerations for a patient with cerebral palsy?
1) seizures 2) sensory disorders 3) dysarthria 4) cognitive impairment 5) uncontrollable reflexes 6) premature aging 7) chronic pain 8) arthritis
What are some homecare considerations for a patient with COPD?
1) self exams for oral cancer screenings 2) xerostomia reduction protocol 3) CHX mouthrinse 4) powerbrush or soft bristle brush 5) brushing 2x daily 6) flossing daily
What are the medical considerations associated with autism?
1) sensory problems 2) seizures 3) self-abuse behavior 4) tuberous sclerosis 5) fragile X syndrome
What are some dental considerations for an autistic patient?
1) short appointment 2) frequent appointments 3) dim lights 4) reduce noise 5) positive reinforcement 6) don't force eye contact if patient is uncomfortable 7) nicely tell patient what you are doing 8) use short simple sentences
What are some dental treatment considerations while treating a patient with RA?
1) short appointments 2) semi-supine position 3) offer pillows or blankets 4) frequent breaks 5) careful review medical history 6) may be prolonged bleeding 7) know how long patient has taken corticosteroid because may cause adrenal suppression
what part of the body does emery-dreifus affect?
1) shoulders 2) upper arms 3) shin muscles 4) joints
What organs are affected by cystic fibrosis?
1) sinuses 2) respiratory 3) skin 4) liver 5) pancreas 6) intestines 7) reproductive organs
What are the body systems that can be affected by RA caused by inflammation to other parts of the body
1) skin 2) eyes 3) lungs 4) heart 5) blood vessels
what are the steps that occur that cause Celiac disease?
1) small intestine is exposed to gluten 2) WBCs in mucosa presents gluten to T cells triggering inflammatory response 3) increase of IgA and other antibodies 4) inflammatory and innate immune responses damage villi and epithelial cells
What are risk factors for developing cancer?
1) smoking 2) alcohol consumption 3) poor diet 4) obesity and physical inactivity 5) chronic infections 6) family history 7) occupational exposures 8) sunlight 9) radiation 10) medical and iatrogenic factors 11) reproductive and menstrual factors 12) environmental pollutants
What are common symptoms associated with autism?
1) social impairments 2) cognitive impairments communication difficulties 3) repetitive behaviors
What are oral cavity and oropharyngeal cancers?
1) squamous cell carcinoma 2) minor salivary gland carcinomas 3) lymphomas
What are the medical treatments for spinal cord injury?
1) steroids 2) surgery 3) artificial respiration 4) rehabilitation therapy 5) hydrotherapy 6) acupuncture 7) transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation
What are some dental treatment considerations for treating a patient with COPD?
1) stress reduction 2) tobacco cessation 3) treat patient sitting up 4) patient may need oxygen 5) avoid using ultrasonics, air polisher, and nitrous 6) thorough oral cancer screenings 7) have inhaler readily available
How can acquired cerebral palsy occur?
1) stroke 2) car injury 3) shaken-baby syndrome 4) abuse 5) lead poisoning 6) infection that slows blood flow to the brain
What are the signs and symptoms of stroke?
1) sudden onset 2) numbness/weakness of face or limbs usually on one side of the body 3) confusion 4) trouble with vision 5) difficulty walking 6) severe headache with no known cause
What should you do if a patient is having an epileptic episode?
1) supine position 2) keep patient from falling out of chair 3) move sharp instruments 4) loosen belts, collars, and ties 5) establish airway 6) check level of consciousness 7) if seizure lasts more than 5 minutes, activate EMS
What are the late-stage signs and symptoms with pulmonary involvement for cystic fibrosis?
1) tachypnea 2) sustained chronic cough with mucous production and vomiting 3) barrel chest 4) cynosis 5) digital clubbing 6) exertional dyspnea with decreased exercise capacity 7) pneumonothorax 8) right heart failure secondary to pulmonary hypertenstion
What type of medications will a person with cancer be taking?
1) targeted therapy drugs 2) biologic agents 3) bisphosphonates 4) anti-fungals 5) topical antiseptic
What nutritional and supplements can be used for epilepsy?
1) taurine 2) folic acid 3) vitamin B12 4) vitamin E
what are some oral manifestations seen in down syndrome?
1) taurodontism 2) protruding tongue 3) mouthbreathing 4) large, fissured tongue 5) narrow jaw and palate 6) cleft lip/palate 7) delayed eruption 8) microdontia 9) congenitally missing teeth 10) bruxism 11) occlusion 12) decreased risk of dental caries
What are the signs and symptoms of RA?
1) tender, warm, swollen joints 2) joint stiffness after inactivity 3) morning stiffness that lasts longer than 1 hour 4) fatigue 5) fever 6) weight loss 7) significant joint inflammation
How is genetics linked to lupus?
1) there are several genes linked to lupus 2) if there is a family history of autoimmune disorders 3) African, Asian, Hispanic, Native American ethnicity 4) susceptible genes 5) less effective clearance of apoptotic bodies and nuclear antigens 6) antinuclear antibodies form antigen
What are some dental treatment considerations associated with cancer?
1) thorough oral cancer screening 2) fluoride 3) use vasoconstrictors 4) frequent recare appointment 5) avoid alcohol-based mouthrinse 6) use precautions when performing prophy and perio treatment 7) use precaution prescribing x-rays
What environmental factors can cause clefts?
1) tobacco 2) alcohol 3) teratogenic agents 4) inadequate diet 5) lack of prenatal care and risk factor instruction 6) high grade fever and infection 7) genetic problems passed down from both parents
What are the causes of COPD?
1) tobacco 2) genetics 3) exposure to occupational and environmental pollutants 4) absence or deficiency of alpha 1-antrypsin
What are the symptoms of osteonecrosis of the jaw?
1) toothache 2) exposed bone 3) swelling and loosening of the teeth 4) altered sensation 5) recurrent soft tissue infection
What are some dental treatment considerations for a patient with cystic fibrosis?
1) treat patient in semi-supine position 2) short morning appointments 3) assess alveolar bone health 4) don't use nitrous oxide 5) don't use air polisher 6) don't use ultrasonics 7) don't use rubber dams
What are the four motor cardinal signs or symptoms of parkinson's disease?
1) tremor 2) rigidity 3) bradykinesia 4) postural instability
What are the oral manifestations of MS?
1) trigeminal neuralgia 2) paraesthesia 3) bruxism 4) increased caries risk
what are some dental treatment considerations for a patient with Crohn's disease?
1) ulcers are treated with topical steroids 2) encourage patients to remain update on immunizations 3) dietary counseling 4) smoking cessation 5) regular monitoring of caries and pocket depths 6) sensitivity to patient's bathroom needs 7) morning appointments 8) patient may be self conscious about stomach noises 8) have a bathroom deoderizer in bathroom
What are the dental considerations for an HIV/AIDS patient?
1) universal precautions 2) medical consult for CD4+ and viral load 3) caution with LA or systemic medication 4) premed with CD4+<500 cells mm3 5) don't treat if patient has active herpes lesion
How is HIV transmitted?
1) unprotected sex 2) blood transfusions 3) sharing needles 4) pregnancy, delivery, and breast-feeding
What are the signs and symptoms of bipolar disorder?
1) unusually intense emotion 2) changes in sleep pattern 3) changes in activity levels 4) unusual behaviors 5) excessive, loud/rapid speech 6) inflated self-esteem 7) irritable 8) angry
What are the early symptoms of HIV?
1) very few symptoms 2) flu-like symptoms 3) disappear within week-month
What are the environmental factors that trigger lupus?
1) viral infection 2) stress 3) smoking 4) UV light 5) medications 6) exhaustion 7) exposure to silica dust
What are some causes of of sickle cell crisis or the acute form of SCD?
1) viral/bacterial infections 2) hypoxia 3) extreme fatigue 4) stress/anxiety
How can you prevent lyme disease?
1) wear protective clothing 2) light-colored clothing to spot ticks 3) spray footwear with permethrin 4) use repellents with DEET or lemon ecucalyptus oil on the skin
What are ways to prevent spinal cord injuries?
1) wear protective sport equipment 2) use a helmet 3) avoid diving into shallow water 4) wear seatbelt in the car 5) don't speed 6) avoid distractions while driving 7) use handrails while walking and showering
What are ways to prevent skin cancer?
1) wear sunscreen 2) seek shade 3) wear clothing/hats/sunglasses 4) get vitamin D safely 5) be cautious near water, sand, or snow 6) perform self-exams
What are a person's risk factors for developing RA?
1) women 2) older age (between 40-60) 3) family history 4) smoking 5) environmental exposures (asbestos and silica) 6) obesity
What are some dental treatment considerations when treating a patient with Parkinson's?
1) write down home-care instructions 2) short morning dental visits and frequent recare 3) patient should rise slowly from the chair 4) incline chair at 45 degree 5) bite prop 6) use of rubber dam 7) high volume evacuation
What are dental treatment considerations for an alzheimer's patient?
1) write everything down for caregiver and patient 2) mouth prop 3) know who has power of attorney 4) 3 month fluoride varnish application 5) sedation
What are the oral manifestations for spinal cord injury?
1) xerostomia 2) chronic inflammation of the gingiva 3) dental caries
What are oral manifestations associated with cystic fibrosis?
1) xerostomia 2) gingivitis 3) dental caries 4) demarcated opacities/diffuse opacities 5) enamel hypoplasia
What are the oral manifestations and complications associated with bipolar disorder?
1) xerostomia 2) high caries risk 3) periodontal disease 4) loss of taste 5) abrasion 6) toothbrush/floss cuts on gingiva 7) disregard of oral care 8) bruxism
Hemodialysis treatment occurs every ___-_____ days and takes ____-_____ hours
2-3, 3-4
At what age is type I diabetes usually diagnosed?
10-14 years
At what age is Crohn's disease usually diagnosed?
15-35 years old
at what age do symptoms occur in schizophrenia
16-30 years old
At what age is autism usually diagnosed?
2-3 years
At what age range does MS occur?
20-40
You will be diagnosed with AIDS if you have a CD4 count of fewer than _____/mm3
200
a typical person carries 23 chromosomes in each nucleus, but a person with down syndrome occurs when a person has part or a full extra copy of chromosome ____
21
____ - _____% of people with bipolar disorder will attempt suicide at least once
25-60
renal disease patients may show very few symptoms until the condition progresses to stage ____
3
When should the recare appointments be for a patient with cleft lip or palate?
3-4 months
What is the ideal recare appointment for a diabetic patient?
3-6 months
dialysis is initiated when the GFR drops below _____mL/min
30
the prognosis of limb-girdle MD varies but usually the individual is confined to a wheelchair by _____ years old
30
Regular human insulin acts in about how long?
30 minutes
what is the average life expectancy for a person with cystic fibrosis
40 years
How long can a tonic-clonic seizure last?
5-20 minutes
A platelet count below __________ micro liters may result in severe bleeding with SLE
50,000
When a person's HbA1c reaches _____% or higher, they are considered to be diabetic
6.5
when should a patient with Parkinson's take their medication before dental treatment?
60-90 minutes
in well controlled diabetes, the HbA1c levels should be less than _____%
7
COPD results in a FEV1 less than ____%
70
What percentage of patient's with Crohn's will need surgery?
70%
_____ % of cerebral palsy cases are to be congenital
90
Mental condition characterized by social-communication challenges and restricted repetitive behaviors, activities and interests
Autism
General term used to describe a spectrum of developmental disorders
Autistim spectrum disorders
What are the three FDA approved medications for fibromyalgia? A Duloxetine (Cymbalta) B. trazadone C. Milnaciprane (Savella) D. Pregabalin (Lyrica) E. methotrexate
A, C, and D
osteoporosis is common in people over 60, and the incidence increases with age. All of the following are risk factors of osteoporosis except: A. African american ethnicity B. female gender C. alcohol abuse D. early menopause E. low calcium intake
A. African American ethnicity
Granulomatous inflammation consistent with Crohn's disease was found on histopathological examination, and the patient was referred to a pediatric gastroenterologist. He was found to have tenderness to palpation in the right lower quadrant and periumbilical region, a rectal fissure, and painless rectal skin tags. Colonic biopsies showed chronic active colitis that was most prominent in the cecum and ascending colon, which confirmed a diagnosis of Crohn's disease. Which drug therapy is most likely to be administered in this scenario? A. Corticosteroid [prednisone] initiated with tapered dose in combination with anti-inflammatory mesalamine B. IV Infusion with biologic infliximab [Remicade] C. Biologic self-injectable adalimumab [Humira] in combination with methotrexate D. Antibiotic combination of clindamyacin and ciprofloxacin [Cipro]
A. Corticosteroid [prednisone] initiated with tapered dose in combination with anti-inflammatory mesalamine * this is to get the patient in remission
What medication is used to treat lung infections for people with cystic fibrosis? A. azithromycin B. ibuprofen C. albuterol D. dornase alfa
A. azithromycin *this is an antibiotic that can treat lung infections in cystic fibrosis. Cephalexin is considered another example
A 60 year old male patient who smokes 1 pack of cigarettes daily presents with breathing and coughing attacks of heavy mucous, as well as a blue complexion during the coughing fit. does this patient have: A. chronic bronchitis B. emphysema
A. chronic bronchitis
Which of the following types of medications is an anti-inflammatory and has immunomodulatory effects to treat MS? A. corticosteroids B. interferon beta (1a and 1b) C. glatiramer acetate D. natalizumab
A. corticosteroids
Which of the following types of CP occurs when the person experiences constant, slow, involuntary movement with frequent changes of muscle tone A. dyskinetic (athetoid) palsy B. ataxic palsy C. spastic palsy D. combined palsy
A. dyskinetic (athetoid) palsy
Each of the following is a common oral manifestation of end-stage renal disease except: A. glossitis B. petichiae C. urea in saliva D. ground glass appearance of alveolar bone
A. glossitis
All of the following are anti-inflammatory drugs used for maintaining remission in mild to moderate crohn's disease except: A. ibuprofen B. sulfasalazine C. 5-aminosalicycic D. mesalamine E. all of the above can be used
A. ibuprofen *this shouldn't be used because it can cause ulcers
Which of the following types of anemia occur because hemoglobin is deficient and red blood corpuscles are smaller than normal? A. iron deficiency anemia B. megaloblastic anemias C. pernicious anemia D. folate deficiency anemia E. sickle cell disease
A. iron deficiency anemia (hypochromic)
A patient had a stroke and is paralyzed on his left side and only has use for his right side. Where would you most likely see food and debris on this patient? A. left side of mouth B. right side of mouth C. both sides of the mouth
A. left side of the mouth
Which of the following types of medications is a mood stabilizer used to treat bipolar disorder? A. lithium B. olanzapine C. valproic acid D. carbamazepine
A. lithium
Which of the following is considered to be a good type of diet to prevent alzheimer's? A. meditteranean diet B. high protein diet C. sodium restricted diet D. vegetarian diet
A. meditteranean diet *this diet is rich in fruits, veggies, fish, and Omega-3 oils
The dental hygiene care plan for all patients with gingival hperplasia should include: A. meticulous OHI and motivation for biofilm control B. root planning in all 4 quads C. gingval surgery D. use of antimicrobial mouthrinse
A. meticulous OHI and motivation for biofilm control
Which of the following medications is used for the control of joint pain and swelling in RA? A. naproxen B. prednisone C. methotrexate D. humira
A. naproxen (aleve) *ibuprofen is also used and these drugs are NSAIDS
Which of the following stages of HIV will the person experience flu-like symptoms? A. primary infection (Acute HIV) B. clinical latent infection C. early symptomatic infection D. AIDS progression
A. primary infection (acute HIV) * this occurs within 1-2 months after the virus enters the body
Which of the following categories of polycythemias is the loss of plasma without the loss of RBCs, concentration of cells increase A. relative B. primary C. secondary
A. relative
Which of the following stages of renal disease is associated with over a 90 GFR and there is a 10-20% decrease in renal function? A. stage 1 B. stage 2 C. stage 3 D. stage 4 E. stage 5
A. stage 1
All of the following are signs and symptoms of tonic-clonic seizures except: A. staying conscious B. shaking/jerking of the body C. loss of bladder control D. an aura E. all of the following are true
A. staying conscious *a person will lose consciousness
Which of the following types of spinal cord injuries occurs in the cervical region with assosciated loss of muscle strength in all 4 extremities? A. tetraplagia B. paraplegia C. triplegia D. none of the above
A. tetraplagia
Which of the following medications to treat fibromyalgia is a heterocyclic antidepressant agent? A. trazadone B. duloxetine (cymbalta) C. milnacipran (savella) D. pregabalin (lyrica)
A. trazadone *other HCA's include amitriptyline and nortriptyline
Which of the following types of diabetes is also known as insulin-dependent diabetes? A. Type I B. Type II C. gestational
A. type I diabetes * in this type of diabetes the pancreas doesn't produce insulin and/or the immune system attacks and destroys the beta cells in the pancreas that create insulin
What is the most common cause of a spinal cord injury? A. vehicular accidents B. falling C. sports D. arthritis
A. vehicular accidents
Frank, a 24-year-old, is a new patient in for a cleaning. He has indicated that he was diagnosed with bipolar disorder at 17 years old and is taking citalopram and lithium. His last dental visit was 5 years ago, and he presents with heavy plaque biofilm, gingival lacerations, and multiple caries diagnosed by the dentist. Due to the medications he is taking, Frank will most likely be experiencing which of the following conditions? A. Xerostomia B. Caries C. Periodontal disease D. Loss of taste
A. xerostomia
Is antibiotic prophylaxis indicated for Lupus patients for their increased risk of endocarditis?
According the American Heart Association, antibiotic prophylaxis is not recommended
a form of irreversible dementia, usually occurring in older adulthood, characterized by gradual deterioration of memory, disorientation, and other features of dementia
Alzheimer's disease
What is the most common form of dementia?
Alzhiemer's disease
An absence of oxygen
Anoxia
All of the following ethnic groups is more common to have Crohn's disease except: A. caucasians B. African Americans C. Jewish people D. Eastern European decent
B. African Americans
Which of the following forms of dementia is a neurodegenerative disorder of movement, progressive dementia with psychiatric and behavioral disturbance? A. Parkinson's disease B. Huntington's disease C. Frontotemporal disease D. Vascular dementia
B. Huntington's disease
What selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor has an off-label use to ease social difficulties in autism? A. Risperidone and aripiprazole B. Prozac C. Naltrexone
B. Prozac
45-75% of patients with RA also report having which condition? A. stomatitis B. TMJ C. Rheumatoid nodules D. pericarditis
B. TMJ
A class 4 cleft is defined as: A. cleft of the uvula B. cleft of soft and hard palates C. cleft of soft palate D. cleft of the soft and hard palates that continue through the alveolar ridge
B. cleft of the soft and hard palate
Which of the following would be a helpful take-home item for an autistic patient? A. Flossers B. Timer C. Fluoride mouth rinse D. Tongue scraper
B. Timer
Which of the following types of diabetes occurs when the body does not make enough insulin or cannot use it properly? A. Type I B. Type II C. gestational
B. Type II diabetes
Frank, a 24-year-old, is a new patient in for a cleaning. He has indicated that he was diagnosed with bipolar disorder at 17 years old and is taking citalopram and lithium. His last dental visit was 5 years ago, and he presents with heavy plaque biofilm, gingival lacerations, and multiple caries diagnosed by the dentist. Which of the following would be the most important factor to influence Frank's homecare routine? A. Implementing the use of a powered toothbrush with a sensor B. A personal understanding of the importance of good oral health C. A saliva substitute D. Using a mouthrinse
B. a personal understanding of the importance of good oral health
Which of the following types of drugs would be used to treat dermatologic disease of lupus? A. aspirin and NSAIDS B. antimalarials C. glucocorticoids D. cytotoxic agents
B. antimalarials
Which of the following is used to treat acute manic phase only? A. mood stabilizers B. antipsychotics C. antidepressants D. anticonvulsants
B. antipsychotics * mood stabilizers are also used for acute manic phase and long-term maintenance, antidepressants are used for depressive episodes
Which of the following medications used to treat parkinson's disease and is a dopamine agonist? A. levodopa B. apomorphine C. selegiline D. amantadine E. trihexyophenidyl
B. apomorphine * this can be taken with L-dopa or be given alone
All of the following are examples of long-acting human insulins except: A. glargine B. aspart C. ultralente D. detemir
B. aspart * this is an example of a rapid-acting insulin
Which of the following types of CP occurs when there is loss of equilibrium, balance and depth perception. There is lack of coordination and patient may have involuntary muscle quivering A. dyskinetic (athetoid) palsy B. ataxic palsy C. spastic palsy D. combined palsy
B. ataxic palsy
what is the most common childhood motor disability? A. muscular dystrophy B. cerebral palsy C. crohn's disease D. none of the above
B. cerebral palsy
Which of the following stages of HIV will the person experience swelling of the lymph nodes or no signs or symptoms? A. primary infection (Acute HIV) B. clinical latent infection C. early symptomatic infection D. AIDS progression
B. clinical latent infection *this lasts about 10 years if not receiving antiretroviral therapy and for many decades if patient is on medications
Rebecca is a 23 year old female, who is new to your dental office and has come in for her first visit. On the medical history, Rebecca states she has episodic seizures. While sitting in the chair, Rebecca begins to become unresponsive, staring out into space. What type of seizure has Rebecca just suffered? A. Simple partial seizure B. Complex partial seizure C. Absence seizure D. Tonic-clonic seizure
B. complex partial seizure
An anterior open bite, seen in patients diagnosed with RA, is typically caused from: A. premature dental loss B. destruction of the condylar heads C. tongue thrust D. mouth breathing
B. destruction of the condylar heads
what type of muscular dystrophy is the most common form and is X-linked recessive? A. congenital B. Duchenne C. oculopharyngeal D. Becker E. myotonic (Steinert's disease)
B. duchenne
Which of the following is when a blood clot forms in the body (usually the heart) and then travels to the brain? A. hemorrhagic stroke B. embolic stroke C. thrombotic stroke D. large vessel thrombosis
B. embolic stroke
Which of the following is a characteristic of a major depressive episode? A. decreased need for sleep B. fatigue C. increase in goal-directed activity D. flight of ideas
B. fatigue *all others are characteristics of manic episodes
Which of the following is a primary etiology of seizures? A. trauma B. genetic predisposition C. brain tumor D. cerebrovascular accident
B. genetic predisposition
Which of the following describes the clinical signs of advanced gingival hyperplastic lesion? A. painless enlargement of interdental papillae, fibrotic, pink, and stippled B. increase in tissue size, includes marginal gingiva and anatomic crown, cleft-like grooves occur between the lobules C. number of fibroblasts and collagen increases, thick epithelium with long rete ridges D. large, bulbous gingiva covers enamel and may wedge teeth apart, may interfere with mastication.
B. increase in tissue size, includes marginal gingiva and anatomic crown, cleft-like grooves occur between the lobules *A. would be early clinical features and D. would be severe lesion
Plummer-Vinson Syndrome is associated with which form of anemia? A. thalassemia B. iron deficiency C. sickle cell disease D. folic acid anemia E. pernicious anemia
B. iron deficiency anemia *this includes dysphagia and atrophy of the upper alimentary tract
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the butterfly rash? A. found on the bridge of the nose and the cheeks B. painless C. itchy D. worsens with exposure to sunlight
B. itchy *this rash typically doesn't itch
During a major motor seizure, the primary objective of the dental staff is to: A. keep the patient from moving B. keep the patient from injuring him/herself C. keep the patient from biting his/her tongue D. keep the patient from destroying the dental equipment
B. keep the patient from injuring him/herself
The most common location for oral caner is the: A. floor of the mouth B. lateral border of the tongue C. lip D. pharynx
B. lateral border of the tongue
Which of the following drug is an ACE inhibitor used for patients with MD? A. prednisone B. lisinopril C. aspirin D. valproic acid E. cyclosporine
B. lisinopril
A 65 year old male comes into your office. Upon going over his health history you discover he has been diagnosed with leukemia. He has been going through chemotherapy and is taking multiple medications.Which product would you not use on this patient? A. Chlorhexidine B. Listerine C. Sodium Bicarbonate mouth rinse D. Benzydamine
B. listerine
which of the following is blood flow blocked to small vessels, closely linked to hypertension? A. hemorrhagic stroke B. lucunar infarction C. large vessel thrombosis D. thrombotic stroke
B. lucunar infarction
Which of the following types of anemia occur when the red blood cells are abnormally large and oval shaped as a result of vitamin deficiencies? A. iron deficiency anemia B. megaloblastic anemias C. pernicious anemia D. folate deficiency anemia E. sickle cell disease
B. megaloblastic anemias * pernicious and folate deficiency anemias are the types of megablastic anemias
All of of the following are times of the day when the symptoms of FM are intensified except: A. morning B. mid-morning C. late afternoon D. evening
B. mid-morning
Why would a patient with down syndrome need premedication for dental treatment? A. upper respiratory infection B. mitral valve prolapse C. stenotic ear canals
B. mitral valve prolapse
Which of the following types of medications is an atypical antipsychotic used to treat bipolar disorder? A. lithium B. olanzapine C. valproic acid D. carbamazepine
B. olanzapine
Which of the following types of spinal cord injuries occurs in the thoracic, lumbar, or sacral segments, including the cauda equina and conus medullaris? A. tetraplagia B. paraplegia C. triplegia D. quadriplegia
B. paraplegia
Which of the following condition may have an excess of saliva secretion? A. Alzheimer B. parkinson's C. COPD D. cystic fibrosis
B. parkinson's
A 38 year old female patient with multiple sclerosis has recession and abrasion on the upper left quad, what could be a contributing factor? A. poor oral hygiene care practices B. patient has muscular spasticity due to MS C. patient is taking a corticosteroid D. patient just had her teeth cleaned
B. patient has muscular spasticity due to MS
Which of the following medications is a corticosteroid used to relieve acute symptoms of RA with the goal of tapering off? A. naproxen B. prednisone C. methotrexate D. humira
B. prednisone
Which of the following categories of polycythemias has oral signs and symptoms of deep purplish-red color of mucous membranes, gums, and tongue. The gums are enlarged with slight bleeding and there is submucosal petechiae, ecchymosis, and hematoma formation. A. relative B. primary C. secondary
B. primary
Which of the following categories of polycythemias is an increase in RBCs, WBCs, and hemoglobin. The blood becomes for viscous affecting O2 transport to tissues. A. relative B. primary C. secondary
B. primary
Which of the following HIV medications disables a protein that HIV needs to make copies of itself? A. Nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) B. Protease inhibitors (PIs) C. Entry or fusion inhibitors D. Integrase inhibitors
B. protease inhibitors (PIs)
Which of the following stages of renal disease is associated with a GFR between 60-89? A. stage 1 B. stage 2 C. stage 3 D. stage 4 E. stage 5
B. stage 2
Which of the following is a long-acting bronchodilator? A. albuterol B. tiotropium C. Theophylline D. galantamine E. selegiline
B. tiotropium
All of the following are treatment considerations for treating a patient with fibromyalgia except: A. use a bite block B. turn up the music to drown out the noise of the hand piece C. give written homecare instructions D. schedule short appointments usually in the afternoon E. have patient use a pillow during the appointment
B. turn up the music to drown out the noise of the hand piece
All of the following are bone changes seen on radiographs in patients with SCD except: A. horizontal (stepladder) bone pattern between teeth B. vertical bone loss occurring interproximally C. severe periodontal bone loss in children D. decreased radiolucency
B. vertical bone loss occurring interproxinally
Which of the following is the best and most efficient way to treat a patient with CP and is a quadriplegic? A. using a mouth prop B. while still in his wheelchair C. as quickly as possible D. under general anesthesia
B. while still in his wheelchair
what is the most common medication used to treat cerebral palsy?
Botulinum Toxin-A injections (BT-A)
Which of the following categories of polycythemias is an increase of RBCs A. relative B. primary C. secondary
C. secondary (erythrocytosis)
A 5 year old patient with autism has a meltdown when taken into the bathroom to brush his teeth. What would be a good solution? A. Don't brush child's teeth B. Let the child brush their own teeth C. Brush child's teeth in a more comfortable environment D. Trick the child into coming into the bathroom
C. Brush child's teeth in a more comfortable environment
What type of occlusion will you most likely see in a patient with down syndrome? A. Class I B. Class III C. Class III posterior crossbite D. Class II anterior openbite
C. Class III posterior crossbite
Which of the following forms of dementia is degeneration of the cerebral cortex and affects behavior and decision making skills? A. Parkinson's disease B. Huntington's disease C. Frontotemporal disease D. Vascular dementia
C. Frontotemporal disease
What medication has an off label use to treat disabling repetitive and self injuries in autism? A. Risperidone and aripiprazole B. Prozac C. Naltrexone
C. Naltrexone
After suffering from a complex partial seizure while in the dental chair, Rebecca recovers and is willing to continue on with treatment. As a dental hygienist, what should you do? A. Ask the dentist for approval to continue on with treatment B. Continue on with treatment since Rebecca is willing to C. Stop treatment and allow patient to recover before discharge D. None of the above
C. Stop treatment and allow patient to recover before discharge
the type of seizure where consciousness begins and ends abrubtly in 5 to 30 seconds followed by a quick resuming of activites desribes: A. Simple seizure B. tonic-clonic seizures C. absence seizure (petite mal) D. complex-focal seizure
C. absence (petite mal)
What medication is a bronchodilator that can treat cystic fibrosis? A. azithromycin B. ibuprofen C. albuterol D. dornase alfa
C. albuterol *bronchodilators help open the airways. Salmeterol is another example
you have a 29 year old patient who presents with the following symptoms: xerostomia, TMJ pain when opening his mouth, can't fully close his eyes, can't fully close his eyes, can't lift his arms past his shoulders, and he states he has never been able to whistle, blow up a balloon, and has difficulty using straws due to his inability to hold his lips closed. What type of medication is this patient most likely taking? A. anticonvulsants B. antibiotics C. analgesics D. immunosuppressants
C. analgesics
A 65 year old male comes into your office. Upon going over his health history you discover he has been diagnosed with leukemia. He has been going through chemotherapy and is taking multiple medications. What category of medications will this patient not be taking? A. Antibiotics B. Biologicals C. Anti-Inflammatory D. Enzymes
C. anti-inflammatory
What is the most common manifestation of SLE? A. renal abnormalities B. neuropsychiatric symptoms C. arthritis D. pulmonary manisfestations
C. arthritis
Which of the following oral manifestations occur during depressive episodes? A. toothbrush/floss cuts on gingiva B. disregard of oral care C. bruxism D. both B and C
C. bruxism
Which of the following is a common oral side effect of radiation to the head and neck area? A. occlusal caries B. fissuring of the tongue C. cervical caries D. periodontal abscesses
C. cervical caries
which of the following is not a dental treatment consideration for a patient with CP? A. primitive reflex reactions B. body stabilization and support and utilize fulcrum C. cognitive or intellectual impairment D. short morning appointment E. nitrous oxide, general anesthesia, muscle relaxants
C. cognitive or intellectual development * many people with CP have no cognitive or intellectual impairment so you shouldn't lack comprehension
Which of the following is a combination of atherosclerosis followed by rapid blood clot formation? A. hemorrhagic stroke B. lucunar infarction C. large vessel thrombosis D. thrombotic stroke
C. large vessel thrombosis
What is the correct description of the term dystrophy? A. absence or loss of power of voluntary motion B. destruction of the myelin sheath of a nerve C. degeneration and is associated with atrophy and dysfunction D. excess of cholesterol in blood
C. degeneration and is associated with atrophy and dysfunction
Which of the following is not considered a characteristic of bipolar I disorder? A. at least 1 manic episode B. main episode likely accompanied by major depressive episodes C. depressive episodes last at least 1 week D. all of the above are true
C. depressive last at least 1 week * depressive episodes last at least 2 weeks
Which of the following stages of HIV is when the virus multiples and destroys immune cells and patient may have mild infections or chronic signs and symptoms? A. primary infection (Acute HIV) B. clinical latent infection C. early symptomatic infection D. AIDS progression
C. early symptomatic infection
What are the best homecare instructions for a patient that had a stroke? A. electric toothbrush, floss aids, and chlorhexadine B. manual toothbrush C. electric toothbrush, floss aids, chlorhexadine, waterpik, and instructions to caregiver
C. electric toothbrush, floss aids, chlorhexadine, waterpik, and instructions to caregiver
The clotting factor associated with a patient having hemophilia type A is: A. factors VII B. factor X C. factors VIII D. factor VI
C. factor VIII
you have a 29 year old patient who presents with the following symptoms: xerostomia, TMJ pain when opening his mouth, can't fully close his eyes, can't lift his arms past his shoulders, and he states he has never been able to whistle, blow up a balloon, and has difficulty using straws due to his inability to hold his lips closed. What type of MD does this patient have? A. occulopharyngeal B. myotonic (Steinert's disease) C. fasioscapulohumeral D. emery-dreifuss
C. fascioscapulohumeral
What is the most common chronic pain in the U.S.? A. rheumatoid arthritis B. osteoporosis C. fibromyalgia D. multiple sclerosis
C. fibromyalgia
Which of the following types of medications used to treat MS reduces and prevents relapses in MS, useful for patients that have interferon-beta resistance? A. corticosteroids B. interferon beta (1a and 1b) C. glatiramer acetate D. natalizumab
C. glatiramer acetate
Which of the following types of drugs would be used to treat severe symptoms of lupus? A. aspirin and NSAIDS B. antimalarials C. glucocorticoids D. cytotoxic agents
C. glucocortcoids
Which of the following is not a characteristic of dyskinetic CP? A. grimacing, drooling, and speech defects B. lack of ability to direct muscles in desired motions C. intensity of movements is influenced by physical factors D. all of the above are true
C. intensity of movements is influenced by physical factors * intensity of movements is influenced by emotional factors. Patients in the least control in an emotionally charged environment such as a dental office
All of the following are benign oral lesions except: A. pyogenic granuloma B. lipoma C. leukoplakia D. eosinophilic granuloma E. papilloma
C. leukoplakia *this is possible pre-cancerous
All of the following are characteristics of all seizures except: A. uncontrollable length B. unprovoked, unpredictable, and involuntary C. loss of consciousness with each seizure D. sudden paroxysmal electrical discharge of neurons in the brain
C. loss of consciousness with each seizure
Which of the following medications slows the progression of rheumatoid arthritis and save the joints and other tissues from permanent damge? A. naproxen B. prednisone C. methotrexate D. humira
C. methotrexate *this drug is a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD)
Which of the following would not be a homecare consideration for a patient with parkinson's? A. electric toothbrush B. sitting down to brush C. mouthhrinse D. nailbrush attached to sink for easy denture cleaning
C. mouthrinse *this is not recommended because of a patients risk of choking
All of the following oral conditions are common in clients with cerebral palsy except: A. open bite B. facial asymmetry C. nerve paralysis D. swallowing problems
C. nerve paralysis
you have a 29 year old patient who presents with the following symptoms: xerostomia, TMJ pain when opening his mouth, can't fully close his eyes, can't fully close his eyes, can't lift his arms past his shoulders, and he states he has never been able to whistle, blow up a balloon, and has difficulty using straws due to his inability to hold his lips closed. Which would you most likely not prescribe to this type of patient? A. floss holder B. toothbrush gripper C. oral rinse D. water irrigation system
C. oral rinse
Which of the following drugs is given to a patient that had a hemorrhagic stroke to decrease intracranial pressure? A. thrombolytic drugs B. plasminogen activator (TPA) C. osmotic diuretics D. blood thinners E. anti-hypertensive drugs
C. osmotic diuretics *the other drugs are used to treat ischemic stroke
If a down syndrome patient in your chair is having a hard time and you are unable to perform treatment, what would be the best thing for your patient? A. referral to a different dentist B. ask your coworker to try C. speak with dentist and suggest treatment under general anesthesia
C. perform treatment under general anesthesia
A seizure can be precipitated by which of the following? A. trance-like state B. jerking of the muscles around the mouth C. psychological stress and apprehension D. unconsciousness
C. psychological stress and apprehension
When is the onset of facioscapulohumeral MD? A. birth B. before age 3 C. puberty D. old age
C. puberty
All of the following are oral manifestation of Crohn's except: A. apathous ulcers B. granulomatous cheilitis C. pystomatitis vegetans D. abscess in the salivary ducts
C. pystomatitis vegetans * this is found in ulcerative colitis
The brain cerebrum
Cerebral
A condition in which injury to parts of the brain has occurred and has resulted in paralysis or disruption of motor parts
Cerebral palsy
All of the following are signs of chronic bronchitis except: A. cyanotic B. weight gain C. wet cough D. difficulty breathing out only
D. difficulty breathing out only * this would be true for emphysema, a person with chronic bronchitis will have difficulty breathing in and out
Which of the following medications could a patient with cystic fibrosis be taking? A. azithromycin B. alprazolam C. albuterol D. A&C E. all of the above
D. A and C
Which aspect of dental treatment is most important for a child with autism? A. Make it interesting B. Having long appointments so patient can become more comfortable with the environment C. Not overwhelming the child with info D. Consistency in staff and appointment routine
D. Consistency in staff and appointment routine
Which of the following forms of dementia is the second most common form and is related to atherosclerosis and stroke? A. Parkinson's disease B. Huntington's disease C. Frontotemporal disease D. Vascular dementia
D. Vascular dementia
Which of the following are drugs a patient with parkinson's disease may be taking? A. apomorphine B. tolcapone C. levodopa D. all of the above
D. all of the above
villous atropy occurs when: A. height of villi decreases B. villi are flattened C. there is reduced absorption D. all of the above
D. all of the above
Which of the following are not possible causes of cerebral palsy? A. congenital brain malformation B. maternal infections of fevers C. fetal injury D. all of the above are true
D. all of the above are true
Which of the following medications used to treat parkinson's disease is an antiviral to help ease the symptoms? A. levodopa B. apomorphine C. selegiline D. amantadine E. trihexyophenidyl
D. amantadine
What would be the best recare option for a patient that had a stroke? A. 1 year B. 6 months C. 3 months D. as frequent as patient needs
D. as frequent as patients needs
Which of the following is a category of drug that is used to treat ischemic stroke? A. IV injection of vitamin K B. anti-hypertensives C. anti-convulsants D. blood thinners
D. blood thinners *all other drugs are used to treat hemorrhagic stroke
Which of the following types of drugs would be used to treat lupus that is unresponsive to treatment or as adjunt for patient with severe symptoms? A. aspirin and NSAIDS B. antimalarials C. glucocorticoids D. cytotoxic agents
D. cytotoxic agents
Which of the following is not true for Duchenne MD? A. lordosis B. cardiac involvement C. mental impairment in some D. death due to cardiac arrest in the mid-forties E. all of the following are true
D. death due to cardiac arrest in the mid-forties *death is due respiratory failure in mid to late 20's
Which of the following is intermediate acting insulin? A. ultralente B. neutral protamine hagedorn (NPH) C. lente D. both A and C E. both B and C
E. both B and C
What medication is used to clear mucus for people with cystic fibrosis? A. azithromycin B. ibuprofen C. albuterol D. dornase alfa
D. dornase alfa
A patient who is undergoing chemotherapy may exhibit all of the following oral conditions except: A. gingival bleeding B. ulcerative mucositis C neurotoxicity D. gingival enlargement
D. gingival enlargment * this is associated with the use of other drugs, but not chemo
Which of the following medications target part of the immune system that trigger inflammation that causes joint and tissue damage by blocking messenger cells? A. naproxen B. prednisone C. methotrexate D. humira
D. humira * this is a biologic agent and is most effective when paired with methotrexate
All of the following are symptoms of hypoglycemia except: A. hunger B. pallor C. lack of coordination D. increased thirst E. sleepiness
D. increased thirst *this is a symptom of hyperglycemia
Which of the following HIV medications diasables a protein that HIV uses to insert its genetic material into CD4 cells? A. Nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) B. Protease inhibitors (PIs) C. Entry or fusion inhibitors D. Integrase inhibitors
D. intergrase inhibitors
Which of the following medications is commonly prescribed in order to obtain long-term mood stabilizations in patients with bipolar disorder? A. lisinopril B. sertraline C. valproic acid D. lithium carbonate
D. lithium carbonate
Dental hygiene treatment modifications that might be necessary when caring for someone with SCD disease could include all of the following except: A. minimizing trauma during treatment B. supplemental oxygen C. short appointments D. local anesthesia with epinephrine E. antibiotic premedication
D. local anesthesia with epinephrine *low dose vasoconstrictors should be used
Which area of the gingiva is most affected by phenytoin-induced gingival hyperplasia? A. mandibular posterior B. maxillary posterior C. mandibular anterior D. maxillary anterior
D. maxillary anterior
Which of the following types of medications used to treat MS is a recent infusion medication that was approved for patients with relapsing MS? A. corticosteroids B. interferon beta (1a and 1b) C. glatiramer acetate D. natalizumab
D. natalizumab
Treatment of epilepsy includes all of the following except: A. surgery B. ketogenic diet C. vagus nerve stimulation D. pacemaker
D. pacemaker
A 13-year-old boy presents with a 9-month history of episodic unilateral swelling of the face and oral pain. He reports having loose stools. Physical examination reveals asymmetric swelling of the face and lips with perpendicular fissuring, and intraoral examination revealed gingival erythematous hyperplasia and soft-tissue tags in the mucobuccal fold. Which of the following is the most important? A. Record findings and schedule return check in two weeks to evaluate changes. B. Refer to oral surgeon for biopsy of granulomatous tissue C. Prescribe topical anesthetic for discomfort and refer for allergy testing D. Refer to pediatric gastroenterologist E. Nutritional counseling for angular cheilitis
D. refer to pediatric gastroenterologist
An incomplete spinal cord lesion leaves: A. no motor function below the level of the lesion B. some evidence of sensation or motor function above the level of the lesion C. no sensation below the level of the lesion D. some evidence of sensation or motor function below the level of the lesion
D. some evidence of sensation of motor function below level of lesion
Which of the following stages of renal disease is associated with a severe decrease in GFR of 15-29? A. stage 1 B. stage 2 C. stage 3 D. stage 4 E. stage 5
D. stage 4
Which of the following is a characteristic of a simple partial seizure? A. loss of bladder control B. pale bluish color of the skin C. loss of consciousness D. staring spell and dizziness
D. staring spell and dizziness
Frank, a 24-year-old, is a new patient in for a cleaning. He has indicated that he was diagnosed with bipolar disorder at 17 years old and is taking citalopram and lithium. He presents with heavy plaque biofilm, gingival lacerations, and multiple caries diagnosed by the dentist. Which of the following is the most likely cause of Frank's gingival lacerations? A. Not brushing at a 45-degree angle B. Snapping the floss into his gums C. Both A & B D. Too much pressure when brushing
D. too much pressure when brushing
All of the following should be done to treat a patient with COPD except: A. Use O2 B. use hand scalers C. tobacco cessation D. treat patient in supine position
D. treat patient in supine position *since a patient with COPD has a difficult time breathing, they will be very uncomfortable in the supine position, they should be treated in a semi-reclined position
What is the most common hereditary disorder of platelet functions? A. thrombocytopenia B. hemophilia A C. hemophilia B D. von willebrand's disease
D. von willebrands disease
which of the following is not a homecare recommendation for a patient with Crohn's? A. rinsing after inhaler (if patient has asthma) B. meticulous oral care C. OHI on flossing D. xylitol E. all of the above should be recommended
D. xylitol *xylitol may be contraindicated because it can cause stomach sensitivity
what's the difference between DLE and SLE?
DLE affects the skin and characterized by the butterfly rash while the SLE affects multiple organs and is more serious than DLE
Which of the following drug is an immunosuppressant used for MD? A. prednisone B. lisinopril C. aspirin D. penicillin E. cyclosporine
E. cyclosporine * azathiprine is another example
Which of the following stages of renal disease is associated with a GFR less than 15 and 75% of the nephrons have lost their function? A. stage 1 B. stage 2 C. stage 3 D. stage 4 E. stage 5
E. stage 5
Your patient is a 47 year old female with ongoing pain lasting more than 3 months after a traumatic event. Her symptoms are indicative of fibromyalgia and include widespread pains, migraines, jaw tenderness and sensitivity to noise. Her laboratory tests and x-rays were clear and she reports of depression, insomnia and anxiety. Which of the following medications might your patient be taking? A. Cymbalta B. Duloxetine C. Tramadol D. A and B only E. All of the above
E. all of the above
Your patient is a 61-year-old male who was diagnosed in 2006 with myasthenia gravis. He has received IGIV for limited maintenance, takes the prescription drug Mestinon, and has previously undergone treatment for myasthenic crisis, including plasmapheresis. He has been diagnosed with moderate periodontal disease and is scheduled for a perio maintenance cleaning. The Mestinon the patient is taking may cause which of the following side effects? A. Gastrointestinal problems B. Mood swings C. Headache D. Increased bronchial and oral secretions E. A & D F. All of the above
E. A & D
Which of the following medical considerations are associated with Down syndrome? A. Respiratory infections B. Poor immune defense C. Alzheimer's disease D. Obstructive airway E. All of the above
E. All of the above
SLE can affect all of the following organs except: A. skin B. joints C. kidneys D. brain E. SLE affects all of the above
E. SLE affects all of the above
25% of patients with fibromyalgia may also be diagnosed with: A. systemic lupus erythematous B. Sjogren syndrome C. rheumatoid arthritis D. both A and C E. all of the avove
E. all of the above
Patients with fibromyalgia experience irregular levels of : A. serotonin B. norepinephrine C. substance P D. dopamine E. all of the above
E. all of the above
When treating a patient with cystic fibrosis, what should you avoid using? A. ultrasonics B. air polisher C. rubber dam D. nitrous oxide E. all of the above
E. all of the above
Which of the following are common oral manifestations a down syndrome patient may present with? A. halitosis B. microdontia C. mouthbreathing D. missing teeth E. all of the above
E. all of the above
Your new patient presents to her dental appointment very excited to have her teeth cleaned. Her chief complaint is that her teeth are looking yellow and she thinks this is because she is having a difficult time with brushing. She reports she was recently diagnosed with scleroderma. During your extra oral exam you notice that she cannot open very wide while checking the TMJ, and she has several red patches on face and neck along with a dark line on her forehead What type of scleroderma does she have? A. Systemic Diffuse B. Systemic Limited C. Localized Morphea D. Localized Linear E. there is more than one answer
E. there is more than one answer *this patient has both morphea and linear localized scleroderma
Which of the following medications used to treat parkinson's disease is an anticholinergic effective for treating tremors? A. levodopa B. apomorphine C. selegiline D. amantadine E. trihexyophenidyl
E. trihexyphenidyl
enzyme-linked immunnosorbent assay, a rapid immunochemical test that involves an enzyme used to detect substances that have antigenic properties
ELISA
Rebecca suffers from epileptic episodes. In order to care for these episodes, Rebecca takes anticonvulsive medications. To also help calm herself she takes herbs. What medications and herbs is Rebecca most likely to use? A. Clonazepam B. Valerian C. Gabapentin D. Chamomile E. A and C F. All of the above
F. all of the above
Which of the following are causes and characteristics of of SCD? A. autosomal dominate trait disorder B. most common genetic disorder of the blood C. primarily in the caucasian population D. the signs and symptoms start at 6 months E. all above are true F. Both B and D G. A, B, and D
F. both B and D *SCD is a autosomal recessive trait and is found primarily in African Americans and white Mediterranean populations
A 65 year old male comes into your office. Upon going over his health history you discover he has been diagnosed with leukemia. He has been going through chemotherapy and is taking multiple medications.What are some oral manifestations you might see upon an intra-oral examination? A. Xerostomia B. Atrophic glossitis C. Mucositis D. Malocclusion E. All of the above F. Just A and C G. Just B and D
F. just A and C
Which of the following is not true for chronic renal failure? A. cardiovascular: hypertension, CHF B. GI: anorexia, vomiting, hepatitis C. dermatologic: pallor, bruising D. hematologic: prolonged bleeding, anemia E. immunologic: prone to infection F. metabolic: decrease in thirst, insulin resistence and blood urea nitrogen
F. person has increased thirst, nocturia, and polyuria. There is insulin resistance and increased blood urea nitrogen
forced expiratory volume in 1 second
FEV1
A genetic defect that results in severe intellectual disability
Fragile X syndrome
What does this image show?
Kaposi's sarcoma
What is the most common medication used to treat Type II diabetes?
Metformin
Paralysis of one limb
Monoplegia
Membrane bound structure which holds hereditary information and manages growth and reproduction
Nucleus
Impairment of the ability to control movement
Palsy
slow progressive neurodegenerative disorder of neurons that produce dopamine
Parkinson's disease
Repeated eating of non-food items such as dirt and wood
Pica
people at very high risk for HIV take HIV medicines daily to lower their chances of getting infected
PrEP (pre-exposure prophylaxis)
a condition in which the small blood vessels of the hands or feet contract in response to cold or anxiety
Raynaud's phenomenon
What symptom of scleroderma are calcium channel blockers used to treat?
Reynaud's syndrome
What is the largest class of drugs used to treat type 2 diabetes?
Sulfonylureas
type of blood cell that belong to a group of white blood cells called lymphocytes, which help the body fight infection
T-cells
what is transient ischemic attack (TIA)
TIA is a mini stroke when blood flow to part of the brain stops for a short time: blockage breaks up quickly and dissolves without tissue death
a cytokine associated with inflammation
TNF-alpha
what is seen in this image?
Telangiectasia
What is an example of a phosphodiesterase (PD) inhibitor to treat COPD?
Theophylline
[T:F] Alzheimer's disease is irreversible
True
Genetic disease that causes benign tumors to grow in the brain and on other vital organs
Tuberous sclerosis
a protein that builds up plaque/tangles in the brains of those who suffer from alzheimer's
amyloid
condition of motor restlessness in which there is a feeling of muscular quivering, an urge to move about constantly, and an inability to sit still, a common side effect of neuroleptic drugs
akathesia
neutralizes neutrophil elastase and is made in the liver
alpha 1-antitrypsin
Seven stages of worsening symptoms may be observed in this cognitive condition
alzheimers
a generalized seizure of sudden onset charcterized by a brief period of unconsciousness
abscence (petite-mal)
serious, chronic, condition caused by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) in which interferes with your body's ability to fight pathogens
acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
a premalignant condition involving sun exposed areas of skin resulting in a wart-like lesion forming a hyperkeroti surface
actinic keratosis
a sudden loss of kidney function caused by an illness, an injury, or a toxin that stresses the kidneys, but kidney function may recover
acute renal failure (ARF)
connection made surgically between parts of the intestine
anastomis
condition marked by a deficiency of red blood cells or of hemoglobin in the blood
anemia
syndrome that occurs at the front of the cord and damages the motor and sensory pathways in the spinal cord injury. You may retain some sensation, but struggle with movement.
anterior cord syndrome
What kind of medications would a person with DLE form of Lupus be taking
anti-malarials
the _________ antibody is an important cause of abnormalities in the CNS
antiphospholipid
what does ART stand for?
antiretroviral therapy
uninterested, lack of concern
apathy
a gene on chromosome 19 that is associated with late-onset Alzheimer's disease
apolipoprotein E (APOE gene)
when the head is turned, same side extremities extend and stiffen, while the opposite side extremities flex
asymmetric tonic neck reflex
What increases the chance of gangrene in a diabetic patient?
atherosclerosis
disease that results when the immune system mistakenly attacks the body's own tissues
autoimmune disease
life-threatening emergency condition in which the blood pressure increase sharply in T6 or above lesions of the spinal cord ususally stimulated by irritation to the bowel or bladder distension
autonomic dysreflexia
a condition that occurs with uncharacteristically high levels of nitrogen containing compounds in the blood
azotemia
flexible tube with camera on the end to examine the entire large bowel
colonoscopy
a drug that relaxes the contraction of the smooth muscle of the bronchioles to improve ventilation to the lungs
bronchodilator
damage to one side of the spinal cord. The injury may be more pronounced on one side of the body
brown-sequard syndrome
What type of medications would stage II and III of COPD be taking?
combination of albuterol and tiotropium
horedin is a component of gluten found in ________
barley
What part of the brain is damaged in dyskinetic palsy?
basal ganglion
a tumor that is not cancerous
benign
What cells produce insulin?
beta cells
taking out a piece of tissue to see if there are cancer cells
biopsy
group of mood disorders characterized by extreme exaggeration and disturbance of mood, energy, and activity levels
bipolar disorder
any of a group of drugs that slow the breakdown of bone by osteoclasts
bisphosphonate
how does phenytoin and carbamezepine work?
block sodium channels
How do the anti-HIV drugs work
blocking ways for HIV to make copies of itself
[T:F] patients with cystic fibrosis may experience digital clubbing in the early stages of CF and excessive appetite but poor weight gain in the late stages of CF
both statements are false: digital clubbing is seen in the late stages while poor weight gain is seen in early stages
[T:F] If a patient has gestational diabetes, they will develop type II diabetes later in life. If the women is diagnosed with type II diabetes they will have to use insulin
both statements are false: gestational diabetes will not turn into type II diabetes, it will only increase their risk. Type I diabetics use insulin, not type II
[T:F] cleft palate in combination with cleft lip occurs more often in males. Cleft alone happens more in females.
both statements are true
[T:F] epilepsy describes a group of functional disorders of the brain. Seizures are symptom of epilepsy
both statements are true
[T:F] cerebral palsy is a progressive disease, meaning as a patient gets older if they do not go through treatment and take medications, their condition will continue to get worse. Most children are born with congenital cerebral palsy, which is a preventable type of CP.
both statements false: CP is non progressive and congenital is non preventable
[T:F] an hemorrhagic stroke is when a clot blocks blood flow to an area of the brain. A ischemic stroke is when bleeding occurs inside or around brain tissue
both statements false: should be reversed
[T:F] seizure disorders are idiopathic in more than half of the patients. Other causes are due to vascular disease, developmental disorders, intracranialneoplasms, and head trauma
both statements true
[T:F] the etiology of MS is unknown. MS may be influenced by genetics, environment, climate and geography
both statements true
[bradycardia/tachycardia] and [hypertension/hypotension] is more common in patients with spinal cord injury
bradycardia, hypotension
What is the most severe motor function symptom for Parkinson's Disease?
bradykinesia
slow movement
bradykinesia
what is the etiology of cerebral palsy?
brain damage by brain injury or abnormal development of the brain that occurs when the child's brain is still developing
hard but liable to break or shatter easily
brittle
decline in mental ability, caused by brain disease or injury that affects speech and daily activities
dementia
progressive loss of renal function that persists for 3 months or longer
chronic kidney disease (CKD)
pulmonary disorders characterized by chronic airflow limitation from lungs that is not fully reversible
chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
alternate contraction and relaxation of muscle
clonic (convulsion phase of a seizure)
widening and rounding of the tips of your fingers and toes
clubbing
a collection of related diseases (more than 100) where the body's cells begin to divide uncontrollably and spread into surrounding tissues
cancer
propoxyphene and erythromycin should not be given to patients taking ________
carbamazapine
sudden death in emery-dreifus is usually due to ______ involvement
cardiac
dopamine is released in the ______ ______ and _____ (the nigrostriatal pathway)
caudate nucleus, putamen
This condition is caused by an autoimmune response to gliadin in the small intestine
celiac disease
inherited, chronic, autoimmune disorder triggered by gluten consumption that causes chronic inflammation of the small intestine
celiac disease
syndrome that occurs at the center of the cord, and damages nerves that carry signals from the brain to the spinal cord. Loss of fine motor skills, paralysis of the arms and partial impairment in the legs. Some survivors also suffer loss of bowel or bladder control, or lose the ability to sexually function
central cord syndrome
what part of the brain is damaged in ataxic palsy?
cerebellum
This condition has no cure and may require braces, crutches or canes to support the lower limbs
cerebral palsy
plastic surgery of the nose and lip
cheilorhinoplasty
treatment of illness by chemical means, that is, by medication or drugs
chemotherapy
At what age does emery-dreifus occur?
childhood to early teens
The etiology of dementia is unknown, but could be due to loss of ________ neurons as well as genetics
cholinergic
inflammation of lining of bronchial tubes which narrows airways
chronic bronchitis
a type of injury that means that there is no function below the level of the injury. No sensation and no voluntary movement. Both sides of the body are equally affected
complete injury
________ tics are coordinated pattern of movements that involves several muscle groups
complex
_________ partial seizures occurs when a person loses awareness for a time (daydream). They have repeated actions like walking in a circle, rubbing hands together, or staring into space
complex
What is used to treat patients with stage IV COPD and is experiencing exacerbations?
corticosteroids
crackling or popping sound
crepitus
Weight loss, bloody diarrhea, cramping, and fatigue are signs of this condition
crohn's disease
chronic inflammation of the gastrointestinal tract
crohn's disease
bluish discoloration of the skin
cyanotic
_______ is the most common cause of epilepsy world-wide and is caused by a parasite and can be prevented through good hygiene and food preparation practices
cystericerosis
an inherited disease of the exocrine glands, characterized by the buildup of a thick, sticky mucous that can damage many of the body's organs
cystic fibrosis
a gene that encodes for a protein that is a chloride channel found in the membrane of airway cells; also involved in the regulation of water and other ions
cystic fibrosis conductance regulator (CFTR)
destruction of the myelin sheath, which surrounds the axons or nerve fibers in the CNS, that results in interruptions of communications between neurons and conduction of nerve impulses
demyelination
severe tooth pain inside the mouth caused by damaged nerve inside the tooth. Often felt in the jaw, teeth, or gums
dental neuralgia
group of metabolic disease characterized by high blood glucose levels and the inability to to produce and/or use insulin
diabetes mellitus
medical procedure to artificially filter the blood
dialysis
record of number of white blood cells
differential cell count
What is the most important homecare consideration for a patient with celiac disease?
give them gluten-free products
What causes spinal cord injury?
damage to the vertebrae, ligaments or discs of the spinal column or to the spinal cord itself
parkinson's disease results in an [increase/decrease] of dopamine neurons
decrease
ulcer that usually occurs over a bony prominence as a result of prolonged, excessive pressure from body weight
decubitus ulcers (pressure sore or bed sore)
What is the etiology of cystic fibrosis?
everyone inherits 2 CFTR gene, if a faulty gene is inherited from each parent then you will CF. If a person inherits 1 faulty CFTR gene then they are considered carriers
What does FAST stand for?
face, arms, speech, time
[T:F] in Crohn's inflammation most commonly affects the large intestine
false: Crohn's disease usually affects the small intestines, ulcerative colitis usually affects the large intestines
[T:F] chlorhexidine should be prescribed to cancer patients during chemotherapy or radiation therapy
false: avoid CHX
[T:F] cancer occurs only after you are born
false: can occur either before or after birth
[T:F] prednisone (corticosteroid) is used to maintain remission in Crohn's disease
false: corticosteroids are only used short term for achieving remission in active Crohn's
[T:F] dementia is completely irreversible
false: dementia is potentially reversible
[T:F] most people will get Lyme disease from the mature form of the tick
false: from the nymphal which is the immature form of the tick about the size of a poppy seed
[T:F] bisphosphonates impair osteoblasts
false: impair osteoclasts and their ability to remove contaminated bone
[T:F] valproic acid works by blocking sodium channels
false: it augments GABA and NMDA receptors which inhibits brain excitability
[T:F] high fiber diets are indicated for a person with Crohn's
false: low fiber diets are typically safer
[T:F] infective endocarditis can occur in 2-9% of peritoneal dialysis patients
false: occurs with hemodialysis
[T:F] when doing nutrition counseling on a type 1 diabetic, you should recommend less frequent snacking to help reduce cavities
false: snacking is recommended for type I diabetics
[T:F] the etiology of parkinson's disease is commonly hereditary
false: the cause of Parkinson's is idiopathic and there is no genetic linkage
[T:F] in Crohn's disease inflammation is continous
false: this is true for ulcerative colitis, in Crohn's inflammation skips areas
[T:F] too little thyroid hormone can cause bone loss
false: too much, which can occur if patient has an overactive thyroid or is taking too much thyroid medication
cognitive and memory problems in fibromyalgia
fibro fog
Myofacial pain syndrome is associated with what condition?
fibromyalgia
clefts can occur when the palate does not fully fuse together during the ______ trimester of pregnancy
first
[T:F] biologics are used as a first line treatment for mild Crohn's disease. Examples of Biologics include infliximab (Remicade) and adalimumb (Humira)
first statement false: biologics should not be used for first line treatment, but can be used for moderate to severe cases. This is because there is potential risk for infections, cancers, and lymphomas second statement true
[T:F] clients over the age 60 who smoke are the fastest growing segment of oral cancer population. Human papilloma virus 16 (HPV 16) is responsible for the increased risk for oral cancer especially in the tonsillar area
first statement false: clients under 50 who do not smoke second statement true
[T:F] the lower on the spinal cord the injury occurs, the more dysfunction the person will experience. The more damage occurs when lesions are below T6
first statement false: the higher the more damage second statement false: lesion above T6 will experience more complications
[T:F] seizure disorders tend to be stable and do not worsen over time. Prognosis for seizure control is poor.
first statement is true second statement is false: prognosis is good
[T:F] spastic palsy is a complete or partial loss of the ability to control muscular movement. Muscles have decreased tone and tension and can affect all limbs or one with oral structure always involved
first statement true second statement false: increase, oral structures are sometimes involved
[T:F] distal MD can have an impact on swallowing, chewing, and speaking. Patients with distal MD are usually incapacitated in old age
first statement true second statement false: patients are rarely incapacitated
[T:F] the cause of RA is unknown. Doctors believe there may be a genetic component in which bacterial agents alter the immune system in a genetically predisposed person, leading to destruction of synovial tissues
first statement true second statement false: viral agents instead of bacterial
[T:F]Your patient with fibromyalgia might present with the following conditions: gingivitis, evidence of attrition/bruxism, mouth sores, and xerostomia. Homecare instructions will encourage the use of oral irrigators, a powered toothbrush, and chewing xylitol gum.
first statement true second statement false: chewing xylitol is not recommended, but mints are okay
abnormal channels between tissues
fistulas
period of time when symptoms reoccur or become more severe, and can be triggered by a number of things
flares
When would the rapid, short-acting insulin be used?
for meals
how much air a person can exhale during a forced breath
forced vital capacity (FVC)
cracking or breaking of a hard object or material
fracture
functional neuroimaging procedure using magnetic resonance imaging to measure flood flow
functional MRI
stomach flu
gastroenteritis
_________ seizures involve a wider area of the brain
generalized
What is the etiology of facioscapulohumeral (FSHD) muscular dystrophy?
genetic mutation resulting in a shorter segment of DNA on chromosome 4
What plays a significant role in developing MS?
genetics
What biologic agent medication is most effective when paired with Methotrexate for Rheumatoid Arthritis
humira
This incurable condition is caused by a virus?
humman immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
high levels of blood glucose
hyperglycemia
increase in size
hyperplasia
How does peritoneal dialysis work?
hypertonic solution is instilled into peritoneal cavity through a permanent peritoneal cavity and over time, the solution and solutes (urea) are drawn out
low levels of blood glucose due to too much insulin
hypoglycemia (insulin shock)
state of elevated mood and increased motor drive persisting for at least 4 consecutive days
hypomania
cyclothmic disorder is characterized as multiple periods of _________ and depressive symptoms that lasts at least ____ years. The symptoms are not severe enough to be classified as hypomanic or depressive episodes
hypomanic, 2
reduced availability of oxygen to body tissues
hypoxia
When should dental treatment be postponed with Lyme disease?
if facial palsy complicates treatment
affecting the farthest segment of the small intestine
ileitis
when the of the small intestine is brought to the surface of the abdomen to make a stoma
ileostomy
The most common type of Crohn's disease affects the _____ and the colon
ileum
when an antibody binds to an antigen, a toxin, microorganism, or protein that is foreign to the body and helps fight disease
immune complex * in a patient with lupus, individuals form autoantibodies that attack the person's own tissue and organs
methotrexate and azathioprine are _________ that are used for [short/long] term therapy drugs in conjuction with [anti-inflammatories/biologics] to make sure effective with corticosteroids to enable smaller dose of steroid. There is a risk ______ damage while taking methotrexate so patient needs to be monitored
immunomodulators, long, biologics, liver
redness, swelling, pain, and/or feeling of heat in an area of the body and is protective reaction to injury
inflammation
hormone that binds to glucose in the blood and carries it to cells to be used for energy
insulin
This medication prevents the severity and relapse of disease symptoms for Multiple Sclerosis
interferon-beta
What type of medication prevents the severity and relapse of disease symptoms for Multiple Sclerosis
interferon-beta
What is the most common type of stroke?
ischemic stroke (80% occurences)
cancer of WBCs that affects the bone marrow and circulating blood
leukemia
increase in the number of white blood cells
leukocytosis
reduction in leukocytes in the blood
leukopenia
______ is the most common treatment for parkinsons disease and works by increasing _______ levels
levodopa (L-dopa), dopamine
inward curvature of the lumbar region, resulting in an S-shaped spine
lordosis
What diet should a person with renal disease be on?
low protein with low sodium and potassium intake
Your patient presents with the following oral conditions: Xerostomia Glossodynia Erythematous ulcerations Desquamative gingivitis What is the most likely condition this patient has?
lupus
chronic, autoimmune disease that predominately affects the skin along with other organ systems and the body's immune system turns on itself by producing antibodies that destroy healthy tissues causing severe damage
lupus
fainting, shortness of breath, heart palpitations or chest pain
lyme carditis
vector-borne illness that is commonly represented with Bell's Palsy, flu-like, fatigue and a red spreading rash
lyme disease
low number of lymphocytes in the blood
lymphocytopenia
What gender is leukemia more common in?
males
What gender is more common in cerebral palsy?
males
What gender is hemophilias more common in?
males *rarely do females get hemophilias A and B, but von willebrand's disease can occur in both males and females
a tumor that is cancerous
malignant
state of elevated mood and increased motor drive that impairs social or occupational functioning, and might involve psychotic symptoms, that persists for at least 1 week
mania
What gender is most likely diagnosed with muscular dystrophy?
men
what gender is COPD more common in?
men
What is the most prevalent age and gender for Parkinson's?
men, 60
ceasing of menstration
menopause
the spread of cancer cells to different parts of the body through the lymph system or blood stream
metastasis (metastasized)
What long term therapy medication would a patient take with Crohn's Disease?
methotrexate
What part of the brain is damaged in spastic palsy?
motor area of cerebral cortex
Your patient presents with the following oral conditions: -xerostomia -trigeminal neuralgia -paresthesia -bruxism -high caries risk What is the most likely condition this patient has?
multiple sclerosis
genetically linked, chronic autoimmune disorder in which demyelination of the CNS is characterized by progressive disabilities of the motor, sensory, cognitive, and emotional changes
multiple sclerosis
a genetic condition that interferes with protein formation necessary for muscle health
muscular dystrophy
What is the etiology of cancer?
mutation to the DNA within cells where a gene mutation can instruct a healthy cell to 1) rapidly grow 2) fail to stop the uncontrolled growth 3) make mistakes when repairing DNA errors
soft, white coating composed of lipids and protein, surrounding nerve fibers in the CNS. a complex natural electrical insulator, and serves to speed up the conduction of electrical signals down nerve fibers
myelin
_________ _______ is the most common cause of death in type II diabetics
myocardial infarction
isolated or repetitive shock-like contractions of a muscle or group of muscles
myoclonic
renal disease results from direct damage or deteriotation of the __________ which are the functional units of the kidneys
nephrons
nerve inflammation, usually with direct nerve damage
neuritis
decreased number of neutrophils
neutropenia
gastrointestinal disturbances due to gluten consumption
non-celiac gluten sensitivity
a doctor that treats those with cancer
oncologist
how is genetics linked to COPD?
only about 1 in 5 smokers will develop COPD because there is a genetic susceptibility to the production of inflammatory mediators in response to smoke exposure
surgical repositioning of all or parts of the maxilla and mandible
orthognathic surgery
orthopedic appliance or apparatus used to support, align, prevent, or correct deformities or to improve the function of a movable part of the body
orthosis
cells that secretes the matrix for bone formation
osteoblast
large multinucleate bone cell that absorbs bone tissue during growth and healing
osteoclast
death of bone tissue
osteonecrosis (avascular necrosis of the bone or osteochondritis dissecans)
What is a large concern with bisphosphanate medications used to treat osteoporosis?
osteonecrosis of the jaw bone
bone density that is lower than normal peak density but not low enough to be classified as osteoporosis
osteopenia
This condition is caused by hormones, age, and calcium deficiencies
osteoporosis
medical condition in which the bones become brittle and fragile from loss of tissue, typically as a result of hormonal changes, or deficiency of calcium or vitamin D
osteoporosis
the collection bag placed over the stoma that contain liquid undigested food
ostomy bag
oxygenated arterial blood
oxyhemoglobin
plastic reconstruction of the palate
palatoplasty
surgical excision or destruction of part of globus pallidus in the basal ganglion t prevent symptoms of parkinson's
pallidotomy
condition in which the pancreas becomes unflamed, which causes pain
pancreatitis
This condition is caused by a degeneration of neurons in the substantia nigra
parkinson's disease
group of neurological disorders that affects movement
parkinsonism
_______ seizures involve a part of the brain
partial
How can you prevent cystic fibrosis?
perform CF carrier testing if CF runs in the family, you are white and your ancestors come from Northern Europe, if your African American or Asian American
amount of HIV virus in a blood sample
viral load
pernicious anemia is a deficiency in what vitamin?
vitamin B12
gliadin is a component of gluten found in ______
wheat
an immune or allergic reaction to any of the hundreds of proteins in wheat
wheat allergy
when should periodontal therapy occur with a patient with leukemia
when patient is in remission
What gender is MS more common in?
women
What gender is scleroderma more common in?
women *4 to 1 ratio
What gender is lupus more common in?
women, especially in childbearing age
For your patient that had a stroke, the patient experiences sensitive bleeding gums and needs anesthetic. Are you able to use anesthetic with vasoconstrictor to stop the bleeding?
yes, you could use minimum amount needed with a vasoconstrictor
