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DPS 2

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A juvenile court may waive its original jurisdiction and transfer a child to criminal court to be tried as an adult. The child must be at least fifteen years of age, the child is alleged to have committed a felony offense, the welfare of the public requires criminal proceedings and no adjudication hearing has been held. (A): This statement is true. (B): This statement is false.

A person appointed to serve a subpoena must be at least _____ years of age. (A): 18 (B): 19 (C): 20 (D): 21

___The ______ and _____ o'clock position is our most advantageous steering position. (A): 9/3 (B): 10/2 (C): 12/6 (D): 6/12

√(1.3.1) Which of the following statements is "true" in regards to stress? (A): Some types of stress are considered as being "positive." (B): All stress is considered as being "negative." (C): As a profession, Law Enforcement is one of the least stressful. (D): Critical Incident Stress (CIS) is not incident specific.

(6.2.2) Which of the following would be listed in the CCP as a "Special Investigator." (A): FBI Agent (B): Texas State Trooper (C): County Narcotics Officer (D): District Attorney

(6.3.4) District Court in Texas has original jurisdiction for (A): Felonies. (B): All misdemeanor cases involving disorderly conduct. (C): All cases appealed from County Court (D): None of the above

(6.5.1) There is no "limitation" for presentation of an indictment for: (A): manslaughter (B): felony theft (C): robbery (D): insurance fraud

(8 - 1.07) " ________________" means physical pain, illness, or any impairment of physical condition. (A): Bodily injury (B): Serious bodily injury (C): Accidental injury (D): None of the above.

"A drug that is not safe for self-medication and is not included in Schedules I through V or Penalty Groups 1 through 4"; is the definition of: (A): steroid (B): over the counter purchase (C): dangerous drug (D): prescription

(1.3.1) Unit 1 defines "_________" as a stressor that is perceived as positive such as a promotion, getting married or achieving an accomplishment. (A): Chronic stress (B): Distress (C): Eustress (D): Acute stress (E): Stress

(1.3.4) ___________ is the elevated alertness of surroundings required of law enforcement officers for survival. (A): Productiveness. (B): Exclusivity. (C): Hypervigilance. (D): Under-performance.

(10.1.1) The offense of Driving While Intoxicated cannot be enforced ____________________________________ . (A): on public streets (B): in parking lots (C): in a private, residential garage (D): in an alley

(11.4.1) In landlord versus tenant lawsuits for rent and possession of the premises, the tenant would be notified to appear in court by delivering a copy of a _______________________ to the tenant. (Rule 738) (A): writ of mandamus (B): subpoena duces tecum (C): forcible entry and detainer (D): peace bond

(17.3.6) Which of the following was specifically listed as one of the helpful tools used in verbal persuasion? (A): Empty hand control (B): Empathize (Empathy) (C): Modeling (D): Command

(22.4.1) A marked unit is _______ to move in and out of traffic than an unmarked unit in non-emergency mode. (A): easier (B): harder (C): the same (D): None are correct

(8 - 31.04) What offense is committed if a person intentionally or knowingly leaves a motel without paying the bill of sixty five dollars? (A): theft (B): theft of service (C): robbery (D): no offense--civil matter

(9.1.3) A "curb line" separates a roadway from a " _______________" (A): sidewalk (B): shoulder (C): crosswalk (D): stop line

(9.1.4) In the Transportation Code, a person who parks a vehicle does not need to stop the engine, lock the ignition and remove the key when : (A): the vehicle is a commercial motor vehicle (B): the vehicle is attended by someone (C): parked off the roadway on a shoulder (D): the doors to the vehicle are locked

Possession of 1 gram or more but less than 4 grams of a Penalty Group 2 controlled substance is what charge? (A): State Jail Felony (B): Felony 3 (C): Felony 1 (D): Class A Mis(D):

(15.2.1)The BPOC defines "_____________" as brief notations concerning specific events and circumstances that are recorded while fresh in the officer's mind and used to prepare a report. (A): Official notes (B): Field notes (C): Permanent notes (D): None of the above

(17.1) Where the wrongdoer acts with reckless and total disregard for the probable consequences of their actions is a definition of: (A): negligence (B): gross negligence (C): intentional action (D): tort

(8 - 38.02) A person is lawfully detained by a police officer and intentionally gives a false name, residence address or date of birth. According to the Penal Code, which offense has been committed? (A): Hindering a Lawful Proceeding (B): Failure to Identify (C): False Report to a Peace Officer (D): Perjury

(8 - 42.01) The word "profane" as used in section 42.01 of the Penal Code means; (A): making a verbal attack (B): serving to debase that which is holy (C): used in a manner to injure (D): constitutes a harmful influence

(3.3.2) United States Code (USC) _________ deals with "Deprivation of Rights Under Color of law. (A): 240 (B): 241 (C): 242 (D): 243

(7.1.9) In order to frisk a stopped suspect, an officer must reasonably suspect that the suspect is: (A): under seventeen. (B): about to escape. (C): armed (D): guilty of a crime.

(8 - 1.07) According to the Penal Code, all _____________ are "deadly weapons". (A): knives (B): weapons (C): firearms (D): physical objects

(8 - 2.01) What is the standard of proof required for the State to prove guilt? (A): probable cause (B): clear and convincing (C): beyond a reasonable doubt (D): presumption of the evidence

(8 - 20.01) According to the Penal Code, the "key" word involved with kidnapping is; (A): restrain (B): injure (C): abduct (D): ransom

(9.1.18) According to the Transportation Code, when must a bicycle be ridden as close a practicable to the right-hand curb or edge of the roadway? (A): When in a lane that is too narrow for a bicycle and motor vehicle to safely operate side by side (B): While overtaking & passing another vehicle traveling in the same direction (C): When traveling at less than the speed of other traffic (D): Being in the right-hand lane is satisfactory; there is no requirement to be at the edge of the roadway

A Writ of Sequestration gives authority to seize: (A): property and sell it (B): a person to hold for a civil hearing (C): property and hold it (D): real estate only and hold it

(13.1.2) The street name for methamphetamine is ____________ . (A): smack (B): china white (C): speed (D): highball

(15.1.1) Choose the best sentence for a police report. (A): Photographs were taken of the damage. (B): The damage was photographed by myself. (C): I photographed the damage.

(15.1.3) In report writing, which of the following is an ACTIVE VOICE sentence? (A): The car was abandoned. (B): Coolant was on the roadway. (C): The driver hid in the bushes. (D): He was arrested and handcuffed.

(15.1.3) Which of the following is a characteristic of words or phrases that do a better job in police reports ? (A): abstract (B): general (C): concrete

(24.3.3) According to the BPOC, _______ patrol specifically has the following advantages: immediate traffic control; person-to-person contact;; good public/community relations; increased knowledge of physical beat; development of informants; increased knowledge of community needs and potential crime hazards. (A): Bicycle (B): Motorcycle (C): Foot (D): Auto

Which of the following authorizes an establishment to handle alcoholic beverages 4% or more by volume ? (A): On premise License (B): Off-premise License (C): Package Store Permit (D): State Store Seal

(15.2.1) All of the following are rules for complete note taking; Except? (A): alternate between listening and writing (B): clarify information to your satisfaction (C): use headings in the notes for types of information (D): record all quotes made by the victim

(17.1.2) The use of force is not justified by the Penal Code in which of the following situations? (A): A person has reason to believe that a another was attempting to commit robbery. (B): A person has reason to believe that someone has unlawfully entered a habitation. (C): A private citizen has reason to believe that another person is attempting to kidnap a child. (D): In response to verbal provocation alone.

(17.3.4) In the BPOC, TCOLE indicates that communication is an important professional skill and that _______ % of an officer's duties involve verbal skills. (A): 37 (B): 57 (C): 77 (D): 97

(17.3.4) Which of the following skills is most frequently used by an officer ? (A): perceptive (B): intellectual (C): tactical (D): verbal

(18.2.2) According to the Learning Objectives for Mechanics of Arrest, which of the following are risk factor situations: (A): Suspect shows signs of intoxication (B): Suspect has aggressive mental attitude (C): Spectators are supportive of suspects (D): All are correct (E): None are correct

(19.2.2) "A device that withdraws the cartidge or fired case from the chamber" is the definition of: (A): flyer (B): ejector (C): hammer spur (D): extractor

(19.2.2) "The distance from the front sight blade to the rear sight notch". is the definition of: (A): sight alignment (B): sight picture (C): barrel length (D): sight radius

(19.2.2)A standard 12 guage 2 & 3/4 inch shotgun shell is loaded with _____ 00 buckshot . (A): 6 (B): 15 (C): 12 (D): 9

(3.1.2) Which of the following was specifically listed by TCOLE as being a "disadvantage" of the "professional model for law enforcement?" (A): Stronger community support and respect (B): Stronger role in the criminal justice system (C): Financial rewards (D): Cost of training and development.

(6.2.1) Which of the following is not a magistrate in Texas? (A): Texas Supreme Court Judges (B): Municipal Court Judges (C): Courts of Appeals Judges (D): State Attorney General

(6.5.1) What is the statute of limitations for "theft by a public servant of governmental property over which he or she exercises control in an official capacity?" (A): No limitations (B): Three years (C): Five years (D): Ten years

(6.6.2) An arrest warrant is valid (A): for three whole days not counting the day of issuance nor the day of execution. (B): for thirty days from date of issue. (C): for five working days. (D): indefinitely until served or withdreawn by magistrate.

(8 - 46.05) Penal Code Section 46.05 lists prohibited weapons that a person cannot possess; even in their own home. Which of the following is one of them? (A): a throwing knife (B): a nightstick (C): a shotgun with pistol grip attached (D): a zip gun (E): a bowie knife

(8 - 46.05) Which of the following [b]IS NOT[/b] a prohibited weapon listed in section 46.05 of the Penal Code? (A): knuckles (B): firearm silencer (C): grenade (D): a club

(9.1.15) Which of these traffic violations applies to road machines engaged in work upon the highway surface? (A): No Driver's License (B): Driving While License Suspended (C): Wrong Way on One Way (D): Reckless Driving (E): No Motor Vehicle Inspection

(9.1.17) The requirement to have parking lamps, described in Ch 547, Texas Transportation Code is applicable to: (A): farm tractors (B): bicycles (C): road equipment (D): motor vehicles registered out of state

(9.1.20) Which of the following requires a traffic violator to be immediately taken before a magistrate? (A): the person possessed an open container of alcoholic beverage while driving (B): the person was not a vehicle owner (C): the person is arrested for disregard police officer (D): the person demands an immediate appearance before the magistrate

(9.1.3) "The entire width between the boundary lines of every public way, open to the use of the public for the purpose of vehicular travel" is the definition of a ____________ . (A): roadway (B): shoulder (C): sidewalk (D): street

(9.1.9) An operator being overtaken and passed by another vehicle shall move or remain to the right when the overtaking vehicle: (A): moves into oncoming traffic (B): uses a turn signal (C): flashes its headlamps (D): gives audible warning

If an officer is judged to have used unreasonable or excessive force, which of the following is not a sanction that could be imposed against the officer ? (A): prosecuted for violation of state law (B): prosecuted for federal civil rights violation (C): prosecuted for violation of federal criminal law (D): prosecuted for federal violation of treason

(24.1.1) The basic duties of police patrol can be summed up in two words: (A): detection & apprehension (B): surveillance & apprehension (C): prevention & protection (D): service & detection (E): protection & service

(24.2.1) Telltale noises can be generated by: (A): vehicle engine and/or door slamming (B): radio volume (C): safety belts, if you pop the buckle (D): equipment such as keys, whistles, baton and handcuffs (E): all of these can generate noise

(8 - 38.02) Which of the following is [b][u]NOT[/u][/b] an element of Penal Code 38.02 (a) Failure to Identify? (A): intentionally refuses to give his name (B): to a peace officer (C): lawfully arrested (D): peace officer requested information (E): all of these are elements

A civil judgment rendered in Justice of the Peace Court is first appealed to: (A): County Court (B): District Court (C): Court of Appeals (D): Texas Supreme Court

(1.1.1) That condition of the human organism that consists of its health and disease status and risk potential. (A): Ergonomics (B): Wellness (C): Fitness (D): Physiology

(23.1.1) For communication to be successful the meaning must not only be sent, but (A): sent repeatedly (B): sent sincerely (C): also comprehended (D): also be rational

(13.2.1) "_______________" means a person, other than a pharmacist, who manufactures dangerous drugs. The term includes a person who prepares dangerous dosage form by mixing, compounding, encapsulating, enabling, or any other process. (HSC 483.001) (A): Business enterprise (B): Manufacturer (C): Criminal business (D): None of the above

(4.3.3) "____________" law is that portion of the law which defines the personal and property rights of individuals; the rights of an individual to seek redress or to prevent a wrong; any action other than criminal proceedings. (A): Procedural (B): Civil (C): Criminal (D): State (E): None of the above

(1.1.1) The condition of the body that enables an individual to use his or her body in activities requiring strength, muscular endurance, cardiovascular endurance, flexibility, coordination, agility power, balance, speed, and accuracy, without undue experience of fatigue and exhaustion is the definition of (A): wellness (B): physical fitness (C): stamina (D): good conditioning

(1.1.1) There are varying degrees of wellness and these degrees range from death to optimal well-being. This is also referred to as the ___________________________ . (A): Force Continuum (B): Wellness Continuum (C): Cardiovascular Endurance (D): Lifeline

(29.3.1) All of the following are guidelines to follow in conducting a line-up; EXCEPT: (A): The police must avoid suggestive gestures toward a participant (B): Do not have participants speak certain phrases (C): Each participant performs equally (D): All participants must have similar physical characteristics

(29.4.2) Decomposition of body tissue (Putrefaction) is influenced greatly by: (A): Bloating (B): Temperature (C): Blister Formation (D): Fluids & Gases

(14.1.2) Under the Family Code, the term "child" would include a person (A): 18 years of age or older and under 19 years of age who is alleged or found to have engaged in delinquent conduct or conduct indicating a need for supervision. (B): ten years of age or older and under 17 years of age (C): 10 years of age or older and under 21 years of age (D): Under nineteen years of age.

(4.3.1) The "Criminal Justice System" structure includes the following three major components: (A): Probation, parole, and corrections (B): Police, courts, and corrections (C): Fire protection, police, and courts (D): Probation, police, and corrections

(19.3.2) The minimum passing percentage shall be at least _____ for each firearm qualification. (Rule 217.21) (A): 50 (B): 70 (C): 75 (D): 90

(6.2.1) Which of the following is not a magistrate in Texas? (A): Texas Supreme Court Judges (B): Municipal Court Judges (C): Courts of Appeals Judges (D): District Attorney

(1.1.1) ______________ is defined by TCOLE as that condition of the human organism that consists of its health and disease status and risk potential. There are varying degrees of wellness, ranging from death to optimal well being. Genuine health is not just the absence of disease or infirmity, it is a state of positive well being. It induces the physical, mental, spiritual, and social emotional dimensions of life. Total well being translates into the practice of positive lifestyle behaviors and good health habits. (A): Physical fitness (B): Wellness (C): Stamina (D): Good conditioning

(1.3.2) A "_______" is defined in Unit 1 as a demand, real or imagined, that disrupts a person's equilibrium and initiates the stress response. (A): problem (B): stressor (C): critical situation (D): none of the above

(1.5.1) Symptoms associated with high engagement of Sympathetic Nervous System and resulting elevated heart rates include all of the following except: (A): Visual changes such as tunnel vision. (B): The officer may experience extreme strength and appropriate emotions. (C): Time often appears to slow down during the incident. (D): Memory lapses may occur.

(11.2.1) The level of proof needed to find in favor of the plaintiff in a civil case is: (A): Probable cause (B): Preponderance of the evidence (C): Beyond a reasonable doubt. (D): Beyond all doubt

(11.2.1) The level of proof needed to find in favor of the plaintiff in a civil case is: (A): Probable cause. (B): Preponderance of the evidence. (C): Beyond a reasonable doubt. (D): Beyond all doubt.

(11.4.1) "___________" - A written or printed statement or declaration of facts, made voluntarily and sworn to or affirmed by an affiant before a person having authority to administer an oath or affirmation. (A): Affiant (B): Affidavit (C): Attachment (D): Appeal

(11.6.1) A written order from a court directing a Texas Peace Officer to appear as a witness for that court in a criminal trial is known as a ____________________ . (CCP 24.01) (A): citation with petition (B): subpoena (C): forcible entry and detainer (D): duces tecum

(4.3.4) A person is charged with "assault" where the defendant improperly touched another person. Which of the following Texas courts has original jurisdiction to try this case? (A): Municipal Court (B): Justice of the Peace (C): County (D): District (E): Courts of Appeals

A,B

(11.6.2) Sheriffs and Constables are required to serve citations and subpoenas. Any other person can be appointed to serve these notices also. Those other persons must be at least ______ . (Rule 103, CCP 24.01) (A): 16 years of age (B): 18 years of age (C): 21 years of age (D): 20 years of age

(12.1.2) According to the Alcoholic Beverage Code, who shall enforce the provisions of this code and cooperate with and assist the commission in detecting violations and apprehending offenders? (A): Commissioned Officers with the Alcoholic Beverage Commission (B): All peace officers in the State (C): Only officers in the jurisdiction of the offense (D): Special Investigators with the Office of Inspector General

(5.1.1) "____________" is a mental position based on a person's knowledge, feelings, and experiences about someone or something influencing him/her to behave in a certain way in regard to that person or thing. (A): Prejudice (B): Attitude (C): Ethnicity (D): Discrimination

(5.1.1) Acting on the basis of prejudice is ____________. (A): Ethnocentrism (B): Discrimination (C): Culture (D): Projection

(12.1.3) Which of the following is a peace officer authorized to seize under the Alcoholic Beverage Code without a warrant? (A): any vehicle, including an aircraft or watercraft (B): any illicit beverage, its container, and its packaging (C): any equipment designed for use in or used in manufacturing (D): any material to be used in manufacturing

(13.1.1) "____________" includes the manufacturing, planting, cultivating, growing, or harvesting of a controlled substance. (A): Manufacturing (B): Production (C): Distribute (D): Deliver

(5.1.1) Cultural diversity training cannot: (A): provide an opportunity to talk (B): change personal values and attitudes (C): offer a different perspective (D): explore current values and biases

(26.2.1) A very jealous husband handcuffs his wife to a bedpost against her will and doesn't turn her loose for a week. What crime has occurred? (A): Slavery (B): Unlawful Restraint (C): Domestic Violence (D): No offense, the woman agreed in her marriage vows to obey her husband.

(26.2.5) In a protective order, the court may do all of the following except: (A): Require a person to enter into counseling. (B): Require spouses to obtain a divorce. (C): Require specified acts of a person to prevent family violence. (D): Require specified acts of a person to prevent family violence and require the person to enter into counseling.

(13.1.3) By making a slight change in the chemical makeup of a scheduled controlled substance, without changing its effect or intended use as a drug, one has created a: (A): simulated controlled substance (B): controlled substance analogue (C): immediate precursor (D): prescription fraud

(13.1.3) Psilocybin is: (A): derived from cactus juice (B): a drug found in a type of mushroom (C): taken through injection (D): a leafy substance resembling parsley

(13.1.3) The narcotic extracted from the Indian hemp plant that is several times more potent than marijuana is: (A): varnish (B): hashish (C): relish (D): alfalfa

(13.1.3) The offense "Delivery of Marihuana" is a ________________ if the amount of marihuana delivered is one-fourth ounce or less and the person committing the offense does not receive remuneration for the marihuana. (A): Class "C" Misdemeanor (B): Class "B" Misdemeanor (C): Class "A" Misdemeanor (D): State Jail Felony

(13.1.3) What is the penalty classification for possession of a dangerous drug? (A): 2nd Degree Felony (B): Class A Misd. (C): Class C Misd. (D): None of these

(13.1.3) Which of the following is a derivative of opium ? (A): amphetamine (B): heroin (C): cocaine (D): phencyclidine

"__________" is primarily a question of intent, and intent may be inferred from words spoken, acts done, and other objective facts. (A): standing to complain (B): civil liability (C): abandonment (D): the exclusionary rule

"___________" is the security given by the accused that he will appear and answer before the proper court the accusation brought against him. (A): Parole (B): Probation (C): Bail (D): Promissory Note

"The non-specific response of the body to any demand placed on it" is the definition of: (A): Anxiety (B): Worry (C): Hypertension (D): Stress (disstress)

(1.1.1) The practice of positive lifestyle behaviors and good health habits refers to: (A): Total Flexibility (B): Coordination (C): Fatigue Tolerance (D): Total Well-Being

Prying by a peace officer into hidden places is a definition of: (A): entrapment (B): excursion (C): intrusion (D): search

(4.3.4) The highest Texas court to hear appeals of civil cases is (A): District Court (B): Courts of Appeals (C): Court of Criminal Appeals (D): Texas Supreme Court (E): Justice of the Peace Courts

D (Grade style): 0

(6.6.1) Under Art. 14.04 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, who establishes the credibility of the person reporting a felony? (A): a magistrate (B): the prosecutor (C): an impartial citizen (D): the police officer

D (Grade style): 0

(23.5.2) Elements of communication include: (A): Words (B): Content (C): Voice (D): Non-Verbals (E): All of the above

(24.2.1) Which of the following does not fall into a category of items an officer has a responsibility to report while engaged in routine preventive patrol? (A): Dead animals on the street or highways (B): Defects in the roadway that may cause an accident (C): Stalled vehicles blocking a roadway that cannot be pushed out of the way (D): A faulty or inoperative official traffic control device (E): None of the above responds to the question since the officer must report each item.

(15.1.0) Choose the best sentence for a police report. (A): I found the prints with black powder, lifted them with transparent tape and placed them on 3x5 cards. (B): The prints were discovered, collected and preserved as evidence. (C): Scene processed.

(13.1.2) Which of the following substances is considered a hallucinogen? (A): Phencyclidine (PCP) (B): Morphine (MPN) (C): Methadone (DOLLS) (D): Crack Cocaine (CHCL)

(13.1.3) Of the below listed Drug Schedules, which describes those drugs that have no currently accepted medical use: (A): Schedule I (B): Schedule II (C): Schedule III (D): Schedule IV (E): Schedule V

(13.1.3) What amount of marijuana is enough to possess in order to qualify as a criminal offense? (A): a usable quantity (B): over 2 ounces (C): one pound (D): any measurable amount

(13.1.3) What is the Charge for Possession of a Simulated Controlled Substance? (A): No Charge (B): State Jail Felony (C): Class A Misd. (D): Class C Misd.

(13.2.1) "______________" means to sell, dispense, give away, or supply in any other manner. (A): Deliver (B): Dispense (C): Manufacture (D): None of the above

(13.2.3) Identify a Method of Drug Abuse? (A): All of these are correct (B): Inhalation (C): Ingestion (D): Injection

(14.1.11) The offense of Failure to Report Child Abuse is a: (A): Class A Misdemeanor (B): Class B Misdemeanor (C): Class C Misdemeanor (D): 3rd Degree Felony

(14.1.2) "Valid Court Order" means a court order entered under Section 54.04 concerning a child adjudicated to have engaged in conduct indicating a need for supervision as a "______________" offender. (A): status (B): traffic (C): felony (D): misdemeanor

(14.1.5) A "Juvenile Processing Office" may: (A): Not be a cell or holding facility used for detentions other then detentions under Family Code Sec: 52.025. (B): Be a cell or holding facility for detentions other than detentions under this section. (C): Be a cell or holding facility for adults (D): Be a cell or holding facility for both juveniles and adults.

(14.1.5) A child may not be detained in a "Juvenile Processing Office" for longer than _____ hours. (A): 6 (B): 8 (C): 10 (D): 12

(14.1.7) A law enforcement officer may issue a "field release citation" as provided by CCP Article 14.06 in place of taking a "child" into custody for (A): "speeding" (B): "DWI" (C): "deadly conduct" (D): "speeding" or "DWI"

(14.1.7) A person taking a child into custody shall promptly give notice of the person's action and a statement of the reason for taking the child into custody, to: (A): The child's parent, guardian, or custodian (B): The child's high school principal (C): The District Attorney (D): The County Sheriff

(15.1.0) Choose the best sentence for a police report. (A): After the dispatcher acknowledged my message, I left my patrol car. (B): After a 10-4, I dismounted the cruiser. (C): The transmission was received prior to a vacation of the squa(D):

(15.1.1) Which of the following verb tenses is best used in police reports ? (A): past (B): present (C): future (D): perfect

(15.1.2) "Hysterical, intoxicated, abusive, and uncooperative" are examples of ___________ words. (A): abstract (B): concrete (C): unemotional (D): passive

(15.1.2) In Report Writing, the use of concrete language, detailed observations and factual statements are methods of: (A): avoiding conclusions (B): organizing your thoughts (C): using everyday language

(15.1.3) A ________ voice is used when the subject of the sentence receives the action, the doer of an action follows the verb, or the doer of the action is not mentioned. (A): Passive (B): Active (C): Neutral

(15.1.3) A sentence is written in ________ Voice when the subject of the verb does the acting and the doer comes before the verb in the sentence. (A): Active (B): Passive (C): Declarative (D): Neutral

(15.2.1) Which of the following statements is true concerning the use of field notes? (A): Provides basis for report. (B): Increases the need to re-contact parties involved. (C): Provides less accuracy relative to time, statements, and events than memory alone (D): None of the above.

(15.2.3) The preferred method of establishing property value is established by determining fair market value. (A): This answer is true (B): This answer is false

(15.3.3) On initial investigation, if you are unable to determine if an activity is either criminal or non-criminal, the event should be reported on a(n): (A): incident report (B): offense report (C): supplemental report (D): arrest report

(16.1.4) Choose the formal Spanish translation for "What is your name?" (A): Como se llama Usted (B): Como te llamas tu (C): none of the above (D): A&B

(17.1.2) "Legal authority to use force" can be found in the _________ Code.; (A): Penal (B): Traffic (C): Family (D): Occupation

(17.1.2) A peace officer who properly uses deadly force against another but recklessly kills a third person in the process could be prosecuted for this innocent killing. (A): This statement is true. (B): This statement is false.

(17.1.2) Even though an actor is justified in the Penal Code in threatening or using force or deadly force against another, if in doing so he also recklessly injures or kills an innocent third person; (A): The justification afforded is unavailable in a prosecution for the reckless injury or killing of the innocent third person. (B): The justification afforded is still available in a prosecution for the reckless injury or kill of the innocent third person. (C): The actor would not be civilly liable since he was justified under the Penal Code. (D): The actor, especially a peace officer, is protected both criminally and civilly under the Penal code and would never be liable for his actions

(29.8.2) Accurate notes are necessary to enable the investigator to: (A): testify in court in a consistent manner (B): identify crime scene photos (C): track the chain of custody of evidence (D): identify witnesses

(29.7.11) What type of sketch is used to show the exact location of latent prints? (A): detailed (B): immediate grounds (C): projection (D): general locality

(29.7.8) The BPOC defines "_______________" as a drawing which represents the crime scene and serves to supplement photography by providing accurate information concerning the distance between various points in the scene. (A): Crime scene sketch (B): Triangulation (C): Rectangulation (D): Rough draft

(9.1.3) The definition of " _________________" is the entire width between the boundary lines of every publicly maintained way when any part thereof is open to the use of the public for purposes of vehicular travel. (A): Highway or street (B): Roadway (C): Shoulder (D): Right of way

(9.1.4) A vehicle is temporarily halted and occupied; it is not receiving or discharging passengers, and is not loading or unloading merchandise or property; this vehicle is: (A): parked (B): stopping (C): standing

(9.1.7) The lowest level drivers license that allows a person to legally operate a single motor vehicle with a gross vehicle weight rating of 26,000 pounds or less is a Class _____ driver's license: (A): C (B): B (C): A (D): M

(8 - 1.07) "Bodily Injury" is defined in the Penal Code as: (A): physical pain, illness, or any impairment of physical condition. (B): the protracted loss of physical functions (C): not having the normal use of physical or mental faculties (D): any wound requiring treatment

(8 - 12.03) "_________________" means an offense so designated by law or punishable by fine, by confinement in jail, or by both fine and confinement in jail. (A): Misdemeanor (B): Felony (C): Strict liability offense (D): None of the above

(24.1.3) The main difference between cover and concealment is: (A): concealment is easier to find (B): cover will at least stop, slow down or deflect a bullet (C): overweight officers can move from concealment easier than from cover (D): they are the same in meaning

(24.3.3) The best means of preventive enforcement is ________________________ . (A): foot patrol (B): automobile patrol (C): motorcycle patrol (D): bicycle patrol

(6.3.5) County Courts have appellate jurisdiction in what class of offenses? (A): Class A Misdemeanor (B): Class C Misdemeanor (C): All felonies (D): County Courts have no appellate jurisdiction

(6.3.5) Which one of the following courts usually has original jurisdiction for class "A" and "B" misdemeanors? (A): Court of appeals. (B): County court at law. (C): District court. (D): Municipal court.

(6.3.6) In general, which of the following courts would have original jurisdiction in a case involving fine only (class "C" misdemeanor)? (A): County court. (B): Justice of peace court (C): District (D): U.S. Magistrate Court

According to the Texas Penal Code, a peace officer may use deadly force to stop a fleeing felon even if the felon is not considered dangerous should he escape. (A): True (B): False

Alcohol impairment affects the ability to ____________ attention among tasks. (A): focus (B): divide (C): delegate (D): recognize

As an occupational group Law Enforcement Professionals have an excellent health profile. (A): This statement is true. (B): This statement is false.

Wind speed and direction are not important considerations during a hazardous material incident. (A): True (B): False

You should give the instructions for the HGN in the SFST from a safe position. What is a safe position? (A): not interfering with the suspects movement (B): keep your weapon away from the suspect (C): keep some physical obstacle between you and the suspect (D): level ground that will give you sure footing.

A Buyers Temporary Cardboard Tag is valid until: (A): the dealer renews his master dealer's license (B): the owner removes it (C): until the vehicle is operated on a public street (D): the earlier of the vehicle's registration or 61st day from purchase

A Writ of Attachment is used as what type of court order? (A): to attach property the defendant is about to hide for the purpose of defrauding their creditors (B): the defendant owes the plaintiff for property obtained by the defendant under false pretenses (C): the defendant is about to move from the State permanently (D): all of these are correct

The single most common factor in suicidal behavior or death by suicide is that the individual is experiencing _________________. (A): Insanity (B): Poor health (C): Mental illness (D): Depression

The three essential dietary components that are used as primary energy sources for the human body are : (A): Fats-Carbohydrates-Water (B): Vitamins-Proteins-Carbohydrates (C): Minerals-Fats-Vitamins (D): Proteins-Fats-Carbohydrates

(24.4.2) When one officer is dealing with two or more people, he or she should avoid (A): standing in the recommended field interview position. (B): speaking to the person being interviewed (C): being surrounded by people being interviewed (D): observing all people.

(24.5.12) The practice of using an inner blockade beyond which only authorized persons are permitted and the curious are prevented from joining the disorderly, achieves the precept of __________________ in crowd control . (A): containment (B): dispersal (C): isolation (D): contagion

(1.3.1) Unit 1 defines "________" as the natural reaction of the mind and body to a demand placed on it - pleasant or unpleasant. (A): Stress (B): Distress (C): Eustress (D): Chronic stress

(11.2.1) __________ law regulates the conduct of individuals through threats of fines and imprisonment. In criminal cases, the state brings an action against an individual to punish him for breaking one of their laws. (Helps to prevent harm to society and prescribes the punishment to be imposed. (A): Criminal (B): Civil (C): Procedural (D): None of the above

(11.4.1) "___________" - A written or oral application for a ruling or order from the court. (A): Motion (B): Injunction (C): Appeal (D): Execution

(11.4.1) "______________" - Official process by which a plaintiff gives a defendant notice of suit. The purpose is to give the court jurisdiction over the parties, to satisfy due process requirements, and to provide the defendant the opportunity to appear and defend himself. (A): Citation (B): Capias (C): Bench warrant (D): None of the above

(11.5.4) A civil process document contains a return after service or attempted service. A proper return will contain all of the following elements except ___________________________ . (Rule 107, 536a, 606, 607, 618, 654, 663, 689, 712) (A): peace officer's interest in the suit (B): location of service and name of person served (C): time and date of service (D): method of service

(11.6.5) The violation of a Temporary Restraining Order would be considered _________________ by the court. (Rule 692) (A): as contempt (B): a misdemeanor (C): a felony (D): insulting

(12.1.2) Generally, which of the following authorizes the handling of only beer in the Alcoholic Beverage Code? (A): license (B): tax stamp (C): permit (D): certificate

(13.1.2) Opium and opiates are all considered a: (A): Narcotic drug (B): Depressant (C): Hallucinogen (D): Stimulant

(22.5.2) A _______ apex is the most desirable cornering method. (A): late (B): early (C): middle (D): reversed

(4.1.4) The First Amendment contains the following right(s) (A): Freedom of Religion, Press, and Speech (B): Freedom from self incrimination, press, and speech, and right to an attorney. (C): Right to bail, and to bear arms. (D): Freedom of Press, right to bear arms, and freedom from unreasonable searches and seizures (E): None of the above

(8 - 22.01) A person intentionally or knowingly threatens another with imminent bodily injury is guilty of: (A): assault (B): terroristic threat (C): aggravated assault (D): harassment

(8 - 28.02) A person intentionally sets his neighbor's house on fire. What is the most serious crime that has occurred? (A): Arson (B): Criminal Trespass (C): Negligent Destruction of Property (D): Reckless Mischief

(8 - 28.03) If without the effective consent of the owner, Billy Bloom papers Julie Cuteone's house (toilet paper in the trees). Billy did not damage any property, but Julie's father was enraged by the act. What offense has Billy committed? (A): criminal mischief (B): vandalism (C): criminal attempt of disorderly conduct (D): no violation was committed

(8 - 3.01) "Criminal Episode" means the commission of _____ or more offenses committed pursuant to the same transaction or are connected to a common scheme or plan. (A): two (B): three (C): four (D): one

(8 - 33.01) A computer security system is a procedure or other measure employed by the owner or user of a computer that restricts the use of a computer. (A): True (B): False

(8 - 43.04) The Penal Code specifically states that "A person commits "Aggravated Promotion of Prostitution" if he knowingly owns, invests in, finances, controls, supervises, or manages a prostitution enterprise that use _______ or more prostitutes." (A): 2 (B): 5 (C): 7 (D): 10

(8 - 46.01) According to the Texas Penal Code, all of the following are illegal knives; except? LAW CHANGED - QUESTION NO GOOD 5/2018 (A): Knife with a 5 inch folding blade (B): Dagger with a 3 inch blade (C): Throwing knife with a 4 inch blade (D): Butcher knife with a 7 inch blade

(9.1.17) In the Transportation Code, vehicles may not carry a load which extends more than _______ to the front. (A): 3 feet (B): 4 feet (C): 5 feet (D): 6 feet

(9.2.1) A test skid is run at 20 mph. The longest skid mark is 43 feet. What is the coefficient of friction? (A): 0.31 (B): 0.26 (C): 0.46 (D): 0.16

Taking a person to the station house, interrogating him and restricting his personal freedom is the equivalent of an arrest and is illegal without probable cause. (A): True (B): False

(7.1.13) During the search of an apartment for a 24-inch console television set pursuant to a valid search warrant, an officer looks in a closet large enough to contain the TV. Although the TV is not in the closet, the officer observes a short-barrel shotgun, which he/she recognizes as a prohibited weapon. The weapon: (A): may be seized and the person charged with possession of a prohibited weapon. (B): is not admissible as evidence because the search warrant was for a TV and not for a shotgun. (C): is admissible if the officer obtains a new search warrant and returns to locate the shotgun at a later time. (D): is "fruit of the poisonous tree" and the exclusionary rule rule applies in this case.

A (Grade style): 0

"A condition that substantially impacts a person's thought, their perception of reality, their emotional process or judgment as manifested by recent disturbance behavior" is the definition of _________________ . (A): intoxication (B): mental illness (C): insanity (D): mental retardation

"A substance that is an immediate chemical intermediary, used in the manufacture of a controlled substance" is the definition of : . (A): paraphernalia (B): immediate precursor (C): dilutant (D): adulterant

(1.1.1) According to Unit 1, which of the following statements is true in regards to physical fitness levels of police officers? (A): Fitness amongst the law enforcement profession is an area that does not need improvement. (B): Incumbent officers are usually below average in fitness. (C): Incumbent officers are usually above average in fitness. (D): Officers are usually hired (recruits) at below average fitness.

(15.1.3) "The revolver was picked up by this officer and kept as evidence." is an example of: (A): first person style (B): passive voice (C): inference

(17.1.1) Which of the following is the most appropriate definition of reasonable force? (A): any force which results in a successful arrest (B): that amount of lawful aggression sufficient to achieve a legitimate law enforcement objective (C): force which is known to cause death or serious bodily injury (D): any force which does not result in injury to anyone

(17.2.2) According to the Learning Objectives, when conducting an arrest the police role is essentially ____________? (A): offensive (B): defensive (C): aggressive (D): neutral

(20.1.3) If a large foreign object protrudes from a wound, the first aider should: (A): remove it to prevent infection (B): not remove it since severe bleeding can occur (C): remove it to clean the wound (D): remove it to determine seriousness of the wound, then reinsert the object

(24.8.3) The deadbolt throw of a lock mechanism should be at least how long? (A): 3/4 of an inch (B): 1 inch (C): 1 1/2 inches (D): 2 inches

(29.7.11) The most frequently used method for sketching a crime scene is the __________ sketch. (A): perception (B): projection (C): compass (D): architectural

(29.7.13) When collecting, preserving and labeling evidence from a crime scene for identification, three bits of information should be written on every container of evidence; they are: (A): location, dimensions and weight (B): date, time and initials (C): brand, model and serial number (D): color, size and density

(3.l.2) Which of the following was specifically listed by TCOLE as being an "advantage" of the "professional model for law enforcement?" (A): Public or client were less served. (B): Quality of peace officers is improved. (C): Unethical Conduct (D): Less effective problem solving.

(4.1.1.) The Bill of Rights to the United States Constitution: (A): was designed to replace the Articles of Confederation. (B): was added to the original Constitution to ensure individual liberties and civil rights. (C): incorporated the separation of powers. (D): was ratified in 1788.

(6.2.2) Which of the following is listed as a peace officer in the CCP? (A): Mayor (B): Officer commissioned by a Water Control and Improvement District. (C): Justice of the Peace (D): Secret Service Agent

(6.2.3) A/an "______________" is a written statement filed and presented in behalf of the State by the district or county attorney, charging the defendant with an offense which may by law be so prosecuted. (A): Indictment (B): Information (C): Capias (D): Subpoena

(6.8.1) A/an "__________" is a written statement filed and presented in behalf of the State by the district or county attorney, charging the defendant with an offense which may by law be so prosecuted. (A): Indictment (B): Information (C): Capias (D): Subpoena

(6.8.1) According to the CCP, A written statement that is filed and presented on behalf of the State of Texas by a district attorney that charges a person with an offense that may be prosecuted according to the law is called a/an _______________. (A): Indictment (B): Information (C): Commitment (D): Attachment

(8 - 15.01) According to the Penal Code, the offense of "Criminal Attempt" carries with it what type of punishment? (A): Class C Misdemeanor (B): No Punishment (C): State Jail Felony (D): Civil Tort

(8 - 19.03) A person commits ___________ if he or she intentionally or knowingly causes the death of a pregnant woman and her unborn child: (A): Murder (B): Capital Murder (C): Manslaughter (D): Criminally Negligent Manslaughter

(8 - 22.01) It is an aggravated assault to intentionally threaten someone with imminent serious bodily injury. (A): This statement is true. (B): This statement is false.

(8 - 37.11) Impersonating a public servant is a : (A): felony of the first degree (B): felony of the third degree (C): class A misdemeanor (D): felony of the second degree

(8 - 42.05) Which of the following Penal Code Offenses has a free speech defense requiring an order to move? (A): 42.02 Riot (B): 42.03 Obstructing Highway or Other Passageway (C): 42.05 Disrupting Meeting or Procession (D): 42.01 (a)(1) Disorderly Conduct - uses abusive, indecent, profane, or vulgar language in a public place

(9.1.15) To receive a traffic ticket for "RIde - Not Secured by Safety Belt" a person must be at least _____years old. (A): 10 (B): 15 (C): 18 (D): 21

(9.1.9) The driver of a motor vehicle following another motor vehicle shall maintain an assured, clear distance so that the vehicle can be brought to a stop without: (A): downshifting to a lower gear (B): veering into persons near the street (C): pumping the brakes (D): skidding the tires

(9.2.1) The driver of a vehicle, which is also occupied by one other passenger, loses control of the vehicle; it leaves the roadway and crashes into a tree. The driver runs from the scene leaving his passenger injured and uncared for. The driver could be charged with: (A): Failure to Stop and Render Aid-Misdemeanor (B): Failure to Stop and Render Aid-Felony (C): Assault with a Motor Vehicle (D): The driver has not committed any offense

(9.2.1) The three phases of an operational factor can be described in chronological order; which of the following lists the correct order ? (A): perception - performance - decision (B): recognition - decision - performance (C): decision - performance - perception

(9.2.1) To be considered a pedestrian in a Motor Vehicle Traffic Crash, the person must: (A): be actually engaged in walking (B): have been positioned in the trafficway and involved in the accident (C): have been struck by another traffic unit (D): have died as a result of the accident

(9.2.1) To have a "motor vehicle traffic crash" where the harmful event occurs "off the trafficway " means that an unstabilized situation : (A): ended on the trafficway (B): began on the trafficway (C): became stabilized before leaving the trafficway (D): began off the trafficway

A Writ of Reentry issued from the Justice of the Peace Court will be an order for the (1) _______________ to take immediate action to allow possession of the premises by the (2) _______________ . (Property Code 92.009) (A): (1) Sheriff (2) Constable (B): (1) Landlord (2) Tenant (C): (1) Plaintiff's Attorney (2) Defendant's Attorney (D): (1) District Attorney (2) County Judge

A cadet attending the U.T. System Police Academy can be immediately removed from the Academy for what type of rule violation ? (A): Minor Violation (B): Flagrant Violation (C): Major Violation (D): There is no immediate removal from the academy

In most cases, with an unconscious person, the easiest method of opening the airway is: (A): turning the head to one side (B): tilting the victim's head back (C): striking the victim on the back (D): wiping out the mouth (E): pinching the nose

What type of hardware should be installed in a door that has glass panes? (A): Rim Lock (B): Double Cylinder Deadbolt Lock (C): Single Cylinder Deadbolt Lock (D): Mortise Lock

When an offender is openly aggressive, his/her level of resistance is said to be: (A): active (B): aggravated (C): passive (D): compliant

Which of the following is TRUE about search warrants? (A): a search warrant may be issued for personal writings (B): a search warrant may be issued for a person (C): a search warrant does not need to be based on current information (D): stolen property seized with warrant must be immediately returned to its owner

Which of the following is the best definition of "ethics" ? (A): "a group of concepts and ideas against which we measure our decisions and plans for the way we will live." (B): "a code of values which guides our choices and actions and determines the purpose and course of our lives" (C): "a state or habit of mind in which trust or confidence is placed in some person or thing"

(17.1.3) In which of the following cases would a person be justified in using deadly force to protect tangible, movable property knowing the property would not be recovered? (A): To prevent the other person from fleeing immediately after committing arson. (B): To prevent the other person's imminent commission of burglary. (C): To prevent the other person from fleeing immediately after committing criminal mischief at nighttime. (D): To prevent the other person's imminent commission of aggravated assault.

B (Grade style): 0

(18.1) Concerning Mental Preparedness and Officer Safety; Condition _________ is known as Tactical Awareness; such as when an officer is "on the job." (A): white (B): yellow (C): orange (D): red

B (Grade style): 0

(4.1.1) The Bill of Rights to the United States Constitution: (A): was designed to replace the Articles of Confederation. (B): was added to the original Constitution to ensure individual liberties and civil rights. (C): incorporated the separation of powers. (D): was ratified in 1788.

B (Grade style): 0

Before starting chest compressions on a heart attack victim an assessment should be performed by checking the victim's pulse at the _________ artery. (A): brachial (B): carotid (C): femoral (D): radial (E): mayoral

B (Grade style): 0

(10.1.1) The total number of observable clues from a HGN test are ____. (A): 2 (B): 4 (C): 6 (D): 8

(15.2.1) The uses of proper field notes includes all of the following, EXCEPT: (A): In court, consistency between testimony and notes increases the officer's credibility (B): They improve the accuracy on times and statements in an officer's report. (C): They increase the need to recontact an involved party. (D): In recollection, the officer can recall separate details of the offense.

(17.3.1) Which of the following is not one of the force options available to peace officers? (A): deadly force (B): verbal tactics (C): tactical flight (D): professional presence

(17.3.6) What does L.E.A.P.S stand for? (A): Listen - Empathize - Ask - Paraphrase - Stare (B): Listen - Examine - Ask - Paraphrase - Summarize (C): Listen - Empathize - Ask - Paraphrase - Summarize (D): Look - Examine - Ask - Probe - Summarize

(17.4.1) Federal civil rights cases under Title 18 Sections 241 and 242 U.S.C are concerned with: (A): Federal civil suits (B): The Civil Rights Act of 1964 (C): Federal criminal violations (D): Texas Penal Code violations

(20.1.11) On an adult, hands placement for CPR chest compressions is the: (A): mid sternum (B): upper sternum (C): center of the chest (D): xiphoid process

(21.3.1) In the phonetic alphabet used by police, the proper designation for the letter "L" is, (A): Larry (B): Leroy (C): Lincoln (D): Louis (E): Lewis

(28.1.4) The NFPA placard color that denotes flammable is: (A): blue (B): orange (C): red (D): green

(29.4.2) Which of the following would best show inconsistencies that might indicate a body was moved following death? (A): rigor mortis (B): putrefaction (C): post mortem lividity (D): blotching of the skin

(3.2.2) The expression or use of facts without distortion by personal feelings or prejudices is the definition of __________. (A): professionalism (B): ethical integrity (C): objectivity (D): courage

(4.3.4) Which of the following positions is not a magistrate? (A): United States District Judge (B): Mayor (C): District Attorney (D): Justice of the Peace

(8 - 31.08) In the Theft section of the Penal Code, the value of property is: (A): Whatever value the victim assigns to the stolen property (B): The cost of the stolen property when first purchased (C): The fair market value at the time and place of the offense (D): The value the reporting officer assigns it

(8 - 42.02) In 42.02 of the Penal Code, a riot requires the assemblage of _______ or more persons. (A): 5 (B): 6 (C): 7 (D): 8

(8 - 48.01) A person enters an elevator with an unlit cigarette in his mouth. According to the Penal Code, what offense, if any, was committed by the person? (A): Smoking Tobacco (B): Possession of Tobacco in a Prohibited Place (C): No Offense (D): Public Health Violation

(9.1.19) No person shall stand ________________________ for the purpose of soliciting a ride, contributions, employment or business from the occupant of any vehicle. (A): in the street (B): on the shoulder (C): in the roadway (D): on the sidewalk

(9.1.2) "Any person afoot" is the definition of: (A): driver (B): person (C): pedestrian (D): local authorities

(9.1.7) A person operating a "non-commercial motor vehicle/semi trailer combination" with a GVWR of 16,000 pounds towing a trailer with a GVWR of 11, 000 pounds must have at least a Class "_____" driver's license in order to operate the combination legally. (A): C (B): B (C): A (D): M

(9.1.8) A driver of a vehicle approaches an intersection controlled by a stop sign. There is no stop line; but there is an unmarked crosswalk before the intersection. In the Transportation Code, which of the following is true? (A): the driver only needs to stop at a point nearest the intersection where a view exists of the intersecting street (B): the driver must stop at a point even with the curb line of the intersecting street (C): the driver must stop at the near side of the unmarked crosswalk (D): the driver must stop at some point within 20 feet of the intersecting street

(9.1.9) An operator passing another vehicle shall return to an authorized lane of travel before coming within _______ feet of an approaching vehicle, if a lane authorized for vehicles approaching from the opposite direction is used in passing; or otherwise: (A): 50 (B): 100 (C): 200 (D): 500

"A round which has no gun powder or insufficient powder to push the bullet out of the barrel" is the definition of: (A): dry fire (B): dummy round (C): practice ammo (D): squib load

(17.1.3) A person is justified in using deadly force against another to protect land or tangible, movable property, when and to the degree he reasonably believes the deadly force is immediately necessary to prevent the others imminent commission of: (A): theft during the nighttime (B): criminal mischief during the nighttime (C): burglary (D): all are correct

(17.3.1) Which of the following was not specifically listed as one of the "Force Options" in the Use of Force learning objectives? (A): Professional presence. (B): Verbal communications (C): Weaponless strategies (D): Tactics

(19.1.1) The only time an officer should fire a warning shot with his firearm is_________________ (A): when pursuing a felon who is armed and dangerous in a secluded area. (B): when authorized by an immediate supervisor. (C): never because of the danger posed with the spent projectile. (D): when the use of deadly force is justified and in compliance with departmental policy.

(23.2.9) In Problem Oriented Policing, thinking and acting strategically can involve a focus on (A): multiple offenders (B): repeat victims (C): recurring locations (D): all of these

29.7.8. All of the following are reasons a crime scene sketch will be admitted into court as evidence, EXCEPT: (A): when offered to corroborate the testimony of witnesses (B): when offered in connection with the testimony of an officer (C): when an object itself cannot be presented as evidence (D): when used as a replacement for crime scene photos

A citation with the attached petition may be issued from a Texas court of competent jurisdiction. It is the most common form of civil process and is known as _______________ ____________________________ . (Rule 99) (A): a report from the authenticating officer (B): the last act after the court hears the evidence (C): an official letter from the defendant's agent (D): the first legal notice of a lawsuit

A commercial driver's license is required to drive every motor vehicle___________________ . (A): whose GVW exceeds 10,000 lbs. (B): used for transportation of persons (C): towing a trailer (D): required to display placards for hazardous materials

A general stiffening of the body due to chemical changes within the muscle tissue is known as: (A): Rigor Cortex (B): Rigor Fixation (C): Post Mortem Rigor (D): Rigor Mortis

A landlord has asked you the proper place to begin the legal proceedings to evict a tenant who has failed to pay rent as required by a written contract. You would instruct the landlord to use the ________________________________ . (Property Code Art. 24.004) (A): District Court (B): County Court at Law (C): Commissioners Court (D): Justice of the Peace Court in the precinct where the property is located

Another word for defendant in civil law could be: (A): plaintiff (B): witness (C): trier of fact (D): respondent

26.4.1. When interviewing a victim of family violence, officers should: (A): Not allow the victim to ventilate, but get right to the facts of the incident. (B): Tell the victim the officer will leave if she does not stop crying and start cooperating. (C): Press the victim for an explanation of why she did what she did to provoke him. (D): Acknowledge the victim's fear for future violence from the abuser and reassure her that officers are concerned for her safety.

D Only 50 questions can be imported to ClassMarker.com at a time. This separator will be shown after each set of 50 questions. Copy a set of questions between separators into a new .txt file to import them into ClassMarker. (ENDIGNORE)

The most common cause of airway obstruction in an unconscious victim is: (A): mucus (B): epiglottis (C): tonsils (D): tongue (E): dentures

D (Grade style): 0

(7.1.12) A written statement containing facts and circumstances justifying the issuance of a search warrant and which is sworn to by the officer requesting the warrant is the definition of ____________________ . (A): a capias (B): a warrant (C): a complaint (D): an information (E): an affidavit

(8 - 25.07) When you as a peace officer enforce Section 25.07 of the Penal Code, which of the following protective orders may not be considered in your enforcement decision: (A): A Magistrates Order for Emergency Protection (B): A protective order from another jurisdiction (C): A temporary ex parte protective order that has been served to the defendant (D): A full protective order issued under Chapter 85 of the Family Code (E): All of the above are enforceable

(9.1.8) Which of the following maneuvers is permitted against a green light? (A): To proceed straight ahead. (B): To make a left turn providing the driver can do so safely after yielding to oncoming traffic. (C): To make a right turn. (D): To make a U-turn where authorized (E): All of the above would be permitted.

(19.2.2) A " _____________" has a spring and a follower. It holds ammunition in a semi-automatic weapon. (A): Cylinder (B): Breech (C): Magazine (D): Forearm

(4.1.11) The Fourteenth Amendment to the Constitution guarantees: (A): freedom of the press (B): prohibits excessive bails (C): due process of law (D): requires probable cause

(6.5.1) The "limitation" for obtaining an indictment for the offense "abandoning or endangering a child" is _______ years. (A): Two (B): Three (C): Five (D): Seven

(7.1.7) At the moment of arrest, "_________" cease(s) to build: (A): authority to search (B): criminal offenses (C): probable cause (D): evidence

(16.1.3) The Spanish word for light color tone is ___________. (A): luz (B): oscurro (C): dorado (D): claro

(8 - 8.04) Which of the following is not an acceptable defense to criminal prosecution? (A): mistake of fact (B): duress (C): entrapment (D): intoxication

(16.1.4) What does "Manos arriba" mean in English? (A): raise the man (B): put the man up (C): tie the man up (D): put your hands up (E): none of the above

D (Grade style): 0

Which of the following items are elements of shift orientation ? (A): duty assignment (B): updating current stolen vehicles list (C): information relative to special events (D): circumstances relative to hazardous situations (E): all of these are elements

(13.1.2) What Penalty Group will you find Cocaine? (A): PG 1 (B): PG 2 (C): PG 3 (D): PG 4

(16.1.3) Verde is Spanish for ________? (A): Green (B): Blue (C): Beige (D): Vermillion

(17.2.2) Police use of force is essentially defensive in nature. (A): True (B): False

(24.2.1) Silhouetting provides suspect(s) with knowledge of officers' (A): numbers, firepower, and approach. (B): ability to effectively use firepower. (C): identity. (D): experience and strategic capabilities.

(29.7.15) The result of the fingers being pressed into soft substance, like wet paint, is a __________ impression. (A): plastic (B): dry (C): latent (D): rough

(8 - 36.03) Bob has an employee named Bill. Bob threatens to harm the credit rating of Bill if he does not vote for a particular candidate in the upcoming election. Bob has committed: (A): Coercion of Public Servant or Voter (B): Official Oppression (C): Bribery (D): Improper Influence

(9.1.14) Which of the following conditions determines if a vehicle is traveling at less than the normal speed of traffic? (A): the time and place (B): the speed limit (C): the experience of the driver (D): the driver's abilities

23.2.5 Good problem solving skills are necessary to effective community policing. (A): This statement is true. (B): This statement is false.

26.1.2. One of the characteristics of a spouse batterer is: (A): He denies responsibility for his violent actions. (B): Usually tries to hide his violent actions from his children. (C): Generally is not himself a victim of past family violence. (D): Is not very possessive of his spouse because he feels she's just a ''slut.''

26.1.2. When an assault occurs without any negative consequences for the batterer, he: (A): Finds it easy to deny to himself and others that he did anything wrong. (B): Usually sees he has a behavioral problem and seeks help. (C): Realizes that Texas law permits a husband to discipline his wife's unruly behavior. (D): Eventually surrenders himself to the local police.

26.2.6 An officer investigating conduct that may be an offense under Section 25.07 of the Penal Code may not arrest the person protected in the Protective Order. (A): This statement is true. (B): This statement is false.

A BAC of .08% is __________________ of intoxication. (A): prima facie evidence (B): indirect evidence (C): hearsay evidence (D): a definition

A Writ of Attachment may be issued for a person. (A): True (B): False

(1.1.5) The three components of an exercise program are: (A): speed, agility and flexibility. (B): warm-up, work-out and cool-down. (C): situation, identification, execution. (D): transition, acceleration, declaration.

(10.1.1) The decision to get the driver out of a vehicle is made in Detection Phase _____ of a DWI Stop. (A): 1 (B): 2 (C): 3 (D): 4

(15.1.0) Choose the best sentence for a police report. (A): Nobody was home. (B): No one answered my knock on the front door. (C): The knock on the door was ignore(D):

(19.2.2) A " ____________" protects ammunition after loading in a shotgun. (A): Cylinder (B): Breech (C): Stock (D): Forearm

(2.1.3) In ________ the Texas Legislature enacted legislation that created TCOLE. (A): 1962 (B): 1965 (C): 1972 (D): 1975

(21.3.2) When talking on the police radio, an officer should speak as quickly as possible so as not to take up too much air time. (A): True (B): False

(23.1.1) Looking directly at a person helps facilitate effective communication by: (A): arranging the environment (B): positioning (C): posturing (D): it doesn't help with communication

(23.5.2) ____% of an officer's duties involve verbal skills. (A): 87 (B): 97 (C): 66 (D): 3

(25.1.1) The intensity of long-term stress reactions and the frequency of the re-experienced crisis usually: (A): Increases over time. (B): Decreases over time. (C): Is not a major factor in a person's life. (D): None of the above.

(8 - 46.05) A person who is a member of the U.S. Armed Forces may possess armor-piercing ammunition for private purposes only if he has been certified to use it according to Official Military Standards. (A): True (B): False

(9.1.1) A "moped" means a motor-driven cycle that cannot attain a speed in one mile of more than ______ miles per hour. (A): 20 (B): 30 (C): 40 (D): 50

(9.1.15) There must be more than______ persons in the front seat (including the operator) to cite the operator of a motor vehicle for Passengers Obstructed Driver's View according to the Transportation Code. (A): two (B): three (C): six (D): eight

(9.2.1) Who has the duty to give information & render aid at the scene of an crash? (A): any person involved in a crash (B): only drivers of involved vehicles (C): persons who witness a motor vehicle accident (D): all persons at the scene of a crash must stop and render aid

(9.2.4) Regarding the taking of measurements in MV Crash Investigation; finding the shortest distance from a point to a line or using a 3-4-5 triangle are methods of finding _______________ lines (A): curb (B): perpendicular (C): acute angled (D): tangible

(9.2.4.) The "point of impact" should be used as the reference point when measuring a collision scene? (A): This statement is true. (B): This statement is false.

(9.3.2) Audible and hand signals should not be used together when an officer is directing traffic. (A): True (B): False

01.01 "Case law" refers to: (A): statutory law (B): the judgment or ruling of a court (C): legislative enactments (D): all these are examples of case law

01.07 In order to constitute "bodily injury", the Penal Code requires that a wound be inflicte(D): (A): True (B): False

26.1.5. Which of the following is NOT a reason why battered women stay in the abusive relationship? (A): Tradition/Religion (B): Believing the abuse is temporary (C): Family pressure (D): Feelings of embarrassment

26.2.3. Following the issuance of a Protective Order, if the victim reconciles with the person to whom the order was directed without going to court: (A): The Protective Order is automatically nullified. (B): The Protective Order remains in full force and effect. (C): Officers may not then arrest the abuser for a violation of the previously arrestable "prohibited acts". (D): The parties must notify their attorneys that they have verbally reconcile(D):

26.2.5. A Protective Order may prohibit an individual from: (A): Paying the support for a child (B): Committing family violence (C): Seeking counseling (D): All of these are correct.

26.2.6 A person is arrested for an aggravated assault on a family member. At his appearance before the magistrate, all of the following people may request the magistrate issue an emergency protection order EXCEPT: (A): The victim of the offense (B): Any adult member of the family (C): A Police Officer (D): The guardian of the victim (E): The attorney representing the state

26.2.6. A Temporary Ex Parte protective order can be issued if there is no time for a hearing and based upon: (A): An officer's statement (B): The showing that there is a clear and present danger of family violence (C): The showing of past family violence (D): The testimony of expert witnesses

26.4.1. In a family violence incident, an officer should take into consideration which of the following in making the arrest decision: (A): The victims fear of reprisal. (B): Visible injuries on the victim. (C): Promises on the part of both parties that the violence will en(D): (D): The victim says she is not willing to assist in the prosecution of the abuser.

Symptoms of toluene use, include: (A): a feeling of deep depression (B): excess nasal discharge (C): constricted pupils (D): withdrawal symptoms

A Writ of Garnishment authorizes a Sheriff or Constable to arrest the person named therein. (A): True (B): False

B Only 50 questions can be imported to ClassMarker.com at a time. This separator will be shown after each set of 50 questions. Copy a set of questions between separators into a new .txt file to import them into ClassMarker. (ENDIGNORE)

"Lack of smooth pursuit" is a clue associated with the ________ field sobriety test. (A): alphabet recitation (B): one leg stand test (C): horizontal gaze nystagmus test (D): walk and turn test

"The delivery of a writ by an authorized person to a person, officially notifying him of a proceeding concerning him," is know as: (A): information (B): notification (C): service (D): replevy

(18.2.4) Identify what is not a supplement to handcuffs: (A): belt (B): tie (C): duct tape (D): shoelace

(19.2.2) The face (or front) of the _______________ imparts tool mark impression on the rear of the shotgun shell base when it is fired. (A): trigger (B): chamber (C): breech bolt (D): carrier

(24.5.5) While on scene at a bomb incident, it is recommended that officers turn off all radios within how many feet of the search area? (A): 100 feet (B): 250 feet (C): 500 feet (D): 1000 feet

(8 - 31.01) A "fence" or person who knowingly receives stolen property for resale, should be charged with: (A): barratry (B): receiving or concealing stolen property (C): theft (D): possession of stolen property

(9.2.1) Which of the following is TRUE about a driver of a vehicle, involved in a trafficway accident resulting in the injury of a person ? (A): he can leave the scene to consult with an attorney (B): if he notifies the police immediately, he doesn't need to stop at the scene (C): failing to stop at the scene can be a felony offense (D): if no one asks for help he doesn't have a duty to remain at the scene

(9.2.1) Which of the following is a proper designation for the impact point on a CRB Report? (A): BLQ (B): LRQ (C): LBQ (D): FRQ

(9.2.1) Yaw marks can be distinguished from skidmarks by what characteristic? (A): yaw marks are curved (B): yaw marks are darker than skidmarks (C): yaw marks have striations perpendicular to their path (D): yaw marks are only produced by radial tires

In an arrest, probable cause is limited to the facts and circumstances known to the: (A): suspect (B): suspect and arresting officer (C): police (D): victim

In performing CPR, after opening the airway the next step is to: (A): give some breaths (B): feel for a pulse (C): look, listen and feel for breathing (D): start chest compressions (E): establish unresponsiveness

The first "law enforcement" officers in Texas were; (A): constables (B): sheriffs (C): rangers (D): city marshals

The first notice of a lawsuit is a ____________ and cannot be served on a Sunday. (A): subpoena (B): capias (C): citation (D): warrant

The life of a latent print depends on all of these factors, Except: (A): Atmosphere conditions (B): Object the print is left on (C): Time the print is left (D): The person leaving the print

(1.4.1) When recognizing strategies to manage stress, officers should: (A): not resist to any issues that cause stress in the workplace. (B): continue to work in a stressor environment to facilitate relationships among peers. (C): avoid any internal and external relationship of stressor adaptation. (D): learn to recognize stress, accept it and channel it in positive rather than destructive ways.

(1.6.2) Common risk factors of suicidal thoughts and behaviors include: (A): depression. (B): previous attempts. (C): lack of a support system. (D): all of the above.

(1.6.2) The signs and symptoms of drug / alcohol abuse include all of the following except: (A): difficulty enjoying life. (B): black outs or lapses of memory. (C): blaming others of drug or alcohol use. (D): increase in performance.

(1.7.1) Of the studies that have been done on law enforcement, most suggest that alcohol and drug abuse is _________ than in the general population. (A): frequency dependent. (B): relevant. (C): less than. (D): as frequent or more frequent.

(1.7.2) Based on the BPOC, which of the following statements would be a "myth." (A): Alcoholism is a disease for which recovery is guaranteed IF the alcoholic begins and sticks with a recovery program. If not, premature death is likely. (B): Many alcoholics hold high-level jobs and function well at work for years before their performance is noticeable affected by drinking. (C): No one really knows what drives a person to drink. Studies have implicated physical, genetic, psychological, environmental, and social factors. (D): All alcoholics are skid-row drunks or retired Highway Patrol Captains.

(23.5.2) Communication is: (A): receipt of data (B): passing of information (C): instinctual (D): transfer of meaning

(4.1.6) The requirement that the government must act in accordance with due process of law is contained in which two amendments to the US Constitution? (A): First and Fourth (B): Fifth and Eighth (C): Eighth and Fourteenth (D): Fifth and Fourteenth

(8 - 28.04) Two subjects are throwing water balloons at each other in a parking lot. One of the balloons goes through an open window of a parked vehicle and breaks a glass vase lying on the seat. According to the Penal Code, what, if any, violation has been committed? (A): Criminal Mischief (B): No Offense (C): Burglary (D): Reckless Damage or Destruction

(8 - 32.22) A person intends to sell rare autographed baseball cards of Mickey Mantle and Hank Aaron to a card collector. The autographs on the cards are actually computerized replicas of their signatures. According to the Penal Code, what offense if any has been committed? (A): Theft (B): Forgery (C): Hindering Secured Creditors (D): Criminal Simulation

(9.1.9) Which of the following vehicles are free to operate on an improved shoulder to the right at all times without limitations ? (A): slow moving vehicles (B): commercial motor vehicles (C): motorcycles (D): routine police patrols

(9.2.1) A crash vehicle with 4 tires leaves the following identified skid marks: (1) 23'-1" (2) 22'-5" (3) 23'-4" (4) 23'-2"; what distance is used in a calculation for speed ? (A): 91 ft. (B): 23 ft 4 in (C): 46.95 ft. (D): 23 ft.

(9.2.1) All of the following are considered a Commercial Motor Vehicle for the purposes of completing an CR-3 Report, EXCEPT (A): any vehicle with a Gross Vehicle Weight of more than 10,000 lbs (B): every motor vehicle designed to carry more than 8 persons including the driver (C): any motor vehicle carrying hazardous material and having a placard (D): any vehicle combination with a trailer

(9.2.1) If a driver intentionally collides the front of his motor vehicle with the rear of the car ahead, causing only damage; the incident would be classified as: (A): a motor vehicle traffic accident/crash (B): negligent collision (C): reckless conduct (D): criminal mischief

(9.2.1) In MV Crash Investigation, all of these can be a "non-contact" traffic unit on the CR 3; Except: (A): A pedestrian (B): A motor vehicle (C): A motorcycle (D): A utility pole

(9.2.1) In order to comply with requirements to give information and render aid, TTC 550.023; the driver of a vehicle involved in an accident in an open, free parking lot must give all of the following information, EXCEPT: (A): operator's name and address (B): vehicle license plate number (C): insurance company name (D): VIN of the vehicle driven

(9.2.1) Which of the following reactions while driving requires the greatest amount of time? (A): reflex (B): complex (C): simple (D): discriminative

A person is not eligible for CVCA compensation if the person: (A): suffers stolen or damaged property only (B): is an accomplice of the perpetrator (C): resides with the perpetrator after a family violence event (D): all of these are correct

A person who nourishes beliefs that appear absurd, gives logical arguments to support them, and often feels persecuted or imagines plots against himself; describes a person who suffers from ___________________ . (A): anxiety-tension states (B): obsessive personality disorder (C): anti-social personality (D): paranoia

A police cadet wants to wear a necklace with the uniform; which of the following is true ? (A): it must be plain gold or silver in design (B): only one can be worn (C): it must match the design of any bracelets worn (D): it cannot be visible when worn with the uniform

A subject purchases a package of heroin. The gross weight of the package is 2oz, but only 2% of the contents is actually heroin; therefore, if caught the subject should be charged with: (A): State Jail Felony Possession (B): 3rd Degree Felony Possession (C): 2nd Degree Felony Possession (D): 1st Degree Felony Possession

(23.1.3) Which of the following are keys for sizing up a situation? (A): Looking carefully at behavior, appearance, and environment (B): Drawing inferences about feelings, relationships, energy levels, and values (C): Determining if things are normal or abnormal (D): All of These

(18.1.4) When conducting post exposure cleansing after deploying pepper spray, which of the following is recommended? (A): Have the subject rub their eyes. (B): Have the subject flush their eyes with a commercial eye wash. (C): Have the subject apply a burn cream to the effected areas. (D): All of these are recommended (E): None of these are recommended

(27.1.6.2) When dealing with a person in a crisis situation, which of the following is important to remember? (A): Use the person's name as often as you can (B): Talk "low and slow" (C): Allow the person to ventilate (D): Use "active listening" (E): All are important to use in a crisis situation

(28.1.6) When responding to an incident that may involve hazardous materials, the first responder should: (A): Remain upwind (B): Keep vehicles and other ignition sources at a distance (C): call the dispatcher (D): secure the area (E): all of these actions should be done

(29.1.7) It is most important for a criminal investigator to be skilled in which of the following? (A): handling of physical evidence (B): crime scene searches (C): interviewing (D): report writing (E): all of these

(29.10.3) Which of the following is an action by a witness/officer that would not come under the scrutiny of the jury? (A): the manner of walking to the witness stand (B): the manner of sitting in the witness stand (C): the manner of testifying (D): attire (E): All of these are things the jury might scrutinize

(7.1.12) The facts and circumstances justifying the issuance of a search warrant should include; (A): a specific description of the place to be searched (B): a specific description of items to be searched for (C): the name of the person in charge or control of the place, if known (D): probable cause to believe the property is located at the place described (E): All of these are required

(7.1.8) The standard of proof required for an officer to stop and investigate is called: (A): probable cause (B): proof beyond a reasonable doubt (C): preponderance of evidence (D): clear and convincing evidence (E): reasonable suspicion

(8 - 20.04) Which of the following acts will change a kidnapping into an aggravated kidnapping offense? (A): hold the kidnapped child for ransom (B): use the kidnapped person as a shield (C): abuse the kidnapped person sexually (D): inflict bodily injury on the kidnapped person (E): all of these acts will change kidnapping into an aggravated kidnapping

(8 - 38.02) A person who is lawfully detained by a police officer and intentionally refuses to give his name, resident address or date of birth, according to the Penal Code, the person has committed _____________________ . (A): Interference with a Peace Officer's Duties (B): Failure to Identify (C): False Report to a Peace Officer (D): Perjury (E): None of these

(6.7.1) What controlled drug can you get a search warrant for? (A): marijuana (B): dangerous drug (C): over-the-counter sleep aid (D): alcohol

(13.1.2) Which of the following is not one of the six major categories of controlled substances? (A): dangerous drugs (B): narcotics (C): hallucinogens (D): marijuana

(1.1.1) The Wellness Continuum ranges from optimal wellness to: (A): death (B): medium health (C): marginal health (D): old age

(1.1.3) One of the principles of an exercise program is that it should be: (A): regular and provide time for recovery. (B): difficult to adapt to. (C): have a high level of stress fitness components. (D): ideal to the conforming situational issues.

(1.3.1) Based on Unit 1, which of the following statements is true? (A): Post traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) creates major distress & long lasting disruptive changes in person's life. This is not "normal" stress and may need professional help. (B): PTSD is heavy-duty stress that causes psychological and physical discomfort for 2 days to 1 month. (C): Eustress is a stressor that is perceived as negative such as an injury, illness, divorce or being fire(D): (D): Law enforcement is the only profession with high levels of stress.

(11.2.1) Which of the following statements is "true" in regards to civil cases? (A): Civil judgments usually require the party adjudged of a wrongful act to compensate the wronged party in the form of money or the return or possession of property. (B): The level of proof in a civil case is "beyond a reasonable doubt." (C): A civil case must be filed in Federal Court. (D): Penalties assessed in a civil case usually includes jail time

(17.1.3) A person in lawful possession of land or tangible, movable property is justified in using ____________ against another when and to the degree the actor reasonably believes the force is immediately necessary to prevent or terminate the other's trespass on the land or unlawful interference with the property. (A): force (B): deadly force (C): justifiable homicide (D): coercion

(17.1.3) A person may use a device to protect land or tangible, movable property if _________________________. (A): the device is not designed to cause death or serious bodily injury and the use of the device is considered reasonable (B): the establishment posts notice of the presence of the device and the use of the device is considered reasonable (C): the device is registered with the local law enforcement agency having jurisdiction over the property (D): the device is designed to cause death or serious bodily injury and the use of the device is considered reasonable

(17.1.3) For the purposes of positive disipline and to promote the welfare of their child, a parent may use force against the child if the child is younger than _____ . (A): 18 (B): 19 (C): 20 (D): 21

(17.1.3) The United States Constitutional Amendment that Tennessee vs Garner addressed is: (A): 4th (B): 5th (C): 8th (D): 14th

(17.1.3) The use of force by a teacher against a person is: (A): justified if the actor is entrusted with the supervision of the person for a special purpose and the force is necessary to maintain discipline in a group. (B): justified when and to the degree the actor reasonably believes deadly force is necessary to maintain discipline in a group and to further a special purpose. (C): not justified if the actor is acting in the special interest of the person for a special purpose. (D): not justified at any time.

(17.2.1) Black's Law Dictionary states power, violence or pressure directed against a person or thing is a definition of: (A): force (B): reasonable force (C): deadly force (D): control

(17.2.2) According to the Learning Objectives one of the psychological aspects of the use of force is compensating behavior on the part of the officer. Compensating behavior may take all of the following forms except: (A): Discretion (B): Hesitation (C): Verbal Abuse (D): Bluff

(17.2.3) Which of the following dictates the officers reaction in a use of force situation ? (A): offender action (B): officers objective (C): location of incident (D): time of the incident

(17.3.6) When the words of a suspect are passive but the suspects actions are aggressive, an officer should: (A): trust the suspect's actions and be alert and ready to use force (B): trust the words of the suspect and try to be more understanding (C): repeat the words used by the suspect to reduce his frustration (D): disregard the actions of the suspect since they are frequently misleading

(17.3.6) Which of the following indicate that words are no longer working as a force option? (A): Repeated refusal to comply with a reasonable request. (B): Different ethical standards exist. (C): No apparent long term solution. (D): When profanity is directed at the officer.

(17.3.6) Which of the following is one of the five helpful tools used in redirecting someone's behavior using verbal persuasion? (A): empathy (B): empty hand control (C): audience reaction (D): tactical presence

(17.3.7) A psychological and physical edge can be achieved by an officer's use of all of the following tactics or strategies, except: (A): remaining directly in front of the subject (B): demonstrated alertness (C): maintaining emotional control (D): divided attention

(17.3.8) According to the case ______________, evidence gathered from an employee under threat of dismissal is not admissible in a criminal trial. (A): Garrity vs New Jersey (B): Miranda vs Arizona (C): Tennessee vs Garner (D): Mapp vs Ohio

(17.3.8) In Garrity v. New Jersey, the Supreme Court ruled that evidence gathered from an employee under threat of dismissal is _______________________________________ . (A): not admissible in a criminal trial (B): a violation of U.S.C 42 § 1983 (C): not admissible in a civil trial (D): admissable in both criminal and civil trials

(17.4.2) The Supreme Court case that changed the standard for review of use of force cases from the 14th Amendment's "substantive due process" standard to the 4th Amendment's "objective reasonableness" standard was: (A): Graham vs Conner (B): Milstead vs Kibler (C): Tennessee vs Garner (D): Okonkwo vs Fernandez

(17.4.2) Which of the following is a factor that the courts use to determine if unreasonable force was used in a case? (A): availability of alternatives (B): negligent hiring (C): failure to train (D): vicarious liability

(18.1 - ASP) The primary striking surface of an open ASP Baton is the: (A): Last 3 inches of the Baton (B): Center of the shaft (C): Cap (D): First joint

(18.1.1) As stated in the Mechanics of Arrest learning objectives, an officer's emotional control is an important part of self control because it: (A): ensures safety of the officer (B): identifies escape routes for the suspect (C): follows UT System policy (D): explains the Survival Star

(18.1.1) Bending over, cross-stepping, placing your feet between the suspect's feet, or squatting on the balls of your feet, are all examples of DON'TS during handcuffing because they affect: (A): balance (B): mobility (C): weapon security (D): compliance holds

(18.1.1) Complete the following phrase: "_________ equals time, equals _________." (A): distance, safety (B): position, compliance (C): speed, safety (D): tactics, control

(18.1.1) The ability to move away from a suspect and draw your weapon without falling or getting grabbed by the suspect is an example of good "___________"? (A): balance (B): mobility (C): weapon security (D): compliance holds

(18.1.4) What is the recommended spray duration for a single dose of pepper spray? (A): 1 - 4 seconds (B): 2 - 4 seconds (C): Less than 5 seconds (D): More than 5 seconds

(18.1.4) Which of the following is a factor that might commonly effect the use of defensive sprays? (A): Wind (B): Temperature (C): Humidity (D): All of These

(18.2.3) The ability to observe all the movements of a suspect's hands and feet is an advantage of the ______________ (A): direct approach (B): side approach (C): rear approach (D): circular approach

(18.2.3) Which of the following statements is was specifically listed in the BPOC as an advantage of the "rear approach" of a suspect by a peace officer? (A): It has the advantage of surprise and reduces the probability of direct attack. (B): It has the advantage of provoking a physical response in defense by the person approached (C): Losing the surprise element (D): None of the above is a true statement

(18.2.8) When two officers are transporting two suspects in one car without a cage, the suspects should be seated: (A): right rear and center rear seat (B): right rear and front right seat (C): left rear and front right seat (D): left rear and right rear seat

(19.2.1) One very good home safety rule according to the handout involving firearms is: (A): Store firearms under lock and key (B): Only sleep with firearms when they are in your immediate reach (C): Loaded firearms should be hidden if children live in the home (D): Ammunition should never be stored in the home

(19.2.2) The safe condition for a revolver is cylinder open and empty. (A): True (B): False

(19.3.2) An agency that employs at least ______ peace officers must comply with the annual firearm proficiency requirements. (A): 1 (B): 5 (C): 10 (D): 20

(2.1.2) The increased reliance on technology and automobiles in America had what effect on policing? (A): Police lost much of the positive relationship with the community. (B): Police departments became a financial drain on communities. (C): Response times for calls decrease(D): (D): Police lost much of the positive relationship with the community and police departments became a financial drain on communities.

(2.1.4) A "___________" is defined by TCOLE Rules as any rifle with a frame mounted optical sighting device greater than 5 power that is carried by the individual officer in an official capacity. (TCOLE Rule 211.1) (A): precision rifle (B): long-range rifle (C): patrol rifle (D): shotgun

(2.1.4) An agency that employs at least ______ peace officers must comply with the annual firearm proficiency requirements. (Rule 217.21) (A): 1 (B): 5 (C): 10 (D): 20 (E): 30

(2.1.5) In the "Traditional Police Service Model" of policing, most decisions are made: (A): at the management and mid-management level with little citizen involvement. (B): at the management and mid-management level with significant citizen involvement (C): at the management and mid-management level with significant lower level employee involvement. (D): All of the above (E): None of the above.

(20.1.14) The best way for a first aider to care for a victim with a neck or back injury is: (A): stabilize the neck and back and wait for EMS personnel (B): stabilize the neck and back and use an army or canvas stretcher (C): apply a Green splint to the neck and back (D): do nothing

(21.1.4) In order to run a 10-28, an officer needs which of the following information: (A): The license plate number (B): The name and date of birth (C): The originating agency number (D): The serial number of the property

(22.3.1) Driving is _____% mental and only _____% physical (A): 90/10 (B): 50/50 (C): 10/90 (D): none are correct

(22.4.1) The goal of any pursuit is to (A): make a safe apprehension (B): chase the violator until they wreck out (C): focus on out driving the violator (D): see if we can cause the violator to make a mistake

(22.4.1) The most dangerous type of pursuit is the _____________ call. (A): officer assist (B): known felon (C): medical emergency (D): collision with injuries

(22.4.1) The pursuit position should be utilized (A): at any speed (B): only with the emergency lights/siren activated (C): only at a high speed (D): only with supervisor permission

(23.1.1) In order to facilitate effective communication an officer should select strategies that involve Arranging, Positioning and Posturing. Which of the following is an arranging strategy? (A): Eliminating distractions (B): Eliminating attractors (C): Turning on radios or televisions so there is comforting background noise (D): Setting the thermostat very low so everyone is too cold to get sleepy

(23.1.1) With regard to positioning for effectiveness and safety, the ideal distance to facilitate communication is between: (A): 1.5 feet to 3 feet (B): 5 feet and 10 feet (C): 3 feet and 5 feet (D): More than 10 feet

(23.1.2) Non-Verbal cues are also known as: (A): body language (B): non-invasive communication (C): paralleling verbalization (D): all of the above

(23.1.2) The face is the ______________________ source of deception cues. (A): most reliable (B): least reliable (C): most frequent (D): least frequent

(23.2.5) The acronym for the four-step SARA Model is: (A): Scanning, Analysis, Response, and Assessment (B): Sorting, Afflicted, Redundant, Articulated (C): Self-Discipline, Avowed, Renegotiable, Authentical (D): Spring-Loaded, Anomic, Recapitulative, Aesthetical

(23.2.9) Problem Oriented Policing includes the use of community resources to solve community problems. These resources should include: (A): Community leaders, municipal staff, civil and criminal law representatives (B): Only criminal law enforcement (C): Only community service agencies (D): Only the trouble makers

(23.5.2) Communication is a _______ _______, not just luck. (A): professional skill (B): empathetic action (C): stressful condition (D): identification issue

(23.5.2) Depending on the situation, as little as _______ % of interpersonal communcation involves words. (A): 7 (B): 27 (C): 47 (D): 67

(23.5.2) Depending on the situation, as little as _______ % of interpersonal communication involves words. (A): 7 (B): 27 (C): 47 (D): 67

(23.5.2) In regards to perception of a message, what percent of the time is a message received due to non-verbals (body language)? (A): 60% (B): 33% (C): 7% (D): 67%

(23.5.3) In interpersonal communications, officers should determine if there are any obstacles to effective communication and try to __________ them if possible. (A): eliminate. (B): accentuate. (C): intensify. (D): involve.

(23.5.4) What method is used to demonstrate to another that you have been paying attention to, and have heard what they are saying? (A): Paraphrasing (B): Arranging (C): Posturing (D): Appearance Skills

(24.1.1) The soundest criminological theory is: (A): Prevention of crime (B): Community policing (C): Greater regulation through laws and ordinances (D): The SARA model

(24.1.1) Which of the following sections of the Code of Criminal Procedure serves the importance of Patrol? (A): CCP 6.07 - Conduct of Peace Officers - "may use all force necessary to repel the aggression." (B): CCP 51.01 - Delivered Up - "fugitives who flee from justice to this State shall be delivered up" (C): CCP 7.01 - Shall Issue Warrant - "the magistrate shall immediately issue a warrant for the arrest of the accused" (D): CCP 38.42 - Chain of Custody Affidavit - "a chain of custody affidavit that complies with this article is admissible in evidence"

(24.2.1) In performing a hazardous contact, the BPOC states that an officer should do which of the following? (A): Demand suspect place hands in front of him/her and turn palms up. (B): Demand suspect place hands in front of him/her and turn palms down. (C): Demand that suspect place hands in his or her pockets. (D): If hands are already in his/her pockets, demand that they remove them.

(24.2.1) Silhouetting provides suspects with knowledge of officers' __________________________ . (A): numbers, firepower and approach (B): ability to effectively use firepower (C): identity (D): experience and strategic capabilities

(24.3.2) According to the BPOC, Chapter 24, which lane of the roadway lends itself to effective observation that provides a clear view between buildings on both sides of the street as well as oncoming traffic? (A): Lane nearest the center of the roadway (B): Lane nearest the curb (C): Either Lane (D): Neither lane

(24.3.3) Which of the following statements is true regarding "bicycle patrol?" (A): Provides flexibility where use of motorized vehicles is impractical or impossible. (B): Only useful for low visibility and less intense patrol. (C): Not many cities and college campuses have chosen bicycle patrol for preventive efforts. (D): Have proven to be impractical for patrol purposes by the police.

(24.3.4) An officer will normally take less chances when operating; (A): alone in a one person police vehicle (B): a two officer patrol vehicle (C): on a foot patrol beat with another officer (D): with another officer whether on foot or in a car

(24.3.4) Which of the following is a true statement regarding the operation of a "one-officer" patrol unit? (A): More attention is devoted to patrol functions and duties. (B): More expensive than a two person unit (C): More mobility (D): None of the above

(24.4.2) More person-to-person contact, better knowledge of the physical layout of a beat and developing more sources of information; are all advantages of _______________ ? (A): foot patrol (B): automobile patrol (C): helicopter patrol (D): closed circuit television

(24.4.2) When two officers are conducting a pedestrian stop, where should the 2nd (or non-interviewing/Cover) officer stand? (A): To the right or left rear of the person being interviewed (B): To the right or left rear of the interviewing officer (C): Directly behind the person being interviewed (D): Approximately 6' away from the interviewing officer

(24.5.1.) In stopping a violator, a police officer should (A): stop the violator as soon as possible or else the violator may fail to connect the stop with the infraction. (B): follow the violator several blocks to determine if the violator will commit other violations. (C): use both the red lights and siren to notify the violator to stop immediately. (D): park the police vehicle directly in back of the violator's vehicle so that the officer's car will not block traffi(C):

(24.5.5) The three things first responders can use to protect themselves from exposure to threats, whether chemical, biological, radioactive, or explosive are: (A): Time, distance, shielding (B): Distance, cover, concealment (C): Cover, concealment, space (D): Speed, surprise, stealth

(24.5.5) What is the correct order to search areas after a bomb threat? (A): Outside areas, common areas, private areas (B): Private areas, common areas, outside areas (C): Common Areas, private areas, outside areas (D): Private common areas outside the common private areas, then outside areas inside the common private areas, then your special place where no one knows you go during your breaks.

(24.6.2) In the Penal Code, a person commits an offense if the actor ________ participates in a riot. (A): knowingly (B): recklessly (C): with criminal negligence (D): any of these

(24.6.3) According to Crowd Control Techniques, both arms are raised to the side until horizontal, arms and hand are extended with palms down; this signal indicates ________________ . (A): a line formation (B): single file (C): halt (D): retreat

(24.8.3) Fences, landscaping and lighting are part of which line of defense ? (A): first - perimeter (B): second - exterior (C): third - interior

(25.1.1) "Post-traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)" is a pathological anxiety that usually occurs after an individual experiences or witnesses severe trauma that constitutes a threat to the physical integrity or life of the individual or of another person. Which of the following statements are true in regards to PTSD? (A): People who survive severely traumatic events often have Post-traumatic Stress Disorder (B): In general, the worse or more enduring the trauma, lessens the likelihood of developing PTSD (C): After some delay (symptoms do not usually develop immediately after the trauma), the person in some way relives the traumatic event and tries to actively think about it. (D): People who survive severely traumatic events rarely have Post-traumatic Stress Disorder.

(29.7.11) One reason for preparing a crime scene sketch is: (A): to record spatial (space) relationships between evidence and its surroundings (B): to eliminate the need to take photographs (C): to include all details of a crime scene (D): it is required by law

(25.1.1) The BPOC lists several stages of the "Crisis Reaction." Which of the following was specifically given as "Stage one"? (A): "Denial" in this sense means truly believing, something did not happen, or that it was not as "bad" as it actually was. This psychological defense mechanism that kicks in to protect a person from the full impact of what has happened. (B): Anger/RAGE, fear/TERROR, grief/SORROW, confusion/FRUSTRATION, guilt/SELF-BLAME, and violation/VULNERABILITY. (C): Emotional Roller coaster that eventually becomes balance(D): (D): None of the above are correct.

(25.2.4) How many persons may a law enforcement agency designate to serve as the agency's Crime Victim Liaison? (A): one (B): one and a substitute (C): any number (D): none

(25.5.4) What method is used to demonstrate to another that you have been paying attention to, and have heard what they are saying? (A): Paraphrasing (B): Arranging (C): Posturing (D): Appearance Skills

(26.1.2) Spouse abuse, child abuse, and the abuse of the elderly __________________________: (A): are found in widespread occurrences. (B): are uncommon in the upper middle class. (C): occur only in a small element of the population. (D): All these statements are true.

(26.1.3) The "Violent Incident" Phase of the cycle of violence can be characterized by: (A): Physical/Sexual Assault (B): Tension due to unresolved conflict (C): Deep regret on the part of the abuser (D): Giving flowers

(26.2.1) " ________________" means physical pain, illness, or any impairment of physical condition. (A): Bodily injury (B): Serious bodily injury (C): Accidental injury (D): All of these

(27.1.2.1) " ________________" is an illness, disease or condition that either substantially impacts a person's thought, perception of reality, emotional process, judgment, or grossly impairs a person's behavior, as manifested by recent disturbance behavior. (A): Mental Illness (Mental Disorder) (B): Insanity (C): Criminal Insanity (D): Mental retardation

(27.1.5.4) Which of the following IS NOT a "calming" technique? (A): don't allow the person to vent or unload their feelings (B): reassure the person they are safe (C): show understanding of the person's feelings (D): model - by displaying your calmness

(27.1.5.5) Which of these is NOT a barrier to effective communication? (A): patience (B): ordering (C): derailing (D): pacifying

(27.1.7.3) In order for an officer to legally take a mentally ill person into custody under the Emergency Apprehension Authority of the Texas Health and Safety Code, the officer must believe there is a substantial risk of harm: (A): unless the person is immediately restrained (B): because the person refuses to commit himself (C): since the person will not accept treatment from a physician (D): due to past threats the person made

(27.1.8.2) When looking at statistics regarding crime and the mentally ill, officers should know that: (A): Mentally ill subjects are more likely to be a victim than a perpetrator of crime (B): Mentally ill subjects are more likely to be a perpetrator of crime than a victim (C): The number of mentally ill people who commit crimes is about the same as the general population

(27.7.3) In order to take a person with mental illness, who has committed no crime, into custody involuntarily for emergency mental health evaluation an officer must: (A): believe there is a substantial risk of immediate harm (B): believe the person might harm themselves at some point in the future (C): believe the person has a history of violent behavior (D): believe the person wants assistance

(29.1.1) "____________" An act or omission forbidden by law and punishable by a fine, imprisonment, or even death. (A): Crime (B): Elements (C): Fact (D): Circumstantial Evidence

(29.1.1) "____________" Anything that helps establish the facts related to a crime. (A): Evidence (B): Element (C): Fact (D): Fence

(29.1.2) "The questioning of victims, witnesses, or suspects in a criminal investigation" is a definition of: (A): interview (B): interrogation (C): conversation (D): investigation

(29.10.4) When answering questions on the witness stand in a jury trial, it is recommended that the officer direct his/her answers to the: (A): jury (B): person asking the question (C): court reporter (D): judge

(29.10.7) If a witness has been excluded from the courtroom before giving testimony, he may not discuss the case with (A): other witnesses (B): the judge (C): the prosecutor

(29.2.1) All of the following are characteristics of a Con-artist or Bunco scheme, except: (A): usually work alone (B): prey on elderly (C): props used to carry out the scheme (D): non-violent tendencies

(29.4.1) "_____________" is the dissection of a dead body for the purpose of inquiry into the cause of death. (A): Autopsy (B): Inquest (C): Post Mortem Lividity (D): Rigor Mortis

(29.4.2) "_______________" involves the chemical changes occurring in body tissues that tend to make muscles stiffen after death. The presence or absence of stiffening may help in establishing time of death. (A): Rigor Mortis (B): Post Mortem Lividity (C): Duces Tecum (D): Mala in se

(29.4.2) Under certain conditions a stiffening of the arms and hands may take place immediately after death, this is called Cadaveric Spasm. (A): True (B): False

(29.4.2) Which of the following IS TRUE about rigor mortis ? (A): The entire body will be rigid at 12-18 hrs after death (B): When it leaves the body, the feet and legs become flaccid first (C): It begins in the feet and legs (D): It can't be used to establish a time frame for death

(29.5.1) "_____________" is useful in examining blood stains, hair roots, semen, vaginal fluid. It is also useful in the association or elimination of suspect through chromosome coding. (A): DNA fingerprinting (B): Plastic fingerprinting (C): Visible fingerprinting (D): Latent fingerprinting

(29.7.11) The ____________ sketch is useful when no camera is available. (A): perspective (B): projective (C): schematic (D): detailed

(29.8.2) Once a suspect signs a written statement, what should be done with the writing? (A): Enter the writing into evidence (B): Keep the original writing with your personal notes (C): Attach the original writing to the offense report (D): Turn the original writing over to your supervisor for approval

(3.1.1) _________ involves the definition and achievement of what is good or bad, right or wrong, in relation to moral duty and obligation, and should serve as a guide to our choices and actions. (A): Ethics (B): Vocation (C): Accreditation (D): Service

(3.1.2) Extended preservice education, standards for entry, practice and conduct, and continuing education and life long learning are all characteristics of: (A): professionalism (B): cults and sects (C): corporate systemology (D): religion

(3.1.2) Which of the following was specifically listed by TCOLE as being a "characteristic of professionalism?" (A): Service to others (B): Community policing (C): Traditional policing. (D): High criminal arrest rate.

(3.1.2) Which of the following was specifically listed by TCOLE as being a "characteristic of professionalism?" (A): Service to others. (B): Community policing. (C): Traditional policing. (D): High criminal arrest rate. (E): None of the above are correct

(3.2.2) Specifically, the "__________" role is performed by being objective and ethical in personal behavior and in functioning as a representative of the criminal justice system. (A): ethical (B): professional (C): paramilitary (D): law enforcement

(3.2.3) Which of the following was specifically listed in the BPOC, Chapter 3, as an example of physical courage? (A): Facing barricaded, armed suspect. (B): Refusing gratuities (C): Refusing to participate in cover-up. (D): Refusing to participate in ethnic or gender based humor or practical joking, etc. (E): All of the above are examples of physical courage

(3.3.1) A person would commit the offense of "__________" under the PC, if he intentionally or knowingly offers, confers, or agrees to confer on another, or solicits, accepts, or agrees to accept from another: any benefit as consideration for the recipient's decision, opinion, recommendation, vote, or other exercise of discretion as a public servant, party official, or voter. (A): Bribery (B): Illegal Offering or Acceptance of Gratuities (C): Obstruction of Justice (D): None of the above

(3.3.1) According to the Penal Code, a public servant acting under color of office or employment commits the offense of "Official Oppression" if the public servant _____________. (A): intentionally subjects another to sexual harassment (B): aids another in acquiring personal property (C): coerces another with intent to obtain a benefit (D): intentionally includes a report of facts known to the person to be false

(3.3.1) In the PC, a person commits the crime of "________________" if he privately addresses a representation, entreaty, argument, or other communication to any public servant who exercises or will exercise official discretion in an adjudicatory proceeding with an intent to influence the outcome of the proceeding on the basis of considerations other than those authorized by law. (A): Improper Influence (B): Bribery (C): Coercion of Public Servant or Voter (D): Obstruction or Retaliation

(4.1.2) When a sheriff or other person holding an individual in jail or prison receives a/an ______________ from a proper court, he or she must bring the detained person before the court and show just cause why the individual is being held in custody. (A): writ of habeas corpus (B): arrest warrant (C): summons (D): subpoena

(4.1.4) The First Amendment contains the following right(s): (A): Freedom of Religion, Press, and Speech (B): Freedom from self incrimination, press, and speech, and right to an attorney. (C): Right to bail, and to bear arms. (D): Freedom of Press, right to bear arms, and freedom from unreasonable searches and seizures (E): None of the above

(4.1.5) The ______ Amendment has been interpreted to limit the level of force that may be used by law enforcement to reasonable force. (See Tennessee v. Garner) (A): 4th (B): 5th (C): 6th (D): 8th (E): 14th

(4.1.7) The Sixth Amendment to the US Constitution: (A): gives the right to confront witnesses. (B): established the police powers of the states. (C): established the "due process of law" doctrine. (D): provides the right to bail.

(4.3.3) Law that is concerned with an individual's private rights and private remedies is: (A): Civil Law (B): Criminal Law (C): Codified Crime Indexes (D): Penal Statutes

(4.3.3) Which of the following would be an example of a "tort?" (A): A civil wrong for which a remedy may be obtained (B): Criminal trespass of a habitation (C): Theft of over $500. (D): Speeding over 10 miles per hour of the speed limit

(4.3.4) A person has been arrested for the crime of "Theft" of property worth under $50. Which of the following state courts would have the original jurisdiction to try this case? (A): Justice of the peace (B): County (C): District (D): Courts of Appeals

(5.1.1) "___________" generally refers to groups of people with common ancestry and physical characteristics. (A): Race (B): Ethnicity (C): Ethnocentrism (D): Culture

(5.1.1) "_____________" is acting on the basis of prejudice. (A): Discrimination (B): Ethnicity (C): Ethnocentrism (D): Attitude

(5.1.1) Training in Cultural Diversity cannot change: (A): personal values and attitudes (B): awareness of similarities in cultures (C): sensitivity to cultural differences (D): your understanding of human dynamics

(5.1.1)"__________________" is an adverse judgment or opinion formed beforehand or without knowledge of or examination of the facts. (A): Prejudice (B): Discrimination (C): Mental disorder (D): None of the above

(6.1.2) Senators and Representatives shall, except in cases of _____________be privileged from arrest during the session of the Legislature, and in going to and returning from the same, allowing for one day for every twenty miles such member may reside from the place at which the Legislature is convene(D): (A): Treason, felony, or breach of the peace (B): Senators and Representatives never have this privilege. (C): Speeding, DWI, and breach of the peace (D): Disorderly conduct, Speeding, and Open container

(6.1.2) Under CCP 20.011, a defendant in a criminal matter is not entitled to be represented by counsel: (A): Inside the chambers of a grand jury room while the grand jury is conducting proceedings. (B): In an adversarial hearing. (C): In a police custodial interrogation. (D): In a felony trial.

(6.1.2) Under the CCP, a defendant in a criminal matter is entitled be represented by counsel in ___________. (A): an adversarial judicial proceeding. (B): inside the chambers of a grand jury proceeding. (C): the "initial appearance" CCP 14.06 (D): none of the above

(6.1.2) Which of the following statements is true concerning the grand jury? (A): In Texas a person charged with a felony has a right to be indicted by a grand jury. (B): The defendant has a constitutional right to be represented by an attorney at the grand jury. (C): All of the above statements are true. (D): The proceedings are public.

(6.2.1) Which of the following officials would be classed as being a "magistrate" under Texas Law? (A): Mayor (B): Medical examiner (C): Sheriff (D): FBI Agent

(6.2.1) Which of the following officials would be classified as being a "magistrate" under Texas Law? (A): Justice of the peace (B): District Attorney (C): Chief of Police (D): Sheriff (E): Texas State Trooper

(6.2.2) Which of the following is not listed as a Texas peace officer under CCP 2.12? (A): Probation officer (B): Deputy sheriff (C): Investigators commissioned by the attorney general under the Government Code. (D): Officers commissioned by the state fire marshal under the Government Code.

(6.2.2) Which of the following would be listed in the CCP as a "Special Investiator?" (A): Special Agents of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms (B): New Mexico State Trooper (C): Texas Department of Public Safety Narcotics Officer (D): Mayor of a major incorporated city

(6.2.2) Which of the following would be listed in the CCP as a "Special Investigator." (A): Special Agents of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms (B): New Mexico State Trooper (C): Texas Department of Public Safety Narcotics Officer (D): Mayor of a major incorporated city

(6.2.3) A "commitment" is a court order (A): to place an accused in jail. (B): Ordering an accused released from custody. (C): Granting an appeal. (D): No longer issued in Texas.

(6.2.3) Which of the following statements in regards to a "sheriff" is true? (A): Each sheriff shall be a conservator of the peace in his county. (B): The sheriff is considered to be the top magistrate in the county. (C): A sheriff is not a peace officer. (D): Sheriffs have statewide authority to enforce all traffic laws.

(6.2.4) A peace officer is _________liable for damages arising from an act relating to the collection or reporting of information as required by CCP Art. 2.133 or under a policy adopted under CCP Art. 2.132. (A): not (B): always (C): partially (D): criminally

(6.3.3) The highest Texas Court to hear appeals of civil cases is (A): Texas Supreme Court. (B): District Court. (C): Courts of Appeals (D): Court of Criminal Appeals.

(6.3.5) If a criminal case is tried in the justice court and the ruling of the court is appealed, which court hears the appeal? (A): County Court. (B): District Court. (C): Municipal Court. (D): Texas Court of Criminal Appeals.

(6.5.1) Which of the following felonies has a three year statute of limitations? (A): Aggravated Assault (B): Theft by a public servant of government property (C): Forgery (D): Robbery

(6.6.1) A peace officer __________ arrest a suspect if he has probable cause to believe he has violated a protective order under PC 25.07 or PC38.112 and it does not occur in his presence. (A): may (B): shall (C): will not (D): always

(6.6.1) The person making the arrest or the person having custody of the person arrested, shall take the person arrested, or have him taken without unnecessary delay, but not later than _______ hours after the person is arrrested, before the proper magistrate. (A): 48 (B): 52 (C): 65 (D): 96

(6.6.1) Under which of the following situations is an officer NOT permitted to arrest without a warrant? (A): A credible person alerts a peace officer that he observed a motorist run a stop sign and is about to escape. (B): A felony or breach of the peace offense is committed within the view of a magistrate and he orders the officer to arrest. (C): A crredible person alerts a peace officer that a felony has been committed and that the offender is about to escape. (D): Persons are found in suspicious places and under circumstances that reasonably show that such persons have been guilty of some felony or breach of the peace.

(6.6.1) Where it is shown by satisfactory proof to a peace officer, upon the representation of a credible person, that a felony has been committed, and that the offender is about to escape, so that there is not time to procure a warrant, such peace officer ______ ____ _____ pursue and arrest the accused. (A): may, without warrant, (B): must, without warrant (C): may not, without warrant (D): shall, without warrant

(6.6.2) The CCP Art. 15.25 specifically states, "In case of ________________, the officer may break down the door of any house for the purpose of making an arest, if he be refused admittance after giving notice of his authority and purpose." (It should be noted, that this authority must be legal.) (A): felony (B): any misdemeanor (C): Class "A" and "B" Misdemeanors (D): disorderly conduct

(6.7.1) A Search warrant may be issued to search for and seize arms and munitions kept for the purpose of insurrection or riot. (A): This statement is true. (B): This statement is false.

(6.7.1) A search warrant may (A): order an arrest. (B): be issued if reasonable belief exists to show that evidence of a crime will be found at a specific location. (C): be issued for a "fishing expedition" to look for evidence in a place that officers have suspicion that evidence of a crime can be located there. (D): not be issued to photgraph a child.

(6.7.1) A search warrant will not be issued without a statement of probable cause, supported by __________________. (A): Oath or Affirmation (B): sworn testimony of the accused (C): Arrest Warrant (D): a credible person

(6.7.1) Who may execute a "search warrant" for criminal evidence? (A): A peace officer (B): Any peace officer or a person specifically named (C): Any person if a peace officer cannot be found to serve it (D): May only be a sheriff or constable

(6.8.1) A "commitment" is a court order (A): to place an accused in jail. (B): ordering an accused released from custody. (C): granting an appeal (D): no longer issued in Texas.

(6.8.1) A/an "__________" is the written statement of a grand jury accusing a person therein named of some act or omission which by law, is declared to be an offense. (A): Indictment (B): information (C): Capias (D): Subpoena

(6.8.1) The affidavit made before the magistrate or the district or court attorney charging the commission of an offense is called a/an (A): Complaint. (B): Indictment. (C): Petition. (D): Statement of Probable Cause.

(6.8.1) The effect of a capias is the same as that of (A): an arrest warrant. (B): a search warrant. (C): a subpoena. (D): an attachment.

(6.8.2) Which of the following types of court orders directs a peace officer to appear in court as a witness only? (A): Subpoena (B): Capias (C): Writ of Mandamus (D): Subpoena Duces Tecum

(7.1.1) Which of the following is a necessary element of a lawful arrest? (A): authority of the arresting person (B): arresting person must be a peace officer or reserve officer (C): physical touching by the officer (D): person arrested must have been the one who committed the offense beyond a shadow of a doubt

(7.1.13) If an officer is legally searching for evidence connected to a particular crime, and finds contraband, the officer may seize it without first obtaining a search warrant. (A): This statement is true. (B): This statement is false.

(7.1.13) In "Chimel v. California," the U.S. Supreme Court said that (A): Officers could search a suspect and the area within their immediate control if the person had been lawfully arrested. (B): A suspect had a right to be silent. (C): Individuals had a right to an attorney at the Examining Trial. (D): Officers could frisk persons when they feared for their safety.

(7.1.13) The courts allow police officers to search "incidental to custodial arrest" for what general purpose? (A): so that officers can secure easily accessible weapons and evidence (B): to cut down on the number of search warrants issued (C): to help officers recover stolen property (D): all of these are true

(7.1.14) The "exclusionary rule" was first created by the U.S. Supreme Court in which of the following cases? As written, the rule applied only to the actions of federal officers. (A): Weeks v. United States. (B): Wolf v. Colorado. (C): Mapp v. Ohio. (D): Terry v. Ohio

(7.1.14) The U.S. Supreme Court in "__________________" adopted an exception to the exclusionary rule: the good-faith exception for searches conducted pursuant to a search warrant. Under this exception, whenever a law enforcement officer acting with objective good faith has obtained a search warrant from a detached and neutral judge or magistrate and has acted within its scope, evidence seized pursuant to the warrant will not be excluded, even though the warrant is later determined to be invalid. (A): United States v. Leon (B): Brown v. United States (C): Mapp v. Ohio (D): Weeks v. United States

(7.1.4) The affidavit made before the magistrate or district or county attorney is called ___________ if it charges the commission of an offense. (A): a complaint (B): an indictment (C): a habeas corpus (D): an information (E): a writ of possession

(7.1.6) What can an officer do with mere suspicion? (A): s/he may lay back and watch the individual(s) or activity suspected for additional facts and circumstances (B): s//he may require a person to identify himself/herself (C): he may detain a person (D): he may immediately arrest a subject

(7.1.7) A blood spattered shirt found at the scene of a homicide is considered to be: (A): mere evidence (B): fruits of the crime (C): tools of the crime (D): contraband

(7.1.7) An iPod player stolen from a vehicle is considered as which of the following? (A): fruits of a crime (B): tools of a crime (C): contraband (D): mere evidence

(7.1.7) Probable Cause is limited to the information known at the point __________________ . (A): a person is arrested (B): an accused goes to trial (C): police question a person (D): a person becomes a suspect

(7.1.7) The U.S. Supreme Court in "Beck v. Ohio" said that the "____________" test is an objective one, meaning that "_____________" exists when the facts and circumstances known to the officer would warrant a belief by a reasonable man. (A): probable cause (B): reasonable ground (C): exigent circumstances (D): rational suspicion

(7.1.7) Which of the following information can be used to build probable cause? (A): hearsay information (B): non-suspicious conduct (C): prejudices of the officer (D): evidence found after the arrest

(7.1.7) Which of the following is not a credible fact or circumstance used to establish probable cause? (A): the race of the subject is different from the predominate race of the area (B): the crime in the area is higher that other similar areas in your jurisdiction (C): the actions of the subject are an attempt at stealth or to conceal something (D): the stories of two persons stopped together conflict with each other

(8 - 1.07) According to the Penal Code, which of the following is NOT specifically listed as part of the "element of an offense"? (A): admission of guilt (B): forbidden conduct (C): required culpability (D): any required result

(8 - 1.07) __________ means an offense so designated by law or punishable by confinement in jail or by both fine and confinement in jail. (A): Misdemeanor (B): Felony (C): Breach of the peace (D): Ducus tecum

(8 - 12.03) Misdemeanors are classified in three classes. Which is the highest class misdemeanor? (A): Class A (B): Class B (C): Class C (D): Class D

(8 - 22.01) It is an assault to knowingly cause physical contact with another if the other person regards the contact as offensive or provocative. (A): True (B): False

(8 - 12.31) A person adjudged guilty of a _______ shall be punished by confinement in the Texas Department of Criminal Justice for life or by death. (A): capital felony (B): third degree felony (C): second degree felony (D): first degree felony

(8 - 12.32) A first offense, first degree felon may be sentenced to confinement for: (A): life or five to ninety-nine years (B): ten to ninety nine years or life (C): twenty five years to life (D): two to twenty years

(8 - 12.33) The possible penitentiary time for a conviction of a second degree felony is: (A): not less than two nor more than 20 years in the penitentiary (B): not less than five nor more than 20 years in the penitentiary (C): not less than two nor more than 10 years in the penitentiary (D): not more than one year in jail

(8 - 12.34) A person adjudged guilty of ______ shall be confined in the Texas Department of Criminal Justice for a term of two years to ten years and a fine not to exceed ten thousand dollars. (A): third degree felony (B): second degree felony (C): first degree felony (D): state jail felony

(8 - 15.01) According to the Texas Penal Code, criminal attempt requires: (A): an act amounting more than mere preparation that tends but fails to effect the commission of the offense intended. (B): an overt act in pursuance of the agreement. (C): specific conduct that would constitute the offense. (D): a plan to commit the offense.

(8 - 15.02) A ______ is a criminal partnership wherein two or more persons agree to commit a crime. An act of preparation will suffice: (A): conspiracy (B): criminal conduct (C): terrorism (D): organized crime

(8 - 15.02) According to the Penal Code, Criminal Conspiracy relates to _________________________ . (A): all felony offenses (B): capital offenses only (C): all criminal offenses (D): first degree felonies only

(8 - 16.01) According to the Penal Code, for a police officer to charge a suspect with possession of a "criminal instrument," the item must be specially designed, made, or adapted for use in the commission of a criminal offense . (A): This statement is true. (B): This statement is false.

(8 - 19.02) A person commits the offense of _______ if he commits an act clearly dangerous to human life, with the intention of causing serious bodily injury and causes the death of an individual. (A): murder (B): capital murder (C): manslaughter (D): aggravated assault

(8 - 19.02) Abel commits a carjacking by taking a car away from a mother. Her baby was in a child seat in the car. Abel accidentally crashed the car while trying to flee and the baby died in the crash. Abel has committed: (A): Murder (B): Vehicular Manslaughter (C): Manslaughter (D): Criminally Negligent Homicide

(8 - 19.02) Which of the following offenses involve the elements of "sudden passion' and "adequate cause"? (A): murder (B): manslaughter (C): intoxication manslaughter (D): self defense

(8 - 19.03) A person commits "Capital Murder" if the person intentionally commits the murder in the course of committing or attempting to commit "________________." (A): Burglary (B): Injury to a child (C): Coercing, Soliciting, or Inducing Gang Membership (D): Criminal Trespass

(8 - 2.02) The "_________________" must negate the existence of an "exception" in the accusation charging commission of the offense and prove beyond a reasonable doubt that the defendant or defendant's conduct does not fall within the exception. (A): prosecuting attorney (B): defense attorney (C): trial judge (D): defendant

(8 - 20.02) A man wanting to harass his former girlfriend goes to her office and handcuffs her to the door of the men's restroom. The man has committed the offense of: (A): unlawful restraint (B): harassment (C): kidnapping (D): stalking

(8 - 20.03) A person commits "Kidnapping" if he intentionally or knowingly _________ another person. (A): abducts (B): restraints (C): unlawfully arrests (D): none of the above

(8 - 21.01) Under Penal Code Sec. 21.01, deviate sexual intercourse means any contact between the ______________ of one person and the _______ or ______ of another person; or the penetration of the genitals or the anus of another person with an object. (A): genitals; mouth or anus (B): genitals; breast or genitals (C): male sex organ; female sex organ or hand (D): genitals; fowl or animal

(8 - 21.06) An officer walks into a public restroom and sees two males embraced in each others arms, kissing. What charges may be filed? (A): No charge may be filed (B): Homosexual Conduct (C): Public Lewdness (D): Indecent Exposure

(8 - 21.11) A person commits an offense if, with a child younger than 17 years of age, whether the child is of the same or opposite sex, the person: with the intent to arouse or gratify the sexual desire of any person, exposes his genitals, knowing the child is present. What do we call this offense? (A): Indecency with a Child (B): Indecent Exposure (C): Endangering a Child (D): Sexual Assault

(8 - 21.11) An adult who exposes himself, knowing that a thirteen year old child is present, with intent to arouse or gratify the sexual desire of any person, should be filed on for: (A): indecency with a child (B): sexual abuse of a child (C): public lewdness with a child (D): indecent exposure

(8 - 21.11) It is illegal to engage in sexual contact with a female younger than 17 who is not the spouse of the actor even with the female's consent. (A): This statement is true. (B): This statement is false.

(8 - 22.01) A person knowingly causes physical contact with another person, and the other person regards the contact as offensive or provocative. According to the Penal Code what offense has been committed? (A): Assault (B): Aggravated Assault (C): Terroristic Threat (D): No Offense

(8 - 22.01) Alex accidentally spills a glass of beer on Bob. Bob then verbally provokes Alex. Alex strikes Bob with his closed fist. Bob suffers a cut lip. According to the Penal Code Alex has ___________________________ . (A): committed a Class A Misdemeanor assault (B): committed a Class B Misdemeanor assault (C): committed a Class C Misdemeanor assault (D): done nothing illegal, he was defending himself

(8 - 22.01) Rex is attending his son's baseball game and takes exception to the fact that the umpire called his son out on a close pitch. Rex leaps over the fence onto the field, gets nose to nose with the umpire and threatens to punch him in the face. What offense has Rex committed? (A): Assault (B): Harassment (C): Obscene Display (D): No Offense

(8 - 22.01) Sandy went to the library to study. While setting her books down, she accidentally spilled her drink on Tom's laptop computer. Tom jumped up in anger and called Sandy a "Stupid *****!" In response, Sandy slapped Tom in the face and her ring cut Tom's lip. According to the Penal Code Sandy has __________________ . (A): Committed Class A assault (B): Committed Class B assault (C): Committed Class C assault (D): Not committed an offense

(8 - 22.01) Sexual intercourse means which of the following? (A): penetration of the female sex organ by the male sex organ (B): penetration of the female sex organ with any object (C): fondling the female sex organ (D): a and b above

(8 - 22.01) Which type of assault is a Class A Misdemeanor? (A): intentionally caused bodily injury to another (B): intentionally threatened another with imminent bodily injury (C): knowingly caused physical contact with another, believing the other will regard it as offensive (D): all of these are a Class A Misdemeanor

(8 - 22.05) John knowingly points a firearm at Rick, and John knows the firearm is actually empty. Under 22.05 - Deadly Conduct of the Penal Code, John's behavior is presumed: (A): reckless (B): terroristic (C): covert (D): all the above

(8 - 28.02) According to the Penal Code, a person can start a fire with intent to damage or destroy a building without committing the offense of arson. (A): This statement is true. (B): This statement is false.

(8 - 28.08) A person finds a very dirty car and with a finger writes, "WASH ME" by removing dirt from the rear window. This person could be charged with: (A): Criminal Mischief (B): Reckless Damage or Destruction (C): Graffiti (D): Tampering with an Item of Inspection

(8 - 3.01) In PC Chapter 3, the definition of "criminal episode" would require at least the commission of ______ or more offenses. (A): two (B): three (C): four (D): six

(8 - 30.02) What type of entry is necessary in the crime of burglary? (A): the intrusion of any part of the body or any physical object attached to the body (B): the full body of the actor must enter the building (C): the act of breaking must be proven to constitute entry (D): entry by stealth

(8 - 30.02) Which of the following is [u]not[/u] an element of the offense of burglary? (A): breaks into a building (B): enters or remains concealed (C): without effective consent (D): intent to commit a felony or theft or assault

(8 - 30.05) According to the Penal Code, in order to be guilty of Criminal Trespass, the actor must have notice that his presence is unlawful. (A): This statement is true. (B): This statement is false.

(8 - 31.03) A baseball field has a wooden privacy fence surrounding it. Larry climbed the fence and took all four bases without consent. The police caught Larry with the bases as he left the ball field. Larry can be charged with: (A): Theft (B): Burglary (C): Criminal Mischief (D): Disrupting a Meeting

(8 - 31.03) What is the penalty for theft of three items valued at two hundred fifty dollars each and all stolen during the same criminal episode? (A): Class A misdemeanor (B): Class B misdemeanor (C): state jail felony (D): third degree felony

(8 - 31.11) A subject purchases a bicycle from an individual who had stamped his social security number into the frame. The subject tells the purchaser that a police officer advised him that it would be illegal for anyone to remove or alter that number. Could the new owner be arrested if he removed or altered the number? (A): yes (B): no

(8 - 32.31) It is an offense to steal a credit card with intent to use it even though a credit card has no value. (A): true (B): false

(8 - 32.51) A person who uses the social security number of another person to obtain some benefit and harm the other person has committed which offense? (A): Fraudulent Use of Identifying Information (B): False Statement to Obtain Credit (C): Deceptive Preparation for Creditors (D): Misapplication of Financial Information

(8 - 33.021) A person who is 17 years of age or older commits an offense if with the intent to arouse or gratify the sexual desire of any person, the person, over the Internet or by electronic mail or commercial online service, intentionally communicates in a sexually explicit manner with a minor. (A): This statement is true. (B): This statement is false.

(8 - 33A.3) A person commits the Penal Offense of Manufacture, Possession, or Delivery of Unlawful Telecommunications Device if the person manufactures, possesses, delivers, offers to deliver,or advertises a counterfeit telecommunications device. (A): True (B): False

(8 - 36.06) What is the punishment grade for a first time offender for the offense of Retaliation ? (A): Third Degree Felony (B): State Jail Felony (C): Class A misdemeanor (D): Class B misdemeanor

(8 - 37.04) According to the Penal Code 37.04, which statement best describes materiality involving Aggravated Perjury? (A): The statement could have affected the outcome of an official proceeding (B): The statement must meet the standards of admissibility in the rules of evidence (C): The statement must be first person (D): The statement must be recorded by the court's recorder

(8 - 37.08) One key element in proving the False Report to a Peace Officer 37.08 is __________, according to the Penal Code. (A): Intent to Deceive (B): Intent to Defraud (C): Intent to Harm (D): Intent to Convince

(8 - 37.11) A first time offender convicted of Impersonating a Public Servant 37.11 could expect what punishment grade ? (A): third degree felony (B): state jail felony (C): Class A misdemeanor (D): Class B misdemeanor

(9.1.17) In the Texas Transportation Code, which of the following motor vehicle lamps must be visible from 300 feet in normal sunlight ? (A): turn signal lamps (B): side marker lamps (C): parking lamps (D): fog lamps

(8 - 38.03) A person has committed the offense of _______ if he intentionally prevents or obstructs a person he knows is a peace officer from effecting an arrest or search by using force against the officer. (A): resisting arrest, search or transportation (B): assault (C): aggravated assault on a police officer (D): hindering apprehension

(8 - 38.06) A peace officer lawfully arrests an actor, handcuffs him and places him in the patrol car. While the officer is outside interviewing a witness the actor drives away in the officer's patrol car and flees into the city. What offense has been committed? (A): Escape (B): Hindering Apprehension (C): Failure to Identify (D): Unlawful Flight

(8 - 38.13) A person sits in his car and continuously honks the horn with the intent to interfere with the official dedication of a monument nearby. This person has committed: (A): Hindering proceedings by disorderly conduct (B): Preventing execution of civil meetings (C): Obstruction of Venerated Object (D): Disrupting meeting or procession

(8 - 38.13) According to the Penal Code, which of the following statements is true concerning a person recklessly hindering an official proceeding? (A): he must be warned to stop but continues to hinder before he can be arrested (B): he can be arrested immediately (C): it is not a violation to recklessly hinder unless it is a government meeting (D): the hindering must be verbal

(8 - 39.04) A police officer observes a subject he has arrested several times walking on the sidewalk. The officer stops the subject to talk to him and check him out, after a short time the officer decides to arrest the individual. The reason for the arrest is that the officer knows the subject is up to no good. The subject is later released. If the officer has committed a violation what is the offense? (A): Official Oppression (B): Abuse of Corpse (C): Tampering with Witness (D): Retaliation

(8 - 42.01) A person commits disorderly conduct if he intentionally or knowingly does which of the following? (A): fights with another in a public place (B): uses vulgar language (C): displays a firearm (D): makes an offensive gesture

(8 - 42.01) A person who exposes any part of his/her genitals in public may be arrested for and found guilty of _______________________ . (A): Disorderly Conduct (B): Indecent Exposure (C): Assault by contact (D): Criminal Attempt

(8 - 42.01) The word "vulgar" as used in section 42.01 of the Penal Code means: (A): coarse, offensive, lewd (B): sexually unchaste (C): making an attack (D): serving to defile that which is holy

(8 - 42.10) Section 42.10 of the Penal Code prohibits "dog fighting" which is defined as "Any situation in which one dog fights with ______________________." (A): another dog (B): another animal (C): a non livestock animal (D): any of these

(8 - 43.03) A person commits "______________" if , acting other than as a prostitute receiving compensation for personally rendered prostitution services, he or she knowingly; receives money or other property pursuant to an agreement to participate in the proceeds of prostitution; or solicits another to engage in sexual conduct with another person for compensation. (A): Promotion of Prostitution (B): Prostitution (C): Aggravated Promotion of Prostitution. (D): Compelling Prostitution

(8 - 43.26) In order to commit Possession of Child Pornography, a person must intentionally or knowingly possess visual material that depicts a child engaging in sexual conduct; and the person must: (A): know the material depicts the child engaging in sexual conduct (B): seek sexual gratification from the material (C): use the material in some manner (D): make a duplicate of the material

(8 - 46.01) Officer Trueblue lawfully stops a vehicle and sees a 1897 centerfire pistol in plain view on the back seat of the vehicle. Officer Trueblue can arrest the driver of the vehicle for: (A): unlawfully carrying a weapon (B): unlawfully possession of illegal weapon (C): unlawfully possession of a prohibited weapon (D): no arrest because pistol is antique

(8 - 46.01) Steve bought a new shotgun from WalMart with a 20 inch barrel. He installed a pistol grip on the shotgun and it now has an overall length of 28 inches. What does the Penal Code say about this conduct? (A): none of these (B): the person has created a short barreled firearm (C): the person manufactured an illegal shotgun (D): as long as the barrel is 16 inches, the shotgun is legal; overall length is not important

(8 - 46.01) Which of the following would be classified as a short barrel firearm? (A): shotgun with a seventeen inch barrel (B): rifle with a eighteen inch barrel (C): shotgun with an eighteen inch barrel (D): shotgun or rifle with an overall length over twenty six inches

(8 - 46.02) Which of the following is considered to be a "club" under 46.02 of the Texas Penal Statutes. (A): tomahawk (B): crow bar (C): baseball bat (D): ball peen hammer

(8 - 46.035) A person issued a license under Chp 411 Gov't Code (Licence to Carry) to carry a handgun commits an offense in the Penal Code, if he/she _______________ fails to conceal the handgun. (A): intentionally (B): intentionally and knowingly (C): intentionally, knowingly or recklessly (D): intentionally, knowingly, recklessly or with criminal negligence

(8 - 49.04) According to the Penal Code, a person commits DWI if the person is __________ while operating _______ in a _________ place. (A): Intoxicated / a motor vehicle / public place (B): Impaired / any mode of transportation including a bicycle / public place (C): Intoxicated / a motor vehicle / public or private place (D): Unconscious / any mode of transportation including a bicycle / public or private place

(8 - 49.065) A person is intoxicated while operating an amusement ride and causes " bodily injury" to several teenage girls by accident. What is the most serious crime that has occurred? (A): Assembling or Operating an Amusement Ride While Intoxicated (B): Intoxication Manslaughter (C): Intoxication Assault (D): Murder

(8 - 49.07) An intoxicated driver crashes into another car and a passenger in his car loses the vision in one eye as a result of the injury. According to the Penal Code, what offense was committed? (A): Intoxication Assault (B): Intoxication Manslaughter (C): Driving While Under the Influence (D): Aggravated Assault

The provisions of the Code of Conduct apply to all officers within the U. T. System. (A): True (B): False

(8 - 49.08) Mike, John and George are out on the lake in a boat owned by Mike. All three have been fishing, drinking and talking all day. The three are all intoxicated. Mike is operating the boat and runs into a dock by accident. John is killed as a result of the collision. What offense best describes Mike's actions? (A): Intoxication Manslaughter (B): Murder (C): Criminal Negligent Homicide (D): Manslaughter

(8 - 6.01) A person commits an offense only if he _____________ engages in conduct, including an act, an omission, or possession. (A): voluntarily (B): actually (C): constructively (D): with malice

(8 - 6.02) The highest level of culpability is (A): intentionally (B): knowingly (C): recklessly (D): negligently

(8 - 6.02) Which of the following is not a culpable mental state: (A): purposeful (B): intentional (C): criminal negligence (D): knowingly

(8 - 7.02) A person is "criminally responsible" for an offense committed by the conduct of another if; (A): Acting with the kind of culpability required for the offense, he causes or aids an innocent or non responsible person to engage in conduct prohibited by the definition of the offense. (B): Acting without intent to promote or assist the commission of the offense, he unknowingly aids another person in committing the offense. (C): We are never responsible for the actions of another under the criminal law. (D): None of the above are correct

(8 - 8.01) According to the Penal Code, insanity is ___________________________________________ . (A): an affirmative defense to prosecution (B): a mistake of law (C): an exception (D): the same as antisocial conduct

(8-30.02) Burglary is punishable as a first degree felony if: (A): premises are a habitation and a felony other than theft is committed (B): over two hundred dollars is taken (C): burglary is at night (D): people are in the building

(8-30.02) Under 30.02 (a) of the Penal Code, to commit Burglary a person must, "without the effective consent of the owner, enter a habitation or building, not open to the public _____________ to commit . . ." (A): with intent (B): intentionally or knowingly (C): recklessly (D): none of these

(9.1.1) "Every device upon which any person or property may be transported upon a highway, except devices used upon rails or tracks" is the definition of: (A): vehicle (B): passenger car (C): truck tractor (D): motor vehicle (E): traffic

(9.1.1) "Motor-driven-cycle" means a motorcycle equipped with a motor that has an engine piston displacement of ______ cubic centimeters or less. The term does not include an electric bicycle. (A): 250 (B): 350 (C): 450 (D): 500

(9.1.1) "_____________" means a motor vehicle designed, used, or maintained primarily to transport property. (A): Truck (B): Motor vehicle (C): Passenger vehicle (D): Vehicle

(9.1.1) A "moped" engine by definition (A): Cannot produce more than two-brake horsepower. (B): If an internal combustion engine, must have a piston displacement of 150 cubic centimeters or less. (C): Connects to the power drive system that requires the operator to shift gears. (D): Produces more than two-brake horsepower.

(9.1.1) Which of the following would be classed as an "authorized emergency vehicle" in accordance with the Transportation Code? (A): fire department or police vehicle (B): any municipal department or public service corporation vehicle. (C): All operations of a private vehicle of a volunteer or a certified emergency medical services employee or volunteer. (D): a vehicle of a blood bank or tissue bank, accredited or approved under the laws of this state or the United States, when making any deliveries of blood, drugs, medicines or organs

(9.1.10) Hand-and-Arm turn signals must be given from the __________ side of the motor vehicle. (A): left (B): right (C): driver's (D): front

(9.1.11) Appropriate signals must be given for ALL of the following maneuvers, EXCEPT: (A): turns from a driveway onto a street (B): turns from a street into a driveway (C): stopping or suddenly decreasing speed (D): lane changes

(9.1.13) In the Transportation Code, no person may stand or park a vehicle within 30 feet of: (A): a stop sign at the side of the road (B): a fire hydrant (C): a marked crosswalk in mid-block (D): a crosswalk at an intersection

(9.1.14) A person is driving a pickup truck on a rural Farm To Market road and there are no speed limit signs. What is the speed limit in the daytime? (A): 70 mph (B): 65 mph (C): 60 mph (D): 55 mph

(9.1.14) The "prima facie speed limit" on a beach is ____ miles per hour. (A): 15 (B): 20 (C): 25 (D): 30

(9.1.15) The motorcycle provisions of Subtitle C, related to riding on a seat and wearing protective headgear, only apply: (A): when the motorcycle is operated on a public street (B): to persons with a Texas DL (C): to motorcycles with Texas License Plates (D): to persons under 18 years of age

(9.1.16) An operator of an authorized emergency vehicle is _________ relieved by the traffic code from the duty to operate the vehicle with appropriate regard for the safety of all persons and the consequences of reckless disregard for the safety of others. (A): not (B): always (C): some times (D): None of the above

(9.1.17) A motor vehicle may not be equipped with more than ______ fog lamps (A): two (B): four (C): six (D): eight

(9.1.17) A signaling device mounted on the rear of a vehicle may be: (A): Red, amber, or yellow (B): Amber, yellow, or blue (C): Blue, red, or yellow (D): White, blue, or red

(9.1.17) In the Texas Transportation Code, all of the following are TRUE about the tail lamps on a motor vehicle, EXCEPT ? (A): they may be red or amber or any color in between (B): they must be visible from 1000 feet in the nighttime (C): they must turn "on" when the headlamps are turned "on" (D): they must be as widely spaced as practicable

(9.1.20) In the Transportation Code, which of the following situations prevents a Peace Officer from preparing a notice to appear citation and releasing the traffic violator? (A): the person is arrested for Failure to Stop & Render Aid (B): the person is arrested for Speeding (C): the person is arrested for Defective Tail Lamp (D): the person is arrested for Failure to Yield ROW from Stop Sign

(9.1.26) In the Transportation Code, financial responsibility is the ability to respond in damages for liability for an accident arising out of the _________ of a motor vehicle, . (A): ownership, maintenance or use (B): maintenance or possession (C): repair or transporting (D): possession, repair or use

(9.1.3) An unmarked crosswalk: (A): exists only at an intersection where sidewalks are present (B): can be at any point on a roadway (C): exists where a side walk crosses a roadway at any point. (D): is an official traffic control device

(9.1.5) When injurious material has been dropped on a street from a moving vehicle, who has the responsibility to immediately remove the material? (A): the person who drops the material, or permits it to be dropped (B): any passenger in the vehicle from which the material was dropped (C): if there is not a wreck caused by the material, then no one has the responsibility (D): the owner of the material that was dropped

(9.1.9) A school bus stopped to receive school children. An operator would commit the violation of "Failed to Stop for School Bus" if the operator passed the bus when: (A): the bus driver closed the bus door (B): the school bus resumed motion (C): the bus driver signaled the operator to proceed (D): visual signals on the bus ceased

(9.1.9) In the Transportation Code, on a two-way street within a city limits a vehicle cannot be driven to the left of center: (A): within 100 ft of approaching an intersection (B): within an intersection (C): within 100 ft of leaving an intersection (D): all of these

(9.1.9) Vehicles are permitted to drive Left of Center to overtake and pass another vehicle, when outside of a No Passing Zone and: (A): traversing an intersection outside of an incorporated city limits (B): traversing a railroad crossing anywhere in Texas (C): when approaching within 100 feet of a bridge anywhere in Texas (D): when approaching within 100 feet of a tunnel inside an incorporated city limits

(9.2.1) A "motor vehicle traffic crash" requires a harmful event, and ____________________. (A): a motor vehicle "in transport" (B): an injury or death to occur (C): some violation of the Texas Motor Vehicle Laws (D): evidence of a point of impact between two motor vehicles

(9.2.1) A driver goes past a sign warning of an approaching intersection without seeing the sign and fails to reduce his speed. This human error occurred in which phase of the driver's strategy? (A): Recognition/Perception (B): Advisory (C): Performance (D): Divided Attention (E): Muscle Memory

(9.2.1) A pedestrian and a motorcyclist are the only two units involved in a crash at an intersection in which the motorcyclist is injured. Which of the following statements is true? (A): The CR-3 form must be completed and forwarded to TxDOT. (B): Two CR-3 reports are completed; one for each unit (C): The pedestrian is only included on the CR-3 if he is injured (D): There is no authority to investigate the crash

(9.2.1) According to the Texas Transportation Code, to comply with requirements to "give information and render aid", the driver of a vehicle involved in an accident must render reasonable assistance to any person: (A): who requests assistance or who exhibits apparent injuries (B): who needs help repairing the vehicle involved in the collision (C): who requests transportation to the nearest garage or towing service (D): who witnessed the accident

(9.2.1) Driver A backed down a private residential driveway and struck an empty vehicle in the driveway, owned by "B"; causing $1200 damage to "B"s car: Driver A did not find "B" and notify him nor did he leave a note on "B"s car. Driver A did not notify the police and has refused to complete an CR2 "Driver's Report" and send it to TxDOT. Which of the following is TRUE? (A): None of these are true (B): "A" and "B" Failed to Report an Accident (C): "A" Failed to Stop and Render Aid (D): "A" Failed to Comply with Duties Upon Striking Unattended Vehicle

(9.2.1) How many total measurements must be taken from the known reference points to locate a point such as the point of impact, using the triangulation method ? (A): two (B): four (C): five (D): six

(9.2.1) If a Peace Officer investigates a motor vehicle crash which involves an injury of a person, the officer must forward a written report of the crash within _____ days. (A): 10 (B): 20 (C): 30 (D): 3

(9.2.1) In MV Accident Investigation, which of the following coefficients of friction would allow a vehicle to produce the longest skid mark? (A): .77 (B): .99 (C): 1.00 (D): 101

(9.2.1) In MV Crash Investigation, obstruction to drivers view, driver handicaps, and vehicle equipment are factors which are used to determine which of the following ? (A): reaction time (B): point of no escape (C): point of impact (D): initial damage

(9.2.1) In MV Crash Investigation, obstruction to drivers view, driver handicaps, and vehicle equipment are factors which are used to determine which of the following? (A): reaction time (B): point of no escape (C): point of impact (D): initial damage

(9.2.1) Regarding Crash Investigation, which of the following reactions while driving will usually be wrong ? (A): reflex (B): complex (C): simple (D): discriminative

(9.2.1) The "key event" in a traffic crash is the single or major factor which caused the collision to occur. (A): This statement is true. (B): This statement is false.

(9.2.1) The point at which drivers cannot avoid an accident even after the application of brakes is called the ________________________ . (A): point of no escape (B): point of perception (C): point of no hope (D): point of possible perception

(9.2.4) A ___________ is a graph on which three or more scales are arranged so that a straight line drawn though values on any two will cross the third at a corresponding value: (A): nomograph (B): monograph (C): seismograph (D): none of the above

(9.3.2) One long blast of the police whistle is used to: (A): Attract drivers attention to stop (include hand signal). (B): Attract drivers to start (include hand signal). (C): Give a warning signal to drivers. (D): None of the above

(9.3.2) While directing traffic, pointing directly at the driver and making eye contact with him is a method used to: (A): get the driver's attention (B): give the appropriate signal (C): follow through on the direction given

01.02 One of the purposes for which the Penal Code was adopted was to prescribe penalties that are proportionate to the seriousness of offenses. (A): This statement is true. (B): This statement is false.

A cadet is considered to be "on time" when seated in their assigned seat in the classroom at the beginning of a class period. (A): True (B): False

A citizen comes to an officer with a "belief" that a person committed a crime 5 minutes ago. What should the officer do? (A): make reasonable inquiries before adopting the "belief" (B): have the citizen make the arrest with the officer's assistance (C): an officer cannot use information from a citizen as part of probable cause to arrest (D): the officer can only make an arrest if the crime is a felony

A crime scene photograph cannot replace a sketch because the photograph: (A): shows everything in front of the lens (B): shows accurate distances (C): indicates the camera position

An actor who observes a sexual assault occuring may use _________________ to stop the assault if a reasonable person would not have retreated before doing so. (A): Deadly Force (B): Reasonable Force (C): Necessary Force (D): Force

An arrest warrant provides "_________________". (A): an impartial judicial determination that arrest should be made (B): certainty of the offender's identity (C): unlimited authority to search the premises (D): absolute immunity from civil litigation

Driver A is involved in a non-trafficway motor vehicle accident with Driver B, in a public parking lot on campus. Driver A must give the name of his insurance company to Driver B; however Driver A is not required to show proof of financial responsibility to Driver (B): (A): True (B): False

How many milliliters of blood are required for a statutory DWI sample? (A): 100 (B): 200 (C): 300 (D): 400

If force is justified under Chapter 9, then confinement is justified. (A): True (B): False

In America the first significant step toward reorganizing police services came in 1844 when; (A): New York City consolidated its day and night watches (B): Philadelphia hired its first police chief (C): the Police Consolidation Act was passed (D): the International Association of Police Chiefs was founded

In making a death notification, "knowing the location of personal property and vehicle of the victim", should occur in which stage? (A): Preparation (B): Setting the Stage (C): Delivering the Message (D): Handling the Reactions (E): Disengaging from the Call

In order for a search conducted incidental to an arrest to be legal, the arrest must have been legal. (A): True (B): False

In report writing, if you: determine general categories of information, jot down headings, sort and group facts under headings, and put headings and facts in a predetermined order; you are using formats in preparing your report. (A): This statement is true (B): This statement is false

In the Code of Criminal Procedure, the defendant in a criminal prosecution, for any offense, may waive any rights secured to him by law except the right of trial by jury in a ____________ case. (A): Capital felony (B): First degree felony (C): Third degree felony (D): State jail felony

In the Transportation Code, a vehicle in a business district emerging to a public street from a driveway must (A): stop immediately prior to crossing a sidewalk (B): slow down before entering the street (C): signal before entering the street (D): stop for vehicles entering the driveway

In writing an affidavit for the issuance of a search warrant, an officer should in the description of property to be seized: (A): describe only items to be searched for that the officer has probable cause (B): describe any item to be searched for that the officer might find (C): describe drugs, such as heroin, as "narcotics and dangerous drugs" (D): include a request for permission to conduct an exploratory search in addition to a specific description

Once a latent fingerprint has been developed with powder and brush; it should be preserved with _________ before lifting with tape. (A): photography (B): lacquer spray (C): ninhydrin (D): none of these

One primary objective of patrol is to reduce the opportunity for crime by _____________________________ . (A): reducing crime hazards (B): questioning suspects (C): conducting crime analysis (D): lowering visibility

The Penalty Classification for Possession of two ounces or less of Marijuana is? (A): Class B Misd (B): Class C Misd (C): State Jail Felony (D): None of these

The best defense against stress is: (A): understanding its cause and effects (B): ignoring it and hoping it will go away (C): mega doses of vitamin c (D): making immediate major changes in lifestyle

The circular patrol pattern technique ____________________________________________ . (A): starts from either the center or the outer perimeters of the area; and spirals inward or outward (B): creates a series of overlapping circles within a larger circle (C): circles the perimeter and criss-crosses the inner area (D): uses a set of square circles in a grid pattern

The information in a search warrant affidavit must be sworn to by the person requesting the warrant. (A): True (B): False

The key element in driving is how ________ and consistent you are. (A): efficient (B): effective (C): fast (D): aggressive

The key to accident avoidance is (A): drive farther ahead visually (B): focusing on what is immediately in front of the vehicle (C): there is no key. Accidents are going to happen. (D): none are correct

The result of fingers being pressed into a soft substance such as candle wax or wet paint is a: (A): plastic impression (B): dry impression (C): latent impression (D): rough impression

The third clue of the HGN is onset of nystagmus prior to ______ degrees. (A): 45 (B): 60 (C): 90 (D): 180

The three most common personality disorders are paranoid, antisocial and borderline. (A): True (B): False

Under the CCP, a defendant in a criminal matter is entitled to be represented by counsel in ___________ . (A): an adversarial judicial proceeding. (B): inside the chambers of a grand jury proceeding. (C): the "initial appearance" CCP 14.06. (D): None of the above

What is the minimum amount of marijana that will enhance Delivery of Marihuana to a Felony when offered for sale ? (A): more than one-fourth ounce (B): more than one ounce (C): more than two ounces (D): more than four pounds

What type of crime scene photograph is taken to show an area as rural or urban ? (A): long range (B): medium range (C): close range

Which amendment to the U.S. Constitution requires that the place to be searched by described "with particularity"? (A): Fourth (B): Fifth (C): Sixth (D): Fourteenth

Which lane of the roadway lends itself to effective observation that provides a clear view between buildings on both sides of the street as well as oncoming traffic? (A): lane nearest the center of the roadway (B): lane nearest the curb (C): any lane with clear views (D): no traffic lane does both

Which of the following IS NOT a Peace Officer according to the Code of Criminal Procedure? (A): Agents with the Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms (B): Officers commissioned by the General Services Commission (C): Officers commissioned by a water control and improvement district (D): Investigators for the State Board of Pharmacy (E): Agents of the Texas Alcohol Beverage Commission

Which of the following elements is not one of the beat characteristics that you should know early in an assignment ? (A): number of traffic violations committed in an area (B): crime hazards (C): crimes committed in the area (D): geographic characteriscs of the beat (E): socioeconomic characteristics of the beat

Which of the following force options is always present in any force situation? (A): Professional presence (B): Impact weapons (C): Deadly force (D): Pain compliance holds

Which of the following is the most accurate measuring device used in measuring crime scenes ? (A): steel tape (B): fiberglass tape (C): roller tape (D): binocular lenses

(13.1.1) "______________" means to sell, dispense, give away, or supply in any other manner. (A): Deliver (B): Dispense (C): Manufacture (D): None of the above

A Only 50 questions can be imported to ClassMarker.com at a time. This separator will be shown after each set of 50 questions. Copy a set of questions between separators into a new .txt file to import them into ClassMarker. (ENDIGNORE)

(17.2.2) Encounters between a peace officer and a violator can create a level of uncertainty, which in turn can produce compensating behavior. All of the following are examples of compensating behavior, Except: (A): negotiating (B): verbal abuse (C): bluff (D): unnecessary force

(6.8.3) ______________ is the security given by the accused that he will appear and answer before the proper court the accusation brought against him. (A): Bail (B): Bond of Recognition (C): Bailee Bond (D): None of the above are correct

(7.1.7) Which of the following statements IS TRUE about Probable Cause ? (A): it is a reasonable belief the suspect committed the crime (B): it is only required for arrests & searches without a warrant (C): it is the same as a moral certainty the suspect committed the crime (D): it means the same thing as suspicion

(8 - 20.02) "A person commits an offense if he intentionally, or knowingly restrains another person" is a description of what penal code offense? (A): Unlawful Restraint (B): Kidnapping (C): Assault (D): False Arrest

(8 - 20.04) Billy Badboy takes money at gunpoint from the manager of the Stop-N-Rob food store. The police surround the store and Badboy threats to shoot the manager to prevent him from leaving the store. He then uses the manager as a shield and hostage. What offense(s) has Badboy committed? (A): Aggravated Kidnapping and Aggravated Robbery (B): Armed Robbery (C): Kidnapping and Robbery (D): Aggravated Robbery

(15.1.3) "The specialized vocabulary of those in the same line of work", is the definition of: (A): slang (B): jargon (C): syntax (D): symbolism

(9.1.17) A bus with overall width more than 80 inches is halted on a shoulder of a street. Under which of the following circumstances would the bus be required to use its hazard warning lamps? (A): when parked outside of an urban district (B): when legally stopped to discharge passengers (C): when stopped to avoid conflict with other traffic (D): when stopped by a police officer for a traffic violation

(15.1.3) In report writing, Jargon is the specialized vocabulary of ________________________________ . (A): people the same age (B): those in the same line of work (C): those with the same ethnicity (D): persons who are family members

(15.1.3) When you want to be direct, brief and natural in writing a report; which of the following voices should be used? (A): Passive (B): Active (C): Neutral (D): Subjective

(15.3.2) Recording the information in short, easy to understand sentences is a way to achieve ___________ as a characteristic of good Report Writing. (A): accuracy (B): conciseness (C): legibility

(16.1.3) The proper Spanish word for the color red is _______. (A): naranja (B): rojo (C): colorado (D): rosa

(17.1.2 - Q) According to PC 9.04, a threat to cause death or serious bodily injury by the production of a weapon constitutes deadly force. (A): True (B): False

(17.1.2) According to Texas Law a threat to cause death or serious bodily injury by the production of a weapon or otherwise, as long as the actor's purpose is limited to creating an apprehension that he will use deadly force if necessary, constitutes the use of deadly force. (A): This Statement is True. (B): This Statement is False.

(17.1.2) Displaying a weapon to another constitutes deadly force even if the actor's purpose is limited to creating an apprehension that he will use deadly force, if necessary. (A): This statement is true. (B): This statement is false.

(17.1.2) In "____________" the 4th Circuit Court, said, "..... police officers performing a discretionary function enjoy an immunity that shields them from liability for civil damages unless: the officer's conduct violates a federal statutory or constitutional right; the right was clearly established at the time of the conduct; and an objectively reasonable officer would have understood that the conduct violated that right." (A): Okonkwo v. Fernadez (B): Milstead v. Kibler (C): Mapp v. Ohio (D): Tennessee v. Garner

(17.1.2) What case set the precedent that officers may be granted immunity from civil liability? (A): Graham vs Conner (B): Milstead vs Kibler (C): Tennessee vs Garner (D): Garrity vs New Jersey

(17.1.3) "A person who fails to return to custody following a temporary leave for a specific purpose," is the definition of __________________ . (A): Custody (B): Escape (C): Abscond (D): Restraint

(17.1.3) A person is justified in using deadly force when and to the degree he reasonably believes it is necessary to prevent the other from committing suicide. (A): True (B): False

(17.1.3) All persons are justified in using ______________ , when they reasonably believe it is immediately necessary to prevent someone from committing suicide. (A): deadly force (B): force (C): any force, including deadly force (D): no amount of force

(17.1.3) Based on the Penal Code, a person by "______________" is justified in using force against another when and to the degree he reasonably believes the force is immediately necessary to protect himself against the other's use or attempted use of unlawful force. (A): Manifest destiny (B): Self-defense (C): Reason of insanity (D): Necessity

(17.1.3) In _________________ v. ________________ the Court ruled that the use of deadly force to prevent the escape of all felony suspects, whatever the circumstances, is constitutionally unreasonable. It is not better that all felony suspects die than that they escape. Where the suspect poses no immediate threat to the officer and no threat to others, the harm resulting from failing to apprehend him does not justify the use of deadly force to do so. (A): Terry v. Ohio (B): Tennessee v. Garner (C): Weeks v. United States (D): Wolf v. Colorado

(7.1.13) The U. S. Supreme Court requires that an officer requesting consent to search tell the suspect that he has a right to refuse to allow the officer to search. (A): True (B): False

(14.1.7) A law enforcement officer may issue a "field release citation" as provided by CCP Article 14.06 in place of taking a "child" into custody for _______________ , only if the officer releases the child to the child's parent, guardian, custodian, or other responsible adult. (A): All Class "A", "B", and "C" Misdemeanors" (B): A violation of PC 49.02, "Public Intoxication" (C): "deadly conduct" (D): Minor felonies

(15.1.0) Choose the best sentence. (A): She evidenced some injuries from the assault. (B): She had a swollen and red left cheek where the suspect hit her. (C): It appeared that she had been in some sort of a scrape and that she got the worst of it.

(15.1.2) Fragment, Run-on and Comma splice are terms used to describe ________ in report writing. (A): abstract language (B): faulty sentence structure (C): jargon (D): abbreviations

(1.1.1) Factors Influencing Fitness/Wellness lists six specific factors that make up the "Wellness Pyramid." Which of the factors make up the "cap" that holds down all the other areas in the pyramid? (A): Regular Exercise and Proper Nutrition (B): Self-Responsibility (C): Stress Management (D): Tobacco Cessation

(1.3.1) "_____________" is defined as prolonged unrelieved stress also called cumulative stress. Prolonged unrelieved wear and tear results from too many demands. An extreme example of this is burnout when a person loses energy and interest because of unrelieved stress. (A): Eustress (B): Chronic stress (C): Distress (D): Stress (E): Acute stress

(11.6.2) Select a circumstance where the Sheriff/Constable or any other person authorized by the court could be disqualified to deliver a citation ________________ . (Rule 103,536,742) (A): when they don't have time to deliver it (B): when they have an interest in the outcome (C): when the weather prohibits safe driving conditions (D): when the defendant complains to the court

(11.7.3) The District Court has a need to bring a child into their control to decide custody and or parental rights. The correct order, ____________________ would direct the Sheriff to take the child from an uncooperative parent. (Family Code Chapter 17) (A): an order of sale (B): a writ of attachment (C): a writ of possession (D): a writ of execution

(13.1.1) "The actual care, custody, control or management of a controlled substance" is the definition of __________. (A): prescription (B): possession (C): production (D): manufacture

(13.1.1) "____________" means to directly apply a controlled substance by injection, inhalation, ingestion, or other means to the body of a patient or research subject by a practitioner or an agent of the practitioner in the presence of the practitioner; or the patient or research subject at the direction and in the presence of a practitioner. (A): Distribute (B): Administer (C): Deliver (D): Delivery

(13.1.2) The "six major categories of controlled substances" include narcotics, depressants, stimulants, marijuana, simulated controlled substances, and (A): tranquilizers (B): hallucinogens (C): PCP (D): Psilocybin

(14.1.1) The initial (first) detention hearing for a child taken into custody and referred to juvenile court must be held in _______________. (A): 90 days (B): Two working days (C): 10 days (D): There is no time limit

(14.1.2) Under the Family Code, the term "child" would include a person (A): nine years of age or older and under 19 years of age (B): 17 years of age or older and under 18 years of age who is alleged or found to have engaged in delinquent conduct or conduct indicating a need for supervisions as a result of acts committed before becoming 17 years of age. (C): 8 years of age or older and under 18 years of age. (D): Anyone under 21 years of age.

(14.1.3) The absence of a child on three or more days or parts of days within a four-week period from school is classified as ________________. (A): delinquent conduct (B): conduct indicating a need for supervision (C): habitual conduct (D): none of the above

(14.1.4) The statement (confession) of a child in the custody of a police officer is only admissible if the statement is in writing, given voluntarily and signed in the presence of a magistrate. The police officer taking the statement must be present at all times for the confession to be admissible. (A): This is a true statement. (B): This is a false statement.

(17.1.3) In which of the following cases is it justified to use deadly force to protect land or tangible, movable property during the daytime ? (A): to prevent the other's imminent commission of burglary of a vehicle (B): to prevent the other's imminent commission of burglary (C): to prevent the other's imminent commission of criminal mischief (D): to prevent the other's imminent commission of theft

(17.1.3) The case law that directly affects how peace officers apply force is : (A): Miranda v Arizona (B): Tennessee v Garner (C): Mapp v Ohio (D): US v Liddy

(17.1.3) When deadly force is justified under Texas law, all of the following are true, EXCEPT: (A): A person should retreat before using deadly force if there is a reasonable opportunity to do so. (B): A person has the duty to retreat when using deadly force in all circumstances before deadly force is used. (C): A person has no duty to retreat when arresting another person for a felony involving unlawful deadly force. (D): A person can use deadly force to protect their property and to prevent the imminent commission of aggravated robbery.

(17.1.3) Which of the following statements is true in regards to the use of force? (A): The use of force is justified in response to verbal provocation alone. (B): The use of force is not justified in response to verbal provocation alone. (C): The use of deadly force is always authorized against fleeing felons. (D): The U.S Supreme Court stated in "Tennessee v. Garner" that the use of force was never justified even in felony cases

(17.2.2) According to the learning objectives on the psychological aspects of force, one of the greatest assets an officer can have in dealing with a law violator in any situation is: (A): self-confidence (B): self-control (C): expression-control (D): self-doubt

(17.2.2) All of the following are TRUE statements about self-control, Except: (A): self-control alone is one of the greatest assets in dealing with law violators (B): confidence in one's skills has nothing to do with self-control (C): self-control is achieved through training and practice both on and off the job (D): an officer must have self-control to be able to control a law violator

(17.2.2) In the context of use of force, compensating behavior may take the form of all answers listed, except: (A): Hesitation (B): Articulation (C): Bluffing (D): Unnecessary force

(17.2.3) What is the main factor an officer should evaluate in making their selection of the appropriate force option? (A): the officer's presence (B): the subject's resistance (C): the officer's force options (D): the subject's tone of voice

(17.3.1) The "Force Continuum" model currently used by TCOLE is the FBI: (A): Tactical Response Array (B): Dynamic Resistance - Response Model (C): Force Ladder Response Model (D): The Classical Continuum

(17.3.2) As it applies to the use of force continuum, ineffective control results when: (A): department policy is not followed (B): the officer's level of force is less than the subject's level of resistance (C): the officer's level of force is unreasonably greater than the subject's level of resistance (D): the subject submits to custody

(18.1- ASP) As a result of high stress levels, ASP baton techniques must be (1) _______ , (2) ___________ , and (3) easily performed. (A): simple, indirect (B): simple, forgiving (C): complex, forgiving (D): complex, indirect

(18.1- ASP) Which of the following is not a part of the Pyramid Concept in ASP Baton training ? (A): Low Center (B): Threat Level (C): Head Over Center (D): Deep Base (E): Wide Base

(18.1.1) In Contact-Cover Discipline, the officer that conducts all business of the encounter is known as the __________ officer. (A): cuffing (B): contact (C): control (D): cover

(18.1.1) Which of the following is not one of the 3 basic concepts of weaponless strategies, as presented in the Mechanics of Arrest Learning Objectives? (A): Self-Control (B): Anticipation (C): Balance (D): Awareness

(18.1.2) All of these are examples of weaponless defense in Mechanics of Arrest, except: (A): touching (B): pepper spray (C): blocks with hands arms and legs (D): hand and foot strikes (E): joint locks

(18.1.4) Which of the following is an environmental factor that can lesson the effectiveness of OC Spray? (A): Temperature (B): Rain (C): Humidity (D): Time of Day

(18.1.4) Which of the following was a landmark case regarding the use of pepper spray on passively resisting subjects? (A): Brown vs Texas (B): Headwaters v Humboldt (C): Graham vs Connor (D): Tennessee vs Garner

(18.2.3) During the arrest procedure, it is important for you to watch, (A): what's going on with your partner (B): your suspect's hands (C): your suspect's eyes (D): your cuffs so you can get them on right

(18.2.3) One of the "advantages" of the rear approach to suspects is ________. (A): may provoke physical resistance (B): surprise (C): loss of surprise (D): communication

(18.2.4) Handcuffs are: (A): Steel wrist locks (B): Temporary restraining devices only (C): Permanent restraining devices (D): All are correct

(19.1.1) The leading case on liability from warning shots involved shots fired by: (A): a police chief at Syracuse University (B): a security guard at Whitenburg University (C): a civilian in Scranton Pennsylvania (D): a police officer employed by San Diego Police Department

(19.2.1) If the finger is on the trigger of a handgun, the startle effect, loss of balance, or exerting maximum force can cause a phenomena known as ___________________ ? (A): extraction reaction (B): contralateral contraction (C): symmetrical condition

(19.2.1) Officer Jones walks into a crime scene and observes a .45 caliber semi-automatic pistol near the rear door on the floor. Remembering his safety lecture in the UT Police Academy, Officer Jones knows this semi-auto firearm is loaded because ___________________________ (A): the hammer is cocked to the rear (B): all guns are always loaded (C): the safety is off and it has been de-cocked (D): the slide of an auto firearm pistol is 1/16 " past the barrel when loaded

(19.2.1) One of the Cardinal Rules of Firearms Safety is : (A): Keep the trigger finger on the trigger as soon as the muzzle clears the holster (B): Never let the muzzle cover anything you are not willing to destroy (C): Be sure of your target before you shoot (D): Most guns are always loaded

(19.2.1) The repeated inserting of a loaded magazine, and chambering of a cartridge in a semiautomatic pistol can cause: (A): dirty ammunition (B): splits of the cartridge case mouth (C): chamber expansion (D): excessivie holster wear

(19.2.2) "When the breeching mechanism is in the proper position for firing" a firearm is said to be in: (A): safety (B): battery (C): malfunction (D): slide stop

(19.2.2) A standard (2 and 3/4 inch) 12-gauge "00" Buck cartridge contains ____ projectiles? (A): 6 (B): 9 (C): 12 (D): 15

(19.2.2) The device in a pump shotgun which moves the shotgun round from the tube magazine into a position between the bolt and chamber is known as the: (A): ramp (B): carrier or lifter (C): hammer (D): action bar

(19.2.2) When an officer qualifies with 90% on a patrol rifle, under TCOLE rules the officer cannot be closer than _______ yards from the target. (A): 5 (B): 10 (C): 15 (D): 25

(19.2.4) The relationship of the front sight to the rear sight on a firearm is the definition of: (A): shot placement (B): sight alignment (C): sight picture (D): muzzle flip

(19.2.4) To perform a TAP-RACK-READY drill, there are three prepatory rules to remember. Which of these is NOT one of them? (A): wrist locked (B): press check firststep (C): point toward target (D): off trigger

(19.3.1) The TCOLE minimum for patrol rifle qualification at 70% includes: a minimum of ____ rounds of ammo, fired from distances beyond ____ yards; and a ________________. (A): 20, 10, function check (B): 30, 50, timed reload (C): 25, 100, timed reload (D): 30, 100, reload

(19.3.2) The TCOLE minimum for handgun qualification includes: a minimum of ____ rounds of ammo, fired from distances of point blank to ___ yards; with 20 rounds fired at or beyond ___ yards; and a ________________. (A): 25 - 5 - 15 - tap-rack-ready drill (B): 50 - 15 - 7 - timed reload (C): 25 - 25 - 10 - kneeling position (D): 30 - 7 - 15 - draw from the holster

(19.3.2) The TCOLE minimum for shotgun qualification includes: a minimum of 70 % score with ____ rounds of ammo, fired from a distance of ___ yards or more. (A): 10, 25 (B): 5, 15 (C): 7, 7 (D): 3, 10

(19.3.2) The minimum standards for the annual firearms proficiency course of fire for fully automatic weapons is a minimum of _____ rounds of ammunition fired at ranges from seven to ______ yards, including at least one time reload, with at least ______ rounds fired in full automatic (shot burst of two or three rounds), and at least five rounds fired semi-automatic, if possible with the weapon.(Rule 217.21) (A): 50, 25, 30 (B): 30, 10, 25 (C): 25, 25, 15, (D): 50, 10, 30

(2.1.1) In early American history, the northeastern states generally had the "watch and ward" system of policing. "Watch" was ____________policing , while "ward" was ____________ policing. (A): Evening, Midmorning (B): Nighttime, Daytime (C): Weekends, Monday through Friday (D): Daytime, Nighttime

(2.1.1.) The Metropolitan Police Department in England was reorganized by ______________ in 1829. Its structure was patterned after the __________________. (A): August Vollmer - United States military (B): Sir Robert Peel - British military (C): John Reynolds Hughes - Berlin Police Department (D): Homer Garrison - Roman Legionnaires

(2.1.3) The first peace officers in Texas, were Texas Rangers because: (A): there was not a crime problem in the early years of Texas government (B): Texas was a large territory without large cities or urban areas that could support local law enforcement (C): the Texas Constitution forbid the creation of local law enforcement (D): crimes were violations of state law that only state officers could enforce

(2.1.4) TCOLE Rules require that individuals appointed as peace officers shall complete at least _____ hours of continuing education training and must complete a training and education program that covers recent changes to the laws of this state and of the United States pertaining to peace officers every ____ month unit of a training cycle. (TCOLE Rule 217.11(a)) (A): 40, 48 (B): 40, 24 (C): 24, 40 (D): 60, 40

(2.1.4) The ________________ is the statutory authority for the Commission (TCOLE) to establish rules that law enforcement agencies and officers must follow. (A): Code of Criminal Procedure (B): Occupations Code (C): Government Code (D): Health and Safety Code

(2.1.4) The minimum passing percentage shall be at least _____ for each firearm qualification unless otherwise stated in TCOLE Rules. (Rule 217.21) (A): 50 (B): 70 (C): 75 (D): 90

(2.1.4) When a person that holds a TCOLE peace officer license is arrested, charged, or indicted for a criminal offense above the grade of Class C misdemeanor or for any Class C misdemeanor involving the duties and responsibilities of his office for family violence, that person must report such fact to the commission in writing within ______ days. (Rule 211.27) (A): 10 (B): 30 (C): 45 (D): 60 (E): 90

(2.1.4) Which one of the following is a minimum standard to be permanently licensed as a peace officer in Texas? (TCOLE Rule 217.1) (A): Must be a Texas resident for at least 6 months. (B): Must be a U.S. Citizen (C): Has never been convicted of a Class "C" Misdemeanor (D): Must have at least Bachelor's degree in criminal justice

(2.1.5.) Which of the following is part of the Traditional Police Service Model? (A): We make it happen (B): Reactive policing (C): Police, government and citizens recognize the value of sharing information (D): Government agencies are active partners in solving community problems

(2.1.6.) In a community policing model, what determines the success of police? (A): detection and arrest rates (B): reduction in citizen fear (C): response times (D): organizational values

(9.2.1) On the CR3 Report Form, the term "road" means the: (A): roadway portion of a trafficway (B): trafficway or street (C): private property adjacent to a highway (D): improved shoulder

(20.1.1) The "Good Samaritan Act" provides that: (A): You are never liable for actions if you render emergency first aid to someone (B): You are not liable for actions if you use ordinary care in following accepted and recognized emergency care procedures. (C): You are always liable for your actions if you have provided accepted and recognized emergency care procedures. (D): None of the above. (CPRC Art. 74.001)

(20.1.8) A person is exposed for a long time to very hot and humid weather. She has high body temperature, red skin, changes in consciousness, rapid & weak pulse and very hot & dry skin. You should suspect: (A): heat exhaustion (B): heat stroke (C): heat syncope (D): heat cramps

(21.1.4) All of the following are methods for assigning radio call numbers, Except: (A): officer (B): date & time (C): beat assignment (D): vehicle assignment (E): radio

(22.3.3) According to the BPOC, this is one of the most frequent contributors to law enforcement collisions. (A): Peer pressure (B): Backing (C): Traction (D): Capability

(23.1.1) Arranging the Environment for effective communication, involves: (A): placing your body so you can observe (B): eliminating distractions (C): staying within 3 feet of the person (D): facing someone squarely

(23.1.1) With regard to distancing in proxemics, the social distance in communication is between: (A): 6" and 12" (B): 5 feet and 10 feet (C): 3 feet and 5 feet (D): More than 10 feet

(23.5.4) To empathize with someone in interpersonal communication means to: (A): Reason with another individual. (B): Understand the other person's state of mind. (C): Comprehend communication strategies. (D): Involve the communication model.

(24.1.1) According to Texas CCP Art. 6.07, the conduct of peace officers, in preventing offenses about to be committed in their presence, or within their view, is to be regulated by ______________? (A): current court decisions that mandate specific police behavior. (B): the same rules as are prescribed to the action of the person about to be injured. (C): the knowledge and experience of the officer in question. (D): TCOLE rules and regulations.

(24.1.1) Of the eight specific patrol objectives mentioned, only one of the following incorporates all the elements of the police mission. Identify the correct patrol objective. (A): The collection and preservation of evidence (B): To preserve the peace through police service and protection (C): To provide testimonial evidence in court (D): To provide assistance and information to the public

(24.1.2) All of the following relate to methods of Mental and Physical preparation for duty except? (A): Shift orientation (B): Sectorization (C): Familiarization with known offenders (D): Equipment readiness check (E): Beat characteristics

(24.1.3) "_____________" is defined as any condition (such as darkness) or object (like a bush) that hides a person from view but does not necessarily provide protection from an assailant's firepower. (A): Cover (B): Concealment (C): Silhouetting (D): None of the above.

(24.2.1) Telltale noises can be generated by all of the following, except: (A): letting the car door slam shut. (B): silhouetting. (C): safety belts, if you pop the buckle. (D): equipment such as keys, whistles, baton, and handcuffs.

(24.3.1) The best way to cover a patrol beat is to always be _________________________. (A): aggressive, always moving (B): unsystematic (C): doubling back (D): clandestine

(24.3.1) Which of the following is not included in the category of low-visibility or surveillance patrol? (A): Random motorized patrol in unmarked police cars, city maintenance vehicles, or taxicabs. (B): While on routine patrol the marked police patrol frequently drives by a local convenience store where several armed robberies have taken place in the past two months. (C): Undercover/plainclothes officers are placed in a convenience-store back room to respond to a growing episode of armed robberies. (D): A police officer in a marked police unit sets up a surveillance of a convenience store by parking the unit across the street from the store in a darkened area and turning off the vehicle's lights.

(24.3.3) Which of the following IS NOT an advantage of foot patrol? (A): more person to person contact (B): faster response time (C): ability to sneak up on situations (D): get to know your beat better

(24.3.4) Which of the following is not true concerning one-officer patrol? (A): an officer alone develops self-reliance (B): one-officer alone takes more chances (C): preventive enforcement is doubled by having twice as many vehicles on patrol (D): one-officer devotes more attention to patrol functions

(24.3.5) Which of the following senses has little or no application in police work and could be extremely dangerous to the officer? (A): sight (B): taste (C): touch (D): smell

(24.5.12) Which crowd control formation is used to prevent passage of persons? (A): wedge (B): line (C): echelon (D): box

(24.5.4) What is the minimum number of officers necessary to safely search a building? (A): 1 (B): 2 (C): 3 (D): 4

(24.5.4) When searching a building for a burglar, which of the following [b]IS NOT[/b] a recommended procedure? (A): at least two officers enter the building (B): turn your flashlight on and leave it on so you can see as much of the room as possible (C): leave one officer at the entry point (D): take your time

(24.5.5) The three main phases or effects of an explosion are [1] incendiary thermal effect, [2] blast pressure waves and [3] __________________. (A): implosion (B): fragmentation (C): electrical shock (D): negative integration

(24.5.5) What is the most commonly used IED in the United States? (A): homemade peroxide explosvie (B): pipe bomb (C): stolen dynamite (D): stolen military ordinance

(24.5.5) Which of the following is the most common of IEDs ? (A): Molatav Cocktails (B): Pipe bombs (C): Dynamite wrapped with nails (D): packages delivered through USPS

(8 - 19.01) An offense not described as a criminal homicide under the Penal Code is: (A): murder (B): criminally negligent homicide (C): manslaughter (D): vehicular homicide

(24.5.5) Who are the best people to conduct a search for an explosive device after a bomb threat? (A): The patrol officers who respond to the call (B): Person who is most familiar with the area (C): The Bomb Squad (D): Reporters and other media personnel who show up at the scene

(24.5.5) Who are the best people to conduct a search for an explosive device after a bomb threat? (A): the patrol offiers who respond to the call (B): employees who work at the location (C): the bomb squad (D): reporters and other media personnel who show up at the scene

(24.6.1) Crowds are classified into four broad types. Which of the following is not one of the classifications? (A): casual (B): possessive (C): aggressive (D): cohesive

(24.6.1) Which crowd is common at sporting events ? (A): casual (B): cohesive (C): expressive (D): possessive (E): aggressive

(24.7.2) Probable negative consequence of ineffective public service results in (A): reduction in citizen complaints. (B): increased citizen complaints. (C): increased trust and respect. (D): support for budgetary requests.

(24.8.1) Crime prevention is the ______________________________ of a crime risk. (A): anticipation, realization and the instigation (B): anticipation, recognition and the appraisal (C): anticipation, recognition and the elimination (D): approximation, evaluation, and the estimation

(24.8.1) The BPOC defines"_______________" as a proactive anticipation, recognition, and appraisal of a crime risk and the action needed to remove or reduce that risk. (A): enforcement (B): crime prevention (C): criminological replevin (D): educated reduction

(24.8.1) The definition of crime prevention adopted in the United States is: (A): The anticipation, the recognition and initiation of action to remove or reduce a crime risk. (B): The anticipation, the recognition and the appraisal of a crime risk and the initiation of action to remove or reduce it. (C): The anticipation, the recognition and the appraisal of a crime risk and the initiation of action to completely eliminate it. (D): The recognition and appraisal of a crime risk and steps taken to appraise the property owner of the crimes anticipate(D):

(26.1.2) Which of the following were specifically listed as being one of the "common characteristics of family violence offenders?" (A): The majority of family violence is female-on male; so "offender" in this context generally refers to a female offender. (B): The majority of family violence is male-on-female; so "offender" in this context generally refers to a male offender (C): Usually feels very good about himself/herself and has high self-esteem. (D): Generally acts the same in public as he/she does at home.

(26.1.3) The "cycle of violence" includes a tension-building phase, an acute battering phase, and a _______________ phase. (A): Follow-up therapy. (B): Remorseful or "loving" (C): Recrimination (D): Retribution

(26.1.3) The _____________ Phase of the cycle of family violence is characterized by promises on the part of the batterer never to hit again. (A): "Tension-building" (B): "Honeymoon" (C): "Violent -Incident" (D): "Separation"

(26.2.1) A person commits the crime of "____________" if the person intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly causes bodily injury to another, including the person's spouse. (A): Family violence (B): Assault (C): Aggravated assault (D): None of the above

(26.3.3) To issue a temporary restraining order or attachment of a child without a full adversary hearing, the court must determine that there is no time and there is: (A): A danger to the physical health or safety of the child. (B): An immediate danger to the physical health or safety of the child. (C): Probable cause to believe that a danger exists. (D): A danger to the mental health of the child.

(26.4.1) When responding to a reported family violence incident, officers should: (A): Arrive at the scene with lights and siren going to put a stop to the violence. (B): Approach the scene as one of potential high risk, being observant for facts and circumstances which might support probable cause for an arrest. (C): Be aggressive and authoritarian as possible, always using strong force to let parties know who's in charge. (D): Always leave immediately if someone meets officers at the front door and says that it was just a family argument.

(27.1.1.2) What is the Community Mind Set? (A): All the mentally ill should be locked up. (B): Law enforcement should respond differently to individuals in mental health crisis. (C): Law enforcement should respond the same as with criminals to individuals in mental health crisis. (D): Law enforcement should not respond differently to individuals in mental health crisis.

(27.1.1.4) The number one strategy for a police officer dealing with a person experiencing a mental health crisis is ________________ . (A): quick movements (B): safety (C): language (D): patience

(27.1.1.4) What is the number one strategy or emphasis of CIT Training? (A): using force (B): officer safety (C): being authoritative (D): tactical movement

(27.1.6.2) When dealing with person who is high on PCP, you should? (A): take charge until immediate threat is controlled; neutralize threats to safety (B): use as many officers as possible; physical control will have to be used and this person will have super-human strength (C): maintain control of the encounter; advise that all external controls will be used to resolve the situation, if necessary (D): maneuver the subject into a "safe area; avoid kitchens and bathrooms

(27.1.8.3) Which of the following IS NOT a common myth of mental illness? (NOT A GOOD QUESTION DO NOT USE 5/2018) (A): mental illness does not affect the average person (B): mental illness is an indication of a strong character (C): mentally ill people are also mentally retarded (D): if you have mental illness you are "crazy" all of the time

(27.2.2) What are the four (4) major mental illnesses covered in the CIT course? (A): Mood - Abnormal - Developmental - Professional (B): Developmental - Mood - Personality - Psychosis (C): Professional - Mood - Abnormal - Developmental (D): Behavior - Abnormal - Developmental - Professional

(28.1.1) The Texas Peace Officer, Chapter 28. "______________" is a situation in which hazardous material is or may be released into the environment. (A): Toxic event (B): Hazardous materials event (C): DOSE event (D): None of the above are correct

(28.1.2) A human _____________ is a "disease-causing organism". (A): toxin (B): pathogen (C): agent (D): irritant

(28.1.6) The first responder should immediately ___________________ when confronted with an incident that may involve hazardous materials. (A): call the news media (B): secure the area (C): get downwind to see if anything can be smelled (D): all of the above

(28.1.6) When a hazardous material has been spilled, it is usually best to: (A): wash the spill away using fire hoses. (B): contain the material if this can be done safely. (C): attempt to ignite the spill or material. (D): all of these are the best way to handle the spill.

(28.5.1) In a HAZMAT incident; 1 a unified approach, 2 standardized command structure, 3 mutual aid and 4 resource management are benefits of: (A): NFPA - National Fire Protection Assoc. (B): NIMS - National Incident Management System (C): OSHA - Occupational Safety and Health Admn. (D): SRSP - Special Response for Safety Planners

(29.1.1) "Conditions that must occur for an act to be called a specific kind of crime;" are referred to as: (A): modus operandi (B): elements of a crime (C): evidence (D): circumstantial evidence

(29.1.1) "_______________" is the process of legally gathering evidence of a crime that has been or is being committed. (A): Corpus delicti (B): Criminal Investigation (C): Field Identification (D): None of the above

(29.1.2) The most common fingerprint pattern is a: (A): arch (B): loop (C): whorl (D): crescent

(29.1.4) The "______________" of a crime is the body, foundation or substance of the crime, which ordinarily includes two elements: the act and the criminal agency of the act. (Literally "the body of the crime.") (A): Mandamus (B): Corpus delicti (C): Mala prohibitum (D): Res gestae

(29.1.5) The term "____________" includes all means by which an alleged fact is established or disproved. (A): Investigation (B): Evidence (C): Autopsy (D): Trial

(29.1.5) The term "____________" includes all means by which an alleged fact is established or disproved: (A): Investigation (B): Evidence (C): Autopsy (D): Trial

(29.1.6) Officers need to collect sufficient evidence of an accused's guilt so that jurors CAN say they feel an abiding conviction, ________________ , of the truth of the charge. (A): without a shadow of a doubt (B): to a moral certainty (C): beyond a possibility (D): within reason

(29.10.4) "After the cross examination, the further questioning of a witness by the lawyer who first called the witness to the stand;" is the definition of a ______________ examination. (A): recross (B): redirect (C): repetitive (D): refresher

(29.10.4) A defense lawyer objected to a question asked by the prosecutor. The judge sustained the objection. The witness ___________________________________________________ . (A): May answer the question (B): May not answer the question (C): Must leave the witness stand (D): Will ask the defense to repeat the question

(29.2.10) "____________" is defined as an individual who has fantasies, urges or behaviors that involve illegal sexual activity with a prepubescent child or children (generally 13 years or younger.) (A): Power rapist (B): Pedophile (C): Sadistic rapist (D): None of the above

(29.2.10) "_____________" A criminal offense against a person or property which is motivated, in whole or in part, by the offender's bias against race, religion, ethnic/national origin group, or sexual orientation group. (A): Race crime (B): Hate crime (C): Prejudice (D): None of the above

(29.2.4) A "__________________" is described as the altering of a vehicle's identity by placing the serial number of a total loss car (total loss vehicles are cheaper to buy and still get a title) onto a stolen car. (A): Fraudulent Identity Plate. (B): Salvage Switch. (C): Illegally Salvaged Vehicle. (D): None of the above.

(29.5.1) Luminol chemically reacts with _____________ causing a blue-white luminescence. (A): urine (B): blood (C): saliva (D): semen

(29.6.2) Which of the following statements is "true" concerning procedures for identifying a victim in case of serious injury or death? (A): Officers may locate any source of identification such as driver's license, military ID, social security card, tattoos, amputations or unusual scars, but only after obtaining a search warrant. (B): If person is alive and conscious, obtain identification and information about next of kin. (C): Even though a person is injured, they should never be moved until a crime scene sketch and photographs have been complete(D): (D): If person is alive and conscious, obtain identification and information about next of kin, but remember you must first give them the Miranda warnings.

(29.7.15) A plastic bag is the best evidence container for placing objects which are damp or wet. (A): True (B): False

(29.7.15) All of the following help establish admissibility of evidence found at a crime scene, EXCEPT: (A): the item must be properly identified (B): the item must be submitted to a laboratory for examination (C): the item must be properly preserved to eliminate destruction or contamination (D): the item must show a relationship to the crime

(29.7.15) The lifting of latent fingerprints is usually accomplished by use of: (A): hinged lifters (B): transparent lifting tape (C): black electrician's tape (D): white adhesive tape

(29.7.15) When preparing a blood-soaked article of clothing for submission to a laboratory, it should first be dried. It is recommended an iron or hair dryer be used to help speed up the drying process. (A): True (B): False

(3.1.2) "An occupation or vocation requiring advanced training in the liberal arts or sciences, and usually involving more mental than manual work" is a definition of: (A): position (B): profession (C): expert (D): career

(3.1.2) Which of the following was specifically listed by TCOLE as being an "advantage" of the "professional model for law enforcement?" (A): Unethical Conduct (B): Public or client better served. (C): Cost of training and development. (D): Very limited problem solving.

(3.2.2) According to the BPOC, which of the following is a true statement? (A): Ethical people are born, not made. (B): Ethical people are made, not born. (C): Ethical problems are always clearly seen. (D): Peer pressures do not work for or against ethical behavior.

(3.2.2) Identifying guidelines that govern discretion, emphasizing the need for complete honesty, and minimizing rules are examples of: (A): standard rules (B): value-based ethics (C): formal accountability (D): compliance and control

(4.1.2) The writ of habeas corpus: (A): is a right to have an examining trial. (B): requires one to produce a person and show why a person is held (C): can be issued by any magistrate (D): allows the person to post bail

(4.1.2) The writ that is filed that seeks release from unlawful detention is called__________________. (A): writ of mandamus (B): writ of habeas corpus (C): writ of corpus delicti (D): writ of duces tecum

(4.1.3) "A law that imposes punishment for an act that was not punishable at the time the act was committed or imposes additional punishment." Which of the following best describes this statement ? (A): Bills of Attainder (B): Ex Post Facto Laws (C): Treason (D): Writ of Habeous Corpus

(4.1.3) Article 2 of the U.S. Constitution (A): Establishes the U.S. Supreme Court. (B): Provides procedure for election of President and Vice-president of the U.S. (C): Establishes the fact that all trials shall be in the state where the crime was committed. (D): Defines the only crime in the U.S. Constitution: treason.

(4.1.3) Article 3 of the U.S. Constitution (A): Establishes the authority of the executive branch of government. (B): Provides for the establishment and jurisdiction of the U.S. Supreme Court. (C): Provides procedure for election of President and Vice-President of the U.S.A.: (D): None of the above

(4.1.4) Which of the following court cases deals with freedom of speech? (A): Weeks v. United States (B): Duran v. City of Douglas AZ. (C): Tennessee v. Garner (D): Chimel v. California

(4.1.5) An area of increasing interest in recent history is under what circumstances police are allowed to use deadly force in order to arrest a fleeing felon. In the U.S. Supreme Court case "_______________", the Court announced that using deadly force to apprehend a suspect constitutes a "seizure" and is therefore protected under the Fourth Amendment. (A): Mapp v. Ohio (B): Tennessee v. Garner (C): Gates v. Illinois (D): Carroll v. U.S. (E): Graham v. Conner

(4.1.5) The Fourth Amendment to the Constitution: (A): Establishes the separation of powers (B): Protects citizens from unreasonable searches and seizures (C): Protects citizens from being compelled to be witnesses against themselves (D): Provides for the Writ of habeas Corpus

(4.1.5) The right to be free from unreasonable searches and seizures is found in the (A): First Amendment. (B): Fourth Amendment. (C): Fifth Amendment. (D): Sixth Amendment. (E): Eighth Amendment

(4.1.6) Right to indictment for a capital or otherwise infamous crime is found in Amendment # ________. (A): Four (B): Five (C): Six (D): Eight

(4.1.6) The right to be free from double jeopardy is found in the (A): Fourth Amendment. (B): Fifth Amendment. (C): Sixth Amendment. (D): Eighth Amendment.

(4.3.4) A person is charged with "speeding", a Class C Misdemeanor. Which of the following Texas court's has original jurisdiction to try this case? (A): District (B): Justice of the Peace (C): County (D): None of the above

(4.3.4) The highest Texas court to hear appeals of criminal cases is (A): District Court (B): Court of Criminal Appeals (C): Texas Supreme Court (D): Courts of Appeals

(5.1.1) "___________" refers to shared culture and background. Members of one of these groups usually have a common ancestry and generally share language, religion, and other cultural patterns. (A): Race (B): Ethnicity (C): Ethnocentrism (D): Culture

(5.1.1) Finding someone else to blame for one's own problems and misfortunes is known as: (A): Surrogating. (B): Scape-goating. (C): Projectionism. (D): Buck-passing.

(5.1.1)"________________" is the act of regarding one's culture as the center of the universe and hence as the basis for all comparisons with other cultures. (A): Ethnics (B): Ethnocentrism (C): Culture (D): Prejudice

(6.1.1) The Code of Criminal Procedure seeks (1) to adopt measures for preventing the commission of crime (2) to exclude the offender from all hope of escape (3) to insure a trial with as little delay as is consistent with ends of justice (4) to insure a fair and partial trial. (A): This statement is true. (B): This statement is false.

(6.2.2) A railroad peace officer _______ issue a traffic citation. (A): may legally (B): may not (C): shall (D): must

(6.2.2) Railroad peace officers are appointed by the:_______________. (A): Police Chief in the city/town where the main railway is located. (B): Director of the Department of Public Safety. (C): Attorney General of the State of Texas. (D): CEO of the Railroad.

(6.2.2) Which of the following is listed as a Texas peace officer in the CCP? (A): FBI Agent (B): Investigators employed by the Texas Racing Commission (C): Texas State Parole Officer (D): Justice of the Peace

(6.2.2) Which of the following would not be a peace officer as defined by Article 2, Code of Criminal Procedure? (A): Adjunct Police Officers (B): Inspectors of the U.S. Postal Service (C): Rangers and Officers of the Department of Public Safety (D): Officers commissioned by the governing board of a Metropolitan Rapid Transit Authority

(8 - 22.01) Adam recklessly causes physical contact with Bob. If Bob regards the contact as offensive or provocative it is an assault according to the Texas Penal Code. (A): This statement is True. (B): This statement is False.

(6.2.3) According to the CCP, whenever a peace officer meets with resistance in discharging any duty imposed on him by law, he _______ summon a sufficient number of citizens of his county to overcome the resistance. (A): may (B): shall (C): can (D): will (E): shall not

(6.2.3) According to the CCP, whenever a peace officer meets with resistance in discharging any duty imposed on him by the law, he ________ summon a sufficient number of citizens of his county to overcome the resistance. (A): may (B): shall (C): can (D): will

(6.2.3) Which of the following statements in regards to a "sheriff" is true? (A): The sheriff is considered to be the top magistrate in the county. (B): Each sheriff shall be a conservator of the peace in his county. (C): A sheriff is not a peace officer (D): Sheriffs have statewide authority to enforce all traffic laws.

(6.2.4) According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, what is a law enforcement-initiated action that is based on an individual's ethnicity or national origin rather than the individual's behavior? (A): selective enforcement (B): racial profiling (C): cultural bias (D): ethnocentrism

(6.2.4) According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, what is a law enforcemtn-initiated action that is based on an individual's ethnicity or national origin rather than the individual's behavior? (A): Selective Enforecment (B): Racial Profiling (C): Cultural Bias (D): Ethnocentrism

(6.3.2) Criminal appeals from district court (other than cases where defendant is given the death penalty) are appealed directly to the: (A): Court of Criminal Appeals. (B): Courts of Appeals. (C): Texas Supreme Court (D): Fifth Circuit Court of Appeals.

(6.3.3) A conviction for capital murder where the court sentenced the defendant to the death penalty would be appealed directly from the district court to the: (A): The Fifth Circuit Court of Appeals in New Orleans. (B): The Court of Criminal Appeals. (C): The U.S. Supreme Court. (D): The Texas Supreme Court.

(6.3.3) The state court with final appellate jurisdiction in death penalty cases is the: (A): The Texas Supreme Court (B): The Texas Court of Criminal Appeals (C): The Texas Court of Appeals\ (D): The District Court

(6.3.4) District Court in Texas has original jurisdiction for (A): All DWI Cases. (B): Misdemeanor cases involving official misconduct. (C): All misdemeanor cases filed in the county court at law. (D): None of the above

(6.4.1) When an officer is handling a family violence case, he or she must (A): give a written notice to the alleged offender of his or her rights. (B): give a written notice to the alleged victim of his or her rights. (C): call in assistance from family violence experts (D): not make an arrest without a warrant.

(6.4.1) When an officer is handling a family violence case, he or she must: (A): Give a written notice to the alleged offender of his or her rights. (B): Give a written notice to the alleged victim of his or her rights. (C): Call in assistance from family violence experts. (D): Not make an arrest without a warrant.

(6.5.1) If there is no specific limitation listed fro a felony offense in the CCP, Chapter12, the limitation for obtaining an indictment or information would be ______ years. (A): Two (B): Three (C): Five (D): Ten

(6.5.2) The statute of limitations for any misdemeanor is __________________ from the date of the commission of the offense. (A): one year (B): two years (C): three years (D): five years

(6.6.1) A peace officer _______ arrest a suspect if he has probable cause to believe he has violated a protective order under PC 25.07 Or PC 38.112 and it does occur in his presence. (A): may (B): shall (C): will not (D): may never

(6.6.1) A peace officer ________ arrest a suspect if he has probable cause to believe he has violated a protective order under PC 25.07 ([i]Violation of Certain Court Orders or Conditions of Bond in a Family Violence, Sexual Assault or Abuse, Stalking, or Trafficking Case[/i]) and it does occur in his presence. (A): may (B): shall (C): will not (D): may never

(6.6.1) According to 14.04 of the Code of Criminal Procedure: Where it is shown by satisfactory proof to a peace officer, upon the representation of_________________, that a ______________has been committed, and that the offender is_________________ , so that there is no time to ____________ , such peace officer may, without warrant, pursue and arrest the accused. (A): an adult / felony / not present / procure a warrant (B): a credible person / felony / about to escape / procure a warrant (C): a credible person / crime / about to escape / identify the victim (D): a citizen / breach of the peace / not present / procure a warrant

(6.6.1) Any peace officer __________ arrest without warrant persons who the peace officer has probable cause to believe have committed an offense involving a violation of a protective order under PC Section. 25.07 or 38.112, if the offense is not committed in the presence of the officer. (A): shall (B): may (C): may not (D): must always

(6.6.1) Any peace officer may arrest, without warrant: (1) persons found in suspicious places and under circumstances which reasonably show that such persons have been guilty of some felony or breach of the peace, or threaten, or are about to commit some offense against the laws; (2) persons who the peace officer has probable cause to believe have committed an assault resulting in bodily injury to another person and the peace officer has probable cause to believe that there is danger of further bodily injury to that person; or (3) persons who the peace officer has probable cause to believe have committed the offense defined by Section 25.07, Penal Code (violation of Protective Order), if the offense is not committed in the presence of the peace officer. (A): 1 & 2 are true, 3 is false (B): 1 & 2 are true, 3 is true (C): 2 & 3 are true, 1 is false (D): 1 & 3 are true, 2 is false (E): 1,2, and 3 are false

(6.6.2) A person is considered "arrested" when the person has been actually placed under restraint or is _________. (A): lawfully detained (B): taken into custody (C): unlawfully detained (D): stopped and identified

(6.6.2) An arrest in Texas may be made (A): only between sunrise and sunset on Class "C" charges. (B): anytime. (C): you need additional information to correctly answer this question. (D): only during the time specified in a warrant.

(6.6.2) If the true name of the suspect is not known, a warrant for his arrest (A): Cannot be issued. (B): Must contain a reasonable definite description of him. (C): Must have his photography attached. (D): Must be issued by a district judge.

(6.6.2) If the true name of the suspect is not known, a warrant for his arrest (A): cannot be issued (B): must contain a reasonable definite description of him. (C): must have his photograph attached. (D): must be issued by a district judge.

(6.7.1) A subsequent search warrant may be issued pursuant to Subdivision 10 of Article 18.02 CCP to search the same person, place, or thing subjected to a prior search under Subdivision 10 only if the subsequent search warrant is issued by a _____ judge. (A): A County Court (B): A District Court (C): A Municipal Court (D): A Justice Court

(6.7.1) If the facts presented to a magistrate under Article 18.02 of the Code of Criminal Procedure also establish the existence of probable cause that a person has committed some offense under the laws of the state, a search warrant may, in addition, order the __________________________. (A): search of such person (B): arrest of such person (C): habeas corpus of the person (D): surrender of the person's property

(6.7.1) The time allowed for the execution of a search warrant, exclusive of the day of its issuance and the day of its execution is, _____________ whole days if the warrant is issued for a purpose other than to search for and seize specimens from a specific person for DNA analysis and comparison, including blood and saliva samples. (A): two (B): three (C): four (D): no time limit

(6.7.1) Which one of the following satements about search warrants is not true? (A): Search warrants may be directed to fire marshals. (B): Search warrants must be executed within one month of issuance. (C): Peace officers may execute a search warrant even if the owner of the property is not present. (D): Peace officers must complete an inventory of property seized.

(6.8.1) A/an "_____________" is a writ issued by the court or clerk, and directed to "any peace officer of the state of Texas," commanding him to arrest a person accused of an offense and bring him before that court immediately, or on a day at a term stated in the writ. (A): Writ of Habeas Corpus (B): Capias (C): Subpoena (D): Subpoena Duces Tecum

(6.8.1) For a complaint to be sufficient, it must contain: (1) the name of the accused or a reasonably definite description of him,(2) ___________________________________ ,(3) the time and place of the commission of the offense and (4) the signature of the affiant. (A): the address of the complainant and the accused if it is known (B): that the accused has committed some offense against the laws of this state (C): that the offense occurred within the affiant's county of residence (D): the section number of the penal offense alleged

(6.8.1) Who signs an indictment accusing a person of a crime? (A): The district attorney (B): The foreman of the grand jury (C): The foreman of the petit jury (D): The magistrate of the court supervising the grand jury

(6.8.2) If a witness has in his possession any instrument of writing or other thing desired as evidence, the following instrument may specify such evidence and direct that the witness bring the same with him and produce it in court; (A): Subpoena of Possession (B): Subpoena Duces Tecum (C): Capias (D): Warrant of Arrest

(6.9.1) "______________" means an investigation into the cause and circumstances of the death of a person, and a determination, made with or without a formal court hearing, as to whether the death was caused by an unlawful act or omission. (A): Inquiry (B): Inquest (C): Examination (D): Preliminary hearing

(6.9.1) An investigation into the cause and circumstances of the death of a person with a determination as to whether the death was caused by an unlawful act or omission is called (A): Habeas Corpus. (B): an Inquest. (C): an inquisition. (D): an autopsy.

(6.9.1) The penalty for the offense "Hindering an Inquest" is (A): Class "C" Misdemeanor (B): Class "B" Misdemeanor (C): Class "A" Misdemeanor (D): State Jail Felony

(6.9.1) ___________________ means a post mortem axaminationof the body of a person, including X-rays and an examination of the internal organs and structures after dissection, to determine the cause of death or the nature of any pathological changes that may have contributed to the death. (A): Inquest (B): Autopsy (C): Biopsy (D): Post Mortem Lividity

(7.1.1) " _____________" means under arrest by a peace officer or under restraint by a public servant pursuant to an order of a court of this state or another state of the United States. (A): Restraint (B): Custody (C): Imprisoned (D): Complaint

(7.1.1) By "____________" is meant the kind of control which one person exercises over another, not to confine him within certain limits, but to subject him to the general authority and power of the person claiming such right. (A): Arrest (B): Restraint (C): Temporary detention (D): Commitment

(7.1.12) During the execution of a search warrant issued to search for a stolen computer, you find some marijuana. This discovery authorizes you to search for more marijuana. (A): This statement is true. (B): This statement is false.

(7.1.12) The level of proof required to obtain a search warrant is: (A): reasonable belief. (B): probable cause. (C): preponderance of evidence. (D): clear and convincing evidence. (E): beyond a reasonable doubt.

(7.1.12.) How long is a search warrant valid? (A): Until it is served (B): Three days, not counting the day of issuance nor the day of execution. (C): Seven days, not counting the day of issuance nor the day of execution. (D): Twenty-four hours.

(7.1.13) Chimel v. California involved searches of: (A): abandoned property. (B): the arm's-reach area near an arrestee. (C): automobile glove compartments. (D): school lockers.

(7.1.13) During a "Carroll Rule" search looking for marijuana, officers are not allowed to open and search secured containers, such as boxes which have been taped shut. (A): This statement is True. (B): This statement is False.

(7.1.13) When conducting searches incidental to custodial arrests, what are you looking for? (A): weapons, and only evidence connected to the crime for which you are arresting (B): weapons, and evidence of any crime (C): fruits and tools of criminal activity only (D): weapons, and instruments of escape only

(7.1.14) The "poisonous fruit doctrine" is: (A): a type of tort action (B): also called the Exclusionary Rule (C): a section 1983 action (D): a type of vicarious liability

(7.1.14) The exclusionary rule prohibits unlawfully seized evidence from being used in a court of law. The rule that applies this to the States developed from the U.S. Supreme Court case (A): Weeks v US (B): Mapp v Ohio (C): Escobedo v Illinois (D): Wong Sun v US (E): Carroll v US

(7.1.2) In ____________ v. ______________ the U.S Supreme Court said, "In the absence of other effective measures the following procedures to safeguard the Fifth Amendment privilege must be observed: The person in custody must, prior to interrogation, be clearly informed that he has the right to remain silent, and that anything he says will be used against him in court; he must be clearly informed that he has the right to consult with a lawyer and to have the lawyer with him during interrogation, and that, if he is indigent, a lawyer will be appointed to represent him." (A): Terry v. Ohio (B): Miranda v. Arizona (C): U.S. v. Mendenhall (D): Ohio v. Mapp

(7.1.3) Who may arrest an offender without a warrant for any offense committed within his presence or within his view? (A): magistrate (B): peace officer (C): district attorney (D): private citizen

(7.1.5) An officer may "break down the door" to serve: (A): a felony arrest warrant (B): a felony arrest warrant if refused admittance after giving notice of his or her authority and purpose (C): a misdemeanor arrest warrant if refused admittance after giving notice of his or her authority and purpose (D): a peace officer may never "break down the door" to serve a warrant

(7.1.7) An illegal arrest violates which amendment to the US Constitution? (A): 1st Amendment (B): 4th Amendment (C): 5th Amendment (D): 6th Amendment

(7.1.7) The information used by a police officer to form probable cause for an arrest must be: (A): included within the complaint (B): reasonably trustworthy (C): personally observed by the arresting officer (D): verified by another witness

(7.1.7) To arrest with Probable Cause, an officer must believe the elements of some statutory offense have been committed, and believe: (A): the crime is punishable by confinement or imprisonment (B): the particular person committed the crime (C): proof exists to eliminate other rational conclusions (D): the particular person demonstrated intent by his actions

(7.1.8) A detention based on less than _____________ is illegal. (A): probable cause (B): reasonable suspicion (C): arrest authority (D): Miranda warnings

(7.1.8) A temporary detention is best described as: (A): the arrest of an individual based on a reasonable suspicion of criminal activity (B): detention of an individual based on a reasonable suspicion of criminal activity (C): the holding of an individual for no more than 72 hours for investigatory purposes (D): the taking into custody of an individual on a temporary basis

(7.1.8) The 3-Way Test for detention involves: (A): elements-person-authority (B): activity-person-crime (C): belief-person-authority (D): suspicion-person-reasonableness

(7.1.8) To justify the length of time an officer detains a person, the officer must be __________ in his efforts to investigate the situation. (A): aggressive (B): diligent (C): sincere (D): successful

(7.1.8) Which of the following is an element required for temporary detention? (A): previous detention(s) (B): some indication of suspicious activity that is related to a specific offense (C): proof that an offense has occurred (D): probable cause

(8 - 1.07) According to the Penal Code, a suspect is someone whose _________ is the issue in a criminal action. (A): modus operandi (B): criminal responsibility (C): intent (D): defense

(8 - 1.07) According to the Penal Code, an act and the accompanying mental state is the definition of _____________ . (A): Element of an offense (B): Conduct (C): Coercion (D): Intentionally

(8 - 1.07) According to the Penal Code, which of the following is NOT specifically listed as part of the "element of an offense"? (A): forbidden conduct (B): admission of guilt (C): required culpability (D): any required result

(8 - 1.08) No governmental subdivision may enact a law that makes any conduct covered by the Penal Code an offense subject to a criminal penalty. This is called __________ in the Penal Code. (A): Presumption (B): Preemption (C): Predestination (D): Prestatement

(8 - 12.22) If an individual is adjudged guilty of a _______ they shall be punished by a $2000 fine and/or confinement in jail for a term not to exceed 180 days. (A): Class C Misdemeanor (B): Class B Misdemeanor (C): Class A Misdemeanor (D): State Jail Felony

(8 - 12.32) According to the Penal Code, imprisonment for life, or imprisonment from 5 to 99 years, best describes what classification of offense? (A): Capital Felony (B): First Degree Felony (C): Second Degree Felony (D): State Jail Felony

(8 - 15.01) Title four in the penal code deals with "inchoate" offenses. Inchoate most nearly means; (A): violent crimes (B): begun but not completed (C): felony offenses (D): accidental offenses

(8 - 15.02) According to the Penal Code, Criminal Conspiracy requires an agreement between at least _____ people. (A): one (B): two (C): three (D): four

(8 - 15.02) Adam and Eve agreed to commit an aggravated robbery of a Texaco grocery store. Without Adam's knowledge, Eve burglarized a home, and took a pistol to use in the robbery. Eve was arrested leaving the burglary scene and confessed to police. Which of the following is true? (A): Adam and Eve can be charged with Aggravated Robbery (B): Adam can be charged with Conspiracy to Commit Aggravated Robbery (C): Eve can be charged with Attempted Aggravated Robbery (D): Adam can be charged with Burglary of a Residence

(8 - 16.01) Unlawful Use of a Criminal Instrument requires the possession of a criminal instrument with: (A): knowledge it could be used in a crime (B): intent to use it in a crime (C): intent to deliver it to another (D): knowledge of how to use it

(8 - 19.01) Criminal homicide lists which of the following culpable mental states in causing the death of a person according to the Penal Code ? (A): Intentionally and Knowingly (B): Intentionally, Knowingly, Recklessly, Criminal Negligence (C): Intentionally (D): Only Intentionally when not mitigated with adequate cause or passion

(8 - 19.02) Frank places a bomb in Bob's car with the intent to kill Bob. Bob's wife accidentally sets off the bomb when moving the car and is killed. Frank is guilty of: (A): manslaughter (B): murder (C): homicide (D): capital murder

(8 - 19.03) According to the Penal Code, it is capital murder to intentionally kill a peace officer provided the peace officer is _____________________________________ . (A): in uniform (B): acting in lawful discharge of an official duty (C): attempting to make a felony arrest (D): attemting to make any arrest

(8 - 2.01) According to the Penal Code, all persons are presumed to be innocent, and no person may be convicted of a criminal offense unless each element of the offense is proven ____________. (A): by a preponderance of the evidence (B): beyond a reasonable doubt (C): beyond all doubt (D): to a moral certainty

(8 - 2.01) All persons are presumed innocent and no person may be convicted of an offense unless each element of the offense is proved beyond: (A): suspicion (B): reasonable doubt (C): a doubt (D): belief

(8 - 2.01) All persons are presumed to be innocent: (A): unless already confined for another offense (B): until each element of the offense is proven beyond a reasonable doubt (C): until the conviction is legally termed "Final" (D): unless they have made a written confession to the police

(8 - 2.02) Of the following, which one must the prosecuting attorney negate the existence of in an accusation charging someone with an offense? (A): Mistake of Law (B): Exception (C): Defense (D): Affirmative Defense

(8 - 2.02) Which of the following statements is true? (A): The prosecuting attorney is not required to negate the existence of an exception in the accusation charging commission of the offense and prove beyond a reasonable doubt that the defendant or defendant's conduct does not fall within the exception. (B): The prosecuting attorney must negate the existence of an exception in the accusation charging commission of the offense and prove beyond a reasonable doubt that the defendant or defendant's conduct does not fall within the exception. (C): The prosecuting attorney must negate the existence of an affirmative defense in the accusation charging commission of the offense and prove beyond a reasonable doubt that the defendant or defendant's conduct does not fall within the defense. (D): None of the above.

(8 - 20.03) A person commits "____________" if he intentionally or knowingly abducts another person. (A): unlawful restraint (B): kidnapping (C): aggravated kidnapping (D): unlawful transport

(8 - 20.04) An individual abducts another person for ransom, but lets the person go alive an unhurt. What is the most serious crime that has occurred? (A): Kidnapping (B): Aggravated Kidnapping (C): Unlawful Restraint (D): Abduction

(8 - 20.04) Frank Defelon intentionally abducted Sally Stewart and then called her husband and demanded money. Defelon is guilty of the offense of: (A): kidnapping (B): aggravated kidnapping (C): abduction (D): false imprisonment

(8 - 21.01) Under Penal Code 21.01, sexual contact involves the touching of the _________________ of another person with the intent to arouse or gratify the sexual desire of any person. (A): mouth, anus, breast (B): anus, breast, genitals (C): anus, genitals, mouth (D): buttocks, breast, genitals

(8 - 21.06) Which of the following offenses was declared unconstitutional by Lawrence v. Texas? (A): Destruction of a Flag (B): Homosexual Conduct (C): Hoax Bombs (D): Theft of Telecommunications Services

(8 - 21.07) Engaging in an act of sexual intercourse in a public place or in public view is: (A): no offense (B): public lewdness (C): indecent exposure (D): deviate sexual intercourse

(8 - 21.08) A person commits "_____________" if he exposes his anus or any part of his genitals with intent to arouse or gratify the sexual desire of any person, and he is reckless about whether another is present who will be offended or alarmed by his act. (A): Public Lewdness (B): Indecent Exposure (C): Unlawful Indecency (D): None of the above

(8 - 21.08) According to the Penal Code, a person who exposes any part of his/her genitals in a public or private place and becomes sexually gratified by this may be guilty of _______________________ . (A): Disorderly Conduct (B): Indecent Exposure (C): Assault by contact (D): Criminal Attempt

(8 - 21.08) To commit the offense of Indecent Exposure PC 21.08, actors must expose their anus or genitals: . (A): in a public place (B): with intent to arouse or gratify sexual desire (C): knowingly (D): with intent to offend or alarm another

(8 - 21.11) According to the Penal Code, an actor who exposes his genitals to a 15 year old child in order to achieve or gratify a sexual desire commits what offense ? (A): Indecent Exposure (B): Indecency With a Child (C): Aggravated Sexual Assault (D): Endangering a Child

(8 - 21.11) Joe (a 29-year-old) visited his older sister at her residence. While his sister was working in the garden in the backyard, Joe walked into his niece's bedroom. While his niece sat on her bed, Joe pulls down his pants and masturbated in front of the 15 year old girl. What offense should be filed on Joe? (A): Sexual Assault (B): Indecency with a Child (C): Enticing a Child (D): Indecent Exposure

(8 - 22.01) A person commits the crime of "____________" if the person intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly causes bodily injury to another, including the person's spouse. (A): Personal Violence to Another (B): Assault (C): Aggravated assault (D): Deadly Conduct

(8 - 22.01) To commit Assault, PC 22.01, an actor can recklessly: (A): cause physical contact with another when the actor knows the other will regard the contact as offensive (B): cause bodily injury to another (C): threaten another with imminent bodily injury (D): all of these can be an assault if committed recklessly

(8 - 22.011) According to the Penal Code, it is Sexual Assault to have intercourse, even with her consent, with a girl younger than _______________________________ . (A): 16 years old (B): 17 years old (C): 18 years old (D): 21 years old

(8 - 22.021) A person commits "Aggravated Sexual Assault" if the person intentionally or knowingly causes the penetration of the anus or female sexual organ of a child by any means, and the victim is: (A): younger than 15 (B): younger than 14 (C): younger than 16 (D): all of the above

(8 - 22.05) According to the Penal Code, under Section 22.05 "Deadly Conduct", a person commits an offense if he ______________ engages in conduct that places another in imminent danger of _______________ . (A): intentionally and knowingly - bodily injury (B): recklessly - serious bodily injury (C): negligently - personal injury (D): intentionally - death

(8 - 22.07) A person calls the University Presidents' Office by telephone and states that a bomb will soon explode at the football stadium. The stadium is evacuated and searched but no bomb is found. According to the Penal Code, what offense is committed? (A): Deadly Conduct (B): Terroristic Threat (C): Tampering with a Telecommunications Receiver (D): Aggravated Assault

(8 - 22.07) A person commits an offense if he threatens to commit any offense involving violence to any person with intent to place the person in fear of imminent serious bodily injury. According to the Penal Code, what is the offense? (A): Reckless Conduct (B): Terroristic Threat (C): Deadly Conduct (D): Aggravated Assault

(8 - 22.07) When a person threatens another with imminent serious bodily injury it is an assault. (A): True (B): False

(8 - 22.09) A subject is asked to bake a cake for a community activity which she does not support. To "get even" with them she puts some laxative in the cake mix before delivering it to be sold. What else must exist in order for this to be a violation of the "Tampering With a Consumer Product" section? (A): the possibility must exist that if someone consumed a portion of the cake they would probably not suffer any type of injury (B): the possibility must exist that if someone consumed a portion of the cake they would probably suffer serious bodily injury (C): if someone consumed a portion the cake they must die (D): a or b

(8 - 22.09) Penal Code 22.09 deals with "Tampering with Consumer Product." A consumer product in this statute includes: (A): an ipod or mp3 player (B): a food or drug (C): a set of tires for your car (D): all of these

(8 - 25.01) A person who is legally married may live with another person under the appearance of being married provided they do not go before a magistrate and "officially" get married. (A): This statement is true. (B): This statement is false.

(8 - 25.03) A person takes a child who is 18 years old from the geographical area of a court without the permission of the court. According to the Penal Code, what offense, if any, has the person committed? (A): Enticing a Child (B): No Offense has been committed (C): Interference with Child Custody (D): Criminal Nonsupport (E): Harboring Runaway Child

(8 - 28.02) Arson is normally a second degree felony. With the addition of ______________, _____________, or _______________it becomes a first degree felony. (A): fire; explosives, more than one building (B): injury, death; place of worship (C): intentionally; knowingly, recklessly (D): none are correct; arson is always a first degree felony

(8 - 28.02) The Penal Code states that a person commits "Arson" if they start a fire or cause an explosion with the intent to destroy or damage a __________, ___________, or ____________. (A): house, office, animal (B): habitation, building, vehicle (C): building, structure, property (D): habitation, property, livestock

(8 - 28.03) According to the Penal Code, tampering with someone's property without their consent is an offense provided the tampering causes a ____________________________ . (A): probable inconvenience (B): substantial inconvenience (C): pecuniary gain for the actor (D): substantial fear

(8 - 28.03) Most often when dealing with the criminal mischief section of the penal code and attempting to determine the value of destroyed property, which of the following methods is used? (A): the replacement cost of the property (B): the fair market value of the property at the time and place it was destroyed (C): the cost of the property when new (D): the value placed on the property by the owner

(8 - 28.04) Sam and Steve decide to have an arm wrestling match. The contest becomes reckless and they break the leg on a dormitory table. Sam and Steve could be charged with: (A): Criminal Mischief - Pen Code 28.03 (B): Reckless Damage or Destruction - Pen Code 28.04 (C): Pecuniary Loss - Pen Code 28.06 (D): Reckless Conduct - Pen Code 28.09

(8 - 29.01) According to the Penal Code, a person who causes serious bodily injury in the course of committing a theft has committed ____________________ ? (A): Aggravated Theft (B): Aggravated Robbery (C): Aggravated Assault (D): Robbery

(8 - 29.02) A person who, in the course of committing theft, intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly causes bodily injury to another, or places another in fear of imminent bodily injury or death. Of the following offenses, which is the most serious that the person can be charged with? (A): Assault (B): Robbery (C): Aggravated robbery (D): Manslaughter

(8 - 29.02) A very large, muscular individual threatens to "beat the hell" out of a much smaller man if he doesn't give him all of his money. The man turns the money over to the individual. Which of the following is the most serious crime that has occurred? (A): Theft (B): Robbery (C): Aggravated Robbery (D): Reckless Endangerment

(8 - 29.02) According to the Penal Code, a person commits Robbery if, in the course of committing a theft ,the actor knowingly causes __________ to another. (A): physical contact (B): bodily injury (C): loss of property (D): personal injury and the loss of property

(8 - 29.02) What is the primary difference between robbery and theft? (A): the value of the item taken (B): the use or threatened use of force (C): the type of entry used in committing the offense (D): the fact the property was taken from a residence rather than a business

(8 - 3.01) "Criminal Episode" requires the commission of ______ or more offenses. (A): one (B): two (C): three (D): five

(8 - 30.02) A subject is walking by a motor home parked in a KOA Campground and observes a woman's purse sitting on a table inside the home. The subject finds a tree limb lying on the ground and uses it to retrieve the purse from the table so that he does not have to physically enter the motor home to steal the purse. According to the Penal Code, he has committed what offense? (A): Theft (B): Burglary (C): Criminal Trespass (D): Burglary of Vehicle (E): Robbery

(8 - 30.04) What type of entry is required for "burglary of a vehicle"? (A): removal of an object outside the vehicle (B): any part of the body or anything attached to the body (C): a breaking must be shown (D): entire body must be within the vehicle

(8 - 30.05) A subject breaks into a store at eleven pm. The store has been closed since six pm. The store will not reopen until nine am the next morning. The subject entered the store because it was below zero degrees outside, snow was falling, and the subject was cold. What offense has been committed? (A): burglary (B): criminal trespass (C): Reckless Damage or Destruction (D): no crime has been committed

(8 - 31.01) Using the definition of "Deprive" in the Theft section of the penal code, the actor must intend to withhold the property from the owner permanently in order to be found guilty of theft. (A): True (B): False

(8 - 31.03) Jimmy while shopping in a department store, concealed a shirt valued at $22.00 under his jacket, then left the store without paying for the shirt. Stopped by store security outside, Jimmy can be charged with: (A): shoplifting (B): theft (C): theft of service (D): unlawful possession of stolen merchandise

(8 - 31.03) The taking of money from a cash drawer without threat or harm to the cashier would be: (A): theft of service (B): theft (C): fraud (D): robbery

(8 - 31.06) If a person obtains property or services by issuing a check when he did not have sufficient funds on deposit with the bank for payment in full, it is _____________ evidence of _____________________ . (A): material, theft (B): prima facie, intent to deprive the owner of property (C): direct, fraud (D): relevant, swindling with worthless document

(8 - 31.07) A subject takes a vehicle without the owner's consent and drives it for several hours, then parks the vehicle back at it's original location. The owner never knows the vehicle was moved or used. What offense, if any, may have been committed? (A): Theft by Deception (B): Unauthorized Use of a Vehicle (C): Burglary of Vehicle (D): Theft

(8 - 31.07) Which of the following is not an element of the crime Unauthorized Use of Vehicle? (A): intentionally or knowingly (B): unlawfully appropriates (C): operates a motor vehicle (D): without the effective consent of the owner

(8 - 32.21) A subject finds a blank personal check belonging to another person. The subject fills out the check and cashes it. According to the Penal Code, this subject has committed which offense? (A): Criminal Simulation (B): Forgery (C): Theft (D): Issuance of Bad Check

(8 - 32.31) Hoss Trader stole a credit card from his friends wallet, drove to Cavender's Boot City, picked out a pair of boots, brought the boots to the check-out counter and presented his friends credit card for payment for the boots. The teller recognized the name on the credit card as being her old boyfriend, called the police and had Hoss Trader arrested. What offense would Hoss be charged with? (A): attempted credit card abuse (B): credit card abuse (C): fraud (D): theft

(8 - 32.33) According to the Penal Code, a person who removes a security interest of the secured party with intent to hinder enforcement of that interest has committed what crime? (A): False Statement to Obtain Credit (B): Hindering Secured Creditors (C): Aggregated Fraud (D): Criminal Simulation

(8 - 33.02) A network administrator is fired for sexual harassment. After being terminated, she accesses the computer network from her laptop and copies several files from the database. What offense has she committed? (A): Burglary (B): Breach of Computer Security (C): Unauthorized Use of Telecommunications Service (D): No Offense as Nothing was Damaged

(8 - 33.02) A student, who your department employs part time as a computer data entry operator, recognizes a friend's license number on a vehicle impound list and removes it from the computer data bank so that his friends' vehicle will not be impounded for unpaid parking tickets. This is not a violation of the law because the employee had the consent of the department to operate the computer, and did not violate a security system. (A): This statement is true. (B): This statement is false.

(8 - 33.021) A 17 year old boy is talking with a girl, whom he knows is 16, via an online chat room. The girl asks him to send her nude pictures of himself with an erection; he complies by sending her several pictures via email. The girl saves the pictures, and her mother later finds them and calls the police. What offense might the boy be charged with? (A): Public Lewdness (B): Online Solicitation of a Minor (C): Indecency with a Child (D): Improper Photography or Visual Recording

(8 - 33.021) Mike, a 19 year old college student, decides he wants to help his 13 year old brother lose his virginity during a visit to the school. Mike goes on the internet and seeks out a female minor from a nearby school. He gets the girl to agree to meet them so that she can have sex with his brother. What offense, if any, most closely fits this situation? (A): None. While disturbing, this is not an offense. (B): Online Solicitation of a Minor (C): Prohibited Sexual Conduct (D): Improper Relationship with a child

(8 - 36.05) According to the Penal Code, a person commits which offense if he/she coerces a person to withhold any information or document from a court proceeding ? (A): Bribery (B): Tampering with a Witness (C): Perjury (D): Harassment

(8 - 36.05) Tampering with a Witness can result in what type of punishment? (A): unauthorized day off (B): State Jail Felony (C): Loss of pay (D): none of these

(8 - 37.03) A person commits " ____________" if, with intent to deceive and with knowledge of the statements meaning, he makes a false statement under oath or swears to the truth of a false statement previously made and the statement is required or authorized by law to be made under oath and is made during or in connection with an official proceeding; and is material to the case. (A): False Witness (B): Aggravated Perjury (C): Illegal False Swearing (D): None of the above

(8 - 37.03) A person makes a material false statement under oath during an official proceeding. This person may be charges with: (A): Perjury (B): Aggravated Perjury (C): False Report to Peace Officer (D): Tampering With or Fabricating Physical Evidence

(8 - 37.08) Little Billy was seen egging Mr. Ledbetter's car. The officer investigating the offense asked Mr. Ledbetter's neighbor if he had seen little Billy lately. The neighbor just saw Billy (who was holding an egg carton) go into Jim BobJumpback's house, but the neighbor told the officer that he had not seen Billy. What offense could the neighbor be charged with: (A): perjury (B): false report to a peace officer (C): aggravated perjury (D): fail to identify the fact

(8 - 37.08) Under 37.08 (a)(1) of the Penal Code, False Report to a Peace Officer, a person commits an offense if with intent to deceive, he knowingly makes a false statement to a peace officer that is material to a criminal investigation. What else is a necessary element of this offense? (A): the statement must be "in person" or face-to-face (B): the peace officer must be conducting the investigation (C): the statement must be in writing or tape recorded (D): the peace officer must believe the statement to be true

(8 - 37.12) A person who is not a licensed peace officer, may be convicted of a crime by merely possessing a card that identifies him as a peace officer, even if he was a peace officer when the card was issued. (A): True (B): False

(8 - 38.04) A peace officer in uniform lawfully detains a person and before the officer can begin to question him, the person suddenly turns and runs away into some woods and gets away from the officer. Another peace officer responding to the scene arrests the person a block away as the person emerges from the woods. According to the Penal Code, what offense has been committed? (A): Hindering Apprehension (B): Evading Arrest or Detention (C): Resisting Arrest (D): Failure to Identify

(8 - 38.13) Which of the following IS [u][b]NOT[/b][/u] part of the Section 38.13, Hindering Proceedings by Disorderly Conduct, in the Penal Code? (A): noise, violent or tumultuous behavior (B): elected official (C): intentionally hinders (D): continues after explicit official request to desist

(8 - 39.03) According to the Penal Code, a public servant acting under color of his office commits what offense if he intentionally subjects another to arrest that he knows is unlawful? (A): Official Abuse (B): Official Oppression (C): Abuse of Official Capacity (D): Misuse of Official Capacity

(8 - 42.01) Displaying a firearm can be an offense under Sec 42.01 of the Penal Code if two conditions are met; they are: (A): display in a public place and the firearm is loaded (B): display in a public place and the manner of display is calculated to alarm (C): the actor owns the firearm and it is loaded (D): the firearm is not an antique and the actor is reckless about who may be alarmed

(8 - 42.01) In order to commit a violation of Disorderly Conduct, Penal Code 42.01(a)(7); a person must ________________ in a public place. (A): recklessly discharge a handgun (B): intentionally or knowingly discharge a firearm (C): negligently discharge a handgun (D): recklessly discharge a firearm

(8 - 42.01) In order to violate the law by making "unreasonable noise", the noise must: (A): originate in a public place (B): disturb the peace in a public place or near a private residence (C): offend people in a private place (D): continue after a warning

(8 - 42.01) When dealing with Texas Penal Code, 42.01 - Disorderly Conduct, which of the following statements most accurately describe the use of vulgar language? (A): This can be an offense even if the police are the only complaining witness. (B): The vulgar language must be uttered in a public place and must tend to incite an immediate breach of the peace. (C): The person uttering the vulgar language must be warned before an arrest is authorized. (D): The vulgar language must tend to incite an immediate disturbance either in a public or private place.

(8 - 42.02) In order for there to be a "riot" at least __________ people must be involved: (A): five (B): seven (C): nine (D): twelve

(8 - 42.04) John is standing on the grass near a sidewalk and using a bullhorn to address passers by about abortion. Several people in offices of a building nearby complain about the noise to their manager. The manager walks out to John and tells him the noise is bothering his workers and asks John to leave. The manager then calls the police. John is still on the bullhorn when police arrive. Which of the following is true? (A): John is obstructing a passageway (B): John is committing disorderly conduct (C): John must be ordered to move before he has committed an offense (D): John has committed harassment

(8 - 42.072) A woman reports to the police department that on several occasions she has observed a former boyfriend following her. She is alarmed by this because he has a violent temper and yesterday, he called her and said he would "fix her good" if she did not take him back. According to the Penal Code, which offense, if any, has been committed? (A): Harassment (B): Stalking (C): Terroristic Threat (D): Assault (E): No offense has been committed

(8 - 43.02) Bob is sitting in his car at a stop sign. Sally approaches him and offers to perform sexual conduct for a fee. Bob is shocked and alarmed. He drives down the street and reports the incident to a police officer. Which of the following is TRUE? (A): Bob has solicited prostitution (B): Sally has committed prostitution (C): Bob and Sally have committed prostitution (D): No Offense has occurred

(8 - 43.03) Sue performed sexual conduct for hire with Jack. When finished, she approached Donny and per their agreement, gave him half of the money she earned from Jack. Donny has committed: (A): prostitution (B): promotion of prostitution (C): aggravated promotion of prostitution (D): compelling prostitution

(8 - 43.05) A perpetrator can commit the offense of "Compelling Prostitution" without using force, threat or fraud against the victim, if: (A): the victim is also a victim of trafficking (B): the victim is under 18 years of age (C): the victim commits more than two acts of prostitution (D): the victim shares the proceeds from the act with the perpetrator

(8 - 43.05) A person commits "_____________" if he knowingly causes by any means a person younger than 18 years to commit prostitution. (A): Promotion of Prostitution (B): Compelling Prostitution (C): Aggravated Promotion of Prostitution (D): Prostitution

(8 - 43.26) Steve has a digital photograph on his computer of a three year old girl. What other element is necessary for Steve to commit "Possession of Child Pornography"? (A): The child must be naked (B): The child must be engaging in sexual conduct (C): The child's genitals must be exposed (D): The child must be photographed with an adult

(8 - 46.01) "___________" means any bladed hand instrument that is capable of inflicting serious bodily injury or death by cutting or stabbing the person with the instrument. (A): Illegal knife (B): Knife (C): Dagger (D): Spear

(8 - 46.01) The Penal Code defines a switchblade knife; one characteristic all switchblade knives MUST have is: (A): a pinning screw on the handle that locks the blade in place (B): a blade which folds, closes or retracts into a handle or sheath (C): a button or similar device on the handle (D): a blade over 5 1/2 inches in length

(8 - 46.01) Under 46.01, a short-barrel firearm means a rifle with a barrel length of less than ____ inches or a shotgun with a barrel length of less that ____ inches or any weapon made from a shotgun or rifle if, as altered, it has an overall lenght of less than ____ inches (A): 10, 12, 15 (B): 16, 18, 26 (C): 20, 24, 30

(8 - 46.02) A person is carrying a handgun on or about his person. Under which circumstance can you arrest the person for Unlawfully Carrying a Weapon - Penal Code 46.02? (A): The handgun is concealed in his motor vehicle (B): The handgun is unloaded at a Starbucks (C): The person is on his own premises (D): The handgun is concealed and the person is directly enroute to his motor vehicle

(8 - 46.02) A subject threatening another with a baseball bat in a public place can be charged with Unlawful Carrying Weapons, under the Texas Penal Code. (A): This statement is true. (B): This statement is false.

(8 - 46.02) In general, a person may lawfully carry a handgun on or about his person in Texas when: (A): the individual has never been convicted of a felony (B): licensed to carry a concealed handgun (C): while "travelling" (D): when hunting

(8 - 46.03) A subject is arrested for having a handgun in a backpack in the lobby of a dormitory on campus. He has no LTC under Chapter 411 Govt. Code, and has committed _________ in the Penal Code. (A): a misdemeanor (B): a felony (C): no offense (D): code of conduct violation

(8 - 46.035) A student approaches you during a high school basketball game being held in a gym on campus and reports that she is alarmed by the fact that a person next to her is carry a handgun. Upon investigating, you determine the individual in question has a license to carry the pistol. What offense in the penal code, if any, has been committed? CHECK ANSWER 7/2018 (A): Unlawful Carrying of Weapon (B): Carrying a Weapon Where Prohibited (C): Unlawful Possession of a Firearm (D): No Offense was committed

(8 - 46.04) The earliest a convicted felon may possess a firearm at his home is: (A): 10 years after release from probation (B): 5 years after release from confinement (C): felons may never possess firearms after conviction (D): after release from parole

(8 - 46.05) Penal Code Section 46.05 PROHIBITED WEAPONS lists prohibited weapons that a persons cannot possess; even in their own home. Which of the following is one of them? (A): Carving knife with a 7 in blade (B): Pipe bomb filled with black powder (C): Hatchet with 14 inch handle (D): Glock handgun with a loaded 17 round magazine

(8 - 46.13) Under Penal Code 46.13, a "readily dischargeable firearm must have a round of ammunition: (A): in the chamber of the barrel. (B): loaded in the firearm, whether or not a round is in the chamber (C): accessible to a child (D): discharged from the firearm

(8 - 47.01) According to the Penal Code, "To receive and record bets totaling more that $1,000 in a 24 hour period" is the definition of __________________ . (A): a gambling device (B): bookmaking (C): betting (D): gambling

(8 - 47.08) According to the Penal Code, a party to an offense under Testimonial Immunity __________ be prosecuted for any offense about which he is required to furnish evidence or testify, and the evidence and testimony ______ be used against the party in any adjudicatory proceeding except a prosecution for aggravated perjury. (A): may, may not (B): may not, may not (C): shall, may (D): may not, may

(8 - 49.01) According to the Penal Code, a definition of intoxication is having an alcoholic concentration of _______% or more. (A): 0.05 (B): 0.08 (C): 0.10 (D): 0.80

(8 - 49.02) A person commits the offense of "Public Intoxication" if the person:__________. (A): appears in a public place while intoxicated (B): appears in a public place while intoxicated to a degree that the person may endanger himself/herself or another (C): appears in a public place while smelling strongly of alcohol (D): appears in a public place after drinking alcohol and uses profanity

(8 - 49.02) According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, a person a peace officer has probable cause to believe is appearing in public while "intoxicated" may be released by the officer if ______________________________________________ . (A): the officer believes only detention is necessary for the protection of the person (B): the person is released to another individual who agrees to assume responsibility for the intoxicated subject (C): the person signs a field release citation for the offense. (D): the person fails a field sobriety test

(8 - 49.031) According to the Penal Code, Ch. 49.031, in order to charge a person with Possession of an Alcoholic Beverage in a Motor Vehicle, the person _____________________________________ . (A): must be taken into custody and taken to a magistrate (B): cannot be a passenger in a taxi (C): must be off the highway (D): must be older than 21

(8 - 49.05) According to the Penal Code, the minimum term of confinement for a person convicted of Flying While Intoxicated, first offense, is _______________ . (A): 48 hours (B): 3 days (C): 6 days (D): 30 days

(8 - 49.07) A person is intoxicated while operating an amusement ride and causes "serious bodily injury" to several teenage girls by accident. What is the most serious crime that has occurred? (A): Assembling or Operating an amusement Ride While Intoxicated (B): Intoxication Assault (C): Intoxication Manslaughter (D): Capital Murder

(8 - 49.07) Otis Drunkenbinder left a party after drinking two six packs of beer. Otis was going to give his friend, Tom, a lift home. Otis was driving towards Tom's house when Otis lost control of the vehicle and hit a telephone pole. Otis was not injured but Tom received a skull fracture and broken leg. As a result of the collision, Tom is blind in one eye. What could Otis be charged with? (A): Assault (B): Intoxication Assault (C): Aggravated Assault (D): Attempted Criminal Negligent Homicide

(8 - 6.03) A person acts "______________", with respect to his conduct when he is aware that his conduct is reasonably certain to cause the result. (A): intentionally or with intent (B): knowingly or with knowledge (C): with criminal negligence, or is criminally negligent (D): recklessly , or is reckless

(8 - 6.03) Which of the following is the least culpable of the mental states? (A): reckless (B): criminal negligence (C): knowingly (D): intentional

(8 - 7.01) A person is NOT "criminally responsible" as a party to an offense if; (A): The person commits the offense. (B): If another individual commits an offense independent of the person. (C): The offense is committed by the conduct of another for which he is criminally responsible for. (D): All of the above are correct (E): None of the above are correct

(8 - 7.01) A person is _______ as a party to an offense if the offense is committed by his own conduct, by the conduct of another for which he is criminally responsible, or both. (A): not responsible (B): criminally responsible (C): guilty (D): an accessory

(8 - 7.02) Two individuals get together and conspire to commit an armed robbery of a liquor store. One day before the planned robbery, one of the individuals goes to the area of the liquor store to ensure that the plan will work. While watching the liquor store this person is approached by a uniformed peace officer. This person panics and shoots the officer, killing him. Both individuals are later arrested. The one person that was not there when the officer was killed is not criminally responsible for the crime of Capital Murder. (A): True (B): False

(8 - 71.01) "Criminal street gang" means _______ or more persons having a common identifying sign or symbol or an identifiable leadership who continuously or regularly associate in the commission of criminal activities. (A): two (B): three (C): at least four (D): at least seven

(8 - 71.01) According to the Penal Code Section 71.01, dealing with definitions, a "Criminal Street Gang" means ____ or more persons having a common sign or symbol or an identifiable leadership who commit crime and regularly associate. (A): two (B): three (C): four (D): six (E): nine

(8 - 71.01) An identifiable ______________ is not mentioned as part of the definition of "Criminal Street Gang" in Section 71.01 of the Penal Code. (A): sign (B): name (C): symbol (D): leadership

(8 - 71.01) In order for a "combination" or "criminal street gang" to exist under Chapter 71 of the Penal Code, there must be _____ or more persons who collaborate in carrying out criminal activities. (A): two (B): three (C): seven (D): one

(8 - 71.01) Under chapter 71 "Organized Crime", combination means ____________ or more persons who collaborate in carrying on criminal activities. (A): 2 (B): 3 (C): 4 (D): 5

(8 - 71.022) A person commits "__________________" if the persons knowingly causes, enables, encourages, recruits, or solicits another person to become a member of a criminal street gang which, as a condition of initiation, admission, membership, or continued membership, requires the commission of any conduct which constitutes an offense punishable as a Class A misdemeanor or a felony. (A): Engaging in Organized Criminal Activity. (B): Soliciting Membership in a Criminal Street Gang. (C): Soliciting Membership in a Combination (D): None of the above:

(8 - 8.03) A person (the actor) reasonably believes the conduct for which he is charged with was not a crime because he relied upon the written opinion from a court at the time he committed the act. According to the Penal Code, this describes which of the following general defenses to criminal behavior? (A): Mistake of Fact (B): Mistake of Law (C): Duress (D): Entrapment

(8 - 8.04) "Voluntary intoxication" does; (A): Constitute an excellent defense to the commission of crime. (B): Not constitute a defense to the commission of crime. (C): Sometimes constitutes as a defense to the commission of crime. (D): None of the above is correct.

(8-15.02) Rex, John, James and Larry meet at Larry's residence. Larry is working as an informant for the local police and is wearing a body wire. During the meeting Rex outlines a plan to burglarize the home of the local bank president. Rex asks John and James if they are interested in doing this burglary, and they say yes. Rex tells John to buy 4 sets of cotton gloves for the burglary. Rex tells James to get a pry bar to use to gain entry into the residence. Rex said he would get his pistol just in case they needed it during the burglary. Rex advised everyone to leave, get the items and come back in one hour. They did so. When they arrived back to Larry's residence, they were arrested. What do you charge them with? (A): criminal solicitation (B): criminal conspiracy (C): criminal attempt (D): criminal solicitation of a minor (E): None of these, they shouldn't have been arrested

(8-30.04) While on patrol you see someone breaking into a car. You detain the person and investigate the situation. In order to make an arrest for Burglary of Vehicles you must show that the person was breaking into the car with the intent to do what? (A): You do not need to show any further intent. Merely breaking into the car is Burglary of Vehicles. (B): You must show that the actor intended to commit any felony or theft. (C): You must show that the actor caused significant damage to the vehicle. (D): You must show that the actor used a criminal instrument to enter into the vehicle.

(9.1.1) "A bus" includes the following vehicles, EXCEPT: (A): a motor vehicle designed to carry more than 10 passengers (B): a taxicab (C): any motor vehicles used for the transportation of persons for hire other than a taxicab

(9.1.1) "_____________" means a motor vehicle designed, used, or maintained primarily to transport property. (A): Motor vehicle (B): Truck (C): Passenger vehicle (D): Vehicle

(9.1.1) A motorcycle with an engine displacement of 250cc is a: (A): Moped (B): Motor Driven Cycle (C): Motorized Bicycle

(9.1.11) A driver of a vehicle, approaching an intersection and stop sign, must stop and grant immediate use of the intersection to vehicles using the other street when they are: (A): using hazard warning lamps (B): lawfully within the intersection (C): in such proximity as to be visible (D): within 1000 ft of the intersection

(9.1.11) After stopping at a stop sign, a driver may only enter an intersection when it is safe to do so without ______________________ ? (A): using warning signals (B): causing interference or collision (C): giving an audible warning (D): undue acceleration

(9.1.11) When approaching an uncontrolled intersection, under which of the following situations does a driver ALWAYS have the Right Of Way.? (A): when approaching on an unpaved street intersecting with a paved street (B): when approaching on a divided street intersecting with a 1 or 2 laned-street. (C): when a vehicle has entered the intersection from the driver's right. (D): when approaching on a street which terminates at the intersection

(9.1.15) A driver emerges from a driveway onto a street, crossing a sidewalk at the mouth of the driveway without stopping. Which of the following is TRUE? (A): The driver only needs to stop if pedestrians are present (B): The driver committed "Failed to Stop - Emerging from Driveway" (C): The driver only needs to stop if vehicles are present on the roadway to be entered (D): None of these are true

(9.1.15) A parking lot is located at an intersection. A vehicle is driven through the parking lot and onto the intersecting street to avoid making the turn at the intersection, which of the following is a true statement ? (A): the driver must stop his vehicle before exiting any parking lot (B): the driver has committed a violation regardless of any halting of the vehicle (C): the maneuver is legal if there are no sidewalks on intersecting streets

(9.1.15) The violation, "Pulling Away" under 545.402 TTC, requires an operator to start a vehicle safely; this applies to moving a vehicle from a ______________________. (A): parking lot onto a street (B): stopped, standing, or parked position (C): driveway to a shoulder (D): lane of traffic into a parallel space

(9.1.15) To charge a person with Fleeing - 545.421 of the Transportation Code, the person must (A): be given a visual and audible signal (B): be operating a motor vehicle (C): have a Texas driver's license (D): know the officer is attempting to arrest him

(9.1.17) A driver with fog, passing or driving lamps can be charged with unauthorized use of the lamps if the driver uses these lamps ________________________. (A): in the daytime (B): with high beam headlamps (C): inside a city limits (D): none of these

(9.1.17) Trailers are not required to have any brakes, regardless of the speed they travel , until they exceed a GVWR of _______________ pounds ? (A): 1,500 (B): 4,500 (C): 25,000 (D): 50,000

(9.1.17) Trailers are not required to have any brakes, regardless of the speed they travel , until they exceed a GVWR of _______________ pounds? (A): 1,500 (B): 4,500 (C): 25,000 (D): 50,000

(9.1.17) Which of the following colored beacons could you legally place on a privately owned vehicle when it is operated on a public street? (A): Red (B): Yellow (C): Blue (D): White

(9.1.17) Which of the following is FALSE about dimming headlamps? (A): Overtaking motor vehicles must dim headlamps within 300 feet. (B): Requirements to dim headlamps only apply in the nighttime (C): Motor vehicles' headlamps must not shine into the eyes of oncoming drivers within 500 feet (D): Motor vehicles parked on a shoulder must dim headlamps

(9.1.17) Which of the following is FALSE about the brakes on a motor vehicle? (A): the brakes must control the movement of the vehicle (B): the brakes must prevent skidding on snow or ice (C): the brakes must stop the vehicle under any load (D): the brakes must hold the vehicle on any grade

(9.1.17) Which of the following trailers are not required to display brake lamps to the rear in the daytime with good visibility? (A): any trailer under 10,000 pounds GVW (B): any boat trailer under 3,000 pounds GVW (C): any trailer when traveling less than 30 mph (D): all trailers are exempt from the requirement to display brake lamps in the daytime

(9.1.19) If a vehicle has stopped at a crosswalk to yield Right of Way (ROW) to a pedestrian; other vehicles may: (A): pass left of center, if the pedestrian is not in the other half of the crosswalk (B): not overtake and pass the stopped vehicle (C): pass to the right of the stopped vehicle, if the pedestrian is not in the way

(9.1.19) In the Transportation Code, where an adjacent sidewalk is provided: (A): pedestrians should use the right-half of sidewalks whenever possible (B): a pedestrian may not walk along and upon a roadway (C): pedestrians must choose a sidewalk facing oncoming traffic (D): it is unlawful for pedestrians to cross the roadway

(9.1.19) The requirement for a operator to exercise proper precaution for any child, obviously confused or incapacitated person and to sound a horn when necessary; applies to those pedestrians: (A): on any part of the street (B): on the roadway (C): on sidewalks (D): emerging from buildings

(9.1.2) Personal injury in traffic law is any wound to any part of the body that: (A): causes pain (B): requires treatment (C): is apparent (D): is reported to a police officer

(9.2.1) On the CR3 Report Form for Motor Vehicle Crash Investigation, "Unit-1" should describe: (A): any bona fide traffic unit (B): a motor vehicle in transport or in motion (C): only passenger cars or light trucks (D): none of these

(9.1.25) In a county not covered by vehicle emission inspections , you find a vehicle legally parked on the shoulder of a public street and the vehicle is displaying an expired Texas license plate; which of the following is TRUE ? (A): the vehicle is an abandoned motor vehicle (B): no violation has occurred unless the vehicle is used/driven on the street (C): you can place a ticket for expired license plate on the windshield (D): you can ticket the vehicle's owner for "wrong plate on vehicle"

(9.1.25) The readability of license plates on a vehicle cannot be interfered with, impaired, distorted, altered or obscured by: (A): blurring or reflective matter (B): any of these (C): stickers, decals or emblems (D): coatings, coverings or protective materials

(9.1.3) "Improved shoulder" means: (A): a semi-roadway abutting a highway (B): a paved shoulder (C): a roadway breakdown lane (D): a marked lateral edge of roadway

(9.1.3) "__________" means pedestrians, ridden or herded animals, and conveyances, including vehicles and streetcars, singly or together while using a highway for the purposes of travel. (A): Vehicle (B): Traffic (C): Road tractor (D): None of the above

(9.1.4) A vehicle which is temporarily halted and actually engaged in discharging passengers at the curb is: (A): parked (B): stopping (C): standing

(9.1.5) A person commits "Illegal Dumping" if the person disposes or allows or permits the disposal of litter or other solid waste at a place that is not an approved solid waste site, including a place on or within ________ feet of a public highway, on a right-of-way, on other public or private property, or into inland or coastal water of the state. (A): 200 (B): 300 (C): 500 (D): 750 (E): 1,000

(9.1.8) No provision involving an official traffic control device shall be enforced against a violator unless at the time and place of the alleged violation the device was in proper position and sufficiently legible to be seen: (A): by the officer enforcing the provision (B): by an ordinary observant person (C): in normal sunlight (D): from 500 feet in either direction

(9.1.9) An operator moving around a rotary traffic island shall: (A): always drive to the left of the island (B): drive only to the right of island (C): Always stop and yield right of way to traffic coming from the right (D): None of the above

(9.1.9) Which of the following IS TRUE about vehicles traveling at less than the speed of normal traffic? (A): they must use emergency flashers to warn other vehicles of their speed (B): they must be driven as close as practicable to the right hand curb (C): they must overtake and pass other vehicles to the right (D): they may make left turns from the far right-hand lane on one-way streets

(9.2.1) A "motor vehicle traffic accident/crash" requires at a minimum _______________________. (A): the involvement of two motor vehicles "in transport" (B): a harmful event to occur producing injury or damage (C): the event to produce damage to both traffic units (D): a reckless culpable mental state

(9.2.1) A driver is making "donuts" in a free parking lot that is only occupied with empty parked cars. The driver strikes two of the parked cars with his own. Which of the following is true ? (A): Since the event happened in a non trafficway parking lot the driver has no duties (B): The driver could be charged with Reckless Driving even though no one else was present so as to be in danger (C): Since the parked cars were empty, no CR-3 report should be made by an officer; regardless of the value of the damage (D): The owners of the parked cars are required to report the accident under Chapter 550. 021 of the Transportation Code, if it is not investigated by a peace officer.

(9.2.1) A driver must take evasive action to avoid an accident and chooses to swerve to avoid the accident instead of braking. If failing to brake caused the evasive action to be faulty; which phase of the tactic is involved? (A): Recognition (B): Decision (C): Performance

(9.2.1) A suspect vehicle leaves 38 feet of average skid mark at a crash scene. An officer determines the coefficient of friction is .66. The minimum speed of the suspect was: (A): 22.2 mph or the sq rt of 493 (B): 27.4 mph or the sq rt of 752.4 (C): 30 mph or the sq rt of 900 (D): 35.7 mph or sq rt of 1274.5

(9.2.1) A suspect vehicle leaves an average skid length of 42 feet on a roadway surface with a coefficient of friction of .81. What is the suspect's minimum speed? (A): 25 mph or the sq rt of 628 (B): 31.9 mph or sq rt of 1020.6 (C): 38.7 mph or sq rt of 1497.7 (D): 51 mph or sq rt of 2601

(9.2.1) A suspect vehicle produces the following skid marks (1) 23'-4", (2) 20'-11", (3) 24'-0", and 22'-3". The average skid distance is: (A): 21.0 ft (B): 22.625 ft (C): 24.125 ft (D): 25.50 ft

(9.2.1) Driver A stopped in obedience to a stop sign and then entered the intersection; Driver A did not yield to Driver B approaching on the through street. Driver A could not see Driver B approaching because of heavy rain at the time of the accident. Driver B struck Driver A. Which of the following should be the most predominant factor listed on the CR-3? (A): Driver A - FTYROW from Stop Sign - an operational factor (B): Driver A - Impaired Visibility - a conditional factor (C): Driver B - Failed To Control Speed - an operational factor

(9.2.1) In the below formulas relative to a crash vehicle, "d" represents the _________? S=[sqr]30xdxf [/sqr] S[sup]2[/sup]= 30*d*f f= S[sup]2[/sup]/30*d (A): density of road surface (B): average distance of the skid marks (C): driver's speed (D): length of the longest skid

(9.2.1) In the following formulas, "S" represents the __________? S=[sqr]30xdxf[/sqr] S[sup]2[/sup]= 30*d*f f= S[sup]2[/sup]/30*d (A): road surface (B): speed of a vehicle in miles per hour (C): driver's speed in feet per second (D): length of the longest skid

(9.2.1) In the narrative of the CR3, MV Traffic Crash Form, the traffic units should be referred to by: (A): driver's last name (B): the unit number assigned on the front of the report (C): license plate number (D): make & color of vehicle

(9.2.1) On the CR3 Form, to correctly list an operational or conditional factor as contributing to the accident, the officer must have sufficient proof to issue a citation for the violation. (A): This statement is true. (B): This statement is false.

(9.2.1) Suspect vehicle leaves an average skid length of 42 feet on a roadway surface with a coefficient of friction of 0.77. What is the suspect's minimum speed? (A): 26 mph or the square root of 676.0 (B): 31 mph or the square root of 970.2 (C): 29 mph or the square root of 882.09 (D): 34 mph or the square root of 1169.6

(9.2.1) The "point of maximum engagement" in a traffic collision is _____________ ? (A): where a driver may have had the opportunity to perceive the danger of collision (B): when a vehicle has expended its maximum energy into the body of another vehicle and the remainder of its energy produces "work" in moving the other vehicle (C): where the driver of either vehicle is committed to having a collision (D): when a vehicle has halted its movement

(9.2.1) The best measuring instrument for collision investigation is the __________________ ? (A): steel tape measure (B): fiberglass tape measure (C): roller tape measure (D): stepping off the distance yourself

A 15 year old boy has ditched school on six separate occasions during a four week perio(D): The boy can be charged with _____________________________ by the juvenile court. (A): Juvenile delinquency (B): Conduct in need of supervision (C): Delinquent conduct (D): The child cannot be charged with anything

A citizen requesting an urgent response from public safety personnel to a life-threatening incident is the definition of ______________________________________ . (A): effective communications (B): emergency communications (C): emergency procedures (D): telecommunication operations

A driver is making "donuts" in a free parking lot that is only occuppied with empty parked cars. The driver strikes two of the parked cars with his own. Which of the following is true ? (A): Since the event happened in a non trafficway parking lot the driver has no duties (B): The driver could be charged with Reckless Driving even though no one else was present so as to be in danger (C): Since the parked cars were empty, no CR-3 report should be made by an officer; regardless of the value of the damage (D): The owners of the parked cars are required to report the accident under Chapter 550. 021 of the Transportation Code, if it is not investigated by a peace officer.

A search based on probable cause is an exception to the requirement to obtain a search warrant. (A): true (B): false

According to CCP 15.24, what means are permitted to be used to effect an arrest? (A): The minimum means necessary. (B): All reasonable means. (C): All measures shy of deadly force. (D): It does not specify.

According to an in-depth NHTSA study, which of the following field sobriety tests is the most accurate ? (A): alphabet recitation (B): horizontal gaze nystagmus (C): walk and turn (D): one leg stand

An officer stops a male suspect carrying a female's purse in a parking lot. A DL in the purse matches up to the owner of a car parked nearby. The officer arrests the suspect for Burglary of a Vehicle. After the arrest, the victim admits she may have mistakenly left her purse on the roof of her car. The officer now believes a theft happened instead of burglary; How does this affect the probable cause for arrest ? (A): Because the arrest was based on an incorrect fact, there is no longer probable cause for the arrest of the suspect (B): If the remaining facts reasonably lead the officer to believe a theft occurred instead of a burglary, the probable cause still makes the arrest legal (C): The remaining facts of probable cause must support the elements of a Burglary (D): The facts have been tainted and cannot be used as evidence or to support an arrest because of the Texas Exclusionary Rule; Art 38.23 of the Texas CCP.

An order from a court directing a Sheriff to take possession of a landlord's property and to further see that all tenants leave or be removed, is called a _______________________. (A): Writ of Attachment (B): Writ of Possession (C): Writ of Removal (D): Writ of Eviction

Before one can be justified in using force for self-defense, a citizen must attempt to retreat from the confrontation. (A): True (B): False

CONSTITUTION The 5th Amendment to the US Constitution states; "No person shall be held to answer for a capital, or otherwise infamous crime, unless ____________________________________" (A): upon oath or affirmation (B): on a presentment or indictment of a Grand Jury (C): confronted by two or more witnesses (D): held under a duly sworn warrant

Civil process documents are actually divided into two major groups. They are advise and action documents. Identify which of these are advise documents for the defendant/witness. (Rule 103) (A): writ of execution (B): citation (C): writ of attachment (D): order of sale

Cyanoacrylate Fuming will work best on which of the following ? (A): clothing (B): glass (C): bloody specimens (D): paper currency

During "routine patrol" police officers may disregard traffic laws. (A): This statement is true. (B): This statement is false.

Exhibitionism, kleptomania, pyromania, voyeurism and pedophilia are socially undesirable manifestations of what type of neurotic behavior ? (A): Phobias (B): Obsessive/Compulsive (C): Depression (D): Combat Fatigue

Force against a mentally incompetent person is justified only if the actor is of blood kin. (A): True (B): False

How much ridge detail is necessary in a latent print to allow for identification of a suspect? (A): at least one square inch (B): about the size of the end of a pencil eraser (C): the core and both deltas must be identifiable (D): at least two different fingers

If a Sheriff/Constable neglects or refused to return a Writ of Execution as required by law, ___________________________________________________________________ . (Civil Practices and Remedies Code Art. 34.064) (A): no problem, the plaintiff can request another writ from the court (B): the officer and his/her sureties are liable to the person entitled to receive the money collected on the execution for the full amount of the debt, plus interest and costs (C): they may be exempted by a District Clerk (D): they will be exempt during an election year

(24.1.1) Which of the following IS NOT an objective of patrol ? (A): preserving the peace (B): preventing crime (C): using unmarked units for general patrol (D): suppressing crime (E): regulating noncriminal conduct

In Chapter 17 of the CCP, a person arrested without a warrant and held in jail must be released on bond not later that the 24th hour, when the charge is a misdemeanor and a magistrate has not: (A): met with the defendant (B): determined that probable cause exists to believe the person committed the offense (C): received a report from the personal bond office in and for that county (D): read the offense report of the arresting officer

In an affidavit for issuance of a search warrant, the officer should, regarding officer identification: (A): be careful not to include too much information about himself so as not to appear to be bragging (B): provide a detailed account of his experience in investigating the kind of crime associated with the warrant (C): include name, rank and badge number only (D): include only his initials to prevent retaliation

In selecting a search position for a prisoner the officer should consider: (A): the amount of time available for making the arrest (B): risk factors present at the time of the arrest (C): whether the officer is in uniform or plain clothes (D): officers can choose any position for a field search; there is no criteria used

In the one leg stand test, the subject must be timed to stand on one leg for _____ seconds. (A): 15 (B): 30 (C): 45 (D): 60

One possible characteristic of a bipolar person experiencing mania is severe depression (A): True (B): False

Possession of a controlled substance listed in Penalty Group 3 such as steroids is always going to be a felony. (A): This statement is true (B): This statement is false

Run-on sentences and lengthy paragraphs can interfere with _____________ as an essential characteristic of a good report. (A): accuracy (B): conciseness (C): completeness (D): clarity

The Texas Health and Safety Code requires peace officers to base their beliefs for emergency apprehension upon behavior that is _____________ . (A): general (B): recent (C): covert (D): bizarre

The best definition of a "Anticipatory Search Warrant" is: (A): a warrant based on the anticipation of finding more evidence than is listed in the affidavit (B): a warrant based on a showing of probable cause that at some future time certain evidence will be at a certain location (C): a warrant based on probable cause that the evidence will not be at a certain location very long and "time is of the essence" (D): a warrant based on questionable probable cause and it is anticipated that it will be ruled as invalid by an appellate court

The emergency exception to a search warrant is most likely to be upheld by the courts when an officer inadvertently discovers evidence while dealing with: (A): mysterious circumstances (B): fight noises or screams (C): non-arrest situations (D): a conscious or coherent person

The final order of a court in a civil suit that settles all disputed issues, is known as a: (A): verdict (B): judgment (C): settlement (D): service

The mask worn by a subject during an armed robbery is considered to be: (A): tools of a crime (B): mere evidence (C): item that may be used to escape (D): contraband (E): fruits of a crime

The theft of a computer printer is reported on campus and the description of the vehicle involved is dispatched. An hour later, you observe the unoccupied vehicle legally parked in a parking garage on campus. In plain view on the rear floor board is the stolen printer. In order to legally seize the printer, you __________ ____________________ . (A): may enter the vehicle and seize the printer without a warrant (B): must leave an officer to watch the vehicle and obtain a search warrant (C): may watch the vehicle until someone attempts to drive it away, then stop and seize the printer using the authority of the "Carroll Rule" (D): may impound the vehicle and seize the printer during an inventory (E): all of these are legal options

The three major categories of stress reactions are: (A): mental, spiritual, and immediate (B): physical, emotional, and behavioral (C): anxiety, tension, and restlessness (D): bureaucratic, autocratic, and democratic

There are three common civil processes which require an officer to seize property. Which of the following IS NOT one of them? (A): Writ of Sequestration (B): Writ of Garnishment (C): Writ of Attachment (D): Writ of Possession

To arrest on Probable Cause, the officer must reasonably know: (A): the location of the crime (B): the elements of an offense occurred (C): the victim of the crime (D): the value of property involved (E): all of these facts

To legally frisk without consent, the officer: (A): must recover a weapon from the person (B): must have the person lawfully detained (C): must check all places where the person might have a weapon concealed

Tools and tactics used to maintain a psychological and physical edge include all of the following, except: (A): demonstrated alertness. (B): Bluffing (C): maintaining a height advantage. (D): triangle interview.

What is the earliest age an unmarried person can voluntarily submit to in-patient mental health services without the consent of a parent or guardian? (A): 17 (B): 16 (C): 18 (D): 21

What penalty group is methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA) in? (A): PG 1 (B): PG 2 (C): PG 3 (D): PG 4

Which of the following planning steps for crash investigation would you perform AFTER moving the vehicles and clearing the roadway at the scene of a collision? (A): record positions (B): preliminary questioning of drivers (C): take photos (D): collect physical evidence

(18.2.4) Which of the following is the most correct use of handcuffs? (A): handcuff persons to telephone poles (B): secure a legstrap in the doorframe of a car (C): secure a persons feet and hands together behind their back (D): handcuff persons through the window frame of a car door

(24.8.3) In order to prevent crime, officers must reduce (A): The number of two man patrols (B): Traffic enforcement details (C): Opportunity (D): The regulation of non-criminal conduct

(29.7.12) What concept protects the integrity of evidence from the crime scene to the courtroom? (A): secure containers (B): chain of custody (C): laboratory analysis (D): competent testimony

(4.3.4) The "Criminal Justice System" structure includes the following three major components: (A): Probation, parole, and corrections (B): Police, courts, and corrections (C): Fire protection, police, and courts (D): Probation, police, and corrections

(8 - 31.11) A person has committed an offense if he is found in possession of property that has an altered serial number if; (A): the owner gave consent to alter the number on the property (B): he altered the number without the owner's consent (C): he altered the number, after buying the property (D): None of the above

(8 - 42.01) According to Section 42.01(a)(12), a person who intentionally exposes his genitals in a public place is guilty of "indecent exposure." (A): This statement is true. (B): This statement is false.

(8 - 6.03) A person acts "______________", with respect to circumstances surrounding his conduct or the result of his conduct when he is aware of but consciously disregards a substantial and unjustifiable risk that the circumstances exist or the result will occur. (A): intentionally or with intent (B): recklessly, or is reckless (C): with criminal negligence, or is criminally negligent (D): knowingly or with knowledge

(9.2.1) When measuring items at a collision scene and using the rectangular coordinate method of measurements; how many measurements must be taken from a reference point or temporary reference point to locate an item like the wheel center of a vehicle ? (A): one (B): two (C): three (D): four

(9.3.2) Maintaining control of an intersection begins with the officer's body language. Several other factors help with control; which of the following IS NOT one of them: (A): being capable of making instant decisions (B): being able to ignore pedestrians (C): being alert to traffic conditions (D): being adaptable to changing conditions

There are _____ Cardinal Rules of Firearms Safety. (A): 3 (B): 4 (C): 6 (D): 5

(2.1.3) Stephen F. Austin employed a militia group to protect the settlers from Indian and bandit raids. This group later became known as ____________________. (A): Austin's Raiders (B): Texas Militia (C): Texas Rangers (D): All of the Above (E): None of the above

(2.1.3.) The term of an elected Sheriff is: (A): 1 year (B): 2 years (C): 4 years (D): 6 years

(25.1.3) The media, family, friends, employers, and helpers make up a group of people who can be ________ victims of crime. (A): trigger (B): needy (C): secondary (D): reduced

(11.4.1) "____________" - An order issued by a family court (district or county court) to order the protection of a family member or member of a household against further family violence. (It is criminally enforceable under Section 25.074 of the Penal Code). (A): Sequestration Order (B): Garnishment Order (C): Protective Order (D): Order of Sale

(11.4.1) "________________" is a judgment entered by the court upon the failure of a party to plead or appear at the appointed time. (A): Attachment (B): Complaint (C): Default Judgment (D): Execution Judgment

(24.1.1) What is the primary purpose of patrol? (A): public relations (B): fill the jails (C): prevent crime (D): prevent traffic collisions

"The suspect screamed, ignored my partner and I knew he would resist arrest when the time came." This is a poor sentence for a police report because: (A): it groups unrelated ideas together (B): it is written in passive voice (C): it contains inferences that are not factual

"To transfer to another a controlled substance or offer to sell a controlled substance" is a definition of: (A): distribute (B): dispense (C): deliver (D): possess

(1.1.1) Factors Influencing Fitness/Wellness lists six specific factors that make up the "Wellness Pyramid." Which of the following factors make up the foundation on which the Wellness Pyramid is built? (A): Self-Responsibility (B): Stress Management (C): Regular Exercise and Proper Nutrition (D): Tobacco Cessation

(1.1.1) Physical fitness can be divided into two categories which are: (A): health related and wellness. (B): motor related and wellness. (C): Functional and health related fitness; and motor fitness. (D): none of the above

(1.1.1) Which of the following statements is correct concerning the "Wellness Pyramid?" (A): How we act, function, and perform during our everyday lives does not have that much impact on fitness/wellness. (B): Self-responsibility has marginal impact on fitness/well-being (C): Exercise and proper nutrition make up the foundation of the Wellness Pyramid (D): Nutrition is not a part of this concept

(1.2.3) Eat healthy __% of the time but allow some "treats" __% of the time and you're more likely to stick with a plan. (A): 50/50. (B): 70/30. (C): 80/20. (D): 90/10.

(11.7.4) The majority of landlord and tenant disputes are resolved in the Justice Court. The correct order to instruct the tenants to leave the premises immediately and if they fail to comply, physically remove them, is __________________ . (Property Code Sec: 24.001, Rule 740) (A): a forcible entry and detainer (B): a peace bond (C): a writ of possession (D): an order of sale

(12.1.2) Alcohol, or any beverage containing more than one-half of one percent of alcohol by volume, which is capable of use for beverage purposes is the definition of: (A): beer (B): mixed drink (C): alcoholic beverage (D): distilled spirits

(12.1.4) Under the Alcoholic Beverage Code, a minor commits an offense if he falsely states that he is at least 21 years of age to a _____________________________________ . (A): Peace Officer (B): TABC Agent (C): person engaged in selling and/or serving alcoholic beverages (D): None of these , a minor must falsely state his name and age to break the law

(13.1.1) "_____________" means a controlled substance that, without authorization, bears or is in , a container or has a label that bears an actual or simulated trademark, trade name, or other identifying mark, imprint , number, or device of a manufacturer, distributor, or dispenser other than the person who in fact manufactured, distributed, or dispensed the substance. (A): Controlled substance (B): Controlled substance analogue (C): Counterfeit substance (D): Drug paraphernalia

(13.1.3) The possession of marijuana could be a Felony offense if the person possesses a usable quantity of marihuana that is _______________________________ . (A): over 1 ounce but under 2 ounces (B): over 2 ounces but under 4 ounces (C): over 4 ounces (D): less than 1 ounce

(13.1.3) Unlawful Delivery of one ounce of Baking Soda represented to be Cocaine by the seller is what charge? (A): Class A Misd. (B): Class B Misd. (C): State Jail Felony (D): Felony 1

(13.1.3) What is the Penalty Group Classification (Possession) for 0.5 grams of Heroin? (A): 2nd Degree Felony (B): Class B Misd (C): State Jail Felony (D): None of these

(13.2.3) The BPOC list three usual methods of drug abuse. These three methods are: (A): Injection, Absorption, Ingestion (B): Inhalation, Inflation, Deflation (C): Ingestion, Inhalation, Injection (D): Absorption, Injection, Inhalation

(14.1.1) According to the Family Code, of the people listed below, who may be designated as a Guardian Ad Litem: (A): A Police Officer (B): A Probation Officer (C): An Attorney (D): A Prosecutor

(14.1.2) Under the Family Code, the term "parent" would include each of the following except: (A): mother (B): father (C): parent whose parental rights have been terminated (D): mother or father whose parental rights have not been terminate(D):

(14.1.3) Delinquent Conduct in the family code includes which of the following offenses? (A): minor in possession of illicit beverage (B): public intoxication (C): Driving While Intoxicated (DWI) (D): Violation of DL restriction

(14.1.7) A law enforcement officer may issue a field release citation as provided by Article 14.06 in place of taking a child into custody for a ________ or an offense punishable by fine only. (A): "DWI" (B): All Class "B" and "C" Misdemeanors (C): Traffic Offense (D): None of the above

(15.1.3) Choose the active voice sentence: (A): The screwdriver was found in the bushes. (B): It was processed for latent prints. (C): The witness pointed out the suspect. (D): The suspect was placed in the interview room.

(15.1.3) Choose the best sentence for a police report. (A): Brown did admit to stealing the car. (B): Brown was worried about what his boss would think of him. (C): Brown told me he took the 1989 Monte Carlo with Texas license BHJ 303. (D): Brown gives two conflicting stories.

(15.1.3) Find the active voice sentence. (A): The syringes were found above the sun visor of the truck. (B): Consent was obtained from the driver to search the truck. (C): Smith's dog alerted on the interior of the truck. (D): A property tag was placed on the syringes by officer Smith.

(15.2.3) All of the following are characteristics of good field notes; EXCEPT: (A): they are brief notations about specific events and circumstances (B): they are used to prepare a report (C): they require more follow-up contact with people interviewed (D): they are recorded while fresh in the officer's mind

(15.3.3) There are "four" common types of police reports. Which of the following describes them? (A): Arrest, Incident, Offender, and Secondary Reports (B): Preliminary, Follow-up, Incident, and Secretarial Reports. (C): Arrest, Incident, Offense, and Supplemental Reports (D): None of the above

(15.3.4) "_______________ reports" arrange information in order of occurrence. (A): Categorical (B): Passive (C): Chronological (D): Ethical

(15.3.6) Making a distinction between fact and opinion achieves which of the following characteristics of a good police report? (A): clarity (B): conciseness (C): objectivity (D): accuracy

(16.1.3) Rubio is Spanish for ______? (A): Ruby (B): Red (C): Blonde (D): None of these are correct

(16.1.4) Your partner is arresting someone when you hear him yell, "No me mires!" What has he said? (A): don't move (B): drop the gun (C): don't look at me (D): don't shoot me (E): don't kick me

(17.1.1) "Deadly Force" is defined as that amount of force likely to cause death or (A): bodily injury (B): pain and suffering (C): serious bodily injury (D): near-death experience

(19.3.2) The minimum standards for the annual firearms proficiency course of fire for __________shall be a minimum of 30 rounds of ammunition fired at a range of at least 50 yards, including at least one timed reload; however, an agency may, in its discretion, allow a range of less than 50 yards but not less than 10 yards if the minimum passing percentage is raised to 90. (Rule 217.21) (A): fully automatic weapons (B): shotguns (C): patrol rifles (D): handguns

(17.1.1) "Deadly Force" means: (A): force that is not intended or known by the actor to cause, or in the manner of its use or intended use is capable of causing death or force that is intended or known by the actor to cause, or in the manner of its use or intended use is capable of causing bodily injury. (B): force that is intended or known by the actor to cause, or in the manner of its use or intended use is capable of causing serious bodily injury or force that is intended or known by the actor to cause, or in the manner of its use or intended use is capable of causing "bodily injury" only. (C): force that is intended or known by the actor to cause, or in the manner of its use or intended use is capable of causing death or force that is intended or known by the actor to cause, or in the manner of its use or intended use is capable of causing serious bodily injury. (D): None of the above

(17.1.1) Deadly Force means force that is intended or known by the actor to cause, or in the manner of its use or intended use is capable of causing, death or: (A): bodily injury. (B): significant harm. (C): serious bodily injury. (D): impairment.

(17.1.2) The "threat of force"; (A): Is justified even though the use of force is unjustified. (B): Is not justified even though the use of force is justified. (C): Is justified when the use of force is justified. (D): None of the above

(17.1.3) A peace officer MAY NOT use deadly force: (A): to protect himself from serious bodily injury or death (B): to protect another from serious bodily injury or death (C): to prevent the other from fleeing immediately after committing arson (D): all of these are appropriate deadly force situations

(17.1.3) All of the following persons can use force to safeguard or promote the welfare of a child EXCEPT: (A): a grandparent or guardian (B): anyone acting under the direction of a court with jurisdiction (C): a spouse of the child (D): anyone who has the express or implied consent of the parent or parents

(17.1.3) The leading Supreme Court case defining the police use of deadly force with a fleeing felon is: (A): Graham v Conner (B): Webster v Houston (C): Tennessee v Garner (D): Connally v Georgia

(17.2.1) "The amount of lawful physical coercion sufficient to achieve a legitimate law enforcement objective" is the definition of ________________ . (A): coercion (B): force (C): reasonable force (D): deadly force

(17.2.3) Which of the following is NOT a "deciding factor" used by the courts to determine if unreasonable force was used in a case? (A): The nature of the crime. (B): The number of people involved and their actions. (C): The area in which the offense occurred. (D): Known character and previous arrest record of the offender.

(17.3.2) Which of the following is specifically listed in Chapter 17 of the BPOC Learning Objectives as one of the "principal considerations" in applying anything from the "use of force continuum?" (A): Effective control results when the level of force is less than the subject's level of resistance. (B): Excessive control results when the level of force is unreasonably lower than the subject's level of resistance (C): The force used should be no more than a reasonable officer would use under the total circumstances of the situation. (D): It is not required for the officer to follow departmental policy and the law in an emergency situation

(17.3.4) Which of the following is true concerning "perception of a message" in the communication process? (A): 60% of the time a message is received due to content (B): 60% of the time a message is received due to voice. (C): 60% of the time a message is received due to non-verbals (body language). (D): None of the above.

(17.3.5) Identify the elements that an officer must recognize and control in every encounter: (A): Problem, Source, Arrest, Exit (B): Escape, Defense, Legality, Calm (C): Problem, Audience, Constraints, Ethical Presence (D): Arrival, Practice, Negotiate, Leave

(17.4.2) Section 1983 of Title 42 U.S.(C): provides that every person shall be liable to the party injured if they cause an injury to a person under color of law which deprives them of a: (A): privilege endorsed by the community (B): right granted by the local government (C): right granted by the Constitution and laws (D): right accepted under local community standards

(17.4.2) There are two basic elements of a U.S. Code Section 1983 lawsuit, they are: (A): Violation of a constitutional right and intentional tort (B): Acting under color of law and negligent tort (C): Violation of a constitutional right and acting under color of law (D): Acting under color of law and failure to protect

(18.1 - ASP) In ASP training, the danger zone is also referred to as the "Gap" which is the distance within which an officer cannot react to a physical assault. This distance is: (A): 2 feet (B): 4 feet (C): 6 feet (D): 10 feet (E): 20 feet

(18.1.1) The police role in a physical arrest is essentially to protect the public and to take the violator into custody. It is important for the officer to maintain physical and "______________ control" in order to ensure the safety of the officer, the arrestee, and the public. (A): ethical (B): personnel (C): emotional (D): none of the above makes sense.

(18.1.2) In the BPOC, "Weaponless Strategies" would include all of the following except: (A): Joint-locking (B): Touching (C): Handcuffs (D): Pressure points

(18.1.2) In the BPOC, "weaponless strategies" specifically included which of the following? (A): verbal communication (B): cultural awareness (C): touching (D): maintaining distance

(18.1.2) Which of the following is not an example of a Weapons Strategy as presented in Force Options: (A): Kubotan (B): ASP (C): Feet (D): OC Spray

(18.1.4) In cases where a subject has died in police custody after being exposed to OC Spray, what has thus far been determined to be the likely cause of the death? (A): An allergic reaction to the spray. (B): Excessive Force by the Officers (C): Excited Delirium

(2.1.2) The National Commission on Law Observance and Enforcement (Wickersham Commission) reported in 1931 "the greatest promise for the future of policing is (A): improving police response time to crime is essential. (B): Stream-lining the court system and increasing conviction rates will help decrease crime problems." (C): the college or university. (D): None of the above

(18.1.4) The baton is classified as a weapon capable of inflicting serous bodily injury. Which of the following is not a situation listed as one that may necessitate the use of a baton or impact weapon? (A): When an officer is a member of a tactical squad in a crowd or riot control formation, the baton may be used to move, separate, disperse or deny a person access to a structure or through an area. (B): When an officer is attacked by a suspect armed with a non-firearm type weapon, the officer may use the baton or disarm, distract, or disable the suspect, or to hold the suspect at bay until additional assistance arrives. (C): When an officer is assaulted by an armed suspect, the baton should be used to disarm the suspect. (D): When the officer is confronted by several suspects who are threatening the officer, when the suspects are capable of carrying out the threats, and when they make an overt act to carry out the threats, the officer may use the baton to fend off an attack or assault and make an arrest.

(18.1.4) Which of the following is the active ingredient in pepper spray? (A): Alcohol (B): Oil (C): Capsaicin (D): Chili pepper

(18.1.4) Which of the following was not identified as a strike area when using a baton: (A): center mass of arms (B): center mass of legs (C): center mass of hands (D): abdomen

(18.2.10) Which of the following is in the correct order for an arrest procedure? (A): All of these are acceptable (B): position, handcuff, transport, search (C): position, handcuff, search, transport (D): position, search, handcuff, transport

(18.2.3) How did TCOLE suggest that two officers (on foot) should approach a subject? (A): One officer in front of the subject, the other officer behind the subject. (B): One officer behind the other officer, making it difficult for the subject to see what the second officer plans to do. (C): Approach and interview spread in a "V" formation (D): None of the above

(18.2.3) When choosing an approach in an arrest situation, what is the most important consideration? (A): the fastest approach possible (B): the approach with the most cover available (C): the safest approach available (D): the approach that gives the suspect peripheral vision of the officer

(18.2.4) In deciding whether to use handcuffs on a prisoner, which of the following should [u]not[/u] be considered when deciding to handcuff the suspect? (A): immediate threat posed by the suspect (B): severity of the crime involved (C): a citizen requests the handcuffs (D): active resistance or attempts to flee

(18.2.4) It can be argued officers used deadly force by causing severe injury in the use of handcuffs, when they: (A): double lock them (B): check device tightness (C): leave them on someone for an extended period of time (D): decontaminate cuffs before use

(18.2.4) When handcuffing two suspects with one set of handcuffs the suggested technique was to: (A): Handcuff ankles together, making it impossible to run away. (B): Handcuff right hand of one subject to the left hand of the second subject, making it easier to transport. (C): Handcuff the right hand of one subject to the right hand of the other subject or left hand to left hand, making it difficult for subjects to run. (D): None of the above.

(18.2.4) Which of the following is a correct procedure when applying handcuffs on a non-resisting suspect? (A): hands in front (B): palms together (C): key holes up (D): handcuffs loosened

(18.2.8) All of the following are suggested methods for a single officer moving a prisoner that is already handcuffed, Except: (A): use verbal commands (B): reach between the arms and grasp the belt or waistline (C): lift up on the cuff when you want to move him forward (D): position yourself to the side of the suspect, weapon away from the suspect

(19.2.1) One home safety method of storing a revolver in a safe condition is to: (A): keep it on the top shelf in a closet (B): put it in a pocket of a coat hanging in a closet (C): open the cylinder and place handcuffs through the window of the frame (D): keep the pistol in the refrigerator

(19.2.1) One of the Cardinal Rules of Firearms Safety is "Be sure ___________________________." (A): you are familiar with your firearm's ballistic capabilities (B): that your firearm is always cleaned properly (C): of your target and beyond (D): to always check your firearm's barrel for obstructions each day of duty

(19.2.1) The majority of negligent discharges with a firearm are caused by violating which safety rule? (A): All guns are always loaded (B): Never let the muzzle cover anything your are not will to destroy (C): Keep finger off trigger and outside trigger guard until sights are on target (D): Make sure of your target and beyond

(19.2.2) In a shotgun slug round, a slug is called a "rifled" slug because: (A): it can only be fired in shotguns with rifling (B): it can only be fired in a rifle (C): spiral grooves on the slug impart a spin on the slug as it travels down the barrel (D): it has ballistical tool marks imparted to it by the barrel

(19.2.2) What is the purpose of "rifling" inside the barrel of a firearm? (A): marking the bullet for identification (B): prolonging the life of the barrel (C): increasing the accuracy of the firearm (D): making allowances for a larger caliber bullet to be fired from the barrel

(19.2.4) A poor grip on a handgun affects all of these, Except: (A): shot placement (B): recoil recovery (C): sight alignment (D): weapon retention

(19.2.4) One major UT Police Academy firearms safety rule is: (A): Keep all loaded weapons in the holster (B): Only clear loaded weapons toward the brick walls (C): No live ammo in the classroom (D): All loaded firearms should cleared in the corner of the classroom and an empty firearm holstered

(19.2.4) Reloading a semi auto pistol and retaining a partially loaded magazine is know as a: (A): speed load (B): speed reload (C): tactical reload or reload with retention (D): administrative reload

(19.2.4) Which type of semiautomatic reload technique is used only from a covered position when not directly under fire? (A): speed load (B): tap rack and load (C): tactical reload (D): stripper clip

(19.3.1) The "close combat position" should be used at what distance(s)? (A): 10 yards (B): 5 to 10 yards, when a one-handed hold is used (C): 2 or 3 yards - point blank

(2.1.4) A "__________" is defined by TCOLE Rules as any magazine-fed repeating rifle with iron/open sights or with a frame mounted optical enhancing sighting device, 5 power or less, that is carried by the individual officer in an official capacity. (TCOLE Rule 211.1) (A): long-range rifle (B): precision rifle (C): patrol rifle (D): shotgun

(2.1.4) The annual firearms proficiency requirement for handguns must include a minimum passing percentage of _____% with a minimum firing of _______ rounds, including at least _____rounds of duty ammunition. (Rule 217.21) (A): 50%, 50, 5 (B): 60%, 100, 10 (C): 70%, 50, 5 (D): 80%, 150, 15

(2.1.4) The legislatively required continuing education program for individual's licensed as peace officers shall consist of ______ hours of training every _______ month unit of a training cycle. (Rule 217.11) (A): 25, 12 (B): 35, 24 (C): 40, 24 (D): 50, 12

(2.1.4) The minimum standards for the annual firearms proficiency course of fire for __________shall be a minimum of 30 rounds of ammunition fired at a range of at least 50 yards, including at least one timed reload; however, an agency may, in its discretion, allow a range of less than 50 yards but not less than 10 yards if the minimum passing percentage is raised to 90. (Rule 217.21) (A): fully automatic weapons (B): shotguns (C): patrol rifles (D): handguns

(2.1.4) The minimum standards for the annual firearms proficiency course of fire for fully automatic weapons is a minimum of _____ rounds of duty ammunition fired at ranges from seven to ______ yards, including at least one time reload, with at least ______ rounds fired in full automatic (shot burst of two or three rounds), and at least five rounds fired semi-automatic, if possible with the weapon. (Rule 217.21) (A): 50, 25, 30 (B): 25, 25, 15, (C): 30, 10, 25 (D): 50, 10, 30

(2.1.4) The most minimum age at which a person may ever become a peace officer in Texas is____. (Rule 217.1) (A): 20 (B): 21 (C): 18 (D): 25

(2.1.5) In the traditional police service model, most decisions are made at the management and mid-management level with little: (A): Social involvement (B): Labor involvement (C): Citizen involvement (D): Violator involvement

(2.1.5) Within the traditional police service model, most decisions are made at the management and mid-management level with little ___________ involvement. (A): supervisor (B): commissioner (C): citizen (D): court (E): political

(20.1.10) A stroke occurs when; (A): the body heats up to the point it causes a coma like condition (B): the heart beats so quickly that oxygenated blood is not returned as soon as needed (C): the blood supply to the brain is cut off due to a blockage or rupture of a blood vessel (D): the heart muscle dies

(20.1.9) A victim is choking on food and is coughing violently. The first responder should; (A): perform a finger sweep (B): give six to ten abdominal thrusts (C): encourage them to cough (D): open airway and attempt to ventilate

(21.1.4) In order to run a 10-27 an officer needs which of the following information: (A): The person's name (as it appears on DL.) (B): The person's date of birth and address (C): The person's driver's license number (D): The person's height and weight

(21.1.4) The first responsibility of the communications operator and officer when a hit is returned on a vehicle record is to: (A): arrest the occupants (B): send a hit confirmation message to the entering agency (C): read the return carefully to compare it to the vehicle in question (D): none of the above

(23.1.1) With regard to Interpersonal Communication, "Placing your body so you are able to observe, listen or perform some physical act" is the definition of _______. (A): Arranging (B): Posturing (C): Positioning (D): Distancing

(23.2.5) In Problem Oriented Policing, which of the following is FALSE regarding "a problem"? (A): It can be a group of calls (B): It can be a pattern of crimes (C): It is limited to things that only concern police officers (D): It is something that concerns or causes harm to citizens

(23.2.6) The SARA method of problem solving is ; (A): The only method used by police for addressing problems (B): A system devised by an author to promote his daughter's name (C): One of the organized models for problem resolution (D): A system to confuse the uniformed

(23.2.8) In Problem Oriented Policing and the concentration of crime, there is a concept called the Crime Triangle; it includes: (A): date-time-location (B): arrest-warn-release (C): offender-location-victim (D): desire-opportunity-ability

(23.2.9) All of the following are true about problem-oriented policing, EXCEPT (A): a problem is the basic unit of police work rather than a crime (B): officers are encouraged to take responsibility for problems in their patrol areas (C): police are expected to solve all the problems they encounter (D): solutions can be tailored to particular situations (E): officers in the field can best define what the community's problems are

(23.2.9) In Problem Oriented Policing, which of the following is FALSE regarding "a problem"? (A): It can be a group of calls (B): It can be a pattern of crimes (C): It is limited to things that only concern police officers (D): It is something that concerns or causes harm to citizens

(23.2.9) Problem solving is important to policing because ; (A): The community expects police to have all the answers (B): Officers don't want to get caught without an answer (C): It is essential to professionalism (D): Criminals create problems but don't have to solve them

(23.5.2) For communication to be successful the meaning must not only be sent, but (A): sent repeatedly (B): sent sincerely (C): also comprehended (D): also be rational

(23.5.2) Which of the following is a Communication Model? (A): Order driven (B): Codified (C): Interactive (D): Simple

(24.1.2) The patrol technique that pays rewards more than any other is: (A): at night, patrol without your headlamps (B): drive around below the speed limit (C): know your beat (patrol district) (D): park and listen often

(24.2.1) In using a flashlight to avoid silhouetting, hold the light_____________. (A): Directly in front of you. (B): Under your non-gun-hand arm. (C): Well in front and away from your body. (D): Adjacent to your duty weapon in a two-hand combat grip in front of your body.

(24.2.1) Which of the following best describes the three major groups of hazards you must constantly guard against for safety reasons? (A): Congestion, miscellaneous police service, and accidents (B): Silhouetting, street inspections, and home inspections (C): Telltale noises, silhouetting, and suspects' hands (D): Suspects' hands, suspects' vehicle, and doorways

(24.2.1) Which of the following would most likely be responsible for livestock running loose on the highway? (A): Any peace officer (B): Highway patrol officers (C): County sheriff officers (D): Animal control officers

(24.2.1) Why should law enforcement officers avoid "silhouetting" when performing patrol tasks? (A): To establish good relations with the community (B): To demonstrate that the officers received good training (C): For officer safety and to create a tactical advantage. (D): To prevent media personnel from taking pictures of operations.

(24.4.2) When two officers are dealing with two people, the cover officer: (A): engages in lengthy conversations with people with whom the primary officer is not dealing. (B): assumes a field inquiry position with the second person while the primary officer takes a field inquiry position with the first. (C): assumes a position that allows maximum visibility of the people and communicates any threat or hazard to the primary officer. (D): remains seated in the police vehicle and communicates all actions to the dispatcher.

(24.4.3) Based on the BPOC, which of the following is true concerning the correct procedure to follow when conducting a "field interview"? (A): The officer should place gun side toward the person interviewed and stand very close to the individual. (B): The officer should stand directly in front of the person interviewed and at least 21 feet from the individual. (C): The officer should place gun side away from the person interviewed and stand approximately one arm's length or more from the person. (D): The officer should stand behind the individual and require him to lean forward against a building.

(24.4.3) Police departments should identify gang membership in their reports and index these identifiers in their records because: (A): it is a legal requirement and law enforcement agencies are bound to comply (B): it includes juvenile records with adult records under special circumstances (C): it assists in enhancement of penalties for engaging is organized criminal activity

(24.5.1) Which of the following is in the correct chronological order for the 7-Step Violator Contact in traffic enforcement? (A): Greeting & ID of Agency - Explain Driver's Duties - ID of Driver & Complete Check (B): Greeting & ID/Agency - Statement of Action - ID Driver & Complete Check (C): Statement of Action - Take the Action - Explain Driver's Duties (D): Explain Driver's Duties - Take the Action - Leave

(24.5.12) The strategy used to handle unruly crowds is to: (A): locate, divide and conquer (B): isolate, separate, and remove (C): contain, isolate, and disperse (D): isolate, castrate, and humiliate

(24.5.12) Which of the following is an "ALWAYS" for officers approaching an unruly crowd? (A): arrest ringleaders (B): deploy teargas before making contact (C): allow its members to escape (D): deploy less lethal munitions

(24.5.12) Which of the following is true about an arrest made at the scene of a riot? (A): officers should not make immediate arrests, because it may tend to involve onlookers (B): arrested persons should be held at the scene for identification as long as possible (C): the more quickly and decisively officers move to arrest the more likely they can cut off the accumulation of onlookers and handle the situation

(24.5.3) Who is responsible for transmitting information about a "crime in progress" call after responding to it? (A): whoever wants to take charge at the scene (B): the supervisor who responds to the scene (C): the first officer to arrive at the scene (D): the senior officer who responds to the scene

(24.5.5) In the event of a bomb threat, which of the following is the most important safety procedure to employ? (A): Craft a public saftey message to release to the press and public (B): Remove valuable or irreplaceable equipment (C): Determine if evacuation is necessary (D): Action should only be taken if the threat is specific

(24.5.5) Pipe bombs are the most common kind of: (A): International Explosive Division (B): Immediate Explosives Disposal (C): Improvised Explosive Device (D): Immediate Explosive Detonation

(24.5.5) The initials I.E.D. stand for __________________________________________ . (A): International Explosive Division (B): Immediate Explosives Disposal (C): Improvised Explosive Device (D): Immediate Explosive Detonation

(24.5.5) When a bomb explodes, most of the fatalities result from: (A): Thermal expansion (B): Fragmentation (C): Blast pressure (D): Inhalation of toxic particles

(24.5.5) Which of the following is TRUE regarding profiles of suicide bombers? (A): suicide bombers are always males under the age of 25 (B): women are never used as suicide bombers for fear they will get scared and not go through with the attack (C): there is no accurate profile for suicide bombers as they have come from all walks of life, all social and economic levels and both sexes (D): suicide bombers are mentally unstable individuals who are easily manipulated by others

(24.5.5) Which one poses the highest level or risk for death of persons nearby in an explosion? (A): incediary/thermal effect (B): framentation effect (C): blast pressure effect (D): sound levels

(24.8.3) All of the following are purposes of a security survey, except: (A): to assess the present security status of the location (B): to identify deficient or excessive security measures (C): to be certain all crime risks are eliminated (D): to determine the protection needed

(25.2.4) A victim of a ____________ offense may choose a pseudonym to be used instead of the victim's name to designate the victim in all public files and records concerning the offense, including police summary reports, press releases, and records of judicial proceedings. (A): perjury (B): robbery (C): family violence (D): aggravated robbery

(25.2.4) In the initial contact at the scene of a crime, a victim requests information on the procedures in a criminal investigation; who has the duty under the Crime Victims Rights Act, to provide that information? (A): the prosecutor (B): a magistrate (C): a peace officer (D): the attorney general's office

(25.2.4) The Rights of Crime Victims are contained in Chapter 56 of the Texas _________________.` (A): Government Code (B): Occupations Code (C): Code of Criminal Procedure (D): Rules of Evidence (E): Penal Code

(25.2.4) The victim of a violent crime has the right to the prompt return of any property that is (A): valued over $50 (B): proved to be owned by the victim (C): no longer needed as evidence (D): held longer than 90 days

(25.2.4) Which of the following can be reimbursed under the Crime Victim's Compensation Act? (A): pain (B): suffering (C): actual medical expenses (D): loss due to damaged property

(26.1.4) All of the following are types of abuse common to family violence EXCEPT? (A): Sexual (B): Physical (C): Loner (D): Emotional

(26.2.1) A person commits the offense of "_______________" if he threatens to commit any offense involving violence to any person or property with intent to place any person in fear of imminent serious bodily injury. (A): Harassment (B): Official Oppression (C): Terroristic Threat (D): None of the above

(26.2.1) A person commits the offense of "___________________" if he intentionally, knowingly, recklessly, or with criminal negligence, by act or intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly by omission, causes to a child, elderly, individual, or disabled individual: serious bodily injury; serious mental deficiency, impairment; or injury; or bodily injury. (A): Terroristic Threat (B): Deadly Conduct (C): Injury to a Child, Elderly Individual, or Disabled Individual. (D): Kidnapping

(26.2.1) The most serious offense that a person commits is "______________" if the person commits "assault" and the person causes serious bodily injury to another, including the person's spouse or uses or exhibits a deadly weapon during the commission of the assault. (A): Deadly conduct. (B): Assault. (C): Aggravated Assault (D): Unreasonable Force

(26.2.6) A peace officer "_________" arrest, without a warrant, a person the peace officer has probable cause to believe has committed an offense under Section 25.07, Penal Code ([i]Violation Of Certain Court Orders Or Conditions Of Bond In A Family Violence, Sexual Assault Or Abuse, Stalking, Or Trafficking Case[/i]) if the offense is committed in the presence of the peace officer. (A): may (B): may not (C): shall (D): never arrest without a valid warrant

(27.1.1.2) Concerning force which of the following is NOT true? (A): your force will be highly scrutinized (B): force may be needed, even deadly force (C): force should always be used first (D): none of these

(27.1.2.1) Which of the following is a characterization of mental illness? (A): Permanent intellectual impairment. (B): Below average intellectual functioning. (C): Develops at any point in life. (D): Behaves rationally at a functional level.

(27.1.2.7) A person shows little interest in daily activities, suffers from poor sleep and appetite and doesn't seem "in contact" with ongoing daily events. This person could be suffering from _________________ . (A): Schizophrenia (B): Paranoia (C): Depression (D): Paranoid Schizophrenia

(27.1.7.2) Emergency Detention Order is covered under what statute? (A): Penal Code 573.011 (B): Transportation Code 573.011 (C): Health and Safety Code 573.011 (D): Health and Safety Code 883.000

(27.2.1) " ________________" is defined by the BPOC as an illness, disease or condition that either substantially impacts a person's thought, perception of reality, emotional process, judgment, or grossly impairs a person's behavior, as manifested by recent disturbance behavior. (A): Insanity (B): Criminal Insanity (C): Mental Illness (Mental Disorder) (D): Mental retardation

(27.2.7) What is the most common mental illness associated with suicide? (A): Histrionic personality disorder (B): Autism (C): Depression (D): Mental retardation

(28.1.1) The United States Department of Transportation (DOT) defines _____________ as: A substance or material capable of posing an unreasonable risk to health, safety, or property when transported in commerce. The term includes hazardous substances, hazardous wastes, marine pollutants, elevated temperature materials, and materials designated as hazardous in the Hazardous Materials Table (se 49 CFR 172.101) (A): Toxicology (B): Dangerous drugs (C): Hazardous Material (D): None of the above.

(28.1.2) "_____________" is given by the BPOC as a route of exposure to hazardous material by being cut or abraded by a contaminated object. (A): Inhalation (B): Absorption (C): Injection (D): Ingestion

(28.1.2) In HAZMAT training, the initials MSDS stand for: (A): Monosodiumdisulfate (B): metal standard deflection shield (C): material safety data sheet

(28.1.4) The placard color that denotes explosive is: (A): Blue (B): Red (C): orange (D): green

(28.1.6) First responders to incidents that may involve Hazardous Materials should approach the incident from the ________________ . (A): most direct route (B): downwind (C): upwin(D): uphill, upstream side (D): position where your vehicle can be in reverse

(29.1.1) "___________" means anything to be offered in court to prove the truth or falsity of a fact in issue. (A): veracity (B): foundation of a crime (C): evidence (D): conviction

(29.1.4) The "corpus delicti" is the body or foundation of a crime, which ordinarily contains two elements: (A): intent and knowledge (B): physical harm and property loss (C): the criminal act and the elements of the offense (D): victims and criminals

(29.1.4) Which of the following describe the "criminal agency" of an act? BAD QUESTION - NOT IN TCOLE OBJECTIVES - 5/23/18 (A): intent (B): identity of the perpetrator (C): means by which it was accomplished (D): proof beyond a reasonable doubt

(29.10.7) In a criminal trial the court (judge) at the request of a party "may order the exclusion of a witness" (also called "______________________" ) who for the purposes of the prosecution is a victim, close relative of a deceased victim or guardian of a victim only if the witness is to testify and the court determines that the testimony of the witness would be materially affected if the witness hears other testimony at the trial. (A): Officially required witness exclusion (B): Witness exclusion (C): Invocation of the Rule (D): None of the above

(29.2.10) The _______ rapist wants to prove his masculinity, the assault is an attempt to control and sexually possess the victim to feel adequate and will use a con or suspense approach. (A): Opportunistic rapist (B): Sadistic rapist (C): Power rapist (D): Anger rapist

(29.3) Which of the following IS NOT a justification for the One-on-One Confrontation in identifying a suspect? (A): the suspect is released, if innocent (B): if the police have the wrong suspect, they can release him & continue to search (C): the "one-on-one" eliminates any irreparable misidentification by the witness (D): the police can end the search if they have the right suspect

(29.3.4) Which of the following is a goal of the Preliminary Criminal Investigation? (A): conduct appropriate surveillance and interrogation (B): develop and revise the scheme of the crime (C): get description of perpetrator from witnesses (D): prepare the case and confer with the prosecutor

(29.4.2) "______________" is the dark blue discoloration observable on the parts of the body that are nearest the ground. It appears about two hours subsequent to death. May provide a clue as to whether the body was moved after death. (A): Rigor Mortis (B): Duces Tecum (C): Post Mortem Lividity (D): Mala in se

(29.4.2) A purplish discoloration of the body that occurs on those parts of the body which are nearest the floor and is caused by pooling of the blood to the lowest point is called: (A): Pre-Mortem Lividity (B): Post Mortem Anserinea (C): Post Mortem Lividity (D): Low Level Pooling

(29.6.6) Crime scenes are most often bungled by: (A): victims (B): suspects (C): police agencies/officers (D): witnesses & bystanders

(29.7.1) The BPOC defines "________________" as is a planned and coordinated legal search of a crime scene to locate physical evidence or witnesses to the crime under investigation (A): Criminal investigation (B): Modus Operandi (C): Crime Scene Search (D): Subpoena Duces Tecum

(29.7.11) All of the following statements ARE TRUE about a rough crime scene sketch; EXCEPT: (A): it is completed at the scene (B): it has all necessary details noted on it (C): it is started after the collection of evidence (D): it does not use a scale

(29.7.11) If a sexual assault suspect is captured shortly after the crime, he should not be returned to the crime scene, because: (A): he may terrorize the victim (B): he may try to tamper with evidence (C): physical evidence of his presence in the scene would no longer have value (D): it could violate his constitutional rights

(29.7.15) When investigating a crime, officers need to protect evidence from change, loss, damage, and _________________? (A): weather (B): destruction (C): contamination (D): wind

(29.7.15) Which of the following is TRUE about hair, fibers and latent prints at a crime scene? (A): they should be drawn in detail in the general locality sketch (B): they have little potential in identifying a person (C): they are considered "trace" evidence; left at the scene through transfer (D): they require only minor protection at the scene of a crime and are very durable

(29.8.2) Which of the following techniques should be avoided in questioning a suspect? (A): Have the suspect explain his answers (B): Use known facts to confront the suspect's falsehoods and discrepancies (C): Ask the suspect questions that require a plain "yes or no" answer (D): Allow the suspect to tell his own story

(29.8.2) Written statements (confessions) made by the accused should be arranged in what sequence? (A): Exactly as related by the person giving the statement. (B): In an order determined to be proper by the officer taking the statement. (C): In chronological order. (D): In no particular order.

(3.1.2) Which of the following was specifically listed by TCOLE as being a "disadvantage" of the "professional model for law enforcement?" (A): Stronger community support and respect. (B): Stronger role in the criminal justice system. (C): Cost of training and development. (D): Financial rewards.

(3.1.2) Which of the following was specifically listed in the BPOC as an "advantage" of having the professional model for law enforcement? (A): increased cost of training and development (B): opportunity for educational benefits (C): more effective problem solving techniques (D): limited entry-level opportunities for people from lower socioeconomic segments

(3.2.1) According to the Law Enforcement Code of Ethics and TCOLE, certain behavior is required of an officer who performs an ethical role. Which of the following IS NOT one of those suggested requirements? (A): Act as a representative of the Criminal Justice System (B): Maintain ethics in client relationships (C): Keep your private life private so any unethical acts committed off duty don't come to light (D): Working ethically with other criminal justice personnel

(3.2.3) "_____________" is the state or quality of mind or spirit that enables one to face danger with self-possession, confidence, and resolution; bravery; valor. (A): Strength (B): Wisdom (C): Courage (D): None of the above

(3.2.3) Which of the following was specifically listed in the BPOC, Chapter 3, as an example of moral courage? (A): Facing barricaded, armed suspect. (B): Arresting a combative suspect. (C): Refusing gratuities. (D): None of the above

(6.1.1) All the following are objectives of the Code of Criminal Procedure, EXCEPT: (A): adopt measures for preventing the commission of a crime (B): to exclude the offender from all hope of escape (C): to insure a trial which assures that the State will prevail

(3.3.2) What federal law enforcement agency has a special role assigned to them to investigate violations of federal statutes designed to prevent violations of civil rights of citizens by peace officers? (A): ATF (B): Secret Service (C): FBI (D): DEA (E): This type of case must be investigated by the Attorney General

(4.1.2) "______________________" is the name given to a variety of writs, with the objective of bringing a party before a court or judge. The primary function is to release from unlawful imprisonment. The purpose of the writ is not to determine prisoner's guilt or innocence, and the only issue which it presents is whether prisoner is restrained of his liberty by due process. (A): Writ of Mandamus (B): Writ of Attainder (C): Writ of Habeas Corpus (D): None of the above are correct

(4.1.2) Based on the U.S. Constitution, the Writ of Habeas Corpus may be suspended in which of the following two conditions? (A): In cases of war or when there is a level "Red" terroristic threat. (B): In cases of invasion or when ordered by the Commander of U.S Armed Forces. (C): In cases of rebellion or invasion when the public safety requires it. (D): Never. Under the U.S Constitution the Writ of Habeas Corpus may never be suspended.

(4.1.2) The CCP defines ________________ as an order issued by a judge directed to anyone having a person in their custody, commanding them to produce such person and show why they are in custody. (A): writ of sequrestration (B): writ of attachment (C): writ of habeas corpus (D): remainder of custody

(4.1.3) Article 3 of the U.S. Constitution shows "__________" as the only crime to be found in the constitution. (A): Forgery. (B): Unlawfully carrying a weapon. (C): Treason. (D): Counterfeiting.

(4.1.5) The right to seize or arrest a person in accordance with law is found in which amendment to the US Constitution? (A): First Amendment (B): Third Amendment (C): Fourth Amendment (D): Fifth Amendment

(4.1.6) Amendment # ______ protects a citizen from being required to be a witness against themselves in a criminal case. (A): One (B): Four (C): Five (D): Six

(4.1.6) The _____ Amendment guarantees the right to a grand jury, prohibits double jeopardy, prohibits self-incrimination, and requires that the system must follow due-process-of-law guidelines. (A): First (B): Fourth (C): Fifth (D): Six

(4.1.7) According to the ______________ the accused shall enjoy the right to a speedy and public trial. (A): Fourth Amendment. (B): Fifth Amendment. (C): Sixth Amendment. (D): Tenth Amendment.

(4.1.7) The Sixth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution __________. (A): provides the right to bail (B): establishes the "due process of law" doctrine (C): gives the right to trial, open to the public (D): establishes the police powers of the states

(4.1.7) Which Amendment requires that the accused have a right to be confronted with witnesses against him? (A): First Amendment (B): Fifth Amendment. (C): Sixth Amendment. (D): Ninth Amendment.

(4.1.7) Which Amendment to the U.S. Constitution gives citizens the right to an attorney during criminal proceedings? (A): Fourth Amendment. (B): Fifth Amendment. (C): Sixth Amendment. (D): Eighth Amendment.

(4.1.8) The right to be free from excessive bail and cruel and unusual punishment is contained in the (A): Fourth Amendment. (B): Sixth Amendment. (C): Eighth Amendment (D): Tenth Amendment. (E): Fourteenth Amendment

(4.1.9) Amendment # _____ states, "The enumeration in the Constitution, of certain rights, should not be construed to deny or disparage others retained by the people." (A): Four (B): Six (C): Nine (D): Ten

(4.3.3) "____________" law which for the purpose of preventing harm to society, (a) declares what conduct is criminal, and (b) prescribes the punishment to be imposed for such conduct. It includes the definition of specific offenses and general principles of criminal responsibility. Criminal laws are commonly codified into criminal or penal codes, e.g. Texas Penal Code. (A): Procedural (B): Civil (C): Criminal (D): None of the above

(4.3.3) Criminal Law is: (A): "municipal" law (B): "natural" law (C): for the purpose of preventing harm to society (D): commonwealth prohibitions

(4.3.3)Which of the following positions is a magistrate? (A): County Attorney (B): City Council Member (C): Justice of the Peace (D): Constable

(4.3.4) A peace officer has been charged with "Official Oppression." What Texas court has jurisdiction to try this case? (A): Municipal (B): Justice of the peace (C): District (D): County (E): State

(4.3.4) A peace officer has been tried and convicted of "Misuse of Official Information". What would be the first court that the case may be appealed to? (A): County (B): District (C): Courts of Appeals (D): Court of Criminal Appeals

(4.3.4) Which one of the following Texas courts ordinarily has jurisdiction to try Class "A" and "B" misdemeanors? (A): Municipal (B): Justice of the peace (C): County (D): District

(4.3.4)Which of the following IS NOT a plea which can be entered by a defendant at arraignment? (A): guilty (B): not guilty (C): deferred adjudication (D): nolo contendere

(5.1.1) An act of regarding one's own culture as the center of all, is an example of: (A): ethnicity (B): societal strain (C): ethnocentrism (D): scapegoatism

(5.1.1) In cultural diversity, technically, there are only 3 races on earth, which of the following is one of them? (A): white (B): black (C): mongoloid (D): hispanic

(5.1.1) Which of the following is a basic feeling or attitude harbored by most "prejudiced" persons? (A): Feeling of inferiority (B): Feels that all people are equal. (C): As a member of the group, the individual believes he is entitled to exclusive or prior rights in a certain area (D): All of the above are true about prejudice people (E): None of the above

Under the Texas Mental Health Code, persons who act in good faith, reasonably and without negligence are free from ____________ liability. (A): civil (B): criminal (C): both civil and criminal

(6.1.2) A person represented by legal counsel may in open court or by written instrument voluntarily waive the right to be accused by indictment (A): of any offense. (B): of any offense, other than felony crimes. (C): of any offense, other than a capital felony. (D): a defendant is never allowed to waive indictment.

(6.1.2) According to CCP 20.02, which of the following statements is true concerning the grand jury? (A): In Texas a person charged with a "Class A Misdemeanor" has a right to be indicted by a grand jury. (B): The defendant has a constitutional right to be represented by an attorney inside the chambers of the grand jury. (C): The proceedings are secret. (D): The defendant has an absolute right to appear before the grand jury.

(6.1.2) According to CCP Art. 1.051 (b), "_______________" means a person who is not financially able to employ counsel. (A): defendant (B): victim (C): indigent (D): none of the above

(6.1.2) In a capital felony case in which the attorney representing the State notifies the court and the defendant that it will not seek the death penalty, the defendant may waive the right to trial by jury but only if: (A): the investigating officer agrees in writing. (B): the family of the victim agrees in writing. (C): the attorney representing the State, in writing and in open court, consents to the waiver. (D): the defendant consents in writing before a sworn peace officer.

(6.1.2) Under the CCP, a defendant in a criminal matter is entitled to be represented by counsel in ___________ . (A): Inside the chambers of a grand jury proceeding. (B): The "initial appearance" CCP 14.06 (C): an adversarial judicial proceeding. (D): None of the above

(6.2.2) CCP 2.12 tells us "who are peace officers in Texas." Based on this statute, which of the following officers would not be a "peace officer" under Texas law. (A): Municipal Park and Recreational Patrolmen and Security officers. (B): Constable (C): An agent from Alcohol, Tobacco, and Firearms Service (D): Deputy Sheriff

(6.2.2) The director of the Department of Public Safety may appoint up to ______ railroad peace officers. (A): 150 (B): 200 (C): 250 (D): 300

(6.2.2) Which of the following would be listed in the CCP as a "Special Investigator." (A): Oklahoma State Trooper (B): Texas Ranger (C): Federal Secret Service Investigator (D): Texas Department of Public Safety Narcotics Officer

(6.2.2) Which of the following would be listed in the CCP as a "Special Investigator." (A): Railroad Peace Officer (B): New Mexico State Trooper (C): Civilian Special Agents of the United States Naval Investigative Service. (D): Sheriff

(6.2.2) Which of the following would not be a peace officer as defined by Article 2, Code of Criminal Procedure? (A): Law enforcement agents of the Alcoholic Beverage Commission (B): Arson investigation officers of a city, county, or state (C): Private security officers commissioned by the Texas Private Security Board (D): Municipal park and recreational patrolmen

(6.2.3) An affidavit given by a person to a magistrate or to a district or county attorney that charges the commission of an offense is called a: (A): Commitment (B): Writ of Attachment (C): Complaint (D): Writ of Habeaus Corpus

(6.2.3) CCP Article 2.18 requires that when a prisoner is committed to jail by warrant from a magistrate or court, he shall be placed in jail by the ______________. (A): District Attorney (B): County Attorney (C): Sheriff (D): None of the above

(6.2.3) If a peace officer refuses to execute a legal process directed to him or her by the court, he or she is liable for (A): any punishment the judge may direct. (B): A Class C misdemeanor under the Penal Code. (C): A civil fine of not less than $10 or more than $200. (D): A Class B misdemeanor under the Penal Code.

(6.2.4) CCP Article 2.131 specifically prohibits ___________ from engaging in Racial Profiling. (A): a district attorney (B): a magistrate (C): a peace officer (D): a federal law enforcement officer

(6.2.4) In the CCP "_________" means a law enforcement-initiated action based on an individual's race, ethnicity, or national origin rather than on the individual's behavior or on information identifying the individual as having engaged in criminal activity. (A): Prejudice (B): Discrimination (C): Racial Profiling (D): Racial Discrimination

(6.2.4) In the CCP "_____________" means a law enforcement-initiated action based on an individual's race, ethnicity, or national origin rather than on the individual's behavior or on information identifying the individual as having engaged in criminal activity. (A): Prejudice (B): Discrimination (C): Racial profiling (D): Racial discrimination

(6.3.3) The Court of Criminal Appeals does NOT __________. (A): issue writs of habeas corpus (B): hear cases involving the death penalty (C): review decisions of civil cases (D): review decisions of criminal cases

(6.3.4) District Court in Texas has original jurisdiction for (A): All misdemeanor cases involving disorderly conduct. (B): Only felonies (C): The offense of "Aggravated Robbery." (D): All misdemeanors that are first filed in a county court at law.

(6.3.4) Which of the following Texas courts has original jurisdiction over misdemeanor cases involving "official misconduct"? (A): Texas Supreme Court (B): County Court-at-law (C): District Court (D): Justice of the peace court.

(6.4.1) According to the CCP, a peace officer who investigates a family violence allegation or who responds to a disturbance call that involves family vilence shall advise any possible adult victim of all reasonable means to prevent further family violence, including ___________. (A): making an arrest without a warrant (B): calling in assistance from domestic violence experts (C): giving written notice of a victim's legal rights (D): giving written notice of an offender's legal rights

(6.4.3) Whenever a number of persons are assembled together in such a manner as to constitute a riot, according to the penal code of the State, it is the duty of every magistrate or peace officer to cause such person to disperse. This may be done by commanding them to disperse or by __________ the persons engaged, if necesary, either with or without a warrant. (A): killing (B): restraining (C): arresting (D): none of the above

(6.5.1) Any theft of any estate, personal or mixed, by an executor, administrator, guardian or trustee, with the intent to defraud any creditor, heir, legatee, ward, distributee, beneficiary or settlor of a trust interested in such estate, must be presented for indictment within (A): two years (B): five years (C): ten years (D): none of the above

(6.5.1) What is the statute of limitations for "theft" and "robbery?" (A): Two years (B): Three years (C): Five years (D): Ten years

(6.6.1) A peace officer commissioned and authorized by another state to make arrrests for felonies who is in the fresh pursuit of a person for the purpose of arresting that person for ___ _________ may continue the pursuit into this state and arrest the person. (A): any offense (B): all felonies and offenses against the public peace (C): a felony (D): kidnapping only

(6.6.1) An officer making an arrest without warrant may adopt all the measures which he might adopt in cases of arrest under warrant, except that an officer making an arrest without a warrant may not enter a residence to make the arrest unless: (A): a resident consents to the entry (B): exigent circumstances require that the officer making the arrest enter the residence without the consent of a resident or without a warrant (C): a resident consents to the entry or exigent circumstances require that the officer making the arrest enter the residence without the consent of a resident or without a warrant (D): none of the above

(6.6.2) A citizen, may, without a warrant, arrest an offender when the offense is committed in his presence or within his view and the criminal offense is a _________________. (A): public safety violation (B): possession of contraband (C): felony or breach of the peace (D): violation of city ordinance

(6.6.2) A warrant of arrest issued and signed only by a mayor of an incorporated city or town can be executed (A): anywhere in the United States. (B): anywhere in Texas. (C): only in the county in which it was issued. (D): only in an adjacent county.

(6.6.2) A warrant of arrest must always: (A): be issued from a district court. (B): be completed in the county where issued. (C): name the offense the person is accused of committing. (D): have the full name of the person whose arrest is ordered.

(6.6.2) When the defendant is arrested at night, the CCP "specifically" requires that he be taken before a magistrate (A): no sooner than daylight. (B): immediately. (C): without unnecessary delay. (D): as soon as the magistrate's office is open.

(6.6.2) When the defendant is arrested at night, the CCP "specifically" requires that he be taken before a magistrate: (A): No sooner than daylight (B): Immediately (C): Without unnecessary delay (D): As soon as the magistrate's office is open

(6.7.1) A search warrant shall be executed without delay, within ___________ excluding the day of issuance and the day of execution. (A): five days (B): four days (C): three days (D): six days

(6.7.1) In regards to the required procedures for the execution of a search warrant under the CCP, which of the following statements is not true? (A): Before the officer takes property from the place, he shall prepare a written inventoryof the property to be taken. (B): He shall legibly endorse his name on the inventory and present a copy of the inventory to the owner or other person in possession of the property. (C): If neither the owner nor a person in possession of the property is present when the officer executes the warrant, the officer shall leave a copy of the warrant and the inventory at closest neighbor's home. (D): On searching the place ordered to be searched, the officer executing the search warrant shall present a copy of the warrant to the owner of the place if he is present.

(6.7.1) Officers executing a search warrant shall present a copy of the warrant: (A): to any person they arrest on the premises (B): before they can seize any property (C): to the owner of the place, if he is present (D): none of these, there is no requirement regarding a copy of a search warrant

(6.7.1) Which of the following statements is "not" true in regards to a search warrant? (A): A search warrant may be issued to seize weapons prohibited by the Penal Code and that are located in the office of a newspaper. (B): A search warrant may be issued to seize arms and munitions kept or prepared for the purposes of insurrection or riot and that are located in the office of a television station. (C): A search warrant may be issued to seize personal writings of a reporter and that are located in the office of a newspaper. (D): A search warrant may be issued to seize property acquired by the theft or ina ny other manner which makes its acquisition a peanal offense under the Penal Code and that is located in the office of a radio station.

(6.8.3) The head of the agency arresting or holding a person in the prevention of "Family Violence" if there is probable cause to believe the violence will continue if the person is immediately released, may hold the person for a period of not more than _________ hours after bond has been posted. This detention period may be extended for an additional period not to exceed ________ hours, but only if authorized in a writing directed to the person having custody of the detained person by a magistrate. (A): 4, 24 (B): 6, 48 (C): 4, 48 (D): 10, 96

(6.9.1) An inquest of a deceased person need not be held if the person (A): dies in jail. (B): dies an unnatural death. (C): dies while attended by a physician and cause of death is known. (D): commits suicide.

(7.1.1) The four parts of an arrest are: (A): authority, intent, custody, and force. (B): intent, knowledge, custody, and handcuffs. (C): authority, intent, custody, and understanding. (D): custody, understanding, intent, and a warrant.

(7.1.1) What is the key in deciding whether an encounter between an officer and a citizen is consensual ? (A): the officer must conclude the person's behavior could just as easily be innocent as it could be guilty (B): the officer has not spoken to the person (C): the citizen must feel free to disregard the officer and go about his business (D): the citizen cannot be involved in some activity out of the ordinary

(7.1.13) What is the main legal requirement for all "plain view" observations? (A): must occur in the daylight hours (B): officer must have had consent to enter (C): officer must be legally where he/she is (D): officer must have legal arrest (E): must have legal search warrant

(7.1.13) When circumstances justify an "Extended Chimel Rule" search (protective sweep), where may an officer search? (A): any place evidence could be hidden (B): any place a weapon could be hidden (C): any place a person could be found (D): all of these places may be searched

(7.1.13) Which of the following is the best definition of abandoned property? (A): the loss of control, even momentarily (B): any vehicle left unattended for at least 48 hours (C): to give up with intent of never again claiming a right or interest (D): the loss of control for an extended period of time

(7.1.13) Which of the following is the best definition of the "Chimel Rule" used incidental to an arrest? (A): the search of the arrested person (B): the frisk of the area near where the person is arrested (C): the search of the area under an arrested person's immediate control (D): the search of the arrested person and the use of a warrant to search areas under his control

(7.1.14) The "poisonous tree doctrine", which displays the notion that evidence obtained after illegal government action will be excluded from evidence, was affirmed in "____________." (A): U.S. v. Robinson (B): California v. Greenwood (C): Wong Sun v U.S. (D): Michigan v. Long

(7.1.2) Which of the following two conditions trigger a need to give a Miranda Warning? (A): arrest and res gestae (B): restraint and request for counsel (C): custody and interrogation (D): suspicion and a suspect

(7.1.3) A peace officer may arrest an offender without a warrant, when a felony or_______________ has been committed in the presence or within the view of a magistrate, and such magistrate verbally orders the arrest of the offender. (A): any other violation (B): any misdemeanor (C): breach of the peace (D): any traffic offense

(7.1.7) "________" exists if facts and circumstances know to the officer would warrant a prudent man in believing that the offense has been committed and a particular person committed the crime. (A): articulatable suspicion (B): temporary detention (C): probable cause (D): reasonable suspicion

(7.1.7) An officer examines the information in his possession and decides he does not have probable cause to arrest. The officer also feels that after an arrest, more information will be known creating probable cause. If the officer arrests, which of the following is TRUE? (A): the arrest is called a fruitful tree because it leads to other evidence or information (B): by releasing the person, after a brief arrest, the officer can use information from the arrest to get a legal arrest warrant (C): the arrest without probable cause was an illegal arrest (D): the arrest falls under the emergency exception to the need for probable cause

(7.1.7) Black's law dictionary defines probable cause as: (A): to imagine one guilty or culpable on slight evidence without proof (B): the act of imagining or of doubting - the apprehension of something (C): the apparent state of facts found to exist upon reasonable inquiry which would induce a reasonably intelligent and prudent man to believe that a person had committed the crime charged (D): all of these are a definition of probable cause

(7.1.7) Both search and arrest warrants must be based on: (A): an informant's tips. (B): the officer's firsthand knowledge. (C): probable cause. (D): Only arrest warrants need to be based on probable cause.

(7.1.8) The landmark federal case on stop and frisk was: (A): Miranda v. Arizona. (B): Riddick v. New York. (C): Terry v. Ohio. (D): Stone v. State.

(7.1.8) There are three elements necessary for a legal detention. One of these requires that an officer be able to relate suspicious activity to: (A): probable cause (B): a felony (C): a crime (D): none of these

(7.1.9) A "frisk" of a person must be limited in scope and designed for the purpose of: (A): relieving the officer's concerns (B): recovery of evidence of the crime under investigation (C): discovery of concealed weapons, whether legal or illegal to possess (D): seizing illegally held contraband and prohibited weapons

(8 - 1.07) "_____________" means an offense so designated by law or punishable by death or confinement in a penitentiary. (A): Strict liability offense (B): Serious misdemeanor (C): Felony (D): None of the above

(8 - 1.07) "_________________" means bodily injury that creates substantial risk of death or that causes death, serious permanent disfigurement, or protracted loss or impairment of the function of any bodily member or organ. (A): Serious social harm (B): "Mala in se crime" (C): Serious bodily injury (D): Serious bodily harm

(8 - 1.07) A person who fails to perform an act commits an offense if: (A): there was a moral duty to act. (B): he was a police officer. (C): there was a statutory duty to act. (D): the act was fundamentally wrong.

(8 - 1.07) According to the Penal Code, a _______ is someone who's criminal responsibility is the issue in a criminal action. (A): subject (B): defendant (C): suspect (D): affiant

(8 - 12.04) Felonies are classified in five categories. Which is the highest grade of felony? (A): second degree felony (B): third degree felony (C): capital felony (D): first degree felony

(8 - 12.34) A first offense, third degree felon, may be imprisoned for: (A): one to ten years (B): five to ten years (C): two to ten years (D): two to twenty years

(8 - 12.47) If a court finds that a Class B Misdemeanor was committed because of bias or prejudice, the punishment is increased to the next higher category. The finding of bias or prejudice can be based on discrimination against all of the following except: (A): Disability (B): Age (C): Economic Status (D): National Origin

(8 - 19.02) A person commits a felony, and in the course of fleeing from the scene of the felony, the person commits a dangerous act that causes the death of another. The actor should be charged with: (A): Aggravated Assault (B): Manslaughter (C): Murder (D): Capital Murder

(8 - 19.02) A person who intends to cause serious bodily injury and commits an act clearly dangerous to human life that causes the death of an individual has committed what offense? (A): Involuntary Manslaughter (B): Criminal Negligent Homicide (C): Murder (D): Aggravated Assault

(8 - 2.01) Once a person has been arrested, charged, jailed or indicted for a criminal offense, the State must prove that person's guilt. The proof must be ____________. (A): the totality of the circumstances (B): the preponderance of the evidence or actions (C): proof beyond a reasonable doubt (D): the fact that the person was charged with an offense

(8 - 21.07) Barry and Brenda meet at SXSW. They decide to celebrate the experience by going to Barry's car in the parking lot where they engage in sexual intercourse. You are on patrol and notice movement in the car. You decide to investigate and observe them in the act. What offense, if any, can you charge them with? (A): Indecent Exposure (B): Prostitution (C): Public Lewdness (D): Obscenity

(8 - 21.07) When a person is NOT in a public place, he can commit the offense of Public Lewdness if he engages in the sex act and _____________________________. (A): more than two people engage in the act (B): an electronic recording is made of the act (C): he is reckless about whether another is present who will be offended by the act (D): the act involves a member of the same household

(8 - 21.11) A person commits "_________________" if, with a child younger than 17 years and not the person's spouse, whether the child is of the same or opposite sex, the person; engages in sexual contact with the child or causes the child to engage in sexual contact or with intent to arouse or gratify the sexual desire of any person; (1) exposes the person's anus or any part of the person's genitals, knowing the child is present, or (2) causes the child to expose the child's anus or any part of the child's genitals. (A): Public Lewdness (B): Indecent Exposure (C): Indecency with A Child (D): Assault by Contact

(8 - 22.01) Assault - Class C Misdemeanor, occurs if one person causes ______________contact with another, knowing that the contact will be regarded as provocative. (A): mental (B): verbal (C): physical (D): written

(8 - 22.02) Adam and Marla Malloy are husband and wife. Adam learns that Marla has been having an affair with his best friend, Joe. Adam throws Marla down the stairs as she begs forgiveness. Marla's fall causes two broken ribs, a fractured hip and a punctured lung. Which charge would be the most appropriate charge to file? (A): family violence (B): assault, misdemeanor A (C): aggravated assault, felony 2 (D): assault with serious bodily injury

(8 - 22.02) Dan and Phil are co-workers. Dan doesn't like Phil, and one day he decides he can't take Phil's boring stories any more. While Phil is talking Dan approaches him and punches him in the face, knocking him to the ground. Dan then climbs on top of Phil and continues to punch him until he has shattered Phil's cheekbone and eye socket. As a result, Phil loses the use of his left eye. What is the most appropriate charge? (A): Workplace Violence (B): Assault (C): Aggravated Assault (D): Reckless Destruction

(8 - 22.021) Felix unlawfully enters an apartment to steal a camera from a table that could be seen through a window. While in the apartment he awakens a young child. The mother wakes up to care for her child. Felix grabs the mother and tells her that if she does not have sex with him, he will take her child with him and she will never see the child again. The mother submits to Felix's demands. Felix has committed which offense, if any, listed below: (A): Injury to a child (B): Kidnapping (C): Aggravated Sexual Assault (D): Aggravated Burglary

(8 - 25.01) James De Lord is married to Betty De Lord and they live in Gatesville, Texas. James De Lord owns a transportation business which causes him to spend 2 weeks a month in San Antonio. During the times James was in San Antonio, he met and fell in love with Lola Peckenpaw. James loved both Betty and Lola and to have the best of both worlds, James married Lola. Betty found out about this and filed charges on James. What charges did she file? (A): incest (B): polygamy (C): bigamy (D): aggravated polygamy

(8 - 25.03) A person takes or retains a child younger than 18 years old out of the geographical area of the court without the permission of the court and violates the express terms of a judgement or order disposing of the child's custody. According to the Penal Code, what offense, if any, has the person committed? (A): Prohibited Sexual Conduct (B): Abduct From Custody (C): Interference with Child Custody (D): Enticing a Child

(8 - 25.06) Dennis Scruggs, 17, runs away from his parents' home in Amarillo and thumbs a ride to Lake Travis. Scruggs moved in with his friend, Glen Rumfield and has lived there for two weeks. Meanwhile, Scrugg's parents report Dennis as a runaway to Potter County Sheriff's Department. Rumfield knows Dennis has run away, but does not contact Dennis' parents to get permission for Dennis to stay or let them know their son is all right. What charge could be filed against Rumfield? (A): enticing a child (B): no offense-victim/suspect are related (C): harboring runaway child (D): kidnapping

(8 - 25.07) A person commits an offense under Section 25.07 Penal Code if, in violation of a condition of bond resulting from a court order, the person intentionally or knowingly does all of the following except: (A): Commits Family Violence (B): Communicates directly with a protected individual in a harassing manner (C): Possesses a knife (D): Goes near the residence of a protected individual (E): All these are violations

(8 - 28.03) "Without the consent of the owner, a person intentionally or knowingly damages or destroys the tangible property of the owner." According to the Penal Code, what penal offense has been committed? (A): Criminal Vandalism (B): Reckless Conduct (C): Criminal Mischief (D): Reckless Damage

(8 - 28.03) According to the Penal Code, criminal mischief directed toward____________ is a state jail felony. (A): property owned by more than one person (B): the property of an elderly person (C): a place of worship (D): interruption of public power supply

(8 - 28.03) According to the Penal Code, tampering with someone's property without their consent is an offense provided the tampering causes ____________________________ . (A): any level of inconvenience (B): embarrassment (C): pecuniary loss (D): substantial loss

(8 - 28.03) Bill and Mary are dating. They have an argument because Bill wants to go to a poker game. Mary takes Bill's car key off the table and throws it out the window. Bill has no extra key. He goes outside and cannot find the key. He calls the police. What could Mary be charged with? (A): Unlawful Restraint (B): Reckless Damage or Destruction (C): Criminal Mischief (D): Unauthorized Use of Motor Vehicle

(8 - 28.03) If a person intentionally damages or destroys the tangible property of the owner without his/her consent they could be charged with: (A): reckless conduct (B): reckless damage or destruction (C): criminal mischief (D): intentional destruction

(8 - 28.03) To tamper knowingly with tangible property of another and thereby cause a substantial inconvenience to the property owner is to commit: (A): aggravated vandalism (B): criminal damage (C): criminal mischief (D): criminal harassment

(8 - 28.04) A person commits "________________" if he or she threatens to commit any offense with intent to interrupt public communications, public transportation, public water, gas, or power supply of other public services. (A): Deadly conduct (B): Reckless damage or destruction (C): Terroristic threat (D): Tampering with consumer products

(8 - 28.04) Sam and Betty are engaged in a water balloon fight. Sam chases Betty into the computer lab and starts to throw the balloon at her. Betty shouts, "You better not! You'll get the computers wet." Sam replies, "I won't miss," and throws the balloon. Sam missed Betty and hit a computer. The balloon got the computer wet and damaged it. Sam yells, "Crap! I meant to hit you, not the computer." What is the appropriate charge? (A): No Offense (B): Criminal Mischief (C): Reckless Damage or Destruction (D): Criminally Negligent Property Damage

(8 - 28.04) Two men jointly own a boat. One man destroys what he says was "my half of the boat." Which of the following crimes has occurred if any? (A): Unlawful Mischief (B): Reckless Mischief (C): Reckless Damage or Destruction (D): No offense occurred since the person was part owner of the boat.

(8 - 28.08) A person commits an offense if with aerosol paint or an indelible marker, and without effective consent of the owner, the person intentionally and knowingly makes markings, including inscriptions, slogans, drawings or paintings, on the tangible property of the owner commits the offense of: (A): reckless damage (B): disorderly conduct (C): graffiti (D): criminal mischief

(8 - 29.02) In the immediate flight after committing a theft in a store, the offender bumps into a woman and knocks her down causing bodily injury. The offender may be charged with? (A): shoplifting (B): theft (C): robbery (D): assault

(8 - 29.03) According to the Penal Code, the following is the definition of what penal offense? "In the course of committing theft and with intent to obtain or maintain control of property a person uses or exhibits a deadly weapon". (A): robbery (B): theft (C): aggravated robbery (D): carrying prohibited weapon

(8 - 29.03) The most serious crime that a person commits is "_______________" if they knowingly cause serious bodily injury to another in the course of committing theft. (A): Burglary (B): Aggravated theft (C): Aggravated robbery (D): Robbery

(8 - 30.02) If without the effective consent of the owner, one remains concealed in a business after closing hours and burglarizes the coin machines, what is the HIGHEST offense he is guilty of: (A): burglary of coin operated machines (B): burglary of habitation (C): burglary of building (D): theft

(8 - 30.02) Ken was arrested after forcing his way into the residence located at 107 Oak St. at 3:00 am. During the investigation it was clearly apparent (based on evidence at the scene) that Ken's intention was to sexually assault Rhonda, the owner of the residence, but Ken was stopped short of completing the act of sexual assault. Based on this information, what would be the most appropriate charge to file on Ken? (A): attempted sexual assault (B): sexual assault (C): burglary (D): criminal conspiracy

(8 - 30.04) A subject inadvertently locks his books in his roommate's vehicle and uses a wire to lift the door lock and gain entry to the vehicle and retrieve his books. He causes no damage. According to the Penal Code, this subject has committed __________________ . (A): Burglary of Vehicle (B): Theft from Vehicle (C): No offense (D): Criminal Mischief (E): Tampering With Motor Vehicle

(8 - 30.04) Fred is walking through a parking lot and finds three rods and reels in the bed of a pickup truck. He takes them with intent of pawning them for $50 at a nearby pawn shop. The most serious offense Fred has committed is: (A): Theft (B): Burglary (C): Burglary of Vehicle (D): Criminal Trespass

(8 - 30.04) While walking by a parked vehicle, a man notices a watch laying on a dash. The window is down so he doesn't have to force his way into the vehicle. He reaches through the open window and takes the watch and walks down the street. What offense has been committed? (A): theft (B): robbery (C): burglary of a vehicle (D): criminal trespass

(8 - 30.05) A group of students stage a protest in the lobby outside the president's office at their university. The students receive notice that they are being disruptive and that they need to leave the building. If the students fail to depart, what level of criminal trespass may they be charged with? (A): This is not an offense (B): Class C (C): Class B (D): Class A

(8 - 30.05) It is raining and a person finds an unlocked motor vehicle parked at the curb. The person opens and enters the motor vehicle to get out of the rain. This person could be charged with: (A): Burglary of Motor Vehicle (B): Unauthorized Use of Motor Vehicle (C): Criminal Trespass (D): No Offense

(8 - 31.03) A person steals a purse off the lap of a woman confined to a wheelchair, while she is sleeping. According to the Penal Code, this person has committed: (A): Robbery - 2nd Degree Felony (B): Aggravated Robbery - 1st Degree Felony (C): Theft - State Jail Felony (from the person of another) (D): Terroristic Threat - Class B Misdemeanor

(8 - 31.03) According to the Penal Code, "Unlawfully appropriating property with the intent to deprive the owner of the property," is the definition of _____________________ . (A): Criminal Mischief (B): Robbery (C): Theft (D): Fraud

(8 - 31.03) According to the Penal Code, Theft is defined as "unlawfully __________ property with the intent to ________ the owner of the property." (A): possessing, dispossess (B): transferring, eliminate (C): appropriating, deprive (D): acquiring, deprave

(8 - 31.03) According to the Penal Code, what offense, if any, is committed when a person obtains property which he knows is stolen? (A): Receiving Stolen Property (B): Aggravated Theft (C): Theft (D): None of these

(8 - 31.03) In the Penal Code Theft statute, property is unlawfully appropriated if it is: (A): without the owners knowledge (B): with intent to use the property (C): without the owners effective consent (D): transferred to another person

(8 - 31.03) John just purchased a new Iphone from a store near campus, then he decides to meet his friend Amir for a game of pool at the student union. After two spirited games, John and Amir decide to get some food from the snack bar, so John leaves his Iphone and keys on the pool table to "reserve" it. When John returns, he finds another patron playing with his phone. What offense has the unknown patron committed? (A): Theft (B): Theft of Service (C): No Offense (D): Criminal Mischief

(8 - 31.03) Penal Code 31.03 - Theft, has a presumption of theft for certain businesses that fail to keep records of transactions. These business enterprises include all of the following, EXCEPT: (A): second-hand shops and pawnshops (B): motor vehicle salvage yards (C): hardware stores and garden nurseries (D): used car dealerships

(8 - 31.03) The degree of punishment for theft offenses is most often determined by: (A): the replacement cost of the property (B): the cost of the property when originally purchased (C): the value of the property at the time it was stolen (D): the type of property stolen

(8 - 31.07) A person commits Unauthorized Use of a Vehicle if he intentionally ___________ another's boat, airplane, or motor propelled vehicle without the owner's consent. (A): appropriates (B): steals (C): operates (D): any of these answers are correct

(8 - 32.21) The following is the definition of what Penal Code Offense? "A person commits an offense if he makes a writing so that it purports to be the act of another who has not authorized it, with intent to harm or defraud another." (A): Criminal Simulation (B): Coercion (C): Forgery (D): Improper Influence

(8 - 32.31) A person commits Credit Card Abuse when the person______________ (A): finds and possesses a credit card not issued to him (B): uses a credit card not issued to him with permission from the card holder (C): steals and then sells a credit card without the issuer's effective consent (D): damages a credit card

(8 - 33.07) John and his friends don't like Bill. They decide to slander Bill by creating a website using Bill's name and persona. What offense could John and his friends be charged with? (A): None, this is not a crime (B): Breach of Computer Security (C): Online Impersonation (D): Disorderly Conduct

(8 - 35.02) A person's car has been burglarized on your campus. The victim states that a very valuable ring worth $5,000 was in the car and is now gone along with the car stereo. The victim files a report with their insurance company about the burglary and missing property. It is later learned that the ring was in fact not stolen. According to the Penal Code, what offense has been committed? (A): Criminal Simulation (B): Theft (C): Insurance Fraud (D): Hindering Secured Creditors

(8 - 42.01) At 11:30 P. M., a subject enters an unfenced yard at his girlfriend's residence and sneaks around to the rear of the house to her bedroom window. The girlfriend opens the window and the two are talking when the father discovers them. The boyfriend is guilty of: (A): Disorderly Conduct (B): Criminal Trespass (C): No offense (D): Burglary

(8 - 42.01) Disorderly Conduct: Section 42.01 (a) (6) prohibits fighting. Which of the following statements IS FALSE regarding this offense? (A): must fight in a public place (B): must be at least two actors involved (C): officer must personally observe the offense in order to make an arrest (D): officer may release from custody anyone arrested for fighting (E): offense is a misdemeanor

(8 - 42.01) Persons who intentionally or knowingly expose their anus or genitals in a public place and are reckless about whether another may be present who will be offended or alarmed have committed ____________________ . (A): Public Lewdness (B): Indecent Exposure (C): Disorderly Conduct (D): Obscene Display

(8 - 42.03) Bob and ten of his friends have just created an obstruction by sitting on the sidewalk entrance to a campus building 100 feet from the nearest street. They are holding signs protesting a tuition increase and chanting "1-2-3-4 we don't want to pay no more." Which of the following is true? (A): No offense is committed since the sidewalk is not part of a street (B): They don't commit an offense until they disobey an order to move. (C): They would have a defense to prosecution if no "order to move" was given before arrest (D): They have to intentionally obstruct the sidewalk before they commit Obstructing a Passageway - Penal Code 42.03

(8 - 42.05) (Disrupting Meeting or Procession) According to the Penal Code, a person commits an offense if, with intent to prevent or disrupt a lawful meeting, procession or gathering, he interferes with the meeting by _______________. (A): verbal utterance (B): physical action (C): physical action or verbal utterance

(8 - 46.01) To be classified as a machine gun, in the penal code, a firearm must be capable of firing at least _____ shots with a single function of the trigger. (A): 1 (B): 2 (C): 3 (D): 6

(8 - 46.02) According to Section 46.02 - (UNLAWFUL CARRYING WEAPONS) and 46.03 (PLACES WEAPONS PROHIBITED) of the Penal Code, which of the following [b][u]IS[/u][/b] legal to carry on or about one's person outside a motor vehicle? (A): tomahawk, handmade (B): handgun, lawfully purchased (C): chemical mace, commercially sold (D): spear, ordered over the internet

(8 - 46.02) According to the Penal Code, a person commits an offense if he _____________________ carries on or about his person a club while walking on a sidewalk. (A): intentionally (B): intentionally or knowingly (C): intentionally, knowingly or recklessly (D): with criminal negligence

(8 - 46.02) The offense of Unlawfully Carrying a Weapon (PC 46.02) on any premise licensed or issued a permit by this state for the sale of alcoholic beverages is a felony of the: (A): Class C Misdemeanor (B): Class B Misdemeanor (C): Third Degree Felony (D): First Degree Felony

(8 - 46.02) Which of the following is considered a "club" in Chapter 46 of the Penal Code? (A): a pool cue stick (B): a sledge hammer (C): a black jack (D): a monkey wrench

(8 - 46.05) Which of the following weapons is not specifically listed as a "prohibited weapon" in the Penal Code? (A): machine gun (B): firearm silencer (C): illegal knife (D): an explosive weapon

(8 - 46.13) The provisions of Penal Code Section 46.13, Making a Firearm Accessible to a Child, only apply to children under_______ years of age. (A): 21 (B): 14 (C): 17 (D): 10

(8 - 47.03) Joe Bob has been working at a factory for a short amount of time. He started collecting money from co-workers to set up a football pot for the workers. Joe Bob maintains the pot and as custodian keeps 10% of the amount collected. What offense has Job Bob committed? (A): Gambling (B): Keeping a Gambling Place (C): Gambling Promotion (D): Bookmaking

(8 - 49.01) "Intoxicated" means not having the normal use of mental or physical faculties by reason of the introduction of alcohol, a controlled substance, a drug, a dangerous drug, a combination of two or more of those substances or any other substance into the body; or having an alcohol concentration of _______ or more. (A): .05 (B): .06 (C): .08 (D): .10

(8 - 49.01) According to Section 49.01 of the Penal Code (Intoxication and Alcoholic Beverage Offenses), watercraft does not include: (A): water skis (B): aquaplane (C): inner tubes propelled only by the current of water (D): jet boat

(8 - 49.02) A person commits an offense if the person appears ____________ while intoxicated to the degree that the person ______ endanger the person or another. (A): Anyplace / may (B): Anyplace / will (C): In a public place / may (D): In a public place / will

(8 - 49.02) According to the Penal Code, to commit the offense of public intoxication, the person must appear in a public place, while intoxicated (A): and unable to walk, stand or comprehend simple instructions (B): and presents an immediate danger to that person or another (C): to the degree that the person may endanger the person or another (D): to the degree that the person is a danger to himself or others

(8 - 49.031) Possession of Alcoholic Beverage in Motor Vehicle defines an open container as a bottle, can, or other receptacle that contains any amount of alcoholic beverage and that is open, that has been opened, that has a ________seal, or the contents are partially removed: (A): unopened (B): state sales tax (C): broken (D): opened

(8 - 49.04) According to the Penal Code, a conviction for a 1st offense of DWI with no other enhancement carries a penalty of a fine of not more than $2,000 and confinement in jail for maximum of _______________. (A): 30 days (B): 90 days (C): 180 days (D): 1 year

(8 - 49.04) The penalty for Driving While Intoxicated is enhanced if the person operating the motor vehicle had an opened container of alcohol in the persons immediate possession. The enhanced penalty is: (A): class B misdemeanor to class A misdemeanor (B): class B misdemeanor to State Jail Felony (C): class B misdemeanor minimum term of confinement of six days (D): class B misdemeanor minimum term of confinement 72 hours

(8 - 6.01) A person who fails to perform an act, commits an offense if: (A): there was a moral duty to act (B): he was a police officer (C): there was a statutory duty to act (D): the act was fundamentally wrong

(8 - 6.03) Which of the culpable mental states require that the defendant "consciously disregard a substantial and unjustified risk"? (A): Intentional (B): Knowingly (C): Reckless (D): Criminal Negligence

(8 - 7.01) A grocery store is robbed by one man. He leaves the store and gets into a vehicle driven by another man. When the two are caught by the police what offense may the driver be charged? (A): conspiracy (B): organized crime (C): robbery (D): vehicular robbery

(8 - 8.01) "_____________" is an affirmative defense to prosecution that, at the time of the conduct charged, the actor, as a result of severe mental disease or defect, did not know that his conduct was wrong. (A): Mistake (B): Necessity (C): Insanity (D): Mental deficiency

(8 - 8.04) "______________" means disturbance of mental or physical capacity resulting from the introduction of any substance into the body. (A): Mental deficiency (B): Mental retardation (C): Intoxication (D): None of the above is correct.

(9.1.1) "________________" means a self-propelled vehicle or a vehicle that is propelled by electric power from overhead trolley wires. The term does not include an electric bicycle or an electric personal assistive mobility device. (A): Special Mobile Equipment (B): Mass Transient Vehicle (C): Motor Vehicle (D): None of the above

(9.1.1) A "_______________" means a motor vehicle designed and used primarily as a farm implement to draw an implement of husbandry, including a plow or a mowing machine. (A): Motorized implement of husbandry (B): Farm vehicle (C): Farm Tractor (D): Special Mobile Equipment

(9.1.1) A "_______________" means a motor vehicle designed and used primarily as a farm implement to draw an implement of husbandry, including a plow or a mowing machine: (A): Motorized implement of husbandry (B): Farm vehicle (C): Farm Tractor (D): Special Mobile Equipment

(9.1.1) A 21 year old mother and her 2 year old child are riding in the back seat of a taxi. Neither of them is secured by a seat belt or safety seat system. Which of the following is true? (A): the mother can be cited for not securing the child (B): the taxi driver can be cited for not securing the child (C): the mother can be cited for not being secured by a seat belt if her seat has one (D): none of these are true

(15.3.2) Which of the following IS NOT a key to accurate reporting ? (A): keeping the facts in chronological order (B): reviewing the facts and elements of the crime (C): using separate paragraphs to cover each step of the investigation (D): using police jargon to describe "hard to understand" activities

(9.1.11) A driver emerged from an alley to enter a street. This driver IS NOT REQUIRED to yield right of way to: (A): pedestrians approaching on a sidewalk extending across the alley (B): other motor vehicles approaching on the street to be entered (C): pedestrians walking on the roadway of the street to be entered (D): bicycles approaching on the street to be entered

(9.1.11) If the driver of vehicle passes a Yield Sign without stopping, and is involved in a collision, what type of evidence exists that he Failed to Yield Right of Way? (A): factual (B): veni-vici (C): prima facie (D): reasonable

(9.1.11) The following vehicles are responding to a fire; the driver of a private automobile is required to YROW to all of these vehicles, Except: (A): a fire truck using emergency lights and siren (B): an ambulance using emergency lights and siren (C): a marked police car using emergency lights only (D): a volunteer fire fighter using emergency lights and siren in a privately owned car

(9.1.11) To have Right of Way as an emergency vehicle in the Transportation Code; what is required equipment on authorized police emergency vehicles? (A): alternately flashing red lamps (B): appropriate markings including the word "police" (C): a siren (D): lights, siren and markings are all required

(9.1.14) The prima facie speed limit in an alley is ____ mph according to the Transportation Code. (A): 30 (B): 20 (C): 15 (D): 10

(9.1.14) Which of the following Traffic Violations requires signs to be posted? (A): Cut Corner Left Turn (B): Defective Headlamp (C): Speeding - Under Minimum (D): Made U Turn on Curve or Hill

(9.1.14) Which of the following is true about prima facie speed limits? (A): they must be posted on signs to be lawful (B): they remain in effect during special hazards (C): they are evidence that a greater speed is not reasonable or prudent (D): they apply to any public place or private street open to the public

(9.1.15) In the Transportation Code, appropriate signals must be given for: (A): backing a vehicle (B): emerging from a driveway (C): stopping or suddenly decreasing speed (D): traversing through intersections

(9.1.15) The driver of a vehicle _____________ a driveway shall stop and YROW to pedestrians approaching on the sidewalk extending across the driveway. (A): entering (B): emerging from (C): entering or emerging from

(9.1.15) Under which of the following conditions may a person operate a vehicle over an unprotected fire hose laid down on a street to be used at a fire emergency? (A): no person may ever cross any such fire hose (B): only to enter the private driveway of one's residence (C): only with the permission of the fire department official in charge (D): anytime, fire hoses are designed so vehicles may safely cross them

(9.1.15) Which of the following vehicles is NOT a passenger vehicle and seat belt laws do not apply to it? (A): a pickup truck with a dual rear axle and one ton carrying capacity (B): a 15 passenger van, including driver, equipped with seat belts (C): a 24 passenger Greyhound bus (D): a truck tractor drawing a 50 foot box semi-trailer

(9.1.16) An authorized police emergency vehicle may operate without the required warning devices if the driver believes that knowledge of police presence will result in the suspect: (A): destroying evidence of any crime (B): ceasing any crime before the officer gathers enough evidence to arrest (C): being able to evade apprehension or identification

(9.1.16) Authorized emergency vehicle sirens must be audible from 500 feet and approved by: (A): A Motor Vehicle Inspection Station (B): The Texas Department of Motor Vehicles (C): The Texas Department of Public Safety (D): The General Services Commission

(9.1.16) Which violation is an exception, granted to an authorized emergency vehicle responding to an emergency call. (A): Violate Driver's License Restriction (B): Failed to Dim Headlamps - Overtaking (C): Failed to Stop at Proper Place - Flashing Red Signal (D): Reckless Driving (E): Expired Motor Vehicle Inspection

(9.1.16) Which violation is an exception, granted to an authorized emergency vehicle responding to an emergency call? (A): Expired DL (B): Defective Tail Lamp (C): Drove Wrong Way on One Way (D): Drive on Sidewalk (E): Drove Not Secured by Safety Belt

(9.1.17) A slow moving vehicle is any vehicle designed to operate at a speed of ____mph or less. (A): 15 (B): 20 (C): 25 (D): 30

(9.1.17) Motor vehicles must be equipped with an uppermost distribution of roadlighting equipment which reveals persons and vehicles at a distance of ________ feet and this distribution of light shall not be used when overtaking a vehicle, from the rear, within _______ feet. (A): 450/150 (B): 300/150 (C): 450/300 (D): 150/450

(9.1.18) According to the Transportation Code, a bicycle rider cannot be charged with Fleeing or Attempting to Elude, because _________________________________________________ . (A): bicycles have no duty to give right of way to emergency vehicles (B): riders cannot bring the vehicle to a stop without falling over (C): only motor vehicle operators can be charged with the offense (D): bicycles don't have rear view mirrors that would reveal a pursuing police vehicle

(9.1.18) Which of the following is a TRUE statement about bicycles in the Transportation Code? (A): bicycles must have a white reflector mounted on the front of the bike (B): bicycles cannot be parked on a sidewalk (C): bicycle riders can ride without any hands on the handlebar (D): bicycles must have brakes on all wheels

(9.1.19) In the Transportation Code, drivers are required to exercise due care to avoid colliding with any pedestrian on __________. (A): a sidewalk (B): streets or highways (C): a roadway (D): or near the street

(9.1.20) Every Notice to Appear for a violation of speed limits must specify the: (A): direction of travel & amount of speed in excess of the limit (B): road surface and describe lighting (C): alleged speed and the speed limit at the location (D): method used to determine speed and direction of travel

(17.1.1) Force that is intended by the actor and known to cause death or serious bodily injury is call "__________" force. (A): reasonable (B): extreme (C): unreasonable (D): deadly

(9.1.20) For which of the following violations must the police officer issue "a promise to appear" if the operator is a resident of Texas and is operating a vehicle licensed in Texas? (A): Open container violation only (B): illegal turn or wide right (C): speeding or a violation of the open container law, Section 49.03, Penal Code. (D): Speeding only

(9.1.22) In the Transportation Code, which piece of equipment on an ATV must be approved by the US Forest Service? (A): helmet (B): headlamp (C): spark arrester (D): saddle

(9.1.24) An abandoned motor vehicle is a ANY vehicle remaining on public property for more than 48 hours, and: (A): displaying an expired license plate (B): the owner is unaware of its location (C): illegally parked (D): none of these

(9.1.24) Once an abandoned motor vehicle has been impounded, the notice sent to the last owner informs him of his right to claim the vehicle within _______ days from the date sent. (A): 90 (B): 30 (C): 20 (D): l0

(9.1.25) A person commits an offense if he operates a motor vehicle while displaying an expired license plate: (A): in a parking lot (B): in a public place (C): on a public street (D): in any of these places

(9.1.3) "______________" means the portion of a highway that is improved, designed, or ordinarily used for vehicular travel. (A): Highway (B): Street (C): Roadway (D): Freeway

(9.1.3) According to the Texas Transportation Code, for a roadway to meet the definition of a "laned roadway" it must have: (A): traffic moving in opposite directions (B): shoulder parking (C): two or more clearly marked lanes (D): improved shoulders

(9.1.3) An Official Traffic Control Device must be used to ______________________ traffic. (A): inform, demonstrate or divide (B): direct, elect or measure (C): warn, regulate or guide (D): move, ride or obstruct

(9.1.3) When two roadways join each other at approximately right angles, "the area embraced within the prolongation of the lateral curb lines" is the definition of ____________ . (A): an improved shoulder (B): a sidewalk (C): an intersection (D): a crosswalk

(9.1.4) A vehicle that is occupied, and is temporarily halted while actually unloading merchandise is: (A): parked (B): stopping (C): standing

(9.1.6) The provisions of Subtitle C, Texas Transportation Code, only apply to the operation of vehicles _______________ unless a provision specifically applies to a different place. (A): in any public place (B): when self propelled (C): on highways (D): on public property

(9.1.9) According to the Transportation Code, a driver may overtake and pass to the right on an improved shoulder when the vehicle ahead is ____________________________________________________ . (A): traveling less than the speed limit (B): traveling at less than the normal and reasonable movement of traffic (C): slowing or stopped on the roadway (D): displaying its vehicular hazard warning lamps

(9.1.9) An operator, shall, if following another vehicle maintain______________ between the two vehicles so that, considering the speed of the vehicle, traffic, and the conditions of the highway, the operator can safely stop without colliding with the preceding vehicle or veering into another vehicle, object, or person on or near the highway. (A): at least two car lengths (B): at least two hundred feet (C): maintain an assured clear distance (Safe Distance) (D): at least three car lengths

(9.1.9) In the Transportation Code, on a two-way street within a city limits, a vehicle may not be driven Left Of Center within _____ of approaching an intersection. (A): 25 ft (B): 50 ft (C): 100 ft (D): 1000 ft

(9.1.9) On a roadway, wide enough for only one line of traffic to move in each direction, drivers approaching from opposite directions, whenever possible, must yield to each other one half of _________________________? (A): the street (B): the improved shoulder (C): the main-traveled portion of the roadway (D): the Right of Way

(9.1.9) When a truck tractor - trailer combination follows another such combination; where is the driver required to leave enough space to the front of his vehicle to allow a third vehicle to occupy it? (A): on any public street or highway within the State (B): on streets that are divided (C): when traveling on a street outside a business or residence district (D): when stopping, standing or parking on an improved shoulder

(9.2.1) A bicyclist strikes a pedestrian at an intersection and the pedestrian is injured. Which of the following is true? (A): The CR-3 form must be completed and turned in. (B): The bicyclist must complete a CR2 "blue" form if police don't investigate (C): The CR-3 form is not completed (D): Police do not have jurisdiction in the incident.

(9.2.1) A passenger car and pickup truck drawing a boat on a trailer are involved in a motor vehicle traffic crash. How many units are reported on the CR 3 form? (A): one (B): two (C): three (D): four

(9.2.1) A pedestrian in a crosswalk facing a "Wait" or "Don't Walk" signal shall: (A): return to the same curb where he entered the roadway (B): stop and remain standing in the crosswalk; until the signal changes (C): go to a sidewalk, shoulder or safety island (D): complete the crossing as quickly as practicable

(9.2.1) A test skid on a roadway is run at 25 mph. It produces an average skid length of 31 feet. The drag factor of the roadway is: (A): .225 (B): .417 (C): .672 (D): .750

(9.2.1) An Operational Factor (human control) contributing to the accident and identified on a CRB Report Form involves: (A): defective vehicle equipment (B): sight obstructions at the scene (C): faulty strategy or tactics by the driver (D): any of these can be an operational factor

(9.2.1) An intoxicated driver is stopped legally at a stop sign when he is struck from behind by another driver with defective brakes. In this instance, when investigating the accident and completing the factors/conditions section of the CRB Form, the intoxication of the driver: (A): is the key event (B): is an operational factor involved in the accidental strategy (C): is a conditional factor that can be described as "may or may not have affected the accident" (D): should be disregarded unless an arrest is made

(9.2.1) An officer arrives at a crash scene and finds suspect skid marks averaging 86 feet. The officer runs a test skid at 30 mph and leaves skids marks averaging 40 feet. The minimum speed of the suspect vehicle would be: (A): 58.65 mph or sqrt of 3440 (B): 50.79 mph or sqrt of 2580 (C): 43.98 mph or sqrt of 1935 (D): 34.64 mph or sqrt of 1200

(9.2.1) An officer wants to determine the drag factor at a crash scene. He runs a test skid at 30 mph and produces 50 feet of skid. The drag factor is: (A): .20 (B): .40 (C): .60 (D): .80

(9.2.1) Conditional Factors identified on the bottom of the second page of an CR3 Report Form involve: (A): driver strategy (B): faulty evasive tactics or action (C): attributes of the vehicles and drivers (D): elements under human control

(9.2.1) How should a trailer in transport be described on the CRB Form ? (A): in the narrative (B): in the "Damage to Property" section (C): as a unit , sequentially numbered, after the unit that was towing it (D): as Unit 1 on a separate CRB form

(9.2.1) In motor vehicle crash investigation, which of the following IS NOT a reference point ? (A): mile post marker (B): railroad crossing marker (C): point of impact (D): the intersecting point of the prolongation of curb lines

(9.2.1) On the CR 3 form, if the "At Intersection" box is checked "No", the officer should: (A): leave the remainder of the locating information blank (B): always use a mile marker for reference (C): always show the distance from the nearest intersecting road or reference marker (D): leave the "roadway system" description blank

(9.2.1) The precautions a driver takes in response to potential hazards is what type of operational factor in the driving process? (A): perception (B): tactics (C): strategy (D): evasive action

(9.2.1) Using a sled weighing 40 pounds; a pull of 32 pounds allows the sled to move smoothly over the roadway surface. The drag factor of the surface is: (A): 0.32 (B): 0.75 (C): 0.80 (D): 0.84

(9.2.1) When striking an unattended vehicle and causing damage, a driver must immediately stop and (if unable to locate the owner/operator) leave written notice; which of the following is required on the notice? (A): license plate number of the striking vehicle (B): name and address of any witness (C): name and address of the owner of the striking vehicle (D): phone numbers of both the driver & owner (E): insurance company of driver

(9.2.4) When recording the measurements for a collision scene it is best to place all of the measurements on the ___________________ ? (A): finished diagram (B): the diagram for a court presentation (C): field sketch (D): topography chart

(9.3.1) When directing traffic, which vehicles have the greatest priority? (A): the largest and slowest vehicles (B): those in the longest line of vehicles (C): emergency vehicles such as fire and ambulance (D): drivers appearing emotionally upset

(9.3.2) How is a whistle used to direct a driver to stop a vehicle? (A): one short burst (B): two short bursts (C): one long burst (D): two long bursts (E): several short bursts

(TC 548.602) What is the first day an officer may issue a traffic citation for an expired motor vehicle inspection certificate when said certificate expired on the last day of the preceding month? (A): on the first day of the month (B): on the fifth day of the month (C): on the sixth day of the month (D): on the tenth day of the month

23.2.7 The SARA method of problem solving is ; (A): The only method used by police for addressing problems (B): A system devised by an author to promote his daughter's name (C): One of the organized models for problem resolution (D): A system to confuse the uniformed

26.1.2. Which of the following statements is true according to Spouse Abuse/Family Violence : (A): Violent incidents generally only occur once. (B): The parties eventually work things out and the violence disappears over time. (C): Batterers probably grew up in homes where they were abused or witnessed abuse. (D): After a violent incident, batterers usually blame themselves.

26.2.5 A protective order expires while the respondent is in jail for violating the order. The protective order will remain in full force and effect for a period of ___________ , after the respondent is released from jail. (A): two years (B): sixty days (C): one year (D): twenty days

26.4.1. Based on Texas Law, in responding to an incident of family violence, a peace officer: (A): should not make an arrest if the parties are married. (B): should arrest the person with fewer injuries. (C): should always effect an arrest without a warrant when necessary elements of probable cause exist. (D): should arrest the person protected by a protective order.

29.7.3. Which of the following IS NOT a purpose of the crime scene search? (A): to collect & preserve physical evidence (B): to learn how the crime was committed (C): to complete witness statements (D): to collect evidence which has a connection to the crime

A junked vehicle is a public nuisance if it is visible from: (A): a public street (B): public property (C): a public place or a public street/right of way (D): any place public or private

A mixed beverage permittee may sell and offer for sale mixed beverages between 7(A):m. and midnight on any day except: (A): Monday (B): Friday (C): Sunday (D): All of these

According to Title 2 of the Family Code and generally speaking a child is defined as: (A): a person under 21 (B): a person over 10 but under 21 (C): a person under 18 (D): a person over 18 but under 20

According to the Alcoholic Beverage Code, an alcoholic beverage means alcohol, or any beverage, containing more than ___________ of alcohol by volume, which is capable of use for beverage purposes. (A): 4% (B): 1% (C): 1/2 of 1% (D): 1/4 of 1% (E): 100 proof

According to the Family Code, a child (16 yoa) taken into custody for Driving While Intoxicated may be adjuducated of ____________________________ by a juvenile court. (A): DWI (B): Conduct Indicating a Need for Supervision (C): Delinquent Conduct (D): either Delinquent Conduct or Conduct Indicating a Need for Supervision depending upon previous adjudications or convictions.

After being refused entry and having given notice of his authority and purpose; an officer may break down the door of any home for the purpose of making an arrest in which class of offense? (A): any crimes committed (B): 1st degree Felony drug offenses only (C): any felony offense where an arrest warrant has been issued (D): Class A Misdemeanors and above

All persons have a right to prevent the consequences of theft by seizing any personal property which has been stolen and bringing it, with the supposed offender, if he can be taken, before a magistrate for examination, or delivering the same to a peace officer for that purpose. To justify such seizure, there must, however, ______________________ ____________________________________ and the seizure must be openly made and the proceedings had without delay. (A): be reasonable ground to make the seizure (B): be reasonable ground to arrest the person (C): be reasonable ground to suppose the property to be stolen (D): be reasonable ground to seize the property

Chest compressions on an average adult should depress the sternum (A): 1/2 to 1 inch (B): 1 to 1+1/2 inches (C): 1+1/2 to 2 inches (D): 3 to 4 inches (E): 8 to 10 inches

Crime scene photographs: (A): portray limited detail (B): can be used in place of a sketch of the crime scene (C): provide a permanent record of items that may be overlooked (D): provide accurate information concerning the distance between points in the scene

From a practical point of view, an arrest is different from a detention because during an arrest the officer intends to: (A): release the person after a brief interview (B): limit the search to weapons that might harm him (C): enter the person into the judicial process (D): investigate the person's behavior

If a person is arrested without Probable Cause, what will be excluded at his trial? (A): any evidence subpoenaed after the arrest (B): evidence learned before the arrest (C): evidence that came from the arrest (D): all evidence against the accused

If an officer has doubts about his ability to maintain weapon security during handcuffing, the officer should: (A): keep the firearm as close as possible to the prisoner during handcuffing (B): draw the weapon and cover the prisoner while handcuffing with the weak hand (C): keep the prisoner in a control position until a backup arrives to assist (D): remove the weapon from the holster and conceal it in the small of the back

In CCP 1.03 several specific "objectives" are listed for the code. Which of the following are listed? (A): "To adopt "Community Policing" techniques to improve community relations," (B): "To provide the best counsel possible for defendants." (C): "To insure a fair trial with as little delay as is consisent with the ends of justice." (D): "To insure that the defendant gets a partial trial."

In US v Ross, the Supreme Court has upheld an officer's right to search a vehicle's trunk: (A): only when the police have a search warrant (B): when the police have the keys (C): when the police have probable cause (D): only for inventory purposes

It is generally accepted that the recoil stage of a survivor of sexual assault lasts a minimum of _______________. (A): 30 days (B): 3 months (C): 1 year (D): 3 years

Marihuana is a ______________.. (A): Penalty Group 1 Druge (B): Schedule 3 Drug (C): Schedule 1 Drug (D): Penalty Group 4 Drug

Most Steroids are found in which Penalty Group? (A): PG 1 (B): PG 1-A (C): PG 3 (D): PG 4

No civil suit shall be commenced nor process issued or served on Sunday. This statement means that __________________________________ . (Rules of Civil Procedure Rule 6) (A): a justice court may not have magistrates warning on Sunday (B): all civil process must cease on Sunday (C): a citation with a petition delivered to a defendant on Sunday would be invalid service (D): process servers may deliver citations on Sunday because they are not peace officers

No person shall be held to answer for a felony unless on indictment of a ___________. (A): District Attorney (B): County Attorney (C): Grand Jury (D): County Court

One purpose for impounding property is to; (A): provide officers with an authority to search it (B): to check to see if the property is stolen (C): to protect it (D): none of the above

Peace officers who execute process for a Court must make a ___________ effort to perform the official duty. (A): careful (B): final (C): diligent (D): objective

Possession of 3 ounces of Marihuana is a __________________. (A): 3rd degree Felony (B): State Jail Felony (C): Class A Misdemeanor (D): Class B Misdemeanor

The driving technique introduced in the handout on "Police Emergency Driving" is called ___________________ . (A): cross-over steering (B): shuffle braking (C): shuffle steering (D): intermittent braking

The earliest that the offense of DWI can be a Felony is on the ____ conviction. (A): 1st (B): 2nd (C): 3rd (D): 4th or subsequent

The key elements of the protection against liability for Texas Peace Officers is that they are ____________ in their actions and make a _____________ effort to perform their official duties. (Civil Practices and Remedies Code Art. 7003) (A): aggressive -- demanding (B): caustic -- stifled (C): reasonable -- diligent (D): supportive -- sustained

The stages of grief can occur in almost any order, however one is almost always the first; which is it ? (A): Guilt (B): Emotion (C): Shock (D): Depression (E): Panic

To arrest a person with Probable Cause, how much do the police need to know about the person they want to arrest ? (A): an eye witness needs to accompany officers and point out the suspect (B): police need the name and date of birth on a warrant (C): the person must be reasonably susceptible to identification (D): police must have some type of latent fingerprint or photograph for comparison

Under the ABC Code, "alcoholic beverage" means alcohol, or any beverage containing _____________ percent of alcohol by volume, which is capable of use for beverage purposes, either alone or when dilute(D): (A): Less than .08 of one (B): Less than .5 of one (C): More than one-half of one (D): None of the above

When a credible person gives information to the police, which amounts to probable cause, which of the following is true ? (A): every detail known by the person must be relayed to the police (B): police cannot use information from a credible person for probable cause unless it is verified by a neutral magistrate (C): police only need to know enough information to reach probable cause; they don't need to be in possession of every detail known to the credible person.

When being fired upon, which on of the following is NOT considered "cover" ? (A): a mailbox (B): a vehicle (C): shrubs (D): a utility pole

When handling a "high risk" suspect, you should only touch him when: (A): he's close to you (B): he's unarmed (C): he's in a tactical disadvantage (D): he doesn't respond

When using more than one chemical means of developing a latent print, what is the correct chronological order ? (A): iodine - silver nitrate - ninhydrin (B): silver nitrate - ninhydrin - iodine (C): iodine - ninhydrin - silver nitrate (D): cyanoacrylate - silver nitrate - iodine

Which of the following is TRUE about District Courts? (A): they have original jurisdiction in all misdemeanor cases (B): they have appellate jurisdiction in all misdemeanor cases (C): they have original jurisdiction in all felony criminal cases (D): they have appellate jurisdiction in Class A & B misdemeanor cases

Which of the following is TRUE about a reasonable suspicion of a person found under circumstances where his behavior is entirely lawful ? (A): an officer can hold the person temporarily while gathering more facts that will support a detention (B): there is no need to recognize the innocent aspects of someone's behavior (C): the behavior must be sufficiently distinguishable from that of innocent people under the same circumstances to support a reasonable suspicion (D): facts and circumstances which individually appear innocent cannot be used to justify stopping a person

Which of the following is TRUE about conditional factors in an MV Crash: (A): a wet road must be permanently wet to be considered a conditional factor (B): human control is needed in all conditional factors (C): a vehicle defect is a conditional factor even if the driver is aware of it (D): a conditional factor cannot involve impairment of the driver

Which of the following is a TRUE statement about ethics ? (A): Ethics is a written code or credo (B): Values are primarily taught to others (C): A stakeholder can be any person that may be affected by what you do. (D): Police officers are held to the same standards as ordinary citizens

Which of the following violations of the Academy Rules and Regulations carries an automatic termination of a cadets attendance in the academy? (A): invasion of private offices (B): card playing (C): cheating (D): sleeping in class

Which statement is TRUE regarding "arrests with warrant" and "arrests without warrant"? (A): warrants require more information to constitute Probable Cause (B): warrants require less information to constitute Probable Cause (C): warrants require the same information to constitute Probable Cause

Which two field sobriety tests when combined have the greatest accuracy? (A): HGN & OLS (B): OLS & WAT (C): HGN & WAT (D): none of these combinations exceed the HGN alone

You have arrested a local high school student in the act of commiting a burglary of a building. He tells you he is a student at Main Street High School about a mile away. The Code of Criminal Procedure requires your agency to ____________________ the ________________________ within ___________. (A): notify in writing / superintendent or designee / 5 working days (B): notify / attendance clerk at the high school / 48 hours (C): orally notify / superintendent or designee / 24 hours (D): notify in person / principal of the high school / 72 hours

(24.3.1) Conducting property checks, questioning suspicious persons, varying patrol patterns, and maintaining high visibility best describe_________ patrol. (A): selective (B): enforcement (C): preventative (D): apprehension

C Only 50 questions can be imported to ClassMarker.com at a time. This separator will be shown after each set of 50 questions. Copy a set of questions between separators into a new .txt file to import them into ClassMarker. (ENDIGNORE)

(27.1.2.16) When talking to autistic persons, you should: (A): pat them on the back to reassure them that you are there to help (B): use abstract terms and ideas (C): speak slowly and allow extended time for a response (D): stop self-stimulating behaviors so they can concentrate on what you are saying

(6.2.3) If a peace officer refuses to execute a legal process directed to him or her by the court, he or she is liable for (A): any punishment the judge may direct. (B): a Class C Misdemeanor under the Penal Code. (C): a civil fine of not less than $10 or more than $200. (D): a Class B Misdemeanor under the Penal Code

(8 - 1.04) Texas law has jurisdiction over an offense: (A): only if the result occurs in Texas (B): only if the conduct occurs in Texas (C): if the result or conduct occur in Texas (D): correct answer is not listed

(8 - 22.01) Peter Pauper intentionally pinched Tundra Johnson on the buttocks in the elevator of the court building, which is open to the public. Johnson was offended by the action. What offense was committed? (A): sexual conduct (B): sexual harassment (C): assault (D): public lewdness

(8 - 46.03) A student was stopped for a traffic violation on a campus street. The arresting officer saw a razor-sharp machete, with a 30-inch blade, on the back seat of the student's car. Which of the following is TRUE: (A): the offense can be enhanced for Weapons Free School Zone (B): the student is in Possession of Prohibited Weapon PC 46.05 (C): no offense occurred under UCW-46.02 or CWWP-46.03 (D): the student has committed Possession of a Deadly Weapon - 3rd Degree Felony, PC 46.10

(9.1.1) Which of the following is not a motor vehicle? (A): golfcart (B): tractor (C): electric bicycle (D): street sweeper

(9.1.11) When approaching an uncontrolled intersection, under which following condition would the driver have Right Of Way? (A): when approaching on a one- lane street that intersects with a 3 lane street (B): when approaching on a one-way street that intersects a two-way street (C): when approaching on a paved street that intersects an unpaved street (D): when approaching on a street that terminates at the intersection

A peace officer who is charging a person, including a child, with committing an offense that is a _________________, other than an offense under Section 49.02, Penal Code, may instead of taking the person before a magistrate, issue a citation to the person that contains written notice of the time an place the person must appear before a magistrate, the name and address of person charged, and the offense charge(D): (Note: Under new legislation a child may now be issued a citation for a violation of CCP 49.02 but only if they are released to the child's parent, guardian, custodian, or other responsible adult. See CCP 45.058) (A): Class A misdemeanor (B): Class B misdemeanor (C): Class C misdemeanor (D): State Jail Felony

(27.1.4.1) Psychotropic medications are used to _______________ symptoms of mental illness. (A): eliminate (B): cure (C): control (D): enhance

C (Grade style): 0

(4.1.2) An order from the court directing the person responsible for holding an individual in jail or prison to bring that person before the court and show why he or she is being held in custody is called a: (A): Writ of Attainder. (B): Writ of Custody. (C): Writ of Habeas Corpus. (D): Writ of Capias.

C (Grade style): 0

(7.1.13) Why is a search based on probable cause and exigent circumstances an exception to the requirement of always obtaining a search warrant ? (A): it can be conducted on less probable cause than that required for a search warrant (B): it can only be used for searches of motor vehicles (C): there is no time to get a warrant (D): all of these reasons are correct

C (Grade style): 0

(15.3.2) Having all the necessary or appropriate details in a narrative (elements of the offense, subject descriptions, witness statements, victim interview, identification of evidence, etc.) fulfills which of the following essential characteristics of a good police report? (A): legibility (B): conciseness (C): clarity (D): completeness

(13.1.2) Which of the following is a stimulant ? (A): opium (B): barbiturates (C): heroin (D): methamphetamine

(13.1.3) All of the following except _____________ are derived from organic (natural) sources. (A): Marijuana (B): Cocaine (C): Heroin (D): Methamphetamine

(13.2.1) "_________________" means an order from a practitioner, or an agent of the practitioner designated in writing as authorized to communicate prescriptions, or an order made in accordance with Subchapter B, Chapter 157, Occupations Code, or Section 203.353, Occupations Code, to a pharmacist for a dangerous drug to be dispensed that states the required information. (A): Administer (B): Dispense (C): Distribute (D): Prescription

(18.2.4) At what point are you the most vulnerable during a handcuffing procedure? (A): during the search (B): when positioning the person on a wall (C): while informing the person he is under arrest (D): after you have cuffed one hand

(14.1.13) Which of the following persons may take possession of a child without a court order in an emergency? (A): a law enforcement officer (B): a juvenile probation officer (C): an agent for Dept. of Regulatory and Protective Services (D): all of these may take possession of a child

(18.2.4) Liability through use of handcuffs in an arrest can include all but which of the following: (A): civil and criminal liability (B): administrative consequences (C): negative public opinion (D): life insurance premiums

(14.1.2) Of the following which are required for a child to be tried as an adult in criminal court? (A): The child is at least 15 years of age but under 17 (B): The child has committed a felony offense (C): The welfare of the community requires criminal proceedings against a child (D): The child is at least 15 years of age but under 17, has committed a felony offense, and the welfare of the community requires criminal proceedings

(21.3.1) In the phonetic alphabet used by police the proper designation for the letter "H" is: (A): Howard (B): Holcomb (C): Hoover (D): Henry

(14.1.5) A child may be detained in a "Juvenile Process Office" for each of the following except: (A): return to custody of a person as designated by the Family Code (B): The issuance of warnings to the child as required or permitted by the Family Code. (C): The photographing and fingerprinting of the child if otherwise authorized at the time of temporary detention by this title. (D): Questioning where the child has not received required warnings from a magistrate.

(14.1.6) Under which of the following circumstances must a child, taken into custody, be fingerprinted and may be photographed? (A): The child is 16 years old and committed a robbery. (B): The child is 13 years old and committed a murder. (C): The child is 10 years old and committed a burglary. (D): Any of these circumstances.

(14.1.7) According to Title 3, Chapter 52 of the Texas Family Code, a child may be taken into custody in each of the following circumstances EXCEPT: (A): Pursuant to the an order of a juvenile court. (B): Pursuant to the laws of arrest. (C): By a police officer if probable cause exists to believe the child may be engaged in conduct in need of supervision or delinquent conduct. (D): By the order of the school superintendent where the child goes to school. (E): By a Directive to Apprehend

(15.1.0) Choose the best sentence (A): It was a medical emergancy. (B): The arguement was domestic in nature. (C): The complainant were injured. (D): Sergeant Smith smelled the strong odor of urine.

(15.1.3) Choose the active voice sentence. (A): I was sent to Bee Cave Research Center. (B): The witness, Chris Johnson, was interviewed about the theft. (C): The suspect is described as a Hispanic male, about 20 years ol(D): (D): The suspect turned South and began to walk more quickly.

(15.3.1) There are several significant uses of the police report; which of the following is not of them? (A): Basis for prosecution and defense (B): Permanent record of facts. (C): Reference material (D): Reference point

(1.1.6) When identifying safety measures for fitness training, a person should: (A): consider a fitness trainer's advice in developing a personal fitness program. (B): consider the affect of heat on performance. (C): consider additional water needs when working or exercising in heat. (D): All of the above.

(1.2.1) The right type of nutrition ensures that you have energy to do essential job task such as: (A): being able to produce 100% energy output for a few seconds. (B): fuel your body for an 18 hour shift. (C): to have energy left at the end of the day to enjoy personal activities. (D): All of the above.

(1.5.4) Unit 1 uses the acronym "PTSD" to describe which of the following terms? (A): Past, Type, Sensitive, Direction (B): Post, Timely, Stress, Division (C): Partial, Traumatic, Stress, Disability (D): Post, Traumatic, Stress, Disorder

(10.1.1) Which of the following is true about psychophysical tests given to a DWI suspect, during the "face to face" stage of contact? (A): they require a licensed psychologist be present for admissibility in court (B): they require Miranda warnings beforehand (C): they are only effective after you get the driver out of the car (D): they include tests such as Alphabet, Countdown and Finger count; which divide attention

(11.4.1) A "court of record" is a court whose proceedings are recorded by a ___________. (A): District Attorney (B): Defense Attorney (C): Court Bailiff (D): Court Reporter

(11.4.1) Which of the following is a "________________________ - (Eviction suit)" Provides a summary, speedy, simple, and inexpensive remedy for determination of who is entitled to possession of real property and/or past due rent. (A): Default Judgment (B): Writ of Habeas Corpus (C): Sequestration Order (D): Forcible Entry and Detainer

(11.6.3) No civil suit shall be commenced nor process issued or served on ___________ , except in cases of injunction, attachment, garnishment, sequestration, or distress proceedings; provided that citation by publication on this day shall be valid. (A): Monday (B): Wednesday (C): Saturday (D): Sunday

(11.6.3) Which of the following was NOT listed as one of authorized "Methods of Service for Citations". (A): In person to the defendant (B): Alternate Service (C): Publication (D): Telegraph

(11.6.7.1) When a Sheriff/Constable is ordered to seize a specific vehicle located in their county with a Writ of Sequestration, they will seize the vehicle from _______________________ . (Rule 699, Civil Practices an Remedy Code Art. 62.061) (A): defendant (B): friend of defendant holding vehicle to avoid loss (C): repair shop with payment due for repair (D): all of these are correct answers

(12.1.2) Under the ABC Code, "minor" means anyone under ______ years of age. (A): 18 (B): 19 (C): 20 (D): 21

(12.1.4) A person who sells a minor an alcoholic beverage does not commit an offense if the minor falsely represents himself to be ______years or older by displaying an apparently valid Texas driver's license or an identification card issued by the Texas Department of Public Safety, containing a physical description consistent with his appearance for the purpose of inducing the person to sell him an alcoholic beverage. (A): 18 (B): 19 (C): 20 (D): 21

(12.1.4) According to the Alcoholic Beverage Code, a minor commits an offense if he/she _________ an alcoholic beverage while not in the visible presence of a parent, adult spouse or legal guardian. (A): purchases (B): consumes (C): possesses (D): possesses or consumes

(13.1.1) "___________" means a substance that has an addiction-forming or addiction-sustaining, liability similar to morphine or is capable of conversion into a drug having addiction-forming or addiction-sustaining liability. (A): Marihuana (B): LSD (C): Depressant (D): Opiate

(17.1.2) A peace officer is justified in using force against another when and to the degree he reasonably believes it is immediately necessary to ____________________________ providing he believes the action to be lawful. (A): prevent an escape before the arrest (B): apply for a search warrant (C): make the arrest (D): apply for a search warrant, make the arrest and/or prevent escape before an arrest

(17.1.3) A person is justified in using force, but not deadly force, against another when and to the degree he reasonably believes the force is immediately necessary to ______________. (A): Prevent the other person from killing him. (B): Prevent the other person from causing him serious bodily injury. (C): Prevent the other person from causing death or serious bodily injury to another. (D): Prevent the other from committing suicide or inflicting serious bodily injury to himself.

(17.1.3) According to the Penal Code a person is justified in using deadly force against another to _________. (A): Prevent the other's imminent commission of assault. (B): Prevent suicide (C): Prevent unlawful restraint (D): Prevent a sexual assault

(17.1.3) It is unlawful for a person to use force to resist an arrest by a peace officer, when: (A): the person responded to the officer's use of greater force than necessary (B): the person used the force for self-protection against the officer's excessive force (C): the person reasonably believed the force was immediately necessary (D): the person reasonably believed the arrest was unlawful

(17.1.3) The "Castle Doctrine" provision of Penal Code 9.31 states that a citizen's use of force is presumed to be reasonable if they had reason to believe the person against whom the force was used was attempting to enter all of the following locations, except: (A): Occupied Habitation (B): Occupied Vehicle (C): Occupied place of employment (D): Fenced in property.

(17.2.2) "The degree of influence an officer must exert over a violator to take the violator safely into custody" is a definition of: (A): physical arrest (B): confrontation (C): reasonable force (D): control

(17.2.3) Which of the following is not a circumstance considered by the courts in determining whether reasonable force has been used ? (A): age (B): sex (C): skill level (D): location of incident

(17.2.4) Which of the following are moral considerations and forces affecting an officer's decision to use force ? (A): statutory law (B): department policy (C): individual conscience (D): all of these are valid considerations

(17.3.1) Which of the following are not one of the five force options available to officers? (A): professional presence (B): impact weapons (C): firearms (D): rapid response

(17.3.1) Which of the following would not be considered as a type of force? (A): officer presence (B): physical strength (C): OC spray (D): all are types of force

(17.3.2) Which of the following does not typically govern the Police use of force? (A): The U.S. Constitution (B): State law (C): Departmental rules (D): Societies norms

(17.3.4) Approximately _______% of the time a message is received and interpreted based on how something was said rather than what is said: (A): 15 (B): 33 (C): 65 (D): 93

(17.3.4) Communication is an important profession skill. ______% of an officer's duties involves verbal skills. Only about _______% of contacts require physical force. (A): 75, 25 (B): 60, 40 (C): 50, 50 (D): 97, 3

(17.3.6) One commonly used verbal persuasion strategy when encountering argumentative subjects is LEAPS. What element of the strategy does "P" represent? (A): Pontificate (B): Patience (C): Promise (D): Paraphrase

(17.3.6) There are several types of verbal appeals an officer can use to persuade a person to be cooperative. Which of the following appeals works well with persons who are headstrong and insist on getting their own way ? (A): ethical (B): rational (C): practical (D): personal

(17.3.7) Which of the following indicates a peace officer is acting professionally ? (A): The ability to communicate well within the profession (B): A refusal to return to words once some type of force has been used (C): The officer is not selective with the use of force (D): The ability to describe and characterize one's performance to superiors

(18.1 - ASP) ASP Baton techniques, like other defensive tactics techniques, are selected based on the ability of the technique to _________ versus __________. (A): persuade; harm (B): intimidate; injure (C): control; persuade (D): control; injure

(18.1 ASP) During the open mode straight strike with an ASP baton, the reaction hand is: (A): palm up on the shaft (B): maintaining distance (C): guarding the face (D): palm down gripping the shaft

(18.1.1) Being aware of potential dangers; avoiding overextending yourself; and maintaining proper distance are all components of (A): the leaps method (B): the Graham analysis (C): arranging the environment (D): the principles of Self-Defense

(18.1.1) The police role in physical arrest is essentially: (A): to protect the public (B): to take the violator into custody (C): emotionally support the public (D): to protect the public and to take the violator into custody only

(18.1.1) Which of the following was not specifically given by TCOLE as one of the "Use of Force Options? (A): Professional presence (B): Nonverbal communication (C): Deadly force (D): Courage-under-fire

(18.1.4) Flammability and over exposure to blended sprays are major safety concerns regarding the deployment of OC spray. Which of the following is also a major safety concern? (A): Rhinorrhea (B): Blephoral Spasm (C): Conjunctivitis (D): Hydraulic Needle Effect

(18.1.4) Which of these is a valid target for defense sprays? (A): Eyes (B): Nose (C): Mouth (D): All of These

(18.2.3) The disadvantage of the side approach when dealing with a suspect is (A): may provoke physical responce (B): cannot observe all movements (C): reduces surprise (D): cannot observe all movements and reduces surprise

(18.2.4) Which of the following is true about "handcuffing" procedures in the State of Texas? (A): It is governed by Chapter 38 of the Texas Penal Code (B): It is governed by Chapter 15 of the Texas Code of Criminal Procedure (C): Only police officers are allowed to use handcuffs (D): There is no statute controlling handcuffing procedures

(18.2.4) Which of the following statements is not true concerning handcuffs when dealing with one subject? (A): Handcuffs are considered to be a temporary restraining device only. (B): Handcuffs should be double locked. (C): Hands should normally be handcuffed in back of the subject. (D): Hands should normally be handcuffed in front of the subject.

(19.2.1) "If an accidental discharge occurred, no human injury would result and only minor property damage will occur" is the definition of: (A): focus grip (B): gun ready position (C): the smack (D): safe direction

(19.2.4) During which phase should the the eyes focus on the front sight (A): the draw (B): the grip (C): the smack (D): the look

(19.2.4) Getting a firm "shooter's grip" on the handgun begins: (A): as the muzzle clears the holster (B): after the the muzzle is pointing at the target (C): as the handgun meets the "smack" (D): in the holster

(19.2.4) In which of the following instances should you NOT check to see if a firearm is loaded: (A): Whenever you pick up a firearm (B): When you pass a firearm to another (C): Whenever you take a firearm from another (D): Immediately after a misfire or squib load (E): If you feel it is necessary and it is safe to do so

(19.2.4) Which firearms command can be given by a student or instructor on the line? (A): Stand easy (B): The line is safe (C): Is the line ready? (D): Cease Fire

(2.1.1) Policing in America has its roots in _____________ methods. (A): Posse comitatus (B): Spanish (C): French (D): European

(2.1.2) August Vollmer can best be remembered for: (A): Identifying police corruption (B): Getting the Pendleton Act passed (C): Creating the FBI (D): His contribution to the goal of professionalizing the police in America

(2.1.3) According to the BPOC, which of the following would not be a true statement? (A): During Texas' 100 years as a province of Mexico, Mexican governors reigned over the territory that would later become Texas. (B): Stephen F. Austin employed a militia group to protect the settlers from Indian and bandit raids. This group later became known as the Texas Rangers. (C): Two elected law enforcement officials in Texas are constables and sheriffs. (D): The watch/ward system of police became common in Texas because of its large territory and absence of large cities/urban areas.

(2.1.4) The minimum standards for the annual firearms proficiency course of fire for precision rifles shall be a minimum of _____ rounds of ammunition fired at a range of at least 100 yards; however an agency may, in its discretion, allow a range of less than 100 yards but not less than 50 yards if the minimum passing percentage is raised to ______ percent. (Rule 217.21) (A): 50, 20 (B): 25, 50 (C): 20, 75 (D): 20, 90

(2.1.4) The minimum standards for the annual firearms proficiency course of fire for shotguns shall be a minimum of _____rounds of duty ammunition fired at a range of at least _____ yards. (Rule 217.21) (A): 5, 25 (B): 10, 15 (C): 25, 25 (D): 5, 15

(2.1.4) Which of the following is a minimum standard to be permanently licensed as a peace office in Texas? (Rule 217.1) (A): All persons must have at least a Bachelor's Degree (B): All persons must have at least an AAS Degree in Criminal Justice (C): All persons must have at least two years of active military service. (D): All persons must have been subjected to a background investigation and has been interviewed prior to appointment by representatives of the appointing authority. (E): None of the above are correct

(2.1.5) Which of the following specific characteristics did the BPOC indicate would usually be used to describe the "Traditional Police Service Model?" (A): Reactive response, incident driven, use of the criminal justice system, and very little use of aggregate statistics. (B): Receptive to citizen input, incident driven, use of the criminal justice system, and little use of aggregate statistics. (C): Proactive response, incident driven, non-use of the criminal justice system, and use of aggregate statistics. (D): Reactive response, incident driven, use of the criminal justice system, and use of aggregate statistics

(20.1.11) Patients suffering a heart attack often describe the severe pain they feel as; (A): occurring all over their body at the same time (B): localized at the top of their head (C): mainly concentrated at or below their waist (D): persistent pain, discomfort or pressure on their chest

(20.1.11) When performing CPR, the rate for chest compressions should be at least _________ per minute. (A): 60 (B): 70 (C): 80 (D): 100

(20.1.11) Which of the following would you consider the most serious result of a heart attack? (A): severe chest pain (B): anxiety and depression (C): shock (D): cardiac arrest (E): denial

(20.1.3) If the dressing for a wound becomes blood-soaked: (A): apply a tourniquet immediately (B): remove it and clean the wound (C): replace it with a dry, sterile dressing (D): do not remove it, but apply additional layers of dressing

(20.1.3) Which is the first method to try for controlling external bleeding? (A): exposure to air (B): tourniquet (C): pressure point (D): direct pressure

(21.1.1) "_________ ______" is defined as any communication requesting a response to an emergency. (A): Passive Communication (B): Emergency Medical Service (C): Warning and Information Services Communication (D): Emergency Communication

(21.1.2) PSAP is an acronym that stands for "public service _________________": (A): announcement program (B): agency plan (C): arrival protocol (D): answering point

(21.1.3) The Texas Disaster Act of 1975 established the Division of Emergency Management (DEM) in the Office of the Governor and placed it under the director of _______________. (A): Texas Department of Health (B): Texas Department of Transportation (C): Texas Commission on Law Enforcement Officers Standards and Education (D): Texas Department of Public Safety

(21.3.2) When transmitting, the microphone of the radio should be held approximately _____ inches from and at a _____ degree angle to you mouth. (A): 3 and 20 (B): 1 and 50 (C): 2 and 90 (D): 1 and 45 (E): 3 and 35

(22.4.1) A pursuit can involve: (A): a known felon (B): officer assist call (C): a medical emergency (D): all of these

(23.1.1) Communication is: (A): receipt of data (B): passing of information (C): instinctual (D): transfer of meaning

(23.1.1) Your posture communicates to people your ________________. (A): physical size (B): intentions (C): preconceptions (D): interest and confidence

(23.2.2) Community policing is a policing _________ that promotes and supports organizational strategies to address the causes and reduce the fear of crime. (A): discipline (B): observation (C): guide (D): philosophy

(23.2.5) Good problem solving requires ; (A): a positive attitude (B): avoiding guessing (C): a concern for accuracy (D): all of these are requirements (E): B and C only

(23.2.5) Good problem solving requires: (A): a positive attitude (B): avoiding guessing (C): a concern for accuracy (D): all of these are requirements

(23.2.5) In Problem Oriented Policing, thinking and acting strategically can involve a focus on (A): multiple offenders (B): repeat victims (C): recurring locations (D): all of these

(23.2.5) The basic unit of police work in Problem Oriented Policing is defined as a problem. The problem can consist of all of the following except: (A): An incident causing harm to a citizen (B): An event that alarms a citizen (C): A condition that causes fear in the community (D): A committee concept

(23.2.7) In Problem Oriented Policing, which of the following is a true statement about the SARA technique ? (A): Scanning involves the collection of relevant data (B): Analysis involves addressing the problem (C): Response involves identification of the problem (D): Assessment involves evaluation of the solution

(23.2.9) The basic unit of police work in Problem Oriented Policing is defined as a problem. The problem can consist of all of the following except : (A): An incident causing harm to a citizen (B): An event that alarms a citizen (C): A condition that causes fear in the community (D): A committee concept

(23.2.9) Which of the following is TRUE about Problem-Oriented Policing (A): it will centralize decision making (B): it will decrease the discretion of line officers and supervisors (C): it decreases the risks and benefits of law enforcement (D): it requires closer contact between the police and the community

(23.2.9) Which of the following is TRUE about Problem-Oriented Policing? (A): it will centralize decision making (B): it will decrease the discretion of line officers and supervisors (C): it decreases the risks and benefits of law enforcement (D): it requires closer contact between the police and the community

(23.5.1) The impact of an officer's professional presence at a scene means that: (A): the officers' entrances into a scene create new sets of circumstances. (B): the officers must remain alert to the dynamics of the people present. (C): a group may be in the posture of assisting the officer or interfering with the performance of duty (D): all of the above

(24.1.1) Size of area, familiarity with the area, type of complaint, and availability of officers all combine to affect which of the following factors? (A): Difficulty of supervision (B): Diversionary tactics by criminals (C): The use of one- or two-person units (D): Response time (E): None of the above

(24.1.1) The soundest of all criminological theories is: (A): potential crime by its very nature is unpredictable (B): the benefits of police patrol are easily measured and assessed (C): most crimes go completely undetected (D): prevention of crime

(24.1.1) Which of the following [b]WAS NOT[/b] listed by the BPOC as being one of the specific "Objectives of Patrol"? (A): To preserve the peace by mere presence and by proper actions. (B): To suppress crime by timely response to crimes in progress and by properly investigating offenses. (C): To apprehend suspects. (D): To regulate non-criminal conduct by maintaining "poor" officer - citizen relationships.

(24.1.2) Police hazards are represented by four categories. Which of the following lists of hazards is correct? (A): Vehicles, property, weather, and darkness (B): Vehicles, buildings, persons, and places (C): Weather, darkness, places, and situations (D): Property, persons, situations, and places (E): None of the above

(24.1.3) Which of the following is not a basic safety awareness tactic? (A): Knowledge of cover and concealment (B): Knowledge of safe foot approaches (C): Knowledge of safe vehicle approaches (D): Knowledge of weather conditions

(24.2.1) "________________" includes placing yourself, others or your patrol unit in a position so as to provide the suspect(s) with a definite identifiable target. (A): cover (B): security (C): concealment (D): silhouetting

(24.2.1) Hazards that officers may encounter while on patrol include all of the following except: (A): Allowing suspect(s) to plan course of action. (B): Silhouetting (C): Parking your unit too close to the scene (D): Weather conditions

(24.2.1) Which of the following would not be a true statement concerning "Silhouetting?" (A): Silhouetting places yourself, others or your patrol unit in a position so as to provide the suspect with a definite identifiable target (B): Silhouetting provides a suspect with knowledge of how many officers are present, fire power, and their approach. (C): Silhouetting allows a suspect to plan a course of action. (D): Officer silhouetting in a dangerous situation is considered good police procedure.

(24.3.2) The BPOC lists "five patrol patterns." Which of the following correctly lists these five patterns? (A): Lane selection, parking the patrol vehicle, strip search, double back, and random (B): V-pattern, parking the patrol vehicle, circular, double back, and random (C): Lane selection, zone, circular, double back, and random (D): Lane selection, parking the patrol vehicle, circular, double back, and random

(24.3.3) The BPOC list several advantages for "automobile patrol." Which of the following was not specifically listed as an advantage of automobile patrol? (A): Mobility (B): Visibility increases preventive potential (C): Protection for the officer (D): Less attention to detail.

(24.4.2) An officer who remains in reserve for observation, special spotlighting, radio relays and firepower is commonly referred to as the _______________ officer. (A): tactical (B): contact (C): offensive (D): cover

(24.4.3) The field inquiry is used: (A): to learn about people (B): as a vital source of information (C): to learn about places (D): all of these are correct

(24.5.1) During a routine vehicle stop, you should have in mind: (A): what you are doing (B): what you would do (C): action to execute without hesitation (D): all of these

(24.5.1) Which of the following is the 2nd Step in the Seven Step Approach for a traffic violator contact? (A): Leave (B): ID Driver & Complete Check (C): Explain Driver's Responsibilities (D): Statement of Violation

(24.5.5) During a search after a bomb threat, search teams should be asking themselves three questions to evaluate what they see. "Is it suspicious?", "Is it unusual?", and "________________" (A): "Is it mine?" (B): "Is it 5 o'clock yet?" (C): "Is it normal?" (D): "Is it out of place?"

(24.5.5) In determining how dangerous a found explosive is, patrol officers should do which of the following? (A): Pick up the explosive and examine it for markings (B): Smell the explosive for strange odors indicating possible deterioration. (C): Taste the explosive for presence of salts (D): None of the above. The explosive should be left where found and notify Bomb Squad

(24.5.5) When an explosion occurs, the force of the explosion is directed in ______ degrees ? (A): 90 (B): 180 (C): 270 (D): 360

(24.5.5) When responding to a suspected explosive device, first responders must keep in mind that the device could be initiated several ways. These include which of the following (A): push/pull (B): pressure/pressure release (C): remote control (pager, cell, radio) (D): all of these are correct

(24.5.5) When something suspicious is located during a search after a bomb threat, the most important thing to remember is: (A): Move the suspicious item outside so an explosion will do less damage (B): Move the suspicious item away from the command post, and other first responders to minimize loss of personnel from an explosion (C): Move the suspicious item to a previously designated area, usually the place most likely to withstand an explosion (D): Never move a suspicious item. Leave it where it was found and move personnel away from the area.

(24.8.3) What are the three lines of defense that are evaluated in a Security Survey? (A): Lighting, Sentries, Picket Line (B): Exterior, Interior, Key Control (C): Perimeter, Interior, Radial (D): Perimeter, Exterior, Interior

(25.1.1) The "____________" is the normal human response to TRAUM(A): (A): Eustress Reaction (B): Stress Reaction (C): Psychological Reaction (D): Crisis Reaction

(25.1.5) Which of the following statements is NOT correct concerning a person's long term crisis reaction? (A): many victims continue to re-experience crisis reactions over long periods of time (B): certain "trigger events" (such as identifying an assailant, etc.) may remind the victim of the trauma they experienced (C): long term stress reactions usually decrease over time (D): all victims suffer from long term stress reactions in the same way

(25.2.4) A victim of a ____________ offense may choose a pseudonym to be used instead of the victim's name to designate the victim in all public files and records concerning the offense, including police summary reports, press releases, and records of judicial proceedings. (A): robbery (B): aggravated robbery (C): perjury (D): sex

(25.2.4) A victim of a crime suffers no physical harm that requires treatment. This person can still be a victim of a violent crime if the crime is classified as a __________________ . (A): theft (B): burglary (C): stalking (D): kidnapping

(25.2.4) Under Chapter 56 (Rights of Crime Victims), who pays the cost of a medical examination requested in connection with the investigation of an alleged sexual assault? (A): the victim alleging the assault (B): the county with jurisdiction in the offense (C): the crime victim's family (D): the law enforcement agency requesting the exam

(25.2.4) Which of the following actions is criminally injurious conduct under the CVCA? (A): theft of an airplane (B): ran stop sign (C): failure to provide proof of financial responsibility (D): failure to stop and render aid

(26.2.3) All of the following persons qualify for a "Protective Order" EXCEPT: (A): Ex-Spouses (B): Member of a dating relationship (C): Roommates in a dorm (D): Classmates

(26.2.4) After an application for a Protective Order is filed, the hearing to decide whether or not to issue the Protective Order must be held not later than ___________________________ . (A): The first working day after filing the application (B): The 20th day after filing the application if the county population is less than one million (C): The 60th day after filing the application (D): The 14th day after filing the application

(26.3.1) A report of suspected child abuse shall be reported to all of the following agencies EXCEPT __________________ . (A): A law enforcement agency (B): Texas Department of Family and Protective Services (C): Texas Youth Commission (D): Texas Department of Criminal Justice

(29.6.5) Which of the following is a reason for making an unplanned entry into a crime scene? (A): To determine the size and extent of the scene (B): To interview witnesses (C): To collect a piece of trace evidence (D): To search for a perpetrator

(26.4.1) Family violence is a crime and should be treated as one. When probable cause exists the officer's role is to: (A): Not make an arrest if the victim spouse asks the officer not to make the arrest. (B): Attempt mediation to try to calm the situation so arrest is not necessary. (C): Ask that one party leave for the night so potential conflict is reduced. (D): Make the arrest and protect any victims.

(27.1.1.1) Before the creation of CIT, there were a number of high profile situations in which officers killed mentally ill subjects. Which of the following are reasons why officers used deadly force? (A): Lack of education and understanding of mental illness on the part of law enforcement (B): Use of physical, authoritative, command tactics to handle individuals in mental health crisis (C): More calls for service requiring law enforcement to handle people with mental illness who are in crisis (D): All of these are reasons (E): None of these are reasons

(27.1.1.1) Which of the following is true in regards to Crisis Intervention Training? (A): Officer safety training (B): Instills confidence (C): Is not in conflict with any tactical training (D): All of these are true

(27.1.2.16) Which of the following is a characterization of mental retardation? (A): The illness unrelated to intelligence. (B): Behavior is less predictable. (C): Medications help control symptoms. (D): The impairment began before age 18.

(27.1.2.18) What techniques should you use when approaching a psychotic person? (A): do not move suddenly, give rapid orders or shout (B): do not assume a person who does not respond cannot hear you (C): use their name when talking to them (D): all of these are correct

(27.1.2.7) The single most common factor in suicidal behavior or death by suicide is that the individual is experiencing _________________. (A): Insanity (B): Poor health (C): Mid-Life Crisis (D): Depression

(27.1.2.7) What are the two most common mood disorders? (A): antisocial & bipolar (B): sexual interest & bipolar (C): depression & paranoia (D): depression & bipolar

(27.1.2.8) Which is NOT a possible cause of psychosis? (A): bipolar disorder (B): severe depression (C): alzheimer's disease (D): arthritis conditions

(27.1.4.4) Which is a reason for a person to stop taking psychotropic medications? (A): side effects (B): they don't want people to know they have a mental illness (C): They start feeling better and think they no longer need the medications (D): all of these are a primary reasons

(27.1.7.2) What is an Emergency Detention Order? (A): serves as a magistrate's order for emergency apprehension and detention (B): is a civil court order issued by a magistrate (C): provides for emergency apprehension and transportation for evaluation (D): all of these are correct

(28.1.2) Regarding exposure to hazardous material, which of the following IS NOT a route of exposure? (A): inhalation (B): absorption (C): ingestion (D): mitigation

(29.1.1) "______________": literally means the body or substance of the crime. In law the term refers to proof establishing that a crime has occurred; the necessary elements that constitute a crime. (A): Mandamus (B): Res geste (C): Mala prohibitum (D): Corpus delicti

(29.1.1) A criminal investigation is a lawful search for people, land and things useful in reconstructing the circumstances of an illegal act or omission, and ___________? (A): witnesses or victims (B): physical evidence (C): jurisdiction to investigate it (D): the mental state accompanying it

(29.1.2) The "Three Tools of the Criminal Investigator" as given by the BPOC are: (A): Information, Intelligence, Communication (B): Intelligence, Science, Communication (C): Information, Instrumentation, Intelligence (D): Information, Instrumentation, Interviewing

(29.1.3) Which of the following was not specifically listed in the BPOC as one of the "goals" for criminal investigation? (A): to determine if a crime has been committed (B): to legally gather evidence that identifies the suspect (C): to recover stolen property (D): to convict a suspect

(29.1.5) The legal significance of evidence rests in its influence on the ______________. (A): Investigator or officer (B): Prosecutor (C): Defense Attorney (D): Judge or Jury

(29.10.4) Impeachment of a witness: (A): means the same thing as perjury (B): involves the use of hearsay evidence (C): has a two year statute of limitations (D): is the discrediting of a witness

(29.10.5) Which of the following IS NOT a "principle of witnessmanship"? (A): honesty (B): emotional control (C): objectivity (D): spontaneous commentary (E): clarity

(29.10.7) When all witnesses are sworn in at once and then excluded from the courtroom prior to their testimony, it is referred to as: (A): witness extension (B): trial attendance voidance (C): nolo attendance (D): being under the rule (E): witness separation

(29.2.1) Which of the following crimes would be committed by "heavy criminals" who tend to use violence on strangers and sacrifice secrecy to confront the victim? (A): theft (B): auto theft (C): forgery (D): robbery

(29.2.1) Which of the following is not a characteristic of a con artist? (A): uses props (B): preys on the elderly (C): very mobile (D): dangerous when confronted

(29.2.10) Which of the following was not specifically given by the BPOC as a method of gaining sexual access to a person? (A): Consent (B): Pressure (C): Force (D): Reference

(29.2.3) Which of the following is a characteristic of a "gray market" motor vehicle? (A): manufactured for sale in the USA (B): frequently an inexpensive import (C): imported by dealerships (D): needs to be retrofitted to meet DOT and EPA standards

(29.3.1) Which of the following procedures DOES NOT apply to corporeal line-ups and photo identifications? (A): have the same rules of fairness and similarity (B): include at least 6 persons (C): witnesses are separated when viewing (D): must be conducted during the heat of the hunt

(29.7.11) All of the following are guidelines in preparing a rough sketch of a crime scene, EXCEPT: (A): determine North and indicate it on the sketch (B): the sketcher controls and verifies all measurements (C): include only essential items on the sketch (D): enter measurements & explanatory notes after leaving the scene

(29.7.15) All of the following are considered fragile or "trace" evidence, EXCEPT: (A): latent fingerprints (B): flammable liquids (C): hairs and fibers (D): a shirt button

(29.7.15) Samples of human hair can tell an investigator a person's; (A): race, age & sex (B): race and sex, but not age (C): sex, but not race and age (D): race, but not sex and age

(29.7.15) Segregating each piece of evidence in a different container prevents ________________ of the evidence. (A): change (B): loss (C): damage (D): contamination

(29.7.15) Which colors of powders are most frequently used in dusting for prints? (A): silver and gold (B): red and blue (C): brown and white (D): gray and black

(29.7.15) Which of the following surfaces would yield the best results from treatment with iodine? (A): glass window pane (B): plastic drinking cup (C): metal handgun frame (D): plain bond typing paper

(29.7.3) In regards to crime scene search patterns, the "_____________" was given as among the most effective for outside searches. (A): Quadrant (or Sector) Search (B): Area Search (C): Circular (Spiral or Concentric) Search (D): Strip Search

(29.7.3) Which search pattern allows an area to be cross-divided and searched again? (A): spiral (B): concentric circles (C): wheel pattern (D): strip & grid pattern

(29.7.4) Which of the following is considered trace evidence? (A): fired cartridge casing (B): spent bullet (C): rope knot (D): latent fingerprint

(29.7.6) A statement made by a declarant while believing that the declarant's death was imminent, concerning the cause or circumstance of what the declarant believed to be impending death. (A): confession (B): affidavit (C): admissible statement (D): dying declaration

(29.8.2) In order for a written statement to be used in evidence against someone: (A): it must be signed by the defendant (B): the defendant must have been given a warning under Art 15.17 or Art 38.22, CCP (C): the defendant must have waived his "Miranda Rights" voluntarily (D): all of these are required

(29.8.2) There are several "General Rules" dealing with interviewing. Which of the following is not one of them? (A): Know what information you have and what information you need to obtain. (B): Avoid using leading or suggestive questions. (C): Ask one question at a time rather than asking rapid fire questions. (D): Never ask questions unrelated to the case. (E): Confront the suspect with discrepancies and falsehoods.

(3.1.1) "____________"is the occupation which one professes to be skilled in and to follow. A vocation in which professed knowledge of some branch of learning is used in its application to the affairs of others, or in the practice of an art based upon it. (A): Military (B): Law (C): Religion (D): Profession

(3.1.1) According to TCOLE, the earliest definition of "professionalism" comes from (A): physicians (B): law (C): military (D): religion

(3.1.1) All of the following are characteristics of professionalism Except: (A): the occupation assesses the needs of clients (B): the occupation maintains standards for entry practice and conduct (C): the occupation promotes continuing education and training (D): the occupation provides no actual service to clients

(3.1.2) Which of the following was specifically listed by TCOLE as being an "advantage" of the "professional model for law enforcement?" (A): Unethical Conduct (B): Cost of training and development. (C): Very limited problem solving. (D): Stronger community support and respect

(3.2.2) The two philosophies of ethical standards are: Values Based and __________ . (A): Cheap Behavior (B): Achievement Based (C): Perceptual Programming (D): Rules Based

(3.2.2) Which of the following is not one of the four primary causes of unethical acts? (A): Anger (B): Greed (C): Lust (D): Happiness

(3.2.3) There are two types of courage peace officers are expected to display. They are physical courage and_________? (A): systematic (B): overt (C): instinctive (D): moral

(3.3.2) It would be a violation under "__________" (Conspiracy Against Rights) if two or more persons conspire to injure, oppress, threaten, or intimidate any inhabitant of any State, Territory, or District in the free exercise or enjoyment of any right or privilege secured to him by the Constitution or laws of the United States, or because of his having so exercised the same; or if two or more persons go in disguise on the highway, or on the premises of another, with intent to prevent or hinder his free exercise or enjoyment of any right or privilege so secured. (A): PC 49 (B): CCP 38 (C): TC 721 (D): USC 241

(4.1.10) Amendment # _______ states, "The powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the states, are reserved to the States respectively, or to the people." (A): Six (B): Nine (C): Fourteen (D): Ten

(4.1.11) The amendment to the US Constitution that provides that all the rights and liberties of the Bill of Rights will be accorded to citizens of the states and that states must abide by the first ten amendments is the: (A): Seventh Amendment (B): Ninth Amendment (C): Sixth Amendment (D): Fourteenth Amendment

(4.1.4) Which of the following examples of speech would not be protected by the First Amendment to the U.S. Constitution? (A): A person protests a court ruling outside the district court building. (B): An individual expresses his or her opinion to a peace officer. (C): A person makes derogatory statements about how the government is run. (D): As a joke, a person yells "fire" in a public movie theater where there is no fire. (E): All of the examples above would not be protected by the First Amendment

(4.1.5) The US Constitution requires that an arrest with or without warrant must be based on proof: (A): beyond a reasonable doubt. (B): by a preponderance of evidence. (C): that is clear and convincing. (D): of probable cause.

(4.1.6) The 5th Amendment to the U.S. Constitution gives citizens the protection from __________. (A): unreasonable searches (B): quartering of troops (C): excessive bail (D): self-incrimination

(4.1.6) The requirement that the government must act in accordance with due process of law is contained in which two amendments to the U.S. Constitution? (A): First and Fourth (B): Fifth and Eighth (C): Eighth and Fourteenth (D): Fifth and Fourteenth

(4.1.8) Which amendment to the US Constitution prohibits cruel and unusual punishment? (A): Fourth Amendment (B): Fifth Amendment (C): Sixth Amendment (D): Eighth Amendment

(4.3.4) A person has been found guilty of "Capital Murder" by a state district court in Texas and has been sentenced to the death penalty. What would be the first Texas appellate court that this case could be appealed to? (A): County (B): District (C): Courts of Appeals (D): Court of Criminal Appeals

(4.3.4) A person is charged with "assault" where the defendant caused "bodily injury" to a UTSP officer while in the performance of his duties as a peace officer. Which Texas court has original jurisdiction to try this case? (A): Municipal (B): Justice of the Peace (C): County (D): District

(4.3.4) The highest Texas court to hear appeals of civil cases is (A): District Court (B): Courts of Appeals (C): Court of Criminal Appeals (D): Texas Supreme Court (E): Justice of the Peace Courts

(5.1.1) "____________" is a way of thinking and acting based on tradition; i.e., learned behavior passed down from one generation to another. (A): Race (B): Ethnicity (C): Prejudice (D): Culture

(5.1.1) In cultural diversity, persons with a common ancestry, generally shared language, religion and other cultural patterns can be considered members of the same ___________ group. (A): cultic (B): stereotypic (C): symbolic (D): ethnic

(5.1.1)"A belief about a person or class of persons composed of opinion or bias" is the definition of: (A): awareness (B): denegration (C): cultural synergy (D): prejudice

(5.1.2) All of the following are forms of prejudice, except : (A): race (B): religion (C): sexual orientation (D): personality

(5.1.2)In cultural diversity, all of the following are basic forms of prejudice; Except: (A): gender bias (B): age bias (C): economic bias (D): All of these are forms of bias (E): None of these are forms of bias

(5.1.4) In cultural diversity, which of the following is not a function of discrimination? (A): reinforce prejudice concerning groups (B): discrimination limits the other group's effectiveness (C): affords an avenue to economic exploitation (D): dependent on the judgment of others in relation to equal rights and dignities

(6.1.1) In CCP 1.03 several specific "objectives" are listed for the code. Which of the following were listed? (A): "To insure that the defendant gets a partial trial." (B): "To adopt "Community Policing" techniques to improve community relations." (C): "To provide the best counsel possible for defendants." (D): "To insure a trial with as little delay as is consistent with the ends of justice."

(6.1.2) In Texas, college and university police officers are commissioned by the authority of Sec. 51.203 of the Texas__________________________. (A): Code of Criminal Procedure (B): Penal Code (C): Health and Safety Code (D): Education Code

(6.2.2) Which of the following would be listed in the CCP as a "Special Investigator?" (A): Texas Ranger (B): Oklahoma State Trooper (C): Texas Department of Public Safety Narcotics Officer (D): Federal Secret Service Investigator

(6.2.3) As an officer, you may order a person to assist you in making an arrest. What penal code offense, if any, was committed if the person refuses your command? (A): Official misconduct. (B): Hindering apprehension. (C): Interference with public duties. (D): No "crime" has occurred.

(6.2.3) The affidavit made before magistrate or district or county attorney is called a "____________" if it charges the commission of an offense. (A): Commitment (B): Arrest warrant (C): Subpoena (D): Complaint

(6.3.1) Which of the following Texas Courts does not have jurisdiction in criminal actions? (A): County Courts at Law (B): Justice of the Peace (C): District (D): Texas Supreme Court

(6.3.2) Criminal appeals from county court are appealed directly to the: (A): District court. (B): County criminal court. (C): Court of criminal appeals. (D): Courts of appeals.

(6.3.3) (1) Criminal offenses punishable by fine only or (2) those offenses arising out of Chapter 106 of the Alcohol Beverage Code that do not include confinement, describe the original jurisdiction of: (A): District Courts (B): County Commissioner's Courts (C): County Courts at Law (D): Justice Courts

(6.3.3) The highest Texas Court to hear appeals of criminal cases is the: (A): Texas Supreme Court. (B): District Court. (C): Courts of Appeals (D): Court of Criminal Appeals.

(6.4.3) As an officer, you may ask a person to assist you in making an arrest. What crime has occurred if the person refuses your command? (A): Official misconduct. (B): Hindering apprehension. (C): Interference with public duties. (D): No "crime" has occurred.

(6.4.3) Which of the following officials is authorized under the CCP to call any military company in a county to aid in overcoming resistance, and if necessary, in seizing and arresting persons engaged in such resistance. (A): Chief of Police (B): jUstice of the Peace (C): any peace officer (D): Sheriff

(6.5.1) There is no "limitation" for presentation of an indictment for: (A): felony theft (B): robbery (C): insurance fraud (D): murder

(6.5.1) What is the statute of limitations for "arson?" (A): Two years (B): Three years (C): Five years (D): Ten years

(6.6.1) A peace officer may arrest, without warrant, when a felony or breach of the peace has been committed in the presence or within the view of a magistrate, and such magistrate ______________________. (A): issues a bench warrant for the offender (B): verbally orders the detention of the offender (C): issues a written order for the arrest of the offender (D): verbally orders the arrest of the offender

(6.6.1) Under 14.031 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, a peace officer may release an individual from arrest under 49.02 of the Penal Code, if the individual: (A): promises to get treatment for chemical dependency (B): is on privately owned property such as a licensed premises of the TABC (C): is 21 years of age (D): is released to the care of an adult who agrees to assume responsibility for him.

(6.6.1) Where it is shown by satisfactory proof to a peace officer, upon the representation of a credible person, that a felony has been committed, and that the offender is about to escape, so that there is no time to procure a warrant, such peace officer ____________. (A): Must, without warrant, pursue and arrest the accused. (B): May, but must first obtain a warrant, pursue and arrest the accused. (C): Shall pursue and arrest the accused. (D): May, without warrant, pursue and arrest the accused.

(6.6.1) Which of the following statements is true? (A): A peace officer must arrest a suspect if he has probable cause to believe he has violated a protective order under PC 38.112, and it does not occur in his presence. (B): A peace officer shall arrest a suspect if he has probable cause to believe he has violated a protective order under PC 38.112, and it does not occur in his presence. (C): A peace officer should arrest a suspect if he has probable cause to believe he has violated a protective order under PC 38.112, and it does not occur in his presence. (D): A peace officer may arrest a suspect if he has probable cause to believe he has violated a protective order under PC 38.112, and it does not occur in his presence.

(6.6.2) A "______________" is a written order from a magistrate, directed to a peace officer or some other person specially named, commanding him to take the body of the person accused of an offense, to be dealt with according to law. (A): writ of habeas corpus (B): commitment (C): search warrant (D): warrant of arrest

(6.6.2) A peace officer shall arrest, without warrant, a person who the peace officer has probable cause to believe has committed a violation of a Protective Order, if : (A): the offense involves a breach of the peace (B): the offense is a felony (C): the offense resulted in bodily injury (D): the offense is committed in the presence of the peace officer

(6.6.2) An arrest warrant must be executed within ____________ days from the time of its issuance. (A): 3 (B): 5 (C): 15 (D): None of the above are correct

(6.6.2) What is the time limit that the CCP sets for serving an arrest warrant provided it does not involve collecting DNA evidence? (A): 3 days (B): 3 days excluding the day of issuance and service (C): 15 days (D): no time limit

(6.7.1) A "________ _____" is a written order, issued by a magistrate and directed to a peace officer, and may command the officer to search for any property or thing (including a person): seize the property or thing and bring it before the issueing magistrate; or search for and photograph a child. (A): Habeas Corpus (B): Commitment (C): Subpoena (D): Search Warrant

(6.7.1) The time allowed for the execution of a search warrant, exclusive of the day of its issuance and the day of its execution is, __________ whole days if the warrant is issued solely to search for and seize specimens from a specific person for DNA analysis and comparison, including blood and saliva samples. (A): three (B): five (C): ten (D): fifteen

(6.7.1) Who can issue an evidenciary search warrant for a person under the Texas CCP? (A): a district court judge (B): a county court at law judge (C): a justice of the peace (D): any of these

(6.8.2) An instrument issued by the clerk of a court or a justice of the peace commanding that the person named therein appear at a specific time and place is a/an (A): Warrant of Arrest. (B): Commitment. (C): Complaint. (D): Subpoen(A):

(6.9.1) According to the Code of Criminal Procedure an inquest must be performed in all of the following circumstances EXCEPT: (A): When a person dies in jail. (B): When a person dies an unnatural death other than a legal execution. (C): When a person commits suicide. (D): When a person dies of natural causes and is attended by a physician.

(7.1) A "border search" is an exception to the warrant requirement because : (A): there is not time to obtain a warrant (B): consent must be obtained (C): border patrol officer are not bound by the 4th Amendment (D): national security

(7.1.12) A search warrant is a written order, issued by a magistrate and directed to a peace officer, (A): commanding him or her to search for property or thing named in the warrant. (B): to seize the property or thing and bring the property or thing before the issuing magistrate. (C): to search for and photograph a child. (D): to do all of these.

(7.1.12) Particular descriptions of the place to be searched and the things to be searched for are required by the: (A): First Amendment. (B): Fifth Amendment. (C): Tenth Amendment. (D): Fourth Amendment.

(7.1.13) "____________" is generally considered to be that area of open space surrounding a dwelling which is so immediately adjacent to the dwelling that it is considered part of the home. (A): open fields (B): plain view (C): the barn yard (D): curtilage

(7.1.13) According to the Supreme Court decision of Arizona v. Gant, the police may search a vehicle incident to a recent occupant's arrest: (A): only if the arrestee is within reaching distance of the passenger compartment at the time of the search. (B): if it is reasonable to believe the vehicle contains evidence of the offense of arrest. (C): a valid exception to the warrant requirement applies. (D): All of these permit a search (E): None of these permit a search

(7.1.13) An inventory of a vehicle is for the purpose of: (A): searching for contraband without a warrant. (B): locating narcotic drugs and controlled substances. (C): finding weapons that may be used against the officers. (D): listing personal property belonging to the arrested person for safekeeping.

(7.1.13) Vehicle inventories are done: (A): to find evidence (B): to assure that proper evidence tags are place on all items inventoried (C): as a subterfuge to obtaining a search warrant (D): to protect the police department and the officer

(7.1.13) What is the main legal requirement for a consent search? (A): The search must follow a legal arrest. (B): The officer must give the Miranda Warning before the consent is obtained. (C): The officer must have the person sign a consent to search form. (D): The consent must be given voluntarily. (E): The consent must have at least one witness.

(7.1.13) When conducting a search using the authority provided by the Chimel Rule, what are officers authorized to search for and seize? (A): only evidence associated with the crime the person has been arrested for (B): weapons only (C): weapons implements of escape, and evidence of any crime (D): weapons, and destructible evidence (E): other suspects

(7.1.13) Which of the following is the best description of the "Carroll Rule"? (A): An officer having probable cause to believe a vehicle contains evidence of a crime may stop the vehicle and detain the occupants while a search warrant is obtained. (B): An officer having suspicion to believe a mobile vehicle contains weapons or evidence of any crime may stop the vehicle, arrest the occupants and search incidental to their arrest. (C): An officer having probable cause to believe a vehicle contains evidence of a crime may arrest the driver and search the vehicle incidental to the arrest. (D): An officer with probable cause to believe a mobile vehicle contains evidence of a crime, may stop the vehicle, detain the driver and search the vehicle without first obtaining a search warrant.

(7.1.3) An officer with probable cause to believe that an offense occurred may arrest without warrant a person who: (A): violates a protective order even though the officer did not witness the violation. (B): commits an assault resulting in bodily injury to a member of his or her family or household. (C): commits disorderly conduct in the officer's view. (D): Does any of these. (E): Does none of these.

(7.1.6) ____________ is defined as the apprehension of something without proof, or on slight evidence. (A): probable cause (B): suspicious circumstances (C): ordinary circumstances (D): suspicion

(7.1.7) An officer stopped a suspected thief but did not think he had enough information for probable cause to make the arrest. A second officer arrived at the scene, evaluated the information, believed probable cause existed and arrested the person. At the trial, the accused tries to argue that probable cause for the arrest did not exist. Which of the following is true about the deliberations of the magistrate? (A): the first officers opinion is most important (B): the second officers opinion is most important (C): both officer's opinions will determine if probable cause existed (D): neither officer's opinion will be used to determine if probable cause existed

(7.1.7) The U.S. Supreme Court in "_____________" abandoned the rigid "two-pronged test" under Aguilar and Spinelli for determining whether an informant's tip for establishing probable cause for issuance of a warrant and substituted a "totality of the circumstances" approach in its place. (A): Adams v. Williams (B): Brown v. Texas (C): Chimel v. California (D): Illinois v. Gates

(7.1.7) Which of the following are elements that give rise to the existence of probable cause to arrest? (A): abnormal demeanor (B): furtive acts (C): high crime area (D): all of these

(7.1.7.) The Supreme Court in Illinois vs Gates established which of the following as the approach for magistrates to follow when contemplating the issuance of a search warrant based on an informant's information? (A): The "reliability standard" (B): The "two-pronged test" (C): The "common-sense rule" (D): The "totality of the circumstances" (E): The "best evidence rule"

(7.1.8) "__________________" means holding a person for a limited time, but who, as yet, is not answerable for a criminal offense. (A): Unofficial custody (B): Official custody (C): Unlawful custody (D): Temporary detention (E): All of the above are correct

(7.1.8) All of the following are true about detentions, EXCEPT: (A): Police authority to conduct a detention is derived from Terry v Ohio 392 US 1. (B): Detentions intrude upon the constitutionally protected interests of a private citizen. (C): Detentions are permitted to further the general interest of crime prevention and detection. (D): Detentions can be performed by any adult citizen in Texas.

(7.1.8) Detention is the act of keeping back or withholding a person by design; it implies a ___________ restraint of a person. (A): tactical (B): forceful (C): consensual (D): temporary

(7.1.8) Regarding a Detention, which of the following IS TRUE? (A): the suspect must produce an ID card (B): the suspect can automatically be frisked (C): the suspect must answer reasonable questions (D): the officer does not need probable cause (E): the officer must take the person immediately before a magistrate

(8 - 1.02) The drafters of the current Texas Penal Code had several objectives in mind when they were writing the criminal statutes for the code. Which of the following is not one of those objectives? (A): the deterrent influence of the penalty (B): the rehabilitation of the offender (C): sufficient punishment to prevent recurrence of the offense (D): allows law enforcement in its discretion to be arbitrary in applying laws

(8 - 1.07) According to Section 1.07 in the Penal Code, "omission" means _____________________. (A): doing something wrong (B): acting or action (C): flowing out of (D): a failure to act

(8 - 1.07) In the Penal Code, "Public Place" includes all of the following except: (A): streets (B): highways (C): the common area of a school (D): an apartment

(8 - 1.07) __________ means bodily injury that creates a substantial risk of death or that causes death, serious permanent disfigurement or protracted loss or impairment of the function of any bodily member or organ. (A): Aggravated assault (B): Battery (C): Bodily injury (D): Serious bodily injury

(8 - 12.32) What is the maximum monetary penalty that a person may be assessed for committing a felony? (A): $1,000 (B): $3,000 (C): $5,000 (D): $10,000

(8 - 19.03) The most serious crime that a person commits is " ______________" if they intentionally kill another person while committing "Arson". (A): Murder (B): Criminally negligent homicide (C): Manslaughter (D): Capital Murder

(8 - 19.04) A person recklessly causes the death of another person while target practicing near a residential area. The discharge of firearms has been prohibited in the area but it is the only suitable type range for miles. According to the Penal Code, what can this person be charged with if an offense has occurred? (A): No offense has occurred (B): Capital Murder (C): Murder (D): Manslaughter

(8 - 21.02) A person commits the offense of Continuous Sexual Abuse of a Child or Children, Section 21.02, Penal Code, if: (A): during a period of 29 days or more, the person commits one act of sexual abuse (B): during a period of two weeks, the person commits three acts of sexual abuse (C): during a period of 10 days or more, the person commits two or more acts of sexual abuse (D): during a period of 30 days or more, the person commits two or more acts of sexual abuse

(8 - 21.07) A person commits "_______________" if he knowingly engages in an act of sexual intercourse, deviate sexual intercourse, sexual contact; or an act involving contact between the person's mouth or genitals and the anus or genitals of an animal or fowl in a public place or, if not in a public place, he is reckless about whether another is present who will be offended or alarmed: (A): Homosexual conduct (B): Sexual abuse (C): Illegal public display (D): Public Lewdness

(8 - 21.07) Which of the following IS NOT an element of Public Lewdness? (A): knowingly engages (B): in a public place (C): reckless about whether another present will be offended or alarmed (D): with intent to arouse or gratify sexual desire

(8 - 21.08) Mary Flantz is walking topless down the city street. She is guilty of what crime? (A): Indecent Exposure (B): Public Lewdness (C): Disorderly Conduct (D): No offense committed

(8 - 22.01) A person commits the crime of "____________" if the person intentionally, knowingly threatens another with imminent bodily injury, including the person's spouse. (A): Unlawful Threat to Another (B): Aggravated Assault (C): Deadly Threat (D): Assault

(8 - 22.01) A person recklessly causes physical contact with another person, and the other person regards the contact as offensive or provocative. According to the Penal Code, what offense, if any, has been committed? (A): Assault (B): Aggravated Assault (C): Terroristic Threat (D): No Offense

(8 - 22.011) Under what circumstances is a sexual assault, as defined by Section 22.011, Penal Code, considered without consent: (A): the victim is unconscious (B): the victim is intoxicated (C): the actor uses or threatens to use force or violence against any person (D): All of the above

(8 - 22.021) According to the Penal Code, once an actor has committed Sexual Assault, all of the following circumstances change the offense to Aggravated Sexual Assault, EXCEPT: (A): the actor places the victim in fear of imminent serious bodily injury (B): the actor acts in concert with another who also commits Sexual Assault toward the same victim (C): the actor rendered the victim unconscious with GHB before the assault (D): the actor threatens to commit bodily injury to the victim

(8 - 22.021) Bob Ford is 20 years old. Bob has consensual sexual intercourse with Carla Jones, who is 13 years old. What would be the most appropriate charge to file? (A): sexual Assault, felony 2nd degree (B): Indecency With a Child, felony 2nd degree (C): Prohibited Sexual Conduct, felony 3rd degree (D): Aggravated Sexual Assault, felony 1st degree

(8 - 22.04) A hospital nurse recklessly omits giving vital medication to a 68 year old patient and the patient suffers a serious mental impairment as a result. According to the Penal Code, What offense is committed? (A): Attempted Murder (B): Aggravated Assault (C): Assault (D): Injury To an Elderly Individual

(8 - 22.05) A person recklessly engages in conduct that places another in imminent danger of serious bodily injury. Which of the following offenses has the person committed? (A): Assault (B): Aggravated Assault (C): Endangerment (D): Deadly Conduct

(8 - 22.10) A father leaves his four-year-old daughter in his auto with his fifteen year old son while he buys groceries. He does not return to his vehicle for over 15 minutes. What offense, if any, has occurred? (A): Child Abuse (B): Willful Neglect of a Child (C): Leaving a Child in a Vehicle (D): No offense has occurred

(8 - 22.10) A mother leaves her six-year-old child alone in her auto while she runs in to pay a bill at a local store. She returns to her vehicle in 4 minutes. Which of the following offenses may the mother be charged with? (A): Family violence (B): Willful Neglect of a Child (C): Leaving A Child in a Vehicle (D): None of the above

(8 - 25.02) A person has sexual intercourse with his father's sister. According to the Penal Code, what offense, if any, has been committed? (A): Sexual Assault (B): Sexual Abuse (C): Prohibited Sexual Exploitation (D): Prohibited Sexual Conduct (E): No Offense has been Committed

(8 - 25.07) A person commits an offense under Section 25.07 Penal Code if, in violation of a condition of bond resulting from a court order, the person intentionally or knowingly: (A): commits family violence (B): communicates with an individual protected by the order in a threatening manner (C): possesses a knife (D): commits family violence or communicates with a protected individual (E): All of these are correct

(8 - 25.07) Which of the following is [b][u]not[/u][/b] a possible violation under Penal Code Sec: 25.07 VIOLATION OF CERTAIN COURT ORDERS OR CONDITIONS OF BOND IN A FAMILY VIOLENCE? (A): Communicates a threat through any person to a protected individual (B): Goes near the place of employment of a member of the family of a protected individual (C): Possesses a firearm (D): All of these are possible violations

(8 - 28.04) Which of the following is NOT an element of Penal Code 28.04, Reckless Damage or Destruction? (A): without the consent of the owner (B): recklessly damages or destroys (C): property of the owner (D): all of these are elements of the offense

(8 - 28.08) Which of the following is true about Graffiti in the Texas Penal Code? (A): It includes a reckless culpability (B): It only applies to the use of aerosol paint (C): It is a Class C Misdemeanor if the pecuniary loss is less than $200 (D): It requires some type of marking to be made

(8 - 29.02) According to the Penal Code, a person who causes bodily injury in the course of committing a theft has committed __________________ . (A): aggravated theft (B): aggravated robbery (C): terroristic threat (D): robbery

(8 - 3.01) The commission of three offenses pursuant to the same transaction, or the offenses are connected to a common scheme or plan is the definition of _______________________________ . (A): Criminal Attempt (B): Criminal Conspiracy (C): Criminal Solicitation (D): Criminal Episode

(8 - 30.02) A person who enters a building which is open to the public and conceals himself with the intent to set the building on fire after the building closes. According to the Penal Code, this person has committed which offense: (A): Criminal Trespass (B): Criminal Attempted Arson (C): Criminal Attempted Burglary (D): Burglary

(8 - 30.02) Sam is not a dorm resident and doesn't know any students. He finds an unlocked dorm room and enters it. He takes a watch, ring and wallet from a dresser drawer, and puts them in an empty pillowcase on the bed. The police enter and arrest Sam. Which of the following is True? (A): Sam can only be charged with Attempted Theft since he did not leave the room with the property. (B): Sam did not commit Burglary because the room was unlocked. (C): Sam only committed Criminal Trespass because he did not appropriate the property. (D): Sam committed Burglary of a Habitation, regardless of the value of the property. (E): None of these are true

(8 - 30.02) What type of entry is necessary in the crime of "burglary"? (A): the full body of the actor must enter the building (B): the act of forced entry or breaking must occur (C): actor must completely enter and remove some item (D): the intrusion of any part of the body or any physical object attached to the body

(8 - 30.03) An employee of a soft drink company is servicing a vending machine. He leaves the machine to get more supplies and inadvertently leaves the keys in the lock of the machine. A subject uses the key to enter the machine and steal money from the coin box. This subject has committed: (A): Theft from a Coin Operated Machine (B): Theft of Service (C): Burglary (D): Burglary of Coin Operated Machine

(8 - 30.03) The offense "burglary of a coin-operated machine" is a ______________ (A): 4th degree felony (B): 3rd degree felony (C): depends on amount of loss or damage (D): Class A misdemeanor

(8 - 30.04) A person reaches through the open window of a motor vehicle, takes a purse and leaves with the purse. According to the Penal Code this person committed which offense? (A): Burglary (B): Theft from Vehicle (C): Criminal Trespass (D): Burglary of Vehicle

(8 - 30.04) Which of the following offenses is punishable as a State Jail Felony: (A): Burglary of Vehicle (B): Criminal Trespass of a Building - not a habitation (C): Burglary of a Coin Operated Machine (D): Burglary of a Building - not a habitation

(8 - 30.05) In the Penal Code section dealing with "Criminal Trespass", a fence can be "notice" to a person that his/her presence inside that fence is prohibited. How must the fence be built to be considered notice? (A): tall enough not to be able to see over (B): consist of barbed wire (C): made of material you cannot see through (D): to obviously exclude intruders or contain livestock

(8 - 31.03) For the purposes of theft, consent is not effective if: (A): it was induced by fraud (B): it was induced by coercion (C): in was given by an intoxicated person (D): all the answers are correct

(8 - 31.03) Sarah is seated in the library with books, papers and a calculator. She leaves her seat to to go to the restroom. Becky is seated nearby and while Sarah is gone, she takes the calculator and uses it to finish her homework. Sarah returns and finds Becky using her calculator. The girls do not know each other and Sarah has never loaned her calculator to anyone. Which of the following is true. (A): Becky has committed theft (B): Becky has committed robbery (C): Becky has committed burglary (D): Becky has not committed a crime

(8 - 31.07) Brenda leaves the keys in her car while going into a Seven Eleven Store. She comes out to find her car stolen. The car is worth $1,200. The next day, police find Ben standing next to Brenda's car with the keys in his pocket. The police arrest Ben. What offense can Ben be charged with? (A): Felony Auto Theft (B): Unauthorized Use of a Motor Vehicle (C): Possession of Stolen Property (D): Theft $750 or more but less than $2,500

(8 - 31.07) Unauthorized use of a vehicle is if the person intentionally or knowingly operated another person's _____________ without effective consent. (A): boat (B): airplane (C): motor-propelled vehicle (D): all of the above

(8 - 31.11) Jason stops for lunch at Wendy's, and while in the parking lot is approached by a subject who offers to sell him speakers. Jason inspects the speakers and notices that the serial number has been obliterated. He buys the speakers, and is stopped by a police officer for a traffic violation. The officer notices the speakers through the window and can see that the serial number has been obliterated. What offense has Jason committed? (A): No Offense (B): Conspiracy to Possess Stolen Property (C): Theft (D): Tampering with Identification Numbers

(8 - 31.11) Penal Code section 31.11, Tampering with Identification Numbers, describes different acts that can violate the statute. A person commits this offense if: (A): he sells the property to another person knowing the serial number was obliterated (B): he removes the serial number on tangible property (C): he offers to sell the property knowing it has an altered serial number (D): all of these statements are correct

(8 - 36.01) In Chapter 36 of the Penal code, the term "custody" includes: (A): detained by a peace officer (B): under arrest by a peace officer (C): under restraint by a public servant pursuant to an order of a court (D): all of these

(9.1.13) In the Transportation Code, a person may stop a vehicle to discharge passengers: (A): on a crosswalk (B): on a sidewalk extending across a driveway (C): on the roadway side of another parked vehicle (D): in front of a driveway

(8 - 37.03) Which of the following items is NOT needed to prove the offense of Aggravated Perjury? (A): a false statement is made under oath as required by law (B): the false statement is made during an official proceeding (C): the false statement is material (D): the false statement is given to a police officer during an investigation

(8 - 37.09) To commit the offense of Tampering with Physical Evidence, TPC 37.09, a person must know: (A): his act will destroy something (B): a person is suspected of a crime (C): he doesn't own the property (D): an investigation is pending or in progress

(8 - 38.02) In order for a suspect to comply with the identification section of 38.02 Failure to Identify, if arrested, the suspect must give an officer his/her: (A): name (B): resident address (C): date of birth (D): name, resident address or date of birth (E): name and resident address only

(8 - 42.01) In order to commit Disorderly Conduct under Chapter 42 of the Penal Code a person carries a firearm in a public place _______________________. (A): that is loaded (B): with the action closed (C): in the night time (D): in manner calculated to alarm

(8 - 42.01) Mary Jones called the police and reported that a man entered the women's restroom and peered under the stall to look at her body. This suspect has committed: (A): criminal trespass - Penal Code 30.05 (B): stalking - Penal Code 42.072 (C): public lewdness - Penal Code 21.07 (D): disorderly conduct - Penal Code 42.01(11)

(8 - 42.01) Which of the following Disorderly Conduct violations must be committed on private property? (A): language that tends to incite an immediate breach of the peace (B): gesture that tends to incite an immediate breach of the peace (C): fights with another (D): looks into a dwelling through a window for a lewd purpose

(8 - 42.06) A student calls a secretary in the building where an examination is scheduled and says, "A bomb is going to explode in your building within the next hour. You better get everyone out!", and then hangs up. The secretary notifies the University Police. If no bomb is found and no explosion occurs, according to the Penal Code, which of the following offenses has been committed? (A): Assault by Threat (B): Hoax Bomb (C): Harassment (D): False Alarm or Report

(8 - 42.062) A student makes a telephone call to 9-1-1 and complains that his professor gave him an unfair grade on a test. This person has committed: (A): False Alarm or Report - Penal Code 42.06 (B): Interference With Emergency Request For Assistance - Penal Code 42.062 (C): Abusive Call to 9-1-1 Service - Penal Code 42.061 (D): No Offense

(8 - 42.07) Which of the following would be the most commonly filed charge against a person who has made an obscene phone call? (A): terroristic threat (B): obscenity (C): disorderly conduct (D): harassment

(8 - 43.02) A person knowingly solicits another to engage with him in sexual conduct for hire. To meet the elements of Prostitution in Penal Code 43.02, what else must occur? NEW LAW 2017 NEED TO CHANGE 5/23/18 (A): money must be exchanged (B): sexual conduct must occur (C): it must be witnessed by two people (D): it must occur in a public place

(8 - 43.02) Which of the following prostitution offenses must occur in a public place? (A): Promotion of Prostitution (B): Soliciting Prostitution (C): Compelling Prostitution (D): None of the above

(8 - 43.05) A subject convinces a 16 year old girl who has run away from her home to work as a prostitute to pay for her room and board. This subject is committing which of the following offenses? (A): prostitution (B): promotion of prostitution (C): aggravated promotion of prostitution (D): compelling prostitution

(8 - 43.25) John is a 20 year old college student. He offers a 16 year old girl a quart of whiskey if she will lift her clothing and show him her breasts. John has committed: (A): Public Lewdness (B): Employment Harmful to Children (C): Promotion of Child Pornography (D): Sexual Performance by a Child

(8 - 46.01) "Short barrel firearm" means a rifle with a barrel less than ________ inches or a shotgun barrel length of less than _______ inches, or any weapon made from a rifle or shotgun if, as altered, it has an overall length of less than ______ inches. (A): 12/24/30 (B): 10/12/20 (C): 20/26/32 (D): 16/18/26

(8 - 46.01) A short-barrel firearm is any firearm made from a rifle or shotgun, which, if altered, is less than _______ inches in over-all length. (A): 16 (B): 18 (C): 24 (D): 26

(8 - 46.02) A person carries a machete with a 16 inch blade on the back seat of his car. What other fact would be required to charge the person with Unlawfully Carrying a Weapon; Penal Code 46.02? (A): the person didn't cover the machete with a blanket or other opaque material (B): the person is a member of a criminal street gang (C): the person has a prior conviction for a felony (D): a "Location-Restricted Knife" applies only to those younger than 18 years of age at the time of the offense

(8 - 46.02) According to Sec 46.02, Penal Code, Unlawfully Carrying a Weapon; a person, not in a motor vehicle, nor on premises under his control, commits an offense if he intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly carries on or about his person a: (A): firearm, illegal knife, or club (B): firearm, switchblade, or club (C): handgun, knife, or chemical mace (D): handgun or club

(8 - 46.02) Penal Code Section 46.02(a) , Unlawful Carrying of Weapons, prohibits persons from carrying a handgun or club in a public place. There are two situations where this law does not apply. One is on a person's own premises; the second is when the person: (A): has the handgun unloaded (B): is carrying a club less than 26 inches long (C): has the illegal knife concealed (D): is in a motor vehicle under his control and any handgun is concealed

(8 - 46.02) You are canvassing a neighborhood for witnesses to an indecent exposure that just occurred. You knock on the door of a nearby residence. The homeowner answers the door with a nine inch butcher knife in his hand. This person has committed: (A): Unlawful Carrying of Weapons - Penal Code 46.02 (B): Carrying Weapon Where Prohibited - Penal Code 46.03 (C): Possession of Prohibited Weapon - Penal Code 46.05 (D): None of these

(8 - 46.09) Possession of a Hoax Bomb is an offense in the Penal Code if the person possesses with "intent." Which of the following describes the intent? (A): to possess the hoax bomb in a public place (B): to assemble the components of a hoax bomb (C): to make the hoax bomb accessible to a child under 18 (D): to make another person believe the hoax bomb is real

(8 - 46.15) A student approaches you during a college basketball game being held in a gym on campus and reports that she is alarmed by the fact that a person next to her is carry a pistol. Upon investigating, you determine the individual in question is an off-duty licensed peace officer. What offense has been committed? (A): Unlawful Carrying of Weapon (B): Places Weapon Prohibited (C): Unlawful Carrying of Handgun by License Holder (D): No Offense was committed

(8 - 47.03) According to the Penal Code, a person who knowingly sets up a lottery for personal gain may be guilty of: (A): Gambling (B): Keeping a gambling place (C): Communicating gambling information (D): Gambling promotion

(8 - 47.04) Sam has a bar and lets several friends use a back room for a crap game on Tuesday nights. Sam charges each participant $10 to pay for a bus boy to clean up the room when they are done. Sam can be charged with: (A): Gambling (B): Gambling Promotion (C): Aggravated Promotion of Gambling (D): Keeping a Gambling Place

(8 - 49.01) According to the Penal Code, "Not having the normal use of one's mental and physical faculties due to taking legally prescribed medication" is a definition of _______________ . (A): Alcohol Concentration (B): Overdose (C): Substance Abuse (D): Intoxicated

(8 - 49.04) Mr. Joe Smart has been legally arrested for "D.W.I.". The officer searches Smart and finds a knife with a blade 4.5 inches long on his person. In addition to D.W.I., Mr. Smart may be charged with __________________. (A): Unlawfully Carrying Weapons (B): Illegal Knife (C): Prohibited Weapons (D): No additional charges are warranted

(8 - 6.02) The lowest level of culpability is: (A): intentionally (B): knowingly (C): recklessly (D): criminal negligence

(8 - 6.03) A person acts "______________", with respect to circumstances surrounding his conduct or the result of his conduct when he ought to be aware of a substantial and unjustifiable risk that the circumstances exist or the result will occur. (A): intentionally or with intent (B): recklessly, or is reckless (C): knowingly or with knowledge (D): with criminal negligence, or is criminally negligent

(8 - 6.03) According to the Penal Code, which of the following is not one of the culpable mental states? (A): criminal negligence (B): intentional (C): reckless (D): conscious

(8 - 7.02) Adam agreed to drive Bob and Carl to a liquor store to commit a burglary. Once there, Bob and Carl got out of the car. Bob smashed a window; Carl climbed into the store and grabbed some whiskey bottles. A burglar alarm frightened them; Carl dropped the bottles and they ran. Adam drove them home. According to the Penal Code, which of the following is true? (A): Bob and Carl are guilty of Burglary, while Adam is guilty of Attempted Burglary (B): If Adam pleas to Criminal Trespass and testifies against Bob and Carl, then Bob and Carl can only be found guilty of Criminal Trespass (C): Adam is guilty of Conspiracy to Commit Burglary; Carl is guilty of Burglary; and Bob is guilty of Criminal Mischief. (D): Adam, Bob, and Carl are guilty of Burglary

(8 - 71.01) According to the Penal Code, three or more persons who collaborate in carrying out criminal activities is the definition of ________________________ . (A): Social Gang (B): Criminal Street Gang (C): Fraternities (D): Combination

(8 - 9.32) An officer may use deadly force: (A): to prevent suicide (B): to prevent burglary during the nighttime (C): to prevent a person from fleeing immediately after committing arson (D): when the officer or someone else's life is in immediate danger

(9.1.1) "Every vehicle which is self-propelled" is the definition of: (A): vehicle (B): passenger car (C): truck tractor (D): motor vehicle

(9.1.1) "____________________" means a vehicle that is not designed or used primarily to transport persons or property and that is only incidentally operated on a highway. (A): Farm tractor (B): Implement of husbandry (C): Vehicle (D): Special Mobile Equipment

(9.1.10) Which of the following is a true statement about electric turn signals in the Transportation Code? (A): they can be used as a "do pass" signal (B): they can be lighted to the side of moving traffic on a parked motor vehicle (C): all operators must use electric turn signals (D): all motor vehicles must be equipped with electric turn signals

(9.1.11) A driver has stopped in obedience to a stop sign. The driver must consider all but one of the following factors in deciding whether the intersection can be legally crossed while another vehicle is approaching on the intersecting street. Which factor does not need to be considered? (A): the width of the intersecting street and how long it will take to cross it (B): the proximity of the approaching vehicle (C): the speed of the approaching vehicle (D): the attentiveness of the approaching vehicle's driver

(9.1.11) In the Transportation Code, the requirement to YROW to other vehicles approaching from the opposite direction applies to a driver: (A): traveling at less than the normal speed of traffic (B): emerging from an alley (C): starting from the curb (D): turning left at an intersection, alley or driveway

(9.1.11) Yielding ROW to vehicles that are within the intersection or so close as to constitute an immediate hazard is required of vehicles that are _____________ . (A): turning left (B): entering from a stop sign (C): entering from a yield sign (D): all of these

(9.1.12) The driver of a motor vehicle may traverse a railroad grade crossing without stopping when: (A): an electric signal is flashing and warns of the immediate approach of a train (B): a crossing gate is lowered (C): a flagger signals the approach of a train (D): a train is visible but is not in hazardous proximity

(9.1.13) In the Transportation Code, a person can stop to discharge passengers: (A): within an intersection (B): on a crosswalk (C): where signs prohibit stopping, standing or parking (D): next to a fire hydrant

(9.1.13) In the Transportation Code, no person may stand or park a vehicle within: (A): 50 ft. of a stop sign at the side of the road (B): 30 ft. of a fire hydrant (C): 15 ft. of a driveway entrance (D): 20 ft. of a crosswalk at an intersection

(9.1.13) Where can a driver halt a vehicle to unload passengers? (A): on a sidewalk (B): in an intersection (C): on a crosswalk (D): where signs read "No Parking"

(9.1.13) Which of the following is not a requirement for parking on a roadway, outside of a business or residence district? (A): there must be a clear view in both directions of 200 ft. (B): there must be room for the free passage of vehicles (C): it must be impracticable to park the vehicle off the roadway (D): the vehicle must actuate its hazard warning lamps

(9.1.14) In the Transportation Code, vehicles must drive at an appropriate, reduced speed when: (A): approaching and driving through a tunnel (B): traveling in a "no passing" zone (C): approaching a funeral procession (D): approaching and going around a curve

(9.1.14) The operator of every vehicle shall drive at an appropriate, reduced speed when approaching ALL of the following; Except: (A): hill crests (B): railroad grade crossings (C): curves (D): tunnels

(9.1.14) When are vehicles allowed to travel at such a slow speed as to impede traffic in the Transportation Code? (A): when off of a controlled access highway (B): when in the right-hand lane (C): when hazard warning lamps are in use (D): when necessary for the safe operation of the vehicle

(9.1.15) An operator of a passenger vehicle, not used for hire, commits a violation when, a passenger, under ____ years of age is not secured in a seat belt or safety seat system, under Section 545.412 and/or 545.413 of the Transportation Code. (A): 2 (B): 10 (C): 14 (D): 17 (E): 21

(9.1.15) In the Transportation Code, Failure to Secure a Child in a Safety Seat System applies to which of the following? (A): taxi drivers carrying a fare (B): vehicles where all seats with belts are occupied (C): city bus drivers (D): operators of any size truck

(9.1.15) The driver of a vehicle shall not follow an emergency fire apparatus or ambulance: (A): on the same roadway it is traveling (B): within hearing distance of its siren (C): on the same street (D): closer than 500 feet

(9.1.16) Authorized emergency vehicles are permitted to violate all of the following provisions of the Transportation Code; EXCEPT? (A): Park at a fire hydrant (B): Drive the wrong way on a one way street (C): Run a stop sign (D): Drive on a sidewalk (E): Speed 40 MPH in a 30 MPH zone

(9.1.17) In daylight, a red flag must be displayed on the load of a vehicle when the load extends more than 4 feet: (A): above the tail lamps (B): above the roof line of the vehicle (C): beyond the front of the vehicle (D): to the rear of the vehicle body

(9.1.17) In the Transportation Code, which of the following is TRUE about back-up lamps? (A): they are required equipment on trucks over 80 inches wide (B): they must be lighted when the vehicle is moving rearward (C): all vehicles must have back-up lamps (D): they may be white or amber

(9.1.17) Parking lamps on a vehicle DO NOT have to be lighted in the night time, when a motor vehicle is parked on a public street and: (A): a turn signal indicator is being used in lieu of the lamps (B): the vehicle is attended by the driver or another (C): the vehicle is parked on a shoulder portion of the street (D): persons and vehicles are visible from 1000 feet

(9.1.17) When is a vehicle that is lawfully parked on a highway at night-time not required to display lights? (A): Such a vehicle is always required to display lights (B): Such a vehicle is never required to display lights (C): If it is within one hour dusk (D): If there is sufficient light to reveal a person or vehicle on the hightway at a distance of 1000 feet

(9.1.17) Which of the following is required equipment on a Texas School Bus? (A): a moveable stop arm (B): roof top warning lamps for inclement weather (C): alternately flashing yellow lamps (D): a mirror showing a view to the driver of the front of the bus

(9.1.17) Which traffic violation DOES NOT APPLY to vehicles registered out of state and operated on a highway in Texas? (A): No Tail Lamps (B): Defective Headlamps (C): Defective Brakes (D): Affix Unauthorized Sunscreen Device

(9.1.17) Window tinting on the front windshield may NOT be: (A): silver or grey (B): black or opaque (C): green (D): red or amber

(9.1.18) All of the following are TRUE about bicycles riding two abreast (side by side), EXCEPT: (A): they must ride together in a single lane on a laned roadway (B): they must change to single file if they impede traffic on a public street (C): they can ride more than two abreast in a bike lane (D): they may not ride two-abreast where parallel parking exists on the shoulder

(9.1.18) In the Transportation Code, which of the following is required equipment on all bicycles AT ALL TIMES ? (A): wheel reflectors (B): white lamp on the front (C): red reflector on the rear (D): a brake on one wheel

(9.1.18) Which of the following is TRUE about bicycle operation in the Transportation Code? (A): a bicycle rider traveling at less than the speed of other traffic must pass a slower bicycle to the right (B): bicycle riders are not required to come to a complete cessation from movement to obey a stop sign (C): bicycles must be equipped with a red lamp on the rear of the bicycle that meets the same requirements as tail lamps on motor vehicles (D): bicycle operators must obey posted speed limits when they are riding in a bike lane on a roadway.

(9.1.23) All of the following are TRUE about Disabled License Plates; EXCEPT: (A): they may park for an unlimited time in a handicap space (B): they are exempt from overtime violations on government metered spaces (C): they are required to pay parking fees at airports (D): they may park in No-Parking zones, if legal spaces are not available

To justify a FRISK, an officer must "______________________" that the person he is facing, could be armed and dangerous. (A): believe he has probable cause (B): have a good hunch (C): hold a suspicion (D): reasonably suspect

(9.1.23) An officer seized a Temporary Disabled ID Placard and determined probable cause for a violation exists; the officer must: (A): forward the placard to the County Tax Assessor (B): return the placard to the violator and issue a citation (C): forward the placard to the Texas Department of Transportation (D): destroy the placard and forward a report to the Texas Department of Transportation

(9.1.24) A junked motor vehicle DOES NOT include a vehicle missing valid registration and is: (A): a pickup truck on private property that is dismantled for more than 30 days (B): a passenger car on public property in a wrecked condition for more than 72 hours (C): a motorcycle that is partially dismantled on private property for 60 days (D): a trailer with no wheels that has remained on private property for 120 days.

(9.1.24) A junked motor vehicle is a motor vehicle on private property, which is inoperative, and missing either a valid MVI Certificate or License Plate; and: (A): is wrecked (B): is dismantled (C): remains inoperative for more than 30 continuous days (D): any of these conditions

(9.1.25) In the Transportation Code, which of the following IS TRUE with respect to Texas License Plates? (A): they expire on the fifth day of the last month for which they are valid (B): application for plates can be made in any county in the State (C): out-of-state plates can be displayed alongside valid Texas plates (D): passenger cars must display two plates; one front and one rear

(9.1.25) You observe a car driving in a parking lot on campus without displaying any license plates. The driver has committed: (A): Operate Unregistered Vehicle (B): Fail to Display License Plates (C): Display Fictitious License Plate (D): None of These

(9.1.26) It is a defense to prosecution for Failure to Maintain Financial Responsibility if [1] the operator of the motor vehicle was not the owner, and [2] the operator was actually engaged in: (A): emergency use of the motor vehicle (B): drawing a disabled motor vehicle (C): transportation of property (D): repair of the motor vehicle

(9.1.26) Which of the following IS NOT REQUIRED on a written instrument issued by an insurer satisfying proof of financial responsibility, according to the Transportation Code. (A): policy number and limits meeting minimum amounts required by law (B): names of the insurer and the insured (C): period the policy is in effect (D): license plate numbers of covered vehicles (E): a description of vehicles insured

(9.1.28) Which of the following Transportation Code offenses carries a possible punishment of up to two years in jail? (A): Disregard Warning Sign - 472.022 (B): Drove Around Barricade - 472.022 (C): Disregard Instructions of Flagger - 472.022 (D): Tampering With a Warning Device - 472.021

(9.1.3) "A portion of the street, which is improved, designed, or ordinarily used for vehicular travel" is a: (A): sidewalk (B): intersection (C): crosswalk (D): roadway

(9.1.3) At an intersection, "a part of the roadway, within lateral lines of sidewalks on opposite sides of the street", is the definition of a ______________ . (A): street (B): shoulder (C): sidewalk (D): crosswalk

(9.1.3) When two vehicles are traveling on different roadways, joining each other at other than approximate right angles, "the area where they might come in conflict" is the definition of: (A): improved shoulder (B): right-of-way (C): crosswalk (D): intersection

(9.1.6) All of the following are powers of local authorities in the Texas Transportation Code; Except: (A): regulating parking on public streets (B): designating school crossing zones (C): designating right-of-way for certain streets with stop and yield signs (D): regulating equipment on motorcycles

(9.1.7) A commercial driver's license is required to drive every motor vehicle___________________ . (A): whose GVW exceeds 10,000 lbs. (B): used for transportation of persons (C): towing a trailer (D): required to display placards for hazardous materials

(9.1.7) A person operating a "farm tractor" temporarily on a public highway must be licensed with at least a Class "____" drivers license and display it on demand to a peace officer. (A): C (B): B (C): A (D): Exempt from drivers license

(9.1.7) A person who enters this state as a new resident may operate a vehicle in this state for no more than _____ days after the date on which the person enters this state if they are at least 16 years old and currently have a valid license issued by another state or country. (A): 15 (B): 25 (C): 30 (D): 90

(9.1.9) In the Transportation Code, to legally use the roadway to pass to the right of another vehicle, which of the following is true? (A): the maneuver is only permitted on one-way streets (B): the roadway must be wide enough to allow three lines of traffic in each direction (C): there cannot be any lane markings on the street (D): passes to the right on the roadway are only permitted when the overtaken vehicle is turning left

(9.2.1) In order to comply with requirements to give information and render aid; the driver of a vehicle involved in an accident with another vehicle must exhibit his driver's license, when requested, to all of the following people; EXCEPT: (A): the operator of the another vehicle involved (B): an occupant of his vehicle (C): any person injured by the accident (D): EMS personnel at the scene (E): a person attending the other vehicle but not occupying it

(9.2.1) The driver of a vehicle must stop to render aid and give information when involved in accidents which result in: (A): the death of any person (B): the injury to any person (C): any damage to an occupied vehicle (D): any of these instances

(9.2.1) The point when drivers may have had the opportunity to recognize a danger and avoid an accident is the definition of __________________________ . (A): point of no escape (B): point of perception (C): point of no hope (D): point of possible perception

(9.3.2) An officer directing traffic in an intersection should stand in a position where: (A): the officer is visible to drivers (B): vehicles are visible to the officer (C): it is safe (D): all these

(PC 49.04) A person is convicted of DWI while operating a motor vehicle; which of the following conditions enhance the punishment to a minimum confinement of 6 days ? (A): the person caused an accident because of his intoxication (B): the person refused to give a breath or blood specimen (C): the person attempted to elude the arresting officer (D): the person had an open container in his immediate possession

26.1.1. Years of abuse can lead to the following: (A): The victim committing suicide. (B): The abuser being killed by the victim. (C): The victim being seriously hurt/killed. (D): All these statements are true.

26.2.5 In a protective order, the court may: (A): Require a person to enter into counseling. (B): Require spouses to obtain a divorce. (C): Require specified acts of a person to prevent family violence. (D): Require specified acts of a person to prevent family violence and require the person to enter into counseling.

26.2.5 The final protective order is in full force and effect for a period of ___________ unless otherwise specified in the order. (A): 20 days (B): 1 year (C): 31 days (D): 2 years

26.4.1. According to Article 5.05 CCP, each law enforcement officer shall accept a ________________________ of a protective order as proof of the validity of the order. (A): Copy (B): Summary (C): Docket Proviso (D): Certified Copy

A temporary detention must be based on reasonable suspicion. Reasonable suspicion is best described as: (A): knowledge that some activity out of the ordinary has taken place (B): the individual detained must be linked to the activity (C): the activity may be a criminal offense (D): all of these

According to the Alcoholic Beverage Code, in a Standard Hours Area, a person may not consume an alcoholic beverage in a public place, on Sunday at any time before _____, unless it is with the service of food by an authorized premise. (A): 7 (A):m. (B): 9 (A):m. (C): 10 (A):m. (D): 12 noon (E): 10 p.m.

All of the following describe symptoms of a depressed person, EXCEPT: (A): feelings of hopelessness, low energy, fatigue, poor appetite and poor concentration (B): low self esteem, insomnia, and difficulty making decisions (C): depressed mood, poor concentration, and loss of interest in pleasurable things (D): inflated self-esteem, grandiose ideas, and increased goal-directed behavior

An officer should NOT consider which of the following factors in assessing the need to use force? (A): Is suspect armed ? (B): Nature of crime involved ? (C): Is suspect submitting peacefully or resisting ? (D): Public perception?

At what "Level of Competency" are you when the subject matter taught to you is part of you and you no longer think about it? (A): Unconscious Incompetent (B): Conscious Incompetent (C): Conscious Competent (D): Unconscious Competent

Controlled substances Penalty Groups Three and Four are made up primarily of: (A): Hallucinogens (B): Natural Substances (C): Stimulants (D): Prescription Drugs

In analyzing the activity of an officer, when were most officers killed in the line of duty? (A): suspicious person calls (B): ambush situations (C): disturbance calls (D): arrest situations

In devising a patrol method, officer should be ________________________________ . (A): systematic and predictable (B): unsystematic and predictable (C): systematic and unpredictable (D): unsystematic and unpredictable

In reference to Chapter 51 of the Family Code, a child is a person who is at least ____ years old or older, but under ____ years of age. (A): 9, 17 (B): 9, 18 (C): 10, 18 (D): 10, 17 (E): 12, 16

No person shall display an M.V.I. knowing that it is: (A): fictitious (B): issued to another vehicle (C): issued without an inspection (D): any of these is a violation

Officers go to the home of a suspect named in an arrest warrant. The officers identify themselves and say they have a warrant of arrest for the suspect. If they are denied entry, when can the officers break down the door of the home to enter and make the arrest ? (A): the officers believe the suspect may have escaped from the home and is no longer on the grounds (B): nothing else is needed, all arrest warrants carry a right to forcibly enter a home (C): the officers must have the original of the warrant in their possession (D): the crime named in the arrest warrant must be a felony

Penalty group 1A determines punishment for possession, manufacture or delivery of: (A): cocaine (B): marihuana (C): steroids (D): LSD

Placing yourself, others, or your patrol unit in a position so as to provide a suspect with a definite, identifiable target is the definition of ________________________ . (A): target identification (B): target acquisition (C): sight alignment (D): silhouetting (E): moon lighting

Probable Cause is made up of different pieces of information. Each piece may have a different significance when it is evaluated in the courtroom. Through whose eyes does the court determine the significance of each piece of information? (A): an average citizen without police training (B): a judge presiding over the case (C): a jury of the defendant's peers (D): a reasonable police officer who made the arrest

The first line of defense in crime prevention includes all of the following perimeter barriers EXCEPT : (A): Fences (B): Landscaping (C): Lighting (D): Locking Cabinets

The modern pin tumbler lock introduced in 1861 by Linus Yale was advantageous because: (A): It could be mass produce(D): (B): The key mechanism or pin tumbler cylinder was separate from the bolt. (C): Long, heavy keys were not needed to reach and manipulate the bolt. (D): All the these are true.

The person who initiates a civil suit by filing a petition is known as: (A): respondent (B): defendant (C): processor (D): plaintiff

The two words that best sum up what bacic patrol duty should accomplish are: (A): prevention and apprehension (B): collection and suppression (C): prevention and repression (D): protection and service

What does 'TL30' mean when it appears on a money safe ? (A): Torch and tool resistant for 30 minutes. (B): Tool resistant for 30 minutes on all sides. (C): Torch resistant for 30 minutes on all sides. (D): Tool resistant for 30 minutes on one side.

What offense does a person commit if they intentionally or knowingly prohibit a justice of the peace from entering a premises where a death occurred or a body is found? (A): Official misconduct (B): Disorderly conduct (C): Endangering a crime scene (D): Hindering an inquest

What penalty group is psilocybin(Mushrooms) in? (A): Penalty Group 7 (B): Penalty Group 3 (C): Penalty Group 4 (D): Penalty Group 2

When an officer chases a suspect on foot and loses sight of the suspect as he rounds a corner, the officer should: (A): quickly turn the corner to regain sight of the suspect (B): end the chase (C): quickly run up to the corner and peek around it from a prone position (D): get as far back from the corner as possible and then peek around it

When using force to execute a search warrant; all of the following are true, EXCEPT: (A): The peace officer must reasonably believe the warrant is vali(D): (B): The officer's identity and purpose should be known, or made known before using force. (C): Persons who are acting at the direction of the officer can also use force. (D): Deadly force is authorized in executing all search warrants.

Which drug penalty group carries a misdemeanor punishment for possession of the smaller abuse unit amounts ? (A): all groups (B): 1A (C): 2 and 3 (D): 3 and 4

Which is a method of surveying used in taking crime scene measurements ? (A): concentric circles (B): obtuse points (C): square transactions (D): rectangular coordinates

Which is the safest approach method in an arrest situation ? (A): direct (B): indirect (C): side (D): rear

Which of the following IS NOT a duty of the CVCA (Crime Victim Compensation Act) Liaison Officer at your department ? (A): notification of eligible person (B): response to inquiries (C): provide necessary forms for filing (D): approval of claims

Which of the following IS NOT a use of crime scene photographs? (A): Refreshes the memory of victims (B): Records evidence overlooked during the initial investigation (C): Induces confessions from guilty parties (D): Eliminates the need for a crime scene sketch

Which of the following are considered magistrates in the Code of Criminal Procedure? (A): County Court Judges (B): U.S. Supreme Court Judges (C): District Court Judges (D): A & C

Which of the following circumstances require probable cause on the part of an officer? (A): walk and talk (B): investigative detention (C): consensual encounter (D): arrest

Which of the following is TRUE about a frisk ? (A): only illegal weapons can be seized by the officer performing the frisk (B): if one person can be lawfully frisked then another person standing close to him (C): an officer can automatically frisk a person found in a high crime area (D): if an officer is justified in frisking a person, he can also frisk an automobile under that person's immediate control

Which of the following was a landmark federal case on "stop and frisk"? (A): Miranda v. Arizona (B): Riddick v. New York (C): Stone v. State (D): Terry v. Ohio

Which of these is NOT a "mega question" that should be asked of a suicidal person? (A): How can I help you? (B): What would be most helpful to you today? (C): What have you tried? (D): Do you want help or not?

Which search pattern works best when a suspect has fled the scene and must be found quickly? (A): strip (B): quadrant (C): grid (D): spiral

(14.1.2) According to the Family Code, of the people listed below, who is the best choice to give consent for emergency medical treatment of a minor if the parent cannot be located? (A): A priest (B): An uncle who is 17 years old and has verbal permission from the parents (C): Any adult (D): A 20 year old babysitter and has written permission from the parents

(15.3.5) In ALL cases, an offense report MUST _______________________________________ as a goal of good report writing. (A): identify the victim of the alleged crime (B): describe and name the suspect who committed the offense (C): give the exact time the crime was committed (D): show that the elements of an offense have been committed

(17.3.6) To maintain "professional face", it is often necessary to "perform" our job as professionals because: (A): Under stress or pressure some days, we might not feel like coming to work. (B): We'll regret meeting the public with our personal face, because someone can find our last nerve and stand on it. (C): Our personal face allows feelings to get hurt in as little at 45 seconds. (D): All of these

(23.1.1) When arranging the environment for effective communication, officers should: (A): eliminate distractions (B): Add attractors (privacy, comfort, etc.) (C): enhance the environment to facilitate communication (D): All of the above

(24.1.2) Of the five general categories of patrol preparation, which of the following is correct? (A): Build a strong image through pride in the authority of the badge. (B): Check with the local weather bureau so you will know what equipment to carry. (C): Spend twenty to thirty minutes reviewing local ordinances to keep your knowledge up to date. (D): Plan for individual patrol procedures. (E): None of the above.

(29.7.15) When collecting an article of clothing as evidence; if soil on the clothing has evidentiary value: (A): shake the soil off into a container (B): scrape the soil off into a plastic bag (C): moisten the soil and place the clothing in an airtight container (D): submit the entire article of clothing with the soil undisturbed

(4.1.6) The 5th Amendment to the U.S. Constitution gives citizens the protection from __________. (A): unreasonable searches (B): quartering of troops (C): excessive bail (D): self-incrimination

(9.1.4) A person may stand a vehicle to unload property: (A): within 15 ft. of a fire hydrant (B): within 20 ft. of a crosswalk at an intersection (C): within 30 ft. of a stop sign at the side of the roadway (D): within 50 ft. of a railroad crossing

(7.1.7) In "________________", the U.S. Supreme Court established that an informant's tip must be accompanied by (1) some of the underlying circumstances on which the informant based conclusions and (2) some basis for concluding either that the informant was generally credible or that the information was in this particular instance reliable. (A): Graham v. Conner (B): Arginsinger v. Hamlin (C): Miranda v. Arizona (D): Chimel v. California (E): Aguilar v. Texas

(8 - 46.03) A student has a Licence to Carry (LTC) under Ch. 411 of the Government Code. The student parks his car in a garage on campus and leaves his handgun under the seat when locking his car doors. What offense, if any, has this student committed under the Texas Penal Code? (A): Carrying a Weapon Where Prohibited - PC 46.03 (B): Unlawful Carrying of a Handgun - PC 46.035 (C): Unlawful Carrying a Weapon - PC 46.02 (D): Unlawful Possession of Firearm - PC 46.04 (E): None of these

26.2.3. The person to whom the Protective Order is directed is usually ordered by the court not to: (A): Communicate directly or indirectly with attorneys. (B): Move out of the county in which the Protective Order was granted. (C): File for divorce during the tenure of the Protective Order. (D): Violate probation until released from community supervision (E): Commit further acts of family violence and communicate directly or indirectly with specified persons in a threatening or harassing manner.

A student is 21 years of age and a passenger in a car parked in front of a Seven Eleven Store at 8:00 am Monday. The store has an off-premise license covering the store and parking lot. This student has an open can of beer in his right hand. Which of the following is true? (A): The student has Possessed an Alcoholic Beverage in a Motor Vehicle, 49.031 TxPC (B): The student has Possessed an Illicit Beverage with Intent to Consume (C): The student has Unlawfully Carried Alcoholic Beverages Where Prohibited (D): The driver has violated Consuming Alcohol while driving (E): No violation has occurred

Absent a comparison sample, which of the following can be determined from a fingerprint? (A): Age of the print (B): Sex of the donor (C): Race of the donor (D): All of these (E): None of these

The most effective and productive method of patrol is (A): one-person patrols in properly equipped automobiles. (B): two-person combination foot-automobile patrols in properly equipped vehicles. (C): two-person patrols in properly equipped automobiles. (D): foot patrol with proper communication equipment (E): one-person patrol in automobile combined with effective foot patrol.

To increase probability of arrest when warranted, you become familiar with known offenders by learning about their: (A): nicknames (B): habits (C): types of crimes (D): vehicles (E): all of these

What is the chief disadvantage to a consent search? (A): must stop searching if asked to do so (B): must get a witness to sign the consent to search form (C): must use a consent to search form (D): must give the Miranda Warning (E): voluntariness of consent, most probably, will be attacked

What section of the Texas Code of Criminal Procedure is stated below? "A Peace officer may arrest, without warrant, when a felony or breach of the peace has been committed in the presence or within the view of a magistrate, and such magistrate verbally orders the arrest of the offender." (A): Art. 14.03 (B): Art. 14.01 (C): Art. 18.16 (D): Art. 14.04 (E): Art. 14.02

(29.3.4) Which of the following IS TRUE when a suspect participates in a line-up? (A): no formal charges can be filed against the suspect until after the line-up (B): the suspect cannot waive his right to counsel (C): the suspect must wear clothing identical to the other participants (D): only the suspect should be allowed to speak (E): post indictment, the attorney must be notified before the line-up

E Only 50 questions can be imported to ClassMarker.com at a time. This separator will be shown after each set of 50 questions. Copy a set of questions between separators into a new .txt file to import them into ClassMarker. (ENDIGNORE)

(7.1.9) When justified, a frisk may be conducted if there is reasonable fear that the suspect may be in possession of (A): a controlled substance (B): contraband (C): evidence of a crime (D): implements of a crime (E): a weapon

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