Econ 2035 Chapter 5

What is the most important contrast between the segmented markets theory and the expectations theory? A) The expectation theory states that investors view similar assets that differ only with respect to maturity as perfect substitutes. B) The segmented markets theory states that investors view similar assets that differ only with respect to maturity as perfect substitutes. C) The expectations theory does a better job of explaining why yield curves typically are upward-sloping. D) The segmented markets theory does a better job of explaining why yields on instruments of different maturities tend to move together.

A) The expectation theory states that investors view similar assets that differ only with respect to maturity as perfect substitutes.

If the expected path of interest rates on one-year bonds over the next five years is 2%, 4%, 3%, 2%, and 1%, the expectations theory predicts that the bond with the lowest interest rate today is the one with a maturity of: A) one year. B) two years. C) three years. D) five years.

A) one year.

Almost every time that there has been an inverted yield curve, what took place within one year? A) recession B) rising inflation C) financial crisis D) higher bond yields

A) recession

In which of the following periods was the yield curve inverted? A) February 2004 B) February 2007 C) February 2010 D) The yield curve was not inverted during any of these periods.

B) February 2007

Which criterion is NOT useful when evaluating a theory? A) It has predictive power. B) It fits one's pre-conceived bias. C) It offers a model consistent with investor behavior. D) It explains actual data well

B) It fits one's pre-conceived bias.

In 2016, as investors became more concerned with the default risk of bonds issued by the governments of Greece and Portugal relative to the default risk on bonds issued by the governments of Germany, France, and the Netherlands, the price of bonds issued by Germany, France, and the Netherlands would have most likely ________ and the yield on those bonds would have most likely ________. A) increased; increased B) increased; decreased C) decreased; increased D) decreased; decreased

B) increased; decreased

During the financial crisis of 2007-2009: A) mortgage-backed securities became more liquid. B) information costs of mortgage-backed securities rose. C) information costs of mortgage-backed securities declined. D) the tax treatment of mortgage-backed securities was changed.

B) information costs of mortgage-backed securities rose.

The investment strategy of borrowing at a low short-term interest rate and using the borrowed funds to invest at a higher long-term interest rate is called: A) arbitrage. B) interest carry trade. C) risk structure. D) liquidity premium.

B) interest carry trade.

Interest and capital gains are taxed differently in the United States in that: A) interest is exempt from state and local taxes. B) interest is taxed as ordinary income, but capital gains are taxed only when realized. C) interest is taxed as ordinary income, but capital gains are taxed as accrued. D) capital gains when realized are exempt from state and local taxes.

B) interest is taxed as ordinary income, but capital gains are taxed only when realized.

The term structure is usually defined with yields on which securities? A) corporate bonds B) commercial paper C) U.S. Treasury securities D) municipal bonds

C) U.S. Treasury securities

On this day, what did investors expect the interest rate to be on the one-year Treasury bill in two years if the term premium on a two-year Treasury note is 0.25% and the term premium on a three-year Treasury note is 0.75%? A) 2.375% B) 3.25% C) 3.50% D) 4.75%

C) 3.50%

A one-year bond currently pays 5% interest. It's expected that it will pay 4.5% next year and 4% the following year. The two-year term premium is 0.2% while the three-year term premium is 0.35%. What is the interest rate on a three-year bond according to the liquidity premium theory? A) 4.5% B) 4.68% C) 4.85% D) 5.05%

C) 4.85%

A one-year bond currently pays 5% interest. It's expected that it will pay 4.5% next year and 4% the following year. The two-year term premium is 0.2% while the three-year term premium is 0.35%. What is the interest rate on a two-year bond according to the liquidity premium theory? A) 4.5% B) 4.75% C) 4.95% D) 4.975%

C) 4.95%

Which of the following is the lowest rating given to an investment-grade bond by Moody's? A) Aa B) A C) Baa D) B

C) Baa

Which of the following is considered a default-risk-free instrument? A) a three-month commercial paper issued by GE B) a share of stock issued by Google C) a three-month Treasury bill D) a ten-year bond issued by Intel

C) a three-month Treasury bill

Which of the following accurately describes the tax treatment of municipal bonds? A) All income from municipal bonds is tax free. B) Interest is tax free, but unrealized capital gains are taxable. C) Interest is tax free, but realized capital gains are taxable. D) Interest is taxable, but capital gains are tax free.

C) Interest is tax free, but realized capital gains are taxable.

According to the liquidity premium theory, what does a flat yield curve indicate? A) Short-term interest rates are expected to remain stable. B) Short-term interest rates are expected to rise. C) Short-term interest rates are expected to fall. D) Long-term interest rates are expected to fall.

C) Short-term interest rates are expected to fall.

The additional interest that investors require to buy a long-term bond instead of a sequence of short-term bonds is known as the: A) risk premium. B) default premium. C) term premium. D) segmented premium.

C) term premium.

Which of the following is NOT true of the term premium? A) It is zero under the expectations theory. B) It is infinite under the segmented markets theory. C) It increases as a bond's maturity increases. D) It is zero for thirty-year bonds

D) It is zero for thirty-year bonds

Which of the following statements about junk (high-risk) bonds is TRUE? A) They never outperform treasury bonds since they're too risky. B) The price of junk bonds increases as their perceived risk increases. C) They tend to perform best during recessions. D) One can profit by owning them if market perceptions of their risk decline.

D) One can profit by owning them if market perceptions of their risk decline.

Which of the following is NOT true of the yield curve for U.S. Treasury securities? A) Typically, it slopes upward. B) It depicts the relationship among yields on securities of different maturities. C) Typically, it shifts up or down rather than twists. D) Typically, it slopes downward

D) Typically, it slopes downward

Bond ratings: A) are published annually by the federal government and are based largely on information contained in corporate tax returns. B) are published annually by the federal government and are based on publicly available information. C) are published monthly by the federal government and are based on publicly available information. D) are published by private bond-rating agencies.

D) are published by private bond-rating agencies.

The default risk premium fluctuates mainly: A) because bond rating agencies tend to be inconsistent in their ratings of bonds. B) because risk-neutral investors will often become risk-averse as time passes. C) because taxes tend to rise over the long run. D) as new information about a borrower's creditworthiness becomes available.

D) as new information about a borrower's creditworthiness becomes available.

Which interest rate is typically the lowest? A) 3-month Treasury bills B) 2-year Treasury notes C) 10-year Treasury bonds D) 30-year Treasury bonds

A) 3-month Treasury bills

Suppose that your marginal federal income tax rate is 30%, the sum of your marginal state and local tax rates is 5%, and the yield on a thirty-year corporate bond is 10%. You would be indifferent between buying this corporate bond and buying a thirty-year municipal bond issued within your state (ignoring differences in liquidity, risk, and costs of information) if the municipal bond has a yield of: A) 6.5%. B) 7.0%. C) 9.5%. D) 10.0%.

A) 6.5%.

Which of the following is the highest bond rating assigned by Moody's Investors Service? A) Aaa B) A C) B D) Baa

A) Aaa

Which of the following bond ratings by Moody's Investors Service would NOT be considered to be below investment grade? A) Baa B) Ba C) B D) All of these ratings are considered below investment grade.

A) Baa

Which of the following statements about junk bonds is FALSE? A) Given the likelihood of default, it is never profitable to purchase junk bonds. B) They pay higher interest rates than investment grade bonds due to higher perceived risk. C) Prior to the 1970s, corporations were unable to issue junk bonds. D) In October 2016, the average yield on junk bonds was more than twice the average yield on investment grade bonds.

A) Given the likelihood of default, it is never profitable to purchase junk bonds

Which of the following is TRUE of the segmented markets theory? A) It assumes that borrowers have particular periods for which they want to borrow. B) It assumes that lenders always lend for short periods. C) It provides a good explanation for why yield curves usually slope upward. D) It assumes that instruments with different maturities are perfect substitutes.

A) It assumes that borrowers have particular periods for which they want to borrow.

Which of the following assigns widely-followed bond ratings? A) Standard & Poor's Corporation B) Securities and Exchange Commission C) Federal Reserve D) IBM

A) Standard & Poor's Corporation

Which of the following statements is TRUE? A) The more liquid the bond, the lower the yield. B) Tax-free bonds normally have a higher interest rate than other types of bonds. C) The price of a bond increases as it becomes more risky. D) The yield curve illustrates the relative default risks of alternative types of bonds.

A) The more liquid the bond, the lower the yield.

A company that retains a high bond rating during a recession in which many other companies see their bond ratings cut will experience: A) an increased flow of funds into the market for its securities. B) an increased demand for its securities, resulting in a higher expected return. C) a decreased demand for its securities, resulting in a lower expected return. D) a decreased flow of funds into the market for its securities.

A) an increased flow of funds into the market for its securities.

Default risk arises from the fact that: A) borrowers differ in their ability to repay in full the principal and interest required by a bond agreement. B) the bond price drops when interest rates rise. C) it is inherently riskier to wait for a capital gain than to receive an immediate interest payment. D) interest rates are far more likely to go up than to go down.

A) borrowers differ in their ability to repay in full the principal and interest required by a bond agreement.

For state residents, interest on most bonds issued by their state government is: A) exempt from state and federal income taxes. B) exempt from state, but not from federal, income taxes. C) exempt from federal, but not from state, income taxes. D) subject to both state and federal income taxes.

A) exempt from state and federal income taxes.

According to the liquidity premium theory, a steep yield curve may be an indicator of: A) expectations of a significant increase in inflation. B) an upcoming recession. C) an economic slowdown. D) lower future short-term interest rates.

A) expectations of a significant increase in inflation.

Under the liquidity premium theory, a flat yield curve indicates that investors expect future short-term rates to: A) fall. B) rise. C) remain constant. D) either fall or remain constant.

A) fall.

Default risk: A) is the probability that a borrower will not pay in full the promised coupon or principal. B) exists only for the bonds of small corporations. C) is also known as market risk. D) is zero for bonds issued by cities and states.

A) is the probability that a borrower will not pay in full the promised coupon or principal

The existence of rating agencies has: A) lowered returns on corporate bonds. B) raised returns on corporate bonds. C) left returns on corporate bonds largely unaffected. D) raised returns on both corporate bonds and Treasury securities.

A) lowered returns on corporate bonds.

The difference between the yield on 3-month Treasury bills and 10-year Treasury notes is largest typically during: A) recessions. B) expansions. C) periods of high inflation. D) when the yield curve is inverted.

A) recessions.

The liquidity premium theory holds that investors: A) always choose the bond with the highest expected return, regardless of maturity. B) require a term premium to compensate them for investing in a less preferred maturity. C) view bonds of different maturities as perfect substitutes. D) view bonds of different maturities as completely unsubstitutable.

B) require a term premium to compensate them for investing in a less preferred maturity.

Under the expectations theory, an upward-sloping yield curve indicates that investors expect future short-term rates to: A) fall. B) rise. C) remain constant. D) either rise or remain constant

B) rise.

Under the liquidity premium theory, the expectation that future short-term rates will be constant results in a yield curve that: A) is flat. B) slopes upward. C) slopes downward. D) is flat, slopes upward, or slopes downward, depending on the size of the term premium at each maturity.

B) slopes upward.

According to the liquidity premium theory, the yield curve normally has a positive slope because: A) short-term interest rates are expected to rise. B) term premiums rise as the time to maturity increases. C) risk premiums rise over time. D) long-term bonds are more liquid than short-term bonds.

B) term premiums rise as the time to maturity increases.

What is a primary reason for the yield on 3-month Treasury bills being low during recessions? A) low risk premium B) the Fed pushing short-term interest rates down C) rising inflation D) the inversion of the yield curve

B) the Fed pushing short-term interest rates down

The default risk premium is: A) relevant only for securities issued by very small companies. B) the additional yield a saver requires for holding a bond with some default risk. C) zero for corporate bonds, but quite substantial for corporate stock. D) constant across the business cycle.

B) the additional yield a saver requires for holding a bond with some default risk.

The greatest appeal of U.S. Treasury securities is that: A) they have high yields. B) they have no default risk. C) the U.S. Treasury will repurchase them at any time. D) their market prices fluctuate very little.

B) they have no default risk.

U.S. Treasury securities: A) are considered risk free because their prices never change. B) have been defaulted on several time in U.S. history. C) are considered default-risk-free instruments. D) have a large default risk premium.

C) are considered default-risk-free instruments.

The default risk premium is measured: A) by an index published monthly by the Securities and Exchange Commission. B) by an index published monthly by The Wall Street Journal. C) as the difference between the yield on a non-Treasury security and the yield on a U.S. Treasury security of the same maturity. D) as the difference between the nominal yield on the security and the real after-tax yield on the security.

C) as the difference between the yield on a non-Treasury security and the yield on a U.S. Treasury security of the same maturity.

According to the liquidity premium theory, if market participants expect that inflation in the future will be lower than it currently is, the yield curve will: A) slope upward. B) be flat. C) be inverted. D) be vertical

C) be inverted.

Municipal bonds are issued: A) only by local governments. B) only by state governments. C) by both state and local governments. D) by the federal government, and by state and local governments.

C) by both state and local governments.

On this day, what did investors expect the interest rate to be on the one-year Treasury bill in two years if the term premium on a two-year Treasury note is 0.25%? A) 1.875% B) 2.25% C) 2.375% D) 2.5%

D) 2.5%

A flight to quality refers to a shift by savers from: A) bonds and into stocks. B) stocks and into gold or other precious metals. C) bonds and into real assets, such as real estate. D) low-quality bonds and into high-quality bonds.

D) low-quality bonds and into high-quality bonds.

In late 2012, President Obama proposed raising the top income tax rate. All of the following are likely impacts of higher income tax rates on bonds EXCEPT: A) higher interest rates on Treasury bonds. B) lower interest rates on Municipal bonds. C) increased demand for Municipal bonds. D) lower prices for Municipal bonds.

D) lower prices for Municipal bonds.

If a one-year bond currently yields 5% and is expected to yield 7% next year, the liquidity premium theory predicts that the yield today on a two-year bond should be: A) 5%. B) less than 6%, but more than 5%. C) 6%. D) more than 6%.

D) more than 6%

Under the liquidity premium theory, the shape of the yield curve depends on: A) the relative return of investments in common stocks versus investments in corporate bonds. B) the size of the federal government's budget deficit. C) government tax treatment of long-term versus short-term bonds. D) the expected pattern of future short-term rates and the size of the term premium at each maturity.

D) the expected pattern of future short-term rates and the size of the term premium at each maturity.

Financial instruments with high information costs: A) will usually be more liquid than similar instruments with low information costs. B) will have lower yields than U.S. Treasury securities. C) may not be offered for sale in some states. D) will have lower prices than similar instruments with low information costs.

D) will have lower prices than similar instruments with low information costs.

The term structure of interest rates: A) represents the relationship among the interest rates on bonds that are otherwise similar but that have different maturities. B) reflects differing tax treatment received by different instruments. C) always results in an upward-sloping yield curve. D) usually results in a downward-sloping yield curve.

A) represents the relationship among the interest rates on bonds that are otherwise similar but that have different maturities.

During the financial crisis of 2007-09, the prices of U.S. Treasury securities: A) rose and the price of corporate bonds declined. B) fell relative to the prices of corporate bonds. C) remained in the same relative position to the prices of corporate bonds. D) were frozen by order of the federal government.

A) rose and the price of corporate bonds declined.

When the yield curve is downward-sloping: A) short-term yields are higher than long-term yields. B) long-term yields are higher than short-term yields. C) the bond market is anticipating the U.S. Treasury may default on its obligations. D) the inflation rate is expected to rise.

A) short-term yields are higher than long-term yields.

nder the expectations theory, if market participants expect that future short-term rates will be higher than current short-term rates, the yield curve will: A) slope upward. B) slope downward. C) be flat. D) slope upward, slope downward, or be flat, depending on risk, liquidity, cost of information, and tax considerations

A) slope upward.

For the average individual investor, the gap between the short-term interest rate at which he can borrow and the rate at which he could invest in long-term bonds is likely to be: A) small or even negative, making the profitability of an interest -carry-trade strategy unlikely. B) small or even negative, making the profitability of an interest -carry-trade strategy likely. C) high, making the profitability of an interest -carry-trade strategy unlikely. D) high, making the profitability of an interest -carry-trade strategy likely

A) small or even negative, making the profitability of an interest -carry-trade strategy unlikely.

Many savers are willing to accept a lower interest rate on municipal bonds than on comparable instruments because: A) the after-tax yield on municipal bonds is greater. B) municipal bonds invariably have lower default risk. C) municipal bonds are more liquid than most other instruments. D) the yield on municipal bonds is considered inflation proof.

A) the after-tax yield on municipal bonds is greater

Currently, a three-month Treasury bill has a yield of 5% while the yield on a ten-year Treasury bond is 4.7%. What is the risk premium of the typical A-rated ten-year corporate bond with a yield of 5.5%? A) 0.5% B) 0.8% C) 1.17% D) 5.5%

B) 0.8%

Currently, a three-year Treasury note pays 4.75%. Assuming that your tax rate is 20%, what is the minimum interest rate that you would you need to earn on a tax-free municipal bond in order to buy it instead? A) 0.95% B) 3.8% C) 5.7% D) 15.25%

B) 3.8%

Suppose that your marginal federal income tax rate is 30%, the sum of your marginal state and local tax rates is 5%, and the yield on thirty-year U.S. Treasury bonds is 10%. You would be indifferent between buying a thirty-year Treasury bond and buying a thirty-year municipal bond issued within your state (ignoring differences in liquidity, risk, and costs of information) if the municipal bond has a yield of: A) 6.5%. B) 7.0%. C) 9.5%. D) 10.0%.

B) 7.0%.

Which of the following is NOT a reason that credit ratings agencies became more relevant beginning in the late 1970s? A) The number of bond defaults rose due to periods of recession and inflation. B) Rating agencies began to charge investors for their services. C) Governments began to include bond ratings in their regulation of banks, mutual funds, and other financial firms. D) Rating agencies began to rate bonds issued by foreign governments and firms.

B) Rating agencies began to charge investors for their services

Some claim that ratings agencies have a conflict of interest since: A) they rate the quality of their own bonds. B) agencies charge firms for their services rather than investors, they have an incentive to give high ratings to gain business. C) government began to include bond ratings as part of regulations of mutual funds, banks, and financial firms. D) they issued many of the mortgages that were later securitized into bonds.

B) agencies charge firms for their services rather than investors, they have an incentive to give high ratings to gain business.

Which of the following is a single statistic that summarizes a rating agency's view of the issuer's likely ability to make the required payments on its bonds? A) grade B) bond rating C) speculation D) yield

B) bond rating

A bond that is generally agreed to have higher default risk will experience all of the following EXCEPT: A) declining demand. B) declining supply. C) higher yield. D) lower price.

B) declining supply.

The risk premium of corporate bonds typically increases: A) when the average price of corporate bonds increases. B) during a recession. C) when the interest rates on corporate bonds decreases. D) when the risk premium on treasury bonds increases.

B) during a recession.

The segmented markets theory: A) explains upward-sloping yield curves as resulting from the demand for long-term bonds being high relative to the demand for short-term bonds. B) explains upward-sloping yield curves as resulting from the demand for long-term bonds being low relative to the demand for short-term bonds. C) explains upward-sloping yield curves as resulting from the favorable tax treatment of long-term bonds. D) is unable to account for upward-sloping yield curves.

B) explains upward-sloping yield curves as resulting from the demand for long-term bonds being low relative to the demand for short-term bonds.

All of the following are names for bonds receiving low ratings EXCEPT: A) junk. B) garbage. C) high yield. D) speculative.

B) garbage.

According to the liquidity premium theory: A) investors prefer longer to shorter maturities. B) investors prefer shorter to longer maturities. C) investors are indifferent between short and long maturities. D) investors are more interested in the tax treatment of bonds than they are in the liquidity of

B) investors prefer shorter to longer maturities.

The yield on a thirty-year Treasury bond is 8% at the same time as the yield on two-year Treasury note is 5%. This occurrence: A) indicates that the yield curve is downward sloping. B) is well explained by the segmented markets theory. C) is largely explained by the favorable tax treatment of Treasury notes. D) indicates that the bond market is anticipating that inflation will fall.

B) is well explained by the segmented markets theory

In 2016, as investors became more concerned with the default risk of bonds issued by the governments of Greece and Portugal relative to the default risk on bonds issued by the governments of Germany, France, and the Netherlands, the price of bonds issued by Greece and Portugal would have most likely ________ and the yield on those bonds would have most likely ________. A) increased; increased B) increased; decreased C) decreased; increased D) decreased; decreased

C) decreased; increased

If lenders anticipate no changes in liquidity, information costs, and tax differences, the yield on a risky security should be: A) greater than that on a safe security and the price of a risky security should also be greater than that of a safe security. B) less than that on a safe security and the price of a risky security should also be less than that of a safe security. C) greater than that on a safe security and the price of a risky security should be lower than that of a safe security. D) less than that on a safe security and the price of a risky security should be greater than that on a safe security.

C) greater than that on a safe security and the price of a risky security should be lower than that of a safe security.

The expectations theory: A) has difficulty explaining why U.S. Treasury securities have lower yields than corporate bonds. B) has difficulty explaining why yields on bonds of different maturities move together. C) has difficulty explaining why yield curves usually slope upward. D) accounts well for the fact that yield curves usually slope upward.

C) has difficulty explaining why yield curves usually slope upward.

The segmented markets theory: A) has difficulty explaining why yield curves usually slope up. B) has difficulty explaining why yield curves usually slope down. C) has difficulty explaining why yields on instruments of different maturities tend to move together. D) provides a good explanation of why yields on instruments of different maturities tend to move together.

C) has difficulty explaining why yields on instruments of different maturities tend to move together

In which of the following situations would a lender definitely pay a borrower interest in return for borrowing the lender's money? A) if the real interest rate was negative B) if the real interest rate was positive C) if the nominal interest rate was negative D) if the nominal interest rate was positive

C) if the nominal interest rate was negative

The implication of the expectations theory that expected returns for a holding period must be the same for bonds of different maturities depends on the assumption that: A) yield curves usually slope upward. B) yield curves usually slope downward. C) instruments with different maturities are perfect substitutes. D) savers are usually risk averse.

C) instruments with different maturities are perfect substitutes.

Following the downgrade of U.S. debt by Standard & Poor's in 2011: A) other rating agencies also downgraded U.S. debt. B) interest rates spiked as investor's perception of risk increased. C) investors didn't seem to be any more concerned about default risk than before the downgrade. D) the U.S. implemented a plan to significantly reduce its budget deficit later that year.

C) investors didn't seem to be any more concerned about default risk than before the downgrade.

When a company whose ability to repay its obligations in full is uncertain: A) it will have to issue debt with longer maturities than would a company with a lower probability of default. B) its bonds will sell for higher prices than would the bonds of a company with a lower probability of default. C) it must offer investors higher yields to compensate them for the risk they take in buying their bonds or making loans. D) it must do so through financial markets rather than through financial intermediaries.

C) it must offer investors higher yields to compensate them for the risk they take in buying their bonds or making loans.

In late 2008, the average risk premium rose because: A) investors feared a revival of inflation. B) large tax increases in the United States reduced corporate profits and led to fears of increased defaults. C) of the financial crisis. D) of fraud in the market for municipal bonds.

C) of the financial crisis.

Suppose that savers become much more willing to purchase a certain type of municipal bond. The result will be that the bond's price will: A) fall relative to the price of U.S. Treasury securities but rise relative to the price of corporate bonds. B) rise relative to the price of U.S. Treasury securities but fall relative to the price of corporate bonds. C) rise relative to the prices of U.S. Treasury securities and corporate bonds. D) fall relative to the prices of U.S. Treasury securities and corporate bonds.

C) rise relative to the prices of U.S. Treasury securities and corporate bonds.

Investors often pay professional analysts to gather and monitor information on the creditworthiness of borrowers because: A) federal law requires it. B) most investors are risk neutral. C) the cost of acquiring information about a borrower's creditworthiness can be high. D) doing so increases the net-of-tax yield on most investments.

C) the cost of acquiring information about a borrower's

Unlike the segmented markets theory, the expectations theory attributes the slope of the yield curve to: A) tax considerations. B) the fact that short-term bonds are not perfect substitutes for long-term bonds. C) the market's view of future short-term interest rates. D) the variance in the inflation rates over the business cycle.

C) the market's view of future short-term interest rates.

The risk structure of interest rates refers to: A) the amount of additional interest necessary to compensate savers for the greater risk of default on some bonds. B) the relationship among the interest rates on similar bonds with different maturities. C) the relationship among the interest rates on bonds with the same maturity. D) the amount of additional yield necessary to compensate savers for the lesser liquidity of some bonds.

C) the relationship among the interest rates on bonds with the same maturity.

The expectations theory suggests that: A) the yield curve should usually be upward-sloping. B) the yield curve should usually be downward-sloping. C) the slope of the yield curve depends on the expected future path of short-term rates. D) the slope of the yield curve reflects the risk premium incorporated into the yields on long-term bonds.

C) the slope of the yield curve depends on the expected future path of short-term rates.

The key assumption of the liquidity premium theory is that investors: A) view bonds of different maturities as perfect substitutes. B) view bonds of different maturities as completely unsubstitutable. C) always choose the bond with the highest expected return, regardless of maturity. D) care about both expected returns and time to maturity.

D) care about both expected returns and time to maturity.

Differences in the taxation of returns: A) only affect the yields of illiquid credit market instruments. B) have a negligible effect on the yields of credit market instruments. C) only affect the yields of high-information cost credit market instruments. D) create differences in yields among credit market instruments.

D) create differences in yields among credit market instruments.

For an institutional investor, if the expectations theory is correct, the average of the expected short-term interest rates over the life of the long-term investment should be roughly equal to the interest rate on the long term investment, which would: A) result in a positive level of profits from an interest-carry-trade strategy. B) result in an even higher-than-expected level of profits from an interest-carry-trade strategy. C) result in a high level of negative profits (losses) from an interest-carry-trade strategy. D) eliminate any potential profits from an interest-carry-trade strategy.

D) eliminate any potential profits from an interest-carry-trade strategy.

Suppose that savers become less willing to purchase medium-quality corporate bonds. The result will be that the prices of medium-quality corporate bonds will: A) fall relative to the price of U.S. Treasury securities, but rise relative to the price of high-quality corporate bonds. B) rise relative to the price of U.S. Treasury securities, but fall relative to the price of high-quality corporate bonds. C) rise relative to the prices of U.S. Treasury securities and high-quality corporate bonds. D) fall relative to the prices of U.S. Treasury securities and high-quality corporate bonds

D) fall relative to the prices of U.S. Treasury securities and high-quality corporate bonds

Bonds receiving one of the top four ratings are considered: A) junk. B) speculative. C) AAA. D) investment grade

D) investment grade

Situations of negative interest rates on short-term bonds resulted from: A) high income tax rates. B) government regulations requiring financial firms to purchase government bonds. C) very low risk premiums. D) investors looking for safe havens when other investments were perceived to be very risky

D) investors looking for safe havens when other investments were perceived to be very risky

Which theory explains all three facts about the term structure? A) expectations B) segmented markets C) preferential treatment D) liquidity premium

D) liquidity premium