EMT 100: Mod 5 Ch. 29

2: Approximately how many bones are in the human body? A) 206 B) 210 C) 204 D) 208

A) 206

14: What is the first step when applying a Hare traction splint? A) Expose the injured extremity. B) Apply manual traction. C) Assess distal pulse and motor function. D) Attach the ischial strap.

A) Expose the injured extremity.

A 76-year-old male experienced sudden pain to his left thigh when he was standing in line at the grocery store. Your assessment reveals ecchymosis and deformity to the distal aspect of his left femur, just above the knee. Distal circulation and sensory and motor functions are intact. The MOST appropriate method of splinting this injury involves: A) Binding the legs together and elevating them 6" to 8". B) Applying padded board splints to both sides of the leg. C) Applying a traction splint to realign the deformity. D) Applying and fully inflating the pneumatic antishock garment (PASG).

B) Applying padded board splints to both sides of the leg.

13: What is the first step in caring for an open fracture? A) Apply a rigid splint. B) Control bleeding. C) Attempt to realign the bone. D) Assess distal pulse.

B) Control bleeding.

The disruption of a joint in which the bone ends are no longer in contact is called a: A) Fracture. B) Dislocation. C) Sprain. D) Strain.

B) Dislocation.

4: A _________ fracture is a fracture where the bones are broken in more than two fragments. A) greenstick B) comminuted C) pathologic D) epiphyseal

B) comminuted

5: When ligaments are torn or stretched, it is called a: A) strain. B) sprain. C) dislocation. D) fracture.

B) sprain.

11: _________ is a grating or grinding sensation that can be felt and sometimes heard when fractured bone ends rub together. A) Greenstick B) Guarding C) Crepitus D) False movement

C) Crepitus

8: What type of splint should the EMT use when dealing with a broken femur? A) rigid B) air C) Hare traction D) vacuum

C) Hare traction

Which of the following fractures has the greatest potential for internal blood loss and shock? A) Hip. B) Femur. C) Pelvis. D) Humerus.

C) Pelvis.

1: Which of the following is not a type of muscle found in the body? A) cardiac B) skeletal C) joint D) smooth

C) joint

9: How should the EMT take care of a dislocated shoulder? A) Lift the arm straight out and splint it in place. B) Put the arm in a sling. C) Tie the arm against the chest with a triangle bandage. D) Pad between the arm and the chest and sling the arm.

D) Pad between the arm and the chest and sling the arm.

The act of pulling on a body structure in the direction of its normal alignment is called: A) Immobilization. B) Reduction. C) Stabilization. D) Traction.

D) Traction.

12: Orthopaedic injuries can lead to complications, including: A) infection. B) bleeding. C) long-term disability. D) all of the above

D) all of the above

6: When the EMT encounters a probable fracture, what should be assessed below the injury? A) pulse and capillary refill B) sensation and motor function C) respiratory rate D) both a and b

D) both a and b

A person who experiences a calcaneus fracture after jumping and landing on his or her feet would MOST likely experience an accompanying fracture of the: A) Lumbar spine. B) Symphysis pubis. C) Thoracic spine. D) Coccygeal spine.

A) Lumbar spine.

The MOST significant hazard associated with splinting is: A) Aggravation of the injury or worsened pain. B) Delaying transport of a critically injured patient. C) Reduction in circulation distal to the injury site. D) Compression of nerves, tissues, and vasculature.

B) Delaying transport of a critically injured patient.

Atrophy is a condition that occurs when: A) The tendons that attach muscle to bone become stretched or injured. B) Muscle decreases in size and function because of disease or trauma. C) Carbon dioxide, lactic acid, and other wastes accumulate in the muscle. D) Increased use of skeletal muscle causes an increase in its strength.

B) Muscle decreases in size and function because of disease or trauma.

The MOST reliable indicator of an underlying fracture is: A) Guarding. B) Point tenderness. C) Obvious bruising. D) Severe swelling.

B) Point tenderness.

A 22-year-old female was ejected from her car after striking a tree head-on. As you approach her, you note obvious closed deformities to both of her femurs. She is not moving and does not appear to be conscious. You should: A) Apply manual stabilization to both of her femurs. B) Stabilize her head and perform a primary assessment. C) Administer oxygen and perform a rapid assessment. D) Assess for a carotid pulse and assist her ventilations.

B) Stabilize her head and perform a primary assessment.

10: When splinting a hip fracture, what should the EMT apply between the patient's legs? A) ice B) a pad C) a rigid board D) heat

B) a pad

7: When a rigid splint is in use, the EMT should apply _________ to the splint to prevent local pressure and discomfort. A) ice B) padding C) eat D) traction

B) padding

A 31-year-old male fell and landed on his left elbow. Your assessment reveals that the elbow is grossly deformed, his forearm is cool and pale, and the distal pulse on the side of the injury is barely palpable. His vital signs are stable and he denies any other injuries. Your transport time to the closest appropriate hospital is approximately 15 minutes. You should: A) Gently manipulate the elbow to improve circulation. B) Apply a heat pack to the elbow to reduce swelling. C) Splint the elbow in the position found and transport. D) Gently straighten the elbow and apply an air splint.

C) Splint the elbow in the position found and transport.

15: Which of the following is not a contraindication to the use of the pneumatic antishock garment (PASG)? A) pregnancy B) groin injury C) pelvis fracture D) pulmonary edema

C) pelvis fracture

3: A _________ is any break in the bone surface. A) dislocation B) sprain C) strain D) fracture

D) fracture