EMT Chapter 32 Orthopaedic Injuries

Bone marrow produces: A. blood cells. B. lymphocytes. C. electrolytes. D. platelets.

A. blood cells

A "hip" fracture is actually a fracture of the: A. proximal femur. B. pelvic girdle. C. pubic symphysis. D. femoral shaft.

A. proximal femur

Applying ice to and elevating an injured extremity are performed to: A. reduce pain and swelling. B. prevent further injury. C. enhance tissue circulation. D. maintain extremity perfusion.

A. reduce pain and swelling

Which of the following joints allows no motion? Select one: A. Sacroiliac joint B. Skull sutures C. Shoulder joint D. Sternoclavicular joint

B skull sutures

In general, musculoskeletal injuries should be splinted before moving the patient unless: Select one: A. deformity and swelling are present. B. the patient is clinically unstable. C. transport time is less than 15 minutes. D. the patient is in severe pain.

B the patient is clinically unstable

Common signs and symptoms of a sprain include all of the following, except: A. swelling. B. deformity. C. guarding. D. ecchymosis.

B, deformity

Traction splints primarily immobilize and secure fractures of the: A. humerus. B. femur. C. hip. D. pelvis.

B, femur

In moving joints, the ends of the bones are covered with: A. synovial tendons. B. articular cartilage. C. gliding cartilage. D. muscular fascia.

B. articular cartilage

The disruption of a joint in which the bone ends are no longer in contact is called a: A. sprain. B. dislocation. C. fracture. D. strain.

B. dislocation

A person who experiences a calcaneus fracture after jumping and landing on his or her feet would most likely experience an accompanying fracture of the: A. coccygeal spine. B. lumbar spine. C. thoracic spine. D. symphysis pubis

B. lumbar spine

A ____________ is a musculoskeletal injury in which there is partial or temporary separation of the bone ends as well as partial stretching or tearing of the supporting ligaments. A. Dislocation B. Sprain C. Fracture D. Strain

B. sprain

You and your partner are preparing to apply a traction splint to a patient's deformed thigh. As you apply manual traction, the patient resists your efforts and states that the pain is getting worse. You should: A. flex the knee and place a pillow under the thigh. B. stop and splint the leg in the deformed position. C. assess distal pulses and continue pulling traction. D. gently massage the thigh muscles to relax them.

B. stop and splint the leg in the deformed position

In which of the following situations should the EMT splint an injured limb in the position of deformity? A. If a traction splint will be used to immobilize the injured extremity B. When distal circulation and neurological functions are absent C. If resistance is encountered or the patient experiences severe pain D. If transport time to the hospital is greater than 20 to 30 minutes

C. if resistance is encountered or the patient experiences severe pain

The most reliable indicator of an underlying fracture is: A. severe swelling. B. obvious bruising. C. point tenderness. D. guarding.

C. point tenderness

The pectoral girdle consists of the: A. sternum and scapulae. B. clavicles and rib cage. C. scapulae and clavicles. D. acromion and clavicles.

C. scapulae and clavicles

Which of the following statements regarding striated muscle is correct? Select one: A. Most of the body's striated muscle is found within the walls of the blood vessels. B. Striated muscle is involuntary because you have no conscious control over it. C. Striated muscle tissue is attached directly to the bones by tough bands of cartilage. D. It forms the major muscle mass of the body and usually crosses at least one joint.

D it forms the major muscle amss of the body and usually crosses at least one joint

Which of the following fractures has the greatest potential for internal blood loss and shock? Select one: A. Hip B. Femur C. Humerus D. Pelvis

D pelvis

An open fracture is most accurately defined as a fracture in which: A. a bullet or other projectile shatters the underlying bone. B. fractured bone ends protrude through the skin. C. the bone is broken but does not penetrate the skin. D. an external wound is present over the fracture site.

D. an external wound is present over the fracture site

A 76-year-old male experienced sudden pain to his left thigh when he was standing in line at the grocery store. Your assessment reveals ecchymosis and deformity to the distal aspect of his left femur, just above the knee. Distal circulation and sensory and motor functions are intact. You should: A. apply a traction splint to realign the deformity. B. bind the legs together and elevate them six feet to eight feet. C. flex the knee slightly and apply a formable splint. D. apply padded board splints to both sides of the leg.

D. apply padded board splints to both sides of the leg

A 17-year-old female dislocated her patella while playing soccer. Her knee is flexed, and she complains of severe pain. You should: Select one: A. make one attempt to return the patella to its normal position. B. gently straighten her knee and apply a padded board splint. C. flex her knee slightly more and assess for distal circulation. D. keep her knee flexed and secure it with padded board splints.

D. keep her knee flexed and secure it with padded baord splints

Care for a patient with a fractured tibia and suspected compartment syndrome includes: A. immobilizing the leg with an air splint. B. applying traction to maintain distal pulses. C. applying chemical hot packs to the leg. D. keeping the leg at the level of the heart.

D. keeping the leg at the level of the heart

Which of the following statements regarding shoulder dislocations is correct? A. They are caused by forced arm adduction. B. Posterior dislocations are most common. C. They involve the acromion process and humerus. D. Most shoulder dislocations occur anteriorly.

D. most shoulders dislocations occur anteriorly

The most common and significant complication associated with fractures or dislocations of the knee is: A. internal bleeding and shock. B. total depletion of synovial fluid. C. ligament and cartilage damage. D. neurovascular compromise.

D. neurovascular compromise

A 22-year-old female was ejected from her car after striking a tree head-on. As you approach her, you note obvious closed deformities to both of her femurs. She is not moving and does not appear to be conscious. You should: A. administer oxygen and perform a rapid assessment. B. assess for a carotid pulse and assist her ventilations. C. apply manual stabilization to both of her femurs. D. stabilize her head and perform a primary assessment.

D. stabilize her head and perform a primary assessment

During your secondary assessment of a 30-year-old male who fell 25 feet, you note crepitus when palpating his pelvis. Your partner advises you that the patient's blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg, and his heart rate is 120 beats/min and weak. After completing your assessment, you should: A. perform a focused physical exam with emphasis on the pelvis. B. defer spinal immobilization and transport to a trauma center. C. log roll the patient onto a long backboard and transport at once. D. stabilize the pelvis with a pelvic binder and protect the spine.

D. stabilize the pelvis with a pelvic binder and protect the spine

Skeletal muscle is also referred to as __________ muscle. A. involuntary B. smooth C. connective D. striated

D. striated

If a dislocated shoulder has spontaneously reduced before your arrival, the only way to confirm the injury is by noting: A. distal circulation. B. the presence of deformity. C. bruising to the shoulder. D. the patient history.

D. the patient history

When assessing a patient with a possible fracture of the leg, the EMT should: Select one: A. compare it to the uninjured leg. B. carefully move it to elicit crepitus. C. ask the patient to move the injured leg. D. assess proximal circulation.

a compare it to the uninjured leg

Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would most likely result in deformity? Select one: A. Displaced fracture B. Severe strain C. Moderate sprain D. Hairline fracture

a displaced fracture

Of the following musculoskeletal injuries, which is the least severe? Select one: A. Nondisplaced pelvic fracture B. Open fractures of a long bone C. Multiple closed long bone fractures D. An amputation of an extremity

a nondisplaced pelvic fracture

When splinting a possible fracture of the foot, it is most important for the EMT to: Select one: A. leave the toes exposed. B. observe for tissue swelling. C. apply a pneumatic splint. D. use a pillow as a splint.

a. leave the toes exposed

Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would pose the greatest threat to a patient's life? Select one: A. Bilateral femur fractures B. Pelvic fracture with hypotension C. An amputated extremity D. Nondisplaced long bone fractures

b pelvic fracture with hypotension

Crepitus and false motion are: Select one: A. indicators of a severe sprain. B. positive indicators of a fracture. C. most common with dislocations. D. only seen with open fractures.

b positive indicators of a fracture

A 31-year-old male fell and landed on his left elbow. Your assessment reveals that the elbow is grossly deformed, his forearm is cool and pale, and the distal pulse is barely palpable. His vital signs are stable, and he denies any other injuries. Your transport time to the closest appropriate hospital is approximately 12 minutes. You should: Select one: A. gently straighten the elbow and apply an air splint. B. splint the elbow in the position found and transport. C. gently manipulate the elbow to improve circulation. D. apply a heat pack to the elbow to reduce swelling.

b splint the elbow in the position found and transport

The most commonly fractured bone(s) in the body is the: Select one: A. midshaft femur. B. scapula. C. clavicle. D. radius and ulna.

c clavicle

A supracondylar or intercondylar fracture is also known as a fracture of the: Select one: A. proximal radius. B. radial head. C. distal humerus. D. olecranon process.

c distal humerus

Bones are connected to other bones by bands of tough fibrous tissues called: Select one: A. tendons. B. bursa. C. ligaments. D. cartilage.

c ligaments

A 45-year-old female was the unrestrained passenger of a small car that rear-ended another vehicle at a moderate rate of speed. She is conscious and alert but complains of pain to both of her knees. There is visible damage to the dashboard on the passenger's side of the vehicle. In addition to fractures or dislocations of the knees, you should be mostsuspicious for: Select one: A. a thoracic spine fracture. B. fracture of the tibia or fibula. C. posterior hip dislocation. D. anterior hip dislocation.

c posterior hip dislocation

Which of the following scenarios is an example of a direct injury? Select one: A. A skier dislocates his knee after a twisting injury to the ankle. B. A child dislocates his elbow after falling on his outstretched arm. C. A person lands on his or her feet and fractures the lumbar spine. D. A passenger fractures her patella after it strikes the dashboard.

d a passenger fractures her patella after its strikes the dashboard

A 30-year-old man complains of severe pain to his right tibia after an injury that occurred the day before. The patient's leg is pale, and he is unable to move his foot. The EMT should suspect that: Select one: A. a severe infection has developed in the muscle. B. the nerves supplying the foot have been severed. C. the nerves behind the knee are compromised. D. pressure in the fascial compartment is elevated.

d pressure in the fascial compartment is elevated